UNIT – 03

CHEMISTRY : ORGANIC CHEMISTRY

Nomenclature + Isomerism

BIOLOGY : STRUCTURE AND FUNCTIONS

(viii) Cell : The Unit of Life

(ix) Biomolecules
(x) Cell Cycle and Cell Division

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1. How many functional groups are present in following 1.
compound ?
O
O O NH N
O NH N
O OH O
O OH O
(1) 2 (2) 3
(1) 2 (2) 3 (3) 5 (4) 4 (3) 5 (4) 4
2. How many 1°, 2°, 3° and 4° carbon atom present is 2. 2, 2, 4-trimethyl pentane 1°, 2°, 3° 4°
2, 2, 4-trimethyl pentane -
(1) 4, 2, 1, 1 (2) 5, 1, 1, 1 (1) 4, 2, 1, 1 (2) 5, 1, 1, 1
(3) 5, 0, 2, 1 (4) 5, 1, 0, 1 (3) 5, 0, 2, 1 (4) 5, 1, 0, 1
3. Which is incorrect combination of structure and name 3.
of compound ? (1) 2, 2-dimethylpropane C(CH3)4
(1) 2, 2-dimethylpropane C(CH3)4 (2) 2, 2-dimethylheptane (CH3)3C(CH2)CH3
(2) 2, 2-dimethylheptane (CH3)3C(CH2)CH3
(3) 3, 5-diethyl-3,5-dimethylheptane
(3) 3, 5-diethyl-3,5-dimethylheptane
C(C2H5)2(CH3)CH2(C2H5)CH(CH3)CH2CH3 C(C2H5)2(CH3)CH2(C2H5)CH(CH3)CH2CH3
(4) 3-methylhexane CH3CH2CH(CH3)CH2CH3 (4) 3-methylhexane CH3CH2CH(CH3)CH2CH3
4. Which is incorrect name of given compound ? 4.
O O
(1) 3-methyl-3-butenal (1) 3-methyl-3-butenal

O O O O
(2) 2,4-pentanedion (2) 2,4-pentanedion

OH OH

(3) cyclopent-1-en-3-ol (3) cyclopent-1-en-3-ol

OH OH
| |
(4) CH 3  CH  CH  CH 2  CH3 (4) CH 3  CH  CH  CH 2  CH3
| |
CH 3 CH 3

3-methylpentan-2-ol 3-methylpentan-2-ol
5. Which is correct structure of isopropyl 2, 5. isopropyl 2,2-dimethylpropanoate
2-dimethylpropanoate ? ?
O O O O
(1) (2) (1) (2)
O O O O

O O
(3) (4) O (3) (4) O
O O O O

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6. Which is incorrect combination of IUPAC name and 6. IUPAC
structure of compound ?

(1) cyclohex-3-en-1-one O (1) cyclohex-3-en-1-one O

(2) 4-oxopentanal CH 3  C  CH 2  CH 2  CHO (2) 4-oxopentanal CH 3  C  CH 2  CH 2  CHO

|| ||
O O
(3) 2, 2,-dimethyl-3,4-dioxobutanoic acid (3) 2, 2,-dimethyl-3,4-dioxobutanoic acid
O O
COOH COOH

O O
(4) Pent-3-en-1-yne HC  C–CH=CH–CH3 (4) Pent-3-en-1-yne HC  C–CH=CH–CH3
CH 3 CH 3

7. Which is correct IUPAC name of 7. IUPAC

(1) 4-methylclopenta-1,3-diene (1) 4-methylclopenta-1,3-diene

(2) 1-methylcyclopenta-2,4-diene (2) 1-methylcyclopenta-2,4-diene
(3) 5-methylcyclopenta-1,3-diene (3) 5-methylcyclopenta-1,3-diene
(4) 3-methylcyclopenta-1,4-diene (4) 3-methylcyclopenta-1,4-diene

NH 2 NH 2
CH3 CH3
8. Which is correct IUPAC name of 8. IUPAC

OH OH

(1) 4-amino-3-methylphenol (1) 4-amino-3-methylphenol

(2) 2-amino-5-hydroxytoluene (2) 2-amino-5-hydroxytoluene
(3) 4-hydroxy-2-methylaniline (3) 4-hydroxy-2-methylaniline
(4) 1-amino-4-hydroxy-2-methylbenzene (4) 1-amino-4-hydroxy-2-methylbenzene
9. The IUPAC name of the compound 9. IUPAC

CH3  HC  CH  CH  CH2COOH is : CH3  HC  CH  CH  CH2COOH

| |
NH2 NH2

(1) 5-Aminohept-2-enoic acid (1) 5-Aminohept-2-enoic acid

(2) -Amino--heptenoic acid (2) -Amino--heptenoic acid
(3) 3-Aminohex-4-enoic acid (3) 3-Aminohex-4-enoic acid
(4) 5-Aminohex-2-enecarboxylic acid (4) 5-Aminohex-2-enecarboxylic acid

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10. Which of the following IUPAC name is correct? 10. IUPAC
(1) 3-ehyl-2-methylpentane (1) 3-ehyl-2-methylpentane
(2) 2-methylpentane-2,4-diol (2) 2-methylpentane-2,4-diol
(3) 4,4-dimethylpent-2-yne (3) 4,4-dimethylpent-2-yne
(4) All (4)
11. Which is structure of Ethanoic propanoic anhydride? 11. Ethanoic propanoic anhydride ?

