Date : 03/11/2019 Tamil Nadu

Regd. Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005 | Ph.: 011-47623456

Questions & Answers

for
NTSE (Stage-I) 2019-20
INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES
Read the following instructions carefully before you open the question booklet.

1. Use blue/black ballpoint pen only. There is no negative marking.

2. Part I : MAT : 1 - 100 questions

Part II : SAT : 101 - 200 questions

3. This test booklet contains 200 questions of one mark each. All the questions are compulsory.

4. Answer each question by darkening the one correct alternative among the four choices on the OMR SHEET with
blue/black ballpoint pen.

Example :

Q. No. Alternatives
Correct way : 1 1 2 1 4
Q. No. Alternatives
Wrong way : 1 1 2 3 4

Student must darkening the right oval only after ensuring correct answer on OMR Sheet.

5. Students are not allowed to scratch / alter / change out an answer once marked on OMR Sheet, by using white
fluid / eraser / blade / tearing / wearing or in any other form.

6. Separate sheet has been provided for rough work in this test booklet.

7. Please handover the OMR Sheet to the invigilator before leaving the Examination Hall.

8. Darken completely the ovals of your answer on OMR Sheet in the time limit allotted for that particular paper.

9. Your OMR Sheet will be evaluated through electronic scanning process. Incomplete and incorrect entries may render
your OMR Sheet invalid.

10. Use of electronic gadgets, calculator, mobile etc, is strictly prohibited.

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 NTSE (S-I) 2019-20 (Tamil Nadu)

PART-I : MENTAL ABILITY TEST (MAT)

Direction : (Q.1 to Q.5) : In each question, the 9. AD, EG, IJ, MM, QP, UP
numbers are arranged in a sequence based on certain (1) EG (2) UP
principle. Select the answer from the given four
(3) QP (4) MM
alternatives under each sequence.
Answer (2)
1. 2, 6, 15, 31, 56, ……?.....
10. Z8, W5, T2, Q8, N5, K3
(1) 87 (2) 67
(3) 93 (4) 92 (1) K3 (2) T2

Answer (4) (3) Q8 (4) Z8

2. 5040, 840, 168, 42, 14, ……?..... Answer (1)
(1) 2 (2) 1 11. ‘Sea’ is related with ‘Waves’. Then ‘Candle’ is
related to:
(3) 7 (4) 4
Answer (3) (1) Rays (2) Wax

3. 14, 24, 41, 65, 96, ……?..... (3) Stand (4) Melt
(1) 134 (2) 124 Answer (1)
(3) 144 (4) 154 12. Which set of number is like the given set ?
Answer (1) (80, 60, 45)
4. 2, 3, 4, 4, 6, 12, 16, 12, 36, ……?....., 24 (1) (16, 12, 9)
(1) 64 (2) 256 (2) (16, 12, 5)
(3) 48 (4) 28 (3) (20, 15, 11)
Answer (2) (4) (160, 120, 180)
5. 5, 1, 11, 6, 17, 36, 23, ……?..... Answer (1)
(1) 216 (2) 108 Direction : (Q.13 and Q.14) : First two terms are
(3) 54 (4) 59 connected by some relationship. The same
Answer (1) relationship is applicable for the next terms. Identify the
suitable pair.
Direction : (Q.6 to Q.10) : Identify the wrong
number/letters in the series. 13. Square : Cube : :
6. 25, 62, 122, 214, 341 (1) Rectangle : Cuboid
(1) 122 (2) 62 (2) Triangle : Square
(3) 214 (4) 341 (3) Quadrilateral : Cuboid
Answer (1) (4) Cuboid: Rectangle
N = 3, 4, 5, 6, 7 Answer (1)
7. 1, 3, 7, 15, 31, 65, 127 14. 82 : 9 : :
(1) 7 (2) 31 (1) 5: 26 (2) 6: 37
(3) 15 (4) 65 (3) 35: 6 (4) 26: 5
Answer (4) Answer (4)
8. 1, 2, 2, 5, 7, 10, 14, 17, 23, 26 15. If ‘tee see pee’ means ‘prepare fruit juice’, ‘see
(1) 17 kee tee’ means ‘Juice is nice’ and ‘lee ree mee’
(2) 7 means ‘it is tall’, which word means ‘nice’ ?
(3) 23 (1) Ree (2) Mee
(4) 10 (3) Kee (4) Pee
Answer (No option is correct) Answer (Incorrect data)

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NTSE (S-I) 2019-20 (Tamil Nadu)

16. In a certain code HONEY is written as HPPHC Direction : (Q.22 to Q.24) : First two terms are
then FORGE is written as : connected by some relationship. The same
(1) FPTJJ (2) FPTJI relationship is applicable for the next terms in which
one is blank space. Identify the blank space.
(3) FQTJI (4) FPSJI
Answer (2) 22. Tree : Plant : : Woman :?

