Question (1/18)

Which of the following is not mediated through negative feedback mechanism

Options
BP regulation
Growth hormone release
Thrombus formation
ACTH release

Positive feedback is seen in all except

Options
LH surge
Entry of calcium into sarcoplasmic reticulum
Gastric secretion
Thrombus formation

On changing position from lying down to standing position there is a drop in I 0 mm of Hg.
Immediately he recovered by 8 mm Hg leaving behind 2 mm Hg. The gain for baroreceptor
system for the control of BP is

Options
2
4
8
10

Total body water is

Options
40% of body weight
20% of body weight
10% of body weight
60% of bodyweight

Volume of ICF in body

Options
0.2 x body weight
0.4 x body weight
 0.6 x body wei.gb.t
0.8 x body wei.gb.t

ECF is how much part of total body water

Options
One-third
Half
Two-third
None

ICF is

Options
14 L
20% of body weight
28 L
33% of body weight

Volume of interstitial fluid in a normal adult

Options
5L
10L
15L
20L

IO g mannitol was injected out of which 10% is excreted. After equilibrium, plasma cone. of
mannitol is 50 mg/ml. Calculate ECF volume

Options
10L
18L
42L
52L

False about total body water (TBW)

Options
ICF is 2/3'd ofTBW
 In new born TBW is 60% body weight
Premature newborns have more TBW
In adults, TBW is 60% of body weight

Interstitial fluid volume can be determined by

Options
Radioactive iodine and radiolabeled water
Radioactive water and radiolabeled albumin
Radioactive sodium and radiolabeled water
Radioactive sodium and radiolabeled albumin

Plasma volume is measured by

Options
Inulin
Evans blue
Mannitol
D2O

Most accurate measurement of extracellular fluid volume (ECF) can be done by using

Options
Sucrose
Mannitol
Inulin
Aminopyrine

Isotope used to measure RBC volume is

Options
CrSI
H3
D2O
I135

All are seen more in ECF except

Options
Na+
 Ci
Mg++
HC0 3

Major cation in ECF

Options
Na
K
Ca
Mg

Most osmotically active

Options
K+
Na+
Ca2+
Mg2

True regarding Na+ion

Options
Responsible for Donnan effect
Responsible for resting membrane potential
Responsible for depolarization
Dose not help other ions in transport
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Question (30/30)

Transport of neutral substances across the cell membrane occurs via

Options
Porins
Ionophore
Lipopolysaccharides
Diffusion
Explanation

• Diffusion means movement of molecules from area of high concentration to area

ofloconcentration
• If Diffusion happens without energy and without the help of any carrier proteins, it's called
simple diffusion
• If Diffusion happens without energy but with the help of carrier protein, it's called
facilitated diffusion

Which of the following increases particle diffusion across the cell membrane

Options
Increasing size of particle
Decreasing lipid solubility of substance
Increasing lipid solubility of substance
Decreasing size of opening in cell membrane
Explanation

• Smaller size, lipid soluble, non-polar substances diffuse the membrane easily

Which of the following statements about diffusion is true

Options
It is a form of active transport
It is a passive process
It requires expenditure of energy by cell
Requires creatine phosphate
Explanation

• If Diffusion happens without energy but with the help of carrier protein, it's called
facilitated diffusion
• One good example of a substance that use facilitated diffusion carrier protein is GLUCOSE
transport using Glucose Transporters (GLUT)

All of the following are true except

Options
Facilitated diffusion requires energy
Active transport is an energy dependent process
Co - transport is mediated via the use of carriers
Glucose is transported via passive diffusion
Explanation

• Facilitated diffusion is a passive process which doesn't require energy

• Active transport processes are energy dependent processes

Energy is required in which transport process across cell membrane

Options
Osmosis
Facilitated diffusion
Active transport
Simple diffusion
Explanation

• Active transport processes utilize energy by hydrolysis of ATP (Universal energy currency
of the cell)

Active transport across the cell membrane is mediated by

Options
G - Protein
Na+ - K+ ATPase
Carrier protein
Channel protein
Explanation

• Active transport can be primary active transport and secondary active transport
• Both of these processes requires carrier protein

True regarding transport across a cell membrane is

Options
CI
Na+ with glucose antiport
Na+with glucose symport
K+ with glucose symport
Explanation
• Sodium Glucose Cotransporter(SGLT) is an example for a secondary active transport
process
• Locations - SGLT I-intestine, SGLT 2-Proximal convoluted tubule of kidney
• Inhibitors of SGLT-2 are synthetic analogs of phlorizin namely canagliflozin, dapagliflozin,
and empagliflozin
• These drugs are used in treatment of diabetes mellitus

All of the following transport process follow 'Saturation kinetics' except

Options
Facilitated diffusion
Na+ - Ca2+ exchanger
Simple diffusion
Na+ coupled active transport
Explanation

• Transport processes which use carrier proteins namely facilitated diffusion and active
transport reaches a plateau called as saturation kinetics because the availability of carrier
protein is limited. Such process can't continue indefinitely
• In contrast, simple diffusion process continues indefinitely

Glucose is co-transported with Na+ions. This is a type of

Options
Secondary active transport
Primary active transport
Facilitated diffusion
Simple diffusion
Explanation

• Sodium Glucose Cotransporter(SGLT) is an example for a secondary active transport

process

Fick's law of diffusion explains

Options
Active diffusion along concentration gradient
Passive diffusion along concentration gradient
Both of these
None of the above
Explanation

• The lawhich explains diffusion is called Fick's Law

Fick'sLaw
Rate of diffusion =Membrane surface area x cone.gradient/Thickness o f memb rane
• The best example for simple diffusion process is diffusion of gases at respiratory membrane
in lung alveoli.
• If there is any problem in this diffusion process at lung alveoli, it can be investigated using a
technique called Diffusion Lung capacity using Carbon monoxide (DLCO)

Passive transfer of solvent occurs in

Options
Diffusion
Active transport
Osmosis
Pinocytosis
Explanation

• In simple terms, osmosis means DIFFUSION OF WATER. Water from area of its high
concentration (losolute content) to area of its loconcentration (High solute content)

True about body fluid osmolarity

Options
Major contribution is proteins
Major contribution is Na+
ECT osmolarity is 250 mOsm/L
Measured by dilution method
Explanation

• Osmolarity is the number of osmoles per liter of solution (eg, plasma)

• Major contributor of plasma osmolarity is sodium ion

Ineffective osmole is

Options
Na+
K+
Urea
ALL
Explanation

• To exert an osmotic pressure across a membrane, a solute must not permeate that membrane
• Red blood cell membrane is impermeable to sucrose, it exerts an osmotic pressure equal and
opposite to the osmotic pressure generated by the contents of the red blood cell. So, sucrose is
considered to be an effective osmole
• Urea - easily cross the red blood cell membrane. It cannot exert an osmotic pressure to
balance that generated by the intracellular solutes of the red blood cell. It is an ineffective
osmole

Effect of infusion of hypotonic saline

Options
Increased ICF only
Increased ECF only
Increased in both ICF and ECF
Increased ICF and decreased ECF
Explanation

• If a hypotonic solution is added to the extracellular fluid, ECF osmolarity decreases

• Water moves fror,1 ECF into ICF until the intracellular and extracellular compartments
have the same osmolarity
• So, ultimately both the intracellular and the extracellular volumes are increased

Normal range of serum osmolality is (mOsm/L)

Options
280- 300
250- 270
300- 320
210- 230
Explanation

• Plasma osmolarity is usually calculated by the formula, Osmolarity (mOsm/L) = 2[Na+]

(mEq/L) + 0.055 [Glucose]
(mg/dL) + 0.36[BUN] (mg/dL)

BUN-stands for Blood Urea Nitrogen

In health, plasma osmolality ranges from 280 mOsm/kg of H20 to 295 mOsm/kg of H20

Na+ K+ pump which enzyme is used

Options
ATPase
GTpase
Acetyl CoA
NADPH
Explanation
• In primary active transport, the energy is derived directly from breakdown of ATP
• One of these ATPases is sodium-potassium adenosine triphosphatase (Na, K ATPase),
which is also known as the Na, Kpump

For sodium - Potassium pump the coupling ratio is

Options
1:1
2:03
3:2
1:04
Explanation

• Na K pump uses the energy to move 3 sodium ions from inside to outside of the cell and
moves 2 potassium ions from outside to inside
• The coupling ratio is 3 : 2

Na+ - K+ ATPase

Options
3 Na out/ 2K in
3Na in I 2K out
2 Na out I 3K out
2 Na in I 3K out

True regarding Na+ - K+ pump

Options
Heterodimer - homogenous
Heterodimer - heterogeneous
Homodimer - heterogeneous
Homodimer - homogenous
Explanation

• It has 2 subunits and both the subunits are different. That is why it is called as a heterodimer
and heterogeneous

The sodium - potassium pump is an example of

Options
Active transport
Passive transport
Facilitated diffusion
 Osmosis
Explanation

• Na, K pump is an example of primary active transport

The process by which fusion of part of a cell membrane occurs is/are

Options
Cell division
Endocytosis
Exocytosis
Virus replication
Explanation

• Endocytosis is the process of taking contents inside the cell. It involves fusion of two cell
membranes
• Exocytosis is release of contents from inside of the cell to outside. It involves fusion of
vesicles inside the cell to its cell membrane

Exocytosis

Options
Extrusion of cell bound vesicles
Intrusion ofliquid particles
Intrusion of solid particles
All of the above

Clathrin is used in

Options
Receptor mediated endocytosis
Exocytosis
Cell to cell adhesion
Plasma membrane
Explanation

• Clathrin is involved in receptor mediated endocytosis

• Clathrin is required for the endocytosis of LDL receptor cholesterol, transferrin bound iron,
Nerve growth factor (Neurotrophins), hormones(insulin), epidermal growth factor

Receptor mediated endocytosis is by

Options
 Clathrin
Porine
Cytocine
Vimentin

Which of the following is used in exocytosis?

Options
Ca
Mg
Na
K
Explanation

• Exocytosis is a calcium dependent process where in the cellular contents are moved out of
the cell in the form of vesicles (Cell Vomiting)

Secretory vesicles are transported:

Options
Along concentration gradient
Against concentration gradient
May be along or against concentration gradient
Have no relation with concentration gradient
Explanation

• Exocytosis of secretory vesicles have no relation with concentration gradient

• Concentration gradient is required for transport of ions mainly

The following in an example of "Regulated pathway":

Options
Epithelial cells of intestine
Neuroglia
Neuron
Axolemma
Explanation

• Trans means through

• In transcytosis, the substance enters the cell through its apical side and transported out of
the cell through its basolateral side
• Transcytosis is commonly seen in epithelial cells of intestine and kidney
Transcytosis occurs in:

Options
Constitutive excocytosis
Receptor mediated endocytosis
Constitutive endocytosis
Non constitutive excocytosis
Explanation

• Nonconstitutive pathway-proteins from the Golgi apparatus initially enter secretory

granules, where processing of prohormones to the mature hormones occurs before exocytosis.
Also called as regulated pathway
• Constitutive pathway-involves the prompt transport of proteins to the cell membrane in
vesicles, with little or no processing or storage

Sodium channel is

Options
Trimeric
Pentameric
Heterotrimeric
Pseudoterameic
Explanation

• Na K pump has 2 subunits and both the subunits are different. That's why it is called as a
heterodimer
• It can contain one alpha, one beta and one gamma subunit also - so, heterotrimeric

Osmolarity is defined as

Options
Number of osmole per liter
Number of osmole per kg
Weight of solute per liter
Weight of solvent per liter
Explanation

• Osmolarity is the number of osmoles per liter of solution (e.g., plasma)

• Osmolality is the number of osmoles per kilogram of solvent

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Question (2/19)

Pelvic fascia between rectum and sacrum is:

Options
Denonvillier
Colle
Waldeyer
Scarpa

Anal canal NOT supplied by:

Options
Superior rectal artery
Inferior rectal artery
Median sacral artery
Middle rectal artery

Plasma membrane in mainly composed of:

Options
Cholesterol
Carbohydrate
Phospholipid
Protein

Eukaryotic plasma membrane is made up of all except

Options
Carbohydrates
Triglycerides
Lecithin
Cholesterol

Which of the following major minerals is a component of biological membrane:

Options
Potassium
Sodium
Calcium
 Phosphorus

The transmembrane region of protein is likely to have

Options
A stretch of hydrophilic amino acids
A stretch of hydrophobic amino acids
A disulphide loop
Alternating hydrophilic and hydrophobic amino acids

Which important component of cell membrane has carbohydrate moiety?

Options
GM2 Gangliosides
Triacylglycerol
Sphingomyelin
Cholesterol

True about lipid bilayer of cell wall;

Options
Asymmetrical arrangement of cell membrane component
Lateral diffusion of ions
Symmetrical arrangement of cell membrane component
Not made up of amphipathic lipids

In cell membrane following are true:

Options
Lipids are regularly arranged
Lipids are symmetrical
Protein displaced laterally
None

Membrane fluidity is increased by

Options
Stearic acid
Palrnitic acid
Cholesterol
 Linoleic acid

Function of cholesterol in plasma membrane:

Options
Helps in transport of ions
Helps in exocytosis
Maintains fluidity
Helps in synthesis of bile acids

Transition temperature of lipid bilayers of cell membrane is increased by:

Options
Cholesterol
Saturated fatty acids
Hydrocarbons
Unsaturated fatty acids

Decreased protein : lipid ratio is seen in:

Options
Inner mitochondrial membr~e
Outer mitochondrial membrane
Sarcoplasmic reticulum
Myelin sheath membrane

Which of the following membrane has the highest protein content per gram tissue?

Options
lnner mitochondrial membrane
Outer mitochondrial membrane
Plasma membrane
Myelin sheath

On weight basis, the membrane contains protein and lipid in the ratio of:

Options
1:2
1:01
2:01
 4:1

Peripheral cell membrane proteins are:

Options
Pump
Channel
Adhesion molecules
Enzyme receptors

Most permeable to pure phospholipid bilayer:

Options
Oxygen
Na
Cl
Water

Most diffusible ion across membrane

Options
Na+
K+
C1-
None

A cell membrane is damaged by insertion of microneed.le, repair shall occur by which of the
following processes

Options
Lateral movement of proteins
Resealing by lipid bilayer
Enzymatic reaction
Hydrophobic interaction
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Question (1/25)

Energy production enzymes are located in

Options
Rough endoplasmic reticulum
Ribosomes
Golgi apparatus
Mitochondria

Ribosomes are attached to:

Options
Nucleus
RER
Smooth ER
Mitochondria

Protein synthesis occurs in:

Options
Smooth ER
Golgi bodies
Rough ER
Lysosomes

Agranular endoplasmic reticulum is involved in the synthesis of

Options
Protein
Lipid
Carbohydrate
Vitamin D

True regarding golgi apparatus is AJE

Options
Cis is receiving end
Trans is secretory end
Nonpolarized structure
 Situated near nucleus

Sequence of vesicle transport is:

Options
ER - Trans - Cis - Lysosomes
ER - Cis - Trans - Cell membrane
ER- Lysosomes - Trans - Cis
Cis - ER - Trans - Cell membrane

Intracellular sorting and packing is done in

Options
ER
Golgi apparatus
Ribosome
Nucleus

Catabolism of H202 is carried out by

Options
Peroxisomes
Mitochondria
Endoplasmic reticulum
Lysosomes

All are marker of mitochondria except:

Options
ATP synthase
5 - nucleotidase
Glutamate dehydrogenase
Creatine kinase

A marker of Golgi apparatus is:

Options
Galactosyltransferase
Acetyl CoA synthetase
Pyruvate kinase
 Malonyl CoA

Following enzymes are found in lysosome, except:

Options
Arylsulfatases
Ribonucleases
Glycosidases
Lipase

Residual bodies are:

Options
Mitochondria
Nucleus
Golgi apparatus
Lysosomes

Autophagic vacuoles fuse with:

Options
Golgi complex
ER
Lysosome
Mitochondria

Function ofGolgi apparatus:

Options
Protein synthesis
Transcription
Glycosylation
Cholesterol synthesis

Which of the following is not an intermediate filament?

Options
Keratin
Desmin
Tubulin
 Lamin

Which of the following is a mlcrofllament?

Options
Tubulin
Actin
Desmin
Vimentin

In dividing cells, spindle Is formed by:

Options
Ubiquitin
Tubulin
Laminin
Keratin

Cells shape and motility are provided by:

Options
Microfilaments
Microtubules
Golgi apparatus
Mitochondria

The motllity of cell is due to protein

Options
Motilin
Tubulin
Laminin
Tactilin

Skeletal frame work of a cell is maintained by:

Options
Nucleus
Microtubules
Ribosomes
 Mitochondria

Force generating proteins are:

Options
Myosin and myoglobin
Dynein and kinesi
Calmodulin and G protein
Troponin

Function of ubiquitin:

Options
Binding
Transport
Degradation
Assembly

Sirtuins are associated with:

Options
Memory
Metabolism
Vision
Olfaction

Which hormone increases with age:

Options
GH
Prolactin
Parathormone
Insulin

Hormone decreasing with age:

Options
Parathormone
FSH
Growth hormone
 Norepinephrine
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Question (1/21)

Resting membrane potential is mainly due to:

Options
Na+
K+
CI
Mg+

Resting membrane potential is close to the isoelectrical potential of:

Options
Na+
CI
K+
Mg+

Resting membrane potential of nerve is equal to equilibrium potential of:

Options
Na+
CI-
K+
Mg+

Resting membrane potential of neuron is:

Options
-70mV
+70mV
-90mV
+90mV

Resting membrane potential in nerve fiber

Options
ls equal to the potential of ventricular muscle fiber
Can be measured by surface electrodes
 Increases as extracellular K+ Increases
Depends upon K+ equilibrium

Most diffusible ion in excitable tissue Is:

Options
Na+
K+
PO4
CI

Excitable tissue at rest is least permeable to:

Options
Na+
K+
Ca
Ci-

Which of the following technique is used to study current flow across a single ion channel

Options
Patch clamp
Voltage clamp
Lontophoresis
Galvanometry

Which of the following equation is correct regarding equilibrium potential for diffusion?

Options
EMF = 25 log Ca/Cb
EMF = 41 log Ca/Cb
EMF = 61 log Ca/Cb
EMF = 80 log Ca/Cb

Extracellular concentration of ion is 100 mmol/L and its intracellular concentration is 10

mmol/L. The action potential across the membrane using Nemst equation is: a

Options
- 60 mV
 - 10 mV
60mV
LOmV

Equilibrium potential for an ion is calculated using:

Options
Gibbs - Donnan equation
Nernst equation
Goldman equation
None of the above

Electric potential of resting membrane for a given electrolyte is given by which equation

Options
Nernst equation
Goldman
Donnan equation
None

Nernst potential for K+ is:

Options
+90 mV
-90 mV
+70 mV
70 mV

Maximum equilibrium potential is for:

Options
Na+
K
CI
None

Equilibrium potential of CI

Options
+60 mV
 +90 mV
-90 mV
-70 mV

Tight junction are seen in all except:

Options
Cardiac muscle
Renal tubules
Intestine
Choroid plexus

The cell junction allowing exchange of cytoplasmic molecules between the two cells are
called

Options
Gap junction
Tight junction
Focal junction
Desmosomes

True about gap junction are all, except:

Options
Transmit electric signals
Allow ions to pass
Intercellular space 1000 nm
Seen in cardiac muscle

Gap junction

Options
Are absent in cardiac muscle
Are absent in smooth muscle
Are present in cardiac muscles to transmit impulse from one to another myocyte
Are present in cardiac muscles but no role

Transport across nucleus is by all except?

Options
 Caveolins
Local signals
lmportins
Rat proteins

X, Y, Z are the three ions permeable. X = -50 and Y = -30. H at RMP, when there is no net
electro genie transfer, what is the value of Z?

Options
20
-20
80
-80
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pQuestion (1/12)

Repolarization is due to opening of which channels

Options
Na+
HCO-
K+
Cl

Hyperpolarization is caused by which ions

Options
K+
Na+
Ea
HCO

Nerve depolarization is due to

Options
Opening of sodium channels
Opening of chloride channels
Opening of potassium channels
Opening of calcium channels

Action potential is

Options
Decremental Phenomenon
Doesn't obey all of none Phenomenon
K+ goes from ECF to ICF
Threshold stimulus is required

Which is TRUE regarding nerve conduction

Options
All of none Phenomenon
 Conduction independent of amplitude
Propagated action potential is generated in dendrites
Faster in urunyelinated fibers

True about Generator potential

Options
Not graded
Magnitude increased in direct proportion to strength of stimulus
All or none Phenomenon
Propagated

True about generator potential

Options
Graded
All or None
Propagated
No summation

After application of one stimulus, the time period in which the second stronger stimuli can from
an impulse is called

Options
Absolute refractory period
Relative refraction period
Latent refractory period
Local response

A travelling never impulse dose not depolarize the area immediately behind it, because

Options
It is hyperpolarized
It is refractory
It is not self-propagating
The condition is always orthodrornic
Increase In threshold level on applying subthreshold, slowly rising stimulus iJ known as

Options
Adaptation
Accommodation
Refractoriness
Electrotonus

The increase In threshold of a receptor when a series of stimuli of subthreshold intensity are
applied in succession is called

Options
Adaptation
Accommodation
Initiation
Resistance

Biphasic action potential of mixed nerve aupt

Options
All or none Phenomenon
Two or more positive peaks
Refractory period
Recorded on surface
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pQuestion (1/12)

Repolarization is due to opening of which channels

Options
Na+
HCO-
K+
Cl

Hyperpolarization is caused by which ions

Options
K+
Na+
Ea
HCO

Nerve depolarization is due to

Options
Opening of sodium channels
Opening of chloride channels
Opening of potassium channels
Opening of calcium channels

Action potential is

Options
Decremental Phenomenon
Doesn't obey all of none Phenomenon
K+ goes from ECF to ICF
Threshold stimulus is required

Which is TRUE regarding nerve conduction

Options
All of none Phenomenon
 Conduction independent of amplitude
Propagated action potential is generated in dendrites
Faster in urunyelinated fibers

True about Generator potential

Options
Not graded
Magnitude increased in direct proportion to strength of stimulus
All or none Phenomenon
Propagated

True about generator potential

Options
Graded
All or None
Propagated
No summation

After application of one stimulus, the time period in which the second stronger stimuli can from
an impulse is called

Options
Absolute refractory period
Relative refraction period
Latent refractory period
Local response

A travelling never impulse dose not depolarize the area immediately behind it, because

Options
It is hyperpolarized
It is refractory
It is not self-propagating
The condition is always orthodrornic
Increase In threshold level on applying subthreshold, slowly rising stimulus iJ known as

Options
Adaptation
Accommodation
Refractoriness
Electrotonus

The increase In threshold of a receptor when a series of stimuli of subthreshold intensity are
applied in succession is called

Options
Adaptation
Accommodation
Initiation
Resistance

Biphasic action potential of mixed nerve aupt

Options
All or none Phenomenon
Two or more positive peaks
Refractory period
Recorded on surface
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pQuestion (1/12)

Repolarization is due to opening of which channels

Options
Na+
HCO-
K+
Cl

Hyperpolarization is caused by which ions

Options
K+
Na+
Ea
HCO

Nerve depolarization is due to

Options
Opening of sodium channels
Opening of chloride channels
Opening of potassium channels
Opening of calcium channels

Action potential is

Options
Decremental Phenomenon
Doesn't obey all of none Phenomenon
K+ goes from ECF to ICF
Threshold stimulus is required

Which is TRUE regarding nerve conduction

Options
All of none Phenomenon
 Conduction independent of amplitude
Propagated action potential is generated in dendrites
Faster in urunyelinated fibers

True about Generator potential

Options
Not graded
Magnitude increased in direct proportion to strength of stimulus
All or none Phenomenon
Propagated

True about generator potential

Options
Graded
All or None
Propagated
No summation

After application of one stimulus, the time period in which the second stronger stimuli can from
an impulse is called

Options
Absolute refractory period
Relative refraction period
Latent refractory period
Local response

A travelling never impulse dose not depolarize the area immediately behind it, because

Options
It is hyperpolarized
It is refractory
It is not self-propagating
The condition is always orthodrornic
Increase In threshold level on applying subthreshold, slowly rising stimulus iJ known as

Options
Adaptation
Accommodation
Refractoriness
Electrotonus

The increase In threshold of a receptor when a series of stimuli of subthreshold intensity are
applied in succession is called

Options
Adaptation
Accommodation
Initiation
Resistance

Biphasic action potential of mixed nerve aupt

Options
All or none Phenomenon
Two or more positive peaks
Refractory period
Recorded on surface
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Question (1/34)

Protein connecting Z - lines to M - lines

Options
Kinin
Desmin
Titin
Actin

Myosin and actin filaments are taken in place by

Options
Tropomyosin
Troponin
Actinin
Titin

Sarcomere extends between

Options
A band and I band
Two Z line
Two I band
None

In muscle contraction all are true except

Options
A bond remains unchanged
H zone disappears
I band becomes wider
Two Z line come closer

The site where myosin heads bind to actin in skeletal muscles are covered by

Options
Tropomyosin
Troponin
Calcium
 None of the above

Actin's active site is covered by

Options
Myosin
Tropomyosin
Troponin
Desmin

Thin filament consists of all except

Options
Actin
Troponin
Myosin
Tropomyosin

Troponin C mediated function is of which of the following?

Options
Dystrophin
Calmodulin
Actin
Calcineurin

Calcium ions in skeletal muscles are

Options
Transverse tubule
Longitudinal part
Terminal cistern
Sarcolemma

Calcium is pumped back into sarcoplasmic reticulum by

Options
SERCA
Sodium pump
Ryanodine receptor
 None

Skeletal muscle contraction ends when

Options
Ions move out of cytoplasm
Ach is absorbed from the NMJ
Closer and indrawing of receptor
Decreased calcium outside reticulum

Which of the following triggers muscle contraction

Options
Ca binding tropomyosin
Ca binding troponin C
ATP breakdown
Ca binding troponin I

All of the following are true about excitation contraction coupling except

Options
Acetylcholine in released at nerve terminal
Calcium is pumped back into the sarcoplasmic reticulum during relaxation
Calcium is released from sarcoplasmic reticulum during contraction
Calcium binds to tropomyosin to initiate muscle contraction

Myosin filament has a fixed length of

Options
0.16 nm
1.6 micron
16 nm
1.6 mm

ATPase activity is present in

Options
Actin
Myosin
Troponin
 None

Most Common type of calcium channels of skeletal muscles are

Options
T type
L type
R type
N type

Duration of maximum contraction depends upon

Options
Absolute refractive period
Relative refractive period
Both
None of the two

Twitch of a single motor unit is called

Options
Myoclonic - jerk
Fasciculation
Tremor
Chorea

Fine, irregular contraction of individual fibers called

Options
Fasciculation
Fibrillation
Tics
Spasm

The force of muscle contraction can be increased by all of the following except

Options
Increasing the frequency of activation of motor units
Increasing the numbers of motor units activated
Increasing the amplitude of action potentials in the motor neurons
 Recruiting larger motor units

Active tension in a muscle depends upon

Options
Number of muscle fibers
Number of motor units recruited
Aerobic capacity of muscle
Length of muscle fiber

Tetanic contraction is due to accumulation of

Options
Na
Ca2+
K+
CI

Post - tetanic potentiation is due to

Options
Hyperpolarization of muscle fibers
Rapid K+ efflux
Increased availability of ca++
Rapid Na+ influx

When the tension in a muscle fiber is maximum, its length is called as

Options
Equilibrium length
Optimum length
Initial length
None

White fibers are present in

Options
Calf muscle
Extraocular muscle
Back muscle
 Hip muscle

Less mitochondria are seen in

Options
Red fibers
Type I fibers
White muscle fibers
Slow fibers

All are true about red muscle fibers except

Options
More mitochondria
Glycolytic metabolism
More myoglobin
More oxidative capacity

Type I muscle fibers are

Options
Red
Anaerobic
Large
Glycolytic

How many muscle fibers are there in one motor unit . in eye

Options
15
30
5
50

Fast fatigable motor unit recruited

Options
First
Last
During relaxation
 None

Which of the following is not a Sarcolemmal protein?

Options
Sarcoglycan
Dystrophin
Dystroglycan
Perlecan

Spontaneous release of acetylcholine at the neuromuscular junction produces

Options
Miniature end - plate potential
Action potential
Post - tetanic potential
Resting membrane potential

End plate potential following which law

Options
All or none law
Depolarization
Hyperpolarization
Propagation

Latent period of muscle twitch is 10 ms, contraction period is 40 ms and relaxation time is 50
ms. What is the tetanizing frequency for the muscle

Options
25 Hz
50 Hz
100 Hz
75 Hz
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Question (1/4)

Human cardiac muscle contains

Options
Alpha heavy chain of myosin
Beta heavy chain of myosin
Both Alpha and Beta heavy chain of myosin
None of the above

Heart muscle, true are all except

Options
Act as syncytium
Has multiple nuclei
Has gap junction
Has branching

True about cardiac muscle is

Options
Spindle shaped
Large central nucleus
No gap junction
Arranged in sheets

Function of phospholamban is

Options
Regulation Na k pump
Transport calcium out of the mitochondria
Binds actin with myosin
Regulates calcium entry into the sarcoplasmic reticulum
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Question (1/12)

Smooth muscle cell membrane is

Options
Sarcoplasm
Sarcolemma
Sarcomere
Sarcoplasmic reticulum

Most distinguishing feature between skeletal muscle and smooth muscle

Options
Troponin
Tropomyosin
Myosin
Actin

Which one of the following ads to increase the rdease of ea2+ from endoplasmic reticulum

Options
Inositol triphosphate
Parathyroid hormone
1,25 - dihydroxy choleciferol
Diacyglycerol

Increase in cytosolic calcium from intracellular sto.rage, during smooth muscle contraction is
I are due to

Options
cAMP
CGMP
Adenosine
IP3 -DAG

Calmodulin activates

Options
Muscle phosphorylase
 Protein kinase
2,3 DPG
Glucokinase

Calmoduin acts by

Options
Opening of Na+ channels
Phosphorylation of myosin by protein kinase
Activation of Na+ - K+ pump
Dephosphorylation by protein kinase

Function of CAM

Options
Ion exchange
Activation of protein kinase
Activation of Ryanodine receptors
Release of acetylcholine

True regarding excitation contraction coupling in smooth muscle is

Options
Presence of troponin is essential
Sustained contraction occurs with high calcium concentration
Phosphorylation of actin is required for contraction
Presence of cellular calcium is essential to cause muscle contraction

Smooth muscle physiology different from skeletal

Options
K + requires for contraction
Ca2+ requires for contraction
Troponin is absent
Myosin is required for contraction

The nerve impulse which leads to initiation of smooth muscle contraction

Options
Cause opening of the calcium channel which leads to increase in Ca+2 contraction
 Cause both plasma membrane and T - tubules to undergo depolarisation
Inhibits Na+ entry in sarcomere
Is initiated by binding of acetylcholine to receptors in sarcoplasmic reticulum

Which of the following is the constituent of the marked area in the electron microscopic
picture of muscle

Options
Alpha actin
Nebulin
Titin
Tropomodulin

Identify the tetanising frequency of the below demonstration of the gastrocnemius muscle of
the frog

Options
10-lSHz
15-20 Hz
25-20 Hz
30-35 Hz
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Question (1/22)

Rods and cones differ in all, except

Options
Signal transduction
Light sensitive
Wavelength
Acuity

Which are first order neuron in optic pathway

Options
Bipolar cells
Ganglionic Cells
Cells oflateral geniculate body
Rods and cones

Second order neuron

Options
ON (optic nerve
Rods and cones
LGB
Bipolar cells

Ganglion Cell - order of neuron

Options
1"
2nd
3rd
4th

Pureiy depolarizing cells in optic pathway

Options
Amacrine cells
 Rods and cones
Bipolar cells
Horizontal cells

Initiation of visual impulse is associated with

Options
Condensation of opsin with vitamin A aldehyde
Photoisomerization and hydrolysis of visual purple
NADP
NAD

The rod receptor potential differs from other sensory receptors in that it shows

Options
Depolarization
Decreased negative
Increased conductance of sodium
Hyperpolarization

During the dark phase of visual cycle, Which form of vitamin A combines with opsin to make
Rhodopsi

Options
All trans - Retinaldehyde
All trans - Retinol
11 - cis - Retinaldehyde
11 - cis - Retinol

Transducin is required for

Options
Smell
Hearing
Taste
Vision
Relative color and luminosity of photoreceptive input under changing light conditions are
regulated and maintained by

Options
Muller cells
Amacrine Cells
Ganglion cells
Retinal astrocytes

The fibers from the contralateral nasal hemiretina project . to the following layers of the lateral
geniculate nucleus

Options
Layers 2,3, and 5
Layers 1, 2 and 6
Layers 1, 4 and 6
Layers 4,5 and 6

Most afferent fibers from the lateral geniculate nucleus terminate in the primary visual cortex,
carries

Options
Layers 1
Layers 2 and 3
Layers 4
Layers 5 and 6

The parvocellular pathway, from the lateral geniculate nucleus to the visual cortex, carries
signals for the detection of

Options
Color contrast
Luminance contrast
Temporal frequency
Saccadic eye movements

The parvocellular pathway from lateral geniculate nucleus to visual cortex is most sensitive for
the stimulus of
Options
Color contrast
Luminance contrast
Temporal frequency
Saccadic eye movements

The blobs of the visual cortex are associated with

Options
Ocular dominance
Orientation
Color processing
Saccadic eye movements

Amacrine cells secrete

Options
Acetylcholine
Glutamate
Adrenaline
Noradrenaline

Photoreceptors on exposure to dark release

Options
Acetylcholine
Glutamate
Adrenaline
Epinephrine

The only neurons in retina showing action potentials are

Options
Roads and cones
Bipolar cells
Amacrine cells
 Ganglion cells

Visible range of electromagnetic spectrum of human eye

Options
370 - 740 nm
740 - 1140 nm
200 - 370 nm
200 - 370 nm

For color vision, which is true?

