b.

Consider an energy flux of F = 1.4W/m2 = 1.4kg/s3 (such as that from the sun at the earth’s mean radius) and a solar sail
of mass of 1g/m2 = .01kg/m2 of area and negligeable other weight. The field energy per unit volume (and thus the pressure)
is then F/c and the maximum acceleration of the sail (that is, normal incidence with no losses) will be
1.4 m ∼
a= = 4.67 × 10−7 m/s2 (10)
.01(3 × 10 ) s2
8

As for the solar wind, the average pressure of the solar wind is approximately1 2 nP a = 2 × 10−9 kg/ms2 . Thus, the
acceleration due to the solar wind is

2 × 10−9
m/s2 = 2 × 10−7 m/s2 (11)
.01
So, these two accelerations are comparable, about a factor of 2 different.

6.16
a.
2π~
The minimum magnetic charge of a dirac monopole is g = e . The generalized lorentz force law (from problem 6.17) is

F = qe E + qm B/µ0 + qe v × B − qm v × 0 E (12)
Finally, the magnetic field in the median plane of a magnetic dipole (directly above the dipole) of dipole moment e~/2mp ẑ
is.
e~µ0
B(ρ) = ẑ (13)
6mp πρ3
So that the force on the magnetic monopole (at rest) is

~2 (1.055 × 10−34 m2 kgs−1 )2

F= ẑ = → −3.529 × 10−33 N (14)
3mp ρ 3 3(1.673 × 10−27 kg)π(.5 × 10−10 m)
In the ẑ direction. Whoa, thats tiny. Now, the work done in moving this thing in from infinity is this, integrated to
infnity which gives

V = 8.82 × 10−24 J ∼
= 10−5 ev
Which is much less than the binding energy of an electron to a hydrogen nucleus, for example.

Also, it turns out that the median plane is actually the other plane but fortunately due to the form of the magnetic dipole
field, the“real” answer is just this one, divided by −2, or

F = 1.7645 × 10−33 N (15)

b.
If we use the binding energy above (an ok order of magnitude estimate despite the fact that it as in the wrong position), the
energy of this interaction is on the order of the hyperfine splitting2 ( 4.5 × 10−5 ev). It is also waay smaller than the spin
orbit splitting in a typical atom (.0021 ev in sodium)

6.20
Consider the dipole source (of unit strength and moment in the z direction) described by

ρ(x, t) = δ(x)δ(y)δ 0 (z)δ(t) (16)

0
Jz (x, t) = −δ(x)δ(y)δ(z)δ (t) (17)
1 At least is has been for the last fifty years. See http://wattsupwiththat.com/2009/06/09/solar-wind-flow-pressure-another-indication-of-solar-

downtrend/
2 http://hyperphysics.phy-astr.gsu.edu/hbase/quantum/sodzee.html#c1

3
a.
Using equation (6.23) we see that the instantaneous coloumb potential is

ρ(x0 , t) 3 0
Z
1
Φ(x, t) = d x (18)
4π0 |x − x0 |
δ 0 (z)
Z
1
= δ(t) p dz 0 (19)
4π0 x2 + y 2 + (z − z 0 )2
δ(z)(z − z 0 )
Z
1
=− δ(t) dz 0 (20)
4π0 (x + y 2 + (z − z 0 )2 )3/2
2

1 z
=− δ(t) 3 (21)
4π0 r
(22)

b.
Recall that the transverse and lognitudinal currents are defined by the equation

J = Jl + Jt , with ∇ × Jl = 0 and ∇ · Jt = 0 (23)

The easiest way to find the transverse current, it seems, will be to calculate the lngitudinal current from equation (6.29)
and subtract it from the total current. This gives
∂Φ 1 z
Jl = 0 ∇ = − δ 0 (t)∇ 3 . (24)
∂t 4π r
So that the transverse current is