O O O O
(1) O (2) (1) O (2)
O O

O O
O O O O
O O
(3) O (4) (3) O (4)
O O

12. IUPAC name of 4-isopropyl-m-xylene is : 12. 4-isopropyl-m-xylene IUPAC

(1) 4-Isopropyl-1,3-xylene (1) 4-Isopropyl-1,3-xylene
(2) 1-isopropyl-2,4-dimethyl benzene (2) 1-isopropyl-2,4-dimethyl benzene
(3) 4-Isopropyl-3,5-dimethylbenzene (3) 4-Isopropyl-3,5-dimethylbenzene
(4) 4-Isopropyl-1,3-diemthylbenzene (4) 4-Isopropyl-1,3-diemthylbenzene
13. The IUPAC name of 13. IUPAC

CH 2 CH3 CH 2 CH3
|| | is : || |
C2 H5  C  CH 2  CH  NH 2 C2 H5  C  CH 2  CH  NH 2
(1) 4-Ethylpent-4-en-2-amine (1) 4-Ethylpent-4-en-2-amine
(2) Amino-4-pentene (2) Amino-4-pentene
(3) 2-Ethylpentan-4-amine (3) 2-Ethylpentan-4-amine
(4) 4-Amino-2-ethylpent-1-ene (4) 4-Amino-2-ethylpent-1-ene
14. Which is incorrect IUPAC name ? 14. IUPAC
(1) 4-phenyl-3-hydroxybutanal (1) 4-phenyl-3-hydroxybutanal
(2) 2,3-dibromo-1-phenylpentane (2) 2,3-dibromo-1-phenylpentane
(3) 4-Iodo-2-methylphenol (3) 4-Iodo-2-methylphenol
(4) 2-Hydroxycyclopent-4-enone (4) 2-Hydroxycyclopent-4-enone
15. Which statement is incorrect for 15.

CH 2  CH  CH 2 CH 2  CH  CH 2
| | | | | |
CN CN CN CN CN CN
(1) IUPAC name is propane-1,2,3-tricarbonitrile (1) IUPAC propane-1,2,3-tricarbonitrile
(2) Carbon is sp3 and sp hybridised (2) sp3 sp
(3) Five 2° hydrogen atoms are present (3) 2°
(4) All nitrogen atoms are sp hybridised (4) sp

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16. Which is incorrect combination of structure and 16. IPUAC
IPUAC name ?
(1) CH=CH–COOH
(1) CH=CH–COOH
3-phenylprop-2-enoic acid
3-phenylprop-2-enoic acid
(2) CH 2  CH  CH  CH3
(2) CH 2  CH  CH  CH 3 |
| OH
OH
1-methylprop-2-en-1-ol
1-methylprop-2-en-1-ol
(3) CH2=CH–CN
(3) CH2=CH–CN
prop-2-ene-1-nitrile prop-2-ene-1-nitrile

CH 2  CH  CH 2 CH 2  CH  CH 2
(4) | | | (4) | | |
OH OH OH OH OH OH

Propane-1,2,3-triol Propane-1,2,3-triol
17. Which is incorrect statement ? 17.
(1) IUPAC name of urea is 1-Aminomethanamide (1) IUPAC 1-Aminomethanamide
(2) IUPAC name of maleic acid is propane-1,3-dioic (2) Maleic acid IUPAC propane-1,3-dioic acid
acid
(3) IUPAC name of mesitylene is 1,3,5- (3) Mesitylene IUPAC 1,3,5-trimetylbenzene
trimetylbenzene
(4) IUPAC name of DMF is N,N- (4) DMF IUPAC N,N-dimethylmethanamide
dimethylmethanamide
18. Which is incorrect combination of structure and 18. IUPAC
IUPAC name ? OH
OH COOH
(1)
COOH
(1)
3(5-hydroxycyclopen-2-enyl)-propanoic acid
3(5-hydroxycyclopen-2-enyl)-propanoic acid
(2) CH 3  O  CH 2  CH  CH3
(2) CH 3  O  CH 2  CH  CH3 |
| C2 H5
C2 H5
1-methoxy-2-methylbutane
1-methoxy-2-methylbutane
(3) CH2=CH–CH2–NH–CH3
(3) CH2=CH–CH2–NH–CH3
Allyl methylamine Allyl methylamine

(4) Cl  C  OC 2 H 5 (4) Cl  C  OC 2 H 5
|| ||
O O

Ethyl-1-chloromethanoate Ethyl-1-chloromethanoate

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19. Which compound have incorrect common name? 19.
(1) CH3–CH=CH–COOH Crotonic acid (1) CH3–CH=CH–COOH Crotonic acid
(2) CH2=CH–CN Acrylonitrile (2) CH2=CH–CN Acrylonitrile

HO  CH 2  CH  CH 2  CH3 HO  CH 2  CH  CH 2  CH3
(3) | (3) |
CH 3 CH 3
Isopentylalcohol Isopentylalcohol

CH 2  CH  C  CH 2  CH  CH 2 CH 2  CH  C  CH 2  CH  CH 2
(4) || (4) ||
O O
Allyl vinyl ketone Allyl vinyl ketone
20. Which is incorrect combination of structure and 20. IUPAC
IUPAC name ?
(1) CH2=CH–C  CH But-1-en-3-yne (1) CH2=CH–C  CH But-1-en-3-yne

(2) CH 3  C  CH  C  CH (2) CH 3  C  CH  C  CH
| |
Cl Cl
2-chloropent-2-en-4-yne 2-chloropent-2-en-4-yne

CHO CHO
| |
(3) CH 3  CH  CH  CH 2  CH 2  CH 3 (3) CH 3  CH  CH  CH 2  CH 2  CH 3
| |
CHO CHO

2-methy-3-propylbutan-1,4-dial 2-methy-3-propylbutan-1,4-dial

CH3  C  CH 2  COOC2 H5 CH3  C  CH 2  COOC2 H5

(4) || (4) ||
O O
Ethyl-3-oxobutanoate Ethyl-3-oxobutanoate
21. Which is incorrect statement ? 21.
(1) Ethoxyethane and 1-methoxypropane are (1) Ethoxyethane 1-methoxypropane
metamers
(2) Diethyl ether and Butanone are isomeric
(2) Diethyl ether Butanone
compounds
(3) n-Butane and isobutane are chain isomers (3) n-Butane isobutane
(4) Number of dibromoderivatives possible for (4) Dibromoderivatives
propane are 4
22. How many monochlorodervatives are possible for 22. monochlorodervatives
neohexane ?
(1) 4 (2) 3 (3) 2 (4) 1 (1) 4 (2) 3 (3) 2 (4) 1

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23. Which is correct statements ? 23.
(1) The functional group isomer of ethane nitrile is (1) Ethane nitrile methyl carbylamine
methyl carbylamine
(2) Isohexane and neohexane are chain isomers (2) Isohexane neohexane
(3) Isopropyl amine and trimethylamine are functional (3) Isopropyl amine trimethylamine
group isomers
(4) All (4)
24. Which can show Tautomerism ? 24.

