11 Vision IAS CSP21 Test 11S POL

VISIONIAS
www.visionias.in
ANSWERS & EXPLANATIONS
GENERAL STUDIES (P) TEST – 3188 (2021)
Q 1.C
The Bar Council of India (BCI) is a statutory body constituted under the Advocates Act, 1961 to regulate
and represent the Indian bar. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
Its functions are as follows:
• To lay down standards of professional conduct and etiquette for advocates.
• To safeguard the rights, privileges and interests of advocates.
o To promote and support law reform.
• To promote legal education and to lay down standards of legal education. Hence, statement 3 is
correct.
• To recognise universities whose degree in law shall be a qualification for enrolment as an advocate.
• To organise legal aid to the poor.
• To recognise on a reciprocal basis, the foreign qualifications in law obtained outside India for the
purpose of admission as an advocate in India.
The Bar Council of India consists of members elected from each State Bar Council, and the Attorney
General of India and the Solicitor General of India who are ex-officio members. Hence, statement 2 is
correct.
The members from the State Bar Councils are elected for a period of five years. The Council elects its
own Chairman and Vice-Chairman for a period of two years from amongst its members.
Q 2.A
• Voter Verifiable Paper Audit Trail is an independent system [consists of two parts, namely, VVPAT
Printer and VVPAT Status Display Unit (VSDU)] attached with the Electronic Voting Machines that
allows the voters to verify that their votes are cast as intended.
• When a vote is cast, a slip is printed containing the serial number, name and symbol of the
candidate (and not the name of the voter) and remains exposed through a transparent window for 7
seconds. Thereafter, this printed slip automatically gets cut and falls in sealed drop box of the
VVPAT. Hence option (a) is the correct answer.
• VVPAT runs on a power pack Battery.
• The Government of India notified the amended Conduct of Elections Rules, 1961 on 14th August, 2013,
enabling the Commission to use VVPAT with EVMs.
• In April 2019, Supreme Court made it mandatory for the Election Commission to carry out physical
counting of VVPAT slips in 5 random Electronic Voting Machines (EVMs) in each parliamentary
constituency in Lok Sabha Elections 2019.
Q 3.B
• Statement 1 is not correct: Article 338-B of the Constitution provides that there shall be a
Commission for the socially and educationally backward classes to be known as the National
Commission for Backward Classes.
• The NCBC consists of a Chairperson, Vice-Chairperson and three other Members, who shall all be
appointed by the President by warrant under his hand and seal.
• Further, the conditions of service and tenure of office of the Chairperson, Vice-Chairperson and other
Members so appointed shall be such as the President may by rule determine.
1 www.visionias.in ©Vision IAS

• Statement 2 is correct: The Commission shall, while investigating any matter or inquiring into any
complaint, have all the powers of a civil court trying a suit and in particular in respect of the following
matters, namely:
o summoning and enforcing the attendance of any person from any part of India and examining him on oath;
o requiring the discovery and production of any document;
o receiving evidence on affidavits;
o requisitioning any public record or copy thereof from any court or office;
o issuing commissions for the examination of witnesses and documents.
Q 4.D
• National Data Sharing and Accessibility Policy (NDSAP) aims to provide an enabling provision and
platform for proactive and open access to the data generated by various Government of India
entities. The objective of this policy is to facilitate access to Government of India owned shareable data
(along with its usage information) in machine readable form through a wide area network all over the
country in a periodically updatable manner, within the framework of various related policies, acts and
rules of Government of India, thereby permitting a wider accessibility and usage by public. Hence,
statement 1 is not correct.
• The National Data Sharing and Accessibility Policy will apply to all data and information created,
generated, collected and archived using public funds provided by Government of India directly or
through authorized agencies by various Ministries/Departments/Organizations/Agencies and
Autonomous bodies. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
• The Department of Science and Technology is serving the nodal functions of coordination and
monitoring of policy through close collaboration with all Central Ministries and the Department of
Electronics and Information Technology by creating data.gov.in through National Informatics Centre
(NIC). Hence, statement 3 is not correct.
Q 5.B
• Citizens Charter is a document that represents a systematic effort to focus on the commitment of the
Organisation towards its Citizens in respects of Standard of Services, Information, Choice
and Consultation, Non-discrimination and Accessibility, Grievance Redress, Courtesy and Value for
Money. This also includes expectations of the Organisation from the Citizen for fulfilling the commitment
of the Organisation.
• The Citizens Charter is not legally enforceable and, therefore, is non-justiciable. However, it is a tool
for facilitating the delivery of services to citizens with specified standards, quality and time frames, etc.
with commitments from the Organisation and its clients. Hence, option (b) is not correct.
• Though not enforceable in a court of law, the Citizen's Charter is intended to empower citizens so that
they can demand committed standards of service and avail remedies in case of non-compliance by service
provider Organizations/Department. The Citizen's Charter does not by itself create new legal rights,
but it surely helps in enforcing existing rights.
• Every Citizen’s Charter has several essential components to make it meaningful:-
o The Vision and Mission Statement of the organization. This gives the outcomes desired and the
broad strategy to achieve these goals and outcomes. This also makes the user aware of the intent of
their service provider and helps in holding the organization accountable.
o The organization must clearly state in its Citizen’s Charter what subject it deals with and the service
areas it broadly covers. This helps the user to understand the type of services they can expect from a
particular service provider.
o The Citizen’s Charter should also stipulate the responsibilities of the citizens in the context of
the Charter.
• Department of Administrative Reforms and Public Grievances in Ministry of Personnel, Public
Grievances and Pensions, Government of India, coordinates the efforts to formulate and operationalize
Citizen‘s Charters in Central Government, State Governments and UT Administrations. It provides
guidelines for the formulation and implementation of the Charters as well as their evaluation.
Q 6.C
• Central Vigilance Commission is the apex vigilance institution monitoring all vigilance activity under the
Central Government and advising various authorities in Central Government organizations in planning,
executing, reviewing and reforming their vigilance work.
• The CVC was set up by the Government in February, 1964 on the recommendations of the Committee on
Prevention of Corruption, headed by Shri K. Santhanam. In 2003, the Parliament enacted CVC Act
conferring statutory status on the CVC.
• The salary and allowances payable to and the other conditions of service of— (a) the Central
Vigilance Commissioner shall be the same as those of the Chairman of the Union Public Service
Commission; (b) the Vigilance Commissioner shall be the same as those of a Member of the Union
Public Service Commission. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• The expenses of the Commission, including any salaries, allowances and pensions payable to or in
respect of the Central Vigilance Commissioner, the Vigilance Commissioners, Secretary and the
staff of the Commission, shall be charged on the Consolidated Fund of India. Hence statement 2 is
correct.
Q 7.D
• Central Hindi Committee/Kendriya Hindi Samiti has been constituted to bring about co-ordination in
the work and programmes relating to the development and propagation and progressive use of Hindi for
the official purposes being implemented by the various Ministries/Departments of Government of India.
• It has power to appoint sub-committees and co-opt additional members in the discharge of its functions.
• The headquarter of the Committee is at New Delhi.
• The committee has been re-constituted on 23rd June 2017, for the period of 3 years.
• The Prime Minister of India is the chairman of the committee.
• Hence option (d) is the correct answer.
Q 8.D
• Legal Aid means giving free legal services to the poor and weaker section of society who cannot afford to
take the service of advocate to conduct a case or any legal proceeding in the court of law, any judicial
authority or before any judicial tribunal.
• Article 39A of the Constitution of India provides that State shall secure that the operation of the legal
system promotes justice on a basis of equal opportunity, and shall in particular, provide free legal aid, by
suitable legislation or schemes or in any other way, to ensure that opportunities for securing justice are not
denied to any citizen by reason of economic or other disability.
• As per the Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987, following are entitled to free legal services:
o A member of a Scheduled Caste or Scheduled Tribe
o A victim of trafficking in human beings or begar as referred to in Article 23 of the Constitution
o A woman is entitled for free legal aid irrespective of her income or financial status
o Child is eligible for free legal aid till the age of majority i.e. 18 years
o A mentally ill or otherwise differently abled person
o A person under circumstances of undeserved want such as being a victim of a mass disaster, ethnic
violence, caste atrocity, flood, drought, earthquake or industrial disaster; or
o An industrial workman; or
o a person in receipt of annual income less than the amount mentioned in the following schedule (or any
other higher amount as may be prescribed by the State Government), if the case is before a Court
other than the Supreme Court, and less than Rs 5 Lakh, if the case is before the Supreme Court.
▪ The Income Ceiling Limit prescribed u/S 12(h) of the Act for availing free legal services in
different States
o Senior Citizen - Senior citizens’ eligibility for free legal aid depends on the Rules framed by the
respective State Governments in this regard.
• Hence all the options are correct.
Q 9.D
• The Second Administrative Reforms Commission in its report entitled ―Citizen Centric Administration:
The Heart of Governance‖ (2009) identified the following barriers to good governance in India:
o Problems of excessive centralization: The system often suffers from problems of excessive
centralization and policies and action plans are far removed from the needs of the citizens. This results
in a mismatch between what is required and what is being provided.
o Lack of Accountability: Initiation of disciplinary proceedings against delinquent government
servants and imposition of penalties is rare. This is primarily because at most levels authority is
divorced from accountability leading to a system of realistic and plausible alibis.
o Attitudinal Problems of the Civil Servants: There is a growing concern that the Civil Services and
administration in general, have become wooden, inflexible, self-perpetuating and inward-looking.
Consequently, their attitude is one of indifference and insensitivity to the needs of citizens.