17. If A = 2, T = 40 and ACT = 48 then TAKE is: (1) boy (2) child
(1) 68 (2) 58 (3) girl (4) mother
(3) 74 (4) 76 Answer (3)
Answer (3) 23. Roof : floor : : ? : Dark
Direction : (Q.18 to Q.21) : The diagram and the (1) Tube light (2) Bulb
numbers/letters follow certain principle. Select the (3) Bright (4) Black
missing number/ letter indicated.
Answer (3)
18.
2 3 6 9 6 ? 24. 7: 50 : : ? : 65
5 13 22
(1) 9 (2) 64
4 4 5 (3) 8 (4) 11
(1) 8 (2) 12
Answer (3)
(3) 11 (4) 33
25. Drama is related to Director in the same way as
Answer (No option is correct)
‘Magazine’ is related to :
19. 4 5 6 7 (1) Story (2) Editor

6 18 28 ? (3) Reader (4) Printer

Answer (2)
10 7 8 7
26. The age of the father is twice the age of the elder
(1) 38 (2) 40 son. Twelve years hence, the age of the father will
(3) 41 (4) 42 be thrice that of the younger son. If the difference
between the elder and younger son is 15, the age
Answer (4)
of the father is :
20.
2 5 3 (1) 21 (2) 42
5 59 7 3 48 6 2 ? 4 (3) 63 (4) 84
3 4 1
Answer (2)
(1) 22 (2) 26 27. In an examination, a student got thrice as many
(3) 28 (4) 30 sums wrong as he got right. If he attended 120
Answer (1) problems in all, the number of problems
incorrectly done is :
21. E I (1) 90 (2) 30
B D E
D H
A B ? (3) 40 (4) 60
A B
Answer (1)
(1) P 28. The number of neither composite nor prime
(2) Q number in the set of Natural numbers is :
(3) R (1) 2 (2) 3
(4) T (3) 1 (4) 0
Answer (4) Answer (3)

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 NTSE (S-I) 2019-20 (Tamil Nadu)

29. In a group of cows and hens, the number of legs 36. In the series 5 8 6 4 9 8 5 4 2 6 7 9 8 1 3 5 4 2,
are 16 more than thrice the number of heads. The the number of pairs of alternate numbers have
possible number of cows and hens are difference 3, is
respectively : (1) 4 (2) 2
(1) 20, 4 (2) 4, 20 (3) 3 (4) 1
(3) 18, 6 (4) 6, 18 Answer (1)
Answer (1) 37. The arrangement of alphabetical order of the
30. Which of the following statement is correct ? words:
(1) The number of real numbers between 1 and (a) Music (b) Monk
2 is same as 1 and 3. (c) Minimum (d) Maximum
(2) The first positive real number is 0. (1) (d), (c), (b), (a) (2) (a), (c), (d), (b)
(3) The non-negative integer starts with 1. (3) (d), (c), (a), (b) (4) (d), (a), (c), (b)
(4) The number of natural numbers is finite. Answer (1)
38. Select the combination of number so that the
Answer (1)
letters arranged accordingly will form a
31. If South becomes north-east and North becomes
meaningful word :
south-west then north-west becomes:
RTFIU
(1) East (2) West
12345
(3) North (4) South
(1) 3, 1, 5, 4, 2 (2) 1, 3, 5, 4, 2
Answer (4) (3) 3, 5, 1, 4, 2 (4) 3, 2, 5, 4, 1
32. One evening during sunset, a person is standing Answer (1)
facing a pole. The shadow of the pole fell exactly
39. The letter ninth to the left of seventeenth letter
to his left. The person faces the direction :
from the right end of the English alphabets is :
(1) South (2) East
(1) B (2) Z
(3) West (4) North (3) Y (4) A
Answer (1) Answer (4)
33. The number of two digit combinations having 9 as 40. A group of letters is given which are numbered 1,
at least one of the digits from the digit 0, 6, 9, 5, 4 2, 3, 4, 5, 6. Choose the combination of numbers,
is : so that letters arranged form a meaningful word.
(1) 9 (2) 12 ROPNES
(3) 6 (4) 8 1 2 3 456
Answer (4) (1) 3, 5,1, 6, 2, 4 (2) 1, 3, 5, 6, 2, 4
th (3) 3, 5, 6, 1, 2, 4 (4) 3, 5, 2, 1, 6, 4
34. In a row of students, a boy is 12 from the left end
and 18th from the right end. The total number of Answer (1)
students is a/ an : Direction : (Q.41 to Q.45) : Select from the given
(1) Prime number (2) Composite number diagrams (a), (b), (c) or (d) the one that illustrates the
(3) Even number (4) Can't be predicted relationship among given classes.
Answer (1)
35. Six different bells in a tower toll at the intervals of
9 sec, 12 sec, 15 sec, 18 sec, 21 sec and 24 sec
respectively. If all of them toll at 6 am, the next (a) (b) (c) (d)
time they toll together is : 41. Birds, Tigers, Peacocks :
(1) 7.42 am (2) 6.42 am (1) (b) (2) (c)
(3) 8.00 am (4) 9.00 am (3) (a) (4) (d)
Answer (2) Answer (1)

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NTSE (S-I) 2019-20 (Tamil Nadu)

42. Languages, Tamil, Telugu : 49. Which region cultivates all except rice ?
(1) (a) (2) (b) (1) 1, 8, 9, 10 (2) 2, 8, 9, 10
(3) (d) (4) none of these (3) 1, 7, 8, 9 (4) 1, 4, 7, 9
Answer (4) Answer (1)
43. Football fans, Cricket fans, Kabadi fans : 50. Which region cultivates gram only ?
(1) (b) (2) (c) (1) 9 (2) 7
(3) (a) (4) (d) (3) 8 (4) 10
Answer (3) Answer (4)
44. Human-beings, Indians, Tamilians : Direction : (Q.51 and Q.52) : Read the given
(1) (a) (2) (d) statements and answer the questions 51 and 52.
(3) (c) (4) (b) (i) A + B means ‘A is the father of B’
Answer (2) (ii) A  B means ‘A is the wife of B’
45. Tamil Nadu, Punjab, Haryana : (iii) A × B means ‘A is the brother of B’
(1) (c) (2) (a)
(iv) A ÷ B means ‘A is the daughter of B’
(3) (d) (4) (b)
51. A  B + C means:
Answer (1)
(1) A is the mother of C
Direction : (Q.46 to Q.50) : In the following figure,
(2) C is the mother of A
Rectangle, Square, Circle and Triangle represent the
regions of rice, gram, maize and wheat cultivation (3) B is the mother of C
respectively. On the basis of the given figure answer (4) C is the mother of B
the questions. Answer (1)
10 52. A × B ÷ C:

