Acn MCQ
Acn MCQ
Acn MCQ
a) Autopilot
b) Flight Management System
c) FBW system
d) FBL system
2. Which of the following is not one of the functions performed by the FMS?
a) Automatic navigation and guidance including ‘4D’ navigation
b) Management of aircraft systems
c) Efficient management of fuel
d) Housekeeping management
6. What is the reason for choosing height error gain in such a way that the frequency of
height loop is below the bandwidth of the pitch attitude loop?
a) Efficient flight
b) Better Range
c) Stable and damped response
d) Better climb rate
7. What is in for a heading control system?
a) Rate of change of heading
b) Bank angle
c) Side slip angle
d) Required rudder deflection
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9. What is ILS?
a) Instrument landing system
b) Indian Levitation System
c) Indian Landing system
d) International Levitation system
10. Which one of the following can provide a reliable and accurate approach path guidance in
category II visibility conditions?
a) ILS
b) MLS
c) SBAS
d) VHF
11. What are the two main components of an ILS on the ground?
a) Horizontal alignment transmitter and vertical alignment transmitter
b) Localizer transmitter and glide slope transmitter
c) Center line transmitter and glide slope transmitter
d) Center line transmitter and approach slope transmitter
14. The use of autopilot for landing using ILS does not depend on _______
a) Visibility category
b) ILS ground installation standard
c) Runway lighting installation
d) Weight of the aircraft
18. MLS has a wide selection of channels to avoid interference with nearby airports
a) True
b) False
22. What is the position accuracy that can be achieved by satellite guidance systems?
a) 10 m
b) 5 m
c) 0.5 m
d) 1 m
23. What is the beam error in localizer for aircraft CG displacement of 5m at a range of
1,500m?
a) 0.0033 RAD
b) 3.3 RAD
c) 0 RAD
d) 5 RAD
Hint: Y = displacement / range
27. Which one of the following is not a basic parameter used to define visibility category?
a) Decision height
b) Minimum vertical visibility
c) Runway length
d) Runway visual range
28. Which of the following is not one of the operational limits and autopilot requirement for a
category IIIc visibility condition?
a) Runway guidance required to taxi point
b) Fully automatic landing system with flare
c) Probability of catastrophic failure of less than 10−7 per hour required
d) Decision height of 5m
32. What is HREF in the control law used for auto flare?
a) Height when flare is initiated
b) Height where flare should be initiated
c) Maximum height where flare can be initiated
d) Small negative height
33. The final approach path in a satellite landing guidance can be curved
a) True
b) False
35. The response of a jet engine thrust to the throttle angle is instantaneous.
a) True
b) False
39. Which of the following is not a way cockpit-flight crew interfaces in the FMS?
a) Primary Flight Display
b) MultiFunction Display
c) Keyboard and Cursor Control Unit
d) Target Detection and Locking System
40. What type of cockpit flight crew interface is used to enter or modify the data on the
MFD?
a) Keyboard and Cursor Control Unit
b) Control stick
c) Control Switches
d) Control levers
43. What operating mode of the FMS does the figure show?
a) Double mode
b) Independent mode
c) Single mode
d) Redundancy mode
44. Both FMS 1 & 2 get information from only one FMC in the case of ______
a) Independent mode
b) Loss of one FMC
c) Single mode
d) Double mode
45. The standby FMC performs calculations even when both the FMC are fully functional.
a) True
b) False
46. What filter is used by the FMS to estimate the position of the aircraft from various
sensors?
a) Kalman filter
b) Position error filter
c) GPS filter
d) Gyro and accelerometer filter
47. What is the output for the following system?
a) Aircraft position
b) All the fight data
c) Gyro and accelerometer values
d) Warning signals for wrong navigation
48. Which one of the following is not a navigation mode used by FMS for computing
position of the aircraft?
a) Inertial (IRS) – GPS
b) Inertial (IRS) – DME/DME
c) Inertial (IRS) – VOR/DME
d) GPS only
49. Navigational functions are no longer available if the INS shuts down in an FMS.
a) True
b) False
50. What is the interval for updating data in the navigation database?
a) 1 hour
b) 1 month
c) 24 hours
d) 28 days
51. Which one of the following is not a factor for calculating speed breaches by the FMS?
a) Aircraft weight
b) CG position
c) Wind and temperature models
d) Position of the aircraft
52. What is the number of components of the vector that describes the translational motion of
the vehicle?