O O
OH OH
OH OH
(1) (2) (1) (2)
O O

O OH O OH
O O O O
(3) (4) (3) (4)

25. In which of the following cases functional isomerism 25.

is not possible ?
(1) C2H6O (2) CH2O (3) C3H6O (4) C4H8O2 (1) C2H6O (2) CH2O (3) C3H6O (4) C4H8O2
26. Which of the following will not show tautomerism? 26.
(1) HCN (2) Dimethyl Ethere (1) HCN (2) Dimethyl Ethere
O O
(3) CH3CH2NO2 (4) (3) CH3CH2NO2 (4)

27. Which statement is incorrect ? 27.

(1) CH 3 –CH 2 –CH 2 –OCH 3 and CH 3 –CH 2 –O– (1) CH3–CH2–CH2–OCH3 CH3–CH2–O–CH2–
CH2–CH3 are metamers CH3
(2) C6H14 can form five chain isomers (2) C6H14
(3) CH3COOH and HCOOCH3 are functional group (3) CH 3 COOH HCOOCH 3
isomers
(4) Isobutyl alcohol is primary alcohol (4) Isobutyl alcohol alcohol
28. How many amines are formed from C4H11N ? 28. C4H11N amines ?
(1) 5 (2) 6 (3) 7 (4) 8 (1) 5 (2) 6 (3) 7 (4) 8
29. Which is incorrect statement regarding C4H10O 29. C4H10O
(1) Total possible structural isomers are 7 (1) 7
(2) Four isomers produce H2 when treated with Na. (2) H2
(3)
(3) One isomer gives unsaturation test
(4) Tolle's
(4) No isomer give +ve test Tolle's reagent.

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30. Possible Benzenoid compound from C8H10 are 30. C8H10
(1) 4 (2) 5 (3) 2 (4) 1 (1) 4 (2) 5 (3) 2 (4) 1
31. Which is incorrect order ? 31.
(1) Fully eclipsed > Partially eclipsed > Gauche > Anti (1) > > > Anti from (
from (order of energy)
(2) Trans-2-butene > cis-2-butene (stability) )
(3) Trans-2-butene > cis-2-butene (order of melting (2) Trans-2-butene > cis-2-butene ( )
point)
(3) Trans-2-butene > cis-2-butene ( )
(4) Trans-2-butene > cis-2-butene (order of boiling
point) (4) Trans-2-butene > cis-2-butene ( )
32. Which compound can exhibit geometrical isomerism? 32.

(1) (2) (1) (2)

(3) (4) F2C = CHF (3) (4) F2C = CHF

Cl Cl
33. Which compound have incorrect configuration ? 33.
NC Cl NC Cl
C=C C=C
(1) H 2N I (1) H 2N I
Z Z

D 3C CH 2–Br D 3C CH 2–Br
C=C C=C
(2) H 3C Cl (2) H 3C Cl
Z Z

CH3 Cl CH3 Cl
C=C C=C
(3) Cl CH 3 (3) Cl CH 3
E E

CH3 CH 3 CH3 CH 3
C=C C=C
(4) H H (4) H H
Z Z
34. Which is inocrrect statement ? 34.
(1) Chiral molecules are optically active compounds (1)
(2) Meso tartric acid is optically inactive. (2) Meso tartric
(3) For optical isomerism compound must have chiral (3)
carbon
(4) cis & trans 2-butene are diastereomers (4) cis trans 2-butene
35. Which compound does not shows Geometrical 35.
isomerism ? (1) 1-Pentene (2) 2-Pentene
(1) 1-Pentene (2) 2-Pentene
(3) 2-Hexene (4) 3-Heptene
(3) 2-Hexene (4) 3-Heptene

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36. Which compound have D-configuration ? 36. D- ?
CHO CHO

HO H HO H
(1) (1)
CH 2OH CH 2OH

H H

CH2 OH CHO CH2 OH CHO

(2) (2)
OH OH

CH2OH CH2OH

HO H HO H
(3) (3)
CHO CHO

HO HO

CH 2OH CH 2OH
(4) OHC (4) OHC
H H

37. Which have R-configuration ? 37. R- ?

H OH H OH

OH OH
(1) HOH2C (2) HOH2C H
(1) HOH2C (2) HOH2C H

CHO CHO CHO CHO

H3 C H H3 C H
(3) (4) Both (1) and (3) (3) (4) (1) (3)
Cl NH2 Cl NH2
38. Which compound is optically active ? 38. ?
(1) Isobutyl alcohol (2) Sec. butyl amine (1) Isobutyl alcohol (2) Sec. butyl amine
(3) Ethyl methyl amine (4) tert. pentyl alcohol (3) Ethyl methyl amine (4) tert. pentyl alcohol
39. Which is meso form ? 39. meso ?
H H H H
CH3 HO CH3 COOH CH3 HO CH3 COOH
(1) H HO (2) H COOH (1) H HO (2) H COOH
CH3 H CH3 H

COOH CH 3 COOH CH 3
H OH H OH H OH H OH
(3) H OH (4) H OH (3) H OH (4) H OH
COOH COOH COOH COOH

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40. How many minimum carbon atom required in 40. Carboxylic acid
carboxylic acid to exhibit optical isomerism ?
(1) 2 (1) 2
(2) 3 (2) 3
(3) 4 (3) 4
(4) 5 (4) 5
41. In which compound two chiral carbon atom present? 41.

Cl Cl

(1) (1)
Cl Cl

(2) HO OH (2) HO OH

CH3  CH  CH  CH 3 CH3  CH  CH  CH 3
| | | |
CH 2 OH CH 2 OH
(3) | (3) |
Cl Cl

CH3 CH3
OH OH
(4) (4)

42. Which is incorrect statement ? 42.

(1) Cinnamic acid can exhibit geometrical isomerism (1) Cinnamic acid
(2) Crotonic acid can exhibit geometrical isomerism (2) Crotonic acid
(3) Pyruvic acid can exhibit optical isomerism (3) Pyruvic acid
(4) Ethylene glycol can exhibit conformational isomerism (4) Ethylene glycol
43. How many stereo isomers are formed by 43.