9 (1) C is mother of B (2) B is mother of C

(3) A is mother of C (4) A is mother of B
7
6 8 Answer (1)
Direction : (Q.53 to Q.55) : Study the following
4 5
information and answer the questions (53 to 55) given
2 3
below. There is a group of five persons A, B, C, D and E.
1 (i) A, B and C are Tall
(ii) A, D and E are Educated
46. Which region cultivates all the four ? (iii) D, C and E are Urban
(1) 7 (2) 5 (iv) A, B and E are Hardworking
(3) 6 (4) None 53. Which of the following persons is neither
Answer (4) educated nor hardworking ?

47. Which region cultivates only rice? (1) A (2) C

(1) 6 (2) 4 (3) D (4) E
(3) 5 (4) 3 Answer (2)
Answer (No option is correct) 54. Which of the following persons is neither urban
48. Which region cultivates wheat and maize? nor educated but is hardworking?

(1) 5 (2) 2 (1) A (2) C

(3) 6 (4) 7 (3) B (4) D
Answer (1) Answer (3)

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 NTSE (S-I) 2019-20 (Tamil Nadu)

55. Which of the following persons is either tall or 62. 12 × 8 + 2  4 ÷ 6 =

hardworking? (1) 7 (2) 16
(1) A, B, C, E (2) all
(3) 18 (4) 8
(3) A, B, D, E (4) A,B,C,D
Answer (No option is correct)
Answer (1)
63. If ‘’ means ‘÷’, ‘+’ means ‘×’, ‘÷’ means ‘’, ‘×’
56. How many numbers from 1 to 100 are there each means ‘+’ then which of the following is correct ?
of which is exactly divisible by 6 but also contain
6 as a digit in it ? (1) 36  12 × 6 ÷ 3 + 3 = 60

(1) 6 (2) 4 (2) 52 ÷ 4 + 5 × 8  2 = 36

(3) 5 (4) 7 (3) 42  8 × 3 ÷ 4 + 3 = 38

Answer (3) (4) 49  10 + 8 ÷ 4 + 4 = 40
Direction : (Q.57 and Q.58) : Five boys P, Q, R, S and Answer (2)
T took part in a race. R finished before T but behind S. 64. If 8 * 1 = 81, 9 * 1 = 100 then 7 * 1 = is :
P finished before Q but behind T.
(1) 50 (2) 64
57. Who won the race?
(3) 51 (4) 48
(1) Q (2) P
Answer (2)
(3) R (4) S
65. If 37 + 42 = 16, 43 + 54 = 16, 25 + 34 = 14 then
Answer (4)
65 + 35 =
58. Who got the last place ?
(1) 100 (2) 91
(1) Q (2) S
(3) 18 (4) 19
(3) P (4) T
Answer (4)
Answer (1)
Direction : (Q.66 and Q.67) : Choose the best
Direction : (Q.59 and Q.60) : Arrange the given words alternative as the answer.
in a meaningful sequence and choose the most
appropriate sequence from the given alternatives. 66. If A + B > A + C and A + B > A  C then

59. (a) appendix (b) contents (1) B > 0

(c) chapters (d) introduction (2) A > 0

(1) (a), (c), (b), (d) (2) (a), (b), (c), (d) (3) C > 0
(3) (d), (c), (b), (a) (4) (c), (d), (a), (b) (4) None of these
Answer (2) Answer (1)
60. (a) Protect (b) Relief 67. Danger always involves:
(c) Flood (d) Rain (1) Fear
(1) (c), (d), (a), (b) (2) (c), (a), (d), (b) (2) Help
(3) (a), (b), (c), (d) (4) (d), (c), (a), (b) (3) Attack
Answer (4) (4) Enemy
If ‘’ means ‘×’, ‘×’ means ‘+’, ‘+’ means ‘÷’ and ‘÷’ Answer (1)
means ‘’ then answer the question 61 and 62. 68. When the time is 4.20 the angle between the
61. 8 + 4  3 × 2 ÷ 1 = hands of the clock is :
(1) 8 (2) 7 (1) 0° (2) 15°
(3) 22 (4) 21 (3) 20° (4) 10°
Answer (2) Answer (4)

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 NTSE (S-I) 2019-20 (Tamil Nadu)