Options
Independent of wavelength oflight
Depends on intensity discrimination
Involves opponent color cells
Minimum at fixation point

Protonopes have defect in identifying red color

Options
Red
Blue
Green
Black

Any spectral color can be matched by a mixture of three monochromatic light (red, green, blue)
in different proportion. If a person needs more of one of the color for matching than a normal
person, then he has a color anomaly. More red color is needed in the case of

Options
Deuteranomaly
Tritanomaly
Protanomaly
Tritanomaly
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Question (1/11)

The following is the action of melatonin

Options
Facilitates ACTH secretion
Prevents sleep induction
Regulates the circadian day night rhythm
Release of TSH

A short duration high frequency stimulation with 5Hz of perforating pathway in hippocampus
leads to

Options
Long term potentiation
Post tetanic potentiation
Long term depression
Habituation

Which of the following play most important role in memory

Options
Synaptic network
Electric conduction network
Conductivity circuit
Conductivity network

The processing of short term memory to long term memory is done in

Options
Prefrontal cortex
Hippocampus
Neocortex
Amygdala

Unable to consolidate long term memory damage to

Options
 Frontal
Parietal
Temporal
Hippocampus

Event occurring in the past one week is an example of

Options
Recent memory
Remote memory
Working memory
Delayed memory

Associative learning

Options
Associated with consciousness
Includes skills and habits
Relation of one stimulus to another
Facilitation of recognition of words

Striatum damage affects

Options
Procedural memory
Short term memory
Long term memory
Explicit memory

Basal ganglia is involved in which types of memory

Options
Conditioning
Procedural memory
Explicit memory
None
Salivation by dog seen when food is given along with ringing of bell is

Options
Conditioned reflex
Reinforcement
Habituation
Innate reflex

Pavlov's experiment on dogs shows

Options
Conditional response
Unconditional response
Procedural memory
Familiarity
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Question (1/17)

Sleep center is located in

Options
Basal ganglia
Medulla
Hypothalamus
Cerebellum

Sleep waves in hippocampal area is

Options
Delta
Theta
Beta
Alpha

Beta waves in electroencephalogram designate which of the following states of the patient

Options
Deep anesthesia
Surgical anesthesia
Light anesthesia, eyes closed, relaxed
Awake/alert state

Delta waves are seen in

Options
Deep sleep
REM sleep
Awake state
Stage I NREM sleep

K - complex and sleep spindles are seen in which stage of sleep

Options
REM
 Stage 1 NREM
Stage 2 NREM
Stage 3 NREM

"Theta waves" are seen in

Options
Stage 1 sleep
Stage 2 sleep
Stage 3 sleep
Stage 4 sleep

EEG rhythm recorded from the surface of scalp during REM sleep-

Options
Alpha
Beta
Delta
Theta

Nightmare is seen in

Options
REM sleep
Stage II NREM sleep
Stage IV NREM sleep
Stage I NREM sleep

Which one of the following phenomena is closely associated with slow wave sleep

Options
Dreaming
Atonia
Sleep walking
Irregular heart rate

Slow wave sleep associated with

Options
Dreams
Cardiac arrhythmia
Penile intumescence
Delta activity

Key regulators of sleep are located in

Options
Hypothalamus
Thalamus
Putamen
Limbic cortex

In NREM sleep, which part of brain is not involved

Options
Dorsal raphe nucleus
Thalamus
Hypothalamus
Basal forebrain

Berger waves (alpha waves) of ECG have the rhythm per sec of

Options
0- 4
4- 7
Aug-13
13-30

Frequency of theta wave

Options
2-4Hz
4-8Hz
8- 13 Hz
 12- 16 Hz

All are true about reticular activating system except

Options
Involved in arousal
Polysynaptic pathway
Receives collateral from all sensory pathway
Produces alpha - block on ECG

Melatonin is secreted by

Options
Hypothalamus
Adrenal cortex
Pineal gland
Melanocytes

Melatonin is secreted from which cells of pineal gland

Options
Glial cells
Pinealocytes
Oncocytes
Zymogen cells
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Question (1/5)

Neuro - physiological defect present in right lobe involvement all, except

Options
Visuo - Spatial defect
Anosognosia
Dyscalculia
Dysgraphia

The representation hemisphere (cerebral) is better than the categorical hemisphere at?

Options
Language functions
Recognition of objects by their form
Understanding of printed words
Mathematical calculation

Left lobe of the brain is responsible for

Options
Appreciation
Spatial orientation
Visual stimuli processing
Using written and spoken language

Functions of categorical half of cerebral hemisphere of all except

Options
Mathematical ability
Language
Writing ability
Music ability

Auditory processing of spoken language is done by

Options
Parietal lobe
 Temporal lobe
Occipital lobe
Frontal lobe
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Question (1/22)

Pain and temperature in thalamus is controlled by nucleus

Options
VPM
VPL
Anterior
Posterior

Which thalamic nuclei can produce basal ganglia symptoms

Options
Lateral dorsal
Pulvinar
Ventral anterior
Intralaminar

Which thalamic nuclei connects with neocortex

Options
Pulvinar
Intralaminar
Anterior
All

The nucleus involved in papez circuit is

Options
Pulvinar
Intralaminar
VPL nucleus
Anterior nucleus of thalamus

Which of the following nucleus is not involved in papez circuit

Options
Hippocampus
 Cingulate gyrus
Caudate nucleus
Thalamic nuclei

Window of limbic system

Options
Hypothalamus
Amygdala
Hippocampus
Thalamus

Reward center is located in

Options
Cerebellum
Amygdala
Hippocampus
Hypothalamus

Reward center is

Options
Insula
Putamen
Medial forebrain bundle
Aqueduct of sylvius

Limbic system is concerned with

Options
Control of emotions, food habits
Sexual behavior
Autonomic function
All of the above

Emotional effect to a physical stimulus is given by

Options
Amygdala
Hippocampus
Hypothalamus
Temporal lobe

Kluver bucy syndrome is due to the lesion in which of the following structure

Options
Amygdala
Hippocampus
Hypothalamus
Temporal lobe

Osmoreceptor is located in

Options
Supraoptic nuclei
Paraventricular nuclei
Anterior hypothalamus
Lateral hypothalamus

Satiety center is located at

Options
Ventromedial nucleus of hypothalamus
Dorsomedial nucleus of hypothalamus
Peritrigonal area
Lateral nuclei

Which of the following nucleus controls the circadian rhythm?

Options
Supraoptic nucleus
Paraventricular nucleus
Suprachiasmatic nucleus
 Premammillary nucleus

Main organ for biological dock is

Options
Thalamus and pons
Thyroid and eyes
Cerebellum and medulla
Hypothalamus

Without external cue, the sleep - wake cycle in humans

Options
Unchanged
Continues with cycle length of> 24 hours
Continues with cycle length of< 24 hours
Continues with cycle length of> 12 hours

Diurnal variation of ACTH depends on

Options
Suprachiasmatic nucleus
Supraoptic nucleus
Ventrolateral nucleus
Thalamus

Shivering is controlled by

Options
Medulla
Hypothalamus
Thalamus
Basal ganglia

Nucleus of hypothalamus responding to heat

Options
 Anterior
Supraoptic
Preoptic
Paraventricular

Function of preoptic nucleus of hypothalamus

Options
Temperature regulation
Thirst
GI stimulation
Satiety center

Lesion of preoptic nucleus of hypothalamus causes

Options
Hyperphagia
Hyperdipsia
Hyperthermia
Hyperglycemia

Part of hypothalamus which is involved in sexual behaviour

Options
Preoptic area
Supraoptic area
Lateral Hypothalamus
Hyperglycemia
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Question (1/22)

Cells present in cerebellar cortex are all except

Options
Purkinje
Bipolar
Granule
Golgi

Not included in cerebellar nuclei

Options
Dentate nuclei
Emboliform nuclei
Fastigial nuclei
Caudate nuclei

Cerebellar connection to other parts of the brain is projected through which cell

Options
Golgi cells
Basket cells
Purkinje cells
Oligodendrocytes

Efferent from cerebellum is through

Options
Granule cells
Golgi cells
Purkinje cells
Basket cells

The only excitatory neurons in cerebellar cortex are

Options
Purkinje
 Basket
Golgi
Granule cells

Purkinje cells of cerebellum are connected to

Options
Basket Cell
Stellate Cell
Deep cerebellum nuclei
All of the above

Purkinje fibers are inhibitory for

Options
Deep cerebellum nuclei
Climbing fiber
Basket Cell
Spinocerebellar tract

Efferent from cerebellar cell is

Options
Inhibitory
Excitatory
Both
None

Climbing fibers of cerebellar cortex are

Options
Olivocerebellar fibers
Spinocerebellar fibers
Pontocerebellar fibers
Vestibulocerebellar fibers

True about cerebellar neuronal connection

Options
Climbing fibers from inferior olivary nucleus
Mossy fibers from inferior olivary nucleus
Climbing fibers are Inhibitory to Purkinje cells
Mossy fibers are Inhibitory to Purkinje cells

Flocculo nodularlobe has direct connection with

Options
Red nucleus
Inferior olivary nucleus
Vestibular nucleus
Dentate nucleus

Vestibulo ocular reflex is concerned with

Options
Archicerebellum
Flocculonodular lobe
Neocerebellum
Occipital lobe

The function of the neocerebellum is

Options
Maintenance of equilibrium
Servo-correction of voluntary movement
Planning and programming of voluntary movement
Maintenance of muscle tone

True about spinocerebellar tract is

Options
Equilibrium
Smoothens and coordinates movements
Learning induced by change in vestibulocular reflex
 Planning and Programming

Which one of the following clearly states the role of cerebellum in motor performance

Options
Planning and programming of movement
Convert abstract thought into voluntary action
Initiation of skilled voluntary action
Smoothens and coordinates ongoing movements

Which of the following does not carry proprioceptive impulses?

Options
Olivocerebellar tract
Tectocerebellar tract
Spinocerebellar tract
Cuneocerebellar tract

Dysmetria is seen in lesion of

Options
Basal ganglia
Cerebellum
Pons
Midbrain

Cerebellar damage cause all except

Options
Dysmetria
Hypertonia
Ataxia
Past - Pointing

Lesions of the lateral cerebellar cause all of the following, Except

Options
 Incoordination
. Intention tremor
Resting tremor
Ataxia

Inability to perform rapid alternating movement is

Options
Past pointing
Dysdiadochokinesia
Dysmetria
None

While walking or standing, posture is maintain by

Options
Basal ganglia
Hypothalamus
Cerebellum
Amygdala

All of the following are seen in cerebellar lesions except

Options
Nystagmus
Ataxia
Resting tremor
Past pointing
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Question (1/10)

Nucleus of basal ganglia

Options
Dentate
Thalamus
Caudate
Red nucleus

Globus pallidus, putamen are present in

Options
Pons
Basal ganglia
Thalamus
Cerebellum

Afferents to basal ganglia rests in

Options
Striatum
Globus pallidus
Striatum nigra
Subthalamic nuclei

The Efferent fibers bundle of the substantia nigra transmits dopamine to one of the following
areas

Options
Thalamus
Corpus striatum
Tegmentum of pons
Tectum of midbrain

Glutamate as a neurotransmitter is synthesized mainly in which part of basal ganglia

Options
 Globus pallidus interna
Globus pallidus externa
Subthalamic nucleus
Putamen

Which one is excitatory

Options
Putamen
Caudate nucleus
Striatum
Subthalamic nucleus

Neurotransmitter involved in nigrostriatial pathway is

Options
Serotonin
Dopamine
Cholinergic
Adrenergic

Function of basal ganglia

Options
Temperature regulation
Planning and programming of movements
Gross motor activity
Equilibrium

Lesion of golbus pallid us causes

Options
Chorea
Ballismus
Athetosis
Akinesia
Disease of Basal ganglia dysfunction are all except

Options
Alzheimer's disease
Parkinsonism
Chorea
Athetosis
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Question (1/19)

Brodman's area number for motor area

Options
4 and 6
1,2,3
5 and 7
16 and 18

Precentral gyrus and corticospinal tract are essential for

Options
Vision
Olfaction
Auditory
Voluntary movement

Skilled voluntary movement is initiated at

Options
Cerebral cortex (motor cortex
Basal ganglia
Cortical association
Cerebellum

Setting posture before planned movement

Options
Premotor cortex
Motor cortex
Frontal
Supplementary

UMN includes

Options
Pyramidal cells
 Peripheral nerves
Anterior horn cells
Glial cells

True about lateral corticospinal tract

Options
Crossed
Uncrossed
Stops in midthoracic region
Crossed at midspinal level

Pyramids are formed by

Options
Arcuate nucleus
Vestibular nuclei
Interstitial cells of cajal
Lateral corticospinal tract

Which is not a medial pathway involved in maintenance of posture?

Options
Reticulospinal tract
Rubrospinal tract
Tectospinal tract
Vestibulospinal tract

Gamma motor neurons are mainly influenced by

Options
Tectospinal tract
Vestibulospinal tract
Reticulospinal tract
Croticospinal tract

Which of the following relays via interneurons on anterior horn cell

Options
Muscle spindle
Corticospinal tract
Spinothalamic tract
Spinocerebellar tract

Spinal pathway maiuly regulating fine motor activity

Options
Anterior corticospinal tract
Corticospinal tract
Spinothalamic tract
Spinocerebellar tract

Which is not an extrapyramidal tract

Options
Reticulospinal tract
Rubrospinal tract
Corticospinal tract
Tectospinal tract

Corticospinal tract lesion leads to

Options
Spasticity
Extensor plantar response
Cogwheel rigidity
Resting tremors

Following are the features of corticospinal involvement except

Options
Cog-wheel rigidity
Spasticity
Planter extensor response
 Exaggerated deep tendon reflex

Cutting of pyramidal tract after decussation causes all expect

Options
Positive Babinski sign
Loss of superficial reflex
Loss of proprioception of opposite limb
Paralysis

Decerebrate rigidity is characterized by all except

Options
Rigidity occurs all muscle of the body
Increased in the rate of discharge of the" y" efferent neuron
Increased excitability o the motor neuron pool
Decerebration produces no phenomenon akin to spinal shock

Destruction of anterior cerebellum in a decerebrate animal leads to

Options
No effect on rigidity
Increased flexed muscle tone
Increased rigidity via alpha motor neurons
Decrease in rigidity

True about decorticate rigidity

Options
Removal of cerebral cortex and basal ganglia
Flexion of lower limbs and extension of upper limbs
Rigidity is less pronounced than decerebrate rigidity
None of the above

Pontine transection leads to

Options
 Decerebrate rigidity
Decorticate rigidity
Increased muscle tone
Decreased muscle tone
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Question (1/28)

Mitral and periglomerular cells are seen in

Options
Medulla
Olfactory bulb
Primary visual cortex
Geniculate body

Muscle tone is maintained by

Options
Golgi tendon organ
Renshaw cells
Muscle spindle
None of the above

True about muscle spindle

Options
Group Ia fiber contain sensory afferent
Nuclear bag and nuclear chain fibers present in intrafusal muscle fiber
Motor supply by Aa fiber
Motor supply by y fiber

The principle that is the spinal cord dorsal roost are sensory and the ventral roots are motor is
known as

Options
Laplace's law
Bell-Magendie Law
Frank-Starling Law
Weber-Fechner Law

Nuclear bag fibers are

Options
 Thinner
Flower spray endings
Plate endings
Trail endings

Motor supply to muscle spindle is through

Options
Ia
II
Y-neuron
None

In intersegmental reflex, the afferents come from

Options
Golgi tendon
Ia fibers
IIb fibers
Muscle spindles

Stretch impulse is carried by

Options
Ia
lb
B
C

Nuclear bag fibers

Options
Sense dynamic length of muscle
Sense static length of muscle
Alpha motor neuron stimulation
Sense muscle tension
Nuclear bag fibers are related to

Options
Tone
Force
Length
Length and velocity

Muscle spindle detects

Options
Tension
Length
Proprioception
Stretch

In Stretch reflex, the stimulus is

Options
Change in muscle length
Change in muscle tension
Pain in muscle
Cessation of blood supply

Stimulus for stretch reflex

Options
Passive stretch
Active stretch
Both
None

Extrafusal fiber innervated by

Options
Ia
lb
 Aa
A~

Which of the following is true regarding alpha and gamma motor neurons during initiation of
voluntary movements?

Options
Alpha motor neuron is activated first followed by gamma motor neuron
Gamma motor neuron is activated first followed by alpha motor neuron c
Both are activated together
Only alpha motor neuron is activated

You are testing knee jerk in a patient. The afferents in deep tendon are carried by

Options
Dynamic intrafusal fibers
Golgi tendon organ
Nuclear bag and static chain fibers
Both Golgi tendon and muscle spindle

Afferent to Golgi tendon organ arises from?

Options
Muscle spindle
Tendon
Periosteum
Joint

Receptor for inverse stretch reflex

Options
Muscle spindle
Extrafusal fibers
Intrafusal fibers .
Golgi tendon organ

Number of Golgi tendon organs per 100 muscle fibers

Options
1 - 20
200-400
50-60
80-100

Golgi tendon organ detect

Options
Static muscle length
Dynamic muscle length
Muscle tension
Muscle action

In a voluntary movement, Golgi tendon organ provides the central nervous system information
about

Options
Moment to moment length of muscle
Velocity of shortening of muscle
Tension developed in the muscle
Change in joint angle produced by the muscle

Higher center for righting reflex

Options
Pons
Spinal Cord
Cortex
Midbrain

Integrating center of tonic labyrinthine reflex is

Options
Spinal cord
Medulla
Midbrain
 Cerebral cortex

Righting reflex is a

Options
Cochlear reflex
Spinal reflex
Vestibular reflex
None of the above

In decorticate animal which reflex is lost?

Options
Hopping and placing reflex
Tonic neck reflex
Tonic labyrinthine reflex
Stretch reflex

Postural reflex with integrating center in spine

Options
Righting reflex
Tonic labyrinthine reflex
Righting reflex
Crossed extensor reflex

The first reflex response to appear as spinal shock wears off in humans is

Options
Tympanic reflex
Withdrawal reflex
Neck righting reflex
Labyrinthine reflex

The maintenance of posture in a normal adult human being depends upon

Options
 Integrity of reflex arc
Muscle power
Type of muscle fibers
Joint movements in physiological range
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ppQuestion (1/23)

Node of Ranvier is seen in

Options
Cell body
Dendrites
Axons
Terminal boutons

Action potential is initiated at the Axon Hillock Initial segment of the neuron because

Options
Threshold for Excitation is lowest
Neurotransmitter is released at this site
It is an unmyelinated segment
Has lowest concentration of voltage gated sodium channels

In a neuron, graded electrogenesis occurs at

Options
Soma- dendritic zone
Initial segment
Axon
Nerve ending

Initiation of impulse starts in

Options
Axon
Axon hillock + initial segment
Cell body
Dendritic tree

Myelination in peripheral nervous system is done by

Options
Astrocytes
 Oligodendrocytes
Ependymal cells
Schwann cells

True about Schwann cell

Options
Part of central nervous system
Present only in myelinated nerve fibers
Form myelin sheath
Derived from surface ectoderm

Orthodromic conduction is

Options
An axon can conduct impulse in one direction only
An axon can conduct impulse in both direction
The jumping of depolarization from node to node
The print at which a runaway spike potential

Synaptic conduction is mostly orthodromic because

Options
Dendrites cannot be depolarized
Once repolarized, an area cannot be depolarized
The strength of antidromic impulse is less
Chemical mediator is localized only in the presynaptic terminal

True about nerve impulse is

Options
Travels in one direction along axon
If current is increased too slow nerve respond fast
Travels in one direction at synapse
Travels with the speed of electric current

Unidirectional flow of nerve impulse is at

Options
Synapse
Axon
Dendrites
All of the above

Pseudounipolar cells

Options
Sympathetic ganglia
Parasynipathetic
Cranial nerve ganglion
Dorsal Root Ganglion

Neurons in sympathetic ganglia are

Options
Unipolar
Bipolar
Pseudounipolar
Multipolar

Nissl bodies in neurons are

Options
Golgi apparatus
Endoplasmic reticulum
Mitochondria
Lysosome

Nissl's bodies located intracytoplasmic are in?

Options
Perikaryon of neuron
. Smooth muscle
Skeletal muscle
 Cardiac muscle

Axonal transport is

Options
Antegrade
Retrograde
Antegrade and Retrograded
None

Rapid axonal flow in the neurons is mediated by all except

Options
Dynein
Kinesin
Neurofilaments
Microtubules

The neurons may get irreversibly damaged if exposed to significant hypoxia for

Options
5 min
2 min
30 Sec
15 Sec

Thickening of axon leads to

Options
Increased speed of conduction
Decreased speed of conduction
Increased absolute refractory period
Unmyelination

All are neuroglial cells in CNS except

Options
 Astrocytes
Microglia
Oligodendrocytes
Troposomes

Features ofNeuroglia cells include all except

Options
Protoplasmic astrocytes are found in grey matter
Oligodendrocytes are derived from ectoderm
Microglia are mesodermal in origin
Central neuroglial cells are derived from Schwann

Phagocytosis in the CNS is done by

Options
Astrocytes
Schwann cells
Microglia
Oligocytes

Function of microglia in CNS

Options
Phagocytosis
Myelin synthesis
Fibrosis
Blood brain barrier

In brain, Which cells convert glutamate to glutamine

Options
Oligodendrocytes
Astrocytes
Ependymal cells
Microglia
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Question (1/5)

Intensity of sensory stimulation is directly related to

Options
Duration of action potention (AP)
Frequency of AP
Amplitude of AP
All of the above

Weber Fechnerlaw is

Options
Magnitude of stimulus strength perceived is approximately proportional to the log of the
intensity of stimulus strength
Magnitude of stimulus strength perceived is directly proportional to the intensity of stimulus
strength
Threshold of receptor is directly proportional to stimulus strength
Threshold of receptor is inversely proportional to stimulus strength

Weber Fechnerlaw is related with

Options
Amplitude
Surface area
Number of sensory fiber involvement
Stimulus discrimination

Phantom limp sensation are best described by

Options
Weber Fechner law
Powerlaw
Bell-Magendielaw
Law of projection

Number of cones in retina

Options
3 - 5 millions
10 - 20 millions
25 - 50 millions
50 - 100 millions
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Question (1/15)

Processing of tactile stimulation occur in brodmann's area

Options
1,2,3
4,6
. 44,45
41,42

Sensory perception involves brodmann's area

Options
1,2,3
4,6
. 44,45
41,42

Brodmann's area number for somatosensory area

Options
4 and 6
5 and7
5 and 7
16 and 18

Cortical representation of body in the cerebrum is

Options
Horizontal
Vertical
Tongue
Trunk

Which of the following has small representation in somatosensory area of cerebral cortex

Options
Lips
 Thumb I fingers
Tongue
Trunk

Somatosensory area I largest representation is for

Options
Arm
leg
Back
Head

Loss of feel of size and shape of a object is seen in lesion of

Options
Tractus solitaries
Tractus cuneatus
Lateral spinothalamic tract
Cerebral Cortex

Stereoanesthesia is due to lesion of

Options
Nucleus gracilis
Nucleus cuneatus
Cerebral cortex
Spinothalamic tract

Appreciation of shape and size of an object placed in the hand is lost in the lesion of

Options
Tractus gracilis
Tractus cuneatus
Lateral spinathalamic tract
Spino - reticular tract

Ability to perceived shape and size is lost due to lesion of

Options
Tractus gracilis
Tractus cuneatus
Spinothalamic tract
Spinoreticular tract

The inability to perceive the texture and shape an object occurs in lesion of

Options
Lateral spino - thalamic tract
Nucleus gracilis
Spinoreticular tract
Nucleus cuneattis

Which of the following sensations is most affection by cortical lesion

Options
Proprioception
Temperature
Itch
Crude touch

Ablation of the "somatosensory area I" of the cerebral cortex leads to

Options
Total loss of pain sensation
Total loss of touch sensation
Loss of tactile localization but not of two point discrimination
Loss of tactile localization and two point discrimination

Somatosensory cortex lesion will affect

Options
Pain
Temperature
Localization
 Vibration

A man loses his right hand in a farm accident, four year later; he has episodes of severe pain in
the missing hand (phantom limb pain). A detailed PET Scan study of his cerebral cortex might
be expected to show

Options
Expansion of the right hand area in his right somatic sensory area I (SI)
Expansion of the right hand area in his left SI
Projection of fiber from neighboring sensory areas into the right hand area of his right SI
Projection of fiber from neighboring sensory areas into the right hand area of his left SI
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Question (1/8)

Fine touch and position sense is carried by

Options
Lateral spinothalamic tract
Anterior spinothalamic tract
Spinocerebellar tract
Dorsal column

Loss of proprioception and fine touch

Options
Anterior spinothalamic tract
Lateral spinothalamic tract
Dorsal column
Corticospinal tract

Which of the following sensation are transmitted by the dorsal tract I Posterior column

Options
Fine touch
Pain
Temperature
All of the above

Pain and temperature are carried by

Options
Anterior spinothalamic tract
Lateral spinothalamic tract
Dorsal column
None

A lesion of ventrolateral part of spinal cord will lead to loss (below the level oflesion) of

Options
Pain sensation on the ipsilateral side
 Proprioception on the contralateral side
Pain sensation on the contralateral side
Proprioception on the ipsilateral side

An Anterolateral Cordotomy Relieving Pain in Right Leg is Effective Because it Interrupt the

Options
Left dorsal column
Left ventral spinothalamic tract
Left lateral spinothalamic tract
Right lateral spinothalamic tract

Ventrolateral cordotomy for relief of pain in right lower limp due to cutting

Options
Left ventral spinothalamic tract
Left lateral spinothalamic tract
Right ventral spinothalamic tract
Right lateral spinothalamic tract

Sensation which are appreciated in thalamus

Options
Proprioception
Pain and temperature
Tactile sensation
Pressure
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Question (1/16)

Pain receptors are

Options
Meissners corpuscle
Pacinian corpuscle
Free never ending
Merkel disc

A6 fibers are not involved in

Options
First Pain
Slow Pain
Fast Pain
Epicritic Pain

Vanilloid receptors are activated by

Options
Pain
Vibration
Touch
Pressure

Which receptor gets stimulated in moderate cold

Options
CMR - 1
VR 1
VRL - 1
VR2

Perception of normal sensory stimuli as painful is called

Options
Hyperalgesia
 Allodynia
Hyperpathia
Causalgia

Repetitive stimulation increase pain sensation, the probable cause is

Options
Hypersensitization
Decreased reflex time
Increased in threshold of pain
Decreased receptor area

True about Visceral pain

Options
It is poorly localized
Resembles "fast pain" produced by noxious stimulation of the skin
Mediated by B fibers in the dorsal root of the spinal nerve
Shows relatively rapid adaptation

Massage and the application of liniments to painful area in the body relieves pain due to (

Options
Stimulation of endogenous analgesic system
Release of endorphins by the first order neurons in the brain stem
Release of glutamate and substance P in the spinal cord
Inhibition by large myelinated afferent fibers

Transcutaneous electrical nerve stimulation is based on

Options
Allodynia
Referred pain
Central Pain
Gate control theory of pain

The raphe nuclei located in lower pons and medulla secrete the following neurotransmitter
Options
Norepinephrine
Dopamine
Serotonin
Acetylcholine

Gate system for pain control at

Options
Substantia gelatinosa
Dorsal root ganglion
Both
None

Pain - Sensitive intracranial structure is

Options
Piamater
Pial vessels
Duramater
Brain matter

Neurotransmitter for pain is

Options
Dopamine
Substance P
PAF
None

Most potent pain production neurotransmitter

Options
Acetylcholine
Substance
Serotonin
 Histamine

Pain relief in acupuncture is mediated by

Options
Endogenous opioids
Kinins
Substance P
PGs

Free nerve ending carrying nociceptive fibers are seen in which of the following

Options
Intestine
Mesentery
Spleen
Liver
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Question (1/11)

Which one of the following sensory receptors is found in epidermis

Options
Merkel disc
Meissner's corpuscles
Ruffini ending
Pacinian corpuscles

Vibration sensation is mediated by

Options
Merkel's disc
Ruffini's end organ
Pacinian corpuscle
Meissner's corpuscle

Which of the following phrase adequately describes pacinian corpuscles

Options
A type of pain receptors
Slowly adapting touch receptors
Rapidly adapting touch receptors
Located in the joints

Phasic receptors is

Options
Merkel's disc
Ruffini's end organ
Pacinian corpuscle
Pain receptors

Best sensor for vibration is

Options
Merkel disc
 Ruffinis nerve ending
Pacinian corpuscle
Nerve ending

Meissener's corpuscle are for

Options
Touch
Temperature
Pressure
Proprioception

Ruffini end organ is associated with sensation of?