o Red-Tapism: Bureaucracies the world over are expected to adhere to rules and procedures which are,
of course, important for good governance. However, at times, these rules and procedures are ab-initio
ill-conceived and cumbersome and, therefore, do not serve their purpose. The performance
evaluation systems within the government have not been effectively structured. The
complacency that the system breeds have resulted in employees adopting an apathetic or
lackadaisical attitude towards citizens and their grievances.
o Low Levels of Awareness of the Rights and Duties of Citizens: Inadequate awareness about their
rights prevents citizens from holding erring government servants to account. Similarly, low levels of
compliance of rules by the citizens also act as an impediment to good governance; when citizens
do not adhere to their duties they infringe on the freedom and rights of other citizens.
o Ineffective Implementation of Laws and Rules: Effective implementation of laws creates an
environment which would improve the welfare of all citizens and at the same time, encourage each
citizen to contribute his best towards the development of society. On the other hand, weak
implementation can cause a great deal of hardship to citizens and even erode the faith of the citizenry
in the government machinery.
Q 10.B
• The Union Public Service Commission (UPSC) is consulted on the following matters related to
personnel management:
o All matters relating to methods of recruitment to civil services and for civil posts.
o The principles to be followed in making appointments to civil services and posts and in making
promotions and transfers from one service to another.
o The suitability of candidates for appointments to civil services and posts; for promotions and
transfers from one service to another; and appointments by transfer or deputation. The concerned
departments make recommendations for promotions and request the UPSC to ratify them. Hence
option 1 is correct.
o All disciplinary matters affecting a person serving under the Government of India in a civil
capacity including memorials or petitions relating to such matters as given below: Hence option 3 is
correct.
▪ Censure (Severe disapproval)
▪ Withholding of increments
▪ Withholding of promotions
▪ Recovery of pecuniary loss
▪ Reduction to lower service or rank (demotion)
▪ Compulsory retirement
▪ Removal from service
▪ Dismissal from service
o Any claim for reimbursement of legal expenses incurred by a civil servant in defending legal
proceedings instituted against him in respect of acts done in the execution of his official duties.
o Any claim for the award of a pension in respect of injuries sustained by a person while serving under
the Government of India and any question as to the amount of any such award.
o Matters of temporary appointments for period exceeding one year and on regularisation of
appointments.
o Matters related to grant of extension of service and re-employment of certain retired civil servants.
o Any other matter related to personnel management.
• The Supreme Court has held that if the government fails to consult UPSC in the matters (mentioned
above), the aggrieved public servant has no remedy in a court. In other words, the court held that any
irregularity in consultation with the UPSC or acting without consultation does not invalidate the decision
of the government. Thus, the provision is directory and not mandatory.
• The UPSC is not consulted on the following matters:
o While making reservations of appointments or posts in favour of any backward class of
citizens. Hence option 2 is not correct.
o While taking into consideration the claims of scheduled castes and scheduled tribes in making
appointments to services and posts.
o With regard to the selections for chairmanship or membership of commissions or tribunals, posts of
the highest diplomatic nature and a bulk of group C and group D services.
o With regard to the selection for temporary or officiating appointment to a post if the person appointed
is not likely to hold the post for more than a year.
Q 11.D
• ASER (Annual Status of Education Report) is an annual survey that aims to provide reliable annual
estimates of children’s schooling status and basic learning levels for each state and rural district in
India. It is the largest citizen-led survey in India and is also the only annual source of information on
children’s learning outcomes available in India today.
• It is published by NGO Pratham. Hence option (d) is the correct answer.
• The first ASER was published in 2005.
• ASER 2019
o It reported on the pre-schooling or schooling status of children in the age group 4 to 8 years in 26
rural districts (districts with rural population >70%) across 24 States.
o The report focuses on the “early years” and lays emphasis on “developing problem-solving faculties
and building memory of children, and not content knowledge”.
o It states that a focus on cognitive skills rather than subject learning in the early years can make a big
difference to basic literacy and numeracy abilities.
Q 12.C
• Compulsory voting is an effect of laws that require eligible citizens to register and vote in elections and
may impose penalties on those who fail to do so. Voting is often equated in kind to similar civil
responsibilities such as taxation.
• The idea of compulsory voting results in a higher degree of political legitimacy as it is based on
higher voter turnout. Hence option 2 is not correct.
• Other perceived advantages to compulsory voting are the stimulation of broader interest politics, as a sort
of civic education and political stimulation, which creates a better-informed population.
• Arguments against compulsory voting
o Voting is a civic right in India rather than a civic duty.
o The right to vote is an individual right, which every citizen could decide whether to exercise or
not. Hence option 1 is correct.
o It amounts to a violation of freedom of speech because the freedom to speak necessarily includes the
freedom not to speak.
o The costs of voting may normally exceed the expected benefits for weaker sections such as migrant
workers.
o Tasking parties with the responsibility of attracting voters would ensure that the resultant turnout
was a better reflection of voters‟ interest and engagement with politics. Hence option 3 is correct.
o Sanctions against defaulters were hard to effectively enforce in practice.
• Proposal for compulsory voting was also rejected by Dinesh Goswami Committee in 1990 as well as by
National Commission to Review the Working of the Constitution (NCRWC) in 2001.
• Gujarat in recent past have introducing Compulsory Voting at local-level elections which has been
contested in courts.
Q 13.B
• Article 338 of the Constitution established the National Commission for Scheduled Castes. It is thus
a constitutional body. Hence statement 1 is not correct.
• The functions of the Commission are:
o To investigate and monitor all matters relating to the constitutional and other legal safeguards
for the SCs and to evaluate their working; Hence statement 3 is correct.
o To inquire into specific complaints with respect to the deprivation of rights and safeguards of
the SCs; Hence statement 2 is correct.
o To participate and advise on the planning process of socio-economic development of the SCs and to
evaluate the progress of their development under the Union or a state;
o To present to the President, annually and at such other times as it may deem fit, reports upon the
working of those safeguards;
o To make recommendations as to the measures that should be taken by the Union or a state for the
effective implementation of those safeguards and other measures for the protection, welfare and
socio-economic development of the SCs; and
o To discharge such other functions in relation to the protection, welfare and development and
advancement of the SCs as the president may specify.
Q 14.C
• State Information Commission: The Right to Information Act 2005, provides for the creation of Central
information Commission (at central level) and State Information Commission at the state level.
• The State Information Commission is a high-powered independent body which interalia looks into the
complaints made to it and decide the appeals. It entertains complaints and appeals pertaining to offices,
financial institutions, public sector undertakings, etc., under the concerned state government.
• The State Information Commission consists of a State Chief Information Commissioner and not more than
ten State Information Commissioners. They are appointed by the Governor on the recommendation of a
committee consisting of:
o the Chief Minister as Chairperson,
o the Leader of Opposition in the Legislative Assembly
o a State Cabinet Minister nominated by the Chief Minister.
• Recently, the Parliament enacted the Right to Information (Amendment) Act, 2019. Amendments
brought in the RTI Act:
o Removal of fixed term- As per the RTI Act 2005, the CIC and ICs (at the central and state level) will
hold office for a term of five years. The Amendment removes this provision and states that the central
government will notify the term of office for the CIC and the ICs (at the central and state level).
o Determination of Salary- As per the RTI Act 2005, the salary of the CIC and ICs (at the central
level) will be equivalent to the salary paid to the Chief Election Commissioner and Election
Commissioners, respectively. Similarly, the salary of the CIC and ICs (at the state level) will be
equivalent to the salary paid to the Election Commissioners and the Chief Secretary to the state
government, respectively. The Amendment empowers the Central Government to determine the
salaries, allowances, and other terms and conditions of service of the central and state CIC and
ICs.
• Hence option (c) is the correct answer.
Q 15.A
• Electronic Voting Machine was introduced in India to conduct free and fair elections. Hence, the
Indian Parliament amended the Representation of the People Act, 1951 and introduced Section 61-A
which lays down the provisions for the use of Electronic Voting Machine by the Election Commission of
India to Conduct General and State election in India. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• It is possible to use EVMs for simultaneous elections for Parliament and State Legislative Assembly and
the existing EVMs have been designed keeping this requirement in view.
• An Electronic Voting Machine consists of two Units – a Control Unit and a Balloting Unit – joined by a
five-meter cable. This is a stand-alone setup, not connected to any network either through wired or
wireless technology. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
• The Control Unit is with the Presiding Officer or a Polling Officer and the Balloting Unit is placed inside
the voting compartment. Instead of issuing a ballot paper, the Polling Officer in-charge of the Control
Unit will press the Ballot Button. This will enable the voter to cast his vote by pressing the blue button on
the Balloting Unit against the candidate and symbol of his choice.
• EVMs manufactured in 1989-90 were used on an experimental basis for the first time in 16 Assembly
Constituencies in the States of Madhya Pradesh (5), Rajasthan (5) and NCT of Delhi (6) at the General
Elections to the respective Legislative Assemblies held in November, 1998.
• Booth-capturing means taking away or damaging of ballot boxes or ballot papers, This cannot be
prevented by the use of EVMs as EVMs can also be forcibly taken away or damaged by
miscreants. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.
• But if one looks at booth capturing as a case of miscreants intimidating the polling personnel and
stamping the ballot papers on the symbol and escaping in a matter of minutes, this can be prevented by the
use of EVMs.
• The EVMs are programmed in such a way that the machines will record only five votes in a minute. As
recording of votes has necessarily to be through Control Unit and Balloting Unit, whatever be the number
of miscreants they can record vote only at the rate of 5 per minute. In the case of ballot papers, the
miscreants can distribute all the 1000 odd ballot papers assigned to a polling station, among themselves,
stamp them, stuff them into the ballot boxes and run away before the police reinforcements reach. In half-
an –hour, the miscreants can record only a maximum of 150 votes by which time, chances are the police
reinforcement would have arrived.
Q 16.D
• Sevottam is an assessment - improvement model that has been developed with the objective of improving
the quality of public service delivery in the country. The model was conceived by the Department of
Administrative Reforms & Public Grievances (DARPG), Ministry of Personnel, Public Grievances and
Pensions in 2006.
• The key components of Sevottam are captured with the following objectives:
o Successful implementation of Citizen’s Charters: It requires opening up a channel for receiving
citizens' inputs into the way in which organizations determine service delivery requirements. Citizens'
Charter publicly declares the information on citizens' entitlements; making citizens better informed
and hence empowering them to demand better services.
o Service Delivery Preparedness and achievement of Results: An organization can have an excellent
performance in service delivery only if it is managing the key inputs for good service delivery well,
and building its own capacity to continuously improve delivery. This shall include identification of
services rendered, the service delivery process, its control and delivery requirements.
o Sound Public Grievance Redress Mechanism: This requires a good grievance redress system
operating in a manner that leaves the citizen more satisfied with how the organization responds to
complaints/grievances, irrespective of the final decision.
• The framework enables implementing organizations to undertake a systematic, credible and authenticated
self-assessment (or ‘gap analysis’) for citizen-centric service delivery.
Q 17.C
• Interstate Council and Goods and Service Tax Council (GST council) are mentioned in the
constitution. Zonal Council and North Eastern Council are statutory bodies, which have been created
through an act of Parliament. Hence options 1 and 3 are correct.
• Interstate Council: It is a constitutional body to facilitate coordination between centre and the states. The
Commission on Centre-State Relations under the Chairmanship of Justice R. S. Sarkaria
recommended establishing a permanent Inter-State Council as an independent national forum for
consultation with a mandate well defined in accordance with Article 263 of the Constitution of
India. Pursuant to the recommendation, The Inter-State-Council was set up under Article 263 of
the Constitution of India vide Presidential Order dated 28.5.1990.
o Chairman – Prime Minister
o Members –Chief Ministers of All states; Chief Ministers of Union territories having a Legislative
Assembly and Administrators of Union territories not having a Legislative Assembly
o Where a proclamation has been issued by the President under Article 356 of the Constitution in
relation to any State; the Governor of that State shall be invited to attend the meetings of the Council ;
Six Ministers of Cabinet rank in the Union Council of Ministers to be nominated by the Prime
Minister.
o The Standing Committee of Inter-State Council has been set up in 1996 for continuous
consultation and processing of matters for consideration of the Inter-State Council. It is headed
by Union Minister of Home Affairs.
• Goods and Services Tax Council (GST Council): The GST Council was constituted on 15th September
2016 under Article 279A of the Constitution.
o Composition
▪ Chairman – Union Finance Minister
▪ Member –
✓ Union Minister of state in charge of revenue or Finance
✓ State Finance/Taxation Ministers
• Zonal Council: They are statutory (and not the constitutional) bodies. They are established by an Act
of the Parliament i.e. States Reorganisation Act of 1956.
o The act divided the country into five zones- Northern, Central, Eastern, Western and Southern and
provided a zonal council for each zone.
o Composition –
▪ Chairman – The Union Home Minister is the Chairman of each of these Councils.
▪ Vice-Chairman - The Chief Ministers of the States included in each zone act as Vice-Chairman
of the Zonal Council for that zone by rotation, each holding office for a period of one year at a
time.
▪ Members- Chief Minister and two other Ministers as nominated by the Governor from each of
the States and two members from Union Territories included in the zone.
▪ Advisers- One person nominated by the Planning Commission for each of the Zonal Councils,
Chief Secretaries and another officer/Development Commissioner nominated by each of the
States included in the Zone.
o Union Ministers are also invited to participate in the meetings of Zonal Councils depending upon
necessity.
• North-Eastern Council: The North Eastern Council (NEC) is not a constitutional body, but a statutory
organization established under the North Eastern Council Act, 1971. The North Eastern Council is the
nodal agency for the economic and social development of the North Eastern Region which consists of the
eight States of Arunachal Pradesh, Assam, Manipur, Meghalaya, Mizoram, Nagaland, Sikkim and
Tripura.
o The Council comprises Governors and Chief Ministers of constituent States and three members
nominated by the President.
o Union Home Minister is the ex-officio chairperson of the council. The Union Minister of
Development of North Eastern region (DoNER) is the Vice-Chairman.
Q 18.B
• Good Governance Index is a comprehensive and implementable framework to assess the State of
Governance in all States and UTs which enables ranking of States/Districts and present a
comparative picture. Hence, statement 1 is correct
• Governance Index (GGI), is to create a tool which can be used uniformly across the state, and eventually
district level, to assess the status of governance and impact of various interventions taken up by Central
and State Governments including Union Territories (UTs).
• The objective behind developing GGI is not to use the assessment results with a carrot and stick approach
to pressurise and reward State Governments but to provide useful information for the States as well as
Central Ministries/Departments concerned, enabling them to formulate and implement suitable strategies
for improving the living standards of the citizen.
• It is envisaged that the results would lead to healthy and more informed policy discussions between
different tiers of Governments, as well as all political, bureaucratic, academia, civil society and all
stakeholders. The assessment of the States using the GGI would mark a shift to a data-driven approach to
result oriented approaches and management and promote healthy competition among State
• Another significant contribution of the GGI would be contributing to tracking the progress of
Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs) at state level. The identified sectors and indicators are
directly linked to some of the critical SDG. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
• The Department of Administrative Reform and Public Grievances (DARPG), Government of India
partnered with Centre for Good Governance (CGG), Hyderabad in designing and development of
Good Governance Index. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.
Q 19.C
• Recent Context: The Polit Bureau of the CPI (Marxist) urged the government should issue
compulsory licences for the manufacture of a generic version of Remdesivir, an anti-viral drug
being used to treat COVID-19 patients.
• World Intellectual Property Organisation (WIPO) defines a patent as an exclusive right granted for an
invention, which is a product or a process that provides, in general, a new way of doing something, or
offers a new technical solution to a problem.
• A patentee shall have exclusive rights over his invention for a period of 20 years, and he can exclude
others from making any use of his patented product. But under certain circumstances, a compulsory
license to make use of a patented product may be given to a third party. This concept of compulsory
licensing has been given in chapter XVI of the Indian Patents Act, 1970.
• Compulsory licenses are authorizations given to a third-party by the Controller General to make,
use or sell a particular product or use a particular process that has been patented, without the need
of the permission of the patent owner. This concept is recognized at both national as well as
international levels, with an expressed mention in both (Indian) Patent Act, 1970, and TRIPS
Agreement. Hence both statements 1 and 2 are correct.
• As per Section 84, any person, regardless of whether he is the holder of the license of that Patent, can
make a request to the Controller for grant of a compulsory license on expiry of three years, when
any of the following conditions is fulfilled –
o the reasonable requirements of the public with respect to the patented invention have not been
satisfied
o the patented invention is not available to the public at a reasonably affordable price
o the patented invention is not worked in the territory of India.

• Further, compulsory licenses can also be issued suo motu by the Controller under section 92, pursuant
to a notification issued by the Central Government if there is either a "national emergency" or "extreme
urgency" or in cases of "public non-commercial use".
• The Controller takes into account some more factors like the nature of the invention, the capability of the
applicant to use the product for the public benefit and the reasonability, but the ultimate discretion lies
with him to grant the compulsory license. Even after a compulsory license is granted to a third party, the
patent owner still has rights over the patent, including a right to be paid for copies of the products made
under the compulsory license.
• India's first-ever compulsory license was granted by the Patent Office on March 9, 2012, to Natco
Pharma for the generic production of Bayer Corporation's Nexavar, a life-saving medicine used for
treating Liver and Kidney Cancer.
Q 20.B
• The Public Financial Management System (PFMS) is a web-based online software application that
tracks payments by Government departments. It is developed and implemented by the Controller
General of Accounts (CGA) in the Department of Expenditure in the Finance Ministry. Hence
statement 2 is correct.
• The primary objective of PFMS is to facilitate a sound Public Financial Management System for
Government of India (GoI) by establishing an efficient fund flow system as well as a Payment cum
Accounting network. PFMS provides various stakeholders with a real time, reliable and meaningful
Management Information System and an effective Decision Support System (DSS), as part of the Digital
India initiative of GoI. It provides information of government schemes/ implementation agencies in the
country on fund utilization leading to better monitoring, review and decision support system to
enhance public accountability in the implementation of plan schemes. Hence statement 1 is not
correct. Hence option b is the correct answer.
• The biggest strength of PFMS is its integration with the banking network in the country. As a result,
PFMS has the unique capability to push online payments to almost any beneficiary/vendor having account
in any bank across the country. At present, PFMS interface is completed with the Core Banking System
(CBS) of all Public Sector Banks (26), Regional Rural Banks (54), major private sector banks (14),
Reserve Bank of India, India post and Cooperative Banks (55).
Q 21.C
• Central Information Commission (CIC) was established by the Central Government in 2005, through an
Official Gazette Notification under the provisions of the Right to Information Act (2005). Hence it
is not a constitutional body.
• The Commission consists of a Chief Information Commissioner and not more than ten Information
Commissioners
• They are appointed by the President on the recommendation of a committee consisting of the
Prime Minister as Chairperson, the Leader of Opposition in the Lok Sabha, and a Union Cabinet
Minister nominated by the Prime Minister.
• They should be persons of eminence in public life with wide knowledge and experience in law,
science, and technology, social service, etc.
• They should not be an MP or MLA (in any state or union territory) and should not hold any other
office of profit or connected with any political party or carrying on any business or pursuing any
profession.
• The CIC and ICs shall hold office for such term as prescribed by the Central Government. Hence
• They are not eligible for reappointment. Hence statement 2 is correct.
Q 22.B
• Various Committees/Commissions in the past have made a number of important recommendations
regarding police reforms. Some of the important committees include:
o Gore Committee on Police Training (1971-73): was constituted to review the state of police training
in the country and suggest improvements.
o Ribeiro Committee on Police Reforms (1998): was set up by the Supreme Court to examine if the
National Police Commission‘s recommendations were still relevant or that any modifications were
called for.
o Padmanabhaiah Committee on Police Reforms (2000): was set up to examine the requirements of
policing in the new millennium.
o Group of Ministers on National Security (2000-01): examined the reports of various Committees
which were set up in the wake of Pakistan‘s aggression in Kargil, including the one dealing with
internal security, and suggested comprehensive measures to strengthen the internal and external
security apparatus.
o Malimath Committee on Reforms of Criminal Justice System (2001-3): made far-reaching
recommendations to reform the criminal justice system. It was of the view that the present Adversarial
System could be improved by adopting some features of the Inquisitorial System, and recommended
that 'Quest for Truth‘ should be the guiding principle of the entire criminal justice system. The
Committee suggested significant changes in the Criminal Procedure Code to expedite the disposal of
cases and in the Evidence Act to facilitate securing of convictions.
• The government of India had announced setting up a high-powered task force to review the defence
management in the country and make suggestions for implementation of major defence projects.
The 14-member task force was headed by Naresh Chandra. Hence only option 2 is not correct.
Q 23.A
• Department of Official language: The Department of Official Language was established in 1975 for the
implementation and propagation of the Official Language. It is under the aegis of Ministry of Home
Affairs. Hence pair 1 is correctly matched.
• Directorate General of Foreign Trade (DGFT) Organization is an attached office of the Ministry of
Commerce and Industry and is headed by Director General of Foreign Trade. It is headquartered in New
Delhi. It is responsible for implementing the Foreign Trade Policy with the main objective of promoting
India’s exports. The DGFT also issues licenses to exporters and monitors their corresponding obligations
through a network of 36 Regional Offices and an extension counter at Indore. Hence pair 2 is not
correctly matched.
• Department of Land Resources is under Ministry of Rural Development. The mission of the
Department of Land Resources is to ensure sustainable development of rainfed cultivable and degraded
lands through a participatory approach by involving the stakeholders in decision making in the watershed
development programmes. It makes a concerted effort to enhance the productivity of wastelands thereby
enhancing livelihood opportunities in rural areas. Hence pair 3 is not correctly matched.
Q 24.B
• Article 334 of the Constitution had originally required the reservation of elected seats in the Lok
Sabha and the State Legislative Assemblies to cease in 1960, but this was extended to 1970 by the 8th
Amendment. The period of reservation was extended to 1980, 1990, 2000 and 2010 by
the 23rd, 45th, 62nd and 79th Amendments respectively. The 95th Amendment extended the period of
reservation to 2020. The period of reservation was further extended to 2030 by the 104th Amendment.
• State Legislative Council
o It is the upper house in those states of India that have a bicameral state legislature; the lower
house being the State Legislative Assembly. Its establishment is defined in Article 169 of the
Constitution of India.
o The size of the State Legislative Council cannot be more than one-third of the membership of the
State Legislative Assembly. However, its size cannot be less than 40 members. These members elect
the Chairman of the Legislative Council and Deputy Chairman.
o There is no provision of caste/class-based reservation in councils. Hence option 1 is not correct.
• Panchayats
o The Constitution (73rd Amendment) Act, 1992 act provides for the reservation of seats for
scheduled castes and scheduled tribes in every panchayat (i.e., at all the three levels) in the
proportion of their population to the total population in the panchayat area. Hence option 2 is
correct.
o Further, the state legislature shall provide for the reservation of offices of chairperson in the
panchayat at the village or any other level for the SCs and STs.
• The Rajya Sabha or Council of States
o It is the upper house of the bicameral Parliament of India.
o It currently has a maximum membership of 245, of which 233 are elected by the legislatures of the
states and union territories using single transferable votes through Open Ballot while the President can
appoint 12 members for their contributions to art, literature, science, and social services.
o Rajya Sabha does not have any such caste/class-based reservation. Hence option 3 is not correct.