Direction : (Q.69 to Q.73) : Read the following 75. Statement (I) : Some books are Tables
information carefully and answer the questions given (II) : Some Tables are pencils
below : Conclusion (1) : All books are pencils
(i) There is a group of 5 persons P, Q, R, S and T. (2) : Some pencils are books
(ii) Among them there is an Agriculturist, a Teacher, (1) Only conclusion (1) follows
a Lawyer, a Doctor and an Editor by profession.
(2) Only conclusion (2) follows
(iii) Three of them P, R and the Editor prefer meals to
(3) Either conclusion (1) or (2) follow
tiffin and two of them Q and the Lawyer prefer tiffin
(4) Neither conclusion (1) nor (2) follows
to meals.
Answer (4)
(iv) The doctor, S and P are friends to one another but
two of these prefer tiffin to meals. Direction : (Q.76 to Q.80) : Out of the four figures (1),
(2), (3), (4) given in each problem, three are similar in
(v) Agriculturist is R's Brother.
a certain way. One figure is not like other three. Select
69. Who is Doctor ?
that figure.
(1) Q (2) R
76.
(3) S (4) T
Answer (1)
70. Who is Agriculturist?
(1) T (2) S (1) (2) (3) (4)
(3) R (4) P Answer (3)
Answer (4) 77.
71. Which of the following groups prefer tiffin?
(1) P, R, T (2) P, R
(3) Q, S (4) P, S (1) (2) (3) (4)
Answer (3) Answer (3)
72. Who is Teacher? 78.
(1) Q (2) R
(3) P (4) T
Answer (2)
73. Who is the Editor? (1) (2) (3) (4)
(1) T (2) P Answer (2)
(3) Q (4) S 79.
Answer (1)
Direction : (Q.74 and Q.75) : In each of the questions
given below, two statements I and II are followed by
(1) (2) (3) (4)
the conclusions numbered 1 and 2. Read the
conclusion and give the answer. Answer (2)
74. Statement (I) : All women are mothers 80.
(II) : All mothers are sisters
Conclusion (1) : All women are sisters
(2) : Some women are not sisters
(1) (2) (3) (4)
(1) Only conclusion (1) follows
Answer (3)
(2) Only conclusion (2) follows
Direction : (Q.81 to Q.85) : In each of the following
(3) Either conclusion (1) or (2) follow questions find the answer figures (1), (2), (3) or (4)
(4) Neither conclusion (1) nor (2) follows which would continue the given series of four figures
Answer (1) (A), (B), (C)and (D).

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 NTSE (S-I) 2019-20 (Tamil Nadu)

81. 85.

(A) (B) (C) (D) (A) (B) (C) (D)

(1) (2) (3) (4)

(1) (2) (3) (4) Answer (2)
Answer (3) Direction : (Q.86 to Q.88) : Figures A and B are
related in some manner. Find the same relationship
82. between figures C and D by choosing the alternatives
(1), (2), (3) or (4) to replace the figure in D.
86.

(A) (B) (C) (D)

(A) (B) (C) (D)

(1) (2) (3) (4)

Answer (1)
(1) (2) (3) (4)
83. Answer (1)
87.

(A) (B) (C) (D)

(A) (B) (C) (D)

(1) (2) (3) (4)

Answer (2) (1) (2) (3) (4)
Answer (3)
84.
88.

(A) (B) (C) (D)

(A) (B) (C) (D)

(1) (2) (3) (4) (1) (2) (3) (4)

Answer (1) Answer (4)
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NTSE (S-I) 2019-20 (Tamil Nadu)

Direction : (Q.89 and Q.90) : Identify the missing (1) 2, 6 (2) 6, 2

portion to complete the given figure from the (3) 1, 3 (4) 2, 4
alternatives (1), (2), (3) and (4). Answer (2)
89. 94. A die is thrown three times and its three different
positions are given below. Find the number on the
face opposite to 3.

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

Answer (3) (1) 6 (2) 5

(3) 4 (4) 2
Answer (1)
90. 95. The water image of P E N C I L is :
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
(1) (2) Answer (2)
96. The water image of 4 5 6 7 8 is :
(3) (4)
(1) (2)
Answer (2) (3) (4)
91. Find the number of quadrilaterals in the figure : Answer (1)
97. The mirror image of PROPER is:
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
Answer (4)
(1) 0 (2) 2 98. The mirror image of the given diagram :
(3) 3 (4) 4
Answer (4)
92. Find the number of triangles in the figure :

(1) (2)

(3) (4)
(1) 8 (2) 7
(3) 5 (4) 10 Answer (2)
Answer (4) 99. In a hockey tournament each of 5 teams will play
93. When a box is unfolded, the figure looked like the other team exactly once. The number of matches
given one. What are the faces opposite to 4 and will be played is:
5 respectively ? (1) 5 (2) 4
(3) 20 (4) 10
Answer (4)
100. Which letter is midway between 22nd letter from
the left and 21st letter from the right in English
alphabets ?
(1) N (2) M
(3) L (4) O
Answer (1)

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 NTSE (S-I) 2019-20 (Tamil Nadu)

PART-II : SCHOLASTIC APTITUDE TEST (SAT)

101. The sum of the exponents of prime factors in the 1 1
108. Given that sinA = and cos B  then the value
prime factorization of 1771 is : 2 2
(1) 1 (2) 3 of A + B is :
(3) 2 (4) 4 (1) 30° (2) 45°
Answer (2) (3) 75° (4) 15°

102. If tn is the nth term of an A.P. then the value of Answer (3)
tn+1 – tn–1 is : 5sin   4cos 
109. If 5 tan   4 then the value of is:
5sin   4cos 
(1) 2a (2) –2a
5 4
(3) 2d (4) –2d (1) (2)
4 5
Answer (3)
(3) 1 (4) 0
103. If x  y  3, x 2  y 2  5 then xy is : Answer (4)
(1) 5 (2) 3 3
110. If cos(A – B)= and sin(A + B) = 1 then the value
(3) 2 (4) 1 2
Answer (3) of A and B is :

104. The area of the triangle formed by the points (–2, 0) (1) 45° and 15° (2) 30° and 15°
(0,– 2) and (2, 0) is : (3) 60° and 30° (4) None of these
(1) 0 (2) 4 Answer (3)
(3) 2 (4) –4 111. Which statement is true ?
Answer (2) (1) A triangle can have two right angles