a) 6
b) 3
c) 2
d) 1
53. What is the process called when the state vector is calculated on board the vehicle?
a) Navigation
b) Guidance
c) Surveillance
d) Position location
54. Which type of navigation measure the state vector without regard to the path travelled by
the vehicle in the past?
a) Dead reckoning
b) Positioning
c) Direct reckoning
d) AHRS
55. Which one of the following does not fall under the positioning system?
a) Radio systems
b) Celestial systems
c) AHRS
d) Mapping navigation systems
60. What is the speed at which the takeoff is aborted when there is an engine failure?
a) Decision speed
b) Stall speed
c) Rotational speed
d) Takeoff speed
61. The distance the aircraft has to cover in the ground to achieve takeoff speed is called?
a) Ground roll
b) Take off distance
c) Runway length
d) Airborne distance
62. The distance the aircraft climbs to clear an obstacle of particular height during takeoff is
called as?
a) Ground roll
b) Take off distance
c) Runway length
d) Airborne distance
64. The velocity at which yawing motion can be produced by rudder deflection while the
aircraft is on the ground is called _______
a) Ground roll speed
b) Ground control speed
c) Minimum control speed on the ground
d) Control speed
66. The height at which approach is aborted when the runway is not in sight is called as?
a) Decision height
b) Approach altitude
c) Clearance altitude
d) Landing altitude
67. A non-precision approach has electronic guidance in only in the horizontal direction.
a) True
b) False
68. What instrument is used to measure the aircraft’s altitude during the approach phase?
a) Pressure altimeter
b) Radio altimeter
c) Sound altimeter
d) Infrared altimeter
69. Which of the following conditions does not lead to missed approaches?
a) Poor visibility
b) Excess fuel
c) Alignment with runway
d) Traffic
70. The navigation equations are used by the on-board computer to calculate position velocity
and altitude.
a) True
b) False
71. Which one of the following is not an input utilized by the aircraft navigation system?
a) Sonar
b) Radio aids
c) Dead reckoning data
d) Celestial measurements
72. What is the angle between the normal to the reference ellipsoid and the equatorial plane at
a point called?
a) Geodetic angle
b) Correction factor
c) Geodetic latitude
d) Earth angle
73. Which of the following is false with respect to Earth centered inertial coordinate system?
a) Accuracy is 10-5/hr
b) Newton’s laws are not valid
c) Angular coordinates of stars are conventionally tabulated in ECI
d) Used in mechanizing inertial navigators
75. Geocentric spherical coordinates are used for short range dead reckoning navigation.
a) True
b) False
76. What is the technique of calculating position from measurements of velocity called?
a) Dead reckoning
b) Doppler radar
c) Secondary surveillance
d) Celestial navigation
77. The angle of arrival, relative to the airframe, of a radio signal from an external transmitter
is called _________
a) Bearing
b) Heading
c) Phase
d) Approach angle
78. ________ related ranging errors to the dispersion in measured position?
a) GEOP
b) GDCP
c) GDOP
d) APEG
80. Received radio energy is a function of the area of the receiving antenna.
a) True
b) False
81. The ratio of terminating impedance to the power density of the incident wave is called as?
a) Maximum effective aperture
b) Maximum allowable power
c) Directivity
d) Gain
82. The factor by which a receiver fails to reach the theoretical internal noise limit is known
as ________
a) Noise factor
b) Noise
c) Coefficient of noise
d) Noise figure
83. What is the maximum limit on the frequency that can be used for ground wave
communication?
a) 6MHz
b) 2MHz
c) 5MHz
d) 3MHz
88. The effect of signal simultaneously taking different paths to reach the receiver is called as
_______
a) Multipath effects
b) Differential path effects
c) Propagation noise
d) Atmospheric distortion
89. ______ is the error in determining position relative to an earth referenced coordinate
system?
a) Absolute error
b) Repeatable error
c) Relative error
d) Differential error
90. The method in which the user’s receiver and the reference station are assumed not to be
synchronized in time is called as _______
a) Redundancy method
b) Pseudoranging
c) Integrity method
d) Differential method
91. Which type of direction finders takes bearings on airborne transmitters and advice the
aircraft of its bearing from the ground station?
a) Ground based
b) Airborne direction finders
c) Homing adapters
d) Homing beacon
92. Which of the following is not true with respect to airborne direction finder?
a) They are also called homing adapters
b) Uses the simplest of systems
c) Very low error
d) Take bearings on the ground transmitter
93. Which of the following type of direction finder has a system that rotates the loop, using a
servo system until a null is found?
