RELATIVISTIC MECHANICS

Question. A light pulse is emitted at the origin of a frame of reference S’ at time t’=0. If
distance x’ from the origin after a time t’ is given by x’ 2=c2t’2, transform this equation in
terms of x and t. What important inference we can draw from this result.(26)

Solution. Lorentz Transformation Equations

vx
t+ 2
x +vt c
x '= , y '= y , z'=z ,t '=
v2 v2
√ 1− 2
c
1− 2
c √
This expression shows that the velocity of light is an absolute constant independent of
frame of reference.
2 2 2 2 2
Q.1. Show that x + y +z −c t is invariant under Lorentz transformation.

Or Show that the space-time interval between two events remains invariant under
Lorentz transformation. (24)
2 2 2 2 2
Solution. We have to show that x + y +z −c t remains invariant, i.e., the form
of expression remains as such in the inertial frames S and S’.

From the Lorentz transformation we know that

vx '
t '+
x ' +vt ' c2
x= , y= y ', z= z ', t=
2
v v2
√ 1−
c2 √ 1−
c2

Using these values of coordinates in above expression, we get

2
vx '

[√ ]
2 t '+
x '+ vt ' c2 1 v2 x ' 2

[√ ] v2
2 2
+ y ' +z ' −c ' 2

v2
2
= y ' +z ' − 2

v2 [ c t ' + 2 +2 vxt '−x ' 2 −2 vt ' x '−v 2 t ' 2

2 2
c ]
1− 2
c
1− 2
c ( )
1−
c2
 2

1 v2
= y ' 2 + z ' 2−
v2
[−x ' 2+c 2 t ' 2] ( )
1−
c 2
=x ' 2 + y ' 2 +z ' 2 −c 2 t ' 2

( )
1−
c2

which shows that the expression remains same in S’. Thus the space-time interval
remains invariant under Lorentz transformation..

Q.1. Show that the momentum of a particle of rest mass m0 and kinetic energy KE is
KE 2
given by the expression
p=
c2
+2 m0 ×KE
. (61) √
Solution. From the energy-momentum relation, we know that
E= √m20 c 4 + p2 c2
2 2 4 2 2
Or E =m 0 c + p c

The total energy E = rest energy + kinetic energy ==> E = m 0c2 + KE

From the above expressions, we get

√ m20 c 4+ p 2 c 2=m0 c 2+KE

Squaring both sides of this equation, we get
2 4 2 2 2 4 2 2
m0 c + p c =m 0 c +2 m0 c ×KE + KE
2 2 2 2
Or p c =KE +2 m0 c ×KE

2KE 2
p = 2 +2 m0 ×KE
Or c

KE 2
Or
p=
√ c2
+2 m0 ×KE

Q.1. Show that the relativistic form of Newton’s second law, when ⃗F is parallel to v
is

2 −3 /2
⃗F =m dv 1− v
0
dt c2 ( ) . (61)
 3

⃗F = dp = d (mv )
Solution. From the Newton’s second law we know that dt dt

m0
⃗F =m d

Using relativistic equation for mass of body,

0
dt
[√ ]
1−
v
c2
2
v

2 −1 /2
⃗F =m d 1− v
0
dt [( ) ]
c2
v

2 −1/2
v2 −3/2

0
[( )
⃗F =m 1− v
c2
dv
dt
1
+v − 1− 2
2 c ( )( ) (− 2cv ) dvdt ] 2

2 −3/ 2
v2 v2 v2 −3/2
⃗ v
( )
F =m 0 1− 2
c
dv
dt c [( ) ( )]
1− 2 + − 2 =m0
c
dv
dt
1− 2
c ( )
Q.1. Show that if the variation of mass with velocity is taken into account, the kinetic
energy of a particle of rest mass m0 and moving with velocity v is given by

v2
−1/2
KE=m0 c 2
[( ) ]
1− 2
c
−1
. (62)

Solution. We know that the relativistic expression of kinetic energy is KE = (m-m 0)c2
= mc2-m0c2

m0 m0 c 2
m= KE= −m 0 c 2
2

By putting √( 1−
v
c2 ) , we get √( 1−
v2
c2 ) or

v2 −1/2
KE=m0 c 2
[( ) ]
1− 2
c
−1

Q.1. Show that the massless particles can exist only if they move with the speed of
light and their energy E and momentum p must have the relation E = pc. (63)
 4

Solution. A particle which has zero rest mass (m0) is called a massless particle. In
classical physics such particles do not exist while in relativistic mechanics such particles
may exist.

From the relation of relativistic energy and momentum, we know that

E= √m20 c 4 + p2 c2

For massless particles, m0 = 0

Thus E = pc or p = E/c

Since p = mv

So for massless particles p = E/c = mc2/c

Hence p = mc

It shows that the massless particles have the same velocity as light in free space.

Q.2. Show that for small velocities the relativistic kinetic energy of a body reduces to
the classical kinetic energy which is less than the rest energy. (63)

Solution. From the expression of relativistic kinetic energy we know that

KErelativistic = (m-m0)c2

m0

=
[√ ] v2
1− 2
c
−m0 c 2

=
m0 c 2 v2
[( ) ]
1− 2
c
−1/2
−1
=
m0 c 2
[( v2
)]
1+ 2 +. .. ..−1
2c

(neglecting higher order terms because v<<c)

v2 1
m0 c 2 × m v2
= 2c = 2 0
2
=KEclassical, which is less than m0c2

E2
p2 −
Q,1. Show that the quantity c 2 remains invariant under Lorentz transformation.
(64)
 5

2 2 2
E 2 E' E
p− 2 p − 2 = p2 − 2
'2

Solution. The quantity c will be invariant if c c under

Lorentz transformation.
2
v

p2 =p ' 2x + p ' 2y + p ' 2z =

( px −
c2
E
) + p' + p'
2 2
2 y z
v
1−
Now c2 and