Options
Pressure
Cold
Vibration
Proprioception

Receptor of joint capsule and ligaments is

Options
Slow adapting
Fast adapting
Non adapting
Different to slow and fast adapting

A single spinal nerve is cut, the area of tactile loss is always greater than the area of loss of
painful sensation, because

Options
Tactile information is carried by myelinated fast conduction fiber
Tactile receptors adapt quickly
Degree of overlap of fibers carrying tactile sensation is much less
In the primary sensory cortex tactile sensation is represented on a larger area
The distance by which two touch stimuli must be separated to be perceived as two separate
stimuli is greatest at

Options
The lips
The palm of the hand
The back of scapula
The dorsum of the hand

During hip replacement, loss of joint and ligament receptor leads to

Options
No loss of sensation
Loss of all sensations
Joint sensation lost in stable position
Decrease in sensation
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Question (1/23)

Brain blood supply

Options
55 ml/100 gm/min
400 ml/100 gm/min
100 ml/100 gm/min
200 ml/100 gm/min

Mean cerebral blood flow is

Options
1500 mL/min
2000 mL/min
750 mL/min
250 mL/min

Cerebral blood flow is regulated by all except

Options
Blood pressure
Arterial PC023
Potassium ions
Cerebral metabolic rate

Which of the following is not permeable through the Blood Brain Barrier

Options
Water
Lipophilic drugs
Gas
Proteins

Blood brain barrier' is present at all of the following sites except

Options
Habenular nucleus
 Subfornical organ
Cerebellum
Pontine nucleus

Circumventricular organ is

Options
Anterior pituitary
Posterior pituitary
Pineal gland
None

Blood brain barrier is absent at

Options
Area postrema
Anterior pituitary
Choroid plexus
Cerebellum

Beta-2 transferrin is found in-

Options
Blood
Urine
Tear
CSF

CSF is formed by

Options
Arachnoid villi
Venous plexus
Choroid plexus
Subfornical nucleus

All the following are more in CSF compared to plasma except -

Options
Mg
Cl
HC03
Glucose

The total volume of CSF is-

Options
50 mL
100 mL
150mL
275 mL

CSF Production per minute

Options
0.30-0.35 ml/min
0.5 ml/min
2 ml/min
1 ml/min

Rate ofCSF Secretion per day

Options
50-100 ml
100-200ml
300-400ml
500-600ml

The Normal adult CSF pressure is

Options
1-2 mmHg
6-12mm Hg
15-30mmHg
 730mm Hg

CSF pressure (lumbar)

Options
70 - 180 mm CSF
. 50 - 100 mm CSF
> 200 mm CSF
150 - 200 mm CSF

CSF Pressure is mainly regulated by

Options
Rate of CSF formation
Rate of CSF absorption
Cerebral blood flow
Venous pressure

About CSF following statements (S) is /are true

Options
Specific gravity is 1.003 - 1.008
Specific gravity is 1.0003 - 1.0008
Total volume of CSF is 150 ml
Daily production is 550ml/ day

Which of the following has same concentration in CSF and plasma

Options
Ca++
HC03
Glucose
Cl

CSF /plasma glucose ratio is-

Options
 0.2-0.4
0.6-0.8
1.2-1.6
1.6-2.2

Below pressure, CSF absorption stops

Options
60 mm CSF
68 mm CSF
80 mm CSF
50 mm CSF

Which of the following is not true about CSF

Options
Removal of CSF during dural tap causes intense intra cranial headache
Normally contain no neutrophils
Formed by arachnoid villi within the ventricles
pH less than that of plasma

Low CSF protein may be seen in all of the following conditions, except

Options
Recurrent lumbar puncture
Hypothyroidism
Pseudotumor cerebri
Infants

Monro-kellie doctrine is related to injury of

Options
Head
Abdomen
Chest
Leg
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Question (1/8)

Ionic receptors are all except

Options
NMDA
Kainate
mGluR
AMPA

Which is not a peptide neurotransmitters

Options
Enkephalin
Substance P
Endorphin
Serotonin

Substance P is increased is response pain in periphery by which of the following~

Options
Mast cells
Endothelium
Plasma
Nerve terminals

Substrate P, actions all except

Options
Vasoconstriction
Pain transmission
Axon reflex
Peristalsis

Excitatory Neurotransmitters are-

Options
Acetykholine
 Glycine
GABA
Glutamate

The main excitatory neurotransmitter in the CNS is

Options
Glycine
Acetykholine
Aspartate
Glutamate

The inhibitory neurotransmitter in CNS neuron is

Options
Glutamate
Aspartate
Gamma-amino butyric acid
Taurine

The hyperkinetic features of the Huntington's disease are due to the loss of

Options
Nigrostriatal dopaminergic system
Intrastriatal cholinergic system
GABAergic and cholinergic system
Intrastriatal GABA-ergic and cholinergic system
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 1.

Question (1/10)

Release of synaptic vesicles from the presynaptic tenninab is inhibited by?

Options
Preventing depolarization of nerve terminal
Inhibition of conduction of nerve impulse
Prevention of Ca2+ influx
Prevention of Na+ influx

Which of the following statements is true for excitatory

Options
Are self-propagating
Show all or none response
Are proportional to the amount of transmitter released by the presynaptic neuron
Are inhibitory at presynaptic terminal

ESPS is due to

Options
K influx
Na+ efflux
Na+ influx
Ca++ influx

IPSP is due to

Options
Cl- influx
K+ influx
Na+ influx
Ca++ influx

Slow IPSP in autonomic ganglia is generated by

Options
Nicotinic cholinergic
Muscarinic Cholinergic
Dopamine
GnRH

Simulation of postganglion sympathetic neurons leads to

Options
Fast EPSP
Slow ESPS
Fast IPSP
Slow IPSP

Impulses which inhibit postsynaptic neuron itself

Options
Renshaw cell inhibition
Presynaptic inhibition
Direct inhibition
Indirect inhibition

Renshaw cell inhibition is

Options
Feedback facilitation
Feed forward inhibition
Direct inhibition
Feedback inhibition

Presynaptk facilitation is caused by

Options
Prolonged opening of calcium channels
Prolonged opening of chloride channels
Prolonged opening of potassium channels
 Prolonged opening of sodium channels

Feed forward inhibition is seen in

Options
Medulla
Cerebellum
Basal ganglia
Hypothalamus
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 10. 10
11. 11
12. 12
13. 13
14. 14
15. 15
16. 16
17. 17
18. 18
19. 19
20. 20
21. 21

Question (21/21)

Purkinje fibers are

Options
Modified nerve fibers
Modified smooth muscle
Modified cardiac muscle
Fibrous tissue
Explanation

Purkinje fibers are the modified cardiac muscle fibers concerned with conduction of impulse 

Impulse is generated at fastest rate in

Options
AV node
. SA node
Bundle of His
Purkinje fibers
Explanation

 SA node is the dominant pacemaker because it intrinsic firing rate is the highest ( 100 to 110
depolarizations per minute)

Which of the following is the function of Hyperpolarizing Cyclic nucleotide (HCN) channel
Prev
Options
Mark
SkipConduction of impulse
Generation of sinus rhythm
To maintain the cytoplasmic hyperpolarisation
To maintain mitochondrial membrane potential
Explanation

HCN channels are also called funny current channels • They are involved in generation of sinus
rhythm 

SA node acts as a pacemaker of the heart because of the fact that it

Options
Is capable of generating impulses spontaneously
Has rich sympathetic innervations
Has poor cholinergic innervations
Generates impulses at the highest rate

Speed of conduction is faster in

Options
AV node
SA node
Bundle of His
Purkinje system
Explanation

Conduction Rate (m/s) in cardiac tissue

SA node                  0.05
Atrial pathways        1
AV node                   0.05 (lowest)
Bundle of His            1
Purkinje fibers           4 (highest)
Ventricular muscle     1

Least conduction velocity is seen in

Options
AV node
Purkinje fibers
Bundle of His
Ventricular myocardial fibers

AV nodal delay is

Options
0.2 sec
0.13 sec
0.01 sec
0.3 sec
Explanation

AV node conduction is slow. There is a delay of about 0.1 s in spread of impulse 

Normal AV delay of 0.1 seconds is due to

Options
Decrease in amplitude of firing
Resistance offered by myocytes
Decrease in number of gap junctions
Lack of tight junctions
Explanation
AV node conducts impulses at the slowest rate because it has got very fegap junctions 

Gatekeeper of the heart is

Options
SA node
AV node
Purkinje fibers
Bundle of His
Explanation

 AV node conduction is slow. There is a delay of about O.l s  in spread of impulse 

Resting membrane potential in ventricular myocardium

Options
-50mV
-70mV
+ 70mV
-90mV
Explanation

 RMP of ventricular myocyte is - 90 mv 

Initial rapid repolarization in cardiac muscle is mediated through

Options
Opening of K+ channels
Opening of Ca++ Channels
Opening of Na+ Channels
Closing of Na+ Channels
Explanation

 Phase 1 - Initial repolarization • Mainly due to efflux of potassium ions through transient outward
K+ channels • Also due to inactivation of fast Na+ channels 

Plateau phase of ventricular muscle is d/t opening of

Options
Na+ Channels
K+ channels
Ca- Na channels
Closure of K+ channels
Explanation

 Plateau phase • Mainly due to the efflux of potassium ions balanced by influx of calcium ions
through calcium channels called as Ca- Na channels 

Inward flow of Na+ in heart leads to

Options
Plateau phase
 Action potentiaL
Repolarization
No Change
Explanation

To be more precise, influx of sodium ions causes depolarization of ventricular action potential. It
is usually seen in the form of a rapid upstroke (spike

When sodium enters cells

Options
There is spike in action potential
There is plateau in action potential
There is repolarization
There is hyperpolarization

Which part shows prepotential followed by action potential?

Options
Ventricles
Papillary muscle
Purkinje fibers
Chordae tendini
Explanation

Prepotentials are characteristics of pacemaker tissues in heart • Purkinje fibers is one of the latent
pacemakers of heart 

The pacemaker potential is due to

Options
Fast Na+ Channel
Decrease in K+ permeability
Slow Ca++ Channel
Rapid repolarization
Explanation

In the order of importance, causes of pacemaker potential are, • Decrease in K+ permeability •

Pacemaker current (Ir) or "funny" current • Calcium influx through T-type calcium channels 

Broca's area is present in

Options
Superior temporal gyrus
Precentral gyrus
Postcentral gyrus
Inferior frontal gyrus

Wemicke's area is located in

Options
 . Inferior frontal gyrus
Superior temporal gyrus
Inferior frontal gyrus
Cingulate gyrus

Broca's area is concerned with

Options
Word formation
Comprehension
Repetition
Reading

Motor aphasia refers to defect in

Options
Peripheral speech apparatus
Verbal expression
Auditory comprehension
Verbal comprehension

Patient is able to recognize person by name but not by face. Lesion is in

Options
Post parietal region
Occipital
Frontal lobe
Temporal lobe
 10. 10
11. 11
12. 12
13. 13
14. 14
15. 15
16. 16

Question (16/16)

Normal QRS axis

Options
+30 to 110°
030 to 110°
+ 110°
- 110°
Explanation

Normally, the QRS axis ranges from -30° to +100

Axis more negative than -30° is called left axis deviation 215

• Axis more positive than + 100° is called right axis deviation 

Einthoven's law

Options
I+ III= II
I - III = II
I+II+III=O
I + III = avL
Explanation

Einthoven's
Prev la- states that the sum of the potentials in leads I and III equals the potential in lead II.
Lead
Mark
I + III = Lead II 
Skip
Einthoven's triangle, what is the value of lead III when lead I = 2 m V and Lead II = 1 m V

Options
1
2
3
4
Explanation

Lead III = Lead II - Lead I= (2 - 1) = 1 

Depolarization of atria on ECG is seen as?

Options
P-wave
 QRS complex
T- wave
ST segment
Explanation

PR interval in ECG denotes

Options
Isovolumetric contraction of ventricle
Insovolumetric relaxation of heart
Atrial contraction
None
Explanation

PR interval • From the onset of P wave to the beginning of QRS complex • Duration - 0.12 to 0.20
sec • Denotes atrial contraction and Atrioventricular (AV) conduction time

QRS complex indicates.

Options
Atrial repolarization
Atrial depolarization
Ventricular repolarization
Ventricular depolarization

Normal QT interval is

Options
0.12 - 0.20
0.40 - 0.45
0.08 - 0.10
None
Explanation

QT interval

• From the onset of wave to the end of T wave

• Duration - 0.35 to 0.43 sec

• Denotes ventricular depolarization and repolarization events

Normal duration of PR interval

Options
0.12 - 0.2 sec
0.2 - 0.3 sec
0.3 - 0.4 sec
0.4 - 0.5 sec

P wave is absent

Options
Atrial fibrillation
CCF
Atrial flutter
PSVT
Explanation

P wave is absent in atrial fibrillation

• Instead of p waves, only fibrillatory f waves are seen

• P wave is absent also in hyperkalemia

Depolarization of human ventricular muscle starts from

Options
Posterobasal part of ventricle
Left side of interventricular septum
Uppermost portion of interventricular septum
Basal portion of ventricle
Explanation

Ventricular depolarization begins from Left side of interventricular septum

• Last parts of the heart to be depolarized are posterobasal portion of the left ventricle, the
pulmonary con us, and the uppermost portion of the septum. These are the areas which
repolarize first 

Which of the following is the order of activation after stimulation of Purkinji fibers is

Options
Septum --+ Endocardium --+ Epicardium
Endocardium --+ Septum --+ Epicardium
Epicardium --+ Septum --+ Endocardium
Septum --+ Epicardium --+ Endocardium
Repolarization in isolated muscle piece fiber proceeds from

Options
Epicardium to Endocardium
Endocardium to Epicardium
Left to right
Right to left
Explanation

 In isolated cardiac ventricular muscle cell, the direction of depolarization and repolarization are
the same from endocardium to epicardium • In whole heart, repolarization proceeds from
epicardium to endocardium (opposite in direction to depolarization

In a standard Electrocardiogram, an augmented limb lead measures the electrical potential

difference between

Options
Two limbs
One limb and two other limbs
One limb and neutral (Zero)
Two limbs and two other limbs
Explanation

Augmented limb leads are devised by connecting the positive end to one limb and negative end by
combing two other limbs

Hypokalemia ECG changes all except

Options
Tall T wave
Prolonged QRS interval
Depressed ST segment
Prominent U waves
Explanation

ECG changes in hypokalemia are • Prominent U waves • T wave inversion • ST segment depression
• QT interval is prolonged 

ECG changes in hyperkalemia are all except

Options
Prolonged PR interval
Depressed ST segment
Inverted T Wave
WideQRS
Explanation

 ECG changes in hyperkalemia are, • Tall T waves - earliest, most consistent, and most
characteristic ECG abnormality • QT interval is short • Loamplitude P wave • Prolonged AV
conduction 
AH interval on ECG is for conduction

Options
Through His - Purkinje system
From AV node to bundle of His
From Purkinje system to ventricular fibers
Through ventricular fibers
Explanation
 10. 10
11. 11
12. 12
13. 13
14. 14
15. 15
16. 16
17. 17
18. 18
19. 19
20. 20
21. 21
22. 22
23. 23

Question (23/23)

During mild to moderate exercise, heart rate increases. The change is

Options
There is greater decrease in atrial systole than atrial diastole
There is greater decrease in ventricular systole than ventricular diastole
There is greater decrease in ventricular diastole than ventricular systole
None of the above
Explanation

Cardiac cycle duration with changes in heart rate

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True about cardiac cycle

Options
Total duration is 0.4 seconds
Atrial systole is longer than atrial diastole
Duration of cardiac cycle is approximately fixed
Duration of diastolic is affected more than systole in tachycardia
During the cardiac cycle the opening of the aortic valve takes place at the

Options
Beginning of systole
End of isovolumetric contraction
End of diastole
End of diastasis
Explanation

Isovolumetric contraction

• To eject blood into aorta and pulmonary artery, ventricles must open aortic and pulmonary
valve

• The sole purpose of this phase is to open these valves

• The ventricle contracts against the closed valves (both AV valves and semilunar valves are
closed)

• This means that ventricular blood volume won't change (isovolumetric) but the pressure
generated by the ventricle tremendously rises.

• Once the pressure rises above 80 mm Hg, aortic valve opens. Similar changes also happen in
right ventricle which opens the pulmonary valve 

At the end of isometric relaxation phase

Options
Atrioventricular valves open
Atrioventricular valves close
Corresponds to peak of"C" wave in JVP
Corresponds to T wave in ECG
Explanation

 Isovolumetric relaxation ends by opening of Atrioventricular valves 

Of the following which one correlates with isovolumetric contraction phase

Options
AV opening and aortic and pulmonary valve closure
AV Close and aortic and pulmonary valve opening
. Both valves are closed
Both Valves are open

lsovolumetric relaxation phase of the cardiac cycle ends with

Options
Peak of "C" waves
Opening of A.V. valve
Closure of semilunar valve
Beginning of "T" wave
Isometric relaxation is defined as

Options
Relaxation of both atria
Relaxation of both atria with all valves open
Relaxation ofLV with mital and aortic valve closed
Relaxation ofLV with mital and aortic valve open
Explanation

 lsovolumetric relaxation • At the end of systole both the AV valves and semilunar valves are
closed , pressure inside the ventricles falls even more without any change in
volume(isovolumetric

Preload leads to

Options
Isovolumetric relaxation
Isovolumetric contraction
Peripheral resistance
Parasympathetic nervous system activation
Explanation

Stroke volume is always determined by the extent of ventricular filling during diastole (preload) •
Stroke volume is directly proportional to preload (End diastolic volume) • Ventricular
isovolumetric contraction begins to eject this preload

Maximum pressure in left ventricle is seen in which phase of cardiac cycle

Options
Isovolumetric contraction
Ventricular ejection
Protodiastole
Rapid Ventricular filling
Explanation

 Maximum ventricular pressure around 140 mm Hg is achieved during rapid ejection phase 

The duration of atrial systole is

Options
0.80 seconds
0.57 seconds
0.11 seconds
0.44 seconds
Explanation
Electromechanical systole is the time interval between

Options
Q wave and T wave
S wave and T wave
R wave and first heart sound
Q wave second heart sound
Explanation

A cardiologist asks for measurement of electromechanical systole (QS2) and left ventricular
ejection time(LVET), and pre - ejection period (PEP). The cardiologist is informed by the technician
that the carotid transducer is not functioning. Which of the following readings could not be
obtained

Options
QS
Qs and LVET
QS2, and PEP
LVET and PEP
Explanation

 Carotid pulse tracing is required for calculation of LVET and PEP

Frequency of 1st heart sound

Options
10 - 15 H
20- 25 Hz
25 - 35 Hz
50 Hz
Explanation

2nd heart sound is due to

Options
Closure of AV valves
Closure of aortic valves
Inthrushing of blood
Atrial contraction

Duration of 2nd heart sound is

Options
0.15 sec
0.12 sec
0.08 sec
0.1 sec

S3 is due to

Options
Rapid gush of blood in ventricle
Atrial contraction
AV valve closure
Semilunar valve closure

3rd heart sound is d/t

Options
Closure of AV valve
Closure of aortic valves
Mid diastolic flow in the ventricle
Atrial contraction

Which of the following is true about fourth heart sound "S4"

Options
Can be heard by the unaided ear
Frequency is greater than 20 Hz
Heard during ventricular filling phase
Heard during ventricular ejection phase

The fourth heart sound is caused by

Options
Closure of the aortic and pulmonary valves
Vibrations in the ventricular wall during systole
Ventricular filling
Closure of the mitral and tricuspid valves

Fourth heart sound is caused by

Options
Closure of AV valves
Closure of semilunar valves
Rapid ventricular filling
Atrial contraction

Shape of the arterial pulse is influenced by

Options
Viscosity of blood
Velocity of blood
Arterial wall expansion
Cross sectional area of artery
Explanation

The pressure wave generated by ventricles expands the arterial walls as it travels

• This expansion of arterial vessel wall is felt as pulse

• This wave travels at the rate of 4 mis in the aorta, 8 mis in the large arteries, and 16 ml s in small
arteries in adults

Dicrotic notch is caused by

Options
Closure of mitral valve
 Opening of mitral valve
Closure of aortic valve
Opening of aortic valve
Explanation

 Closure of aortic and pulmonary valve causes a characteristic notch called dicrotic notch or
incisura in pulse wave tracing 

V' Wave in JVP is due to

Options
Right atrial contraction
Left atrial contraction
Right atrial relaxation
Closure of tricuspid valve
Explanation
Which one of the following is the correct statement regarding coronary food flow?

Options
Coronary blood flow is directly related to perfusion pressure and inversely related to
resistance
Coronary blood flow is inversely related to perfusion pressure and inversely related to
resistance
Coronary blood flow is directly related to perfusion pressure and inversely related to
resistance
Coronary blood flow is inversely related to both pressure and resistance
Explanation

 According to Ohm's law, V = I * R

• In Cardio vascular physiology, V is the pressure and I is the blood flow

• So, Blood flo= Perfusion pressure/resistance 

Myocardial oxygen demand depends upon

Options
Preload
Afterload
Intramyocardial tension
Blood Hb concentration
Explanation
Prev
Mark
Primary
Skip
determinants of myocardial oxygen consumption are, • intramyocardial tension •
contractile state of the myocardium • heart rate • Ventricular work (preload and afterload) +
Ventricular work is the product of stroke and mean arterial pressur

True about cardiac 0 2 demand is-

Options
Directly proportional to mean arterial pressure
Inversely proportional to heart rate
Inversely proportional to cardiac work
Has a constant relation to the external work done by the heart
Explanation

Myocardial oxygen consumption is directly proportional to mean arterial pressure 

Which of the following statements about myocardial oxygen demand is true

Options
Correlates with beats rate
Is directly proportional to external cardiac work
Is negligible when heart is at rest
Depends upon duration of systole
Explanation
 Myocardial oxygen consumption is directly proportional to the systolic BP and duration of
systole 

True regarding myocardial 02 demand?

Options
Inversely related to heart rate
Has constant relation to external cardiac work
Directly proportional to duration of systole
Is negligible at rate
Explanation

 Myocardial oxygen consumption is directly proportional to the systolic BP and duration of systole
• Myocardial 0 2 demand has not constant relationship with external work done. Pressure
overload (after load ) consumes more oxygen than Volume overload (preload) 

Regulation of coronary circulation

Options
Autonomic
Autoregulatory
Hormonal
Sympathetic
Explanation

Autoregulation • It is the capacity of the tissue to regulate their blood flointrinsic basal myogenic
tone • Local Metabolism is the primary controller of coronary flo- 02 demand is a major factor •
This mechanism works well even when the nerves are removed

Coronary blood flow regulated by

Options
Sympathetic adrenergic system
Sympathetic cholinergic system
Local muscle action and reflexes
Parasympathetic system
Explanation

 Sympathetic and parasympathetic innervation of heart do influence coronary blood flobut most
important is always Local Metabolism • Local Metabolism is the primary controller of coronary
flow 
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Question (23/23)

Cardiac output in L/ min divided by heart rate equals

Options
Cardiac efficiency
Mean stroke volume
Cardiac index
Mean arterial pressure
Explanation

Cardiac output is the product of heart rate (HR) and stroke volume (SV) • So, Cardiac output/heart
rate = stroke volume 

Which of the following statement is/are true regarding Fick principle of measurement of cardiac
output:

Options
Cardiac output is calculated by amount of oxygen consumed by whole body per unit mass
divided by A-V Oxygen difference across the lung
Oxygen concentration in artery is measured by passing catheter to Pulmonary artery
Mixed venous blood is measured by inserting catheter into pulmonary artery
Rate of oxygen absorption by the lungs is measured by spirometry

Cardiac output is determined by

Options
PrevRatio of organ to total peripheral resistance
Mark
Mean stroke volume
Skip
Mean BP
Contractility of heart

Ejection fraction is

Options
SV I EDV
EDV/SV
 EVS/EDV
SV/ESV
Explanation

Ejection fraction means the percentage of end diastolic volume that is ejected as stroke volume •
Ejection fraction = Stroke volume/End diastolic volume X 100 • Ejection fraction normally is about
55 -65% • Ejection fraction is an useful indicator of ventricular systolic function 

What is the normal left ventricular ejection fraction?

Options
20%
30%
SO%
65%

Basal Cardiac output in an adult in nearly

Options
7 .5 liter
5 liter
12 liter
10 liter
Explanation

 Normal cardiac output values • Men - 5.6 L/min • Women - 4.9 L/min 

Cardiac index is defined as

Options
Stroke Volume M2/BSA
COP per unit body surface area
Syst press/ M2/BSA
End diastolic volume
Explanation

Cardiac index: • Cardiac index is expressing cardiac output per square meter of body surface area
• Normal cardiac index for adults is 3.2 L/min/m2 of body surface area

In a patient with cardiac output 5 liters/minute and body surface area 1.7 m2 what will be the
cardiac index

Options
3 liter/min/m2
4 liter/min/m2
5 liter/min/m2
2.5 liter/min/m2
Explanation

Cardiac index= 5/1.7 = 3 liter/min/m2 

Normal cardiac index is

Options
3.2
2.8
2.4
4.4

Stroke volume is increased by

Options
Increased end - diastolic and end - systolic volumes
Decreased end - diastolic and end - systolic volumes
Increased end - diastolic volumes and Decreased endsystolic volumes
Decreased end - diastolic volumes and increased endsystolic volumes
Explanation

Stroke volume = End diastolic volume - End systolic volume • It can be increased by Increased end
- diastolic volume and Decreased end- systolic volume • Normal stroke volume is around 70 ml 

The cardiac output can be determined by all except

Options
Fick's principle
V/Q ratio
Echocardiography
Thermodilution
Explanation

 Methods of Measuring cardiac output are, • Direct Fick's method • Indicator (Dye) Dilution
Method • Thermodilution method 

Which scientific principle is the basis of thermodilution method used in measurement of cardiac
output

Options
Hagen - Poiseuille principle
Bernoulli's principle
Stewart - Hamilton principle
Universal gas equation
Explanation

Indicator and thermodilution methods are based on Stewart Hamilton principle which states that
" amount of indicator substance injected is equal to the concentration times volume in which the
indicator is distributed" • In simple terms, Amount = (concentration * circulation time) *Volume •
Here, Volume is equated with cardiac output 

Direct fick method of measuring cardiac output requires estimation of?

Options
0 2 content of arterial blood
 0 2 content of venous blood
0 2 consumption per unit time
All of the above
Explanation

Fick's principle which states that "the amount of a substance taken up by an organ per unit of time
is equal to the arterial level of the substance minus the venous level (A-V difference) times the
blood flow" 0 2 consumed in mL/min Cardiac output=.----------~-___/ Arteriovenous oxygen
difference 

What will be cardiac output if 400 mg of dye is given intravenously and the concentration in blood
is 2 mg/L after lst passage time of 40 seconds

Options
1.5 L
3L
5L
6L
Explanation

Amount= (concentration* circulation time) *Volume • So, volume = amount I concentration *

circulation time = 400/2*40 =SL

All of the following factors normally increase the length of the ventricular cardiac muscle fibers
except

Options
Increased Venous tone
Increased total blood volume
Increased negative intrathoracic pressure
Lying - to - standing change in posture
Explanation

Lying - to - standing change in posture leads to decrease in stroke volume because of venous
pooling and decreased venous return 

Volume determining preload is

Options
End diastolic volume of ventricles
End systolic volume
Volume of blood in aorta
Ventricular ejection volume
Explanation

 Preload is End diastolic volume of ventricles • Afterload is the aortic pressure 

End diastolic volume increases due to

Options
Increase in intrapericardial pressure
 Decrease in ventricular compliance
Decrease in total blood volume
Increase in negative intrathoracic pressure
Explanation

Increase in negative intrathoracic pressure sucks blood from great veins leading to increase in
End diastolic volume of ventricles (preload) 

Cardiac output decreases during

Options
Moderate increase in environmental temperature
Anxiety and excitement
Eating
Standing from lying down position
Explanation

Cardiac output changes No change: • Sleep Increases during: • Anxiety and excitement (50-100%) •
Eating (30%) • Exercise (up to 700%) • High environmental temperature • Pregnancy • Epinephrine
Decreases during: • Standing from lying • Heart diseases

Cardiac output in increased by all except

Options
Exercise
Pregnancy
Hot atmosphere
Standing from lying down

Total cardiac output doesn't change during

Options
Sleep
From supine to standing position
Exercise
Arrhythmias

Preload is increased by

Options
Increased blood volume
Increased total peripheral resistance
Standing
Sitting

Starlings law implies

Options
Increased VR ~ increased CO
Increased discharge ~ increased CO
 Increased HR~ increased CO
Increased BP ~ increased CO
Explanation

 Stroke volume is always determined by the extent of ventricular filling during diastole (preload) •
This concept is based on Frank-Starling lawhich states that "the force of contraction of heart is
directly proportional 

to the initial length of muscle fibers, before the onset of contraction'' • Stroke volume is directly
proportional to preload (End diastolic volume) • Preload depends on the venous return 

Healthy adult cardiac reserve is

Options
50-100%
100-200%
200- 250%
300-400%
Explanation

 Cardiac reserve - "means the ability of the heart to pump 300 to 400 percent more blood per
minute than the body requires during rest" • Normal cardiac reserve is 300 to 400 percent 
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Question (19/19)

Blood pressure is defined as the product of

Options
Systolic pressure x pulse
Diastolic pressure x pulse rate
Pulse pressure x pulse rate
Cardiac output x peripheral resistance
Explanation

Blood pressure is the product of cardiac output times total peripheral resistance

• BP = cardiac output * total peripheral resistance 

Mean arterial pressure is calculated as

Options
(SBP + 2DBP)/3
(DBP + 2SBP)/3
(SBP + 3DBP)/2
(DBP + 3SBP)/2
Explanation

Mean arterial blood pressure (MAP)

•Prev
Is the average pressure in the arteries
Mark
• Since the diastole of cardiac cycle is longer (0.53s) than the systole (0.27 s), mean is not the exact
Skip
average of SBP and DBP

• Mean arterial blood pressure = Diastolic pressure + 1/3 of pulse pressure

• Since pulse pressure = SBP - DBP,

• MAP = DBP + l/3(SBP - DBP)

MAP = SBP + 2DBP 3

• Normal mean arterial pressure is around 93 -100 mm Hg

Mean arterial pressure is

Options
 Systolic + (Diastolic BP)/2
Systolic + l/3rd pulse pressure
Diastolic+ (Systolic BP)/2
Diastolic + l/3rd pulse pressure

Mean arterial pressure depends upon

Options
Cardiac output
Cardiac output and peripheral resistance
Arterial compliance
Peripheral resistance

Peripheral resistance is best indicated by

Options
Diastolic BP
Systolic BP
Mean BP
Pulse pressure
Explanation

Peripheral resistance is best indicated by diastolic BP 

SI unit for measuring Blood pressure is

Options
Torr
Mm Hg
kPa
Barr

BP is measured in

Options
Axillary artery
Carotid artery
Brachial artery
Radial artery
Explanation

 The most common place to measure a person's blood pressureis is the brachia! artery of the
upper arm 

During diastole, the arterial pressure is maintained by

Options
Elastic recoil of aorta
Musculature of arterial
Constriction of capillaries
 Contraction ofleft ventricle
Explanation

 Because of its elastic recoil nature, blood flois continuous and the diastolic pressure stays at 80
mm Hg. This elastic recoil effect is called "Wind.kessel effect" 

The blood pressure measured by a sphygmomanometer

Options
Is lower than the intraarterial pressure
Is higher than the intraarterial pressure
Is same as the intraarterial pressure
Is the same with different cuff sizes
Explanation

• BP measured by sphygmomanometer is higher than the intraarterial pressure because the cuff
pressure gets dissipated between the cuff and the artery by the interspersed tissue 

Spuriously high BP is seen in A/E

Options
Auscultatory gap
Small cuff
Thick calcified vessels
Obesity
Explanation

 Option B - Small cuff doesn't occlude the vessel completely. So, greater pressure is always needed
for occluding the vessel • Option C - Thick calcified vessel - more pressure will be needed to
occlude this vessel • Option D - Obesity - the cuff pressure gets dissipated between the cuff and the
artery by the interspersed tissue. Such interspersed tissue is more in obesity • Auscultatory gap is
not associated with spuriously high BP. It is the silence caused by disappearance ofkorotkoff
sounds after the first appearance of true systolic pressure and the reappearance of pressure 10 to
20 mm Hg lower 

Which of the following is not true about measurement of blood pressure?

