LONGTERM QP ON 30-05-2021

BOTANY
01. Classification proposed by Theophrastus is
1) Artificial 2) Natural 3) Phylogenetic 4) Multidisciplinary
02. Sexual system of classification was proposed by
1) Theophrastus 2) Leeuenhoek 3) Bentham & Hooker 4) Linnaeus
03. Number of cohorts in Thalamiflorae
1) 4 2) 5 3) 6 4) 3
04. In a floral diagram mother axis represents
1) Posterior side 2) Anterior side 3) Lateral side 4) 1 or 2
05. Representation for Inferior ovary
1) G 2) G 3) G 4) G

06. A
This condition represents
1) Episepalous 2) Epiphyllous 3) Epitepalous 4) Epipetalous
07. Number of species included under Fabaceae
1) 270 2) 8500 3) 4075 4) 2200
08. Type of inflorescence in Fabaceae members
1) Raceme 2) Cyme 3) Verticellaster 4) Hypenthodium
09. Number of carpels in a flower of Fabaceae member
1) 1 2) 2 3) 3 4) 4
10. Blue dye is obtained from
1) Indigofera 2) Sesbania 3) Tephrosia 4) Butea
11. Monocarpellary , Unilocular , Half- superior ovary flowers are found in
1) Fabaceae 2) Solanaceae 3) Liliaceae 4) Brassicaceae
12. Phyllotaxy in Solanaceae members
1) Alternate 2) Whorled 3) opposite 4) All
13. Fruit of Lycopersicon is
1) Berry 2) Pome 3) Pepo 4) Hesperidium
14. Ornamental plant of Solanaceae
1) Petunia 2) Solanum 3) Withania 4) Capsicum
15. Radical leaves are found in
1) Smilax 2) Gloriosa 3) Allium 4) Dracaena
16. Polyembryony is seen in the seeds of
1) Allium 2) Solanum 3) Trifolium 4) Trigonella
17. Colchicine is an alkaloid obtained from
1) Seeds of Allium 2) Corm of Colchicum 3) Seeds of Colchicum 4) Seeds of Gloriosa
18. The botanical name of pigeon pea is
1) Cajanus 2) Cyamopsis 3)Cicer 4) Vicia
19. The system of Bentham & Hooker includes the following number of families
1) 202 2) 186 3) 196 4) 206
20. Stamens in Solanaceae are:
1)Epiphyllous 2) Synandrous 3)Syngenesious 4)Epipetalous
21. Flower of Fabaceae is
1)Complete, zygomorphic, pentamerous 2)Complete, actinomorphic, trimerous
3)Incomplete, zygomorphic, trimerous 4)Incomplete, actinomorphic, pentamerous
22. Papilionaceous flower with large vexillum covering two wings and the wings covering the level has corolla
aestivation of
1)Descending imbricate 2)Ascending imbricate
3) Twisted 4) Valvate
23. Match the List - I with List - II and find the correct combination
List - I List - II
A) Theophrastus I) Die Naturulichen planzenfamilien
B) Linnaeus II) Genera plantarum
C) Bentham & Hooker III) Species plantarum
D) Engler & Prantl IV) Historia plantarum
A B C D A B C D
1) II III I IV 2) I II IV III
3) IV III II I 4) IV II III I
24. List - I List - II
A) Belladona I) Atropa
B) Aswagandha II) Solanum nigrum
C) Kamanchi III) Withania
D) Thorn apple IV) Datura
1) A - I, B - III, C - II, D - IV 2) A - III, B - II, C - I, D- IV
3) A - I, B - IV, C - II, D - III 4) A - II, B - III, C - I, D - IV
25. List - I List - II
A) Ground nut I) Lathyrus sativus
B) Red gram II) Cajanus cajan
C) Sun hemp III) Arachis hypogea
D) Wild pea IV) Crotalaria juncea
A B C D A B C D
1) II IV III I 2) III II IV I
3) III IV II I 4) II III I IV
26. Keel is characteristic of the flowers of:
1)Calotropis 2)Bean 3)Gulmohur 4)Cassia.
27. Where would you place a plant having bicollateral vascular bundles, a climbing stem & unisexual flowers?
1) Papilionaceae 2) Compositae 3) Cucurbitaceae 4) Liliaceae
28. Phylogenetic classification is based on
1) Habits of plants 2) Utilitarian system 3) Overall similarities 4) Common evolutionary descent
29. An example for the artificial system of classification
1) Bentham & Hooker 2) Linnaeus system 3) Engler & Prantl 4) Bessey
30. The correct botanical name of tomato is
1) Solanum nigrum 2)Lycopersicon esculentum 3) Solanum melongena 4) Solanum eculentum
31. Which one of the following yields valuable timber?
1) Acacia arabica 2) Dalbergia sisso 3) Mangifera indica 4) Prosopis specigera
32. The correct floral formula of Liliaceae is