a) Fixed loop
b) Rotatable loop
c) Rotating loop
d) Fixed, crossed loop
94. Which of the following is not true with respect to loop antennas?
a) Horizontal polarization is assumed
b) Resonance is achieved by a variable capacitor
c) The horizontal antenna pattern is a figure of eight
d) The currents are equal in amplitude and phase when the antenna is 90° with the transmitted
signal
96. What is used to combine the output of the two fixed loop antenna that are placed at right
angles to each other?
a) Oscilloscope
b) Spectrum analyzer
c) Mixer
d) Goniometer
97. The area of reduced signal strength in a non directional beacon is called as ______
a) Cone of silence
b) Zero reception zone
c) Zone of silence
d) Non radio zone
99. What frequency does the marker beacon use for fixes along the airways?
a) 50MHz
b) 25MHz
c) 500MHz
d) 75MHz
100. Which of the following can be used to reinforce the upward beam in a marker beacon?
a) Reflector
b) Amplifier
c) Counterpoise
d) Vertical polarization
103. What is the time gap between each pulse in an interrogation pulse pair for a DME?
a) 12µsec
b) 5µsec
c) 15µsec
d) 10µsec
104. Why are pulse pairs used in DME instead of single pulses?
a) Reduce interference
b) Better range
c) Reduced noise
d) Redundancy
106. Hyperbolic navigational systems are called so because of their hyperbolic lines of
position.
a) True
b) False
111. What is the minimum number of transmitter stations required for a Loran system?
a) 3
b) 2
c) 1
d) 5
112. Which technique, in Loran, allows the use of single transmitter station in two chains?
a) Blinking
b) Blanking
c) Pulsing
d) Continuous wave transmission
115. The short term propagation effects caused by local weather changes are called as
______________
a) Seasonal
b) Temporal
c) Diurnal
d) Noise
116. What is the process of ensuring that the receiver works on ground waves?
a) PGTR identification
b) ECD
c) HCG
d) TOPCO
117. Which of the following is not a function of the monitoring facility in Omega systems?
a) Monitor performance
b) Acts as relays
c) Provide data to phase synchronize the stations
d) Detect solar terrestrial events
118. Which of the following is false with respect to Omega systems?
a) Four common transmitted signal frequencies
b) One unique frequency for each station
c) 0.2 sec separation between each of eight transmissions
d) Constant length transmission periods
119. Which of the following techniques reduces the diurnal variation but does little effect on
the phase behaviour of signal of equal path length over different environments?
a) Composite Omega
b) Propagation corrections
c) PPC
d) Subtracting the signal phases at two of the frequencies
120. What is the region in which Omega signals are confined according to VLF wave guide
model known as?
a) Earth-Atmosphere wave guide
b) Sea-Ionosphere wave guide
c) Earth-Sea wave guide
d) Earth-Ionosphere wave guide
121. What is the region in which Omega signals are confined according to VLF wave guide
model known as?
a) Earth-Atmosphere wave guide
b) Sea-Ionosphere wave guide
c) Earth-Sea wave guide
d) Earth-Ionosphere wave guide
126. Which of the following methods breaks the signal into finite segments to find the ASF?
a) Millington’s method
b) Bill’s method
c) Differential method
d) Table look up process
127. What is the number of systems used for redundancy in a transmitting station?
a) 2
b) 1
c) 5
d) 3
128. Which of the following derives all the signals needed by the transmitter from the timer?
a) PATCO
b) ECD
c) HCG
d) TOPCO
129. In Omega system, a given frequency is transmitted by only one station at any given
time.
a) True
b) False
130. HCGs are the power generators of the Loran-C transmitter stations.
a) True
b) False
137. Which of the following is the most fundamental for satellite navigation?
a) Power source in satellite
b) Position and acceleration of satellite
c) Distance from the Earth
d) Total number of satellites in the sky
138. What is the line connecting the intersection of the orbital plane with the Earth’s
equatorial plane called?
a) Critical point
b) Intersection plane
c) Line of nodes
d) Differential line
139. When the satellite crosses the equatorial plane from the southerly latitude to the
northerly, the point is called descending node.