Options
The bladder of the blood pressure cuff should cover more than 80% of the arm circumference
The blood pressure cuff should be at a higher level than the heart
Patient should be in resting position
Cuff should be tied over upper arm
Explanation

Important criteria to be met during sphygmomanometry BP measurement • BP is best measured

in the seated position after 5 minutes of rest • BP is best assessed at the brachia! artery level •
Subject arm should be at the level of the heart • Length of the blood pressure cuff bladder should
be 80% of the arm's circumference • Width of the blood pressure cuff bladder should be 40% of
the arm's circumference (smaller cuff overestimates BP and larger cuff underestimates BP) • The
cuff should be inflated to 30 mm Hg above the expected systolic pressure • The cuff should be
deflated at a rate of 2-3 mm Hg/ s
• Blood pressure should be measured in both arms, and the difference should be less than 10 mm
Hg 

True about blood pressure measurement is all/ except

Options
Cuff width should be 40% of arm circumference
Diastolic blood pressure is indicated by fourth korotkoff sound
Small cuff measures spuriously elevated diastolic blood pressure
Monckenberg sclerosis causes pseudohyper tension
Explanation

Diastolic blood pressure is indicated by fifth korotkoff sound

The basis of Korotkoff sound is related to

Options
Aortic valve closure
Production of heart sound
Arterial turbulence
Arterial valve expansion
Explanation

 When the cuff is deflated slowly, distinct sounds can be heard with the help of stethoscope which
are called Korotkoff sounds. These sounds are heard because blood passing through narroorifice
always causes turbulent flow 

Hormone involved in regulation of BP

Options
Serotonin
Angiotensin - II
Dopamine
Prostaglandin
Explanation

Angiotensin - II is a vasoconstrictor. By itself, it is involved in short term regulation of BP • The

same angiotensin - II is also involved in long term regulation of BP as a part ofRenin Angiotensin
aldosterone system (RAAS

Short term BP regulation exerted through kidney by

Options
ADH
ANP
Epinephrine
Aldosterone
Explanation

 ADH promotes water resorption from the collecting duct of kidney • It is released from the
posterior pituitary. Being a nervous reflex, it acts as a short-term regulation of BP • The hormones
in option b, c, d are endocrine which takes time to release

Blood pressure in right ventricle

Options
25 mm Hg
80 mm Hg
95 mm Hg
120 mm Hg
Explanation

Normal capillary wedge pressure

Options
0-2 mm Hg
5-10 mm Hg
15- 20 mm Hg
20 -30 mm Hg
Explanation

Mean Pulmonary capillary wedge pressure (PCWP) = 9 mm Hg (Range - 4 to 12 mm Hg) • PCWP is

usually measured using a balloon-tipped, multilumen catheter called Swan-Ganz catheter

Pulmonary artery pressure in

Options
120/80 mm Hg
25/0 mm Hg
25/8 mm Hg
120/0 mm Hg

Maximum pressure in left ventricle seen is

Options
2mmHg
25 mmHg
80mmHg
120mmHg
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Question (17/17)

Site ofRBC formation in 20 years old healthy male is

Options
Flat bones
Long bones
Liver
Yolk sac
Explanation

Age                                 Site of Hematopoiesis

3 weeks -3 months           Yolk sac
3-5 months                      Liver, spleen
5-9 months                      Red bone marroin long and flat bones
After birth till 20                Red bone marroin long and flat bones years of age
>20 years                         Only in flat bones like ilia

Blood is produced in first six months in fetus in:

Options
Liver
Spleen
Bone marrow
None

Erythropoiesis in gestation age takes place in

Prev
Options
Mark
SkipYolksac
Placenta
Amniotic sac
Chorion

Life span of neonatal RBC

Options
60-90 days
90-120 days
120-150 days
150-200 days
Explanation
Life span of fetal RB Cs - 60 to 90 days

• Life span of preterm infant RB Cs - 35 to 50 days

• Life span of adult RBCs - 120 days

Lifespan offetal RBC is

Options
Same as adult RBC
1/4 of adult RBC
1/2 of adult RBC
2/3 of adult RBC
Explanation

 Life span of fetal RBCs is 60 to 90 days. It is about 2/3'd of adult RBCs life span 

At what stage of erythropoiesis does hemoglobin appear?

Options
Reticulocyte
Intermediate normoblast
Early normoblast
Erythroblast
Explanation

Intermediate erythroblast

• Also called as Polychromatophilic erythroblast

• Hemoglobin starts appearing in this stage 

In erythropoiesis-

Options
Size of the cells increases in subsequent stages
Hemoglobin appears at early normoblast stages
Mitosis occurs in late normoblast at the fastest
Folic acid is useful as a maturation factor
Explanation

 Factors responsible for maturation of RBCs are vitamin B12 and folic acid 

Longest life span among following

Options
RBC
Platelets
Neutrophils
Macrophages
Chemical structure of hemoglobin is

Options
Has 2 polypeptide chains with 4 heme
Has 4 polypeptide chains with 2 heme
Has 4 polypeptide chains with 4 heme
None of the above
Explanation

Hemoglobin - globular molecule made up of four subunits

• Each subunit contains a heme and a polypeptides

• The polypeptides are collectively referred as the globin 

Each hemoglobin molecule contains how many globin

Options
1
2
3
4

The type of hemoglobin that has least affinity for 2, 3Diphosphoglycerate (2,3-DPG) or (2,3 BPG) is

Options
HbAl
HbF
HbA2
None
Explanation

Among the hemoglobin subtypes, fetal hemoglobin has the lowest affinity for 2, 3 - DPG

2nd MC Hb in adult is

Options
A2~2
A2y2
A2o2
~2 y2
Explanation

Types of Hemoglobin
Fetal hemoglobin contains

Options
a 2, ~2
a 2, o2
a 2, y2
None

Metalloproteins mechanism help in jaundice by the following

Options
Increased glucoronyl transferase activity
Inhibit heme oxygenase
Decreased RBC lysis
Increase Y and Z receptors
Explanation

 Metalloproteins inhibit heme oxygenase 

Which of the following protein inhibits heme loss from plasma

Options
Ferritin
Hemopexin
Transferrin
Hemosiderin
Explanation

 Heme binding proteins are, • Haptoglobin • Hemopexin • Albumin

Hemoglobin binding protein is

Options
Haptoglobin
Hemopexin
Albumin
All of the above

Hemoglobin binds/transports all except

Options
CO
O2
so2
Co2
Explanation

Hemogiobin can bind with oxygen, carbon dioxide and carbon monoxide 
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Question (22/22)

Factor Xis

Options
Hageman factor
Stuart - Prower factor
Christmas factor
Tissue factor
Explanation

Clotting factor X is also called as Stuart-Prower fact

Proaccelerin is

Options
Factor II
Factor V
Factor VII
Factor X
Explanation

 The other names of Factor V are,

• Proaccelerin

• labile factor
Prev
• Mark
accelerator globulin 
Skipwillebrand factor is synthesized by all except
Von

Options
Endothelial Cells
Megakaryocytes
Hepatocytes
None
Explanation
 Endothelial cells and platelets store vWF in their secretory granules

• In Endothelial cells, it is seen as Weibel - Palade bodies

• In platelets, it is seen in a-granules

Vitamin K is involved in action of following protein except

Options
Factor II
Factor X
Factor I
Protein C
Explanation

Vitamin K-Dependent Factors

• Factor II

• Factor VII

• Factor IX

• Factor X

• Protein C and protein S 

All are vitamin K dependent clotting factor except

Options
Factor II
Protein C
Factor X
Factor IX
Explanation

 Protein C is an anticoagulant factor. All the others are clotting factors 

Dicumarol is a drug that impairs the utilization of vitamin K by the liver. Dicumarol therapy,
therefore, would decrease the plasma concentration of which of the following procoagulants

Options
Prothrombin
Fibrinogen
Antihemopilic factor (factor VIII)
Ac - globulin (factor V)
Explanation

 Factor II is also called Prothrombin. It is a vitamin K dependent factor

• Warfarin - acts by inhibiting Vitamin K Epoxide reductase (VKORCl) 

Which of the following is not involved in intrinsic pathway

Options
Factor XII
Factor XI
Factor IX
Factor VII
Explanation

Extrinsic pathway

• Initiated by exposure to tissue thromboplastin (factor III) which activates factor VII 

Extrinsic system of coagulation is activated by

Options
Factor XI
Factor X
Factor IX
Factor VII

Which of the following factor is the initiator of extrinsic coagulation pathway

Options
XII
X
VII
v

Conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin is by

Options
Prothrombin
Factor XIII
Thrombin
Kallikrein
Explanation

Thrombin converts fibrinogen to fibrin 

Which of the following helps in bridging the fibrin in a clot and stabilizes the clot?

Options
Factor XIII
Factor V
Factor VIII
Factor III
Explanation

 Factor XIII is also called Fibrin-stabilizing factor or Lal<iLorand factor

Loose fibrin accumulated in tight clot in coagulation pathway by factor

Options
X
XI
XII
XIII

Half-life of factor VIII -

Options
2- 4 hours
8 - 12 hours
6 minutes
60 days
Explanation

 Factor VIII has a half-life of 8 to 12 hours

• Infusions of factor VIII are required twice per day 

All endothelial cells produce thrombomodulin except those found in

Options
Hepatic circulation
Cutaneous circulation
Cerebral microcirculation
Renal circulation
Explanation

 Thrombomodulin is absent in cerebral microcirculation 

The blood in the vessels normally does not clot because

Options
Vitamin k antagonists are present in plasma
Thrombin has a positive feedback on plasminogen
Sodium citrate in plasma chelates calcium ions
Vascular endothelium is smooth and coated with glycocalyx
Explanation

 Blood in the vessels normally doesn't clot because of,

• Smoothness of cell surface

• Glycocalyx coating repels clotting factors

• Thrombin binding with thrombomodulin-inactivates factors and 8 through activated protein C

and S

• Anti-Thrombin III and heparin-inactivates factors 9,10,11,12

• Tissue plasminogen activators and plasmin 

Thrombin activity is inhibited by-

Options
Chymotrypsin
Heparin cofactor II
Alpha 2 antitrypsin
Alpha 2 macroglobulin
Explanation

 There are four important thrombin inhibitors namely,

• Anti-thrombin III (most important)

• Alpha 2 macroglobulin (next most important)

• Heparin cofactor II

• a1 antitrypsin

Platelets aggregation is caused by all, except

Options
Thromboxane A2
Serotonin
Prostacyclin (PGI2
Thrombin
Explanation

Platelet aggregating agents are - Thrombin, ADP, ATP, Serotonin, Thromboxane A2

• Platelet aggregation inhibitors are - Prostacyclin (PGI2), Nitric oxide 

Conversion of prothrombin to thrombin requires

Options
 Ca++
Va, Ca++
V , X, Ca+
X, V, XII, & Ca+
Explanation

Ref: Ganong, 25th ed/p.565 Conversion of prothrombin to thrombin requires V, X, Ca++ 

Protein C activation causesa

Options
Promotion of clothing
Inactivation of factor II
Activation of factor X
Inactivation of factor V
Explanation

 Activated protein C inactivates factor V and VIII 

The substance that is present in both serum and plasma is(

Options
Fibrinogen
Factor VII
Factor V
Factor II
Explanation

 All the intrinsic clotting factors are used in serum

• Normal serum contains Factor VII (extrinsic pathway factor)

Thrombosthenin is a/an

Options
Thrombosis preventing protein
Contractile protein
Coagulation protein
Protein for regulating platelets production
Explanation

The contraction of platelets during clot retraction is mediated by a protein called thrombosthenin 

Von willebrand factor is produced by

Options
Liver
Platelets
Endothelial cells
Spleen
Explanation
vWF is produced by endothelial cells (mainly) and platelets 
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Question (23/23)

Fibrin is degraded by

Options
Thrombin
Fibrin
Plasmin
None
Explanation

 Fibrin is degraded by plasmin 

Windkessel effect is seen in

Options
Large elastic vessels
Capacitance vessels
Thoroughfare channels
Capillaries
Explanation

 Aorta

• Characterized by abundant elastic tissue in its wall

• This elastic nature is responsible for distensibility and elastic recoiling in aorta
Prev
• Mark
Because of its elastic recoil nature, blood flois continuous' and the diastolic pressure stays at 80
mm Hg. This elastic recoil effect is called "Windkessel effect"
Skip
• The elastic nature of aorta is due to the protein "Elastin" 

Capacitance vessels have in their wall

Options
More elastic tissue and less muscle
Less elastic tissue and more muscle
 More elastic tissue and more muscle
Less elastic tissue and less muscle
Explanation

 Veins have the capacity to store large amount of blood "Capacitance vessels"

• They have less elastic tissue and less smooth muscle in their walls

The velocity of blood is maximum in the

Options
Large veins
Small veins
Venules
Capillaries
Explanation

Velocity of blood flois inversely related to cross sectional area

• High velocity of blood flois seen in aorta and large veins

• Lovelocity of blood flo(sluggish) is seen in capillaries 

Largest cross - sectional area

Options
Artery
Veins
Capillaries
Venules
Explanation

Vessel with,

• Maximum cross-sectional area - capillaries

• Minimum cross-sectional area - aorta

• Maximum blood flovelocity - aorta

• Minimum blood flovelocity - capillaries

• Maximum diameter - vena cava

• Maximum% of blood stored- Veins

• Resistance vessels - arterioles

• Capacitance vessels - veins

• Exchange vessels - capillaries

• Windkessel vessel - aorta

• For temperature regulation - AV shunts

• Maximum smooth muscle content - arterioles 

Slowest blood flow is seen in

Options
Arteriole
Veins
Capillaries
Venules

Correct order of velocity

Options
Vena cava >Aorta> Vein > Artery > Venule > Arteriole
Aorta > Vena cave> Artery > Vein > Arteriole > Venule
Aorta > Artery > Vena cave > Vein > Arteriole > Venule
Vena cave > Vein > Aorta > Artery > Venule > Arteriole

Distribution of blood flow is mainly regulated by the

Options
Arteries
Arterioles
Capillaries
Venules
Explanation

 Arterioles by its vasoconstriction and vasodilation controls distribution of blood floto different
parts of the body 

Microcirculation consists of

Options
Capillaries
Capillaries, Venules and arterioles
Aorta
Arteries and veins
Explanation

 Microcirculation - circulation of the blood in the small blood vessels namely arterioles, capillaries
and venules 

Which of the following is NOT correct regarding capillaries

Options
Greatest cross sectional area
Contain 25% of blood
Contains less blood than veins
Have single layer of cells bounding the lumen
Explanation

Capillaries contain only 5 % of blood volume 

Pre - capillary sphincter relaxation is caused by

Options
Local metabolites
Circulating catecholamines
Sympathetic activity
Fall in capillary pressure
Explanation

 Blood floto the capillaries mainly depends on the metabolic state of the tissue. Over tissues -
accumulation of local metabolites - relaxation of pre capillary sphincters - more blood flow

Which of the following favors filtration at the arteriolar end of the capillary bed

Options
Decrease in hydrostatic pressure of capillaries
Increase in hydrostatic pressure of capillaries
Increase in oncotic pressure of capillaries
Decrease in oncotic pressure of interstitium
Explanation

Pressures in the capillaries are the major forces that govern fluid movement in them. Such forces
are commonly called Starling forces • Two major starling forces acts to govern such exchanges.
They are, • Hydrostatic pressure - Favors filtration • Hydrostatic capillary pressure (Pc) •
Hydrostatic interstitial pressure (Pi) 

Interstitial hydrostatic pressure is 2 mm Hg, Interstitial oncotic pressure is 8 mm Hg, hydrostatic

pressure of capillaries is 25 mm Hg. What is the colloid oncotic pressure is the net filtration
pressure is 3 mm Hg

Options
20
21
23
27
Explanation

Hydrostatic capillary pressure (Pc)= 25 mm Hg • Hydrostatic interstitial pressure (Pi) = 2 mm Hg •

Colloid oncotic pressure (nc) = X • Interstitial oncotic pressure (ni) = 7 mm Hg • Net filtration
pressure = (Pc - Pi) - ( nc - ni) • So, 3 = (25 - 2) - (X - 7) • X=27mmHg • Colloid oncotic pressure (nc) =
27 mm Hg 

Largest% of blood volume in

Options
Aorta
Artery/ Arterioles
Venules/Veins
 Capillaries
Explanation

 Veins have the capacity to store large amount of blood "Capacitance vessels" 

Maximum reservoir of blood

Options
Large vein
Aorta
Heart
Capillaries

Arteriole is

Options
Conducting vessel
Resistance vessel
Exchange vessels
Capacitance vessel

Which of the following vessels have the function of capacitance

Options
Arteriole
Capillary
Vein
Venules

Highest compliance is seen in which vessel

Options
Arteries
Veins
Aorta
Capillaries

Gas exchange in tissues takes place at

Options
Artery
Capillary
Vein
Venules

Venous return to heart during quiet standing is facilitated by all of the following factors, except

Options
Calf muscle contraction during standing
Values in perforators
 Sleeves of deep fascia
Gravitational increase in arterial pressure
Explanation

Standing - venous pooling because of gravity - decrease in venous return 

Lymph flow is increased by all except

Options
Increased vascular permeability
Decreased capillary osmotic pressure
Increase in interstitial fluid
Decreased interstitial osmotic pressure
Explanation

Reduced Plasma Osmotic Pressure and Decreased interstitial osmotic pressure increases lymph
flow 

Critical dosing pressure is

Options
Arterial pressure minus venous pressure
Capillary pressure minus venous pressure
Pressure below which in capillaries close
None of the above
Explanation

In small blood vessels like arterioles and capillaries, if the pressure is reduced, a point is reached
at which no blood flooccurs, even though the pressure is not zero. That pressure is called Critical
closing pressure (CCP) • Critical closing pressure is usually around 20 mm Hg 

Equilibrium pressure in the absence of flow pressure is called

Options
Mean circulatory filling pressure
Critical closing pressure
Perfusion pressure
Pulse pressure
Explanation

Mean Circulatory Filling Pressure • If the heart is stopped, blood floto the body stops and the
pressures everywhere in the circulation become equal • Such equilibrated pressure level is called
the mean circulatory filling pressure • Normal value of mean Circulatory Filling Pressure is 7 mm
Hg. Sympathetic stimulation increases it and sympathetic inhibition decreases it • Mean Systemic
Filling Pressure • It is the pressure measured everywhere in the systemic circulation after blood
flohas been stopped. • The word "Systemic" in Mean Systemic Filling Pressure denotes systemic
circulation to differentiate it from pulmonary circulation • Mean Circulatory Filling Pressure and
Mean Systemic Filling Pressure are always nearly equal 
 10. 10
11. 11

Question (11/11)

Bernoulli's principle states

Options
Sum of kinetic energy of flow and pressure energy is constant
Low tones producing maximal stimulation at apex of cochlea
Magnitude of the sensation felt is proportionate to the intensity of stimulus
Force of contraction is proportional to the stretch of cardiac muscle
Explanation

 Velocity of blood flo(kinetic energy) and the pressure (potential energy) are interrelated by the
Bernoulli's principle

• Bernoulli's principle

• States that "The sum of the kinetic energy of floand the potential energy-is constant"

• According to the principle, the greater the velocity of floin a vessel, the lower the

• lateral pressure distending its walls to keep the total energy of the system constant 

Laplace's law, all except

Options
P = T/r
P = 2T/r
T = Pr I w
Prev
P = WP/r
Mark
Explanation
Skip
 Laplace lastates that tension in the wall of a cylinder (T) is equal to the product of the transmural
pressure (P) and the radius (r) divided by the wall thickness (w) • T=Pr/w

Poiseuille's - Hagen law is related to

Options
Airflow resistance
Rate of blood flow
Measurement of BP
None of the above
Explanation

Poiseuille-Hagen formula deals with blood flow(F) which equals

Blood flow through a vessel varies directly with

Options
Resistance
 Viscosity
Pressure difference
Length of vessel
Explanation

Pressure difference and blood floare directly related according to Poiseuille-Hagen formula 

Relation between current, electromotive forces and resistance in a circuit by Ohm's law is stated
as

Options
I = E/R
. i = R/E
I = RE
All of the above
Explanation

Ohm's Lawhich deals with relationship between potential difference, current and resistance V = I
* R • In vascular physiology, current flois equated with the blood flo(F) and the voltage difference
is equated with the pressure difference (P) across the vessel wall. So, the modified Ohm's Lais, P =
F * R 

Blood is flowing through a circuit with an inflow pressure of 100 mm Hg and outflow pressure of
lOmm Hg. Each of the parallel circuits {RI, R2, R3, R4 and R5) has a resistance of 5 mm Hg/ ml/
min. What is the blood flow across this circuit

Options
3.6 ml /min
45 ml/min
90 ml/min
135 ml/min
Explanation

• Blood flo= pressure difference I resistance

• So, pressure difference = 100 - 10 = 90 mm Hg
• For resistance in parallel circuit, R = l /R1 + l/~+ l / R3+ 1 /R4+1/Rs
• So, resistance= 5/5 = 1
• Blood flo- 90/l - 90 ml/min

In laminar flow, if diameter is reduced to half

Options
Blood flow increases four fold
Blood flow decreases four fold
Blood flow increased sixteen - fold
Blood flow decreased sixteen - fold
Explanation

Resistance and blood floare always inversely related. The relationship between them is called
"Fourth power law" which is, R = 8 qL/(PA - PB)* n r4 • This means that if the radius of the vessel
wall decreases to 2 cm from 4 cm, the resistance increases by 16 times and blood flodecreases by
16 times 

H the diameter of lumen of a vessels is decreased to half, the velocity of blood will be

Options
Increased by 2 times
Increased by 4 times
Decreased by 2 times
Decreased by 4 times
Explanation

Velocity is inversely proportional to the square of radius • V al/r2 • So, if the diameter is reduced to
half, velocity increases by four times

Laminar flow is depend.ent on

Options
Critical velocity
Viscosity
Constant velocity
Critical closing pressure
Explanation

Blood floinside the vessel can be, • Laminar floor streamlined flo(without noise) • Turbulent
flo(with noise) • Whether the blood flois laminar or turbulent is determined by Reynolds number
Reynolds number= pDV/ 11 Where, • p -density of the fluid • D -diameter of the tube • V -velocity •
ri -Viscosity 

Which of the following increases turbulence in blood flow

Options
Reynolds number less than 2000
Decreases in velocity of blood
Decreases in density of blood
Increases in diameter of blood vessel
Explanation

Reynolds number = pDV I ri • Reynolds number increases whenever there is increase in density of
fluid, increase in diameter of vessel, increase in velocity and decrease in viscosity of fluid • If Re
>2000 - flois turbulent
179

Flow is laminar in small vessels because

Options
Reynolds number is > 2000
Total cross-sectional area of small
Diameter of smaller vessels is less
Effective velocity in small vessels is less
Explanation
Blood flovelocity (V) and cross-sectional area (A) are inversely related • Val/A • In aorta, cross
sectional area is less and Blood flovelocity is more • In capillaries, cross sectional area is more and
Blood flovelocity is less 
 10. 10
11. 11
12. 12
13. 13
14. 14
15. 15
16. 16
17. 17
18. 18
19. 19
20. 20
21. 21
22. 22
23. 23
24. 24
25. 25
26. 26 (29/29)
Question
27. 27
All28.
are28effects of sympathetic stimulation except
29. 29
Options
Ncreased conduction velocity
Increased heart rate
Increased refractory period
Increased contractility of heart
Explanation

Sympathetic stimulation to the heart results in,

• Increase in heart rate (positive chronotropy)

• Increase in myocardial contractility (positive inotropy)

• Increase in cardiac conduction velocity (positive Dromotropy)

• Increase in cardiac excitability (positive Bathmotropy)

• Augments cardiac relaxation (positive lusitropy)

• Decrease in refractory period

All are cardiovascular effects of parasympathetic stimulation except

Options
Prev
Decreased heart rate
Mark
Decreased Conduction
Skip
Increased automaticity
Increased refractive period
Explanation

Sympathetic stimulation to the heart results in,

• Decrease in heart rate (negative chronotropy)

• Decrease in cardiac conduction velocity (negative Dromotropy)

• Decrease in cardiac excitability (negative Bathmotropy)

• Decrease in auto rhythmicity

• Increase in refractory period 

Vagal stimulation in heart causes decrease in heart rate by

Options
Decreased in action potential spike
Decreased in slope of prepotential
Increased automaticity
Decreased conduction
Explanation

Para sympathetic nervous system - Acetylcholine

• Decreases heart rate (Negative chronotropy)

• Opens potassium channels leading to increase in potassium efflux which decreases the slope of
prepotential 

Vagal stimulation of the heart causes

Options
Increased heart rate
Increased R - R interval in ECG
Increased force of heart contraction
Increased cardiac output
Explanation

 Increased R - R interval in ECG means decrease in heart rate 

Sympathetic stimulation causes all of the following except

Options
Increased heart rate
Increased in blood pressure
Increase in total peripheral resistance
Increase in venous capacitance
Explanation

Sympathetic stimulation causes venoconstriction leading to decrease in venous capacitance -

means that the blood is pushed out of veins into general circulation 

TRUE regarding human heart

Options
Conduction of impulse from endocardium to inwards
 During exercise duration of systole is reduced more than diastole c
HR increases with parasympathetic denervation
Vagal stimulation decreased force of contraction

On increasing vagal tone following occurs in pacemaker

Options
Increased Na+ increased slope
Decreased Na+ decreased slope
Increased Na+ decreased slope
Decreased Na+ increased slope

Baroreceptor are

Options
Carotid body
Carotid sinus
Aortic body
None
Explanation

 Baro reflex is mediated by sensors which are the stretch receptors known as Baroreceptors. They
are,

• Carotid sinus - a small dilation in internal carotid artery

• Aortic arch - in the aortic arch wall

In healthy person, arterial baroreceptor activity is seen at what stage of cardiac cycle

Options
Systole
Diastole
Both
None
Explanation

 Even at normal blood pressure levels (about 100 mm Hg mean pressure), there is baroreceptor
firing during systole and very minimal firing during diastole

• Whenever there is increase in BP, this basal level of firing increases

• Whenever there is decrease in BP, this basal level of firing decrease

Pressure on carotid sinus cause

Options
Hyperapnea
Reflex bradycardia
Tachycardia
Dyspnea
Explanation

 The definition of Baroreflex is - "Whenever blood pressure increases, baroreceptors increase

their discharge and send their impulse to medulla which ultimately decreases the blood pressure
and decreases heart rate (reflex bradycardia

Discharge from baroreceptor cause inhibition of

Options
Caudal ventrolateral medulla
Rostral ventrolateral medulla
Nucleus of tractus solitarius
Nucleus ambiguous
Explanation

 In simple terms, "increased baroreceptor discharge inhibits the tonic discharge of sympathetic
nerves and excites the vagal innervation of the heart"

Detectable fall in blood pressure occur in

Options
Sympathetic stimulation
Inhibition ofVMC
Disinhibition ofVMC
Stimulation of vagal pressure
Explanation

 Vasomotor center is the major sympathetic center of medulla. It is inhibited whenever there is
increase in BP 

Carotid body baroreceptor is most sensitive to

Options
 Mean blood pressure
Diastolic blood pressure
Systolic blood pressure
Pulse pressure
Explanation

 Baroreceptors are more sensitive to mean blood pressure 

Two students, Vineet and Kamlesh were asked to demonstrate in dogs the role of sinus nerve in
hypovolemic shock. Vineet severed the sinus nerve when the mean blood pressure (MBP) was 85
mm Hg and Kamlesh cut the sinus nerve when the mean blood pressure was 60 mm Hg. On
cutting the sinus nerve

Options
Vineet recorded the increase in MBP but Kamlesh recorded a decrease in MBP
Vineet recorded a decrease in MBP but Kamlesh recorded an increase in MBP
Both recorded an increase in MBP
Both recorded a decrease in MBP
Explanation

Important points to remember while solving these type of questions,

• Baroreceptors don't fire belo60 mm Hg

• Maximum rate of firing is seen around 180 mm Hg

• Normal operating around - around 100 mm Hg

• baroreceptors are ineffective in BP control whenever MAP falls belo60 mm Hg and

chemoreceptors are effective belo60 mm Hg

• Afferent impulses from both carotid sinus (baroreceptor) and carotid body ( chemoreceptor)
travel through the same sinus nerve (Bering's nerve)

• Between 60 mm Hg to 180 mm Hg, baroreceptors fire to inhibit sympathetic activity in medulla

• Below 60 mm Hg, chemoreceptors fire to cause chemoreflex which is - stimulation of vasomotor

center leading to, + Vasoconstriction + Tachycardia + Increase in BP • Kindly underline the point
that baroreceptors fire to inhibit sympathetic activity in medulla and chemoreceptors fire to
increase sympathetic activity in medulla

• Now, coming to the question, Vineet severed the sinus nerve at MBP 85 mm Hg. At this pressure
of 85 mm Hg, normally baroreceptors send their discharge through sinus nerve to inhibit
sympathetic activity in medulla

• If the sinus nerve is cut at 85 mm Hg, baroreceptors can no longer inhibit sympathetic activity in
medulla

• So, sympathetic activity in medulla increases - there is increase in BP. Vineet recorded the
increase in MBP

• Kamlesh severed the sinus nerve at MBP 60 mm Hg. We knothat belo60 mm Hg chemoreceptors
fire and the impulse is carried through the same sinus nerve to medulla to increase sympathetic
activity
• Kamlesh severed the sinus nerve at MBP 60 mm Hg - recorded a decrease in MBP
(chemoreceptor activity is not conveyed to medulla - no sympathetic activity - decrease inMBP

Occlusion of common carotid artery on both sides leads to

Options
Increase in HR and BP
Increase in BP and decrease in HR
Decrease in HR and BP
No effect on BP and HR
Explanation

Occlusion of common carotid arteries on both sides reduces pressure in baroreceptors. Their
firing is reduced leading to increase in BP and heart rate 

Clamping of the carotid arteries above the carotid sinus result in -

Options
Increase in blood pressure and increase in heart rate
Increase in blood pressure and decrease in heart rate
Decrease in blood pressure and increase in heart rate
Decrease in blood pressure and decrease in heart rate
Explanation

 Clamping of common carotid arteries above carotid sinus - pressure build up in carotid sinus
leading to baroreceptor activation. So, there is baroreflex which causes decreas'e in BP and reflex
bradycardia

• Also understand this scenario - Clamping of common carotid arteries belocarotid sinus - reduced
pressure in carotid sinus leading to baroreceptor inhibition. So, there is no baroreflex - Increase
in BP and tachycardia 

Clamping of the carotid arteries below the carotid sinus is likely to produce

Options
Increase in discharge of carotid sinus afferent nerves
Decreased heart rate and blood pressure
Increase in vasomotor center activity
Baroreceptor adaptation
Explanation

Increase in vasomotor center activity means increase in sympathetic activity. This is possible only
if there is no baroreceptor firing 

Bilateral cutting of vagus nerve causes

Options
Decrease heart rate
Decrease respiratory rate
Increase heart rate
Decreased BP
Explanation

 Bilateral cutting of vagus cause tachycardia 

When a person changes position from standing to lying down. Following change is seen

Options
Heart rate increase
Venous return to heart increases immediately
Cerebral blood flow increase
Blood flow at apices of lung decreases
Explanation

Lying down from standing position increases venous return

• On immediate standing, there is venous pooling leading to decrease in venous return to heart 

A shift posture from supine to upright posture is associated with cardiovascular adjustment.
Which of the following is NOT true in this context

Options
Rise in central venous pressure
Rise in heart rate
Decrease in cardiac output
Decrease in stroke volume
Explanation

 On immediate standing, there is,

• Decrease in venous return - decrease in cardiac output

• Decrease in stroke volume

• Initial fall in BP which is quickly maintained back to normal - This is because fall in BP leads to
baroreflex inhibition and medullary sympathetic activation which maintains BP

• We knothat sympathetic activation causes increase in heart rate. So, on immediate standing
there is tachycardia

• BP is the product of cardiac output and total peripheral resistance. In spite of fall in cardiac
output, BP is maintained because of increase in total peripheral resistance

• Decrease in central venous pressure

• Increase in small vein pressure (veins of upper limb and lower limb)

• Decrease in central blood pool

• Central blood pool is the blood stored in heart and lungs (around 400 ml). On immediate
standing, heart and lungs gives out this reservoir blood ( 400 ml) to maintain cardiac output 

Which of the following statements about vasomotor center (VMC) is ture

Options
 Independent of corticohypothalamic inputs
Influenced by baroreceptor signals but not by chemoreceptors
Acts along with the cardiovagal center (CVC) to maintain blood pressure
Essentially silent in sleep
Explanation

Medulla contains sympathetic center(RVLM) and parasympathetic center (cardiovagal center) to

regulate blood pressure 

Baroreceptor reflex, true is

Options
From aortic and carotid body
Causes arterial vasoconstriction when BP falls
Causes decrease in HR when BP increases
Causes increase in HR when BP increases

All are true about baroreceptors, expect

Options
. Stimulated when BP decreases
Afferents are through sino - aortic nerves
Stimulation causes increased vagal discharge
Stimulate nucleus ambiguous
Explanation

 Baroreceptors are stretch receptors. They are stimulated by increase in blood pressure 

Volume receptors are -

Options
Affected by total cardiovascular output
Stimulated by atrial systole and diastole
Stimulated by left ventricular contraction
Stimulated by aortic pressure
Explanation

 Atrial and Pulmonary Artery baroreceptors

• They are also called as lopressure receptors

• They respond to blood pressure changes due to increase in blood volume.