33. Liliaceae flowers are

1) Trimerous 2) Tetramerous 3) Pentamerous 4) Zygomorphic
34. Pulses yielding main family of plants is
1) Poaceae 2) Cucurbitaceae 3) Liliaceae 4) Papilionaceae
35. Pentamerous, actinomorphic flowers, bicarpellary ovary with oblique septa, and fruit a capsule or berry, are
characteristic features of
1)Liliaceae 2)Asteraceae 3)Brassicaceae 4)Solanaceae
36. The following aspect of the flower can be depicted in the floral formula but not in floral diagram
1)Symmetry of the flower 2)Aestivation or sepals & petals
3)Cohesion of floral part 4)Position of the ovary
37. In Fabaceae, the type of placentation is
1) Perietal 2) Marginal 3) Axile 4) All of the above
38. Which of the following represents the floral characters of Liliaceae
1) Six, tepals, zygomorphic, six stamens, bilocular ovary, axile placentation
2) Tetramerous, actinomorphic, polyphyllous, unilocular ovary, axile placentation
3) Trimerous, actinomorphic, polyandrous,superior ovary, axile placentation
4) Unisexual, actinomorphic, trilocular, inferior ovary, axile placentation
39. Which of the following are not characteristic features of Fabaceae
1)Tap root system, compound, leaves and raceme inflorescence
2)Flowers actinomorphic, twisted aestivation and gamopetalous
3)Stamens 10, introrse, basifixed, dithecous
4)Monocarpellary, ovary superior and bent stigma
40 Which of the character does not become apparent in floral formula
1)Placentation and aestivation 2)Number of floral parts
3)Whorls of floral parts 4)Position of ovary
41. Seeds of Fabaceae members are
1) Non - endospermic 2) Endospermic 3) Monocotyledons4) Both 1 & 3
42. Soyabean oil is obtained from
1) Arachis 2) Glycine 3) Crotalaria 4) Derris
43. Number of stamens found in a flower of Pisum
1) 9 2) 10 3) 6 4) 5
44. Smallest taxon is
1)Family 2) Genus 3) Order 4) Species
45. A branch of taxonomy that uses the phytochemical data
1) Cytotaxonomy 2) Chemotaxonomy 3) Numerial taxonomy 4) None

ZOOLOGY
46. Which one of the following has maximum genetic diversity in India?
(1) Teak (2) Rice (3) Wheat (4) Tea
47. India’s share in the global species diversity i
(1) 8.1% (2) 2.4% (3) 12% (4) 25%
48. Increased diversity contributes to higher productivity. This was evident from the experimental results of
1) Ehrlich 2) Haeckel 3) Humboldt 4) Tilman
49. Troublesome American water weed found in India
(1) Eichhornia (2) Trapa (3) Cyperus (4) Typha
50. The most important human activity, leading to the extinction of wildlife, is\
(1) Introduction of alien species (2) Alteration and destruction of the natural habitats
(3) Pollution of air and water (4) Hunting of valuable wildlife products
51. Man made mass extinction of species represent a very severe depletion of biodiversity. This is called as
(1) Mass extinction (2) Natural extinction (3) Anthropogenic extinction (4) Human extinction
52. Which of the following is not under broadly utilitarian reasons for conserving biodiversity?
(1) Pollination (2) Aesthetic pleasures
(3) Controlling soil erosion (4) 25% drugs sold in market are plants based
53. First national park of India is
(1) Kanha National Park (2) Periyar National Park
(3) Corbett National Park (4) Bandipur National Park
54. Number of Biodiversity hot-spots in India recently is
(1) 3 (2) 2 (3)4 (4) 1
55. Khasi and Jaintia hills are sacred groves in
1) Maharashtra (2) Meghalaya (3) Rajasthan ( 4) Madhya Pradesh
56. The number of biosphere reserves in India is
(1) 10 (2) 12 (3) 34 (4) 14
57. The first National Park in the world was
(1) Jim Corbett, India (2) Yellowstone, USA (3) Peak, UK (4) Lahema, USSR
58. Which one of the following are two hot spots of biodiversity of India?
(1) Western ghats and Himalayas (2) Deccan plateau and Western Ghats
(3) Himalayan and Deccan Plateau (4) Wetern Ghats and Gangetic Plains
59. In global biodiversity
(1) Fungi represent maximum number (2) Algae represent the minimum number
(3) Fungi represent the minimum number (4) Mosses represent the maximum number
60. Which of the following statement is wrong?
(1) A stable community should show much variation in productivity from year to year
(2) According to Tilman's long term ecosystem experiments increased diversity contributed to higher productivity.
(3) Stable community must be resistant to occasional disturbances
(4) Rich biodiversity is essential for ecosystem health but imperative for the very survival of the human race
on this planet
61. Study the following graph carefully and find out the incorrect statement:

200
No. of ant species

150

100

50

0
20 40 60 80
Latitude

(1) Diversity of ants decreases as we move from equator to poles.