CH3  CH  CH  CH  CH3 CH3  CH  CH  CH  CH3

| |
NH 2 NH 2
(1) 4 (1) 4
(2) 2 (2) 2
(3) 3 (3) 3
(4) 8 (4) 8

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44. Which is incorrect statement ? 44.
(1) Racemic mixture is optically inactive due to (1) Racemic
external compensation
(2) Isobutene can exhibit geometrical isomerism
O (2) Isobutene

(3) have more enol content as compared to O O

(3) enol
O

(4) D-glucose D-fructose

(4) D-glucose and D-fructose are functional group
isomers
45. How many minimum carbon atom are required to 45.
exhibit both geometrical and optical isomerism in
alkene ? (1) 4 (2) 5
(1) 4 (2) 5 (3) 6 (4) 7 (3) 6 (4) 7
46. Which of the following statement is incorrect ? 46.
(1) Unicellular organisms are capable of independent (1)
existence
(2)
(2) Any structure less than a complete structure of a
cell does not ensure independent living
(3) Matthias Schleiden, a German zoologist, proposed (3) ( )
that body of animals are composed of cells and
products of cells
(4)
(4) Schleiden and Schwann together formulated the
cell theory
47. Which of the following is incorrect for Rudolf Virchow? 47.
(1) He gave the statement 'Omnis cellula e cellula' (1) ' '
(2) He modified the hypothesis of Schleiden and (2)
Schwann to give cell theory a final shape
(3)
(3) According to him, all cells arise from pre-existing
cells (4)
(4) He proposed the cell theory but this theory did
not explain how new cells are formed
48. Which of the following is correctly matched w.r.t. size ? 48.
(1) Mycoplasma — 0.3 um in length (1) — 0.3 um
(2) Bacteria — 3-5 um in length (2) — 3-5 um
(3) RBC — 7 um in diameter (3) RBC — 7 um
(4) All are correct (4)

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49. Choose the wrong match w.r.t. shapes of bacteria : 49.
(1) Coccus — Spherical (1) —
(2) Vibrio — Comma (2) —
(3) Spirillum — Rod-like (3) —
(4) Bacillus — Rod-like (4) —
50. The bacterial cell envelope consisting of a tightly bound 50.
three layered structure from outside to inside is :
(1) Cell wall  Glycocalyx  Plasma membrane (1)  
(2) Plasma membrane  Glycocalyx  Cell wall (2)  
(3) Glycocalyx  Cell wall  Plasma membrane (3)  
(4) Glycocalyx  Plasma membrane  Cell wall (4)  
51. Polyribosomes or polysomes represent: 51.
(1) Microbodies like glyoxysomes (1)
(2) Ribosomes and snRNA
(2) snRNA
(3) Aggregation of rRNA
(4) Several ribosomes attached to a single mRNA (3) rRNA
forming a chain (4) mRNA
52. Which one is not incorrect for plasma membrane? 52.
(1) It is selectively permeable to some molecules (1)
present on either side of it
(2) It allows neutral solutes to pass through only by (2)
carrier proteins
(3) Na+ / K+ pump performs secondary active transport (3) Na+ / K+
(4) All of these (4)
53. Cell wall : 53.
(1) is a living structure (1)
(2) Provides a free passage for undesirable (2)
macromolecules (3)
(3) Of algal cell is made of cellulose, galactans
mannans and calcium carbonate (4)
(4) Has middle lamella, mainly made of magnesium pectate
54. Which of the following is true for ER ? 54.
(1) It is involved in synthesis of lipid (1)
(2) It is not included in endomembrane system (2)
(3) It is found in some prokaryotes (3)
(4) It is a double membrane bound structure (4)
55. Select the odd one out w.r.t. endo-membrane system 55.
(1) Vacuole (1)
(2) Golgi and ER (2)
(3) Mitochondria and chloroplast (3)
(4) Lysosome (4)

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56. In plant cells, the vacuoles can occupy upto ____ % 56. ____ %
of the volume of the cell.
(1) 30 (2) 20 (3) 10 (4) 90 (1) 30 (2) 20 (3) 10 (4) 90
57. The 'Power house' of cell : 57.
(1) Is bound by a single membrane (1)
(2) Posses cristae which are extension of its outer (2)
membrane
(3) Are sites of formation of 'energy currency' of (3)
the cell (4)
(4) Is found in eukaryotic and prokaryotic cells
58. Which of the following possess DNA ? 58. DNA
(1) Mitochondria (1) /
(2) Chloroplast (2)
(3) Golgi apparatus (3)
(4) More than one option is correct (4)
59. Which of the following is non-membranous cell 59. /
organdies/structures? (1)
(1) Ribosome, centriole
(2)
(2) Nucleolus, centrosome
(3) Chromosome, microtubules (3)
(4) All of the above (4)
60. The cell organelle responsible for autolysis is : 60.
(1) Glyoxysomes (1)
(2) 'Sucidal bags' (2)
(3) Autophagosomes (3)
(4) More than one option is correct (4)
61. The ribosomes of eukaryotic cytoplasm, mitochondria 61.
and plastids are respectively :-
(1) 80S, 70S and 70S (1) 80S, 70S 70S
(2) 70S, 70S and 80S (2) 70S, 70S 80S
(3) 50S, 30S and 70S (3) 50S, 30S 70S
(4) 70S, 80S and 70S (4) 70S, 80S 70S
62. The cells which are secretory in function have 62.
abundant :
(1) Mitochondria (2) Dictyosome (1) (2)
(3) Plastid (4) Vacuoles (3) ( ) (4)
63. Extra-nuclear inheritance is due to the presence of 63.
genes in : (1)
(1) Mitochondria (2)
(2) Chloroplast
(3) (1) (2)
(3) Both (1) and (2)
(4) Nucleus and ER (4)

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64. Which of the following is correct for the diagrma given 64.
below?