• They are also called as volume sensing receptors 

Bezold-Jarisch reflex response is -

Options
Tachycardia
Bradycardia
Hypertension
 None
Explanation

Bezold-Jarisch reflex

• lntracardiac injections of chemicals like serotonin, veratridine, capsaicin, phenyldiguanide

activates this reflex

• Afferents for this reflex travel through unmyelinated vagal C fiber endings

• The reflex responses are,

• Apnea followed by rapid breathing

• Hypotension

• Bradycardia 

BP is less than 40mm Hg. Which mechanism of regulation is working

Options
Chemoreceptor reflex
Baroreceptor reflex
CNS ischemic reflex
None of the above
Explanation

 Baroreceptors - effective in controlling in BP fall till 60 mm Hg • Chemoreceptors - regulates blood

pressure belo60 mm Hg • CNS Ischemic Response - the "last-ditch stand" mechanism which causes
massive increase in BP whenever MAP falls belo20 mm Hg

Baroreceptor regulate the BP in the range of

Options
50 -80 mm Hg
70 - 150 mm Hg
100 - 200 mm Hg
At all BP levels
Explanation

Baroreceptors regulate BP in the MAP range of 70 - 150 mmHg

Most powerful BP regulator in normal arterial pressure range

Options
Baroreceptors
Carotid body(chemoreceptor)
CNS ischemia
All are same

Major neurotransmitter in afferents in nucleus tractus solitaries to regulate cardiovascular system

Options
Serotoxin
Glutamate
Glycine
Norepinephrine
 10. 10
11. 11
12. 12
13. 13
14. 14

Question (14/14)

EDRF is

Options
N02
NO
Np
. so2
Explanation

Nitric oxide (NO) is also called endothelium-derived relaxing factor (EDRF)

Mechanism of action of Nitric oxide is through

Options
CGMP
cAMP
. Ca++
Tyrosine
Explanation

Nitric oxide acts by increasing the levels of second messenger cGMP

NO is synthesized by

Options
PrevUracil
MarkAspartate
SkipGuanosine

Arginine
Explanation

 Nitric oxide is synthesized from argmme. The enzyme responsible for its synthesis is nitric oxide
synthase (NOS) 

The primary action of Nitric oxide (NO) in the gastrointestinal tract is

Options
Vasodilatation
Vasoconstriction
Gastrointestinal smooth muscle relaxation
Gastrointestinal slow smooth muscle contraction
Explanation

Functions of nitric oxide

• Vasodilation

• Inhibition of platelet aggregation

• vascular remodeling

• Penile erection

• Glutamate release in hippocampus - Has got a role in synaptic plasticity (learning and memory)

• Relaxation of lower esophageal sphincter (LES) defective release of nitric oxide in lower end of
esophagus leads to Achalasia cardia

• GI smooth muscle relaxation 

All are true about nitric oxide except

Options
Acts through cAMP
Helps to regulate vascular tone
Important role in penile erection
Present in low concentration in cigarette smokers
Explanation

 Nitric oxide acts by increasing the levels of second messenger cGMP (not cAMP) 

True regarding endothelin - 1 are all except

Options
Bronchodilation
Vasoconstriction
Decreased GFR
Has inotropic effect
Explanation

Major functions of endothelins

• Vasoconstriction

• Increases heart rate

• Increases myocardial contractility

• Constriction of bronchial smooth muscles

• Constriction of renal mesangial cells (decreases GFR)

• Sodium and water excretion

• Closure of ductus arteriosus at birth

• Migration of myentric plexus ganglion cells towards cola - Mutations in endothelin-1 gene leads
to Hirschsprur disease characterized by congenital absence of ganglia cells in colon (congenital
aganglionosis)
Which of the following causes decreases in BP

Options
Thromboxane A2
Vasopressin
NO
PDF2
Explanation

Nitric oxide is a vasodilator 

Below is the picture of phonocardiogram and chest lead ECG, which of the following marked areas
point to the second heart sound

Options
A
B
C
D
Explanation

Sl
$2
$3
$4
T
0.4 Seconds
Peak of R wave
End ofT wave
Rapid filling phase
End of P wave

A wave in JVP is due to

Options
Atrial contraction
Ventricular contraction
Atrial relaxation
Ventricular relaxation

Reflex responsible for tachycardia during right atrial distension is

Options
Bezold-Jarisch reflex
Bainbridge reflex
Cushing reflex
J reflex
Explanation

Bainbridge reflex or atrial reflex

• This reflex is activated whenever there is increase in venous return to the heart

• The receptors for this reflex are located in both right and left atria

• Afferent of this reflex travel through vagus nerve and the efferent mainly travel through
sympathetic nerves that increase heart rate(Tachycardia) and strength of cardiac contraction

Cellular junctions present in cardiac muscle are all except

Options
Zonula occludens
Fascia adherens
Gap junctions
Macula adherens
Explanation

Cardiac muscle cells are connected by,

• Fascia adherens - it is the structural analog of zonulaadherens

• Gap junctions

• Macula adherens "Zonula ocdudens is the other name for tight junction. It is absent in cardiac
muscle"

A 60-year-old patient, known case of Hypertension for the past 25-year underwent renal artery
doppler which showed narrowing and turbulence in right renal artery. If the diameter oflumen is
reduced by 50%, how much blood flow will be reduced?

Options
l/4th
l/8th
L/16th
L/32nd
Explanation

Poiseuille-Hagen formula is,

• So, according to the above formula, blood flois directly proportional to the fourth power of
radius

• So, if the radius is halved, then blood flodecreases by 2 to the power 4 times which is 16 times

True about carotid sinus

Options
Chemoreceptor
Present in early part of internal carotid artery
Has glomus cells
Barorecptor
Explanation

 Carotid sinus is the baroreceptor and carotid bodies are the chemoreceptors
• Carotid bodies have glomus cells 

Which of the following is responsible for Bezold-Jarish Reflex

Options
Serotonin
Histamine
Prostaglandin
Angiotensin
Explanation

Bezold-Jarisch reflex
• Intracardiac injections of chemicals like serotonin, veratridine, capsaicin, phenylbiguanide
activates this reflex

• Afferents for this reflex travel through unmyelinated vagal C fiber endings

• The reflex responses are,

• Apnea followed by rapid breathing

• Hypotension

• Bradycardia

• Clinical importance ofBezold-Jarisch reflex

• This reflex is responsible for sinus bradycardia seen during myocardial infarction

• This reflex is one of the cause for profound bradycardia and circulatory collapse after spinal
anesthesia
 10. 10
11. 11
12. 12
13. 13
14. 14
15. 15
16. 16
17. 17
18. 18
19. 19
20. 20
21. 21
22. 22
23. 23
24. 24
25. 25
26. 26 (82/82)
Question
27. 27
28.segment
The 28 of the systemic circulation in which each blood vessel has the smallest diameter is:
29. 29
Options
30. 30
31.Aorta
31
32.Arterioles
32
33. 33
Capillaries
34. 34
35.Venules
35
36. 36
The
37.segment
37 of the systemic circulation in which blood flow velocity is highest is:
38. 38
Options
39. 39
40.Aorta
40
41.Arterioles
41
42.Capillaries
42
43.Venules
43
44. 44
45. 45 Law states that:
LaPlace’s
46. 46
Options
47. 47
48.P=T×r
48
49.R=P×T
49
50. 50
51.T=P×r
51
52.T=1/r4
52
Prev
53. 53
In a particular
54.
Mark 54 blood vessel, decreasing radius by one-half does what to the resistance to flow
through
55. 55 this vessel?
Skip
56. 56
Options
57. 57
58.Increase
58 by a factor of 16
59.Increase
59 by a factor of 4
60.Cannot
60 be calculated from this information
61.Decrease
61 by a factor of 4
62. 62
If 63.
right63atrial pressure is held constant at 0 mm Hg and arterial blood pressure is increased from
9064.
mm 64Hg to 108 mm Hg, and if total peripheral (systemic circulation) resistance is held constant,
one65.could
65 calculate that the cardiac output has done what?
66. 66
Options
67. 67
68.Increased
68 by 80%
69.Increased
69 by 60%
70. 70
Increased by 40%
71. 71
72.Increased
72 by 20%
Explanation
73. 73
74. 74
From Ohm’s Law, we knothat ΔP=F×R. In this case, ΔP has increased by 20%, but resistance has not
75. 75
changed. Therefore, the cardiac output (F) must have increased by 20%.
76. 76
  77. 77
78. 78
79. 79
Vasoconstriction in the arterioles of the legs would be expected to
80. 80
81. 81
Options
82.Increase
82 blood pressure
Decrease blood pressure
Decrease blood flow in the legs
Answers “a” and “c” are correct

When measuring blood pressure, you measure two pressures. Which is the higher of the two
pressures?

Options
Systolic pressure
Mean pressure
Diastolic pressure
Pulse pressure

The Bernoulli Principle states that:

Options
Increased pressure increases velocity
Increased velocity decreases pressure
Decreased pressure decreases velocity
Decreased velocity decreases pressure

Find the statement about turbulence that is false:

Options
Turbulent flow is noisy
Laminar flow is not turbulent
Turbulent flow is less efficient than laminar flow
Most of the flow in the cardiovascular system is turbulent

Increases in which of the following variables tend to decrease resistance to blood flow?
Options
Radius of the blood vessel
Viscosity of the blood
Length of the blood vessel
Blood hematocrit

Increases in which of the following variables would be expected decrease venous return?

Options
Cardiac output
Sympathetic nervous system tone
Blood volume
Venous resistance

Mean circulatory filling pressure is determined by:

Options
Blood volume
Heart rate
Venous return
Cardiac output
Explanation

MCF is P when no flow 

When comparing the standing position to the supine position:

Options
Blood in the arteries of the toes flows backwards to the heart
Blood in the arteries of the toes has a higher pressure than in the aorta
Blood in the veins of the toes has a higher pressure than blood in the arteries of the toes
Blood tends to pool in the veins of the head and neck

A “positive inotrope” is:

Options
Anything that increases vascular constriction
Anything that increases blood volume
Anything that increases hematocrit
An agent that increases cardiac contractility

Transfusion:

Options
Increases cardiac output
Increases venous return
Increases mean circulatory filling pressure
All of the above

The name of the shunt that allows blood to flow from pulmonary artery to aorta is called the:
Options
Ductus venosus
Umbilical vein
Foramen ovale
Ductus arteriosus

Among the stated fetal blood vessels, the partial pressure of oxygen is highest in:

Options
Femoral (leg) artery
Carotid (head) artery
Umbilical artery
Umbilical vein

The compliance of the lungs is highest in the:

Options
First breath of life
Second breath of life
Third breath of life
Adult life

The right and left ventricles of the fetus:

Options
Pump equal amounts of blood per unit time
Together pump the “combined ventricular output”
Create different pressures in pulmonary artery and aorta
Are actually one cardiac chamber until after birth, when the interventricular septum forms

A red blood cell in the umbilical vein will first encounter which of the following shunts?

Options
Ductus arteriosus
Ductus venosus
Foramen ovale
Adult life

During a muscle contraction which region disappears?

Options
I Band
A Band
Z Disk or Z line
H Zone
Explanation

During muscle contraction the length of the filaments do not change length, only the amount of
overlap between them changes. During a maximal contraction the I band decreases in size and
the H Zone disappears.
Myosin is released from actin during the cross-bridge cycle by the:

Options
Release of Pi
Release of ADP
Acidosis
Binding of ATP
Explanation

It is the binding of ATP that results in movement from the rigor state due to the release of myosin
from actin

The primary role of calcium in skeletal and cardiac muscle is to:

Options
Cause depolarization of the sarcolemma
Remove the inhibition of the reaction between actin and myosin
Provide energy necessary for contraction
Cause muscle relaxation
Explanation

Under resting conditions skeletal muscle contraction is tonically inhibited by preventing myosin
binding to actin, this inhibition is removed following Ca binding to TnC

White muscle fibers

Options
Have characteristically high myoglobin levels
Lack the enzymes necessary for anaerobic metabolism
Are well supplied with capillaries
Fatigue relatively quickly
Explanation

White muscle fibers are characterized by the absence of mitochondria and myoglobin and hence
are white in appearance. The lomitochondrial content renders this type of muscle fiber vulnerable
to fatigue due to the inability to support the oxidative supply of ATP

A muscle is capable of shortening with its maximal velocity when it is:

Options
Shortest length
Longest length
Exposed to B-type natriuretic peptid
Unloaded
Explanation

A muscle is capable of maximal rate of shortening (velocity) under unloaded conditions in which
there is zero resistance

Skeletal and cardiac muscle differ in all of the following except

Options
 Size
T-tuble-SR connections
Mitochondrial content
Possess sarcomeres
Explanation

Both skeletal and cardiac muscles are striated and possess sarcomeres

The latch property of smooth muscle refers to the ability of the smooth muscle to maintain

Options
Entirely relaxed state independent of free Ca++ levels
Maintaining force production while decreasing the rate of energy utilization
The rate of ATP production after stimulation
Force in the absence of myosin light-chain phosphorylation
Explanation

The “latch” state is an unique property of smooth muscle is which muscle tone can be maintained
while ATP utilization is decreasing

Duchenne Muscular dystrophy affects:

Options
Young Girls
Postmenopausal women
Boys
In active males
Explanation

Duchenne Muscular Dystrophy is an X-linked disease that affects newborn boys

Which of the following will increase stroke volume?

Options
Increased arterial pressure
Reduced activity of cardiac sympathetic nerves
Increased ventricular filling pressure
Low extracellular Ca2+
Explanation

 Increased ventricular filling results in greater stretch of the ventricular muscle and greater force
development (Frank-Starling relationship) and thus a greater stroke volume. All of the other
answers would lead to a reduction of stroke volume by 1) increasing afterload, 2) reducing
contractility, or 3) reducing preload

During the cardiac cycle, which of the following occurs when left ventricular pressure rises above
aortic pressure?

Options
The mitral valve closes
The aortic valve closes
 The mitral valve opens
The aortic valve opens
Explanation

The aortic valve remains closed until left ventricular pressure exceeds aortic pressure, forcing the
one-way valve open. When left ventricular pressure falls beloaortic pressure, the one-way aortic
valve closes. The mitral valve is positioned between the left atrium and left ventricle, and its
opening and closing is regulated by the pressures in the left atrium and the left ventricle. The
pulmonary valve is positioned between the right ventricle and the pulmonary artery

What lead primarily measures forces moving from the head to the feet?

Options
Lead I
AVF
V1
V6

If two successive QRS complexes are 0.8 seconds apart:

Options
Heart rate is 48 bpm
Heart rate is 60 bpm
Heart rate is 75 bpm
Heart rate is 80 bpm
Explanation

If QRS complexes are 0.8 seconds apart, then each heartbeat lasts 0.8 seconds. There are 60
seconds in a minute, so (1bt/0.80 sec)(60sec/min) = 75 bpm

If a depolarizing electrical stimulus was applied to a ventricular myocyte, which of the following
would be most likely to occur if extracellular calcium was low (below normal)?

Options
The magnitude of Phase 0 of the action potential would increase
Phase 0 of the action potential would be eliminated
The duration of the plateau phase (Phase 2) of the action potential would increase
The duration of the plateau phase (Phase 2) of the action potential would decrease
Explanation

A and B are not correct because Phase 0 (the upstroke) results from an increase in Na+
permeability, not calcium permeability. C is not correct because membrane repolarization results
from changes in potassium permeability. Loextracellular calcium would reduce (E) rather than
increase the duration of the plateau

Which of the following would be most likely to occur if the AV node was damaged by ischemia?

Options
The ability to intrinsically increase heart rate during stress (such as exercise) would be
impaired
 Conduction of the depolarizing electrical signal from the atria to the ventricles would be
delayed or blocked
Spreading of the depolarizing electrical signal from the septum to the ventr
Cardiac contractility would be impaired
Explanation

The AV node conducts the electrical signal from the SA node and the atria to the septum of the
ventricle. If it is damaged, atrioventricular transmission is blocked or delayed. The ability to
increase heart rate would remain intact, and cardiac contractility would not be affected by AV
node damage

Which of the following relations or laws fundamentally explains why aneurysms burst?

Options
Ohm’s Law
Starling’s Law of the Heart
Pouiseille’s Relation
LaPlace’s Law
Explanation

La Places’s Law, that states that T=Pxr (wall tension is equal to the product of the radius and the
transmural pressure)

Three tubes are arranged in parallel, as shown in the following illustration: The resistance to flow
in tube 1 is 100 mm Hg/(L/min), the resistance to flow in tube 2 is 50 mm Hg/(L/min), and the
resistance to flow in tube 3 is 25 mm Hg/(L/min). The total resistance of these three tubes arranged
in parallel is closest to which of the following choices?

Options
.006 mm Hg/(L/min)
14.3 mm Hg/(L/min)
26.7 mm Hg/(L/min)
58.3 mm Hg/(L/min)

Which of the following, in the absence of changes in other variables, will tend to decrease venous
return?

Options
Increased right atrial pressure
Decreased venous compliance
Increased blood volume
Decreased venous resistance
Explanation

Increasing right atrial pressure increases the pressure to which the blood is flowing (into the
heart at the end of the veins). An increase in pressure at this site decreases the driving pressure
for blood returning to the heart (delta P), so in accordance with Ohm’s Ladecreases the floback to
the heart

Of the following sites within the fetal circulation, which has the highest oxygen saturation?
Options
Umbilical artery
Umbilical vein
Descending aorta
Carotid artery
Explanation

Oxygen enters the fetal circulation through the placenta, so the blood vessel draining blood from
the placental circulation (the umbilical vein) will have the highest oxygen content of all the fetal
blood vessels

In a normal healthy person an increase in cardiac output will decrease:

Options
Venous return
Pulmonary vascular resistance
Pulmonary arterial pressure
Systemic arterial pressure
Explanation

The answer is B. Recruitment and distension cause pulmonary vascular resistance to fall with
increases in cardiac output. Pulmonary arterial pressure, venous return, systemic arterial
pressure and the size of zone 3 would all increase

Which of the following would be the most likely to cause pulmonary edema?

Options
Hemorrhage
Increased oncotic pressure
Reduced capillary permeability
Left heart failure
Explanation

The answer is E. Left heart failure will increase left atrial and therefore pulmonary venous
pressure, which will promote the formation of pulmonary edema. All the other choices would
decrease the likelihood of pulmonary edema

Mean arterial pressure readings over 3 months are between 90 and 100 mmHg for patient X and
between 150 and 160 for patient Y. A rapid decrease in carotid sinus pressure would:

Options
Decrease both sympathetic and parasympathetic nerve activity only in patient X
Increase sympathetic and decrease parasympathetic nerve activity only in patient X
Decrease parasympathetic nerve activity about equally in both patients
Stimulate the chemoreceptor reflex in both patients
Explanation

The answer is C. The arterial baroreceptor reflex resets so it can buffer minute-to-minute changes
in both patients, so A, B and E are incorrect. D is incorrect because an increase in blood pressure
would not stimulate the chemoreflex
Reduced firing of the atrial “B” receptors will:

Options
Inhibit renin secretion
Increase activity in the Nucleus of the Solitary Tract
Increase heart rate
Increase vasopressin (AVP) secretion
Explanation

The answer is D. Reduced blood volume will decrease firing in atrial B receptors. The reflex effects
to increase vasopressin and renin secretion will help to restore blood volume. Decreased atrial B
receptor activity will decrease activity in the Nucleus of the Solitary Tract, but will have little
effect on heart rate

Total spinal anesthesia reduces blood pressure because:

Options
The arterial baroreceptor afferents are not functioning
Vasopressin secretion falls to zero
Parasympathetic nerve activity to the heart is eliminated
Sympathetic nerve activity to the vasculature and heart is eliminated
Explanation

The answer is D. Total spinal anesthesia eliminates communication between the RVLM and the
preganglionic sympathetic neurons in the spinal cord. Since these preganglionic neurons have no
spontaneous activity they are silent without input from the brain. The baroreceptors are still
functioning and the activity in the afferents would increase in response to the fall in pressure

Nitric oxide:

Options
Is generated by endothelial cells
Is freely permeable to cell membranes
Activates cyclic GMP in vascular smooth muscle cells
All of the above
Explanation

The answer is E. Nitric oxide is formed by metabolism of arginine in the endothelium of blood
vessels. It diffuses freely to the underlying vascular smooth muscle, where it stimulates cyclic
GMP, causing activation of mechanisms that lead to smooth muscle relaxation and vasodilation

In peripheral blood vessels, humoral agents:

Options
Stimulate only vasodilation because their action is confined to the endothelium
Stimulate both vasodilation and vasoconstriction depending upon receptor distribution within
vascular cells
Have little effect because they only act only on peripheral tissue, not on vascular cells
Stimulate the same vasoactive response in all organs
Explanation
The answer is B. Many agents, such as endothelin, angiotensin, serotonin, can stimulate
vasodilation through endothelial receptors and release of vasodilatory substances like nitric
oxide. These agents can also stimulate vasoconstriction by activating receptors on the vascular
smooth muscle that increase calcium influx into the cell

Large lipid-insoluble drugs cross the continuous capillary endothelium in the brain by:

Options
Transcytosis
Bulk flow
Diffusion
Intercellular clefts

If hemorrhage causes precapillary resistance arterioles to constrict and capillary hydrostatic

pressure decreases, which of the following is most likely to occur?

Options
Net filtration of fluid from the capillaries will increase
Net absorption of fluid in the capillaries will increase
Net absoprtion of fluid in the capillaries will not change
Capillary diameter will decrease

Isovolumetric contraction of the left ventricle:

Options
Begins when the aortic valve opens and ends when the aortic valve closes
Begins when mitral valve closes and ends when the aortic valve opens
Requires less time (is shorter) than isovolumetric contraction of the right ventricle
Is not influenced by changes in aortic pressure

According to Starling’s Law of the heart, an increase in end diastolic volume:

Options
Results in greater shortening of the ventricular muscle
Increases stroke volume
Is proportional to the increase in the initial length of myocardial fibers in the left ventricle
All of the above

If afterload on the ventricle increases:

Options
Velocity of shortening in the ventricular muscle will increase
Pressure development during isovolumetric contraction will increase
Stroke volume will increase
The pressure at which the aortic valve opens will be lower

If both left ventricular end-diastolic volume and left ventricular end-diastolic pressure increase in
a patient with a failing heart, then left atrial pressure will:

Options
 Increase
Decrease
Not change
All of the above

Ach, released by the Vagus nerve, reduces heart rate by:

Options
Decreasing If ( funny) current
Reducing Ca2+ current
Reducing K+ current causing resting membrane potential to move towards threshold
Both A and B

Repolarization of ventricular myocytes (Phase 3) occurs mainly due to:

Options
Activation of L-type calcium channels
Influx of K+
Efflux of K+
Influx of Na+

Which of the following components of the ECG would be most likely to be altered by an area of
cardiac ischemia that is interfering with ventricular repolarization?

Options
The P-wave
The PR interval
The RR interval
The T wave

If the ECG tracing shows that the QRS is isoelectric in Lead I and the net deflection of the QRS in
aVF is positive, e.g. +2, then the mean electrical axis of the heart must be approximately:

Options
90 degrees
60 degrees
0 degrees
110 degrees

In the tracings below, if the QRS in Lead III is considered to be isoelectric, what is the mean
electrical axis of the heart?

Options
90 degrees
120 degrees
30 degrees
60 degrees

An increase in the R-R interval on the ECG indicates:

Options
An increase in heart rate
A decrease in heart rate
An increase in atrial contraction
A decrease in atrial contraction

What is typically required for contraction of cardiac muscle?

Options
Ca++ influx through voltage-gated Ca++ channels to trigger a rise in cytosolic [Ca++]
Ca++ influx through voltage-gated Ca++ channels, which is sufficient to support contraction
Activation of MLCK
Phosphorylation of myosin heavy chain

What is typically required for relaxation of cardiac muscle?

Options
Myosin light-chain dephosphorylation
Activation of the ryanodine receptor
Ca++ uptake by the SR (sarcoplasmic reticulum)
Phosphorylation of phospholamban

When a pregnant uterus presses on the abdominal vena cava, which of the following occurs?
Make comparisons relative to conditions before the maneuver

Options
Right atrial pressure increases and arterial pressure increases
Right atrial pressure increases and arterial pressure decreases
Right atrial pressure decreases and arterial pressure increases
Right atrial pressure decreases and arterial pressure decreases

An increase in systemic blood pressure from 100 to 120 mm Hg would be expected to have what
effect on the renal circulation of a normal individual?

Options
Increased vascular resistance and little change in blood flow
Increased vascular resistance and modestly decreased blood flow
Decreased vascular resistance and modestly increased blood flow
Decreased vascular resistance and modestly decreased blood flow

In a given patient, mean aortic pressure is 105 mm Hg, right atrial pressure is 5 mm Hg, heart rate
is 75 beats per minute, and stroke volume is 80 ml. The total peripheral resistance in this
individual is closest to:

Options
2 mm Hg per (L/min)
17 mm Hg per (L/min)
6 mm Hg per (L/min)
60 (ml/min) per mm Hg
One resistance vessel in the microvasculature decreases in diameter from 100 to 70. What
happens to the resistance through this vessel?

Options
Decreases by a factor of 4.16
Decreases by a factor of 2.25
Increases by a factor of 0.06
Increases by a factor of 4.16

In a normal individual:

Options
Total blood flow (liters/min) is lower in the capillaries than in the aorta
Blood flow velocity (m/sec) is lower in the capillaries than in the aorta
Blood pressure (mm Hg) is higher in the capillaries than in the aorta
Colloid oncotic pressure (mm Hg) is higher in the capillaries than in the aorta

What are the only two changes which can increase mean circulatory filling pressure?

Options
Increased venous compliance and increased blood volume
Increased venous compliance and decreased blood volume
Decreased venous compliance and increased blood volume
Decreased venous compliance and decreased blood volume

When I lay supine in a warm tub of water, which of the following is true?

Options
Arterial pressure in my toes is higher than arterial pressure in my aorta
Venous pressure in my toes is higher than arterial pressure in my toes
Venous pressure near the right atrium is lower than venous pressure in my toes
Arterial pressure in my brain is higher than arterial pressure in my aorta

What is the value of this individual’s total peripheral resistance?

Options
21 mm Hg per (L/min)
20 mm Hg per (L/min)
19 mm Hg per (L/min)
.0526 (L/min) per mm Hg

Which tissue in the table has the highest resistance to blood flow?

Options
Liver
Kidneys
Brain
Adrenal Glands

Which of the following would be most likely to lead to pulmonary edema?

Options
Decreased plasma protein synthesis (e.g. in liver failure)
Pulmonary vasodilation
Right heart failure
Hemorrhage

When is resistance to pulmonary blood flow the highest?

Options
At total lung capacity
During pulmonary vasodilation
At functional residual capacity
While breathing air at high altitude

Select the order of components involved in the arterial baroreflex response to an increase in
blood pressure:

Options
Baroreceptor afferents, CVLM, NTS, RVLM, parasympathetic efferents to the vasculature
Baroreceptor efferents, RVLM, NTS, CVLM, sympathetic afferents to the vasculature
Baroreceptor afferents, NTS, CVLM, RVLM, sympathetic efferents to the vasculature
Baroreceptor efferents, NTS, CVLM, RVLM, sympathetic afferents to the vasculature

Why is the relationship between blood pressure and heart rate a sigmoid function (select all that
apply)?