(2) Low temperature and greater seasonal variability at higher latitudes reduce diversity of ants.
(3) At 0-20° latitude, diversity of ants is high due to warm temperature and high humidity.
(4) More solar energy is available at higher latitudes resulting in high species diversity of ants.
62. Consider the following statements (a-e) about causes of loss of biodiversity.
a) Tropical rain forests once covering more than 14% of the earth's land surface, now cover no more than 6%.
b) Biological systems should not be exploited beyond the degree of their renewability.
c) Nile perch, a large predator fish was introduced into Lake Victoria of East Australia.
d) Lantana is an indigenous plant of our country.
e) Recent illegal introduction of the American catfish for aquaculture purposes is posing a threat to the
indigenous catfishes in our rivers.
Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
(1) a & b (2) b, c & d 3) only b (4) b, d & e
63. According to the concept of species-area relations
(1) The number of species in an area increases with the size of the area upto some extent.
(2) Large species require larger habitat areas than do smaller species.
(3) Most species within any given area are endemic.
(4) the larger the area, the greater the extinction rate.
64. Which of the following organisms are badly affected when large habitats are broken up into small fragments
due to various human activities?
(1) Mammals requiring small territories (2) Planktons showing diapause
(3) Animals with migratory habits (4) Birds requiring small territories
65. Match the following.
Column I Column II
a. Thylacine (i) Russia
b. Dodo (ii) Mauritius
c. Quagga (iii) Australia
d. Steller's sea cow (iv) Africa
(1) a (ii), b(iii), c(i), d(iv) (2) a(iv), b(i), c(ii), d(iii) (3) a(iii), b(iv), c(ii), d(i) (4) a(iii), b(ii), c(iv), d(i)
66. Biodiversity loss occurs due to-
A.Habitat loss and fragmentation B.Co-extinction
C. Over-exploitation D.Alien species invasion.
(1) A and B (2) A, B and C (3) B, C and D (4) A, B, C and D
67. If the Bengal tiger becomes extinct
(1) Hyenas and Wolves will become scarce
(2) The wild areas will be safe for man and domestic animals
(3) Its gene pool will be lost for ever
(4) The population of beautiful animals like deers will get stabilized.
68. Match the following.
Column I Column II
(I) Dodo (A) Rauwolfia
(II) Reserpine (B) Mauritius
(III) Botanical gardens (C) Khasi and Jaintia hills
(IV) Sacred groves (D) Ex-situ conservation
(1) I-(B), II-(A), III-(D), IV-(C) (2) I-(D), II-(A), III-(B), IV-(C)
(3) I-(A), II-(C), III-(B), IV-(D) (4) I-(B), II-(A), III-(C), IV-(D)
69. A biosphere reserve preserves
(1) Wild populations (2) Traditional life styles of tribals
(3) Genetic resources of organisms (4) All of these
70. Viable material of endangered species can be preserved in
(1) Gene bank (2) Gene library (3) Herbarium (4) Gene pool
71. The Government of India in 1980s has introduced a concept to work closely with the local communities for
protecting and managing forests. The concept is
(1) forest research institutes (2) panel of local communities for forest management
(3) joint forest management (4) jhum cultivation
72. A renewable exhaustible natural resource is:
(1) Minerals (2) Forest (3) Coal (4) Petroleum
73. Which one of the following have the highest number of species in nature?
(1) Fungi (2) Insects (3) Birds (4) Angiosperms
74. The highest number of species in the world is represented by
(1) Fungi (2) Mosses (3) Algae (4) Lichens
75. Select the correct statement about biodiversity
(1) The desert areas of Rajasthan and Gujarat have a very high level of desert animal species as well as
numerous rare animals
(2) Large scale planting of Bt cotton has no adverse effect on biodiversity
(3) Western ghats have a very high degree of species richness and endemism
(4) Conservation of biodiversity is just a fad pursued by the developed countries.
76. Sacred groves are specially useful in
(1) Generating environmental awareness (2) Preventing soil erosion
(3) year-round flow of water in rivers (4) Conserving rare and threatened species
77. Which one of the following is not used for ex situ plant conservation?
(1) Seed banks (2) Shifting cultivation (3) Botanical Gardens (4) Field gene banks
78. The organization which publishes the Red List of species is :
(1) WWF (2) ICFRE (3) IUCN (4) UNEP
79. Given below is the representation of the extent of global diversity of invertebrates. What groups the four
portions (A-D) represent respectively?