105. The area of equilateral triangle is 25 3 cm2 , then (2) Each of the angles of a triangle can be less than
60°
the perimeter is :
(3) Each of the angles of a triangle can be greater
(1) 10 cm (2) 30 cm
than 60°
(3) 10 3 cm (4) 30 3 cm (4) Each of the angles of a triangle can be equal to
60°
Answer (2)
Answer (4)
106. If the ratio of the surface areas of two cubes is
16:36, then the ratio of their sides will be : 112. If the diagonals of a rhombus are 18 cm and 24 cm,
then its side is :
(1) 4 : 9 (2) 9 : 4
(1) 16 cm (2) 15 cm
(3) 3 : 2 (4) 2 : 3
(3) 20 cm (4) 17 cm
Answer (4)
Answer (2)
1 1
107.  ? 113. Which of the following numbers will completely
1  sin  1  sin 
divide 461  462  463  464 ?
(1) sec2 (2) 2sec2 (1) 3 (2) 10
(3) cosec2 (4) 2cosec2 (3) 11 (4) 13
Answer (2) Answer (2)

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NTSE (S-I) 2019-20 (Tamil Nadu)

114. The diagonal of a rectangle is 41 cm and its area 122. A 250 kg bike is ridden by a circus man at a speed
is 20 cm2. The perimeter of a rectangle must be : of 20 m/sec, in a circular path of diameter 100 m.
Calculate its acceleration.
(1) 9 cm (2) 18 cm
(1) 4 m/sec2 (2) 6 m/ sec2
(3) 20 cm (4) 41 cm
(3) 8 m/sec2 (4) 9 m/sec2
Answer (2)
Answer (3)
115. The scientific notation of 108000000 km is :
123. Find the odd one out:
(1) 1.08000000 km (2) 10.80 × 106 km
(1) 30.8 × 1015 m
6
(3) 1.08 × 10 km (4) 1.08 × 108 km (2) 9.46 × 1015 m
Answer (4) (3) 1.496 × 1011 m
116. Cards are marked from 1 to 50 are placed in the box (4) 3.08 × 1016 m
and mixed thoroughly, a card is drawn at random Answer (1)
from the box. What is the probability of this card to
124. The spectacular glow of diamond is due to:
be a multiple of 5?
(1) Refraction
1
(1) (2) 0 (2) Reflection
5
(3) Total Internal Reflection
1 (4) Scattering of Light
(3) (4) 1
25 Answer (3)
Answer (1) 125. A song was heard by a person who is at certain
117. The graph of the line x – y = 0 passes through the distance from a temple wherein the frequency of the
point sound is 3 kHz and the wavelength 20 cm. If the
(1) (2, 3) (2) (3, 4) sound reaches the person in 5 seconds find the
distance travelled by the sound.
(3) (5, 6) (4) (0, 0)
(1) 5 km (2) 2 km
Answer (4)
(3) 4 km (4) 3 km
118. If  9x  7 , 2x  9 are the factors of a quadratic
Answer (4)
polynomial, then the co-efficient of x is : 126. If a current of 5 A flows through the heater and the
(1) 9 (2) 2 amount of heat produced is 54000 J in 6 minutes,
(3) 18 (4) 95 then find the resistance of the electric heater.
Answer (4) (1) 6  (2) 5 

3 1/4
(3) 7  (4) 4 


119. Simplify : 5 81/3  271/3

  Answer (1)
127. Match the following :
(1) 3 (2) 27
(a) Formation of real (i) Pupil
(3) 8 (4) 5
and inverted
Answer (4) images of objects
120. The numbers 2, 3, 4, 4, 2x + 1, 5, 5, 6, 7 are written (b) Controls the amount of (ii) Cornea
in ascending order. If the median is 5, then find x
light entering the pupil
(1) 2 (2) 3 (c) Pathway of the light to retina (iii) Iris
(3) 4 (4) 5 (d) Refracts or bends the light (iv) Retina
Answer (1) onto the lens
121. Lactometer is an instrument which works on the (1) (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)
principle of? (2) (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)
(1) Law of Floatation (2) Newton’s Law (3) (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)
(3) Ohm’s Law (4) Avogadro’s Law (4) (a)-(ii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv)
Answer (1) Answer (1)

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 NTSE (S-I) 2019-20 (Tamil Nadu)

128. Pick out the correct pair/pairs: 135. Match the following :
(a) Radiation - Heat is transferred in the form of (a) Tyndall Effect (i) Separates
waves. It can occur even in vacuum blood cells
(b) Conduction – Transfer of heat in fluids. It from blood
doesn’t take place in vacuum
samples
(c) Convection – Transfer of heat in solids. It can
occur in vacuum (b) Brownian (ii) Separates

(1) (a) only (2) (b) and (c) only Movement different
(3) (a) and (c) only (4) (c) only coloured
Answer (1) dyes
129. Correct the given statement (c) Centrifugation (iii) Colloidal
The Spectral lines having frequency equal to the Particles
incident ray frequency is called ‘Raman Lines’ Moves in zig-
(1) Rayleigh Lines (2) Stokes Lines Zag direction
(3) Anti Stokes Lines (4) Tyndall Effect (d) Paper (iv) Not observed
Answer (1) Chromatography In true solution
130. The only moon in the solar system that moves in the (1) (a) – (iv), (b) – (iii), (c) – (i), (d) – (ii)
opposite direction to the direction in which its planet
(2) (a) – (iii), (b) – (iv), (c) – (i), (d) – (ii)
spins?
(1) Sputnik (2) Titan (3) (a) – (iii), (b) – (i), (c) – (iv), (d) – (ii)