a) True
b) False
140. What is the number of independent constants required to specify the nominal orbit?
a) 6
b) 5
c) 2
d) 7
141. The line connecting the perigee and apogee is called as?
a Differential line
b) Line of apsides
c) Line of maximum reception
d) Overhead line
142. Which of the following is not one of the perturbations that make the satellite to vary
from its elliptical path?
a) Solar activity
b) Asymmetrical components of Earth’s gravitational field
c) Air drag
d) Motion of a passing comet
143. The clocks are important in satellite navigation as they are potential sources of error.
a) True
b) False
148. What happens to the satellite signals as the density of the ionosphere is high?
a) Velocity increases
b) Velocity decreases
c) Signal strength increases
d) Frequency reduces
149. What is the increase in velocity of the signal by the ionosphere termed as?
a) Differential velocity
b) Velocity advance
c) Phase advance
d) Signal advance
154. What is the approximate time taken by the GPS for one complete orbit?
a) 11 minutes
b) 45 minutes
c) 5 hours
d) 12 hours
155. What is the reason for sending two transmissions in the same band?
a) Redundancy
b) Ionosphere refraction corrections
c) Multiplexing
d) Reducing traffic
156. Which of the following position services provided by the GPS require crypto keys?
a) Precise position service
b) Standard position service
c) Ultimate position service
d) Doppler position service
157. The intentional degradation of GPS signal in specific areas is called ________
a) Selective degradation
b) Selective availability
c) Distributed GPD
d) Signal jamming
165. What is the spectral separation between each satellite L1 signal in the GLONASS?
a) 50kHz
b) 2MHz
c) 1240MHz
d) 562.5kHz
166. What are the frequency channels that GLONASS use for normal operation?
a) i=-7 to +4
b) i=+5 to +12
c) i=-7 to +12
d) i=-2 to +7
167. Why was the frequency channel used by the GLONASS shifted down after 2005?
a) Political issue
b) Less power requirements
c) Avoid future MSS interference
d) Reduce atmospheric interference
168. L1 and L2 signals are both contain PRN and navigational data.
a) True
b) False
170. What are the frequency channels that GLONASS use as a technical channel?
a) i=-7 and +4
b) i=+5 and +6
c) i=-7 and +12
d) i=-2 and +7
171. GLONASS time and GPS time follows leap the second correction.
a) True
b) False
172. What is the spectral separation between each satellite L2 signal in the GLONASS?
a) 437.5kHz
b) 2MHz
c) 1240MHz
d) 562.5kHz
175. What is the output given by an accelerometer if the instrument is accelerated upward
with an acceleration of 7g?
a) 5g
b) 8g
c) 6g
d) 6.5g
176. Which accelerometer uses torquer coil and pick off supported by a flexure to measure
acceleration?
a) MEMS accelerometer
b) Flexure pivot accelerometer
c) Vibrating beam accelerometer
d) Mechanical accelerometer
178. Why do accelerometers that include fluid damping exhibit reduced damping?
a) State of fluid
b) Density
c) Pressure
d) Thermal characters
180. Which of the following is true with respect to flexure pivot accelerometers?
a) Flexure must provide maximum resistance in the direction of input axis
b) Flexure must provide maximum resistance in the direction other than input axis
c) Torquer coil current measures the acceleration
d) Unbalanced accelerometer type
182. What does silicon accelerometers use for proof mass sensing and for rebalancing?
a) Pivot
b) Flexure
c) Metalised wafers
d) Single crystal silicon frame
183. Which type of rebalancing technique use voltage applied to pendulum and electrode for
correction?
a) Charge forcing
b) Voltage forcing
c) Current forcing
d) Potential forcing
184. What is the purpose of a gyro in an inertial navigation system?
a) Space-stabilize the accelerometer
b) Angle of rotation
c) Measure rotation rate
d) Calculate velocity
185. What is the range of an order of angular rate magnitude that gyros used in military
planes need?