Options
Individual baroreceptor afferents have different threshold pressures
Heart rate is controlled by both the sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous systems
There is a maximum total firing rate for all baroreceptor afferents
The caudal ventral lateral medulla has inhibitory neurons

When blood pressure is increased, stimulation of the baroreceptor reflex rapidly (within a
minute) reduces blood pressure because:

Options
Vasopressin secretion is inhibited
Venous capacitance is reduced
Vasopressin secretion is increased
The caudal ventral lateral medulla has inhibitory neurons

A tissue that autoregulates:

Options
Lacks sympathetic innervation
Maintains relatively constant blood flow over a range of perfusion pressures
Does not demonstrate metabolic vasodilation
Has minimal metabolic demands
A decrease in vessel radius from 10 cm to 5 cm increases the resistance to blood flow through that
vessel by:

Options
4 times
2 times
8 times
16 times

If transmural pressure in a blood vessel rises from 4x104 dyn/cm2 to 5x104 dyn/cm2, and the
vessel constricts reducing radius from 100 m to 80 m, wall stress will:

Options
Double
Remain constant
Decrease by half
Decrease by ten-fold

In peripheral blood vessels, humoral agents:

Options
Stimulate only vasodilation because their action is confined to the endothelium
Stimulate both vasodilation and vasoconstriction depending upon receptor distribution within
vascular cells
Have little effect because they only act only on peripheral tissue, not on vascular cells
Stimulate the same vasoactive response in all organs

In most vascular beds, sympathetic nerves elicit vasoconstriction of blood vessels by:

Options
Lowering blood pressure
Release of norepinephrine from post-ganglionic fibers and binding to α-adrenergic receptors
Activation of endothelin binding to ET-B receptors
Activating pain receptors which stimulates release of tissue metabolites

Many humoral agents cause smooth muscle vasoconstriction by:

Options
Increasing influx of extracellular calcium
Reducing influx of extracellular calcium
Increasing influx of extracellular sodium
Blocking phosphorylation of myosin light chain kinase

If capillary hydrostatic pressure is 30 mmHg, capillary osmotic pressure is 25 mm Hg, and

interstitial osmotic pressure is 3 mm Hg, which of the following describes fluid movement across
the wall of the capillary?

Options
No movement occurs
Net filtration
 Net absorption
Movement of fluid occurs only through vesicular transport

Which of the following blood vessels is not surrounded by smooth muscle cells?

Options
Veins
Arteries
Terminal arterioles
Capillaries

During a bout of vigorous exercise, nearly all of the capillaries in contracting skeletal muscle
become perfused with blood. This causes:

Options
An increase in the permeability of oxygen
An increase in the surface area available for exchange of oxygen
An increase in oxygen extraction
Both b and c
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Question (22/22)

Boyle's Law states that

Options
P/T =constant
PV = constant
PV= nRT
V/T= constant
Explanation

 An important law, that governs air movement in lung is Boyle's Law

• Boyle's Law

• States that "at constant temperature, pressure(P) of a gas is inversely related to its volume(V)

• Pain proposnal 1/V 

Which is correcta

Options
PV=nRT
P =VnRT
V=PnRT
PT= nRV
Explanation

Ideal gas lais PV = nRT

• P - pressure of gas, V - volume of gas, n = number of moles of gas, R = ideal gas constant, T =
Prev
temperature 
Mark
What
Skip is charle's law-

Options
PV = constant
PIT = constant
PV = nRT
 None
Explanation

 Charles's lastates that at constant pressure, volume is proportional to the absolute temperature 

Intrapleural pressure is

Options
Transpulmonary pressure + Alveolar pressure
Transpulmonary pressure - Alveolar pressure
Transmural pressure + Alveolar pressure
Alveolar pressure - Transpulmonary pressure
Explanation

Transpulmonary pressure= Intra-alveolar pressure -intrapleural pressure

• So, intrapleural pressure= Alveolar pressure- Transpulmonary pressure 

Pleural pressure at the end of inspiration is

Options
Zero
More negative
Positive
Less negative
Explanation

lntrapleural Pressure

• It is the pressure in the space between lungs and chest wall

• Normal Intrapleural pressure is negative (sub atmospheric) around -2.5 mm Hg at the start of
inspiration

The intrapleural pressure is negative both during inspiration and expiration because

Options
Intrapulmonary pressure is always negative
Thoracic cage and lung are elastic structure
Transpulmonary pressure determines the negativity
Surfactant prevents the lungs to collapse
Explanation
Thoracic cage and lung are elastic structure. They tend to recoil is opposite direction pulling
parietal and visceral pleura apart. This creates a vacuum in between parietal and visceral pleura -
so, the intrapleural pressure is negative 

Intrapleural pressure is negative because

Options
Chest wall and lungs recoil in opposite directions to each other
Transplumonary pressure is negative
intraplumonary pressure is negative
Pulmonary collapse is prevented by surfactants

Negative intrapleural pressure is due to

Options
Uniform distribution of surfactant over alveoli
Negative intra-alveolar pressure
Absorption by lymphatics
Presence of cartilage in the uppr airway
Explanation

Pumping of fluid from the pleural space by the lymphatics is an important causes for negative
Intrapleural pressure 

Pleural pressure positive in

Options
End of inspiration
End of expiration
End of forced expiration
Start or beginning of inspiration
Explanation

 At the end of forced expiration intrapleural pressure is +50 mm Hg 

Normal intrapleural pressure at the state/beginning of inspiration is ..... cm of H20 _

Options
7.5
-5.0
-2
-0.5
Explanation

 At the beginning of normal inspiration intrapleural pressure is-2.5 mmHg 

True about normal expiration

Options
At the end of normal expiration air in lung is ERV
Chest wall has a tendency to move outward which is balanced by inward recoil of alveoli
 In expiration pleural pressure is equal to alveolar pressure
Muscles that elevate the chest cage are classified as muscles of expiration

Normal alveolar ventilation pressure on inspiration is

Options
- 1 cm water
-1 cm Hg
+ 1 cm Water
None
Explanation

Closing capacity breathing are all except

Options
Small sized bronchioles without cartilage in nondependent portion oflung
Small Sized bronchioles without cartilage in dependent portion oflung
Medium sized bronchioles without cartilage in nondependent portion oflung
Medium sized bronchioles without cartilage in dependent portion oflung
Explanation

Closing capacity oflung is related to small Sized bronchioles without cartilage in dependent
portion oflung

• Closing volume - It is the volume of air at which lowermost alveolar airways begins to close
during expiration

• Closing capacity = Residual volume + closing volume 

True about breathing are all except

Options
True about breathing are all except
Compliance depends only on surfactant
Elastic forces
.distensibility
Explanation

 There are two major forces that oppose lung distensibility (Compliance). They are,

• Elastic forces of the lung tissues

• Opposing force caused by surface tension 

A person is having normal lung compliance and increased airway resistance. The most
economical way of breathing for him

Options
Rapid and deep
Rapid and shallow
Slow and deep
Slow and shallow
Explanation

Obstructive lung diseases - characterized by increase in airway resistance. Taking sloand deep
breaths are effective

• Restrictive lung diseases - Taking rapid and shallow breaths are effective

Respiration stops in the last stage of expiration, in forced expiration b/c of

Options
Respiration muscle fatigue
Collapse of alveoli
Dynamic compression of airway
Breaking effect of inspiratory muscle
Explanation

During forced expiration, transpulmonary pressure becomes more negative leading to

compression of smaller airways 

Critical closing volume is

Options
Volume at the end of forceful expiration
Volume at the end of forceful inspiration
Volume remaining after Functional Residual capacity is measured
Close to Residual Volume

Small airway have laminar air flow because

Options
Reynold's number> 2000
Very small diameter
Extremely low velocity
Low cross sectional area
Explanation

Small airways have laminar air flobecause of Extremely lovelocity of airfloin them 

When gases flow through an orifice which factor is least likely to affect turbulence

Options
Density of gas
 Viscosity of gas
Pressure of gas
Diameter of orifice
Explanation

Whether the air flois laminar or turbulent is determined by Reynolds number

Reynolds number = pDV / 11 Where,

• p-Density of the gas

• D-Diameter of the airways

• V -Velocity of gas

• 11 -Viscosity of gas
• Pressure of gas is not in the formula for Reynolds number

Compliance of lungs is

Options
200 ml/cm water
500 ml/cm water
800 ml/cm water
1000 ml/cm water
Explanation

Normal Compliance Values

Compliance of lung   0.2 L/cm water
Compliance of chest wall   0.2 L/cm water
Compliance of lungand chest wall combined   L/cm water

Pulmonary Compliance is decreased in all of the following condition, Except

Options
Pulmonary Congestion
COPD
Decreased surfactant
Pulmonary fibrosis
Explanation

 Conditions causing increase in compliance

• As a part of normal ageing -Compliance oflung increases in old age

• Emphysema (COPD)

• In emphysema there is loss of elastic recoil oflung

• Emphysematouslungiseasyto inflate( overdistension) but because of the loss of elastic recoil,

additional effort must be given to force air out oflung

• Flail chest
• Sternotomy

• Conditions causing decrease in compliance

"Any condition that cause lung stiffness or that opposes

lung expansion always decreases lung compliance"
• Pulmonary fibrosis
• In pulmonary fibrosis, elastic fibers of lung are replaced by stiff collagen fibers
• Consolidation
• Pulmonary edema
• Pneumothorax
• Obesity
• Kyphoscoliosis
• Ankylosing spondylysis

Compliance oflung is a measure of

Options
Elasticity
Amount of air
Blood flow
Presence if fluid
Explanation

 Compliance of lung is a measure of its elasticity 

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Question (21/21)

Volume of air taken in and given out during normal respiration is referred to as

Options
IRV
TV
ERV
Vc
Explanation

Tidal volume is the volume of air inspired or expired with each breath during normal quiet
breathing. It is 500 - 750 ml 

Tidal volume is calculated by

Options
Inspiratory capacity minus the inspiratory reserve volume
Total lung capacity minus the inspiratory reserve volume
Functional residual capacity minus residual volume
Vital capacity minus expiratory reserve volume
Explanation

Inspiratory capacity (IC) =TV+ IRV

• So tidal volume= Inspiratory capacity minus the inspiratory reserve volume 

Vital capacity is sum of

Options
PrevInspiratory reserve volume, Tidal volume and Expiratory reserve volume
MarkTidal volume, Inspiratory reserve volume and Residual volume
SkipExpiratory reserve volume, Inspiratory reserve volume and Residual volume
Residual volume, Inspiratory reserve volume and Expiratory volume
Explanation

Vital capacity (VC) = Inspiratory reserve volume + Tidal volume + Expiratory reserve volume 

Air remaining in lung after normal expiration

Options
TV
RV
FRC
vc
Explanation

 Functional residual capacity is the amount of air remaining in the lungs after a normal tidal
expiration

• It is obtained by adding residual volume + Expiratory reserve volume

• FRC is also called as "Equilibrium volume" or "relaxation volume" because inward elastic recoil
oflung balances with outward recoil of chest wall at Functional residual capacity 

In which of the following conditions the respiratory muscles are relaxed

Options
Residual volume
Functional residual capacity
Expiratory reserve volume
Inspiratory reserve volume

Relaxation volume oflung is documented as

Options
Functional residual capacity
Residual volume
Vital capacity
Closing volume

Residual volume is the volume of air in lung after

Options
Maximal inspiration
Maximal expiration
Normal inspiration
Normal expiration
Explanation

Residual volume (RV) is the volume of air left in lungs after forced expiration

• It is usually around 20 % of total lung capacity (TLC)

Functional residual capacity oflung is defined as

Options
Volume expired after normal expiration
Volume remaining after forced expiration
ERV+ RV
Tidal volume + volume inspired forcefully
Normal vital capacity in an adult is

Options
1200 ml
2500 ml
3000 ml
4700 ml
Explanation

 Normal value of vital capacity is around 4700 ml 

Maximum air volume in the lung

Options
1200 ml
2400 ml
3000 ml
5900 ml
Explanation

 Normal value of total lung capacity is around 5900 ml 

By spirometry, one can measure

Options
Residual volume
FRC
TLC
Tidal volume
Explanation

Lung volumes and capacities that can't be measured by spirometry

• Residual volume (RV)

• Functional residual capacity (FRC)

• Total lung capacity (TLC)

• They are usually measured by,

• Helium dilution technique

• Nitrogen washout technique

• Body plethysmography 

Spirometry can demonstrate and measure all of the following except

Options
Tidal volume
Residual volume
 Vital capacity
Inspiratory reserve capacity

Nitrogen washout method is used to measure the resistance to small airways

Options
Dead space volume
Function residual capacity
Tidal volume
Diffusion capacity

Which of the following is used to measure the resistance to small airways

Options
Vidal capacity
FEVI
Max. mid respiratory flow rates
Closing volume
Explanation

Maximal mid-expiratory flo(MMEF 25_75) • It is the average floduring the middle half of the FVC •
It is effort independent • It is a sensitive marker for detecting early airway obstruction 

A man connected to a body plethysmograph for estimation of FRC inspires against a closed glottis.
Which of the following statements is true -

Options
The pressure in both the lung and the box increase
The pressure in both the lung and the box decrease
The pressure in the lung decrease, but that in the box increase
The pressure in the lung increase, but that in the box decrease
Explanation

• Body plethysmography is based on the principle of Boyle's Lawhich states that volume of a gas is
inversely
proportional to the pressure of that gas at constant temperature

What will occur with increase in alveolar ventilation rate

Options
Decreased partial pressure of 0 2 in alveoli
 Decreased partial pressure of C02 in alveoli
Decreased C02 diffusion from blood to alveoli
Decreased 0 2 diffusion from alveoli to blood
Explanation

Increase in alveolar ventilation washes out C02 - So, there is decreased partial pressure of co2 in
alveoli 

Pulmonary function abnormalities in interstitial lung diseases include all of the following except

Options
Reduced vital Capacity
Reduced FEVl/FVC ratio
Reduced diffusion capacity
Reduced total lung capacity
Explanation

• Normally, the FEV/FVC ratio is greater than 0.7

In upper airway obstruction all of the following changes are seen except

Options
Decreased maximum breathing capacity
RV decreased
Decreased FEV
Decreased Vital capacity
Explanation

 Increase in residual volume denotes "air trapping" which is classically seen in obstructive lung
diseases 

Regarding pulmonary function test all are TRUE, EXCEPT

Options
Total lung volume increases in emphysema
Compliance decreases in interstitial lung disease
Compliance is total lung distensibility
FEVl is forced expiratory rate at one minute
Explanation
FEVl is forced expiratory rate in 1st second

Total lung capacity depends upon

Options
Size of airway
Closing volume
Lung compliance
Residual volume
Explanation

 Lungs are elastic structures. Its ability to expand (stretchability) is quantified in terms of
compliance. So, Total lung capacity depends on the stretchability oflung 

Hyaline membrane disease of lungs is by

Options
FRC is smaller than closing volume
FRC is greater than closing volume
FRC is equal to closing volume
FRC is independent to closing volume
Explanation

Loss of functional residual capacity (FRC) occurs in hyaline membrane disease for the following
reasons,

• Deficiency of surfactant

• Displacement of lung gas volume by edema, vascular congestion

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Question (12/12)

Pulmonary circulation differs from systemic circulation

Options
Pulmonary vasodilation in hypoxia
Pulmonary Vasoconstriction in hypoxia
Decreased blood volume during systole
Increased basal vasoconstrictor tone
Explanation

 Most important regulatory factor for pulmonary circulation is hypoxia (reduced Po2)

• Hypoxia causes pulmonary vasoconstriction. This effect is different in systemic circulation

where hypoxia causes vasodilation 

Total alveolar ventilation volume (in LI min) is

Options
LS
3.5
4.2
5
Explanation

 Alveolar ventilation is 4.2 L/min

• Alveolar ventilation = respiratory rate * (tidal volume dead space) = 12 (500 - 150) = 4.2L/min 

Calculate the Alveolar ventilation per minute of a patient with respiratory rate 14/min, tidal
vol.500ml with a vital capacity 7000ml
Prev
Mark
Options
Skip4900 ml

2000 ml
7700 ml
7000 ml
Explanation

 Alveolar ventilation = respiratory rate * (tidal volume dead space) = 14 (500 - 150) = 4900ml/min 

Maximum voluntary ventilation is

Options
25 LI min
50 LI min
100 LI min
150 LI min
Explanation

Maximum Voluntary Ventilation (MVV}

• MVV is the largest volume of air an individual breath in and out of the lungs in 1 minute

• It is usually measured for 10 - 15 seconds and extrapolated for 1 minute

• Normal MVV is 120 - 170 L/min

Respiratory minute volume of lung is

Options
6L
4L
500 mL
125 L
Explanation

Minute Ventilation
• Also called as pulmonary ventilation

• It is the volume of air inspired or expired per minute

• It is equal to the tidal volume (TV) multiplied by respiratory rate (RR)

• Minute ventilation = TV x RR

• Normal minute ventilation is 6- 7.5 L/min

Least amount of co2 is in

Options
Anatomical dead space-end inspiration phase
Anatomical dead space-end expiration phase
Alveoli-end inspiration phase
Alveoli-end expiration phase
Explanation

 Anatomical dead space containing atmospheric air at the end of inspiration will have the least
amount of co2 because atmospheric air has negligible co2

• Anatomical dead space-end expiration phase: Here alveolar gas rich in C02 occupies the
Anatomical dead space dead space area • Alveolar air contains a mixture of 0 2 from the inspired
air and co2 which is continuously added to it to exhale out 

Mouth-to-mouth respiration provides an concentration of

Options
16%
20%
22%
24
Explanation
Mouth-to-mouth respiration provides an oxygen concentration of 16% 

Arterial carbon dioxide level

Options
40mm Hg
37mm Hg
45mm Hg
. 60mm Hg
Explanation

Difference in the amount of 0 2 inspired and C02 expired

Options
20ml/min
50 ml/min
75ml/min
100 ml/min
Explanation

Amount of 0 2 consumed = 250 ml/min

• Amount of C0 2 produced = 200 ml/min

• So, the difference is 50 ml/min 

Regarding Dead space volume in a normal individual

Options
Anatomical dead space > Physiological Dead space
Anatomical dead space = Physiological Dead space
Anatomical dead space < Physiological Dead space
Anatomical dead space is not related to Physiological Dead space
Explanation

In healthy individuals, Physiologic dead space roughly equals anatomic dead space 

Physiological dead space is calculated by

Options
Boyle's law
Dalton's law
 Bohr equation
Charles's law
Explanation

Physiologic dead space is measured with the help of an equation termed Bohr's equation
Bohr's Equation
V0 =VTxPAco2 -PEco2/PAco2

• Here in this equation,

• V 0 is the dead space ventilation
• VT is the tidal volume
• PEco2 is the partial pressure of C02 in mixed expired air
• PAco2 is the alveolar Paco2

How will you calculate that how much inspired air actually ventilates the alveoli

Options
Single breath N2 method
Dalton's law
Bohr equation
Boyle's law
Explanation

 The technique useful for measuring anatomic dead space is single-breath Nitrogen method

• This method is also called Fowler's method 

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Question (8/8)

Pulmonary Vasoconstriction is caused by

Options
Hypoxia
Thromboxane A2
Histamine
Angiotensin - II
Explanation

• So, all the options are causes of pulmonary vasoconstriction. The single best answer if hypoxia

During heavy exercise the cardiac output (CO) increases up to five fold while pulmonary arterial
pressure
Prev rises very little. This physiological ability of the pulmonary circulation is best explained
by
Mark
Skip
Options
Increase in the number of open capillaries
Sympathetically mediated greater distensibility of pulmonary vessels
Large amount of smooth muscle in pulmonary arterioles
Smaller surface area of pulmonary circulation
Explanation

 Pulmonary circulation accommodates the increase in cardiac output by opening of necapillaries

which are previously 

under perfused. This phenomenon is called "recruitment of capillaries" 

All of the following statements about bronchial circulation are true, Except

Options
Contribute 2% of systemic circulation
Contribute to gaseous exchange
Cause venous admixing of blood
Provide nutritive function oflung
Explanation

Bronchial circulation supplies oxygenated blood to the lungs through bronchial arteries

• Bronchial circulation constitutes about 2% of the cardiac output

• Bronchial arteries supply lung till the level of terminal bronchioles

• Bronchial circulation doesn't contribute to gaseous exchange 

During standing, In apex of lung-

Options
Blood flow is high
Ventilation is high
V/Q is high
V/Q is low
Explanation

Ventilation and perfusion are more in the base of lung than at the apex oflung

• But the fall in perfusion is more at the apex than ventilation at the apex oflung

• So, the V/ratio is more at apex oflung 

Mismatch of ventilation/perfusion ratio is seen is

Options
Apex
Base
Both
None
Explanation

 Both in apical and basal regions of lung, there is mismatch in ventilation and perfusion 

True statement regarding pulmonary ventilation isa

Options
Pa02 is maximum at the apex
V /Q is maximum at the base
Ventilation per unit lung volume is maximum at the apex
Blood circulation is minimum at base
Explanation

 Pa02 is maximum at the apex

• High P02 of the apical regions of lung favors the growth of mycobacterium tuberculosis (Puhl's
Lesion)

Ventilation perfusion ratio is maximum at

Options
 Apex oflung
Base oflung
Posterior lobe oflung
Middle of the lung

Pa01 is maximum

Options
Base of lung
Posterior lobe
Apex of lung
Middle lobe
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Question (7/7)
Transport of carbon monoxide (CO) is diffusion limited because

Options
High affinity of CO for hemoglobin
Alveolar membrane is less permeable CO
CO crosses epithelial barrier slowly
ON exposure to air there is sudden increase in partial pressure
Explanation

 The affinity of carbon monoxide for hemoglobin is about 210 times more than that of oxygen for
hemoglobin 

Oxygen comes from alveoli to blood by

Options
Diffusion
Receptor mediated
Active transport
Osmosis
Explanation

Diffusion means movement of molecules from area of high concentration to area

ofloconcentration

• Gas exchange in lungs happens in the form of diffusion in lungs 

C02 diffuses more easily through the respiratory membrane than 02 because it

Options
Prev
Less dense
Mark
More soluble in plasma
Skip
Less molecular weight
Less PC02 in the alveoli
Explanation

The diffusion coefficient of C02 is about 20 times that of Or So, C02 diffuses much faster and easily
than 02 

Gas used to measure the diffusion capacity of lung

Options
CO
NO
C02
Nitrogen
Explanation

In clinical practice, carbon monoxide is the gas of choice for measuring diffusion capacity because
it is the diffusion limited gas

• The procedure is called diffusing capacity of the lung for carbon monoxide or DLCO 
Normal diffusion of C02 at resta

Options
20-25ml/min/mm Hg
50-lOOml/min/ mm Hg
100-200ml/min/ mm Hg
300-400ml/min/ mm Hg
Explanation

Normal value ofDLCO is 25 mL/min/mm Hg

• Diffusion coefficient of 0 2 is about 1.23 times that of CO

• So, Diffusing capacity for oxygen is 25 * 1.23 = 30 mL/min/ mmHg

• Diffusion capacity ofC02 is 400 ml/min/mm Hg 

DLCO is decreased in all except

Options
Pulmonary vascular disease
Emphysema
ILD
Polycythemia
Explanation

 DLCO is increased in polycythemia 

Oxygen carrying capacity of blood is largely determined by

Options
Hb level
Amount of CC2 in blood
Acidosis
Plasma concentration
Explanation

Oxygen is transported in blood in two forms. They are,

• Dissolved form (3%)

• Combined with hemoglobin (97%) 

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Question (36/36)
30. 30
31.intern
One 31 calculated the concentration of 02 in blood as 0.0025ml/ml blood. Considering
32. 32
atmospheric pressure of 760 mm Hg, how much approximate oxygen tension could have been in
33. 33
the blood?
34. 34
35. 35
Options
36.4036mm Hg
60 mm Hg
80 mm Hg
100 mm Hg
Explanation

 Amount of dissolved 02 in 100 ml of blood= 0.0003 * Pa02

• Remember that normal arterial blood at P02 of100 mm Hg contains 0.3 ml 0/100 ml of blood

• 0.0025ml O/ml blood for 100 ml of blood will become 0.25 mlopooml

• 100 mm Hg= 0.3 ml 0/100 ml

• X=0.25ml0/100ml

• So, X = 0.25 * 100/0.3 = 83 mm Hg 

Basic function of hemoglobin is-

Options
Increased 02 delivery in lung and uptake at tissue
Increased 02 delivery at tissue and uptake at lung
Increased C02 delivery at tissue and uptake in lung
PrevNone of the above
Mark
Explanation
Hemoglobin
Skip is the oxygen carrier protein

• It takes up oxygen from lungs and deliver it to tissues 

Percentage of 02 carried in chemical combination

Options
97%
3%
66%
33%

Col primarily transported in the arterial blood as

Options
Dissolved C02
Carbonic Add
Carbamino-hemoglobin
Bicarbonate
Explanation

 Co2 is transported as,

• As bicarbonate form (70% - the major form of Co2 transport) 

• As carbamino compound form bound with hemoglobin (23%)

• In dissolved form (7%)

Venous blood with high hematocrit is seen in

Options
RBC high chloride
Plasma high Na
Plasma high HC03
RBChigh K
Explanation

 Chloride Shift

• Also called as Hamburger phenomenon

• The channel responsible for chloride shift is called as anion exchanger 1 (AE 1). It is also called
as Band 3 protein present in RBC membrane

• HC03- leaves the RBCs in exchange for Cl- (chloride shift) and is transported to the lungs in the
plasma

• Cl- ion is an osmotically active particle that drags water along with it into the RBCs

• Since RBCs take up water, it increases in size. This is the reason why hematocrit of venous blood
is normally 3% greater than that of arterial blood
• In lungs, chloride shift happen in opposite direction leading to shrinkage of RBCs 

Chloride shift is due to

Options
Generation ofHC03- in RBCs
Metabolism of glucose in RBCs
Formation of 0 2 -Hb complex in RBCs
Release ofK+ in RBCs

02 delivery to tissues depends on all/except

Options
Cardiac output
Type of fluid administered
Hemoglobin concentration
Affinity of hemoglobin for 02

What will be hemoglobin saturation, if P02 is 60mm Hg at pH 7.4 and temperature 37

Options
50%
60%
75%
90%
Explanation

• In the above pie, P02 of 60 % correspond to Hb saturation of90%

02 delivery to tissues is decreased by-

Options
Secreased Hemoglobin level
 Deceased pa02
Increased paC02
Increased HC03
Explanation

 Remember, right shift of ODC means more oxygen delivery to tissue

• Left shift of ODC means less oxygen delivery to tissue

• So, this question is about left shift of ODC

• Option A - Decreased hb (anemia) - causes right shift

• Option B - Hypoxia - causes right shift 

Option C - Increased PaC02 (Hypercarbia) - causes right shift

• Option D - increased HC03 - alkalosis - causes left shift

• Option E - increased pH - alkalosis - causes left shift 

Fetal hemoglobin has more affinity for oxygen than adult hemoglobin because

Options
Decreased 2, 3 DPG concentration
Low affinity for 2, 3 DPG
Increase 2, 3 DPG concentration
Reduced pH
Explanation

 Two gamma chains present in HbF has less affinity for 2, 3-DPG when compared to the beta (p)
chains ofHbA 

2, 3 DPG is decreased in

Options
Anemia
Acidosis
High altitude
Exercise
Explanation

 Most important factors that decreases the 2,3-DPG concentration is

• Acidosis(loPH) because acidosis inhibits glycolysis

• Stored blood (acid citrated buffer used for storage inhibits glycolysis) 

Oxygen affinity is increased by all of the following except

Options
Alkalosis
Hypoxia
 Increased HbF
Hypothermia
Explanation

Decreased affinity of oxygen - right shift ofODC

• Increased affinity of oxygen - left shift of ODC

• This question is about Increased affinity of oxygen - left shiftofODC

ODC - shift to right

• Means there is decreased affinity of oxygen to hemoglobin leading to release of oxygen
(unloading of oxygen)

• Means a higher value of P02 is required for hemoglobin to bind a given amount of 02

• Shift to right commonly occurs in tissues where unloading of oxygen is very vital

• Causes of right shift of Oxygen-hemoglobin dissociation curve

• Hypoxia • Increase in PC02

• Decrease in pH of blood (Acidosis)

• Increase in the temperature

• Increase in 2,3-diphosphoglycerate (2,3-DPG)

• High altitude

• Exercise

ODC - shift to left

• Means there is increased affinity of oxygen to hemoglobin leading to loading of oxygen

• Shift to left commonly occurs in lungs where loading of oxygen occurs

• Left shift simply means that at same P02, there is more uptake of oxygen

• Causes of left shift of Oxygen-hemoglobin dissociation curve are,

• Decreased pC02 of blood

• Increased pH of blood (alkalosis)

• Decreased temperature

• Fetal hemoglobin

• Methemoglobin (Iron in ferric form

The factor responsible for the left shift of Hb-0 2 dissociation curve is

Options
 Increase in 2,3 DPG in RBC
Fall in temperature
Fall in pH
Increase level of C02 blood

All of the following factors influence hemoglobin dissociation curve, except

Options
Chloride ion concentration
co2 tension
Temperature
2-3 DPG levels

02 dissociation curve is shifted to right in all except

Options
Hypercapnea
Rise in temperature
Raised 2,3 DPG level
Metabolic alkalosis

Which of these is not a cause of rightward shift of OxygenHemoglobin dissociation curve?

Options
Increased hydrogen ions
Decreased C02
Increased temperature
Increased BPG

Oxygen dissociation curve shifts to right in all except

Options
Diabetic ketoacidosis
Blood transfusion
High altitude
Anemia
Explanation

Most important factors that decreases the 2,3-DPG concentration is

• Acidosis(loPH) because acidosis inhibits glycolysis

• Stored blood (acid citrated buffer used for storage inhibits glycolysis)

• So, blood transfusion of stored blood causes left shift of ODC because of decreased 2,3-DPG
concentration 

During exercise increase in 02 delivery to muscles is because of all except-

Options
Oxygen dissociation curve shift to left
 Increased stroke volume
Increased extraction of oxygen from the blood
Increased blood flow to muscle

False about the 0 2 dissociation curve

Options
Sigmoid curve
Combination of the first heme in the Hb molecule with 0 2 increases the affinity of the second
heme for 0 2
Increases in pH shift curve to right
Fall in temperature shift curve to left

True regarding conversion of deoxyhemoglobin to oxyhemoglobin is-

Options
Binding of02 causes release ofH
One mole of deoxyhemoglobin binds two moles of 2, 3 DPG
pH of blood has no effect on the binding of 0 2
Binding of02 cause increased Binding of2, 3 DPG

2,3 DPG binds to site of Hb and release of 02

Options
One, increase
Four, increase
One, decrease
Four, decrease
Explanation

 2,3-BPG is is produced by RBCs during their normal glycolysis

• One mole of deoxyhemoglobin binds 1 mol of 2,3-DPG. This increases the release of oxygen 

Decreased glycolytic activity impairs oxygen transport by hemoglobin due to-

Options
Reduced energy production
Decreased production of2-3 bisphosphoglycerate
Reduced synthesis of hemoglobin
Low levels of oxygen

Increase in PSO in oxygenation curve is due to decrease in

Options
pH
Oxygen
Temperature
Co2
Explanation
 P50 - is the partial pressure of oxygen at which hemoglobin saturation with oxygen is 50%.