D
C
B
A

A B C D
(1) Insects Molluscs Crustaceans Other animal groups
(2) Insects Crustaceans Other animal groups Molluscs
(3) Crustaceans Insects Molluscs Other animal groups
(4) Molluscs Other animal groups Crustaceans Insects

80. An example of ex situ conservation is

(1) Sacred Grove (2) National Park (3) Seed Bank (4) Wildlife Sanctuary
81. The species confined to a particular region and not found elsewhere is termed as:
(1) Rare (2) Keystone (3) Alien (4) Endemic
82. The UN Conference of Parties on climate change in the year 2011 was held in
(1) Peru (2) Qatar (3) Poland (4) South Africa
83. Cryopreservation of gametes of threatened species in viable and fertile condition can be referred to as:
(1) In situ conservation by sacred groves (2) In situ cryo-conservation of biodiversity
(3) In situ conservation of biodiversity (4) Advanced ex-situ conservation of biodiversity
84. Which of the following is the most important cause of animals and plants being driven to extinction?
1) Over -exploitation 2) Alien species invasion 3) Habitat loss and fragmentation4) Co-extinctions
85. How many hot spots of biodiversity in the world have been identified till date by Norman Myers?
1) 17 2) 25 3) 34 4) 43
86. Which of the following is related to exsitu conservation of threatened animals & plants
1) Wildlife Safari parks 2) Biodiversity hot spots
3) Amazon rain forest 4) Himalayan region
87. The region of Biosphere reserve which is legally protected and where no human activity is allowed is known as
1) Core zone 2) Buffer zone 3) Transition zone 4) Restoration zone
88. Alexander Von Humboldt described for the first time
1) Ecological biodiversity 2) Laws of limiting factors
3) Species area relationships 4) Population growth equation
89. All of the following are included in ‘Ex-situ conservation’ except
1) Wild life safari parks 2) Botanical gardens 3) Sacred groves 4) Seed banks
90. Pollen grains can be stored from several years in liquid nitrogen having a temperature of
1) -1200C 2) -800C 3) -1960C 4) -1600C

PHYSICS
91. For the myopic eye, the defect is cured by
(a)Convex lens (b)Concave lens (c)Cylindrical lens (d)Toric lens
92. A man can see only between 75 cm and 200 cm. The power of lens to correct the near point will be
(a)+ 8/3 D (b)+ 3 D (c)- 3 D (d)- 8/3 D
93. A man can see the object between 15 cm and 30 cm. He uses the lens to see the far objects. Then due to
the lens used, the near point will be at
10 100
(a) 3
cm (b) 30 cm (c)15 cm (d) 3
cm
94. The far point of a myopia eye is at 40 cm. For removing this defect, the power of lens required will be
(a)40 D (b)- 4 D (c) - 2.5 D (d) 0.25 D
95. A man suffering from myopia can read a book placed at 10 cm distance. For reading the book at a distance
of 60 cm with relaxed vision, focal length of the lens required will be
(a)45 cm (b)- 20 cm (c)- 12 cm (d)30 cm
96. A person’s near point is 50 cm and his far point is 3 m. Power of the lenses he requires for
(i)reading and (ii)for seeing distant stars are
(a)- 2 D and 0.33 D (b)2 D and - 0.33 D (c)- 2 D and 3 D (d)2 D and - 3 D
97. An eye specialist prescribes spectacles having a combination of convex lens of focal length 40 cm in contact
with a concave lens of focal length 25 cm. The power of this lens combination in diopters is
(a)+ 1.5 (b)- 1.5 (c)+ 6.67 (d)- 6.67

98.

Identify the wrong description of the above figures

(a)1 represents far-sightedness (b)2 correction for short sightedness
(c)3 represents far sightedness (d)4 correction for far-sightedness
99. The focal lengths of the objective and eye-lens of a microscope are 1 cm and 5 cm respectively. If the
magnifying power for the relaxed eye is 45, then the length of the tube is
(a)30 cm (b)25 cm (c)15 cm (d)12 cm
100. In a compound microscope magnification will be large, if the focal length of the eye piece is
(a)Large (b)Smaller (c)Equal to that of objective (d)Less than that of objective
101. Magnifying power of a simple microscope is (when final image is formed at D = 25 cm from eye)
D D f D
(a) f
(b) 1  f
(c) 1  D (d) 1  f
102. If in compound microscope m1 and m2 be the linear magnification of the objective lens and eye lens
respectively, then magnifying power of the compound microscope will be
(a) m 1  m2 (b) m1  m 2 (c) (m 1  m2)/ 2 (d) m1  m 2