a) 8
b) 8.5
c) 7.1
d) 3
186. Why are unfloated instruments with ball bearings not suitable for air navigation?
a) Weight restrictions
b) High drift rate
c) Low drift rate
d) Power restrictions
187. Which of the following is false with respect to SDF floated gyros?
a) Wheel is floated at neutral buoyancy
b) Used in launch vehicles
c) Three gimbals are used
d) Magnetic pickoff used to sense rotation
188. Which of the following spinning wheel gyro has an accuracy of 0.001 deg/hr?
a) Floated TDF gyro
b) Electrostatically suspended TDF gyro
c) Floated SDF gyro
d) Unfloated ball bearing gyro
189. The input, output and spin axes of a gyro are always perpendicular to each other.
a) True
b) False
190. Which of the following is false with respect to spinning rotor gyros?
a) Mechanically complex
b) High probability of failure
c) Low run up time
d) High power consumption
191. What is the basic principle under which MEMS gyro work?
a) Sagnag effect
b) Coriolis effect
c) Angular momentum conservation
d) Mass conservation
192. Which part of the insects acts as gyros?
a) Wings
b) Halteres
c) Thorax
d) Legs
196. Why is a tuning fork gyro better than the vibrating cylinder type gyro?
a) Reduce base motion
b) Low power consumption
c) Easy to manufacture
d) Low run up time
197. Which type of gyros works by calculating the difference in time taken by light to travel
in a closed circle?
a) Ring laser gyro
b) MEMS gyro
c) Floated gyro
d) Dry tuned gyro
199. Which of the following type of gyro works by counting the nodes of standing waves of
laser beams?
a) Ring laser gyro
b) Optical fiber gyro
c) Dry tuned gyro
d) Floated gyro
200. A fiber optic gyro measures rotation using the _______ of the two beams?
a) Intensity difference
b) Resonance
c) Interference intensity
d) Wavelength difference
201. In two mode RLGs, only linearly polarized modes can be resonant in the cavity.
a) True
b) False
202. The emission of photons by the gas medium that fills the RLG cavity is called as?
a) Laser discharge
b) Spontaneous discharge
c) Spontaneous emission
d) Laser emission
205. In which type of inertial navigation system are the gyro and accelerometer rigidly
mounted to the body?
a) Gimballed system
b) Fixed system
c) Strapdown system
d) Void system
209. What does the quaternion integration algorithm use to control error?
a) Linearization constraint
b) Normalization constraint
c) Differential constraint
d) Integral constraints
210. What type of error occurs if the axis of rotation is moving in space?
a) Linearization errors
b) Control error
c) Coning error
d) Differential error
213. Sculling errors occur when rotation and acceleration are combined.
a) True
b) False
217. In any order of gimbal, the innermost gimbal has unlimited freedom.
a) True
b) False
219. The Doppler radar works by measuring the ________ of the reflected radio wave.
a) Intensity
b) Frequency
c) Doppler amplitude
d) Doppler shift
220. Which of the following is not true with respect to Doppler radar system?
a) Measures the ground velocity
b) Transmitter power is high and requires ground assistance
c) Velocity is extremely accurate
d) All weather system
223. The configuration in which the Doppler radar beams are both forward and backward
looking is called as?
a) Janus
b) Dual
c) Redundant
d) Wide beam
224. What is the number of beams that a Doppler radar uses?
a) 4
b) 2
c) 1
d) 3
227. What is the maximum altitude that can be measured using a radio altimeter?
a) 100ft
b) 500ft
c) 50 ft
d) 5000ft
228. Altimeters that are specifically designed to provide mark signals at specific altitudes for
automatic operations are called as _________
a) Radar altimeter
b) Pressure altimeter
c) Altitude marking radar
d) Mark altimeter
229. What is the function leading edge range tracker servo loop?
a) Provide range to the nearest return
b) Speed measurements
c) Vertical speed measurement
d) Automatic ground navigation
231. Which of the following is true with respect with solid state transmitters in pulsed radar
altimeters?
a) Input power is around 100W
b) Use receiver pre-amplifiers
c) High reliability
d) Small size
232. Which of the following is responsible for the reduced use of transmitter power in radar
altimeter?
a) Low range
b) Interference with other bands
c) Receiver low noise amplifier
d) Radome
233. What type of waveform must be transmitted to reduce Doppler shit errors?
a) Square
b) Triangular
c) Sine
d) Cosine
234. Which of the following are false with respect to stellar navigation?
a) Can be used in daylight and at night
b) Position and altitude can be measured
c) Non-radiating
d) Cannot be jammed
235. Which of the following can be used to estimate the latitude in the northern hemisphere
using the horizon as a reference?
a) North pole
b) Magnetic north
c) Polaris (north star)
d) Orion’s belt
236. What is it called when the position is determined by angles between a star and an
accurate time reference?