• The value of P50 is around 25 - 27 mm Hg

• Hemoglobin affinity for 02 is inversely related to the P50

• If the oxyhemoglobin dissociation curve is shifted to the right, the P50 increases

• Decrease in pH (acidosis) causes right shift of ODC. So, the answer is pH 

In hyperventilation

Options
PSO and Hb affinity for 0 2 increases
PSO and Hb affinity for 0 2 decreases
PSO increases and 0 2 affinity decreases
PSO decreases and 0 2 affinity increases e
Explanation

 Hyperventilation causes decrease in PC02 and left shift of ODC 

 If the oxyhemoglobin dissociation curve is shifted to the left, the P 50 decreases

• Left shift means there is increased affinity of oxygen to hemoglobin 

Haldane effect

Options
Effect of2, 3-BPG
Dissociation of C02 on oxygenation
Dissociation of C02 on addition of C02
Chloride shift
Explanation

Haldane effect states that "when oxygen binds with hemoglobin, carbon dioxide is released at
lungs and when oxygen is released from hemoglobin, carbon dioxide is loaded at tissues" 

Increase oxygen delivery to tissues in response to increased C02 is-

Options
Bohr effect
Haldane Effect
Hamburger effect
Chloride shift
Explanation

The decrease in 02 affinity of hemoglobin when pH of blood falls (PC02 rises) is called the Bohr
effect. This leads to release of oxygen at tissues 

Bohr Effect is?

Options
Facilitates oxygen transport
 Facilitates co2 transport
Facilitates Chloride transport
None

In presence of Haldane effect, C02 uptake is 2 m1J lOOml of blood in arteries, what will be co2
uptake in absence of Haldane effect in veinsa

Options
2 ml/ 100 ml of blood
4 ml/ 100 ml of blood
6 ml/ 100 ml of blood
8 ml/ 100 ml of blood
Explanation

This picture is carbon dioxide dissociation curve

• At Po2 100 mm Hg and Pco2 45 mm Hg, C02 content in blood changes from 48 ml/di to 50 ml/dl

• At Po2 40 mm Hg and Pco2 45 mm Hg, C02 content in blood changes from 48 ml/dl to 52 ml/dl

• The amount of Co2 taken up at tissues is doubled (Point B to Point A) due to Haldane effect

• In the absence of Haldane effect, C02 content in blood changes from 48 ml/di to 50 ml/dl
(difference is 2ml/dl) 

Hemoglobin unlike myoglobin shows

Options
Sigmoid curve of oxygen dissociation
Positive cooperativity
Hills coefficient of one
None of above

Plateau of oxygen-hemoglobin dissociation curve is signifies-

Options
 No oxygen is available for binding to Hb
No Hb molecule is available to bind with 02
All oxygen is released to tissues
None of the above

The oxygen dissociation curve of myoglobin and hemoglobin is different due to

Options
Hb can bind to 2 oxygen molecules
Cooperative binding in Hb
Myoglobin has little oxygen affinity
0.2

True about 02 Binding to myoglobin

Options
Sigmoid shaped curve
More affinity than hemoglobin
Binds 4 molecule of02 to Myoglobin
PSO is 26 mmHg
Explanation

 Myoglobin is the iron-containing pigment that stores oxygen mainly present in skeletal muscle

• Each molecule of myoglobin can bind with only one molecule of oxygen

• myoglobin binds with oxygen with increased affinity leading to loading of oxygen (left shift) 

Which of the following does not occur as the blood passes through systemic capillaries?

Options
Increased protein content
Shift of hemoglobin dissociation curve to left
Increased hematocrit
Decreased pH
Explanation

Blood reaching systemic capillaries delivers oxygen to the tissues - Right shift

The normal value of P50 on the oxyhaemoglobin dissociation curve in an adult is-

Options
1.8 kPa
2.7 kPa
3.6 kPa
4.5 kPa
Explanation

1 kPa = 7.5 mm Hg

• The value of P50 is around 25 - 27 mm Hg which corresponds to 3.6 kPa 

Pacemaker regulating the rate of respiration

Options
Pneumotaxic centre
Dorsal group of nucleus
Apneustic centre
Pre-Botzinger complex
Explanation

Pre-Botzinger Complex - "The pacemakers of respiration"

• Initiates the respiratory rhythm

• This complex contains six group of neurons that functions as "central pattern generator" for
initiation of respiration

• Located in the ventrolateral medulla

• Rhythmically drives the discharge of phrenic motor neurons that innervate diaphragm

Which of the following are inactive during normal respiration

Options
Pre-Botzinger complex
Dorsal group of neurons
Ventral VRG group of neurons
Pneumotaxic centre
Explanation

• At rest, expiration is a passive process

• Ventral VRG group of neurons controls expiration. So, they are inactive during normal
respiration 
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Question (14/14)

Transection at mid pons level results in-

Options
Asphyxia
Hyperventilation
Rapid and shallow breathing
Apneusis
Explanation

 In Mid pontine transection - pneumotaxic center separated from apneustic center

• If vagus is intact - Breathing becomes slow, deep

• If vagus is cut - Inspiration is markedly prolonged. This breathing pattern is called apneusis or
inspiratory spasm 

Damage to Pneumotaxic centre produces

Options
Deep and fast respiration
Deep and slow respiration
Shallow and fast respiration
Shallow and slow respiration

What will be the effect on respiration if a transmission is made between the pons and medulla

Options
Apnoea
PrevIrregular and gasping
MarkNo effect
SkipSlow and deep
Explanation

 Lesion between pons and medulla - Irregular respiration is seen 

If a cat apneustic center is destroyed along with cutting of vagi. Which of the following statement
is correct regarding the breathing pattern seen in cat?

Options
Prolonged inspiratory spasm
Prolonged expiratory spasm
Slow and shallow respiration
Animal will die
Depth of inspiration controlled by

Options
Pneumotaxic center
Posterior medulla
Apneustic center
Pons
Explanation

 Pneumotaxic center limits inspiration by inhibiting apneustic center 

Inflation of lungs induces further inflation is explained by-

Options
Hering- Breuer inflation reflex
Hering- Breuer deflation reflex
Head's paradoxical reflex
J-reflex
Explanation

Hering-Breuer inflation reflex

• This reflex is atypical negative feedback reflex where "overinflation of lung inhibits further lung
inflation"

• The paradoxical reflex of head

• This reflex is paradoxical to Hering-Breuer inflation reflex where inflation of lungs causes
further inflation

• This reflex might me the cause for lung inflation in newborn immediately after birth when the
newborn takes the first breath 

J receptors are found in which of the following

Options
Pulmonary interstitium
Alveolar capillaries
Terminal bronchiole
Respiratory muscles
Explanation

J receptors were discovered by an Indian physiologist A. S. Paintal

• These receptors are located very close to the pulmonary capillaries (Juxtapulmonary receptors)
in pulmonary interstitium

Not a stimulus for normal/resting ventilation?

Options
Stretch receptors
 J receptors
P02
PC02
Explanation

 J receptors are activated by,

• Pulmonary congestion

• increases in the interstitial fluid volume of alveolar wall

• hyperinflation of the lung

• intravenous injection of chemicals like capsaicin

• So, J receptors are not a stimulus for normal respiration 

Moderate exercise tachypnea is due to stimulation of which receptor

Options
Proprioception
J receptors
Lung receptors
Baro receptors
Explanation

 Increase in respiratory rate occurs abruptly at the start of exercise termed as Exercise
hyperpnoea. Cause for this exercise hyperpnoea are,

• Psychic stimuli Afferent impulses from proprioceptors in muscles, tendons, and joints 

Hyperinflation of lungs is prevented by-

Options
Hering Breuer reflex
Irritation reflex
Cushing reflex
Bainbridge reflex
Explanation

Role of Hering-Breuer inflation reflex

• Protective reflex - It prevents overdistension of lung alveoli at larger tidal volumes

• The threshold for this reflex falls within the normal tidal volume only in Infants. So, this reflex
influences tidal volume and respiratory rate only in infants 

Hering Breuer reflex is an increase ina

Options
Duration of inspiration
Duration of expiration
Depth of inspiration
 Depth of expiration
Explanation

Hering-Breuer inflation reflex response consists of,

• Slowing of respiratory frequency

• Increase in duration of expiration

• Bronchodilation

• Increased heart rate

• Slight vasoconstriction 

Glomus cells are found in

Options
Bladder
Brain
Chemoreceptors
Kidney
Explanation

Peripheral chemoreceptors are located in carotid bodies and aortic bodies

• They have two types of cells namely,

• Type I cells or Glomus cells

• Type II cells 

The primary direct stimulus for excitation of central Chemoreceptors regulating ventilation is

Options
Increased H+
Increased C02
Increased 0 2
Decreased C02
Explanation

Central chemoreceptors are mainly stimulated by H+ ions 

Central Chemoreceptors are most sensitive to following changes in blood

Options
TPC02
Increase PC02
Increase H+
Increase P02
Explanation

Central chemoreceptors are present in the brain

• They are more sensitive to increases in arterial Pco2 but not P02 of blood 
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Question (13/13)

Central Chemoreceptors are stimulated by-

Options
Decrease in P02
Decrease in pH of CSF
Hypoxia
Increase in pH of CSF
Explanation

The C0 2 level in blood regulates ventilation chiefly by its effect on the pH of the CSF 

Hypercapnea acts on ventilation through

Options
Apneustic center
Chemoreceptors in wall of 4th ventricle
Type- 1 glomus cells in carotid body
Type- 2 glomus cells in carotid body
Explanation

Peripheral chemoreceptors are more sensitive to hypoxia (reduced P02)

• Central chemoreceptors are more sensitive to hypercarbia (increased PC02)

• Central chemoreceptors are located in the floor of the fourth ventricle

Sensitivity of central chemoreceptor in COPD

Options
PrevDecreased to H+
Mark
Increased to H+
Skip
Increased to PC02
Increased to P02
Explanation

COPD is characterized by hypercapnia (increased PCO) and hypoxia

• Such increased PC02 makes CSP acidotic

• Chemoreceptors lose their sensitivity to (H+) when CSP pH becomes acidotic

• So, in COPD, only way to increase ventilation is by hypoxic stimulation of peripheral

chemoreceptors. This phenomenon is termed as "Hypoxic drive''

• Administration of oxygen to COPD patients at times worsens hypercapnia by abolishing this

hypoxic drive 
Which of following Chemoreceptors does NOT stimulate peripheral

Options
Hypoxia
Hypocapnia
Acidosis
Low perfusion pressure
Explanation

 Peripheral chemoreceptors are mainly stimulated by,

• Hypoxia (decrease in Po2) - carotid bodies firing rises rapidly when Po2 falls belo100 mmHg

• Rise in the Pco2

• Fall in pH (acidosis)

• Cyanide

• Chemicals like nicotine, lobeline

• Dinitrophenol

• Increase in plasma K+ levels (play a role in exercise induced hyperpnea)

Peripheral Chemoreceptors are most sensitive to

Options
PC02
Na+
H+
HC03
Explanation

 Peripheral chemoreceptors are more sensitive to hypoxia (reduced P02)

• Central chemoreceptors are more sensitive to hypercarbia (increased PCO) 

Carotid and aortic bodies are stimulated when

Options
Oxygen saturation decreases below 90%
Oxygen saturation decreases below 80%
Oxygen saturation decreases below 70%
Oxygen saturation decreases below 60
Explanation

Threshold for peripheral chemoreceptor activation is Oxygen saturation below 60% 

Peripheral and central Chemoreceptors may both contribute to increased ventilation that occurs
as a result of increased

Options
 Arterial BP
Arterial tension
Arterial 0 2 concentration
H+
Explanation

 Peripheral and central chemoreceptors can be stimulated by increase in H+ 

True about carotid receptors

Options
Most potent stimulus is high PC02
Dopamine is neurotransmitter
Low blood flow
Afferent through vagus nerve
Explanation

Mechanism of peripheral chemoreceptor stimulation

• Whenever there is loPo2 (hypoxia), 02-sensitive K+ channels in glomus cells close

• Accumulation of K+ inside the glomus cells leads to a state of depolarization 

C02 increases ventilation by acting mainly on receptors of

Options
Apneustic centre
Pneumotaxic centre
Ventral surface of medulla
DPG
Explanation

 The locations where central chemoreceptors are present are,

• Ventral surface of medulla

• Nucleus of tractus solitarius

• Locus ceruleus

• Hypothalamus 

Administration of pure 02 to hypoxic patients is dangerous because-

Options
Apnea occurs due to hypostimulation of Peripheral Chemoreceptors
Pulmonary edema
DPG
Convulsions

Hypoxia due to slowing of circulation is

Options
Anemic
Histotoxic
Stagnant
None
Explanation

Stagnant hypoxia is also called as ischemic hypoxia or circulatory hypoxia or Hypoperfusion

hypoxia

• Commonly seen in congestive cardiac failure and circulatory shock 

Stagnant hypoxia is seen in

Options
COPD
Anemia
CO poisoning
Shock

Arterial 02 content is reduced in one of the following

Options
Stagnant hypoxia
Anemic hypoxia
Histotoxic hypoxia
Ischemic hypoxia
Explanation

Characterized by reduction in hemoglobin concentration and decline in the 0 2-carrying capacity

of the blood (reduced arterial 02 content)

• Anemic hypoxia is seen in Carbon monoxide poisoning and methemoglobinemia

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Question (18/18)

Arterial 02 content is decreased in hypoxia due to

Options
Cyanide poisoning
CO poisoning
COPD
Shock
Explanation

CO poisoning causes anemic hypoxia where arterial oxygen content decreases 

Carbon monoxide poisoning is a type of

Options
Anemic hypoxia
Histotoxic hypoxia
Hypoxic hypoxia
Stagnant hypoxia

Which of the following conditions leads to tissue hypoxia without alteration of oxygen content of
blood?

Options
CO poisoning
Methemoglobinemia
Cyanide poisoning
Respiratory acidosis
Prev
In which of the following a reduction in arterial oxygen tension occurs?
Mark
Options
Skip
Anemia
CO poisoning
Moderate exercise
Hypoventilation
Explanation

 Hypoventilation - is a cause for hypoxic hypoxia 

Which of the following variants of hypoxia does not stimulate peripheral chemoreceptors

Options
Hypoxic hypoxia
Anemic hypoxia
Stagnant hypoxia
Histotoxic hypoxia
Explanation

 Since arterial Po2 is determined by dissolved oxygen, the value of arterial Po2 is normal in
anemic hypoxia

• So, the peripheral chemoreceptors are not stimulated 

Among which hypoxia AV 02 difference is max

Options
Histotoxic
Stagnant
Hypoxic
. Anemic
Explanation

Arterio venous 0 2 difference ((a-v-02 difference) is increased in stagnant hypoxia

• Arterio venous 0 2 difference ((a-v-02 difference) is decreased in histotoxic hypoxia

Least A-V 02 difference is seen in-

Options
Hypoxic hypoxia
Anemic hypoxia
Stagnant hypoxia
Histotoxic hypoxia

Hypoxemia independent of

Options
Fi02
Altitude
Hb
paC02
Explanation

Dissolved oxygen always determine P02 levels

• Bound oxygen with Hemoglobin doesn't determine P02 levels

Toxic effects of high oxygen tension include all of the following expect

Options
 Pulmonary edema
Decreased cerebral blood flow
Retinal damage
CNS excitation and convulsion
Explanation

Toxic effects of hyperbaric oxygen includes,

• Pulmonary damage - atelectasis

• Retinal damage

• Twitching, convulsions

Oxygen therapy is least useful in

Options
Anemia
ARDS
Alveolar damage
COPD
Explanation

 For anemia, hemoglobin levels have to be increased by blood transfusion 

Concentration of methemoglobin to cause cyanosis

Options
5 gm/di
2 gm/di
1.5 gm/di
12 gm/d
Explanation

The level of methemoglobin producing cyanosis is 1.5 gm/ dl

• If deoxyhemoglobin (reduced Hb) is 5.0 g/dL or greater, cyanosis appears 

Central cyanosis is seen if

Options
Methemoglobin 0.5 gm/di
0 2 saturation < 85
0 2 saturation < 95%
Hb-4gm%
Explanation

 Oxygen saturation for patients with central cyanosis is usually belo85% 

Cyanosis does not occur in severe anemia because

Options
 Hypoxia stimulates erythropoietin production
Oxygen carrying capacity of available Hb is increased
Critical concentration of Hb required to produce Cyanosis is reduced
Oxygen hemoglobin curve shift to the right
Explanation

 Cyanosis is not seen in anemic hypoxia because critical concentration ofHb required to produce
cyanosis is reduced 

Cyanosis is seen in all hypoxia except

Options
Hypoxic hypoxia
Stagnant hypoxia
Anemic hypoxia
Histotoxic hypoxia

Cyanosis is not seen in

Options
CHF
COPD
CO poisoning
High altitude
Explanation

 CO poisoning causes anemic hypoxia 

Cyanosis in trauma is interpreted as a

Options
Early sign of hypoxia
Late sign Hypoxia
Absence of cyanosis is means adequate tissue ventilation
Absence of cyanosis is means adequate tissue oxygenation
Explanation

 Cyanosis in trauma is an extremely Late sign Hypoxemia or it doesn't occur at all 

Regarding carbon monoxide poisoning, wrong statement

Options
Oxygen dissociation curve shifted to right
Oxygen dissociation curve shifted to left
COHb is formed
Hyperbaric oxygen can be used
Explanation

 CO poisoning causes left shift of Oxygen dissociation curve and it impairs the unloading of
oxygen to tissues
• CO poisoning is treated with hyperbaric oxygen therapy because it displaces Carbon monoxide
form hemoglobin 

True about Carbon monoxide poisoning

Options
CO has 100 times more affinity than 0 2 for Hb
Cause right side shifting of 0 2 dissociation curve
Oxygen-haemoglobin saturation curve becomes hyperbolic shape
Pulse oximetry can accurately detect level of CO
Explanation

 CO has 110 times more affinity than oxygen for hemoglobin

• CO poisoning causes left shift of Oxygen dissociation curve and it impairs the unloading of
oxygen to tissues

• In CO poisoning, arterial blood gas analysis should be done to detect oxygen saturation

• Normal level of CO Hb in non-smokers is 0.3 - 0.8 % 

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Surfactant is made up of

Options
Fibrin
Mucoprotein
Phospholipids
Fibrinogen
Explanation

Major Surfactant is

Options
Dipalmitoyl lecithine
PrevDipalmitoyl cephaline
Mark
Dipalmitoyl serine
Skip
Dipalmitoyl inositol

Pulmonary surfactant is secreted by

Options
Type I pneumocytes
Type II pneumocytes
Clara cells
Bronchial epithelial cells
Explanation

 Surfactant is synthesized, secreted, and recycled by alveolar type II cells 

The mechanism of action of surfactant is

Options
Lubricated the flow of C02 diffusion
Binds oxygen
Makes the capillary surface hydrophilic
 Breaks the structure of water in the alveoli
Explanation

 Surfactant reduces the surface tension. This action of prevent alveolar collapse during expiration
(atelectasis) and makes alveoli more compliant 

Stability of alveoli is maintained by

Options
Compliance of the lungs
Residual air in alveoli
Negative intrapleural pressure
Reduce surface tension by surfactant

The primary function of surfactant is

Options
Prevent overexpansion of alveoli
Decrease the surface tension of the fluid lining the alveoli
Facilitate diffusion of oxygen
Prevent airway closure

Respiratory distress syndrome is due to a defect in the biosynthesis of

Options
Dipalmitoyl lecithine
Dipalmitoyl cephaline
Dipalmitoyl serine
Dipalmitoyl inositol

Surfactant production is accelerated by

Options
Thyroxine
Glucocorticoids
Carbamazepine
Iodine
Explanation

Surfactant Production is Accelerated by:

• Glucocorticoids

• Thyroid hormones

• Thyrotropin releasing hormone (TRH)

• Prolactin

• Epidermal growth factor (EGF)

• Cyclic adenosine monophosphate (cAMP)

Question (1/14)

Blood supply during exercise is increased in

Options
Cutaneous circulation
Hepato-splachnic circulation
Renal circulation
Coronary circulation

What is the effect of moderate exercise on cerebral blood flow?

Options
Does not change
Increases
Decreases
Initially decreases then increases

Exercise causes which of the following

Options
Increased blood flow to the muscles after half minute of minute
Increase in cerebral blood flow due to increase in systolic blood pressure
Increase in body temperature
Decreased 0 2 consumption

A/E are the features of exercise

Options
Left shift ofHb-02 dissociation curve
Increase blood supply to muscle
Increase stroke volume
Increase 0 2 extraction

In moderate exercise the respiratory rate is increased due to response of:

Options
Proprioception receptor in the joints
J,PC02 in arterial blood
1'C02 in arterial blood
 J-receptor stimulation

The main cause of increased blood flow to exercising muscles is:

Options
Raised blood pressure
Vasodilatation due to local metabolites
Increased sympathetic discharge to peripheral vessels
Increased heart rate

All are true regarding blood supply increase in muscles during exercise, except

Options
Decreased beta adrenergic stimulation
Local metabolites
Increased arterial pressure
Cholinergic stimulation

In isometric exercise all are increased, except:

Options
Heart rate
Cardiac output
Mean arterial pressure
. Systemic vascular resistance

Strengthening muscle exercise:

Options
Isotonic
Isometric
Aerobic
None

In exercising muscle; true about metabolism is:

Options
Same in aerobic and anaerobic
Fatty acids used mainly
Glycogen & creatine kinase used anaerobically
 All of the above

Sprinter gets its immediate energy from

Options
Glycogen
Fatty acid
Creatine phosphate
None

In severe exercise, decrease in pH is due to:

Options
Respiratory acidosis
Lactic acidosis
H+ retention
HC03 excretion

Exercise is also prescribed as an adjuvant treatment of depression. Most probably it acts by: a

Options
Increasing pulse pressure
Improving hemodynamics
Raising endorphin levels
Inducing good sleep

Isocapnic exercise is:

Options
Breathing for short duration against resistance
Breathing of decreased volume of ventilation
Breathing of increased volume of ventilation for long period
Breathing of decreased volume for long period
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Question
18. 18
Endothelium
19. 19 Derived Relaxing Factor (EDRF) induced vasodilation is mediated by
20. 20
Options
21. 21
22.Increased
22 intracellular CGMP
Decreased
23. 23 intracellular CGMP
24.GH24
25.Estradiol
25

Which hormone acts on JAK - STAT kinase receptor

Options
TSH
Thyroxine
GH
FSH
Explanation

Prev Growthhormone
Mark Cytokinereceptors (JAK - STAT) serves as receptors for,
Prolactin
Skip
Erythropoietin
Leptin

All the following hormones have receptors on the plasma membrane of target tissues except

Options
Thyrotropin
Glucagon
Estradiol
Epinephrine
Explanation

Estradiolacts through nuclear receptor

True about thyroid hormone receptor is

Options
Directly binds to TSH
Directly binds to TRH
Are surface receptors
Causes nuclear transcription after binding with T4
Explanation

Thyroid hormones acts through nuclear receptor 

All are second messengers except

Options
Guanylyl cyclase
CAMP
IP3
DAG
Explanation

The second messenger systems that are activated through coupling of hormone-receptor complexes by G-protein are,

Adenylylcyclase-cAMP system
Inositoltriphosphate  (IP3) - Diacylglycerol  (DAG) - Calcium (Ca2+) system
Guanylylcyclase-cGMP system
Guanylylcyclase is the enzyme responsible for formation of nitric oxide.Nitric oxide is the second messenger involved in cell signaling

Which one of the following acts as second messenger?

Options
Mg++
Er-
Ca++
POt

Which one of the following molecules is used for cell signaling?

Options
NO
Er-
co2
POt

True about second messenger

Options
Bind first messenger
Mediate response of extracellular hormone and neurotransmitter
Hormone secreted by simulation of other hormones
Act by stimulation of transcription

Activation of protein kinase - C causes

Options
Breakdown of GTP to GDP
Phosphorylation of proteins
NO
Increased ion channel conduction
Explanation

Protein kinases acts by Phosphorylation of proteins

C terminal end of androgen receptor is concerned with

Options
Ligand binding
Increasing biological half life
Increasing the affinity of receptor to DNA
Increasing the level of transcription
Explanation

Importantpoints to note in structure of nuclear receptor are,
Nuclearreceptor has N terminal (amino) and C terminal (Carboxy) ends
Ithas six domains (A-F)
DomainA/B is also called AF-1, or the modulator region, because it is involved in activating transcription
Nextdomain is the DNA-binding domain (DBD). It is present near N terminal end
DNA-bindingdomain is connected to Ligand binding domain (LBD) through a flexible region D which acts as hinge
Ligandbinding domain (LBD) where hormones bind is present near the C terminal end
domaincontains another transcription activator termed AF-2

Steroid hormone receptors have attachment site for all except

Options
Steroid hormone
Transcription repressors
Hormone responsive element
Transcription activators

True about G protein coupled receptors is

Options
G protein
All the three subunits alpha, beta and gamma should bind to each other for G protine to act
G protein act as inhibitory and excitatory because of difference in alpha subunit
G protein is bound to GTP in resting stage
Explanation

OptionA - G protein binding site is intracellular
OptionB - Once hormones bind with GPCR, alpha subunit gets separated from beta and gamma subunit
OptionD - G protein is bound to GDP in resting state

True about intracellular receptors?

Options
Mainly on nuclear surface
Steroids act on them
Estrogen does not act on it
GH act on it

Activation of G -protein regulate all of the following except

Options
 Adenyl cyclase activity
Ion channels
IP & DAG
Transcription factor
Explanation

Only the hormones that act through nuclear receptors can influence transcription factors

Various cells respond differentially to a second messenger (such as increased cAMP) because they have different

Options
Breakdown of GTP to GD
Enzymatic composition
Nuclei
Membrane lipid
Explanation

Threeare three protein kinase enzymes for three second messenger systems namely,
Proteinkinase A - activated by cAMP
Proteinkinase C - activated by calcium calmodulin complex

Protein kinase G - activated by cGMP

Action of a - subunit of Gprotein is

Options
Breakdown of GTP to GDP
Conversion of GDP to GTP
C.Internalization of receptors
Binding of agonist
Explanation

Thea subunit terminates the action by hydrolyzing GTP toGDP with the help of an enzyme GTPase

Adrenaline, noradrenaline and dopamine act through

Options
Single pass receptors
Four pass receptors
Seven pass receptors
Ligand gated channel
Explanation

G-proteincoupled receptors span the cell membrane seven  They are also called seven-helix receptors or serpentine  receptors

If there is a Gs alpha subunit gain - of - function mutation, this results in

Options
Decreased cAMP
Increased cAMP
Increased GTPase activity
Increased cAMP
Explanation

Ga,_ activates adenylyl cyclase
Adenylylcyclase is the enzyme responsible for formation of cAMP
So,if there is G a,, there is increase in production of cAMP

Which of the following is a membrane bound enzyme that catalyzes the formation of cylic AMP from ATP?

Options
Tyrosine kinase
Polymerase
ATP synthase
Adenylate cyclase

CAMP acts through

Options
 Activation of protein kinase
Polymerase
ATP synthase
Adenylate cyclase
Explanation

In my experience,this is the question commonly answered wrongly by students

Adenylyl cyclase is the enzyme responsible for formation of 

cAMP

OncecAMP is formed,  it mediates  its actions  through activation of Protein kinase A

2°d messenger in vagal bradycardia

Options
cAMP
Ca2+
DAG
DAG
Explanation

Acetylcholineacts through M2 muscarinic receptor to cause bradycardia
M2 muscarinic receptor acts through G ai _ that inhibits adenylyl  So, there is decrease in cAMP formation

G protein coupled receptor

Options
NMDA receptor
Steroid
M2
Insulin receptors

A small ca+2 binding protein that modifies the activity of many enzymes and other proteins in response to changes of ca2+ concentration, is
known as

Options
Cycline
Calmodulin
Collagen
Kinesin
Explanation

Onceinside the cell, Calcium binds with 
Thiscalcium - calmodulin complex activates an enzyme called calmodulin dependent protein kinases that phosphorylates many downstream

Mechanism of action of cholecystokinin

Options
Activation of adenylyl cyclase
Opening of ion channels
Through IP3 - DAG system
Transcription factors
Explanation

Cholecystokininacts through IP3 - DAG system in pancreas to increase pancreatic juice rich in enzymes
Secretinacts through cAMP system in pancreas to increase pancreatic juice rich in bicarbonate

Acidophils secrete

Options
GH
TSH
ACTH
FSH
Explanation
Somatotropeand lactotrope are acidophilic cells
Gonadotrope,thyrotrope and corticotrope are basophilic cells
Somatotropesecretes growth hormone
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Question (13/13)

All are types of cells present in anterior pituitary except

Options
Somatotropes
Isotropes
Gonadotropes
Thyrotopes

Secretion of all the following hormones are decreased in section of pituitary stalk except

Options
 Prolactin
GH
Vasopressin
FSH
Explanation
Prev
Mark Hypothalamusinhibits  prolactin secretion through Dopamine (D2 receptor)
Skip Pituitarystalk is the structure that connects the pituitary gland with the hypothalamus
Inlesions of pituitary stalk, hypothalamus can no longer inhibit prolactin secretion because dopamine is not released into anterior pituitary

Derivation of POMC

Options
Norepinephrine
Dopamine
ACTH
Acetylcholine
Explanation

ACTHis secreted from the corticotrope cells

Itis  derived  from  the  precursor  protein  termed  as Proopiomelanocortin (POMC)

Importantproducts formed from POMC are,
ACTH
-lipotropin(LPH)
-endorphin
met-enkephalin
a-melanocyte-stimulatinghormone (a-MSH)

Corticotropin-like intermediate lobe protein (CLIP)

Not controlled directly by ACTH-

Options
Glucocorticoids
Aldosterone
DHEA
Epinephrine
Explanation

ACTH mainly  control  adrenal  cortex  and  not  adrenal medulla

Continuous administration of GnRH

Options
Stimulates hypothalamic - pituitary axis
Suppresses hypothalamic - pituitary axis
Ng/ml
Has so no effect on hypothalamic - pituitary axis
Explanation

Continuous (nonpulsatile) administration of GnRH inhibits the release of FSH and LH by the pituitary in both women and men

The following is the unit for prolactin level of 20 in blood -

Options
Mg/ml
Mg/mLg
Ng/mL
Ng/mL
Explanation

  It is prolactin level of 20 ng/ml

Normalserum prolactin level is 9-25 nglmL in women and 2.5-17 ng/mL in men

Which of the following action of GH is mediated by IGF-l

Options
Lipolysis
Decreased insulin
Antilipolysis
Na+ retention
Explanation

Indirectactions of growth hormone are mediated through IGF -  Those actions mediated by IGF - 1 are,
Epiphysealgrowth
Depositionof chondroitin sulfate
Anti-lipolysis
Proteinsynthesis
Insulinlike activity

Conversion of chondrocyte into osteogenic cells is caused

Options
Insulin
Na+ retention
Lipolysis
Deposition of chondroitin sulfate

Growth hormone secretion, true is-

Options
Continuous secretion
Stimulated by somatostati
Stimulated by cortisol
Stimulated by exercise
Explanation

Growthhormone secretion is pulsatile
Cortisoland somatostatin inhibit growth hormone secretion
Exerciseincreases growth hormone secretion

Growth hormone level decreased in-

Options
Hypoglycemia
Fasting
Sleep
Exercise
Explanation

Growthhormone secretion is inhibited during REM sleep
Rememberthat, Growth hormone secretion is increased during NREM stage 3 &4
Weare choosing sleep as answer, because it is the answer of exclusion since hypoglycemia, fasting, exercise all cause increase in GH secretio

Acromegaly is due to excess of-

Options
Somatomedin
Growth hormone
Somatostation
Insulin
Explanation

Excess levels of growth hormone causes Gigantism (before the closure of epiphysis) and Acromegaly (After the closure of epiphysis)

Sodium iodide symporter is not present in

Options
Pituitary
Placenta
Parotid
Thyroid
Explanation
 Sodiumiodide symporter is present in the at the basolateral membrane of thyroid follicular cells
Itis also present in other extrathyroidal locations like

+ Salivary glands

+ Lactating breast

+ Gastric mucosa

+  Placenta

Thyroxine is synthesiz ed from which amino add

Options
Arginine
Lysine
Methionine
Tyrosine
Explanation

Thyroxineis a tyrosine derivative
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Question (1/7)

In thyroid follicle for how long Thyroxine is stored ?