(1)
(1) It represents prokaryotic flagella (2) '9 + 0'
(2) It possess '9 + 0' microtubular organisation (3) (1) (2)
(3) Both (1) and (2) (4)
(4) It represents hair-like outgrowths of cell
membrane in eukaryotic ciliates and flagellates
65. The arrangement of microtubules of a flagellum (F) 65. (F) (B)
and a centriole (B) in eukaryotes is :
(1) F = 9 +2, B = 9 + 2 (1) F = 9 +2, B = 9 + 2
(2) F = 8 + 2, B = 5 + 4 (2) F = 8 + 2, B = 5 + 4
(3) F = 9 + 0, B = 9 + 2 (3) F = 9 + 0, B = 9 + 2
(4) F = 9 + 2, B = 9 + 0 (4) F = 9 + 2, B = 9 + 0
66. Ribosome is made of : 66.
(1) rRNA + protein (1) rRNA +
(2) rRNA + mRNA + protein (2) rRNA + mRNA +
(3) mRNA + protein (3) mRNA +
(4) rRNA + tRNA + protein (4) rRNA + tRNA +
67. Which one is correct for lysosomes ? 67.
(1) It is non-membranous (1)
(2) It lacks proteases (2)
(3) It works at a lower pH than the cytoplasm (3) pH
(4) It is abundantly present in plant cells (4)
68. Select the wrong match : 68.
(1) Aleuroplast — Protein storage (1) —
(2) Elaioplast — Fat/oil storage (2) — /
(3) Amyloplast — Starch storage (3) —
(4) Etioplast — Chlorophyll storage (4) —

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69. ATP synthesis occur in : 69. ATP
(1) Mitochondria (1)
(2) Chloroplast (2)
(3) Both (1) and (2) (3) (1) (2)
(4) Leucoplasts (4)
70. Which of the following has direct connections to outer 70.
membrane of nuclear envelope ?
(1) RER (1)
(2) Golgi (2)
(3) Mitochondria (3)
(4) Plastid (4)
71. Choose the correct one for the chromosome given below: 71.

(1) It is with one chromatid and one molecule of

(1) DNA
dsDNA
(2) It is with two chromatids and two molecules of (2) DNA
dsDNA (3)
(3) It is with two chromatids and two arms
(4) It is one arm and two chromatids (4)
72. The photosynthetic pigments in a chloroplast is 72.
restricted to : (1) ( )
(1) Stroma (2)
(2) Outer membrane
(3)
(3) Thylakoid
(4) Inner membrane (4)
73. The number of chloroplast in Chlamydomonas is 73. ________
________ and in a mesophyll cell ranges between ________
________ .
(1) 1, 2 – 4 (2) 2, 20 – 40 (1) 1, 2 – 4 (2) 2, 20 – 40
(3) 20 – 40, 1 (4) 1, 20 – 40 (3) 20 – 40, 1 (4) 1, 20 – 40
74. The interphase nucleus has highly extende 74.
nucleoprotein fibres called :
(1) Chromosomes (1)
(2) Chromatin (2)
(3) Chromatid (3)
(4) Pericentriolar satellite (4)
75. Nucleus is absent in : 75.
(1) Mature RBC (1) RBC
(2) Mature sieve tube (2)
(3) Both (1) and (2) (3) (1) (2)
(4) All mature cells (4)

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76. Which of the following is incorrect ? 76.
(1) All the elements present in a sample of earth's (1)
crust are also present in a sample of living tissue
(2) The relative abundance of carbon and hydrogen (2)
with respect to other elements is higher in any
living organism than in earth's crust
(3) The % weight of nitrogen in earth's crust is very (3)
high in comparison to human body
(4) The % weight of silicon in earth's crust is very (4)
high in comparison to human body
77. For the chemical analysis of a tissue, it is generally 77.
grind in which acid ?
(1) Trichloroacetic acid (1)
(2) Triodobenzoic acid (2)
(3) Sulphuric acid (3)
(4) Acetic acid (4)
78. Identify the amino acids marked as A, B and C : 78. A, B C :

(1) A = Alanine, B = Serine, C = Glycine (1) A = ,B= ,C=

(2) A = Glycine, B = Serine, C = Arginine (2) A = ,B= ,C=
(3) A = Glutamic acid, B = Serine, C = Alanine (3) A = ,B= ,C=
(4) A = Glycine, B = Serine, C = Alanine (4) A = ,B= ,C=
79. Given below are the example of few amino acids : 79.
Glutamic acid, lysine, valine, tyrosine, phenylalanine,
tryptophan.
How many of the above are aromatic amino acids ?
(1) 4
(1) 4
(2) 2
(2) 2
(3) 5 (3) 5
(4) 3 (4) 3
80. The protein structure that gives a 3-D view is : 80. 3-D
(1) -helix (1) -
(2) Primary structure (2)
(3) Tertiary structure (3)
(4)  -pleated sheath (4)  -pleated sheath

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81. Observe the structural formula of organic compound 81.
given below and answer accordingly :

(1)
(1) It represents trihydroxypropane (2) ( )
(2) It represents cholesterol- a component of cell
membrane (3)
(3) It represents a phospholipid called gingely oil
(4) It represents a phospholipid called lecithin, a (4)
component of cell membrane
82. Choose a saturated fatty acid : 82.
(1) Palmitic acid (2) Linoleic acid (1) (2)
(3) Oleic acid (4) Arachidonic acid (3) (4)
83. Which of the two groups of the structure of an amino 83.
acid given below are involved in peptide bond formation?

(1) (i) and (iii) (2) (ii) and (iv) (1) (i) (iii) (2) (ii) (iv)
(3) (iii) and (iv) (4) (i) and (iv) (3) (iii) (iv) (4) (i) (iv)
84. How many of compounds given below represent 84. (X)
nucleosides (X) and nucleotides (Y). (Y)
Adenylic acid, cytidine, AMP, dCTP, Guanosine, , AMP, dCTP, ,
dAMP dAMP
(1) X = 4, Y = 2 (1) X = 4, Y = 2
(2) X = 3, Y = 3 (2) X = 3, Y = 3
(3) X = 2, Y =4 (3) X = 2, Y =4
(4) X = 1, Y = 5 (4) X = 1, Y = 5
85. Choose the odd one out w.r.t. polymer : 85.
(1) Proteins (2) Lipids (1) (2)
(3) Polysaccharides (4) Nucleic acids (3) (4)