103. If the focal length of objective and eye lens are 1.2 cm and 3 cm respectively and the object is put 1.25 cm
away from the objective lens and the final image is formed at infinity. The magnifying power of the micro
scope is
(a)150 (b)200 (c)250 (d)400
104. The focal length of objective and eye lens of a microscope are 4 cm and 8 cm respectively. If the least
distance of distinct vision is 24 cm and object distance is 4.5 cm from the objective lens, then the magnifying
power of the microscope will be
(a)18 (b)32 (c)64 (d)20
105. The magnifying power of a simple microscope can be increased, if we use eye-piece of
(a)Higher focal length (b)Smaller focal length (c)Higher diameter (d)Smaller diameter
106. The magnifying power of a microscope with an objective of 5 mm focal length is 400. The length of its tube
is 20 cm. Then the focal length of the eye-piece is
(a)200 cm (b)160 cm (c)2.5 cm (d) 0.1 cm
107. The focal lengths of the objective and the eye-piece of a compound microscope are 2.0 cm and 3.0 cm
respectively. The distance between the objective and the eye-piece is 15.0 cm. The final image formed by
the eye-piece is at infinity. The two lenses are thin. The distances in cm of the object and the image pro
duced by the objective measured from the objective lens are respectively
(a)2.4 and 12.0 (b)2.4 and 15.0 (c)2.3 and 12.0 (d)2.3 and 3.0
108. In a compound microscope, the focal lengths of two lenses are 1.5 cm and 6.25 cm an object is placed at
2cm form objective and the final image is formed at 25 cm from eye lens. The distance between the two
lenses is
(a)6.00 cm (b)7.75 cm (c)9.25 cm (d)11.00 cm
109. In a compound microscope, the intermediate image is
(a)Virtual, erect and magnified (b)Real, erect and magnified
(c)Real, inverted and magnified (d)Virtual, erect and reduced
110. A simple telescope, consisting of an objective of focal length 60 cm and a single eye lens of focal length
5 cm is focussed on a distant object is such a way that parallel rays comes out from the eye lens. If the
object subtends an angle 2o at the objective, the angular width of the image
(a)10o (b)24o (c)50o (d)1/6o
111. A photograph of the moon was taken with telescope. Later on, it was found that a housefly was sitting on
the objective lens of the telescope. In photograph
(a)The image of housefly will be reduced (b)There is a reduction in the intensity of the image
(c)There is an increase in the intensity of the image (d)The image of the housefly will be enlarged
112. The focal length of the objective of a terrestrial telescope is 80 cm and it is adjusted for parallel rays, then its
magnifying power is 20. If the focal length of erecting lens is 20 cm, then full length of telescope will be
(a)84 cm (b) 100 cm (c)124 cm (d) 164 cm
113. The focal length of objective and eye lens of a astronomical telescope are respectively 2 m and 5 cm. Final
image is formed at (i) least distance of distinct vision (ii) infinity. The magnifying power in both cases will be
(a)– 48, – 40 (b) – 40, – 48 (c)– 40, 48 (d)– 48, 40
114. An astronomical telescope has an angular magnification of magnitude 5 for distant objects. The separation
between the objective and the eye piece is 36 cm and the final image is formed at infinity. The focal length fo
of the objective and the focal length fe of the eye piece are
(a) fo = 45 cm and fe = – 9 cm (b) fo = 7.2 cm and fe = 5 cm
(c) fo = 50 cm and fe = 10 cm (d) fo = 30 cm and fe = 6 cm
115. The aperture of a telescope is made large, because
(a)To increase the intensity of image (b)To decrease the intensity of image
(c)To have greater magnification (d)To have lesser resolution
116. If the telescope is reversed i.e. seen from the objective side
(a)Object will appear very small
(b)Object will appear very large
(c)There will be no effect on the image formed by the telescope
(d)Image will be slightly greater than the earlier one

117. The length of an astronomical telescope for normal vision (relaxed eye) (fo = focal length of objective lens
and fe = focal length of eye lens) is
fo
(a) fo  fe (b) fe (c) fo  fe (d) fo  fe
118. Four convergent lenses have focal lengths 100 cm, 10 cm, 4 cm and 0.3 cm. For a telescope with maximum
possible magnification, we choose the lenses of focal length
(a)100 cm, 0.3 cm (b)10 cm, 0.3 cm (c)10 cm, 4 cm (d)100 cm, 4 cm
119. The focal lengths of the lenses of an astronomical telescope are 50 cm and 5 cm. The length of the telescope
when the image is formed at the least distance of distinct vision is
275 325
(a) 45 cm (b) 55 cm (c) 6
cm (d) 6
cm

120. The phenomenon of interference is shown by

(a)Longitudinal mechanical waves only (b)Transverse mechanical waves only
(c)Electromagnetic waves only (d)All the above types of waves
121. If the ratio of intensities of two waves is 1 : 25, then the ratio of their amplitudes will be
(a)1 : 25 (b)5 : 1 (c)26 : 24 (d)1 : 5
122. If the amplitude ratio of two sources producing interference is 3 : 5, the ratio of intensities at maxima and
minima is
(a)25 : 16 (b)5 : 3 (c)16 : 1 (d)25 : 9
123. Two sources of waves are called coherent if
(a) Both have the same amplitude of vibrations
(b) Both produce waves of the same wavelength
(c) Both produce waves of the same wavelength having constant phase difference
(d) Both produce waves having the same velocity
124. For constructive interference to take place between two monochromatic light waves of wavelength l, the
path difference should be
  
(a) (2n  1) 4 (b) (2n  1) 2 (c) n (d) (2n  1) 2
125. In a wave, the path difference corresponding to a phase difference of f is
   