(3) Ganymede (4) Triton (4) (a) – (i), (b) – (iii), (c) – (ii), (d) – (iv)
Answer (4) Answer (1)

131. The reason for using red light in traffic signals to 136. The Law of Multiple Proportion was proposed by
stop vehicles. (1) John Dalton (2) Jeremias Richer
(1) Red light has shorter wavelength (3) Neil Bohr (4) Rutherford
(2) Red light has longer wavelength Answer (1)

(3) Red light is very bright and attractive 137. Assertion (A) : Bronze is an alloy.
Reason (R) : Alloy bears the characteristics of both
(4) Red light has highest angle of refraction
metal and non - metal
Answer (2)
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct.
132. Which one of the following is not related to Joule’s
(2) Both (A) and (R) are wrong.
Law of Heating?
(3) (A) is correct but (R) doesn’t explain (A)
(1) H = I2 RT (2) H = Vlt
(4) (A) is correct and (R) explains (A)
(3) H = VIRt2 (4) H = VQ
Answer (3)
Answer (3)
138. Find the odd one out:
133. Convert 1 Kilowatt into Horsepower: (1) Galvanization (2) Bessemerisation
(1) 1.43 HP (2) 746000 HP (3) Electroplating (4) Anodizing
(3) 1.34 HP (4) 0.746 HP Answer (2)
Answer (3) 139. 2PbO + C  2Pb + CO2 is an example of ________
134. Pick the odd one out : reaction.
(1) CCl4 (2) NaCl (1) Reduction (2) Redox
(3) CuCl2 (4) CaCl2 (3) Oxidation (4) Decomposition
Answer (1) Answer (2)

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NTSE (S-I) 2019-20 (Tamil Nadu)

140. The ratio of conc. HCl and conc. HNO3 in ‘King’s 147. When exposed to sunlight, parenchyma cells may
Water’ is“ develop chloroplasts and are known as ________
(1) 4 : 1 (2) 1 : 4 (1) Collenchyma
(3) 3 : 1 (4) 1 : 3 (2) Chromoplast
Answer (3) (3) Chlorenchyma
141. Find the incorrect pair: (4) Aerenchyma
(1) Ammonium – Removes Answer (3)
Hydroxide grease stains 148. Give the correct equation of photosynthesis :
from clothes Photosynthesis
(2) Calcium – White Na2CO3 + 2HCl 
(1) Chlorophyll
Hydroxide washing of building
2NaCl + H2O+CO2 

(3) Sodium – Manufacture Photosynthesis

6CO2  6H2O 
Hydroxide of soap (2) Chlorophyll
C6H12O6  6O2 
(4) Magnesium – Manufacture
Hydroxide of fertilizer Photosynthesis
3H2 O2  6CO2 
(3) Chlorophyll
Answer (4)
C6H6 O6  6O2 
142. Which one of the following resin codes in plastic
items are unsafe ? (4) H  H2O H3O
(1) 1, 2, 3 (2) 3, 6, 7 Answer (2)
(3) 3, 4, 5 (4) 5, 6 ,7
149. In some bacteria, outside the cell wall, there is an
Answer (2) additional slimy protective layer called________
143. Which among the following is highly toxic and _____________ made up of ________________
inflammable gas ? (1) Epiderm, monosaccharides
(1) CO (2) CO2 (2) DNA, mitochondria
(3) CS2 (4) CaC2 (3) Capsule, polysaccharides
Answer (1)
(4) Ribosomes, protein
144. The reason for unstability of nano particles :
Answer (3)
(1) Hydrolysis (2) Hydration
150. Which is/are wrong about the adaption of
(3) Combustion (4) Reduction hydrophytes ?
Answer (3)
(a) Air chambers provide mechanical support to
145. Occult fingerprints are made visible by the use of plant
________ which turns purple.
(b) Floating leaves have short leaf stalk
(1) Cyanoacrylate (2) Potassium di-chromate
(c) Roots are poorly developed
(3) Nin-hydrin (4) Silver nitrate
(d) Submerged leaves are broad and big
Answer (3)
(1) (a) only (2) (b) and (d) only
146. Pick out the correct formula for blue vitriol :
(3) (c) only (4) (a) and (c) only
(1) CuSO 4 • 5H2O
Answer (2)
(2) CuSO 4 • 7H2O
151. ‘AYUSH’ refers to the systems of medicines of :
(3) CuSO 4 • 6H2O (1) Unani (2) Siddha
(4) CuSO 4 • 9H2O (3) Ayurveda (4) All of the above
Answer (1) Answer (4)

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 NTSE (S-I) 2019-20 (Tamil Nadu)