a) Position fix
b) Celestial fix
c) Sun fix
d) Horizontal fix
237. Why is the inertial navigation system combined with celestial navigation system?
a) Correction of drift error
b) Deriving true north
c) Deriving magnetic north
d) Correction for weather effects
238. The sensors that maintain a centered star image for celestial navigation is called as
_________
a) Star fixer
b) Celestial fixer
c) Star tracker
d) Star searcher
239. Which of the following is required to integrate stellar navigation and inertial navigation
to get the best estimate navigation solution?
a) Kalman filter
b) Star fix
c) Celestial fix
d) Multisensor processing
240. The observability problems are greatly intensified if the telescope is rigidly mounted to
the IMU.
a) True
b) False
241. The inertial LOS to any star is precisely given from _______
a) Star tracker
b) Star catalog
c) Air data computer
d) Celestial fix
242. The angular error is the angular difference between computed LOS and the physical star
sensor LOS.
a) True
b) False
243. Which of the following uses lens and mirrors for focusing?
a) Refractive
b) Reflecting
c) Catadioptric
d) Orthogonal
244. What is the physical diameter of the first optical element in the telescope?
a) Optical aperture
b) Field of view
c) Effective focal length
d) Light detector
245. What is the image of the star at the focal plane called as?
a) Star fixed image
b) Celestial interference image
c) Diffraction limited image
d) Spot image
252. The effect of night sky background effect is negligible with respect to star power.
a) True
b) False
253. The ratio of the photons converted to signal generating electrons to the total number of
photons arriving is called as?
a) Quantum efficiency
b) Photon ratio
c) Conversion ratio
d) Photons to electron ratio
258. The restriction of visibility to various degrees defined by law in certain countries is
called _______
a) Instrument meteorological conditions
b) Flight rules
c) Weather instrument law
d) Weather visibility conditions
259. What is the altitude at which the landing must be aborted if a runway is not in sight?
a) Low altitude
b) Decision height
c) Abortion altitude
d) Visibility altitude
260. What is the decision height for the category I landing system?
a) 100ft
b) 500ft
c) 1000ft
d) 200ft
264. The height below which landing may continue in case of equipment failure is called as?
a) decision height
b) Abortion altitude
c) Visibility altitude
d) Alert height
269. What is the minimum descent altitude for non precision flight?
a) 100 to 1000ft
b) 10 to 100ft
c) 250 to 1000ft
d) 1000 to 2000ft
270. What is the rate of descent when the flare maneuver is executed?
a) 6 ft/sec
b) 12ft/sec
c) 20ft/sec
d) 3ft/sec
271. What is the speed reduction in a typical jet aircraft during the flare?
a) 95-100%
b) 75-82%
c) 50-55%
d) 5-10%
275. Accurate calculation of aircraft height using the glide path deviations and distance
information is not practical.
a) True
b) False
277. __________ is the exponential path tangent to a horizontal plane several feet below the
runway?
a) Flare
b) Ground roll
c) Taxi
d) Tide
278. What is done to reduce the error in localizer as the runway is approached?
a) Gain scheduling
b) Reduce speed
c) Increase angle of attack
d) Flare
279. British Trident and U.S. L-1011 aircraft was certified for category III A operations.
a) True
b) False
280. Which of the following systems use a collection of radio transmitting stations to guide
an aircraft to a particular runway?
a) ILS
b) GPS
c) VOR
d) RADAR
282. _______ standardized the signal in space for the ILS ground transmitting equipment?
a) ISRO
b) FAA
c) ICAO standards and recommended practices
d) NASA
287. Localizer, Glide slope and DME frequencies are paired to each other.
a) True
b) False
288. What is the type of receiver used for marker beacon?
a) Heterodyne
b) Super Heterodyne
c) Capacitative pick off
d) Crystal controlled
291. ______________ provides deviation when the aircraft is displaced laterally from the
vertical plane of the runway?
a) Localizer
b) Glide slope transmitter
c) DME
d) Marker beacons
292. What is the signal that are added to the localizer signal, if the beam is narrow, to provide
signal coverage?