(a) 2  (b)   (c) 2  (d)  
126. Monochromatic green light of wavelength 5  10 7 m illuminates a pair of slits 1 mm apart. The separation of
bright lines on the interference pattern formed on a screen 2 m away is
(a)0.25 mm (b)0.1 mm (c)1.0 mm (d)0.01 mm
127. In Young’s double slit experiment when wavelength used is 6000 Å and the screen is 40 cm from the slits,
the fringes are 0.012 cm wide. What is the distance between the slits
(a)0.024 cm (b)2.4 cm (c)0.24 cm (d)0.2 cm
128. A thin mica sheet of thickness 2  10 m and refractive index (  1. 5) is introduced in the path of the first
 6

wave. The wavelength of the wave used is 5000 Å. The central bright maximum will shift
(a)2 fringes upward (b)2 fringes downward (c)10 fringes upward (d)None of these
129. If a transparent medium of refractive index = 1.5 and thickness t = 2.5 ´ 10–5 m is inserted in front of one of
the slits of Young’s Double Slit experiment, how much will be the shift in the interference pattern? The
distance between the slits is 0.5 mm and that between slits and screen is 100 cm
(a)5 cm (b)2.5 cm (c)0.25 cm (d)0.1 cm
130. In Young’s experiment, the distance between slits is 0.28 mm and distance between slits and screen is 1.4 m.
Distance between central bright fringe and third bright fringe is 0.9 cm. What is the wavelength of used light
(a)5000 Å (b)6000 Å (c)7000 Å (d)9000 Å
o
131. In Young’s double slit experiment, angular width of fringes is 0.20 for sodium light of wavelength 5890 Å. If
complete system is dipped in water, then angular width of fringes becomes
(a)0.11o (b)0.15o (c)0.22o (d)0.30o
132. In a Young’s experiment, two coherent sources are placed 0.90 mm apart and the fringes are observed one
metre away. If it produces the second dark fringe at a distance of 1 mm from the central fringe, the wave
length of monochromatic light used would be
(a) 60  10 4 cm (b) 10  10 4 cm (c) 10  10 5 cm (d) 6  10 5 cm
133. In the Young’s double slit experiment with sodium light. The slits are 0.589 m a part. The angular separation
of the third maximum from the central maximum will be (given l = 589 mm)
(a) sin1 (0. 33  10 8 ) (b) sin 1 (0 .33  10 6 ) (c) sin1 (3  10 8 ) (d) sin1 (3  10 6 )
134. In Young’s double slit experiment using sodium light (l = 5898 Å), 92 fringes are seen. If given colour (l =
5461 Å) is used, how many fringes will be seen
(a)62 (b)67 (c)85 (d)99
135. The two slits at a distance of 1 mm are illuminated by the light of wavelength 6 .5  10 7 m . The interference
fringes are observed on a screen placed at a distance of 1m. The distance between third dark fringe and
fifth bright fringe will be
(a)0.65 mm (b)1.63 mm (c)3.25 mm (d)4.88 mm
CHEMISTRY