• Municipalities
o The Constitution (74th Amendment) Act, gave constitutional status to the municipalities.
o All the members of a municipality shall be elected directly by the people of the municipal area. For
this purpose, each municipal area shall be divided into territorial constituencies to be known as wards.
o The act provides for the reservation of seats for the scheduled castes and the scheduled tribes in
every municipality in the proportion of their population to the total population in the municipal
area. Hence option 4 is correct.
Q 25.A
• Association of South-East Asian nations (ASEAN), is a geo-political and economic organization with
10 member countries, formed in August 1967 by Indonesia, Malaysia, the Philippines, Singapore and
Thailand. The membership expanded to include Brunei Darussalam, Cambodia, the Lao People’s
Democratic Republic, Myanmar and Vietnam. Hence pair 1 is correctly matched.
• Recently, India and ASEAN countries have agreed to review the free trade agreement to make it
more user friendly, simple and facilitative. The review will make the ASEAN India trade in Goods
Agreement (AITIGA) modern with contemporary trade facilitative practices, and streamlined customs and
regulatory procedures.
• South Asian Free Trade Area Agreement:
o The South Asian Free Trade Area (SAFTA) is an agreement reached on January 6, 2004, at the
12th SAARC summit in Islamabad, Pakistan. It created a free-trade area of 1.6 billion people in
Afghanistan, Bangladesh, Bhutan, India, the Maldives, Nepal, Pakistan and Sri Lanka to reduce
customs duties of all traded goods to zero by the year 2016.
o The main objective of the agreement is to promote competition in the area and to provide equitable
benefits to the countries involved. It aims to benefit the people of the countries by bringing
transparency and integrity among the nations. The SAFTA was also formed in order to increase the
level of trade and economic cooperation among the SAARC nations by reducing the tariff and
barriers and also to provide special preference to the Least Developed Countries (LDCs) among
the SAARC nations.to establish a framework for further regional cooperation. Hence pair 2 is
correctly matched.
• Mercosur (in Spanish), Mercosul (in Portuguese)
o Officially Southern Common Market is a South American trade bloc established by the Treaty of
Asunción in 1991 and the Protocol of Ouro Preto in 1994. Its full members are Argentina, Brazil,
Paraguay and Uruguay. Venezuela is a full member but has been suspended since 1 December 2016.
Associate countries are Bolivia, Chile, Colombia, Ecuador, Guyana, Peru and Suriname. Hence pair
3 is not correctly matched.
o Mercosur's purpose is to promote free trade and the fluid movement of goods, people, and currency.
Since its foundation, Mercosur's functions have been updated and amended many times; it currently
confines itself to a customs union, in which there is free intra-zone trade and common trade policy
between member countries. The bloc places high on the human development index.
o India has a Preferential Trade Agreement with MERCOSUR.
Q 26.C
• The Jan Chowkidar (People’s watch) is a Patna based NGO. Its plea centred around Sections 62 of the
RoPA 1951. Section 62 of the act said:
o Only an elector can be a representative. If a person is not qualified to vote, he cannot represent
the people.
o Section 62 implies that if a person is jailed or in lawful detention at the time of elections, he shall not
be eligible for voting. However, if a person is in preventive custody, he can vote.
o The question was that – If only an elector can be representative, then how those who lose being an
elector on account of their jail or custody, can contest the elections?
o In 2004, the Patna High Court had that when a person in custody is disqualified from voting he or she
must be disqualified from contesting in elections too.
• Lily Thomas v. Union of India case, 2004
o SC ruled that any Member of Parliament (MP), Member of the Legislative Assembly (MLA) or
Member of a Legislative Council (MLC) who is convicted of a crime and given a minimum of two
years' imprisonment, loses membership of the House with immediate effect.
o This is in contrast to the earlier position, wherein convicted members held on to their seats until they
exhausted all judicial remedy in lower, state and the Supreme court of India. Further, Section 8(4) of
the Representation of the People Act, which allowed elected representatives three months to appeal
their conviction.
• PUCL Case, 2004
o SC upheld the constitutional right of citizens to cast a negative vote in elections. Hence, option
(c) is correct.
o Supreme Court held that a Right to vote also includes a right not to vote i.e. right to reject. which has
its genus in freedom of speech and expression.
o Also, the Right to secrecy is an integral part of a free and fair election. While the name of the voters
who have not cast their votes was publically disclosed, but by casting a negative vote, secrecy will be
maintained.
o The judgment of the Hon’ble Supreme Court, in this case, is significant not only because it introduced
the option of NOTA on the EVMs but also because it dignified the right to vote
• In the LIC of India case, 1995, the Supreme Court held that the Preamble is an integral part of the
Constitution.
Q 27.A
• CBI is governed by the Delhi Special Police Establishment Act that makes consent of a state government
mandatory for conducting investigation in that state.
• There are two kinds of consent: case-specific and general. Given that the CBI has jurisdiction only over
central government departments and employees, it can investigate a case involving state government
employees or a violent crime in a given state only after that state government gives its consent.
• “General consent” is normally given to help the CBI seamlessly conduct its investigation into cases of
corruption against central government employees in the concerned state. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• Almost all states have given such consent. Otherwise, the CBI would require consent in every case. For
example, if it wanted to investigate a bribery charge against a Western Railway clerk in Mumbai, it would
have to apply for consent with the Maharashtra government before registering a case against him.
• Delhi Special Police Establishment Act, 1946 confers the power to grant or withdraw the consent upon the
states. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
• Recently, Andhra Pradesh and West Bengal governments withdrew “general consent” to the CBI for
investigating cases in their respective states.
• It means the CBI will not be able to register any fresh case involving a central government official or a
private person stationed in these two states without getting case-specific consent.
• The CBI would still have the power to investigate old cases registered when general consent existed. Also,
cases registered anywhere else in the country, but involving people stationed in Andhra Pradesh and West
Bengal, would allow CBI’s jurisdiction to extend to these states.
Q 28.B
• The Public Enterprises Selection Board (PESB) under the Department of Personnel and Training (DoPT)
is a high powered body to advise the government on management and top-level appointments of Central
Public Sector Enterprises. It has been set up with the objective of evolving a sound managerial policy for
the Central Public Sector Enterprises and, in particular, to advise the Government on appointments to their
top management posts.
• Specific functions assigned to the P.E.S.B include the following:
o To be responsible for the selection and placement of personnel in the posts of Chairman, Managing
Director or Chairman-cum-Managing Director (Level-I), and Functional Director (Level-II) in PSEs
as well as in posts at any other level as may be specified by the Government;
o To advise the Government on matters relating to appointments, confirmation or extension of tenure
and termination of services of the personnel of the above-mentioned levels;
o To advise the Government on the desired structure at the Board level, and, for senior management
personnel, for each PSE or group of PSEs;
o To advise the Government on a suitable performance appraisal system for both the PSEs and the
managerial personnel in such enterprises;
o To build a data bank containing data relating to the performance of PSEs and its officers;
Hence statement 3 is correct
o To advise the Government on formulation and enforcement of a code of conduct and ethics for
managerial personnel in PSEs; Hence statement 2 is correct.
o To advise the Government on evolving suitable training and development programs for management
personnel in PSEs
• Statement 1 is not correct: Banks Board Bureau recommends for selection of heads - Public Sector
Banks and Financial Institutions and helps banks in developing strategies and capital raising plans.
Hence, option (b) is the correct answer.
Q 29.D
• Law Commission of India: The Law Commission of India is a non-constitutional, non-statutory
body constituted by the Government of India from time to time. It is an executive body established by an
order of the Government of India.
• The Law Commission, on a reference made to it by the Central Government or suo-motu, undertake
research in law and review of existing laws in India for making reforms therein and enacting new
legislations. It also undertakes studies and research for bringing reforms in the justice delivery systems for
elimination of delay in procedures, speedy disposal of cases, reduction in cost of litigation etc.
• The tenure of the Commission is three years. It is usually re-constituted after every three
years. Hence statement 1 is not correct.
• The Law Commission of India is an advisory body to the government for legal reforms in India. The
recommendations of the Law Commission is not binding upon the government. Hence statement 2 is
not correct.
• The central government in February 2020, constituted 22nd Law Commission for a period of three years.
It will consist of:
o a full-time Chairperson;
o four full-time Members (including Member-Secretary)
o Secretary, Department of Legal Affairs as ex-officio Member;
o Secretary, Legislative Department as ex officio Member; and
o not more than five part-time Members.
• Additional Information:
o First Law Commission was established during the British Raj in 1834 by the Charter Act of 1833. Its
chairman was Lord Macaulay. It recommended for the Codifications of the Indian Penal Code (IPC),
Criminal Procedure Code etc.
o The first Law Commission of independent India was established in 1955 for a three year term. The
Chairman of this Commission was Mr. M. C. Setalvad, who was also the First Attorney General of
India.
Q 30.C
• Salient features of The Lokpal and Lokayukta Act, 2013:
o Institutional mechanism: Establishment of Lokpal for the Union and Lokayukta for States to inquire
into allegations of corruption against certain public functionaries.
o Composition: Lokpal will consist of a chairperson and a maximum of eight members, of which 50%
shall be judicial members and 50% shall be from SC/ST/OBCs, minorities and women.
o Appointment process: It is a two-stage process.
▪ A search committee which recommends a panel of names to the high-power selection committee.
▪ The selection committee comprises the Prime Minister, the Speaker of the Lok Sabha, the Leader
of the Opposition, the Chief Justice of India (or his nominee) and an eminent jurist (nominated by
President based on the recommendation of other members of the panel).
▪ President will appoint the recommended names.
• The Chairperson and every Member hold office for a term of five years from the date on which he enters
upon his office or until he attains the age of seventy years, whichever is earlier.
• Jurisdiction: The jurisdiction of Lokpal extends to
o Anyone who is or has been Prime Minister, or a Minister in the Union government, or a Member of
Parliament, as well as officials of the Union government under Groups A, B, C and D.
o The chairpersons, members, officers and directors of any board, corporation, society, trust or
autonomous body either established by an Act of Parliament or wholly or partly funded by the Centre.
o Any society or trust or body that receives foreign contribution above ₹10 lakh.
• Salaries, allowances and service conditions of the Lokpal chairperson will be the same as those for
the Chief Justice of India; those for other members will be the same as those for a judge of the
Supreme Court. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• Inquiry wing and prosecution wing: Inquiry Wing for conducting preliminary inquiry and Prosecution
Wing for the purpose of prosecution of public servants in relation to any complaint by the Lokpal under
this Act.
• The administrative expenses of the Lokpal, including all salaries, allowances and pensions of the
Chairperson, Members or Secretary or other officers or staff of the Lokpal, will be charged upon
the Consolidated Fund of India and any fees or other money taken by the Lokpal shall form part of
that Fund. Hence statement 2 is correct.

Q 31.B
• Recent Context: Bhutan’s foreign ministry has issued a demarche to the Chinese embassy in New
Delhi for the claims made by Beijing over Sakteng Wildlife sanctuary, situated in eastern Bhutan.
Hence option (b) is the correct answer.
• The recent claim was made at the 58th meeting of the Global Environment Facility (GEF)
Council where China tried to “oppose” funding to a project for the Sakteng Wildlife Sanctuary situated in
Bhutan saying that it was “disputed” territory. While Thimphu and Beijing do not have formal diplomatic
relations, the two sides have been in talks to resolve the border issues between the two countries and
demarcate the boundary.
• Sakteng is based in Eastern Bhutan, or Trashigang Dzongkhag (district) that borders Arunachal
Pradesh. It protects several endemic species including the eastern blue pine and the black-rumped
magpie. It was created in part to protect the migoi, a yeti-like cryptid whose existence has not been
scientifically confirmed, but in which the local population strongly believes.
Q 32.A
• Fourth tiger census report, Status of Tigers, Co-predators, Prey and their Habitat, 2018 shows the
count of tigers in India, has risen to 2967, in 2018 from 2,226 in 2014.
• Report assesses the status of tigers in terms of spatial occupancy and density of individual populations
across India.
• Technologies used in this assessment
o M-STrIPES (Monitoring system for tigers - intensive protection and ecological status) using GPS to
geotag photo-evidences and survey information, made this exercise more accurate
o CaTRAT (Camera Trap data Repository and Analysis Tool) for automated segregation of camera
trap photographs to species.
• During the release of the report, a water and fodder scheme was proposed within the reserves so that
fewer animals stray out of these reserves and minimizes animal-human conflict.
• It is also crucial to keep track of their numbers as Global Tiger Forum, an international collaboration of
tiger bearing countries, has set a goal of doubling the count of wild tigers by 2022.
o India already achieved the target of doubling the count.
• Key Findings
o At 2,967, India hosts 70% of the world’s tigers. Tigers were observed to be increasing at a rate of
6% per annum (2006 to 2018). Nearly a third of India’s tigers are living outside tiger reserves. Hence
o According to the report on the condition of all 50 tiger reserves, Madhya Pradesh (526) has the
maximum number of tigers followed by Karnataka (524) and Uttarakhand (442). Hence statement
2 is not correct.
o Northeast has suffered losses in population. Tiger status in Chhattisgarh, Jharkhand and Odisha has
steadily declined.
o Largest contiguous tiger population in the world of about 724 tigers was found in the Western
Ghats (Nagarhole-BandipurWayanad -Mudumalai- SatyamangalamBRT block). Hence
o Second largest population of about 604 tigers was found across Uttarakhand and western Uttar
Pradesh (Rajaji-Corbett-RamnagarPilibhit-Dudhwa block).
o Nearly 17 of the 50 reserves are approaching the peak of their capacity at sustaining their
populations. Hence the correct answer is option (a).
Q 33.B
• Lokpal: The First Administrative Reforms Commission (ARC) of India (1966–1970) recommended
the setting up of two special authorities designated as ‘Lokpal’ and ‘lokayukta’ for the redressal of
citizens’ grievances. Hence option (b) is the correct answer.
• These institutions were to be set up on the pattern of the institution of Ombudsman in Scandinavian
countries and the parliamentary commissioner for investigation in New Zealand. The Lokpal would deal
with complaints against ministers and secretaries at Central and state levels, and the Lokayukta (one at the
Centre and one in every state) would deal with complaints against other specified higher officials.
• The Lokpal and Lokayuktas Act, 2013 has been enacted by the Government.
Q 34.C
• Recent Context: The Philippines has called on China to comply with 2016 arbitral ruling that had ruled
that China has no 'historic rights over the waters of the South China Sea'. The move comes as China
continues its aggressive action to show its dominance in the region.
• Permanent Court of Arbitration (PCA): It was established by the Convention for the Pacific
Settlement of International Disputes, concluded at The Hague in 1899.
• It is an intergovernmental organization providing a variety of dispute resolution services involving
various combinations of states, state entities, international organizations and private parties. Hence
both the statements are correct.
• The PCA is not a court in the conventional understanding of that term but an administrative organization
with the object of having permanent and readily available means to serve as the registry for purposes of
international arbitration and other related procedures, including commissions of enquiry and conciliation.
• The cases span a range of legal issues involving territorial and maritime boundaries, sovereignty, human
rights, international investment, and international and regional trade.
• PCA has a three-part organizational structure consisting of:
o an Administrative Council that oversees its policies and budgets;
o a panel of independent potential arbitrators known as the Members of the Court;
o its Secretariat, known as the International Bureau, headed by the Secretary-General.
• It's headquartered is situated in Hague, Netherlands.
• The organization is not a United Nations agency, but the PCA is an official United Nations Observer.
• India is its member.
Q 35.A
• Recent Context: 2020 Global Multidimensional Poverty Index was released recently. The Global
Multidimensional Poverty Index (MPI) was developed in 2010 by the Oxford Poverty & Human
Development Initiative (OPHI) and the United Nations Development Programme. 2020 marks the
ten year anniversary since the global MPI was first launched. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• What is the Global MPI?
• MPI is the product of the incidence of poverty (proportion of poor people) and the intensity of poverty
(average deprivation score of poor people) and is therefore sensitive to changes in both components.
• The global Multidimensional Poverty Index (MPI) is an international measure of acute multi-dimensional
poverty covering over 100 developing countries. Hence statement 2 is not correct.
• The MPI ranges from 0 to 1 and higher values imply higher poverty. Hence statement 3 is not
correct.
• The MPI looks beyond income to understand how people experience poverty in multiple and
simultaneous ways.
• It identifies how people are being left behind across three key dimensions: health, education and
standard of living, comprising 10 indicators. People who experience deprivation in at least one-third of
these weighted indicators fall into the category of multidimensionally poor.
Dimensions
Indicator Deprived if living in the household where… Weight
of Poverty
Health Nutrition An adult under 70 years of age or a child is undernourished. 1/6
Child Any child under the age of 18 years has died in the five years
1/6
mortality preceding the survey.
Years of No household member aged 10 years or older have completed six
Education 1/6
schooling years of schooling.
School Any school-aged child is not attending school up to the age at
1/6
attendance which he/she would complete class 8.
Standard of
Cooking Fuel The household cooks with dung, wood, charcoal or coal. 1/18
living
The household’s sanitation facility is not improved (according to
Sanitation SDG guidelines) or it is improved but shared with other 1/18
households.
The household does not have access to improved drinking water
Drinking-
(according to SDG guidelines) or safe drinking water is at least a 1/18
Water
30-minute walk from home, round trip.
Electricity The household has no electricity. 1/18
Housing materials for at least one of the roofs, walls and floors are
Housing inadequate: the floor is of natural materials and/or the roof and/or 1/18
walls are of natural or rudimentary materials.
The household does not own more than one of these assets: radio,
Assets TV, telephone, computer, animal cart, bicycle, motorbike or 1/18
refrigerator, and does not own a car or truck.
Q 36.B
• e-Pramaan is a standards-based National e-Authentication framework, which facilitates
authentication and security of users accessing various government services on mobile and fixed platforms.
e-Pramaan offers multi-factor authentication using (password, OTP, digital certificate and biometrics),
with additional features comprising configurable chaining of authentication factors, web-site
authentication, Aadhaar-based user identity verification and PAN-based identity verification. It aims to
consolidate disparate identity documents across government departments including driving license, PAN,
voter ID, etc. under a single digital profile. Hence, pair 1 is not correctly matched.
• In order to utilise and harness the benefits of Cloud Computing, Government of India has embarked upon
an ambitious initiative - "GI Cloud" which has been named as "MeghRaj". The focus of this initiative is to
accelerate delivery of e-services in the country while optimizing ICT spending of the Government. This
will ensure optimum utilization of the infrastructure and speed up the development and deployment of
eGov applications. The architectural vision of GI Cloud encompasses a set of discrete cloud computing
environments spread across multiple locations, built on existing or new (augmented) infrastructure,
following a set of common protocols, guidelines and standards issued by the Government of India. Hence,
pair 2 is correctly matched.
• The Mission of e-Kranti is to ensure a Government-wide transformation by delivering all
Government services electronically to citizens through integrated and interoperable systems via
multiple modes while ensuring efficiency, transparency and reliability of such services at affordable
costs. The implementation of e-Kranti is vital for Digital India and for the delivery of e-governance, easy
governance and good governance in the country. Hence, pair 3 is not correctly matched.
Q 37.C
• While an opinion poll is conducted before balloting to gauge the intentions of voters, an exit survey
is conducted after elections to find out who they actually voted for. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• Agencies conducting an exit poll follow a range of different procedures or methods. One of the most
common methods is a sampling. These agencies might opt for random or systematic sampling. The
random sampling at times can be of an entire electorate and not just of voters outside a booth — covering
parameters such as age, sex, caste, region and more.
• Section 126A of the Representation of the People's Act, 1951 clearly states that "No person shall conduct
any exit poll and publish or publicise by means of the print or electronic media or disseminate in any other
manner, whatsoever, the result of an exit poll during such period as may be notified by the Election
Commission in this regard."
• Election Commission had declared that Exit polls can be telecast by agencies, including all websites,
only after the final phase of polling. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
• The EC said the advisory would include the display of any opinion poll and of standard debates, analysis,
visuals and sound-bytes, among other things.
• TV, radio channels, cable networks, websites and social media platforms should ensure that the contents
of programmes telecast/broadcast/displayed by them during the 48-hour period before the end of polls in
each phase "do not contain any material, including views or appeals by participants that may be construed
as promoting or prejudicing the prospect" of any particular party or candidate.
• Moreover, some media agencies tried to conduct exit polls under the garb of opinion polls while voting in
some of the constituencies is to be conducted. This dissemination of results of the opinion poll in effect
becomes dissemination of results of exit polls in respect of the said constituencies
• EC has cleared that no opinion polls could be conducted for constituencies that had already voted.