a) Localizer plus
b) Difference signal
c) Sum signal
d) Clearance signal
294. Clearance signals can be transmitted from the same array antenna as the localizer signal.
a) True
b) False
295. What is the type of glide slope that depends on the reflection of signals by the ground?
a) Reflection slope
b) Refraction glide slope
c) Image glide slope
d) Direct glide slope
296. What is the radiation pattern of the marker beacons?
a) Triangle
b) Circle
c) Square
d) Fan shape
298. What does the MLS use to overcome the weakness of ILS system?
a) Narrow beam width antennas
b) More power
c) Filers for separating noise
d) Array of antennas
299. Which of the following is not one of the basic components of the MLS system?
a) Azimuth ground station
b) Elevation ground station
c) DME
d) Radar
302. Which of the following determines the required transmission power in MLS?
a) Noise
b) Bit error rate
c) Runway length
d) Aircraft size
306. Which of the following is not a reason for not using the basic GPS for landing systems?
a) Accuracy
b) Integrity
c) Availability of satellites
d) Number of users
307. Which of the following is supplemented with GPS to provide non-precision and
Category I approaches?
a) Primary radar
b) WAAS
c) ILS
d) MLS
309. Which of the following is required to support Category II and III with DGPS?
a) High- integrity ground to air data link
b) ILS system
c) Transponder
d) DME station
312. The accuracy of the SPS code solution is satisfactory for precision approaches.
a) True
b) False
313. The pilot has no other option than to use FLOLS to land the aircraft.
a) True
b) False
314. The relative speed of the aircraft with respect to the carrier deck is _________
a) Lower
b) Greater
c) Zero
d) Indifferent
315. What is the inclination of the glide slope with respect to the moving flight deck?
a) 3°
b) 5°
c) 3.5°
d) 4°
316. Which of the following causes a “burble” at the threshold and along the glide path?
a) High speed landings
b) Low visibility
c) Heaving motion of ship
d) Steady state wake
318. Aircraft executing missed approach from low altitude is called as ____________
a) Bolter
b) Faultie
c) Ranger
d) Dropper
320. Which of the following is an optical landing aid used in aircraft carriers?
a) ACLS
b) FLOLS (Fresnel lens optical landing system)
c) SPN-41
d) SPN-46
321. Why is heave motion of the carrier not corrected in the FLOLS?
a) Two aircraft use simultaneously
b) Atmospheric fluctuations
c) Too random motion
d) Not economical
322. What is the frequency band used by the ACLS?
a) Ka band
b) S band
c) C band
d) E band
325. What are the two principal processes of air traffic management?
a) Air traffic control and traffic flow management
b) Air traffic control and Aircraft system maintenance
c) Traffic flow management and Aircraft system maintenance
d) Aircraft system maintenance and Radio communication
326. Who provides assurance between the collision of aircraft with another aircraft or terrain?
a) ATM
b) Pilot
c) FMS
d) Autopilot
329. Who are not required to contact the ATM for navigation?
a) VFR operator
b) Co-pilot
c) Pilot
d) IFR operator
330. The aircraft whose attitude reference is solely based on the natural horizon follow
______
a) VFR
b) IFR
c) Pilot
d) FAA commands
331. Who is responsible for the separation of an aircraft from other aircraft in a controlled
airspace?
a) ATM operator
b) Pilot
c) Co-pilot
d) Navigator
332. What is the minimum visibility when flying below 10,000ft and following VFR?
a) One nautical mile
b) One kilometer
c) One statute mile
d) One mile
334. The lateral displacement error of the aircraft form the intended track given the course
deviation signal is called as?
a) Navigation error
b) Pilot error
c) Flight technical error
d) Instrumental error
ADDED MCQ
1. What are control laws?
a) Algorithms relating pilots stick and control surface
b) Laws that govern aerodynamics forces
c) Laws that govern flight motion
d) Laws used to predict range and endurance
3. What is false true with respect to K in the pitch rate command law?
a) Value of K is infinite
b) Value of K is constant with height and altitude
c) Value of K changes with height and altitude
d) Value of k is constant with altitude and airspeed
8. What are the shortcomings of using an angle of incidence indicator for feedback sensor?
a) Damage from bird strikes and local airflow disturbance
b) Damage from ice formation and local airflow disturbance
c) Ground and impact damage from landing
d) Works only in subsonic ranges
11. FCS sensors which sense aircraft motion also sense the structural deflections.
a) True
b) False
12. What happens to the phase lag in an actuator as the frequency is increased?
a) Increases
b) Decreases
c) Constant
d) Cannot be determined
13. What can occur when the control valve travel limits are reached under conditions of large
amplitude demands?
a) Stall
b) Structural damage
c) Rate limiting
d) Rate delimiting
7. Consider the aircraft with weight of 1234 kg. Find the approximate value of the damping
ratio if time taken by system for damping is minimum.
a) 1
b) 1.7
c) 1.9
d) 0.002
8. Find critical damping coefficient if damping ratio is 0.5 and damping coefficient is 1.1.
a) 2.2
b) 1
c) 4
d) 1.1
Hint: Critical damping coefficient damping coefficient/ damping ratio 1.1/0.5 = 2.2.