136. If E ºFe2 / Fe is x1, E ºFe3 / Fe is x2 then E 0Fe3 / Fe 2 will be :

1) 3x2 – 2x1 2) x2 – x1 3) x2 + x1 4) 2x1 + 3x2
137. In H2 – O2 fuel cell the reaction occuring at cathode is -
1) 2H2O + O2 + 4e– ® 4OH– 2) 2H2 + O2 ® 2H2O(l)
1
3) H+ + OH– ® H2O 4) H+ + e– ® H
2 2
138. What is the equilibrium constant for reaction Fe+2 + Ce+4 Fe+3 + Ce+3
Given EºCe+4/Ce+3 = 1.44V and E 0Fe3 / Fe 2 = 0.68V
1) KC = 1.3 x 1010 2) KC = 3.2 x1010 3) KC = 7.6 x 1012 4) KC = 7.6 x 105
139. When a lead storage battery is discharged.
1) SO2 is evolved 2) lead is formed
3) lead sulphate is consumed 4) sulphuric acid is consumed
1
140. 2H+ + O2 + 2e ® H2O (l) Eº = 1.23 V Fe2+ + 2e ¾® Fe(s) E0 = - 0.44V
2
What is the DGº of the net corrosion reaction?
1) – 322 kJ 2) – 152 kJ 3) – 161 kJ 4) – 76 kJ
141. 2+ +
the standard reduction potentials of Cu /Cu and Cu /Cu are 0.337 and 0.153 V respectively.
The standard electrode potential of Cu2+/Cu half cell is -
1) 0.184 V 2) 0.827 V 3) 0.521 V 4) 0.490 V
142. The equilibrium constant (K) for the reactionCu(s) + 2Ag+(aq) ¾® Cu2+(aq) + 2Ag(s)
º
will be [Given E cell = 0.46 V]
1) Kc = Antilog15.6 2) Kc = Antilog 2.5 3) Kc = Antilog 1.5 4) Kc = Antilog12.2
143. Prevention of corrosion of iron Zn coating is called -
1) Galvanization 2) Cathodic protection
3) Electrolysis 4) Photoelectrolysis
144. Cathode is made of ........in mercury battery
1) Zn 2) ZnO 3) Carbon in contact with HgO 4) Zn in contact with HgO
145. Which of the following reaction occurs at the cathode during the charging of lead storage
battery ?
1) Pb 2   2e  Pb 2) Pb 2  SO42  PbSO4
3) Pb  Pb 2  2e  4) PbSO 4(s)  2H 2 O  PbO 2(s )  4H   SO 4 2  2e 
146. The technique of protecting a metal from corrosion by connecting it to a second metal (that is
more easily oxidised) is called
1) annealing 2) galvanisation 3) cathodic protection 4) anodic protection
147. Following are some of the facts about dry cell
i) It is also called Leclanche cell ii) It is also called Daniel cell
iii) Electrolyte is a moist paste of NH4Cl and ZnCl2 in starch
iv) Cathodic reaction is MnO2 (s) + NH4+ (aq) + e–  MnO(OH)+NH3
Select correct facts :
1) i, ii, iii 2) i, iii, iv 3) ii, iii, iv 4) i, iv
148. The cell, Zn |Zn 2 (1M) || Cu 2 (1M)| Cu (E 0cell  1.10V) , was allowed to be completely discharged
2
2 2   [Zn ] 
at 298 K. The relative concentration of Zn to Cu  2   is
 [Cu ] 
1) 9. 65 × 104 2) antilog (24.08) 3) 37.3 4) 1037.3
149. For the reaction 2A + 3B ® 4C the rate of reaction may be represented as
d[ A ] d[ B] d[C] d[ A ] d[ B] d[C]
1) r = – 2 dt = – 3 dt = 4 dt 2) r = – 6 dt = – 4 dt = 3 dt