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86. Which of the following is a protein ? 86.
(1) Antibody (1)
(2) GLUT-4 (2) GLUT-4
(3) Sensory receptors and collagen (3)
(4) All of the above (4)
87. How many carbon atoms are usually present in 87.
monosaccharides ?
(1) 1 – 5 (2) 3 – 7 (1) 1 – 5 (2) 3 – 7
(3) 7 – 10 (4) 7 – 15 (3) 7 – 10 (4) 7 – 15
88. A segment of dsDNA has 120 adenine and 120 88. DNA 120 120
cytosine bases. The total number of nucleotides
present in the segment is : (1) 120 (2) 480
(1) 120 (2) 480 (3) 60 (4) 240 (3) 60 (4) 240
89. Choose the odd one out w.r.t homopolymers : 89.
(1) Cellulose (2) Glycogen (1) (2)
(3) Protein (4) Chitin (3) (4)
90. Galactose is known as: 90.
(1) Fruit sugar (1)
(2) Brain sugar (2)
(3) Leaf sugar (3)
(4) Bone sugar (4)
91. Identify X and Y in the newly synthesised polypeptide 91. X Y
chain given below :

(1) X = —NH2, Y = —COOK (1) X = —NH2, Y = —COOK

(2) X = —NH2, Y = —COOH (2) X = —NH2, Y = —COOH
(3) X = —COOH, Y = —NH2 (3) X = —COOH, Y = —NH2
(4) X = —COOR, Y = —NH2 (4) X = —COOR, Y = —NH2
92. Which of the following is a zwitter ion ? 92.

(1) W (2) W and X (1) W (2) W X

(3) W and Y (4) X (3) W Y (4) X

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93. Identify the sugars A and B : 93. A B :

(1) A = Glucose, B = Deoxyribose (1) A = ,B=

(2) A = Glucose, B = Ribose (2) A = ,B=
(3) A = Pentose, B = Hexose (3) A = ,B=
(4) A = Non-reducing sugar, B = Ribose (4) A = ,B=
94. What does X and Y represents the structures 94. X Y
provided?

(1) X = Adenylic acid, Y = Guanine (1) X = ,Y=

(2) X = Uridine, Y = Uridylic aicd (2) X = ,Y=
(3) X = Thymidylic acid, Y = Adenine (3) X = ,Y=
(4) X = Adenylic acid, Y = Adenine (4) X = ,Y=
95. Find out the primary, secondary, tertiary and 95.
quaternary protein structures in the diagram :

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96. In onion root cell there is 16 chromosome. Than find 96. 16
out how many chromosome and DNA moleculewill DNA
be in following stages. DNA
Chromosome DNA (A) G1 – 16 16
(A) G1 phase – 16 16 (B) – 16 32
(B) Prophase – 16 32 (C) – 32 64
(C) Anaphase – 32 64 (D) – 32 32
(D) Metaphase – 32 32
Which option is not proper ? (1) B, C (2) C, D
(1) B, C (2) C, D (3) Only D (4) Only B (3) D (4) B
97. Which one is related with quiscent stage of cell cycle? 97.
(A) Parmanenet loss the capibility of division (A)
(B) Metabolicly inactive so they exited the G1 phase. (B) G1
(C) These stage cell are suspended to cell cycle & (C)
may enter again to cell cycle on need of organism.
(D) Heart cell in adult animal always remain in quies (D)
cent stage.
(1) B & C (2) A & B (3) Only C (4) C and D (1) B C (2) A B (3) C (4) C D
98. Which statement is not related with prophase ? 98.
(1) Duplication of chromosome take place (1)
(2) Chromosome material untangled. (2)
(3) Centriol begain to move toward oposite pole. (3)
(4) Duplicated chromosome appear (4)
99. Which one will not visulised at end of prophase : 99.
(1) Golgi complex and Endoplasmic repicolum (1)
(2) Mitochondria (2)
(3) Both (1) and (2) (3) (1) (2)
(4) Endoplasmic reficalum only (4)
100. Metaphase is best stage for study of chromosome, 100.
which one is not character of metaphase ?
(A) Spindle fiber attach to chromosome (A)
(B) Condensation of chromosome complete in this (B)
phase (C)
(C) Sister chromtid held with kinetochrose (D) I II
(D) In metaphse I number of bivalent is equal with
number of chromosome in metaphase II (1) C D (2) C
(1) C & D (2) Only C (3) A, C & D (4) All (3) A, C D (4)
101. Centromere of each chromosome is toward the pole 101.
and arms of chromosome trailing behind it. This :
statement is related with :
(1) (2)
(1) Prophase (2) Metaphase
(3) Anaphase (4) Telophast (3) (4)

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102. Which one is not characterstic of anaphase ? 102.
(1) Joining of spindle fiber to chromosome (1)
(2) Spliting of chromosome. (2)
(3) Movement of chromatid toward pole (3)
(4) Movement of chromatid away from equatorial line (4)
103. In which stage the chromosome loss their individuality 103.
(1) Prophase (2) Interphase (1) (2)
(3) Metaphase (4) Telophase (3) (4)
104. Syncytium condition known as : 104.
(1) Karyokinesis not followed by cytokinesis (1)
(2) Cytokinesis not followed by karyokinesis
(3) Chromosome duplication is not followed by (2)
karyokinesis (3)
(4) Chromosome spliting not followed by karyokinesis (4)
105. Which one ensecure the haploid phase in life cycle 105.
of sexualy reproducing organism ?
(1) Mitosis (2) Meiosis (1) (2)
(3) Crossing over (4) gamet formation (3) (4)
106. If a gamete have 7 chromosome in diploid sexual 106. 7
reproducing organism, than which one is wrong.
(A) Anaphase I – 14 chromosome, 28 DNA (A) I – 14 28 DNA
(B) Metaphase I – 7 bivalent, 28 DNA (B) I–7 , 28 DNA
(C) Anaphase II – 14 duplicated chromosome, 14 (C) II – 14 , 14 DNA
DNA molecule (D) II – 14 , 28 DNA
(D) Metaphase II – 14 duplicated chromosome, 28 (1) B C
DNA molecule (2) A D
(1) B & C (2) A & D (3) C D
(3) C & D (4) B & D (4) B D
107. The site where crossing over take place is ? 107.
(1) Chiasmeta (1)
(2) Synaptimal complex (2)
(3) Recombination nodule (3)
(4) Pachytene (4)
108. In oocyte of some vertibrates, ....... can last for 108. .......
monthes, or years -
(1) Leptoene (2) Zygotene (1) (2)
(3) Pachytne (4) Diplotene (3) (4)
109. What should be correct among following if diploid 109.
cell go for meiosis
(1) Anaphase I – 2n, 4c (2) Anaphase II – n, 2c (1) I – 2n, 4c (2) II – n, 2c
(3) Prophase I – 4n, 4c (4) Metophase II – 2n, 2c (3) I – 4n, 4c (4) II – 2n, 2c