11. Consider the 2d phugoid approximation with natural frequency of 0.4. Determine the
approximate value of aircraft speed.
a) 34.68
b) 56
c) 12
d) 12.68
Hint: value of aircraft speed = 1.414*g/w
12. If damping ratio is 0.05 then, find the lift to drag ratio. Consider 2-degree phugoid
approximation.
a) 14.14
b) 20
c) 25
d) 0.05
Hint: Given damping ratio d = 0.05
Lift to drag = 0.707/d = 0.707/0.05 = 14.14.
10. An aircraft adjusts the lift generated by the wings when it pitches nose up or down by
adjusting the angle of attack.
a) True
b) False
11. Spacecraft flight dynamics does not involve which of the following forces?
a) Propulsive force
b) Gravitational force
c) Electromagnetic force
d) Lift and drag
12. What are the major sources of change in the aerodynamic forces and moments applied to
an aircraft?
a) Angle of attack of the wing and the angle of attack
b) Angle of attack of the wing and the angle of attack of the vertical tail
c) Angle of attack of the wing and the angle of incidence
d) Angle of incidence and the angle of attack of the vertical tai
5. The phase angle error is significantly affected by the small change in secondary turns.
a) true
b) false
6. What is the dimension of the round copper wire made use of in the windings of current
transformer?
a) 3 cm2
b) 3 mm2
c) 3 m2
d) 3 cm
7. What is the range of current density in the windings of the current transformer?
a) 1-3 A per mm2
b) 2-3 A per mm2
c) 1-2 A per mm2
d) 0.5-2 A per mm2
8. How many factors are present in the behavior of transformer under short circuit
conditions?
a) 2
b) 3
c) 4
d) 5
1. The system with the open loop transfer function 1/s(1+s) is:
a) Type 2 and order 1
b) Type 1 and order 1
c) Type 0 and order 0
d) Type 1 and order 2
2. The identical first order system have been cascaded non-interactively. The unit step
response of the systems will be:
a) Overdamped
b) Underdamped
c) Undamped
d) Critically damped
3. A third order system is approximated to an equivalent second order system. The rise time
of this approximated lower order system will be:
a) Same as the original system for any input
b) Smaller than the original system for any input
c) Larger than the original system for any input
d) Larger or smaller depending on the input
4. A system has a single pole at origin. Its impulse response will be:
a) Constant
b) Ramp
c) Decaying exponential
d) Oscillatory
5. When the period of the observation is large, the type of the error will be:
a) Transient error
b) Steady state error
c) Half-power error
d) Position error constant
6. When the unit step response of a unity feedback control system having forward path
transfer function G (s) =80/s(s+18)?
a) Overdamped
b) Critically damped
c) Under damped
d) Un Damped oscillatory
7. With negative feedback in a closed loop control system, the system sensitivity to parameter
variation:
a) Increases
b) Decreases
c) Becomes zero
d) Becomes infinite
8. An underdamped second order system with negative damping will have the roots :
a) On the negative real axis as roots
b) On the left hand side of complex plane as complex roots
c) On the right hand side of complex plane as complex conjugates
d) On the positive real axis as real roots
9. Given a unity feedback system with G (s) =K/ s (s+4). What is the value of K for a
damping ratio of 0.5?
a) 1
b) 16
c) 4
d) 2
1. Assertion (A): The zeroes on the real axis near the origin are generally avoided in design.
Reason (R): In a sluggish system introduction of zeroes can improve the transient response
a) Both A and R are true and R is correct explanation of A
b) Both A and R are true but R is not correct explanation of A
c) A is true but R is false
d) A is false but R is true
4. As zero moves sufficiently left from the origin the effect of zero becomes less pronounced.
a) True
b) False
5. If number of poles are greater than number of zeroes then the system is known as
______________
a) Stable system
b) Unstable system
c) Minimum phase system
d) Non-minimum phase system
10. If rise time is also taken into consideration it should be ____________ to the settling
time.
a) Inconsistent
b) Consistent
c) Perfect
d) Unique