152. Father of Plant Anatomy : 159. Match the following:

(1) Nehemiah Grew (2) Robin Hill (a) Trypsin (i) Converts fat to smaller
(3) Sachs (4) Kolliker droplets
Answer (1)
(b) Amylase (ii) Acts on protein
153. Assertion (A) : The opening and closing of the
stomata is due to change in turgidity of the guard (c) Bile (iii) Digests fat
cell : (d) Lipase (iv) Breakdown starch to Maltose
Reason (R) : Evaporation of water in plants through (1) (a) – (ii), (b) – (i), (c) – (iii), (d) – (iv)
stomata in leaves is called Transpiration. (2) (a) – (iii), (b) – (ii), (c) – (i), (d) – (iv)
(1) (A) is correct but (R) is incorrect (3) (a) – (ii), (b) – (iv), (c) – (i), (d) – (iii)
(2) (A) is incorrect and (R) is correct
(4) (a) – (iv), (b) – (iii), (c) – (ii), (d) – (i)
(3) (A) is correct but (R) doesn’t explain (A)
Answer (3)
(4) (A) is correct and (R) explains (A)
Answer (3) 160. Which among the following has three chambered
154. When leech attaches itself to the body of the host, heart?
continuous supply of blood is maintained by the (1) Tiger
presence of__________________ in its salivary (2) Rat
gland.
(3) Frog
(1) Botryoidal tissue (2) Parapodia
(4) Fish
(3) Hirudin (4) Setae
Answer (3) Answer (3)
155. Which acts as the ‘Pacemaker of the Heart’? 161. ‘Never was so much owed by so many to so few’
(1) Superior Venacava was the saying of:
(2) Sino Atrial Node (1) Mussolini (2) Hitler
(3) Aortic Arch (3) Winston Churchill (4) Woodrow Wilson
(4) Inferior Venacava Answer (3)
Answer (2)
162. Match the following:
156. Pick out the incorrect pair:
(a) Chinese Civilization (i) Hammurabi’s Law
(1) Rh factor – Landsteiner and Wiener
(2) Circulation of Blood – Dacastello and Steini code
(3) AB Blood Group – William Harvey (b) Mesopotamian (ii) Invention of Gun
(4) Purkinje Fibre – Wilhelm His Civilization Powder
Answer (2) & (3) (c) Indus Valley (iii) The Great Sphinx
157. Find the odd one out: Civilization
(1) Jejunum (2) Ileum
(d) Egyptian Civilization (iv) Developed the
(3) Caecum (4) Villi
Answer (3) System of weights
158. Functions of Areolar connective tissue: and measures
(a) Joins skin to Muscle (1) (a)-(ii),(b)-(i),(c)-(iv),(d)-(iii)
(b) Fills space inside organs (2) (a)-(ii),(b)-(iii),(c)-(iv),(d)-(i)
(c) Provides shape to body and protects soft (3) (a)-(iv),(b)-(iii),(c)-(i),(d)-(ii)
tissues and organs
(4) (a)-(i),(b)-(ii),(c)-(iii),(d)-(iv)
(d) Helps to repair tissues after injury
(1) (a) and (d) only Answer (1)
(2) (a), (b) and (c) only 163. Find the odd one out :
(3) (a), (b) and (d) only (1) Kurinjipattu (2) Pattinapalai
(4) All of the above (3) Aingurunuru (4) Nedunal Vadai
Answer (3) Answer (3)
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NTSE (S-I) 2019-20 (Tamil Nadu)

164. Identify the two cities in India which started 170. The British Engineer who diverted the flow of
declining in 1750’s due to the increasing power of Periyar River towards East and built a dam in Tamil
the European companies : Nadu :
(1) Madras and Bombay (1) Colonel Penny Cuick
(2) Calcutta and Madras (2) Arthur Cotton

(3) Surat and Hoogly (3) Robert Clive

(4) Leopold II
(4) Hoogly and Madras
Answer (1)
Answer (3)
171. Find the incorrect statement :
165. Utopia, a satire on political evil was written by :
(1) Prakrit was the language spoken by the people
(1) Sir Thomas More (2) Cervantes during Mauryan period
(3) Erasmus (4) Machiavelli (2) Erythrean Sea refers to the water around the
Answer (1) Red Sea.

166. Assertion (A) : Men disguised as Native American (3) The Cheras wore garlands made from the
boarded the cargo vessel carrying tea and threw the flowers of neem tree
tea overboard which was hailed as ‘Boston Tea (4) Nalli, Ai, Kari and Pegan were Velirs.
Party’. Answer (3)
Reason (R) : This incident led to the compromise 172. The difference in Local time between Gujarat and
between England and rebellious colonies. Arunachal Pradesh :
(1) Both (A) and (R ) are correct (1) 1 hour 57 minutes 12 seconds
(2) Both (A) and (R ) are incorrect (2) 1 hour 56 minutes 13 seconds
(3) 1 hour 52 minutes 28 seconds
(3) (A) is correct but (R ) does not explain (A).
(4) 1 hour 55 minutes 10 seconds
(4) (A) is correct and (R ) explains (A).
Answer (3)
Answer (1)
173. Laccadive, Minicoy and Amindivi was renamed as
167. Arrange the following events in the chronological ‘Lakshadweep Island’ in the year ______
order:
(1) 1983 (2) 1973
(a) Great Depression (b) Battle of Marne (3) 1993 (4) 1975
(c) Fascist party (d) Battle of Jutland Answer (2)
(1) (a),(c),(b),(d) (2) (b),(d),(c),(a) 174. Pick the odd one out :
(3) (d),(a),(c),(b) (4) (a),(d),(b),(c) (1) Wulur Lake (2) Dal Lake
Answer (2) (3) Nainital Lake (4) Chilka Lake
168. The founder of Widow Remarriage Association: Answer (4)
175. In India, bauxite deposits are abundantly found in :
(1) M.G. Ranade
(1) Rajasthan
(2) Devendranath Tagore
(2) Odisha
(3) Jyotiba Phule
(3) Jammu and Kashmir
(4) Ayyankali
(4) Andhra Pradesh
Answer (1) Answer (2)
169. The number of member countries in UNO as in 176. The company which provides Helicopter services to
August 2019 : Oil and Natural Gas Corporation :
(1) 190 (2) 194 (1) Indian Airlines (2) Air India
(3) 192 (4) 193 (3) Pawan Hans (4) Vayu doot
Answer (4) Answer (3)

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 NTSE (S-I) 2019-20 (Tamil Nadu)