Q 38.C
• Under the Constitution, the police is a subject governed by states. Therefore, each of the 29 states has their
own police forces. The state government exercises control and superintendence over the state police forces.
• At the district level, the District Magistrate (DM) may also give directions to the Superintendent of Police
(SP) and supervise police administration. This is called the dual system of control (as the authority is
vested in both the DM and SP) at the district level.
• In some metropolitan cities and urban areas, however, the dual system has been replaced by the
Commissionerate system to allow for quicker decision-making in response to complex law and order
situations.
• Dual system of control:
o Dual command structure over the district police means that control and direction over the
police vests with the SP (head of district police) and the District Magistrate (executive). Hence,
o Separation of powers of the DM (e.g., issues arrest warrants and licenses) and the police (e.g.,
investigate crimes and make arrests). Therefore, less concentration of power in the police, and
accountability to DM at the district level.
o SP is assisted by Additional/Assistant/ Deputy SPs, Inspectors and constabulary.
• Commissionerate system:
o Unified command structure with the Commissioner of Police (rank of the Deputy Inspector
General or above) as the sole head of the force within the city. Allows for quicker responses to
law and order situations. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
o Powers of policing and magistracy concentrated in Commissioner. Directly accountable to the state
government and state police chief. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
o Commissioner is assisted by Special/ Joint/ Additional/ Deputy Commissioners, etc. Inspector
downwards rank structure is the same.
Q 39.B
• Under Article 344 of the Constitution, The President shall, at the expiration of five years from the
commencement of this Constitution and thereafter at the expiration of ten years from such
commencement, by order constitute a Commission which shall consist of a Chairman and such other
members representing the different languages specified in the Eighth Schedule as the President may
appoint, and the order shall define the procedure to be followed by the Commission. Hence statement 1
is not correct.
• It is also mentioned that there shall be constituted a Committee consisting of thirty members, of whom
twenty shall be members of the House of the People and ten shall be members of the Council of States to
be elected respectively by the members of the House of the People and the members of the Council of
States in accordance with the system of proportional representation by means of the single transferable
vote. It shall be the duty of the Committee to examine the recommendations of the Commission and to
report to the President their opinion thereon.
• It shall be the duty of the Commission to make recommendations to the President as to
o the progressive use of the Hindi language for the official purposes of the Union
o restrictions on the use of the English language for all or any of the official purposes of the
Union; Hence statement 2 is correct.
o the language to be used for all or any of the purposes mentioned in article 348;
o the form of numerals to be used for any one or more specified purposes of the Union ;
o any other matter referred to the Commission by the President as regards the official language of the
Union and the language for
o communication between the Union and a State or between one State and another and their use.
Q 40.C
• The Model Code of Conduct for the guidance of political parties and candidates is a set of norms which
has been evolved with the consensus of political parties who have consented to abide by the principles
embodied in the said code and also binds them to respect and observe it in its letter and spirit.
• The Election Commission ensures its observance by political party(-ies) in power, including ruling parties
at the Centre and in the States and contesting candidates in the discharge of its constitutional duties for
conducting the free, fair and peaceful elections to the Parliament and the State Legislatures under Article
324 of the Constitution of India. It is also ensured that official machinery for the electoral purposes is not
misused. Further, it is also ensured that electoral offences, malpractices and corrupt practices such as
impersonation, bribing and inducement of voters, threat and intimidation to the voters are prevented by all
means. In case of violation, appropriate measures are taken.
• The Model Code of Conduct is enforced from the date of announcement of election schedule by the
Election Commission and is operational until the process of elections is completed.
• Some of the features of MCC are:
o The Ministers shall not combine their official visit with electioneering work and shall not also make
use of official machinery or personnel during the electioneering work, however, the Commission has
exempted the Prime Minister from the operation of the model code of conduct provision
pertaining to the combining of an official visit with electioneering visit. Hence option 2 is not
correct.
o No transport including official air-crafts, vehicles etc. shall be used for the furtherance of the interest
of any party or a candidate
o There shall be a total ban on the transfer and posting of all officers/officials directly or indirectly
connected with the conduct of the election. If any transfer or posting of an officer is considered
necessary, prior approval of the Commission shall be obtained. Hence option 1 is correct.
o There is no objection provided that he does not make any political speech on the occasion and the
function is to be conducted only by Govt. officials. No advertisement depicting the photograph of
Chief Minister/Minister/Speaker shall be released.
o Governor may participate and address the Convocation. Chief Minister or Ministers may be advised
not to participate and address the Convocation.
o The Central Ministers / Chief Minister / Ministers in the States and other political functionaries
can attend the Independence Day/Republic Day celebration. However, it will be ensured that no
political speeches highlighting the achievements of the party in power are made on the
occasions. Hence option 3 is not correct.
o Ministers and other authorities shall not sanction grants/payments out of discretionary funds from the
time elections are announced.
o Fresh release of funds under MPs/MLAs/MLCs Local Area Development Fund of any scheme shall
not be made in any area where the election is in progress, till the completion of the election process.
Q 41.C
• The grounds, as well as procedure for removal of a UPSC member, are given in Article 317 of the Indian
Constitution.
• The President can remove the chairman or any other member of UPSC from the office under the
following circumstances:
o If he is adjudged an insolvent (that is, has gone bankrupt);
o If he engages, during his term of office, in any paid employment outside the duties of his office; or
o If he is, in the opinion of the president, unfit to continue in office by reason of infirmity of mind or
body.
• In addition to these, the president can also remove the chairman or any other member of UPSC for
misbehaviour. However, in this case, the president has to refer the matter to the Supreme Court for
an enquiry. If the Supreme Court, after the enquiry, upholds the cause of removal and advises so, the
president can remove the chairman or a member. Under the provisions of the Constitution, the advice
tendered by the Supreme Court in this regard is binding on the president. During the course of enquiry by
the Supreme Court, the president can suspend the chairman or the member of UPSC. Hence option (c) is
the correct answer.
Q 42.A
• On appointment, the officers of All India Services are posted to different State cadres. The strength of
each State cadre, however, is so fixed as to include a reserve of officers who can be deputed for service
under the Union Government for one or more 'tenures' of three, four or five years before they return to the
State cadre. This ensures that the Union Government has at its disposal the services of officers with first-
hand knowledge and experience of conditions in the States, while the State Governments have the
advantage of their officers being familiar with the policies and programmes of the Union
Government. Hence option (a) is the correct answer.
• Such an arrangement works for the mutual benefit of both governments. The majority of individual
officers have an opportunity of serving at least one spell of duty under the Union Government; many have
more than one such spell. The practice of rotating senior officers in and out of the Secretariat position is
known in official parlance as the tenure system.
Q 43.D
• Recent Context: 26th Session of the International Seabed Authority Assembly and Council (Part II) was
to take place from 6-21 July 2020. But due to the COVID-19 pandemic, this event has been postponed to
December 2020.
• International Seabed Authority (ISA) is an intergovernmental body based in Kingston, Jamaica,
established by the United Nations Convention on the Law of the Sea. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• It is mandated to organize, regulate and control all mineral related activities in the international
seabed area beyond the limits of national jurisdiction, an area underlying most of the world's
oceans. Hence statement 2 is correct.
• All Parties to the 1982 UNCLOS are members of ISA.
• ISA has entered into 15-year contracts with twenty-one contractors for exploration for polymetallic
nodules, polymetallic sulphides and cobalt-rich ferromanganese crusts in the international seabed area (the
Area).
• The areas being explored are in the Clarion-Clipperton Zone, the Indian Ocean, Mid Atlantic Ridge, South
Atlantic Ocean and the Pacific Ocean.
o For polymetallic nodules, the entitled exploration area allocated to each contractor is 75,000 square
kilometres.
o For polymetallic sulphides, the entitled exploration area allocated to each contractor is 10,000
square kilometres and consists of 100 blocks. Each block is no greater than 100 square kilometres.
o For cobalt-rich ferro-manganese crusts, the entitled exploration area allocated to each contractor
is 3,000 kilometres and consists of 150 blocks. Each block is no greater than 20 square kilometres.
• The Government of India currently has an exploration contract with the Authority in the Indian
Ocean for polymetallic nodules, which entered into force on 24 March 2002 (15 year contract, extended
in 2017). Hence statement 3 is correct. In 2016, the International Seabed Authority and the
Government of India have signed a 15-year exploration contract for polymetallic sulphides.
Q 44.D
• The concept of governance is not new and early discussions go back to at least 400 B.C. to the
Arthashastra, a fascinating treatise on governance attributed to Kautilya. Despite the long provenance of
the concept, there is as yet no strong consensus around a single definition of governance or institutional
quality
• World Bank defines Governance as the manner in which public officials and institutions acquire and
exercise the authority to shape public policy and provide public goods and services. Specifically,
governance is:
o the process by which governments are selected, held accountable, monitored, and replaced;
o the capacity of governments to manage resources efficiently, and to formulate, implement, and
enforce sound policies and regulations; and
o the respect for the institutions that govern economic and social interactions among them. Hence,
option (d) is correct.
• There is a general agreement that the quality of governance matters for development outcomes. According
to Kaufmann and Kraay, while better governance tends clearly to promote economic growth, growth per
se does not tend to promote better governance. Countries with poor governance (rule of law, participation,
etc.) such as China and dictatorships of south‐east Asia had achieved spectacular economic growth.
Q 45.A
• Recent Context: The Maternal Mortality Ratio (MMR) in India has declined to 113 in 2016-18 from
122 in 2015-17 and 130 in 2014-2016, according to the special bulletin on Maternal Mortality in India
2016-18, released by the Office of the Registrar General’s Sample Registration System (SRS). Hence
• Maternal death is the death of a woman while pregnant or within 42 days of termination of pregnancy,
irrespective of the duration and site of the pregnancy, from any cause related to or aggravated by the
pregnancy or its management but not from accidental or incidental causes.
• The maternal mortality ratio (MMR) is defined as the number of maternal deaths during a given time
period per 100,000 live births during the same time period.
• At 215, Assam had the highest MMR in the country, followed by Uttar Pradesh and Madhya
Pradesh with MMR of 197 and 173, respectively. Kerala reported the lowest MMR of 43, followed
by Maharashtra and Tamil Nadu with MMR of 46 and 60, respectively. Hence statement 2 is not
correct.
• To reduce maternal mortality the government has undertaken numerous initiatives through Reproductive,
Maternal, Newborn, Child and Adolescent Health (RMNCH+A) strategy, Janani Suraksha Yojana,
Dakshata, LaQshya, etc.
• SDG 3 (GOOD HEALTH AND WELL-BEING) Targets to reduce maternal mortality and end
all preventable deaths under 5 years of age.
• During the time of disruption in primary health care and OPD services in hospitals due to COVID-19,
the ANM (Auxiliary Nurse Midwife) and ASHA workers are ensuring continued care to maternal and
new-born health in rural areas.
Q 46.A
• The Election Commission of India has directed that all electors in all constituencies who have been issued
Electors Photo Identity Card (EPIC) have to produce the Electors Photo Identity Card for their
identification at the polling station before casting their votes. Those electors who are not able to produce
the EPIC shall produce one of the following alternative photo identity documents for establishing their
identity. The list of eleven documents is:
o Passport, Driving License, Service Identity Cards with photograph issued to employees by
Central/State Govt./PSUs/Public Limited Companies, Passbooks with photograph issued by
Bank/Post Office, PAN Card, Smart Card issued by RGI under NPR, MNREGA Job Card, Health
Insurance Smart Card issued under the scheme of Ministry of Labour, Pension document with
photograph, Official identity cards issued to MPs/MLAs/MLCs, and Aadhaar Card.
o Overseas electors shall have to produce their original passport only for identification.
• Previously, the Commission had allowed Photo Voter Slip (PVS) as a document for identification.
However, it was found to be misused due to lack of security features, hence its use as a stand-alone
identification document for voting has been discontinued. Hence only option 4 is not correct.
Q 47.D
• The system of proportional representation by means of the single transferable vote ensures that the
successful candidate is returned by the absolute majority of votes.
• A candidate, in order to be declared elected to the office of President, must secure a fixed quota of votes.
• The quota of votes is determined by dividing the total number of valid votes polled by the number of
candidates to be elected plus one and adding one to the quotient.(half only when elected candidate is
one). Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
• The voter, while casting his vote, is required to indicate his preferences by marking 1, 2, 3, 4, etc. against
the names of candidates. This means that the voter can indicate as many preferences as there are
candidates in the fray.
• In the first phase, the first preference votes are counted.
• In case a candidate secures the required quota in this phase, he is declared elected.
• Otherwise, the process of transfer of votes is set in motion. The ballots of the candidate securing the
least number of first preference votes are cancelled and his second preference votes are transferred to
the first preference votes of other candidates. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
• This process continues till a candidate secures the required quota.
Q 48.B
• A Social Stock Exchange (SSE) functions as a regulated funding platform to allow social enterprises
and voluntary organizations with a social purpose, to raise funds. The key objective of an SSE is to
help improve access to capital for enterprises that seek to deliver a positive change in society.
• Globally, social investment platforms have been set up in a number of countries such as the UK, the US,
Brazil, South Africa and Canada.
• In January 2019, during the announcement of the Union Budget FY19-20, India’s Finance Minister
proposed a social stock exchange to help enterprises and voluntary organizations working for social
welfare raise capital through debt, equity or mutual funds, under the regulatory ambit of Securities and
Exchange Board of India (SEBI). Hence option (b) is the correct answer.
• Following this announcement, an expert panel was set up by SEBI in September 2019. Under the
chairmanship of Mr. Ishaat Hussain, Director at SBI Foundation and former Finance Director at
Tata Sons, the committee’s objective was to suggest a feasible architecture and outline recommendations
for setting up an SSE mechanism in India.
• Recently, the panel submitted its report, some of its important recommendations are-
o Direct listing of non-profit organisations through the issuance of bonds.
o A range of funding mechanisms including some of the existing mechanisms such as Social Venture
Funds (SVFs) under the Alternative Investment Funds, zero coupons zero principal bonds, Mutual
Funds (MFs), various pay-for-success structures, other securities and for NPOs (Not for Profit
Organisations).
o A new minimum reporting standard for organisations that would raise funds under social stock
exchanges.
o COVID-19 aid fund can be set up by SSE.
Q 49.D
• Recent Context: The US and UK have accused Russia of testing a weapon-like projectile in space
that could be used to target satellites in orbit.
• Outer Space Treaty (OST), 1967: It is a multilateral treaty that provides the basic framework
on international space law.
• It is administered by the United Nations Committee on the Peaceful Uses of Outer Space. India is a
signatory to this treaty, and ratified it in 1982.
• Key principles of the OST
o the exploration and use of outer space shall be carried out for the benefit and in the interests of all
countries and shall be the province of all mankind;
o outer space shall be free for exploration and use by all States;
o outer space is not subject to national appropriation by claim of sovereignty, by means of use or
occupation, or by any other means;
o States shall not place nuclear weapons or other weapons of mass destruction in orbit or on celestial
bodies or station them in outer space in any other manner;
o the Moon and other celestial bodies shall be used exclusively for peaceful purposes;
o astronauts shall be regarded as the envoys of mankind;
o States shall be responsible for national space activities whether carried out by governmental or non-
governmental entities;
o States shall be liable for damage caused by their space objects; and
o States shall avoid harmful contamination of space and celestial bodies. Hence the correct answer is
option (d).
• Other international treaties for regulation of outer space
o Moon Agreement, 1979: It ensures that the Moon and other celestial bodies are used exclusively for
peaceful purposes and that their environments are not be disrupted.
o Liability Convention of 1972 establishes the standards of liability for damage caused by space
objects
o Registration Convention, 1975 requires States to register all objects launched into outer space with
the United Nations.
o Partial Test Ban Treaty (PTBT) prohibits all testing nuclear weapons in the outer space.
Q 50.D
• The Department of Administrative Reforms & Public Grievances is implementing a Plan Scheme of
Modernization of Government Offices. The Scheme emphasizes on integrated and comprehensive
planning for modernization of office with a view to promote efficiency and effectiveness in
government functioning. Such planning should anticipate future requirements of at least a decade,
though the implementation may be carried out in phases. Hence, statements 1 and 3 are correct.
• Under the Scheme, Ministries/Departments are asked to draw integrated and comprehensive proposals for
modernization and also prioritize identified offices/units under the same for funding and to forward the
same to this Department in a prescribed proforma.
• The Scheme aims at the improvement of the work environment by adopting a holistic approach. While
planning modernization, the requirements of the entire Ministry/ Department may be kept in view and a
master plan may accordingly be prepared.
• The proposals received under the scheme are examined by a Screening Committee, which is chaired by
the Additional Secretary, Department of Administrative Reforms and Public Grievances and has members
drawn from the NITI Aayog, National Informatics Centre, Integrated Finance Division of the Ministry of
Personnel, Public Grievances & Pensions and Ministry of Urban Development. Director/DS (O&M),
Department of Administrative Reforms and Public Grievances would be the Member Secretary of the
Committee.
• The Scheme is confined to the Government of India. Proposals meant for the main Ministries/
Departments, attached offices and statutory bodies located in Delhi/NCR will alone be considered
under the scheme. Proposals for field offices, subordinate offices, branch offices outside Delhi, new
offices, training institutes, public sector undertakings, registered societies, autonomous bodies, etc. fall
outside the purview of this Scheme. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
Q 51.A
• Political parties collect funds exclusively for election campaigns and spend the same on publicity,
advertisement, travel and on candidates for their individual campaigns.
• The contesting political parties are required to file their expenditure statements to the Election
Commission of India in the format specified by the Commission within 75 days of Assembly elections
and 90 days of Lok Sabha elections. The Commission, thereafter, makes these statements available in the
public domain for the perusal and scrutiny of the public.
• ECI is empowered to suspend the recognition of a political party for failing to submit its Lok Sabha
expenditure statement. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
• Unlike the limit of election expenditure imposed on a contesting candidate by the Union of India through
the ECI, there is no limit on the expenditure that a party can incur during its election campaigns. Hence,
• Under Section 13A of the Income Tax Act, political parties are exempt from paying Income Tax but are
required to file their Income Tax returns annually to the Income Tax Department.
• As earlier defined in Section 3(1) of the Foreign Contribution (Regulation) Act, 2010 FCRA, 2010,
foreign contribution cannot be accepted by any political party, however, FCRA was amended in 2008 to
exempt the political parties to receive foreign contributions. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.
Q 52.C
• The E-Government Development Index (EGDI) is published by the UN Department of Economic
and Social Affairs (UN DESA) and is prepared over a two-year period following an established
methodology. It looks at how digital government can facilitate integrated policies and services across 193
UN Member States. The Survey supports countries’ efforts to provide effective, accountable and inclusive
digital services to all and to bridge the digital divide and leave no one behind. Hence, option (c) is
correct.
• The EGDI is a composite indicator that consists of three indexes (Online Service Index,
Telecommunication Index and Human Capital Index) that are equally weighted and cover a broad range
of topics that are relevant for e-government.
• Along with an assessment of the website development patterns in a country, the E-Government
Development index incorporates the access characteristics, such as the infrastructure and educational
levels, to reflect how a country is using information technologies to promote access and inclusion of its
people.
• In 2020 Survey, India is ranked at 100th place.
About UN DESA
• The United Nations Department of Economic and Social Affairs (UN DESA) is part of the United
Nations Secretariat. It is responsible for the follow-up to major United Nations Summits and
Conferences, as well as services to the United Nations Economic and Social Council.
• It assists countries around the world in agenda-setting and decision-making with the goal of meeting their
economic, social and environmental challenges.
• It supports international cooperation to promote sustainable development for all, having as a foundation
the 2030 Agenda for Sustainable Development and the 17 Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs).
Q 53.D
• Transparency means that decisions are taken and their enforcement are done in a manner that follows
rules and regulations. It also means that information is freely available and directly accessible to those
who will be affected by such decisions and their enforcement. Transparency ensures that enough
information is provided and that it is provided in easily understandable forms and media.
• Transparency is widely recognised as a core principle of good governance. Free access to information is a
key element in promoting transparency. Removal of bottlenecks in the way of free flow of information to
the citizens can enhance transparency. This requires the following:
o Publication of white papers on all importance governance matters concerning the public by
public bodies.
o Preparation, implementation, monitoring and evaluation of Citizen’s Charters to make
government accountable. Also, The implementation of citizen’s charters must be monitored publicly
and public service report cards be published to ensure efficiency and effectiveness.
o An Annual Paper reporting Performance during the year could be contemplated keeping in view
targets and performance during the financial year in terms of measurable indicators.
o Public financial accountability and transparency, through proper records management, accounting and
external Auditing governments can achieve congruence between public policy, its implementation and
the efficient allocation of resources.
o Fiscal Responsibility Legislation to improve and enhance accountability in the conduct of fiscal
policy by specifying principles of responsible fiscal management by strengthening the reporting
requirements of the Government and for other purposes
o Hence, option (d) is correct.
Q 54.D
• The Seventh Constitutional Amendment Act of 1956 inserted a new Article 350-B in Part XVII of the
Constitution. This article contains the following provisions:
o There should be a Special Officer for Linguistic Minorities. He is to be appointed by the President
of India.
o The office of the Special Officer for Linguistic Minorities was created in1957. He is designated as the
Commissioner for Linguistic Minorities. The Commissioner has his headquarters at Allahabad (Uttar
Pradesh).
o It would be the duty of the Special Officer to investigate all matters relating to the safeguards
provided for linguistic minorities under the Constitution. He would report to the President upon
those matters at such intervals as the President may direct. The President should place all such reports
before each House of Parliament and send to the governments of the states concerned.
• At the Central level, the Commissioner falls under the Ministry of Minority Affairs. Hence, he submits the
annual reports or other reports to the President through the Union Minority Affairs Minister. The
Constitution does not specify the qualifications, tenure, salaries and allowances, service conditions and
procedure for removal of the Special Officer for Linguistic Minorities.
• Hence all the statements are correct.
Q 55.D
• Social accountability has been defined as an approach towards ensuring accountability that relies on civic
engagement, i.e., in which ordinary citizens and citizen groups participate directly or indirectly in exacting
accountability. Social accountability mechanisms can contribute to improved governance, increased
development effectiveness through better service delivery, and citizen empowerment.
• In recent years, the expanded use of participatory data collection and analysis tools, combined with
enhanced space and opportunity for citizen and civil society engagement with the state, has led to a new
generation of social accountability practices. These methods and tools are being increasingly used across
different parts of India are:
o Participatory Planning and Policy Formulation ;
o Participatory Budget Analysis;
o Participatory Expenditure Tracking System ;
o Citizens’ Surveys/Citizen Report Cards ;
o Citizen Charters; and
o Community Scorecards
o Social audits etc.
• Hence option (d) is correct.
Q 56.A
• While many successful initiatives have been undertaken by Central Ministries and State/UT Governments
to improve overall e-Government development, it is necessary to evaluate the overall effectiveness of
service delivery mechanism from a citizen’s perspective.
• The National e-Governance Services Delivery Assessment (NeSDA) framework was conceptualized and
launched in August 2018. The assessment framework emphasizes on the effectiveness/quality of the e-
Governance service delivery mechanism from the citizens perspective. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