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110. In which respect meiotic anaphase II is differ from 110. II
mitotic anaphase : (1)
(1) identical sister chromotid are Absent
(2) spliting of centromese is absent (2)
(3) each chromosome is unduplicable (3)
(4) chromosomal spindle fiber depolyrisation don't take
place (4)
111. What should be the number of chromosome and DNA 111. I 32
molecule in dyad cell. If bivalent number is accounted DNA
32 in metaphase I (1) 32 , 64 DNA
(1) 32 chromosome, 64 DNA
(2) 64 , 64 DNA
(2) 64 chromosome, 64 DNA
(3) 64 chromosome, 128 DNA (3) 64 , 128 DNA
(4) 16 chromosome, 32 DNA (4) 16 , 32 DNA
112. Chromosome duplication take place in : 112.
(1) Anaphase II (2) Anaphase (1) II (2)
(3) (1) & (2) both (4) Synthesis phase (s) (3) (1) (2) (4)
113. Who first time seen & discribed about live cell : 113.
(1) Leeuwen Hoek (2) Robert Hook (1) (2)
(3) Robert Brown (4) Schileidy and Schwann (3) (4)
114. Main arena of cellular activity accure in : 114.
(1) Cell membrane (1)
(2) Cytoplasm (2)
(3) Nucleoplasm (3)
(4) Membranes boodn cell organells (4)
115. Which character are related with inclusion body ? 115.
(a) Storage of waste material. (a)
(b) Storage of reserve material. (b)
(c) Not bound by membrane (c)
(d) Glycogen granules is a example of this (d)
(1) a, b, and d (2) b, c and d (1) a, b d (2) b, c d
(3) a, c and d (4) a, b, c and d (3) a, c d (4) a, b, c d
116. Animal cell differ with plant cell in having : 116.
(1) Centriol (1)
(2) Plasmid (2)
(3) (1) and (2) both (3) (1) (2)
(4) Large central vacoule (4)
117. The ability to move within membrane is measured as 117.
its fluidily. Rate of fluidily is checked art by :
(1) degree of unsaturated faty acid in membrane (1)
(2) degree of saturated faty acid in membrane (2)
(3) lateral movement of protein (3)
(4) Lateral movement of phospholipid (4)

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118. Which statement is incorrect regarding with 118.
tranportation through membrane ? (1)
(1) Polar meolcule is transproted down the gradient
through transmembrane selective protein
(2) ATP is utiliged by transporting molecule when, it (2)
is trans ported across the membrane against the
ATP
concentration gradient
(3) Carrier protein are selective for molecule (3)
transportation. (4)
(4) Diffusion of water molecle across the membrane
is known osmosis.
119. If a cell actively involved in secretion of molecule 119.
than which one is correct :
(1) Smooth endoplasmic reticulum will be more in cell (1)
(2) Lipid harmone will be more synthesiyed
(3) More protein will be accumulted with in cell membrane (2)
(4) RER will be more and secretory protein will be (3)
synthesisyed (4) RER

120. 120.

Which statement is correct :

(A) Glycosylation occure A to B. (A) A B
(B) Glycosylation take place after packing (B)
(C) A is cis part & B is trans part. (C) A cis B
(D) Mature vesicle form at A part. (D) A
(1) A and B (1) A B
(2) A, C and C (2) A, C C
(3) B and D (3) B D
(4) Only D (4) D
121. Enzyme of lysosome are synthesiyed on 121.
(1) RER (2) SER (1) RER (2) SER
(3) Glogi body (4) Plasma membrane (3) (4)

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122. Which cell organlles is involved mainly in 122.
ormosegulation ? (1) (2)
(1) Mitochondria (2) Chloroplast
(3) ER (4) Vacoule (3) ER (4)
123. Plastid are classified into 3 type this classification is 123. 3
based on :
(1) performed function (1)
(2) presence of pigment (2)
(3) presence of thylakoid (3)
(4) All (4)
124. Which one that make differ mitochondria from 124.
chloroplast ? (1) ETS
(1) Presence of ETS
(2) DNA
(2) Presence of single circuar DNA
(3) Presence of protein synthesiying enzyme (3)
(4) Absence of thired membrane system (4)
125. Which one is correct pairing ? 125.
(I) (II) (I) (II)
(A) Centriol 9+2 (A) 9+2
(B) Basal body 9+0 (B) 9+0
(C) Triplet microtubule Centriol (C)
(D) Singlet microtubule Axonema (D)
(1) A & C (2) B, C & D (1) A C (2) B, C D
(3) B & D (4) A & D (3) B D (4) A D
126. Which type of chromosome don't exist? 126.
(1) Telocentric (2) Acrocentric (1) (2)
(3) Sub metacentric (4) Acentric (3) (4)
127. Which will not appear in interphasic nucleus ? 127.
(1) Nucleoprotein fiber (1)
(2) Chromosome (2)
(3) Nucleoli (3)
(4) (2) and (3) both (4) (2) (3)
128. Which one is incorrect ? 128.
(1) Inner membrane of chloroplast are less permeably (1)
than outer
(2) Axonema have total 20 microtubule (2) 20
(3) Cytoskelton involve filament of protenious structure (3)
(4) Chloroplast and mitochondria both have (4)
carbohydrate and protein synthesis enzyme
129. Which one is not part of endomembrane system ? 129.
(1) Golgi body (2) Lysosome (1) (2)
(3) Peroxysome (4) Endoplasmic reticulum (3) (4)