177. Pick out the odd one out : 182. The significance of ‘The Grand Banks’ of New
(1) Almora (2) Shiwaliks Foundland :
(3) Ranikhet (4) Chamba (1) Mining activities (2) Oil drilling
Answer (2) (3) Fishing ground (4) Mineral fuels

178. Match the following : Answer (3)

Rivers Origin 183. ______ has been described as the ‘Key to the
Constitution’.
(a) Tapti (i) Amarkantak
(1) Fundamental Rights
(b) Narmada (ii) Sihawa
(2) Preamble
(c) Godavari (iii) Multai
(3) Directive Principles of State policy
(d) Mahanadi (iv) Nasik
(4) Emergency Provision
(1) (a)-(i),(b)-(iii),(c)-(iv),(d)-(ii)
Answer (2)
(2) (a)-(iii),(b)-(i),(c)-(iv),(d)-(ii)
184. Which among the statements related to the
(3) (a)-(iv),(b)-(ii),(c)-(iii),(d)-(i) qualification for the election as president is/are
(4) (a)-(ii),(b)-(i),(c)-(iii),(d)-(iv) incorrect ?
Answer (2) (a) he should be a citizen of India
179. Statement (I) : 75% of Indian rainfall is received (b) He must have attained the age of twenty five
from South –west Monsoon. years.
(c) He must not hold any office of profit anywhere
Statement (II) : Tamil Nadu which is located in the
in India.
leeward side receives abundant rainfall.
(d) He must be a member of parliament or state
(1) Statement (I) and (II) are correct
Legislature.
(2) Statement (I) and (II) are incorrect (1) (b) only (2) (a) and (c) only
(3) Statement (I) is correct and (II) is incorrect (3) (b) and (d) only (4) (a), (c) and (d) only.
(4) Statement(I) is incorrect and (II) is correct Answer (3)
Answer (3) 185. Who was India’s 12th President?
180. __________ are long furrows which are formed (1) Dr. A.P.J. Abdul Kalam
when the joints of limestone rocks are corrugated (2) Mrs. Pratibha Patil
by groundwater. (3) Dr. Pranab Mukherjee
(1) Sink holes (2) Caverns (4) Dr. K.R. Narayanan
(3) Stalactites (4) Lappies Answer (2)
186. Who is appointed according to Article 216 ?
Answer (4)
(1) Chief Justice of High Court
181. Which among the following statement/ statements
is/are correct ? (2) Chief Justice of India
(3) President
(a) Troposphere is called ‘Weather making layer’.
(4) Prime Minister
(b) Exosphere is characterised by Aurora Australis
Answer (1)
and Aurora Borealis.
187. Rule 49 – O describes :
(c) Thermosphere is called Ozonosphere.
(1) Transparency of the election proceedings.
(d) Stratosphere is referred as Homosphere/
(2) Conduct of free and fair election.
Heterosphere.
(3) Auditing procedure of the expenditure incurred
(1) (a) and (b) only (2) (c) and (d) only by the contesting party
(3) (a) only (4) (a), (b) and (c) only (4) Not willing to elect any candidate.
Answer (1) Answer (4)

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NTSE (S-I) 2019-20 (Tamil Nadu)

188. ______ is exempted from RTI Act : (1) (a)-(i), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(ii)
(1) Education Department (2) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(iii)
(2) Intelligence Bureau
(3) (a)-(iii), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i)
(3) Municipal Corporation
(4) (a)-(iv), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iii)
(4) Village Panchayat
Answer (2) Answer (2)
189. The new Panchayat Raj came into being in Tamil 195. Pick the odd one out :
Nadu :
(1) Iron (2) Wood
(1) 1993 (2) 1994
(3) 1995 (4) 1992 (3) Coal (4) Glass
Answer (2) Answer (4)
190. Pick the odd one out : 196. The author of the book “An Uncertain Glory” :
(1) Aruna Roy (2) Arvind Kejrival (1) Jean Bodin (2) Samuelson
(3) Mithali Raj (4) Nikil Dev
(3) Adam Smith (4) Amartya Sen
Answer (3)
191. The first chairman of National Human Rights Answer (4)
Commission : 197. The leading Solar producing state in India :
(1) Justice Fathima Bee
(1) Telangana (2) Karnataka
(2) Justice H.L. Dattu
(3) Tamil Nadu (4) Kerala
(3) Justice J.S. Verma
(4) Justice Ranganath Misra Answer (2)
Answer (4) 198. The water consumed in production process of an
192. Which writ upholds the fundamental rights of the agricultural and industrial product :
citizen?
(1) Virtual water (2) Rain water
(1) Certiorari (2) Mandamus
(3) Hard water (4) Soft water
(3) Quo-Warranto (4) Prohibition
Answer (2) Answer (1)
193. POCSO Act was passed in the year : 199. An index used to measure the real development in
(1) 2012 (2) 2009 an economy :
(3) 2010 (4) 2011 (1) GDP (2) HDI
Answer (1) (3) IIP (4) CPI
194. Match the following :
Answer (2)
(a) Net National (i) GDP – Depreciation
Product 200. The Noble prize winner in Economics in 2018 :
(b) Gross Domestic (ii) GNP – Depreciation (1) Amartya Sen
Product (2) Richard Thaler
(c ) Net Domestic (iii) GMP = C + I + G +
(3) William D. Nordhaus and Paul M. Romer
Product (X – M) + NFIA
(4) Oliver Hart and Bengt Holmstorm
(d) Gross National (iv) GDP = C + I + G +
Product (X-M) Answer (3)




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