• The initial framework of NeSDA was based on the Online Service Index (OSI) of UNDESA
eGovernment Survey and customized for the Indian federal structure and e-Governance landscape of the
States and UTs. The final framework was agreed upon by all stakeholders (Central Ministries, States and
UT’s) through consultative workshops.
• The NeSDA framework primarily assessed all the service portals (State/UT and Central Ministry service
portals) on 7 key parameters, viz. Accessibility, Content Availability, Ease of Use, Information Security
& Privacy, End service Delivery, Integrated Service Delivery and Status & Request Tracking.
• The framework covers six sectors, viz. Finance, Labour & Employment, Education, Local Government &
Utilities, Social Welfare (including Agriculture & Health) and Environment (including Fire) sectors. The
framework covers services under G2B (especially to small businesses) and G2C segments, in these
six sectors. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
• The current NeSDA framework has addressed most of the requirements of the e-Governance assessment
from an efficiency and effectiveness perspective. While this is the first-of-its-kind benchmark exercise for
the year 2018-19, DARPG intends to conduct this periodically for improving the States and Central
Ministry service parameters.
Q 57.D
• The National Centre for Good Governance (NCGG) is an autonomous institute under the aegis of
Department of Administrative Reforms and Public Grievances, Government of India. Its head office is at
New Delhi and branch office at Mussoorie.
• The NCGG has been set up to assist in bringing about governance reforms through studies, training,
knowledge sharing and promotion of good ideas. It seeks to carry out policy-relevant research and prepare
case studies; curate training courses for civil servants from India and other developing countries; provide
a platform for sharing of existing knowledge and pro-actively seek out and develop ideas for their
implementation in the government, both at the National & International Level.
• Functions/ Objectives of National Centre for Good Governance (NCGG) include:
o To be a think tank for governance & policy reforms, cutting across administrative, social,
economic and financial spheres;
o To function as a national repository on information on best practices, initiatives and
methodologies that promote Good Governance, e-Governance, innovation & change
management within the government;
o To initiate and participate in action research and capacity building on various aspects of regulatory
and development administration, public policy, governance and public management at National/State
& local levels;
o To advise on key issues in governance and develop synergy across various Ministries/ Departments of
GoI, and State Governments;
o To promote sharing and replication of innovative ideas and best practices in Governance;
o To interact with national and international organizations, in and outside government, engaged in
research and capacity building in the above spheres;
o To engage in the provision of consultancy services in and outside the country
• Hence option (d) is the correct answer.
Q 58.A
• Central Information commission: It is a statutory body constituted under Right to Information Act,
2005.
• It consists of a Chief Information Commissioner and not more than ten Information Commissioners.
• Department of Personnel and Training (DoPT) under Ministry of Personnel, Public Grievances &
Pensions is the nodal ministry for the Central Information Commission. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• As per section 25 of the RTI Act, the Commission is required to prepare an annual report after the end of
each year on the implementation of the provisions of the Act during that year which is to be forwarded to
the appropriate Government, which, in turn, is required to lay the report before each House of
Parliament. Hence statement 2 is not correct.
Q 59.C
• In a step towards making grievance redressal robust and efficient, lieutenant governor of Jammu and
Kashmir has launched the Integrated Grievance Redress and Monitoring System (JK-IGRAMS).
• The revamped system will decentralise handling and redressal of public grievances by making
district collectors and deputy commissioners the primary level of receiving, disposing and
monitoring grievances. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
• The existing portal has been integrated downwards to the district level by mapping nearly 1,500 public
offices in 20 districts of the UTs making this the widest possible coverage that has been conceived and
enabled in online management of public grievances in J&K.
• This makes it the first online grievance management system in the country which is linked to the
central government (on the top level) and districts, tehsils and blocks (at the bottom level). The
administrative secretaries of different departments are also linked to the mechanism. Hence, statement 1
is correct.
Q 60.C
• Recent Context: The National Intelligence Grid (NATGRID) has signed a memorandum of
understanding with the National Crime Records Bureau (NCRB) to access the centralised online database
on FIRs and stolen vehicles.
• The National Intelligence Grid or NATGRID is the integrated intelligence master database
structure for counter-terrorism purpose connecting databases of various core security agencies under
the Government of India collecting comprehensive patterns procured from 21 different organizations that
can be readily accessed by security agencies round the clock. NATGRID came into existence after the
2008 Mumbai attacks.
• It is a counter-terrorism measure that collects and collates a host of information from government
databases including tax and bank account details, credit/debit card transactions, visa and immigration
records and itineraries of rail and air travel. It will also have access to the Crime and Criminal Tracking
Network and Systems, a database that links crime information, including First Information Reports, across
14,000 police stations in India. Thus it maintains data of only suspected and convicted criminals or
those involved in terrorist activities and not of all citizens. Hence statement 1 is not correct.
• NATGRID is established through governmental notifications rather than legislation passed in
Parliament. Hence statement 2 is not correct.
• Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA) announced in Parliament that Project NATGRID with all its required
physical infrastructures have been completed and the whole master database will go live by 31 December
2020.
• This combined data will be made available to 11 central agencies, which are: Research and Analysis
Wing (R&AW), National Investigation Agency (NIA), Intelligence Bureau (IB), Central Bureau of
Investigation (CBI), Financial Intelligence Unit (FIU), Central Board of Direct Taxes (CBDT),
Directorate of Revenue Intelligence (DRI), Enforcement Directorate (ED), Narcotics Control Bureau
(NCB), Central Board of Indirect Taxes and Customs (CBIC) and Directorate General of GST
Intelligence on a case-to-case basis for investigations into suspected cases of terrorism. Hence
Q 61.C
• The Election Commission is a permanent and an independent body established by the Constitution of
India directly to ensure free and fair elections in the country.
• Article 324 of the Constitution provides that the power of superintendence, direction and control of
elections to parliament, state legislatures, the office of president of India and the office of vice president
of India shall be vested in the election commission.
• The powers and functions of the election commission are:
o To determine the territorial areas of the electoral constituencies throughout the country on the
basis of the Delimitation Commission Act of Parliament.
o To prepare and periodically revise electoral rolls and to register all eligible voters.
o To notify the dates and schedules of elections and to scrutinise nomination papers.
o To grant recognition to political parties and allot election symbols to them. Hence option 1 is
correct.
o To act as a court for settling disputes related to granting of recognition to political parties and
allotment of election symbols to them.
o To appoint officers for inquiring into disputes relating to electoral arrangements.
o To determine the code of conduct to be observed by the parties and the candidates at the time of
elections.
o To prepare a roster for publicity of the policies of the political parties on radio and TV in times of elections.
o To advise the president on matters relating to the disqualifications of the members of Parliament.
o To advise the governor on matters relating to the disqualifications of the members of state legislature.
o To cancel polls in the event of rigging, booth capturing, violence and other irregularities.
o To request the president or the governor for requisitioning the staff necessary for conducting elections.
o To supervise the machinery of elections throughout the country to ensure free and fair elections.
o To advise the president whether elections can be held in a state under president’s rule in order
to extend the period of emergency after one year. Hence option 3 is correct.
o To register political parties for the purpose of elections and grant them the status of national or state
parties on the basis of their poll performance.
• On matters relating to disqualifications under the Anti-Defection law, the presiding officers of either
House of Parliament take their decision without seeking advice from the election commission. Hence
option 2 is not correct.
Q 62.B
• Article 280 of the Constitution of India provides for a Finance Commission as a quasi-judicial body. It is
constituted by the president of India every fifth year or at such earlier time as he considers necessary.
• The Finance Commission is required to make recommendations to the president of India on the following
matters:
o The distribution of the net proceeds of taxes to be shared between the Centre and the states, and
the allocation between the states of the respective shares of such proceeds.
o The principles that should govern the grants-in-aid to the states by the Centre (i.e., out of the
consolidated fund of India).
o The measures needed to augment the consolidated fund of a state to supplement the resources of the
panchayats and the municipalities in the state on the basis of the recommendations made by the state
finance commission.
o Any other matter referred to it by the president in the interests of sound finance.
• The principles that should govern the grants-in-aid to the Panchayats and the Municipalities from
the Consolidated Fund of the State are recommended by the State Finance Commissions, constituted
by the Governor of the State, under Article 243-I of the constitution.
• Hence option (b) is the correct answer.
Q 63.C
• NITI Aayog: It was constituted on January 1, 2015. It has replaced the erstwhile Planning Commission.
• It is non-constitutional, non-statutory body. It has been created by an executive resolution of
Government.
• It is the premier policy ‘Think Tank’ of the Government of India, providing both directional and policy
inputs. It designs strategic and long-term policies and programmes for the Government of India. It also
provides relevant technical advice to the Centre and States.
• NITI Aayog acts as the quintessential platform for the Government of India to bring States to act together
in the national interest and thereby fosters cooperative federalism.
• NITI Aayog functions in close cooperation, consultation and coordination with the Ministries of the
Central Government, and State Governments. While it makes recommendations to the Central and State
Governments, the responsibility for taking and implementing decisions rests with them.
• NITI Aayog’s entire gamut of activities is divided into two main hubs: Team India Hub and Knowledge
and Innovation Hub. The two hubs are at the core of NITI’s efficient functioning. The Team India Hub
carries out the mandate of fostering cooperative federalism and designing policy and programme
frameworks. It provides requisite coordination and support framework to NITI Aayog in its engagement
with the states. The Knowledge and Innovation Hub ensures fulfillment of the mandate of maintaining a
state-of-the-art resource centre; to be a repository of research of good governance and best practices and
their dissemination to stakeholders; and to provide advice and encourage partnerships across key
stakeholders, including colleges, universities, think tanks and non-governmental organizations at home
and abroad
• Offices attached to NITI Aayog:
o Development Monitoring and Evaluation Office – To fufill the mandate of evaluation and
monitoring tasks assigned to NITI Aayog.
o National Institute of Labour Economics Research and Development (NILERD) – It is involved in
research, data collection, and education and training programmes in all aspects of human capital
planning, human resource development, monitoring and evaluation.
• Cell for IPR Promotion and Management (CIPAM) - It is a professional body which ensures focused
action on issues related to IPRs and addresses the 7 identified objectives of the National IPR Policy,
2016. It assists in simplifying and streamlining of IP processes, apart from undertaking steps for
furthering IPR awareness, commercialization and enforcement. It is under the aegis of Department for
Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade(DPIIT), Ministry of Commerce and Industry. Hence option (d)
is the correct answer.
Q 64.A
• Public-Private Partnership (PPP) means an arrangement between a Government / statutory entity /
Government-owned entity on one side and a private sector entity on the other, for the provision of public
assets and/or public services, through investments being made and/or management being undertaken by
the private sector entity, for a specified period of time.
• Public-private partnerships (PPPs) can take a wide range of forms varying in the degree of purpose, the
involvement of the private entity, legal structure and risk-sharing. A PPP is generally memorialized in a
contract or agreement to outline the responsibilities of each party and clearly allocate risk.
• Ministry of Finance, GoI requires the Project sponsors to award PPP projects through a transparent open
competitive bidding process, for greater transparency and consistency to the bid process and terms of the
contract, throughout the project life cycle and market discovery of rates.
• The Government has facilitated the PPP sector by offering:
o Viability Gap Funding (VGF): Viability Gap Funding of up to 40% of the cost of the project can be
accessed in the form of a capital grant. Hence statement 1 is correct.
o IIFCL: infrastructure projects typically involve long gestation periods and debt finance for such
projects is done through the Scheme for Financing Viable Infrastructure Projects through a Special
Purpose Vehicle called India Infrastructure Finance Company Ltd (IIFCL). Hence statement 2 is correct.
o Foreign Direct Investment (FDI): up to 100% FDI in the equity of SPVs in the PPP sector is
allowed on the automatic route for most sectors.
o India Infrastructure Project Development Fund (IIPDF): IIPDF’s primary objective would be to
fund potential PPP projects’ project development expenses in respect of feasibility studies,
environmental impact studies, financial structuring, legal reviews and development of project
documentation, including concession agreement, commercial assessment studies (including traffic
studies, demand assessment, capacity to pay assessment), grading of projects etc. The Fund will
assist ordinarily up to 75% of the project development expenses (not total project cost which
includes cost of land, buildings, equipments etc). Hence statement 3 is not correct.
• The Viability Gap Funding Scheme of the Government of India for Financial Support to Public-Private
Partnerships in Infrastructure, provides financial support of up to 40% of the Total Project Cost in the
form of a grant (one time or deferred) to infrastructure projects undertaken through public-private
partnerships with a view to making them commercially viable. Administered by the Ministry of Finance,
budgetary provisions are made in the Annual Plans on a year-to-year basis for the Scheme.
Q 65.B
• “Public authority” is defined in Section 2(h) of the Right to Information (RTI) Act. It states: “public
authority” means any authority or body or institution of self- government established or constituted—
o by or under the Constitution;
o by any other law made by Parliament;
o by any other law made by the state legislature;
o by notification issued or order made by the appropriate Government, and includes any—
▪ body owned, controlled or substantially financed;
▪ non-Government organization substantially financed, directly or indirectly by funds provided by
the appropriate Government;
• The Act thus defines public authorities in two parts. The first part of the definition clearly delineate bodies
created by the Constitution of India (Union and state executives, Election Commission, etc.), by-laws
made by Parliament and state legislatures (Central and state universities, regulators such as RBI, SEBI,
TRAI etc.), and by government orders or notifications (Planning Commission) as public authorities. The
second part broadens the scope of the definition of a public authority to include anybody owned,
controlled or substantially financed, and any non-governmental body substantially financed by the
appropriate government. The following Institutions/Offices are considered as Public Authority under RTI:
o Recently, a five-member Constitution Bench of the Supreme Court ruled that the office of the
Chief Justice of India is a “public authority” under the RTI Act.
o Comptroller and Auditor General of India is a Public Authority as the office of CAG is
established directly under Article 148 of the Indian Constitution.
• Hyderabad high court has held that religious institutions like temples, churches and mosques that are
not funded by the government do not fall within the purview of the Right to Information Act 2005.
• The Delhi high court ruled that the Office of Attorney General (AG) would be exempted from disclosing
information. The bench overturned a March 2010 judgement by a single bench which held that the AG
and his office were a ‘public authority’ as defined under the RTI Act. Hence, AG is not a public
authority. Hence, option (b) is correct.
Q 66.C
• India Enterprise Architecture (IndEA), is a framework for developing a holistic architecture treating the
Government as a single enterprise which is functionally inter-related. It is a way to establish Unity in
Diversity in the domain of e-Governance.
• It is a framework that enables the development and implementation of Enterprise Architectures
independently and in parallel by all governments and their agencies across India, conforming to the same
models and standards.
• IndEA provides a generic framework, comprising a set of architecture reference models, which can be
converted into an integrated architecture.
• With IndEA, there will be one personalised account for each individual and he or she can avail all
government services from that account. This shall eliminate the need to visit separate sites and have
separate logins on them to access government services. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• IndEA is a collection of architecture reference models. Reference models are documented best practices
for solutions delivery teams to make effective design and technology choices. The purpose of the
reference models is to increase adoption of standards, speed up service design and delivery, and advance
towards the target state architecture. IndEA aims at:
o Documenting and sharing explicit and implicit architecture best practices;
o Providing guidance in the development of enterprise architectures;
o Capturing the key elements of architecture and inter-relationships between them;
o Providing the means for architecture governance by enabling an audit process;
o Enabling the adoption of standards-based on a common understanding
National Digital Health Mission (NDHM)
• NDHM is a voluntary healthcare programme that aims to reduce the gap among stakeholders such as
doctors, hospitals, citizens etc by connecting them in integrated digital health infrastructure.
• NDHM will be developed by adopting India Enterprise Architecture Framework (IndEA) notified
by MeitY. Hence statement 2 is correct.
Q 67.C
• Based on the recommendations made by various Committees and Commissions, various reforms have
been introduced in our electoral system, election machinery and election process. Some of the important
reforms include:
o The 61st Constitutional Amendment Act of 1988 reduced the voting age from 21 years to 18 years for
the Lok Sabha as well as the assembly elections.
o The EVMs were used for the first time in 1998 on an experimental basis in selected constituencies in
the elections to the Assemblies of Rajasthan, Madhya Pradesh, and Delhi. The EVMs were used for
the first time in the general elections (entire state) to the Assembly of Goa in 1999.
o In 1999, a provision was made for voting by certain classes of persons through postal ballot. Thus,
any class of persons can be notified by the Election Commission, in consultation with the government,
and the persons belonging to such notified class can give their votes by postal ballot, and not in any
other manner, at elections in their constituency or constituencies.
o In 2003, the election Commission issued an order directing every candidate seeking election to
the Parliament or a State Legislature to furnish on his nomination paper the declaration of
Criminal Antecedents, Assets, etc., by Candidates.
o In 2010, a provision was made to confer voting rights to the citizens of India residing outside
India due to various reasons. Accordingly, every citizen of India – (a) whose name is not included
in the electoral roll (b) who has not acquired the citizenship of any other country (c) who is absent
from his place of ordinary residence in India owing to his employment, education or otherwise outside
India (whether temporarily or not) – shall be entitled to have his name registered in the electoral roll
in the Parliamentary / Assembly constituency in which his place of residence in India as mentioned in
his passport is located.
o The Supreme Court in September 2013 upheld the right of voters to reject all candidates contesting
the elections, saying it would go a long way in cleansing the political system of the country. The top
court directed the Election Commission to have an option of NOTA on EVMs and ballot papers in a
major electoral reform. The NOTA option was first used in the assembly elections held in five
states in 2013.
o Hence, option (c) is correct