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130. Which one is fundamently common structure form in 130.
both prokaryotic and eukaryotic cell ?
(1) DNA (1) DNA
(2) Cell membrane (2)
(3) Photosynthesis mechinary (3)
(4) (1) & (2) both (4) (1) (2)
131. How many statement are correct ? 131.
(A) Haploid and diploid both type cell can do meiosis. (A)
(B) Number of chromosome in Anaphase II is similar
with number of chromosome in Anaphase I (B) II I
(C) Final Allelic gene sepration occure during
Anaphase II if crossing over in between two locai (C) II
take place.
(D) Final Allelic segrigation occure in Anaphase I, if (D)
there is no crossing over in between two locai. I
(1) One (2) Two (1) (2)
(3) Three (4) Four (3) (4)
132. How many statement are correct about axonema ? 132.
(A) Made up of microtubule which arranged radialy (A)
to long Axis.
(B) double microhibule have nine pair.
(B) 9
(C) Axonemal microtubule is referred to 9 + 2
(C) 9+2
arrangement.
(D) Axonema lmerge from basal body. (D)
(1) One (2) Two (1) (2)
(3) Three (4) Four (3) (4)
133. Cart wheel like structure is : 133.
(1) Cilia and flagilla (1)
(2) Axonema (2)
(3) Centriol (3)
(4) Centrosome (4)
134. Satellite part associated structure is : 134.
(1) centriol (1)
(2) Chromosome (2)
(3) Loysosome (3)
(4) Peroxysome (4)
135. Which cell organells is present both in prokayotic and 135.
eukargotic cell ?
(1) Cell membrane (1)
(2) Ribosome (2)
(3) Nuclus (3)
(4) Mesosome (4)

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 ANSWER KEY
Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
A. 3 2 2 3 2 3 3 1 3 4 3 2 1 4 3 2 2 3 3 2 2 2 4 4 2 2 2 4 3 1
Q. 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
A. 4 2 2 3 1 3 4 2 3 4 3 3 1 2 4 3 4 4 3 3 4 1 3 1 3 4 3 4 4 4
Q. 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90
A. 1 2 3 4 4 1 3 4 3 1 1 3 4 2 3 3 1 1 4 3 4 1 2 3 2 4 2 2 3 2
Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120
A. 2 4 2 4 3 2 4 1 1 2 3 1 4 2 2 3 3 4 1 1 1 4 1 2 2 1 3 2 4 4
Q. 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130 131 132 133 134 135
A. 1 4 2 4 2 4 2 4 3 2 3 2 3 2 2

HINT – SHEET
46. NCERT XI, Pg # 125 to 126 66. NCERT XI, Pg # 137
47. NCERT XI, Pg # 126 67. NCERT XI, Pg # 136
48. NCERT XI, Pg # 126 68. NCERT XI, Pg # 134
49. NCERT XI, Pg # 127 69. NCERT XI, Pg # 135
50. NCERT XI, Pg # 128 70. NCERT XI, Pg # 135
51. NCERT XI, Pg # 129 71. NCERT XI, Pg # 133
52. NCERT XI, Pg # 131 to 132 72. NCERT XI, Pg #
53. NCERT XI, Pg # 132 73. NCERT XI, Pg # 136
54. NCERT XI, Pg # 133 74. NCERT XI, Pg # 136
55. NCERT XI, Pg # 132 75. NCERT XI, Pg # 138
56. NCERT XI, Pg # 134 76. NCERT XI, Pg #
57. NCERT XI, Pg # 134 77. NCERT XI, Pg # 143
58. NCERT XI, Pg # 134 to 135 78. NCERT XI, Pg # 142
59. NCERT XI, Pg # 132 79. NCERT XI, Pg # 145
60. NCERT XI, Pg # 80. NCERT XI, Pg # 144
61. NCERT XI, Pg # 134 81. NCERT XI, Pg # 150
62. NCERT XI, Pg # 136 82. NCERT XI, Pg # 145
63. NCERT XI, Pg # 133 83. NCERT XI, Pg # 144
64. NCERT XI, Pg # 134 to 135 84. NCERT XI, Pg #
65. NCERT XI, Pg # 137 85. NCERT XI, Pg #

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86. NCERT XI, Pg # 111. NCERT XI, Topic # 10.4.1 to 10.4.2
87. NCERT XI, Pg # 112. NCERT XI, Pg # 163
88. NCERT XI, Pg # 147 113. NCERT XI, Topic # 8.1
89. NCERT XI, Pg # 148 114. NCERT XI, Topic # 8.3
90. NCERT XI, Pg # 1 115. NCERT XI, Topic # 8.4.2
91. NCERT XI, Pg # 144 116. NCERT XI, Topic # 8.3
92. NCERT XI, Pg # 145 117. NCERT XI, Topic # 8.5.1
93. NCERT XI, Pg # 145 118. NCERT XI, Topic # 8.5.1
94. NCERT XI, Pg # 145 119. NCERT XI, Topic # 8.5.3
95. NCERT XI, Pg # 150 120. NCERT XI, Topic # 8.6
96. NCERT XI, Topic # 10.2 121. NCERT XI, Topic # 8.5.3
97. NCERT XI, Pg # 163 122. NCERT XI, Topic # 8.5.3.4
98. NCERT XI, Topic # 10.2.1 123. NCERT XI, Topic # 8.5.5
99. NCERT XI, Topic # 10.2.1 124. NCERT XI, Topic # 8.5.4 to 8.5.5
100. NCERT XI, Topic # 10.2.2 125. NCERT XI, Topic # 8.5.7
101. NCERT XI, Topic # 10.2.3 126. NCERT XI, Topic # 8.5.10
102. NCERT XI, Topic # 10.2.3 127. NCERT XI, Topic # 8.5.5
103. NCERT XI, Topic # 10.2.5 128. NCERT XI, Topic # 8.5.3
104. NCERT XI, Topic # 10.2.5 129. NCERT XI, Topic # 8.5.1
105. NCERT XI, Topic # 10.4 130. NCERT XI, Topic # 10.4.1 to 10.4.2
106. NCERT XI, Topic # 10.4.1 131. NCERT XI, Topic # 8.5.8
107. NCERT XI, Topic # 10.4.1 132. NCERT XI, Topic # 8.5.8
108. NCERT XI, Topic # 10.4.1 133. NCERT XI, Topic # 8.5.8
109. NCERT XI, Topic # 10.1.1 134. NCERT XI, Topic # 8.5.10
110. NCERT XI, Topic # 10.3 135. NCERT XI, Topic # 8.5.3

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