 
1 z
Jt = −δ 0 (t) ẑ δ(x) − ∇ 3 (25)
4π r
 
1 1 zx zy 1 zz
= −δ 0 (t) ẑδ(x) − δ(x)ẑ − (−3 4 , −3 4 , 3 − 3 4 ) (26)
3 4π r r r r
 
2 ẑ zr̂
= −δ 0 (t) ẑδ(x) − +3 (27)
3 4πr3 4πr3
(28)

c.
We will proceed by first putting Jt in the form
  
0 1 ∂ 1
Jt = −δ (t) ẑδ(x) + ∇ (29)
4π ∂z r
In the coloumb gauge, the vector potential satisfies the wave equation

1 ∂2A
∇2 A − = −µ0 Jt (30)
c2 ∂t2
Since the vector potential is in the form of a wave equation, which is causal, and the E and B fields follow directly from
the vector potential by equation (6.31) in Jackson, the fields are indeed Causal.

We’re gonna do this by fourier transforming the vector potential and transverse current in the time coordinate in order
to get rid of those pesky delta functions. This gives us

ω2
∇2 Ã + Ã = −µ0 J̃t (31)
c2   
ω 1 ∂ 1
J̃t = −i ẑδ(x) + ∇ (32)
2π 4π ∂z r

4
 This is the helmholtz equation with k ≡ ω/c and solution3
∞ Z
X φn (r)φn (r0 )
Ã(x, y, z, ω) = d3 x0 J̃t (33)
n=0
k 2 − kn2

where the φ are the solutions to the homogenious holmholtz equation

∞
X
φn (r, θ, φ) = (al jl (nr) + bl yl (nr))Pl (θ) (34)
l=0

and we have chosen only the m = 0 solutions since the source is azimuthally symmetric and the j and y are the sherical
bessel functions. Now we ought to expand the current in spherical bessel functions. The delta function is easy, since the
bessel functions are complete. I suppose alternatively we could note that the greens function of the helmholtz equation gives
us a solution
0
eik|x−x |
Z
µ0
Ã(x, ω) = d3 x J̃t (35)
4π |x − x0 |
So that we can write

0
eik|x−x |
Z
µ0
Ã(x, ω) = d3 x J̃t (36)
4π |x − x0 |
0 
eik|x−x | 2
Z  
iωµ0 3 1 ∂ 1
=− d x ẑδ(x) + ∇ (37)
4π |x − x0 | 3 4π ∂z r
ik|x−x0 |
 !
eikr 2
Z 
µ0 e 1 ∂ 1
= −iω ẑ + d3 x ∇ (38)
4π r 3 |x − x0 | 4π ∂z r
 ikr Z   
µ0 e 2 0 1 ∂ 1
= −iω ẑ − d3 x eik|x−x | r̂ · ∇(|x − x0 |) ∇ (39)
4π r 3 4π ∂z r
 ikr Z   
µ0 e 2 3 ik|x−x0 | 1 ∂ 1
= −iω ẑ − d x e (2 + ∇(r̂ψ)) ∇ (40)
4π r 3 4π ∂z r
 ikr Z   
µ0 e 2 3 ik|x−x0 | 1 ∂ 1
= −iω ẑ − d x e (2 + ∇(r̂ψ)) ∇ (41)
4π r 3 4π ∂z r
(42)

Lets focus on the second term in integral

Z    Z   
0 1 ∂ 1 0 1 ∂ 1
d3 x eik|x−x | ∇(r̂|x − x0 |) ∇ = d3 x ∇(r̂|x − x0 |)∇eik|x−x | ∇ (43)
4π ∂z r 4π ∂z r
∂ 0
= 0 (r̂|x − x0 |)eik|x−x | |x0 =0 (44)
Z∂z   
0 1 ∂ 1
+ d3 x (r̂|x − x0 |)∇(eik|x−x | ) ∇ (45)
4π ∂z r
(46)

Ok. I give up... for now.

3 http://mathworld.wolfram.com/GreensFunctionHelmholtzDifferentialEquation.html