Q 68.C
• Classical languages in India: At present, six languages enjoy the ‘Classical’ status in India. They are -
Tamil (declared in 2004), Sanskrit (2005), Kannada (2008), Telugu (2008), Malayalam (2013), and Odia
(2014). Marathi Language has not been accorded classical status. Hence option (c) is correct.
• The guidelines for declaring a language as ‘Classical’ are:
o High antiquity of its early texts/recorded history over a period of 1500-2000 years.
o A body of ancient literature/texts, which is considered a valuable heritage by generations of speakers.
o The literary tradition be original and not borrowed from another speech community.
o The classical language and literature being distinct from modern, there may also be a discontinuity
between the classical language and its later forms or its offshoots.
• Various benefits provided by Ministry of Education once a language is notified as a Classical language:
o Two major annual international awards for scholars of eminence in classical Indian languages.
o A Centre of Excellence for studies in Classical Languages is set up.
o The University Grants Commission is requested to create, to start with at least in the Central
Universities, a certain number of Professional Chairs for the Classical Languages so declared.
Q 69.D
• The Department of Administrative Reforms & Public Grievances is the chief policy-making, monitoring
and coordinating Department for public grievances arising from the work of Ministries/Departments/
Organizations of the Government of India.
• The organization structure comprises of the following nodal agencies for receiving grievances from the
citizens :
o The Department of Administrative Reforms and Public Grievances. (DAR&PG)
o The Public Wing in Rashtrapati Bhawan Secretariat.
o The Public Wing in the Prime Minister’s Office.
o The Directorate of Public Grievances in Cabinet Secretariat. (DPG)
o The Department of Pensions and Pensioners’ Welfare. Hence, option (d) is correct.
• All the above nodal agencies receive grievances online as well as by post or by hand in person, from the
public.
• The grievances received in the department are forwarded to the Ministries/Departments concerned.
Redressal of grievances is done by respective Ministries/Departments in a decentralized manner. The
Department periodically reviews the status of redressal of public grievances under CPGRAMS of
Ministries/Departments for speedy disposal of grievances/complaints.
• All grievances relating to State Governments / Union Territory Administrations and Government of NCT
Region of Delhi, are to be redressed by the State/ UT/NCT Government concerned.
• The time limit for the redress of grievance is 60 days as per Guidelines. In case of delay, an interim reply
with reasons for the delay is required to be given. However, this time limit is not mandatory as the
grievance redress mechanism is voluntary in nature.
• No penal provisions have been prescribed in the Guidelines relating to redress of public grievances.
However, in case of any dereliction of duty it is the responsibility of the Ministry/Department concerned,
to take disciplinary action against the erring official.
• Every Central Ministry / Department has designated a Joint Secretary or a Director / Deputy Secretary, as
its ‘Director of Grievances’. He / She is the nodal officer for a redress of grievances on work areas
allocated to that particular Ministry / Department.
• The forenoon of every Wednesday of the week has been earmarked for receiving and hearing of
grievances by the Director of Public Grievances in person.
Q 70.C
• Ministry of Housing & Urban Affairs (MoHUA) recently announced a new category of awards
titled ‘Prerak Dauur Samman’ as part of Swachh Survekshan 2021. Hence option is (c) is the
correct answer.
• Swachh Survekshan, conducted by MoHUA since 2016, is the world's largest urban sanitation and
cleanliness survey.
• The Prerak Dauur Samman has a total of five additional subcategories -Divya (Platinum), Anupam
(Gold), Ujjwal (Silver), Udit (Bronze), Aarohi (Aspiring) - with the top three cities being recognized in
each.
• In a departure from the present criteria of evaluating cities on ‘population category’, this new category
will categorize cities on the basis of six select indicator wise performance criteria which are as follows:
o Segregation of waste into Wet, Dry and Hazard categories
o Processing capacity against wet waste generated
o Processing and recycling of wet and dry waste
o Construction & Demolition ( C& D ) waste processing
o Percentage of waste going to landfills
o Sanitation status of cities
• Going a step forward, to ensure the sustainability of the on -ground performance of cities, the Ministry has
also introduced Swachh Survekshan League last year, a quarterly cleanliness assessment of cities and
towns to be done in three quarters and 25% weightage integrated into the final Swachh Survekshan
results.
Q 71 .D
• National Commission for Protection of Child Rights (NCPCR): It is a statutory body established in
2007 under the Commissions for Protection of Child Rights ( CPCR ) Act, 2005.
• It is under the administrative control of the Ministry of Women & Child Development. The Commission's
Mandate is to ensure that all Laws, Policies, Programmes, and Administrative Mechanisms are in
consonance with the Child Rights perspective as enshrined in the Constitution of India and also the UN
Convention on the Rights of the Child. The Child is defined as a person in the 0 to 18 years age group.
• It is a multimember body consisting of a chairperson and six members, out of which at least two are
women . The chairman is a person of eminence who has done a outstanding work for promoting the
welfare of children. Hence statement 1 is not correct.
• The Chairperson hold office for a period not exceeding three years or till the age of sixty -five years,
whichever is earlier . The Members hold office for a term of three years or till the age of sixty years,
whichever is earlier. Hence statement 2 is not correct.
Q 72.D
• Social audit is a tool which measures, evaluates, identifies gaps in service delivery and elicits
promises to rectify these gaps with the direct participation of intended beneficiaries. In its essence, it
empowers citizens to gauge the effectiveness of a scheme by looking at its overall impact.
• It is a process in which details of the resources, both financial and non-financial used by the Public
Agency for the development initiatives, are shared with the public through a public platform . This
aspect allows the clientele to enforce transparency and accountability by scrutinizing the development
activities which also enable them to participate in the development process.
• It is an accountability tool that measures, evaluates, identifies gaps in service delivery and elicits promises
to rectify these gaps with the direct participation of intended beneficiaries in this process.
• It helps to empower citizens to be directly involved in the programmes of a welfare state and to raise
grievances before an authority, instead of being passive beneficiaries. A realisation of what one is entitled
to by law and the empowerment that comes along with demanding this rightful entitlement is a by-product
of a social audit.
• Objectives of Social Audit
o Accurate identification of requirements ,
o Prioritization of developmental activities as per requirements ,
o Proper utilization of funds .