1 d[ A ] 1 d[ B] 1 d[C] 1 d[ A ] 1 d[ B] 1 d[C]
3) r = – = 3 dt = 4) r = – = – 3 dt =
2 dt 4 dt 2 dt 4 dt
150. The rate constant for the reaction, 2N2O5 ® 4NO2 + O2 is 3 × 10–5 s–1. If the rate of reaction is
2.4 × 10–5 mol L–1 s–1 , then concentration of N2O5 is-
1) 1.4 (M) 2) 1.2 (M) 3) 0.04 (M) 4) 0.8 (M)
151. For a chemical reaction 2X + Y ® Z, the rate of appearance of Z is 0.05 mol L–1 per min. The
rate of disappearance of X will be -
1) 0.05 mol L—1 per hour 2) 0.05 mol L—1 per min
3) 0.1 mol L—1 per min 4) 0.25 mol L—1 per min
152. th
The rate constant of n order has units -
1) Litre1–n mol1-n sec–1 2) Mol1–nlitre1-n sec
3) Mol1 n 2 litren 2 sec–1 4) Mole1–n litren-1sec–1
153. For the reaction : N2 + 3H2 ® 2NH3. If the rate of disappearance of hydrogen is 1.8 × 103.
What is the rate of formation of ammonia. (mole per litre per sec.)
1) 1.8 × 103 2) 1.2 × 103 3) 2.7 × 103 4) 0.9 × 103
154. The rate constant for a reaction is 10.8 x 10–5 mol lit–1 sec–1. The reaction is –
1) First order 2) Zero order 3) Second order 4) Half order
155. For a reaction AB5 ¾® AB + 4B The rate can be expressed in following ways
d[AB5 ] d[B]
= K[AB5] ; = K1[AB5] So the correct relation between K and K1 is-
dt dt
1) K1 = K 2) K1 = 2K 3) K1 = 4K 4) 2K1 = K
156. Slowest reaction among the following under identical conditions is
1) NaOH  HCl  NaCl  H 2O 2) H   OH   H 2O
3) 2 NO  O2  2 NO2 4) CH 4  2O2  CO2  2 H 2O
157. For a cell reaction involving a two-electron change, the standard emf of the cell is found to be
0.295 V at 250 C . The equilibrium constant of the reaction at 250 C will be
1) 11010 2) 29.5  1010 3) 10 4) 11010
158. Aqua regia is mixture of –
1) 3HCl + HNO3 2) 3HNO3 + HCl 3) H3PO4 + HCl 4) PH3 + HClO
159. The ease of liquefication of noble gases decreases in the order -
(1) He > Ne > Ar > Kr > Xe 2) Xe > Kr > Ar > Ne > He
3) Kr > Xe > He > Ar > Xe 4) Ar > Kr > Xe > He > Ne
160. The property of halogen acids, that indicated incorrect is -
1) HF > HCl > HBr > HI.......acidic strength 2) HI > HBr > HCl > HF.......reducing strength
3) Hl > HBr > HCl > HF......bond length 4) HF > HCl > HBr > HI .....thermal stability
161. In OF2 molecule, the total number of bond pair and lone pairs of electrons present respectively
are -
1) 2, 6 2) 2, 8 3) 2, 10 4) 2, 9
162. Which reaction is possible -
1) I2 + 2NaBr –® Br2 + 2NaI 2) I2 + 2NaCl –® Cl2 + 2Nal
3) Br2 + 2NaCl –® Cl2 + 2NaBr 4) Cl2 + 2NaBr –® Br2 + 2NaCl
163. Compounds (A) and (B) are –
Co ld an d d ilute NaOH
(A) + NaCl + H2O
Cl2
Hot a nd c on c. Na OH
(B) + NaCl + H2O
1) NaClO3, NaClO 2) NaOCl2, NaOCl 3) NaClO4, NaClO3 4) NaOCl, NaClO3
164. The set with correct order of acidity is -
1) HClO < HClO2 < HClO3 < HClO4 2) HClO4 < HClO3 < HClO2 < HClO
3) HClO < HClO4 < HClO3 < HClO2 4) HClO4 < HClO2 < HClO3 < HClO
165. Which of the following is not correct -
1) XeO3 has four s and four p bonds 2) The hybridisation of Xe in XeF4 is sp3d2
3) Among noble gases, the occurrence of argon is highest in air
4) Liquid helium is used as cryogenic liquid
166. The xenon compound(s) that are iso-structural with IBr2– and BrO3– respectively are -
1) Linear XeF2 and pyramidal XeO3 2) Bent XeF2 and pyramidal XeO3
3) Bent XeF2 and planar XeO3 4) Linear XeF2 and tertrahedral XeO3
167. Which one of the following statements regarding helium is incorrect -
1) It is used to produce and sustain powerful superconducting magnets
2) It is used as a cryogenic agent for carrying out experiments at low tempeatures
3) It is used to fill gas balloons instead of hydrogen because it it lighter than hydrogen
and non-inflammable
4) It is used in gas-cooled nuclear reactors
168. Which one of the following reactions of Xenon compounds is not feasible ?
1) 3 XeF4 + 6 H2O ® 2 Xe + XeO3 + 12 HF + 1.5 O2
2) 2 XeF2 + 2H2O ® 2 Xe + 4 HF + O2
3) XeF6 + RbF ® Rb [XeF7]
4) XeO3 + 6 HF ® XeF6 + 3 H2O
169. Select the correct matching -
List I List II
A : XeF4 1. Pyramidal
B : XeF6 2. T-shape
C : XeO3 3. Distorted octahedral
D : XeOF2 4. Square planar
A B C D
(1) 4 3 1 2
(2) 1 2 3 4
(3) 2 1 3 4
(4) 4 1 3 2
170. Which one of the following arrangements does not truly represent the property indicated
against it?
1) Br2 < Cl2 < F2 : Bond energy 2) Br2 < Cl2 < F2 : Electronegativity
3) Br2 < Cl2 < F2 : Oxidising power 4) Br2 < F2 < Cl2 : Electron affinity
171. Which of the following is used in the preparation of chlorine
1) Only MnO2 2) Only KMnO4
3) Both MnO2 and KMnO4 4) Neither MnO2 nor KMnO4
172. The correct order of stability of the halous ac ids in aqueous solution is
1. HCIO < HBrO <HIO 2. HCIO > HBrO < HIO
3. HCIO > HBrO >HIO 4. HCIO <HBrO > HIO
173. Find the correct statements.
a) Electron affinity of F is less than that of Cl
b) Number of lone pairs at central chlorine atom of ClF3 is 2
c) Iodine absorbs radiation of violet colour and appear in yellow colour.
d) F2 oxidizes all other ionic halides to halogens
Find the correct answer.
1) a, c, d 2) a, b,. d 3) only c 4) all are correct
174. Among the oxyacids of chlorine, the strongest oxidising agent
1) HClO4 2) HClO3 3) HClO2 4) HClO
175. What are the products obtained when excess ammonia is reacted with chlorine?
1) N2 and NCl3 2) N2 and HCl 3) N2 and NH4 Cl 4) NCl3 and HCl
176. The compound formed by reacting aqua regia with Pt
1) PtCl61 2) PtCl62  3) PtCl63 4) PtCl64 

177. From spent Nuclear Fuel Plutonium waste is removed with

1) O2 F2 2) F2 3) OF2 4) SF6
178. The silent killer carbon monoxide can be estimated with
1) I 2 O4 2) I 2 O5 3) I 2 O7 4) BrO3
179. The gas filled in electric bulbs is
1) Ar 2) N2 3) He 4) O2
180. Boiling point is very high for
1. He 2. Ne 3. Kr 4. Xe