o Conformity of the developmental activity with the stated goals ,
o Quality of service.
• The Centre for Social Audit is set up to provide a clear set of guidelines to carry out and sustain the
process of Social Audit. The Centre has a broad inter -disciplinary perspective towards social
accountability mechanisms, which cut across the different development programmes and policies, run by
different Ministries. Hence the mandate of the Centre is to focus on social audit in particular and social
accountability mechanisms in general. Besides research and training, it focuses on documentation,
publication and specially working in the field by networking with various social audit units/
NGOs/CSOs/activist groups in facilitating the conduct of pilot audits, test audits and audits.
• Hence, all the statements are correct.
30 ©Vision IAS
Q 73.A
• Recently Union Government launched Green-Ag Project to reduce emissions from agriculture.
• About Green- Ag Project:
o It aims to bring at least 104,070 ha of farms under sustainable land and water management and ensure
49 million Carbon dioxides equivalent sequestered or reduced through sustainable land use and
agricultural practices. Hence statement 1 is correct,
o The project will be implemented in Mizoram , Rajasthan , Madhya Pradesh, Odisha
and Uttarakhand. It is funded by the Global Environment Facility (GEF), while the Department
of Agriculture, Cooperation , and Farmers’ Welfare is the national executing agency. Hence
statements 2 and 3 are not correct .
o Other key players involved in its implementation are the Food and Agriculture Organization ( FAO )
and the Union Ministry of Environment , Forest and Climate Change (MoEF&CC ).
• The Green Revolution in India that commenced in 1965 focused on increasing food grain
production, especially in Punjab, Haryana, and Uttar Pradesh.
Q 74.C
• The composition of the NITI Aayog is as follows:
• Chairperson : The Prime Minister of India
• Governing Council : It comprises the Chief Ministers of all the States, Chief Ministers of Union
Territories with Legislatures ( i .e. , Delhi, Puducherry and Jammu and Kashmir) and Lt . Governors of
other Union Territories . Hence, statement 1 is correct and statement 3 is not correct .
• Regional Councils : These are formed for a specified tenure . These are convened by the Prime Minister
and comprises of the Chief Ministers of States and Lt. Governors of Union Territories in the region. These
are chaired by the Chairperson of the NITI Aayog or his nominee.
• Special Invitees: Experts, specialists and practitioners are nominated by the Prime Minister .
• Full -time Organisational Framework: In addition to the Prime Minister as the Chairperson:
o Vice-Chairperson
o Members: Full -time ,
o Part-time Members: Maximum of 2.

o Ex-Officio Members: Maximum of 4.
o Chief Executive Officer: He is appointed by the Prime Minister for a fixed tenure , in the rank of
Secretary to the Government of India ,
o Secretariat: As deemed necessary .

• Governing Council is not mandated to meet at least twice a year. The First and Second Meetings of
Governing council were held in 2015, the third in 2017 and the latest fifth meeting in 2019. Hence
Q 75.C
• According to Sec. 64 of the R . P. Act, 1951, votes are counted by or under the supervision/direction of the
Returning Officer of the Constituency. When the counting is completed, the Returning officer declares the
result as per provisions of Sec. 66 of R. P. Act, 1951 .
• According to Sec. 73 of the R . P. Act , 1951, after the results of all Parliamentary constituencies are
declared , the Election Commission will constitute the new Lok Sabha by notifying in the official
gazette, the names of the elected members.
• The EC issues a notification to constitute the new Lok Sabha and then present it to the President enabling
him to convene the new House.
• Hence option ( c) is the correct answer.
Q 76.C
• Hydropower: Hydroelectricity is the conversion of mechanical energy in flowing water into electricity.
• It is generated when the force of falling water from dams, rivers or waterfalls is used to turn turbines,
which then drives generators that produce electricity .
• Classification of Hydro Projects based on Installed Capacity
Micro: up to 100 KW
Mini : 101 KWto 2 MW
Small: 2 MW to 25 MW
Mega: Hydro projects with installed capacity >= 500 MW
In India, hydro projects up to 25 MW station capacities have been categorized as Small Hydro Power
( SHP ) projects.
31 ©Vision IAS
• Major Hydro Electric (H.E.) plants in N.E. India
• Arunachal Pradesh: 3097 MW Etalin Hydropower Project is proposed to be constructed over Dri and
Tangon Rivers, situated inside the Dibang catchment zone.
• Sikkim: 1200 MW Teesta III Hydroelectric Project on River Teesta.
• Manipur: The Tipaimukh Dam is a proposed 1500 MW hydroelectric project which is going to be
built on the Barak River. Hence the correct option is (c) 3 only
• These are some of the mega hydro projects with the capacity above 500 MW. But these projects pose
extreme challenges like the geography of the region (high seismic activity), very high rainfall and frequent
floods, threat to wildlife habitat and biodiversity as north-east is a hot-spot region, rehabilitation of the
indigenous tribes, etc.
• Some other hydro-projects in N.E. India
o Mizoram: Tuirial H.E. Project on Tuirial river
o Nagaland: Doyang H.E. Project on river Doyang (a tributary of the River Brahmaputra)
o Assam: Kopili H.E. Project on Kopili River
o Arunachal Pradesh:
▪ Ranganadi H.E. Project on Ranganadi river
▪ Pare H.E. Project on river Dikrong (a tributary of river Brahmaputra)
▪ Kameng H.E. Project utilizes the flows from Bichom and Tenga Rivers (both tributaries of the
River Kameng).
Q 77.D
• The National Human Rights Commission (NHRC) is a multi-member body consisting of a chairperson
and five members.
• The chairperson should be retired chief justice of India or a judge of the Supreme
Court and members should be a serving or retired judge of the Supreme Court, a serving or retired
chief justice of a high court and three persons (out of which at least one should be a
woman) having knowledge or practical experience with respect to human rights. Hence, statement 1 is
not correct.
• In addition to these full-time members, the commission also has seven ex-officio members–the
chairpersons of the National Commission for Minorities, the National Commission for SCs, the National
Commission for STs, the National Commission for Women, the National Commission for BCs and the
National Commission for Protection of Child Rights and the Chief Commissioner for Persons with
Disabilities.
• Human Rights (Amendment) Act, 2019 included Chairperson of the National Commission for
Backward Classes, Chairperson of the National Commission for the Protection of Child Rights and
the Chief Commissioner for Persons with Disabilities as ex-officio Members of the Commission.
Chairperson of National Commission for Minorities was already an ex-officio member of NHRC.
Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
Q 78.C
• Right to Information Act, 2005 was enacted with an aim to promote transparency and accountability in the
working of all public authorities, by empowering citizens to obtain information from the public
authorities. The law is comprehensive and covers disclosure of information on almost all matters of
governance.
• It is applicable to Government at all levels—Central, State and Local (both rural and urban) and also to
the bodies owned, controlled or substantially financed by the government, as well as to the non-
governmental organizations receiving government grants. It covers the legislature, the judiciary, the
executive and all constitutional bodies.
• The salient features (or provisions) of the Act are as follows:
o The Act confers on all citizens the right of access to the information and, correspondingly, makes the
dissemination of such information an obligation on all public authorities.
o The Act states that it shall be a constant endeavor of every public authority to take steps in accordance
with the requirements of clause (b) of sub-section (1) to provide as much information suo moto to
the public at regular intervals through various means of communications, including internet, so that
the public have minimum resort to the use of this Act to obtain information. Hence, statement 1 is
correct.
o It fixes a 30-day deadline for providing information; the deadline is 48 hours if the information
concerns the life or liberty of a person. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
o Information will be free for people below the poverty line. For others, the fee will be reasonable.
o It provides for the appointment of a public information officer in each department to provide
information to the public on request.
o Government bodies have to publish details of staff payments and budgets.
o Certain types of information are exempted from disclosure. These relate to sovereignty and integrity
of India, security, the scientific or economic interest of the country, cabinet deliberations and so on.
o Non-Resident Indians (NRIs) can file RTI applications under the Act to seek governance-related
information.
o It provides for the establishment of a Central Information Commission and State Information
Commissions to implement the provisions of the Act. They will be high-powered independent bodies
to act as appellate authorities and vested with the powers of a civil court.
o Its purview does not extend to intelligence and security organizations like Intelligence Bureau,
RAW, BSF, CISF, NSG and so on. However, information pertaining to allegations of corruption
or violation of human rights by these organizations will not be excluded. Hence, statement 3 is
correct.
Q 79.C
• The holding of free and fair elections is the sine-qua-non of democracy. Besides the constitutional
provisions, the Parliament has enacted the Representation of the People Act (RPA), 1950 and
Representation of the People Act,1951.
• The Representation of the People Act, 1951 provides for:
o the conduct of the election of the Houses of Parliament and to the House or Houses of the Legislature
of each State
o the qualifications and disqualifications for membership of those Houses
o the corrupt practices and other offences at or in connection with such elections and the decision of
doubts and disputes arising out of or in connection with such elections
• Salient features of Representation of the People Act (RPA), 1950:
o Lays down procedures for the delimitation of constituencies.
o Provides for the allocation of seats in the House of the People and in the Legislative Assemblies and
Legislative Councils of States.
o Lays procedure for the preparation of electoral rolls and the manner of filling seats.
o Lays down the qualification of voters.
• Hence option (c) is the correct answer.
Q 80.B
• At present (2016), a party is recognised as a state party in a state if any of the following conditions is
fulfilled:
o If it secures six percent of the valid votes polled in the state at a general election to the legislative
assembly of the state concerned; and, in addition, it wins 2 seats in the assembly of the state
concerned; or
o If it secures six percent of the valid votes polled in the state at a general election to the Lok
Sabha from the state concerned; and, in addition, it wins 1 seat in the Lok Sabha from the state
concerned; or Hence, option (b) is not correct.
o If it wins three percent of seats in the legislative assembly at a general election to the legislative
assembly of the state concerned or 3 seats in the assembly, whichever is more; or
o If it wins 1 seat in the Lok Sabha for every 25 seats or any fraction thereof allotted to the state at a
general election to the Lok Sabha from the state concerned; or
o If it secures eight percent of the total valid votes polled in the state at a General Election to the Lok
Sabha from the state or to the legislative assembly of the state. This condition was added in 2011.
• The number of recognized parties keeps on changing on the basis of their performance in the general
elections. On the eve of the sixteenth Lok Sabha general elections (2014), there were 6 national parties, 47
state parties and 1593 registered-unrecognized parties in the country6. The national parties and state
parties are also known as all-India parties and regional parties respectively.
Q 81.D
• National Human Right Commission (NHRC): It is a statutory body established under Protection of
Human Rights Act, 1993.
• The constitution of NHRC is in conformity with the Paris Principles that was adopted at the first
International Workshop on National Institutions for the Promotion and Protection of Human Rights
organized in Paris in October 1991, and endorsed by the General Assembly of the United Nations in
Resolution 48/134 of 20th December 1993.
• The commission is a multi-member body consisting of a chairperson and five members.
• Ordinarily, complaints of the following nature are not entertained by the Commission:
o In regard to events which happened more than one year before the making of the complaints;
o With regard to matters which are sub-judice or pending before the court;
o Which are vague, anonymous or pseudonymous
o Which are of frivolous nature;
o Which pertain to service matters.
Q 82.B
• Faults are discontinuities or cracks that are the result of differential motion within the earth’s crust and
vertical or lateral slippage of the crust along the faults causes an earthquake
• The entire North-eastern and the Himalayan region is a region of high seismic activity and experiences
earthquakes frequently. The Churachandpur Mao runs north-south into Myanmar along the border
of Champhai and the Mat Fault runs northwest-southeast across Mizoram, beneath the river Mat
near Serchhip.
• The Champai district of Mizoram that is caught between these two geological faults the Churachandpur
Mao Fault and the Mat Fault has experienced numerous earthquakes in the past few months. The
Champai district has had been the epicenter for around 8 earthquakes that have jolted the hilly
state between June 21 and July 9 and the tremors ranged from 4.2 to 5.5 on the Richter scale.
• Though as per geologists, the threat persists only if the tremors are over 5 on the Richter Scale. Hence
option (b) is the correct answer.
Q 83.A
• Digital India Corporation is a not for profit company set up by the Ministry of Electronics and
Information Technology (MeitY), Govt. of India, under Section 8 of Companies Act 2013. Hence,
• Digital India Corporation (DIC) leads and guides in realizing the vision, objectives, and goals of the
Digital India program. It provides strategic support to Ministries/Departments of Centre/States for
carrying forward the mission of Digital India by way of Capacity Building for e-Governance projects,
promoting best practices, encouraging Public-Private Partnerships (PPP), nurturing innovation and
technology in various domains. To ensure the autonomy and viability of the organization in the long run,
DIC will also collaborate and mobilize partnerships with the industry, to evolve revenue based models for
service delivery. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• Digital India Corporation shall have the following broad responsibilities:
o To provide leadership and support to the Government of India through MeitY, to steer and anchor
Digital India and all related policy and implementation initiatives.
o To promote digital transactions including digital payments through various mediums.
o To support MeitY in all its initiatives with policy and implementation related issues concerning
various ongoing programs & schemes in the ICT domain and new initiatives necessitated as a part of
the Digital India vision.
o To support Ministries/Departments, both at the Centre as well as at States and other stakeholders in
crafting progressive e-Governance strategies, to promote Accountability, Efficiency, Efficacy, and
Transparency.
o To source and make available from both the markets as well as within government, the pool of
specialized technically skilled manpower for hardware, software, networks, cybersecurity and laws,
standards, quality, and testing, etc. in the ICT domain to Ministries/Departments on charge basis
under the Central and State Government.
o To promote innovation and evolve models for the empowerment of citizens through Digital initiatives
and to promote participatory governance and citizen engagement across the government through
various platforms including social media.
Q 84.B
• The Convention against Torture and Other Cruel, Inhuman or Degrading Treatment or
Punishment (commonly known as the United Nations Convention against Torture (UNCAT)) is
an international human rights treaty, under the review of the United Nations, that aims to
prevent torture and other acts of cruel, inhuman, or degrading treatment or punishment around
the world.
• The Convention requires states to take effective measures to prevent torture in any territory under
their jurisdiction, and forbids states to transport people to any country where there is reason to believe
they will be tortured.
• The Convention defines the term "torture" means any act by which severe pain or suffering,
whether physical or mental, is intentionally inflicted on a person for such purposes as obtaining from
him, or a third person, information or a confession, punishing him for an act he or a third person has
committed or is suspected of having committed or intimidating or coercing him or a third person, or for
any reason based on discrimination of any kind, when such pain or suffering is inflicted by or at the
instigation of or with the consent or acquiescence of a public official or other person acting in an official
capacity. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• It does not include pain or suffering arising only from, inherent in, or incidental to, lawful sanctions.
• All the SAARC members except India (only signatory) and Bhutan (neither signatory nor ratified)
have not ratified the Convention. The other SAARC members have acceded to the Convention.
Hence statement 2 is not correct.
• Non-ratification of this convention has been the major hurdle for the extradition of some criminals to
India.
Q 85.C
• Delimitation literally means the act or process of fixing limits or boundaries of territorial constituencies in
a country or a province having a legislative body.
• Article 82 of the Constitution provides for readjustment of allocation of seats in the House of the People
to the States and the division of each State into territorial constituencies. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• Delimitation Commission is empowered by the act to redraw the boundaries and decide upon the
distribution of seats for state assembly and Lok Sabha election.
• The population is the basis of the allocation of seats of the Lok Sabha. As far as possible, every State gets
representation in the Lok Sabha in proportion to its population as per census figures.
• This readjustment is done by the Delimitation Commission which is set up afresh by the law made by the
parliament.
• In India, such Delimitation Commissions have been constituted 4 times – in 1952 under the Delimitation
Commission Act, 1952, in 1963 under Delimitation Commission Act, 1962, in 1973 under Delimitation
Act, 1972 and in 2002 under Delimitation Act, 2002. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
• Constitution of Delimitation Commission:
o one member, who shall be a person who is or has been a Judge of the Supreme Court, to be appointed
by the Central Government who shall be the Chairperson of the Commission; Hence, statement 3 is
correct.
o the Chief Election Commissioner or an Election Commissioner nominated by the Chief Election
Commissioner, ex officio:
o the State Election Commissioner of concerned State, ex officio.
• The Delimitation Commission in India is a high power body whose orders have the force of law and
cannot be called in question before any court. These orders come into force on a date to be specified by
the President of India in this behalf. The copies of its orders are laid before the House of the People and
the State Legislative Assembly concerned, but no modifications are permissible therein by them.
Q 86.D
• Recently, hundreds of elephants were found dead mysteriously in Botswana’s famed Okavango
Delta.
• The Okavango Delta is a swampy inland delta formed where the Okavango River reaches a tectonic
trough in the central part of the endorheic basin of the Kalahari. All the water reaching the delta is
ultimately evaporated and transpired and does not flow into any sea or ocean.
• The Moremi Game Reserve, a National Park, is on the eastern side of the Delta. The Delta was named as
one of the Seven Natural Wonders of Africa. On 22 June 2014, the Okavango Delta became the 1000th
site to be officially inscribed on the UNESCO World Heritage List.
• The Okavango Delta is both a permanent and seasonal home to a wide variety of wildlife which is now a
popular tourist attraction. Hence the correct option is (d)

Q 87.D
• For every constituency, there is a list of voters which is called the electoral roll.
• Article 326 of the Constitution, and Sec. 19 of R. P. Act, 1950 stipulate that the minimum age for
registration of a voter is 18 years.
• In many states, the voters’ list for the panchayat and municipality elections is different from the one used
for Parliament and Assembly elections. The distinction stems from the fact that the supervision and
conduct of elections in our country are entrusted with two constitutional authorities — the Election
Commission (EC) of India and the State Election Commissions (SECs).
• EC is charged with the responsibility of conducting polls to the offices of the President and Vice-President
of India, and to Parliament, the state assemblies and the legislative councils. The SECs, on the other hand,
supervise municipal and panchayat elections. They are free to prepare their own electoral rolls for local
body elections, and this exercise does not have to be coordinated with the EC.
• So do all states have a separate voters list for their local body elections?
o No. Each SEC is governed by a separate state Act. Some state laws allow the SEC to borrow and use
the EC’s voter’s rolls in toto for the local body elections. In others, the state commission uses the
EC’s voters list as the basis for the preparation and revision of rolls for municipality and panchayat
elections. Hence statement 2 is not correct.
o Currently, all states, except Uttar Pradesh, Uttarakhand, Odisha, Assam, Madhya Pradesh, Kerala,
Odisha, Assam, Arunachal Pradesh, Nagaland and the Union Territory of Jammu and Kashmir, adopt
EC’s rolls for local body polls.
• The incumbent government has pitched a common electoral roll and simultaneous elections as a way to
save an enormous amount of effort and expenditure. Preparation of a separate voters list causes
duplication of essentially the same task between two different agencies, thereby duplicating the effort and
the expenditure.
• In terms of Section 19 (b) of the R. P. Act, 1950, if a person is an ordinary resident and working in a place
different from his native place, then he is not enrolled in the electoral roll of his native place. Hence
• There is no bar to enroll in the electoral a roll on the basis of a pending trial, unless the applicant has been
declared disqualified by a court of law, for being an elector. Hence statement 3 is not correct.
Q 88.A
• All the three committees are related to Civil Services reforms.
• Baswan Committee was appointed by UPSC in 2016 to examine the plan of civil services
examination, UPSC in three stages, number of papers, structure and duration of civil service exams,
marking scheme of papers, weightage of marks and system of evaluation of the civil services examination.
• The Civil Services Examination Review Committee, 2001 (chaired by Professor Yoginder K.
Alagh) recommended major changes in the structure of the examination system for recruitment to the
civil services. It favoured testing the candidates in a common subject rather than on optional subjects.
• The Committee on Civil Service Reforms (Hota Committee Report, 2004) made recommendations, on
recruitment and recommended that the age for entrants to the higher civil services should be between 21-
24 years with a five years’ age concession for members of the Scheduled Castes/Scheduled Tribes and
three years’ for the Other Backward Classes. It also recommended that aptitude and leadership tests may
be introduced for selection, and that probationers may be allowed one month’s time after commencement
of training to exercise their option for Services.
Q 89.B
• Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI): CBI can suo-motu take up investigation of offenses only in the
Union Territories. Taking up investigation by CBI in the boundaries of a State requires the prior consent
of that State. The Central Government can authorize CBI to investigate a crime in a State but only with
the consent of the concerned State Government. The Supreme Court and High Courts, however, can order
CBI to investigate a crime anywhere in the country without the consent of the State. Hence statement 1 is
not correct.
• Each of the member countries of INTERPOL hosts an INTERPOL National Central Bureau (NCB). This
connects their national law enforcement with other countries and with the General Secretariat via its
secure global police communications network .CBI is designated as the National Central Bureau of India.
• National Crime Bureau is the designated contact point for the Interpol in India. It serves as the national
platform for cooperation between domestic law enforcement units and the international police community.
The Director of CBI is the ex-officio head of National Central Bureau (NCB) – India. Hence statement 2
is correct.
Q 90.A
• The Constitution (Article 165) has provided for the office of the advocate general for the states. He
is the highest law officer in the state. Thus he corresponds to the Attorney General of India. Hence
• The advocate general is appointed by the governor. He must be a person who is qualified to be
appointed a judge of a high court. In other words, he must be a citizen of India and must have held a
judicial office for ten years or been an advocate of a high court for ten years. Hence statement 2 is not
correct.
• The term of office of the advocate general is not fixed by the Constitution. Further, the Constitution does
not contain the procedure and grounds for his removal.
• He holds office during the pleasure of the governor. This means that he may be removed by the
governor at any time. He may also quit his office by submitting his resignation to the governor.
Conventionally, he resigns when the government (council of ministers) resigns or is replaced, as he is
appointed on its advice.
Q 91.A
• Part XVII of the constitution (Articles 343 to 351) deals with the official Language.
• As per Article 348(2) the Governor of a state, with the previous consent of the President, can authorise the
use of Hindi or any other official language of the state, in the proceedings in the high court of the
state. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• Article 348(2) also provides that judgements, decrees and orders of the High court must be in English only
(until Parliament otherwise provides). Hence statement 2 is not correct.
Q 92.A
• Bye-elections are elections, which are held to fill previously elected offices that have fallen vacant, before
the ceasure of such elected offices’ tenure. The main motive behind conducting bye-elections in India is
also for serving the above-said purpose. Bye-elections (also known as By-elections or Special elections)
are commonly referred to in India by the name Bypolls.
• Provisions for Bye polls are provided under the Representation of Peoples Act, 1951 under Sections 147,
149, 150, 151 and 151(A).
• ECI is empowered to conduct bye polls when the seat of a member elected to Council of States or
House of People or State Legislative Assembly or State Legislative Council becomes
o vacant (or)
o declared vacant (or)
o the member’s election to any of such bodies is in itself declared to be void
• Vacancy can be created if an elected candidate dies, resigns or vacate one of the two seats won by
him in the election.
• Tie between the top two candidates is dealt with under section 102 of RPA 1951 as follows:
o any decision made by the returning officer would be effective
o and if the question is not determined by such a decision, then High Court shall decide between them
by lottery
• Hence option (a) is the correct answer.
Q 93.C
• The Constitution makes a provision for the establishment of a Joint State Public Service Commission
(JSPSC) for two or more states. While the UPSC and the SPSC are created directly by the
Constitution, a JSPSC can be created by an act of Parliament on the request of the state legislatures
concerned. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• Thus, a JSPSC is a statutory and not a constitutional body. The two states of Punjab and Haryana had a
JSPSC for a short period, after the creation of Haryana out of Punjab in 1966.
• The chairman and members of a JSPSC are appointed by the president. Hence, statement 2 is
correct.
• They hold office for a term of six years or until they attain the age of 62 years, whichever is
earlier. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.
• They can be suspended or removed by the president. They can also resign from their offices at any time
by submitting their resignation letters to the president.
• The number of members of a JSPSC and their conditions of service are determined by the president.

Q 94.A
• Central Vigilance Commission (CVC): The Central Vigilance Commission (CVC) is the main agency
for preventing corruption in the Central government. It is apex vigilance institution, free of control from
any executive authority, monitoring all vigilance activity under the Central Government and advising
various authorities in Central Government organizations in planning, executing, reviewing and reforming
their vigilant work.
• It was established in 1964 by an executive resolution of the Central government. Its establishment was
recommended by the Santhanam Committee on Prevention of Corruption (1962–64). In 2003, the
Parliament enacted a law conferring statutory status on the CVC.
• It consists of a Central Vigilance Commissioner and not more than two Vigilance Commissioner.
• The Central Vigilance Commissioner (CVC) is the Chairperson and the Vigilance Commissioners
(Members) of the Committee, on whose recommendations, the Central Government appoints the
Director of Enforcement. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• The appointment process of a CBI director has been provided in Section 4A (as amended upon the
enactment of The Lokpal and Lokayuktas Act, 2013) of the Delhi Special Police Establishment Act, 1946.
According to the said section, a CBI director shall be appointed by the central government on the
recommendation of a committee consisting of:
o Chairperson - Prime Minister
o Members:
▪ Leader of Opposition in Lok Sabha/leader of the single largest party in Lok Sabha
▪ The Chief Justice of India or a judge of the Supreme Court nominated by the CJI.
• Hence Statement 2 is not correct.
Q 95.C
• The Constitution (Article 149) authorizes the Parliament to prescribe the duties and powers of the CAG in
relation to the accounts of the Union and of the states and of any other authority or body. Accordingly, the
Parliament enacted the CAG’s (Duties, Powers and Conditions of Service) act, 1971.
• The duties and functions of the CAG as laid down by the Parliament and the Constitution are:
o He audits the accounts related to all expenditure from the Consolidated Fund of India, the
consolidated fund of each state and the consolidated fund of each union territory having a
Legislative Assembly.
o He audits all expenditures from the Contingency Fund of India and the Public Account of India
as well as the contingency fund of each state and the public account of each state. Hence,
o He audits all trading, manufacturing, profit and loss accounts, balance sheets and other subsidiary
accounts kept by any department of the Central Government and state governments.
o He audits the receipts and expenditure of the Centre and each state to satisfy himself that the rules and
procedures in that behalf are designed to secure an effective check on the assessment, collection and
proper allocation of revenue.
o He audits the receipts and expenditure of the following:
▪ All bodies and authorities substantially financed from the Central or state revenues;
▪ Government companies; and
▪ Other corporations and bodies, when so required by related laws.
o He audits all transactions of the Central and state governments related to debt, sinking funds, deposits,
advances, suspense accounts and remittance business. He also audits receipts, stock accounts and
others, with approval of the President, or when required by the President.
o He audits the accounts of any other authority when requested by the President or Governor. For
example, the audit of local bodies.
o He advises the President with regard to prescription of the form in which the accounts of the Centre
and the states shall be kept (Article 150).
o He submits his audit reports relating to the accounts of the Centre to the President, who shall, in turn,
place them before both the Houses of Parliament (Article 151).
o He submits his audit reports relating to the accounts of a state to the Governor, who shall, in turn,
place them before the state legislature (Article 151).
o He ascertains and certifies the net proceeds of any tax or duty (Article 279). His certificate is
final. The ‘net proceeds’ means the proceeds of a tax or a duty minus the cost of collection. Hence,
o He acts as a guide, friend and philosopher of the Public Accounts Committee of the Parliament.
o He compiles and maintains the accounts of state governments. In 1976, he was relieved of his
responsibilities with regard to the compilation and maintenance of accounts of the Central
Government due to the separation of accounts from audit, that is, departmentalization of accounts.
Q 96.A
• The Finance Minister announced that a Taxpayer’s Charter shall be enshrined in the income-tax law. She
proposed to amend the provisions of the Income-tax Act to mandate the Central Board of Direct Taxes
(CBDT) to adopt a Taxpayers’ Charter. Hence statement 2 is not correct.
• Accordingly, Taxpayers' Charter was launched by Prime Minister Narendra Modi on August 13, 2020. It
promises to maintain the privacy and confidentiality of income taxpayers and to reduce the cost of
compliance with tax laws. The charter lists out the income tax department's commitments to the income
taxpayer as well as what the department expects from the taxpayers. According to PMO twitter handle, the
Taxpayers' Charter has come into effect from August 13, 2020.
• The Taxpayer Charter explains what a taxpayer can expect from tax authorities and what is expected from
a taxpayer. The aim of the Charter is that of nurturing the relationship between the Revenue departments
and the community that they serve, a relationship of mutual trust and respect. Hence statement 1 is
correct.
• The charter is the result of an initiative first mentioned in the Budget Speech for 2010 and has evolved
into its present form following consultation with involved stakeholders.
• A taxpayer has the right:
o to be treated with fairness and impartiality
o to be treated as honest and tax compliant unless there is evidence to the contrary
o for certainty
o for assistance and information from the Tax Departments
o to pay no more than the correct amount of tax
o not to be subject to retrospective taxation
o to minimise compliance costs
o to be advised and represented by any person on taxation matters
o to appeal
o to privacy and confidentiality of information, authorities hold about a taxpayer
o to know what information authorities hold about taxpayer
o for the licit arrangement of your tax affairs that minimise the tax liability
o to request a payment plan
o to complain about service, behaviour and actions
• In return, a taxpayer is expected
o to be honest
o to be compliant, and cooperate when you deal with the Tax Departments
o to keep proper records in accordance with the law
o to file proper and complete tax documents and effect payments by the statutory due dates
o to inform the Tax Departments about changes in circumstances
o to know tax responsibilities and the consequences for noncompliance
Q 97.C
• Subsidiarity as “a principle that a central authority should have a subsidiary function, performing only
those tasks which cannot be performed at a more local level.”
• The Principle of Subsidiarity (PoS) stipulates: functions shall be carried out closest to citizens at the
smallest unit of governance possible and delegated upwards only when the local unit cannot
perform the task. The citizen delegates those functions he cannot perform, to the community, functions
that the community cannot discharge are passed on to local governments in the smallest tiers, and so on,
from smaller tiers to larger tiers, from local government to the State Governments, and from the States to
the Union. In this scheme, the citizen and the community are the centre of governance. In place of
traditional hierarchies, there will be ever-enlarging concentric circles of government and delegation is
outward depending on necessity.
Q 98.C
• Statement 1 is correct: The Consumer Protection Act, 1986 was introduced to provide speedy,
inexpensive and simple resolution of concerns of consumers. The Act envisages a three-tier quasi-judicial
machinery at the National, State and District levels; (i) National Consumer Disputes Redressal
Commission - known as “National Commission”, (ii) State Consumer Disputes Redressal Commission
known as “State Commission” and (iii) District Consumer Disputes Redressal Forum - known as “District
Forum”. The Act also provides for establishment of Consumer Protection Councils at the Union, State and
District levels, whose main objectives are to promote and protect the rights of consumers.
• Statement 2 is not correct: The Act provides that the Consumer Forums are not bound follow the Civil
Procedure Code and the Indian Evidence Act. But the Consumer Forum should observe the principle of
natural justice while deciding the matters.
• Statement 3 is not correct: No fee is required to be paid for filing a complaint upto value of Rs. 1 lakh
worth of goods or services and the compensation claimed only for BPL Antyodya card holders. However,
for complaints more than Rs 1 lakh different fee structure exists.
Q 99.A
• The Centre has announced the formation of District Development Coordination and Monitoring
Committee (DDCMC) to be named 'Disha' for effective development coordination of almost all the
programmes of Central Government, whether it is for infrastructure development or Social and human
resource development. These Committees would monitor the implementation of 28 schemes and
programmes of Ministry of Rural Development and other Ministries to promote synergy and convergence
for greater impact. The main purpose of this committee is to coordinate with Central and State and
local Panchayat Governments, for successful and timely implementation of the schemes. Hence,
• The meetings of the committee should be held once in every Quarter (Third Saturdays of April, July,
October and February) and this has been made mandatory. The Chairperson of the committee will be
the senior most Member of Parliament (Lok Sabha) elected from the district, nominated by the
Ministry of Rural Development. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
Q 100.C
• It is a portal which creates healthy partnership between VOs/NGOs and Government of India. It provides
interface between VOs/NGOs and the key government ministries/departments/government bodies.
Hence, option (c) is correct.
• The NGO-Partnership System (NGO-PS) Portal (NGO-DARPAN) was earlier maintained by erstwhile
Planning Commission, which has been replaced by the NITI Aayog w.e.f. 1st January, 2015. The Portal,
therefore, is being maintained at present under the aegis of NITI Aayog. This is a free facility offered by
NITI Aayog in association with National Informatics Centre.
• All the FCRA registered associations are required to register with the DARPAN portal with all necessary
information such as Organisation PAN, email, mobile number and name of chief functionary. VOs/NGOs
play a major role in the development of the nation by supplementing the efforts of the Government. This
portal enables VOs/NGOs to enrol centrally and thus facilitates creation of a repository of information
about VOs/NGOs, Sector/State wise. The Portal facilitates VOs/NGOs to obtain a system-generated
Unique ID, as and when signed. The Unique ID is mandatory to apply for grants under various schemes of
Ministries/Departments/Governments Bodies.

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VISIONIAS

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o Prioritization of developmental activities as per requirements ,

o Proper utilization of funds .

o Part-time Members: Maximum of 2.

o Secretariat: As deemed necessary .

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