Options
2-3 weeks
2-3 months
2-3 days
2-3 years
Explanation

(Ref Ganong, 25th ed/p.339)

• The storage form of thyroid hormones (colloid) is sufficient to supply thyroid hormones for 2 to 3
months

Major thyroxine binding protein is ?

Mark
Options
Skip
T3 is more avidly bound to nuclear receptors than T4
Next
T4 has the maximum plasma concentration
Globulin
T4 has shorter half-life than T3
Explanation

The major thyroid binding protein is thyroxine binding globulin (TBG) 

(Ref Ganong, 25th ed/p.339)

Half -life of T3 is ?

Options
10 Hours
1 day
6 days
10 days
Explanation

(Ref Ganong, 25th ed!p.339)

• Half-life ofT3 is 1 day

• Half-life ofT4 is 1 week (7 days)

TRH stimulation testing is useful in diagnosis of

Options
Insulin
ACTH
Growth hormone
PTH

Which is not an effect of T3 hormone

Options
It increases the Heart rate
It increases the stroke volume
It decreases the peripheral vascular resistance
Decreases protein breakdown

Wolf chaikoff effect is due to

Options
Increased protein synthesis
Decreased glycolysis
Lipolysis
Increased cholesterol

Hyperthyroid state ischaracterized by

Options
B cell - Somatostatin
D cell - Glucagon
G cell - Gastrin
A cell - Insulin
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17. 17 (31/31)
Question
18. 18
Which
19. 19of the following in correctly matched?
20. 20
Options
21. 21
22.B 22
cell - Somatostatin
23.D23
cell - Glucagon
24.G24
cell - Gastrin
25.A 25
cell - Insulin
26. 26
Delta cells of pancreas secretes
27. 27
28. 28
Options
29. 29
Cell
30. 30
31.Insulin
31
Glucagon
Somatostatin

Prev
Amylin is secreted by which cells of the islet of Langerhans
Mark
Options
Skip
A cell
D cell
Beta cell
G cell

Glucagon is

Options
Somatostatin
GLP - I
C - peptide
None

C - peptide is secreted by

Options
 A cell
B cell
D cell
F cell

C - peptide occurs in

Options
Proinsulin
Glucagon
Paratharmone
Thyroxine

Glucose mediated insulin release is mediated through

Options
ATP dependent K+ Channels
CAMP
Carrier modulators
Receptor phosphorylation

Insulin dose not facilitate glucose uptake in the following except

Options
Liver
Heart

GIP

Insulin increases the entry of glucose into

Options
All tissues
Rerial tubular cells
VIP
Receptor phosphorylation

Insulin is essential for glucose into

Options
Muscle

RBC
Kidney

Insulin mediated glucose uptake occurs through

Options
GLUT - 1
GLUT - 2
GLUT-3
GLUT -4

Glucose increases plasma insulin by a process that involves

Options
GLUT 1
GLUT 2
GLUT 3
SLGT 1

GTUT2 is present mainly in

Options
Beta cells of pancreas
Placenta
Skeletal muscle
Cardiac muscle

Insulin resistance down - regulates

Options
GLUT - 1
GLUT 2
GLUT 3
GLUT 4

Skeletal muscle use the

Options
GLUT - 1 transporter
GLUT - 2 transporter
Growth hormone
Gastrin

Glucose diffusion in RBC by

Options
GLUT 1
GLUT 2
GLUT - 3
GLUT - 4
Insulin acts on glucose metabolism by

Options
1' permeability of glucose across cell membrane
permeability across cell membrane against glucose
Increased absorption of amino acids from diet
Increased secretion of Insulin

Mutation in GLUT - 2 causes

Options
Dandy walker syndrome
Fanconi bickel syndrome
Beckwith syndrome
Menke's disease

Rapid infusion of insulin cause

Options
Hyperkalemia
Hypokalemia
VIP
Cardiac muscle

Increased ratio of insulin to glucagon causes

Options
Decreased levels of cyclic AMP
gradient
keletal muscle
GLUT - 4

Sympathetic stimulation has following effect on insulin release

Options
Stimulation
Inhibition
Inhibition followed by stimulation
No effect

Insulin secretion is decreased by

Options
Glucagon
Glucose
Adrenaline
 Vagal stimulation

Insulin secretion is inhibited by

Options
Secretin
Hypokalemia
GLUT 3
GLUT 4

Insulin secretion is normally stimulated by

Options
GLP-1
GLP-2
VIP
Alfa- adrenergic receptors

After a meal rich in carbohydrate, insulin secretion is stimulated by

Options
CCK
Serotonin
VIP
1' glucose transport to brain

In a seriously ill patient, addition of amino acids in diet results a positive nitrogen balance. The
mechanism for that is

Options
Increased Growth hormones secretion
Enhanced rate of gluconeogenesis
Increased absorption of amino acids from diet
Increased secretion of Insulin

How many parts are there in insulin receptor

Options
1
2
3
4

In fetus the insulin secretion begins by

Options
3rd month
 5th month
7th month
9th month

Which decrease secretion of both insulin and glucagon

Options
Epinephrine
Somatostatin
Increased blood glucose
None

Zona glomerulosa secretes

Options
Aldosterone
Testosterone
Cortisol
Catecholamines

Chronic atrophy of adrenal gland will result in which hormone deficiency

Options
CRH
ACTH
Cortisol
MSH
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Question
18. 18
Calcium
19. 19 absorption from gut is enhanced by

Options
Parathyroid hormone
Proximal small intestine
1, 25 dihydroxy cholecalciferol
140. Liver
Explanation
 Theonly hormone capable of increasing intestinal calcium absorption is vitamin D

Calcium absorption is increased by

Options
Proteins
Bile
Acid
Prev
All
Mark
Explanation
Skip
Absorptionof calcium is facilitated by,
Proteinsin diet

Which of the following is considered the active from of calcium-

Options
Ionised calcium
Albumin bound calcium
Hosphate bound calcium
Phosphates
Explanation

Freecalcium or ionized calcium is responsible for all the important actions of calcium

Bone removing cells-

Options
Osteoblasts
Osteoclasts
Stem cells
Protein bound calcium
Explanation

Osteoblastsare the "bone forming cells''.

Osteoclasts are the "bone resorption cells"

Hormonal vitamin is-

Options
Niacin
Pyridoxine
Vitamin D
Cytotoxic T cells
Explanation

VitaminD can act as hormon It acts through nuclear receptor

Active from of vitamin D is-

Options
Cholecalciferol
24, 25 (OH)2 Vit-D
1,25 (OH) 2 Vit-D
Riboflavin
Explanation

The active form of vitamin D is called 1,25-dihydroxycholecalciferol or calcitrio

Most active from of vitamin D-

Options
Calcefediol
Calcitriol
7-dehydrocholecalciferal
25-0H Vit-D

Which of the following organs is not involved in calcium homeostasis?

Options
Kidneys
Lungs
Intestines
Vitamin D3
Explanation

Threemajor organs in calcium homeostasis are,
Skin
Liver
Kidney

Site of-hydroxylation of cholecalciferol

Options
Kidney
Skin
Liver
Lungs
Explanation

25hydroxylation occurs in liver
Inthe liver, Vitamin D3 is 25-hydroxylated by an enzyme called 25-Hydroxylase

Increased calcium levels lead to-

Options
Kidney
Increased 24, 25 dihydroxy cholecalciferol
Decreased calcitonin
Blood
Explanation

Kidneyalso expresses another important enzyme called 24-Hydroxylase whose action forms the inactive metabolite 24,25-
dihydroxyvitamin D

Thisinactive form conversion is facilitated during increased serum calcium levels

Parathormone increases calcium absorption by acting at

Options
PCT
DCT
TRPVS
Cholecalciferol
Explanation

PTHacts directly in renal  tubules  to increase  calcium resorption from distal tubules through TRPVS

Parathormone secretion is stimulated by-

Options
Increased serum ca++
Decreased serum ca++
Increased parathormone secretion
Collecting duct
Explanation

Themost important stimulus that increases PTH secretion is hypocalcemia

Which of the following would you expect to find in a patient whose diet has been low in calcium for 8 weeks?

Options
Increased phosphate levels
Raised calcitonin levels
Increased parathormone secretion
Prevent Na+ & K+ release

In tetany hyperexcitability is due to-

Options
Low Ca++ causes 1'permeability to Na+
Prevent k+ release
Prevent Na+ & K+ release
Activation of 24-25 dihydrocholecalciferol
Explanation

Reasonforhyperexcitability in tetany - low serum calcium levels moves more sodium ions entry into the cell leading to more frequent action

Sudden decrease in serum calcium is associated with

Options
Increased thyroxine and PTH secretion
Increased phosphate
Adrenal glands
Cardiac conduction abnormalities

Hypocalcemia due to calcitonin is by

Options
Increased excretion kidney
Decreased bone resorption
Decreased intestinal absorption
Decreased renal reabsorption
Explanation

Calcitoninreceptors are present in osteoclasts

It inhibits bone resorption by inhibiting osteoclasts

Osteoclasts are inhibited by

Options
Parathyroid hormone
Calcitonin
Thyroxin
Decreased renal reabsorption

Osteodasts has specific receptor for

Options
Parathyroid hormone
Calcitonin
Parathyroid hormone
Tumor necrosis factor

Which of the following cause low serum calcium

Options
Vit D
Parathyroid
GH
Glucocorticoids
Explanation

Glucocorticoidsdecreases plasma Ca2+ levels by inhibiting osteoclasts

 
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Question
18. 18
Enzyme
19. 19 not required for cortisol synthesis-
20. 20
Options
21. 21
22.17,20
22 Lyase
23.21B-hydroxylase
23
24. 24B-hydroxylase
11
25.3B-hydroxylase
25 hydroxysteroid dehydrogenase
26. 26
Which
27. 27steroid is formed from cholesterol without hydroxylation

Options
Progesterone
Glucocorticoid
Mineralocorticoid
Estradiol

Prev
Common precursor of mineralocorticoid, glucocorticoids and sex steroids-
Mark
Options
Skip
Pregnenolone
A- hydroxyprogesterone
Dehydrotesterone
Deoxycorticoid

Which is not an action of cortisol

Options
Stimulation of gluconeogenesis
Increases liver and plasma proteins
Mobilization of fatty acid
Increases the number of eosinophil

Anti-inflammatory actions of steroids due to

Options
 Inhibition of phospholipase A2
Inhibition of cyclooxygenase
Increased activity of lipoprotein lipase
Inhibition of lipooxygenase

ACTH level is higher during

Options
Early morning
Evening
Afternoon
Night

ACTH is increased in all except

Options
Exercise
Emotions
Evening
Tumors

Aldosterone secretion is maximally stimulated by

Options
Hyperkalemia
ACTH
Colon
Liver

Mineralocorticoid receptors are present in all of the following sites, except

Options
Hippocampus
Kidney
CRH
Aldosterone

Hyperaldosteronism is associated with all except

Options
Hypernatremia
Hypokalemia
Hypertension
Metabolic acidosis

Excess secretion of aldosterone causes all except

Options
Increased ECF
Very High Na+ in plasma
Increased BP
Natriuresis

Aldosterone synthesis is inhibited by

Options
Renin
Endothelin
Dopamine
Hypernatremia

Excessive production of aldosterone results in

Options
Metabolic acidosis
Severe hypotension
Norepinephrine
Insulin

Hormones secreted by adrenal medulla are

Options
Glucagon
Cortisol
Norepinephrine
Insulin

Which hormone does not increase in burns

Options
Cortisol
Glucagon
LH
Epinephrine

Stress - induced hyperglycemia is due to

Options
Glucocorticoids
GH
Evening
Tumors
Which of the following increases during surgical stress

Options
Cortisol
Estrogen
Insulin
Gastrin

ACTH secretion is inhibited by

Options
Aldosterone
Increased epinephrine
Glucocorticoid
Epinephrine

In hypoglycemia, which hormone dose not increases

Options
Variation in environmental temperature
Variation in cortisol levels
Bone marrow depression during sleep/night
Circadian rhythm

Reason of diurnal variation in eosinophil count

Options
Insulin
Cortisol
Glucagon
Increased physical activity

Vasomotor reversal of dale is demonstrated by

Options
Fall in blood pressure by high dose intravenous Ach
11 - hydroxy derivative of androstenedion
17 - ketosteroid dehydroepiandrosterone
Cortisol

Major adrenal androgen is

Options
Testosterone
Increase in blood pressure following administration of IV propranolo
Fall in blood pressure by ganglionic blocker
 Fall in blood pressure by adrenaline pretreated with phentolamine

Calcium absorption is from?

Options
Proximal small intestine
Distal ileum
Middle small intestine
Ascending colon

Parathormone has all of the following effects, except

Options
Increased bone resorption
Increased ca+2 reabsorption in kidney
Increased phosphate reabsorption in kidney
Increased calcitriol synthesis

True of the following-

Options
Calcium reabsorbed in DCT
90% of calcium excreted by glomerulus
Parathormone (PTH) promotes absorption of Ca++ from
PTH promote action of calcitonin

Conn syndrome is seen due to increased production of

Options
Cortisol
ACTH
CRH
Aldosterone

Excessive production of aldosterone results in

Options
Metabolic acidosis
Severe hypotension
Potassium retention
Depressed plasma renin
 32.Estrogen
32
33.Testosterone
33
34. 34
35.DHEA
35
36.Progesterone
36
Explanation

Incirculation, testosterone binds with,
Gonadal steroid-  binding  globulin  (GBG)  or  Sex Hormone-bind ing globulin (SHBG) - 65%
Albumin- 33%
So,The decrease in sex hormone binding globulin (SHBG) will have maximum effect on testosterone .

Sertoli cell in the testis have receptors for

Options
FSH
LH
Inhibin
GnRH
Explanation

LH acts  on  the  Leydig  cells  of  testis  to  increase  the production and secretion of testosterone
Prev FSHmainly acts on Sertoli cells
Mark
Sertoli
Skip cell feedback mechanism involves

Options
Leydig cells
Decreased FSH
Sertoli cells
Stromal cells
Explanation

Sertolicells produce the hormone inhibin which inhibits pituitary FSH (negative feedback)
LH acts  on  the  Leydig  cells  of  testis  to  increase  the

production and secretion of testosterone which inhibits LH 

(negative feedback).

Last step of Spermiogenesis takes place in

Options
Leydig cells
Interstitial cells
Sertoli cells
Stromal cells

In men LH controls secretion of

Options
Inhibin
AMH
Testosterone
ABP

Testosterone production is mainly contributed by

Options
Late division of spermatocytes
Inhibin
Seminiferous tubules
Epididymis

Role of growth hormone in spermatogenesis

Options
Leydig cells
Stimulation of sertoli and Leydig cells
Formation of Acrosomes
Spermatogenesis
Explanation
 Effectsof growth hormone on spermatogenesis are largely permissive
Itenhances the spermatogenetic effects of LH and FSH
Itstimulates Leydig cells and sertoli cells to secrete IGF - 1

that helps in spermatozoa maturation

All are androgens except

Options
Testosterone
Dihydrotestosterone
Androstenedione
17 a - hydroxprogesterone
Explanation

Testosteroneis the principal androgen hormone of the testes
Otherandrogens are dihydrotestosterone, androstenidione and DHEA

Negative feedback in spermatogenesis is

Options
ABP
Inhibin
Progesterone
•Sertoli cells
Explanation

Sertolicells produce the hormone inhibin which inhibits pituitary FSH (negative feedback)

The principal steroid secreted by testis is

Options
Testosterone
Dihydrotestosterone
Androstenedione
Dihydroepiandrosterone

Spermatogenesis occurs at

Options
Testosterone
Temperature lower than core body temperature
Temperature higher than core body temperature
None
Explanation

Temperaturelower than core body temperature is essential for spermatogenesis

Antimullerian hormone is secreted by

Options
Granulosa cells
Lyedig cells
Sertoli cells
None
Explanation

Duringdevelopment, sertoli cells produce anti - mullerian hormone (AMH) that induces the regression of mullerian duct in male

Sperm acquires motility in

Options
Epididymis
Adjacent Sertoli cells with basal lamina
Basal lamina and spermatogonia
Basal lamina and Leydig cells
Explanation
 Spermacquires the capability of motility in epididymis

Blood tissue barrier in testis is formed by

Options
Spermiogenesis
Testes
Epididymis
Adjacent sertoli cells with basal lamina
Explanation

Adjacentsertoli cells form blood-testis barrier

Sertoli cells play a key role in which of the following process

Options
Seminal Vesicle
Epididymis
Vas deference
Spermiogenesis
Explanation

The process   spermatids  undergo   to  become   mature spermatozoza is called "Spermiogenesis"

Sertolicells play a key role in Spermiogenesis

Capacitance of sperms takes place in

Options
Seminiferous tubules
Seminiferous tubules
Prostate gland
Uterus
Explanation

Capacitation occurs  mainly  in  the  female genital  tract (uterus)

Duringcapacitation,
Forwardmotility of sperm increases
Facilitationof acrosome reaction occurs

Sperm maturation takes place in

Options
Vas deferens
Seminiferous tubule
Prostate gland
Female genital tract

Spermiogenesis refers to

Options
Formation of spermatozoa from spermatogonia
Formation of spermatozoa from spermatids
Formation of spermatids from spermatids
Formation of secondary spermatocytes from primary spermatocytes

Following changes are seen during capitation of a sperms except

Options
Increased permeability to calcium
Decreased permeability to calcium
Removal of Cholesterol from acrosome
CatSper
Explanation

Spermacquires the capability of motility in epididymis
Forwardprogressive motility of sperm requires activation of a Ca2+ channel called CatSper leading to increased permeability to calcium

CatSper is present in the principal piece of sperm

Positive feedback action of estrogen for inducing luteinizing hormone. Surge is associated with which of the following steroid hormone
ratios in peripheral circulation

Options
 High estrogen : low Progesterone
Stroma
Surface epithelium of ovary
Corpus luteum
Explanation

Highestrogen causes LH surge
LHsurge happens before ovulation
Beforeovulation, progesterone levels are low

Hormone with no change in levels in menstrual cyde

Options
Corpus luteum
Activin
Menstrual cyde
GnRH
Explanation

FSH,inhibin, GnRH undergo cyclical variations in their levels during menstrual cycle
Activin levelsdoesn't change during the cycle

Source of progesterone during normal menstrual cycle

Options
Corpus luteum
Stroma
Surface epithelium of ovary
Peg cells

Progesterone is produced by-

Options
Granulosa Luteal cells
Theca cells
Stroma of ovary
Sertoli cells

Corpus luteum is maintained by-

Options
Luteum
Cor pus luteum
LH
FSH
Explanation

Luteinizinghormone is responsible for luteinization of cor pus luteum. It maintains it

Corpus luteum in pregnancy is maintained by which hormone-

Options
Progesterone
Estrogen
LH
FSH
Explanation

Ideally,hCG maintains corpus luteum during pregnancy
hCGacts through LH receptor

Follicular stimulating hormone receptors are presentation

Options
Theca Cells
Granulosa cells
Leydig cells
Basement membrane of ovarian follicle
Explanation

Granulosacells have receptor for FSH
Thecacells have receptor for LH
 Thisis called "two cell - two gonadotropin model"

There is a mid-cycle shift in the basal body temperature (BBT) after ovulation in Women. This is caused by-

Options
FSH
LH
Progesterone
ESTRIOL
Explanation

Progesterone is Itis responsible for increase in basal body temperature around ovulation

The laboratory report shows value of gonadotropin and ovarian hormones of the blood sample taken on day 20 of the menstrual cycle of a
young woman. Whether her cycle was ovulatory or not may be validly assessed by the reported serum level of -

Options
Just before menopause
At puberty
At menstruation
Progesterone
Explanation

Estimationof serum progesterone is done on day 8 and 21 of a cycle
Anincrease in value from less than lng/ mL to greater than 6 ng/mL suggests ovulation

Secretion of estrogen is maximum at?

Options
Just before menopause
At puberty
At menstruation
Before ovulation

FSH and LH both are inhibited by

Options
It inhibits secretion of prolactin
It stimulates synthesis of estradiol
Estrogen
It inhibits secretion of FSH
Explanation

Estrogeninhibits both FSH and LH

Which of the following statements can be regarded as primary action of inhibin?

Options
It inhibits secretion of FSH
Theca cells
It inhibits secretion of FSH q
•Inhibin inhibit FSH secretion from pituitary cells
Explanation

Inhibin inhibitFSH secretion from pituitary cells

True about estrogen production in menstrual cycle

Options
Only by theca cells
Only by granulosa cells
Both theca and granulosa cells
None of the above
Explanation

Estrogenis produced only by granulosa cells
The theca  interna  cells  supply  androstenedione  to  the granulosa cells
Granulosacells convert this androstenedione to estradiol with the help of an enzyme "aromatase"

Estrogen is secreted by-

Options
Granulosa cells
Theca luteal cells
Theca interna
Theca externa

Two cell two gonadotropin hypothesis is-

Options
FSH and LH inhibits the release of estrogen and progesterone
FSH acts on granulosa cell and LH on theca cells
FSH stimulates estrogen while LH inhibits estrogen
FSH feedback inhibits hypothalmus, while LH feedback inhibits pituitary

Action of progesterone

Options
Increased sensitivity of uterus to oxytocin
Oxytocin
Sensitivity
Inhibits LH secretion
Explanation

Progesterone inhibit  LH  secretion  as  a  part  of  negative feedback

The type of estrogen found in highest concentration in adult female is-

Options
Estrone
Estradiol
Estradiol E3
None
Explanation

Naturallyoccurring estrogens are,
Estradiol (E2) predominant estrogen duringreproductive years
Estrone (El)  -  predominant  estrogen  in  menopau sal women

Estriol (E3) - predominant estrogen in pregnant women
Estrogen is secreted during pregnancy, mostly by-

Options
Maternal Ovary
Fetal Ovary
Pituitary
Hypothalamus

False about estrogen action

Options
Stimulation secondary sex characters in female
Stimulates osteoclasts
Decreases LDL
Apoptosis
Explanation

Estrogeninduces apoptosis of osteoclasts

Following pubertal changes is not due to estrogen-

Options
Vaginal cornification
Public and axillary hair growth
PrevCervical mucus production
Mark
Menstruation
Skip
Explanation

Public and  axillary  hair  growth  is  because  of  adrenal androgen secretion

Beta HCG is secreted by

Options
Ovary
Pituitary
Corpus luteum
Placenta
Explanation

hCGis mainly produced by Syncytiotrophoblast of placenta

Progesterone has how many carbons-

Options
18
19
20
21
Explanation

Type of Steroid Hormone     Number of Carbon Atoms

Progestins                             21 (C21 steroid)

Corticoids                             21 (C21 steroid)
Androgens                           19 (C19 steroid)

Estrogens                             18 (C18 steroid)

Ductules in breast develop due to action of?

Options
Lactogen
Prolactin
Estrogen
All of the above
Explanation

Estrogenpromotes the growth of ductal system

Progesterone promotes the growth of!obulo alveolar system

17OH steroid-

Options
Androgen
Progesterone
Estrogen
Testosterone
Explanation

17- hydroxy steroids - progesterone, cortisol
17- keto steroids - testosterone

Subnudear cytoplasmic vacuolization is seen in which stage of menstrual Cyde-

Options
Proliferative phase
Secretion by Contraction oflactiferous sinus
Secretory phase
None
Explanation

Subnuclearvacuolization - means development of vacuoles between nucleus and basement membrane in
the glandular  It is seen during secretory phase

Itis due to progesterone
Presenceof subnuclear vacuoles indicates recent ovulation

Suckling releases which of the following from the posterior pituitary-

Options
Prolactin
Oxytocin
Oxytocin hormone is involve
Ganong

True about milk secretion

Options
Neuroendocrine part of post pituitary is involved
 Oxytocin
Somatostatins
Somatomedins
Explanation

Prolactindoesn't cause myoepithelial cell  It is caused by oxytocin

Primary hormone for secretion of milk

Options
Oxytocin
Prolactin
Relaxin
Myoepithelial cell contraction
Explanation

Prolactinis the primary hormone for milk secretion

Oxytocin causes all except-

Options
Lactogenesis
Milk ejection
Ovulation
Myoepithelial cell contraction
Explanation

Majorhormones that influence milk production are,
Prolactin- most important
Insulin
Growthhormone
Glucocorticoids

Function of oxytocin-

Options
Milk ejection
Milk secretion
Glucocorticoids
Relaxin
Explanation
With
28. 28
increased flow to loop of Henle, decreased in GFR is by
29. 29
Options
30. 30
31.Tubulo
31 - glomerular feedback
32.Glomerulotubular
32 balance
33. 33
Urea
34. 34
Creatinine
Explanation

Increased flow in loop  of  Henle  decreases GFR  by tubuloglomerular feedback

The plasma clearance value of glucose in a diabetes mellitus patient will be

Options
GFR
Greater than zero
False - high or false - low depending on the GFR
Indirectly in DCT
Explanation

Diabetesmellitus is characterized by renal  Glucose appears in urine. So, plasma clearance of glucose is greater than zero

The renal plasma flow (RPF) of a patient was tobe estimated through the measurement of Para Amino Hippuric acid (PAH)
clearance. The technician observed the procedures correctly but due to an error in the weighing inadvertently used thrice the
recommended dose of PAH The RPF estimated is likely to be
Prev
Options
Mark
SkipProximal convoluted tubule
False - low
Indirectly PCT
True - low
Explanation

Para-aminohippuricacid (PAH) is the substance used to estimate renal plasma flow
Renalplasma flow = UPAH*V I P PAH

Plasma PAH value is in denominator. It increases 

because our sincere sigamani technician used thrice the recommended dose of PAH

So,automatically renal plasma flow will be falsely low

All of the following structures lie in the renal medulla, Except

Options
Juxtaglomerular apparatus
Loop of Henle
Vasa Reeta
Vasa Reeta
Explanation

Structuresthat lie in renal medulla are,
Loopof Henle
Medullarycollecting duct
Vasarecta

Juxtaglomerular apparatus contains all except

Options
Lacis Cells
Macula densa
JG cells
Glomerular mesangial cells
Explanation

TheJG apparatus comprises three types of cells namely,
Juxtaglomerular cells
Maculadensa cells
Extraglomerularmesangial cells or Lacis cells
Lads cells are located at

Options
JGA
Proximal tubule
Macula densa
Loop of Henle

In comparison to cortical nephron juxtamedullary nephron

Options
More in numbers
Has long loop of Henle
Distal tubule
2.0 mm Hg
Explanation

Corticalnephrons have short loop of Henle
Juxtamedullary nephrons have long loop of Henle

Collection duct has which cells

Options
Principal and intercalated
6 mm Hg
2
150 mL/min
Explanation

Colleting duct is made up of two types of cell: principal cells (P cells) and intercalated cells (Icells

Renal Blood flow is

Options
1 -1.5 L/min
525
15 mm Hg
GFR cannot be calculated by above data
Explanation

Kidneys receive 2-1.3 L of blood per minute, or about 23% of the cardiac output

In humans, effective renal blood flow is (ml/min)

Options
425
525
625
725
Explanation

Effectiverenal plasma flow - 625 ml/min
Actual renal plasma flow - 700 ml/min

Two substances that can probably be used to determine membrane

Options
Inulin and PAH
Inulin clearance > GFR
60 mL/min
Their efferent arteriole has no connection with vasa - recta
Explanation

Thefiltration fraction (FF) is the ratio of GFR to the renal plasma flow (RPF)
Substancesused to measure filtration fraction are,
ForGFR estimation - Inulin is used
ForRPF estimation - Para-aminohippuric acid (PAH) is used
Filtration fraction are

Options
Podocytes
Mesangium
10 mm Hg
Tubular epithelial cells are sensitive to albumin
Explanation

Netfiltration pressure is 10 mm Hg

All of the following statements about Renal physiology are

Options
The kidneys receive 5% of the cardiac output
Has molecular weight slightly greater than the molecules
Endothelial cell
Podocytes

A substance is present in concentration of 2mg% in the afferent arteriole and zero mg% in the efferent. True about the substance is

Options
It is freely filtered in glomerulus
Secreted in cortical nephron
Absorbed in PCT
Impermeable in loop of Henle
Explanation

Concentration of 0 mg%  means the substance is freely filtered into the bowman's space

Filtration pressure in glomeruli of kidney

Options
10 mm Hg
6 mm Hg
15 mm Hg
2.0 mm Hg
Explanation

Net filtration pressure is 10 mm Hg

In a normal person at resting condition GFR is

Options
125 mL/min
Negative charge
Lacis cells
Basement membrane
Explanation

NormalGFR is 125 ml/min or 180 L/day

Urine flow rate is 10 ml/min, plasma inulin is 2 mg/ ml and urine inulin is 25 mg/ml. Which of the following statement is true

Options
Inulin clearance = GFR
Negatively charged molecules are larger
2-2.5 L/min
Urine is acidic
Explanation

Clearanceof a substance is usually calculated by the formula, 

C =U5 x V/PS

Here,C = 25 *10/2 = 125 ml/min
So,Inulin clearance = GFR
In renal disease albumin is first to appear in urine because

Options
GFR = Kf x 10
Has molecular weight slightly greater than the molecules normally getting filtered
Any of the above
GFR = Kf x 125
Explanation

Glomerularmembrane permits neutral substances up to 4 nm in  Substances greater than 8nm diameter are totally excluded
Albuminsize is 7  So, it has molecular weight slightly greater than the molecules normally getting filtered

Filtrations barriers has pores, which have size about

Options
8 - 10 nm
The kidneys receive 5% of the cardiac output
10 nm in diameter
Increased renal blood flow
Explanation

Filtration barrier  ha  cylindrical pores of about 5 to  10 nm in diameter

Two particles have same diameter. The one which will pass easily through glomerular membrane has

Options
Plasma oncotic pressure is increased
Positive charge
PAH and phenol red
Afferent arteriole dilates
Explanation

Positivelycharged molecules are filtered more readily than negatively charged molecules

Negatively charged molecule is filtered with more difficulty compared to a positive to a one because

Options
Presence of negatively charged sialoproteins on the filtering membrane
Efferent arteriole dilates
Kf = GFR x 125
Impermeable in loop of Henle
Explanation

Majorreason why albumin is not filtered is the presence of polyanionic proteoglycans (heparan sulfate) - repels protein albumin

Correct formula is

Options
It is freely filtered in glomerulus
Secreted in cortical nephron
GFR is controlled by resistance in afferent and efferent
GFR = Kf x 10
Explanation

GFR= Kt* Net filtration pressure

Glomerular Filtration Rate is increased when

Options
Increased GFR with afferent arteriolar dilatation
4-6 nm
Tubular hydrostatic pressure is decreased
Increased renal blood flow
Explanation

GFRdecreases whenever there is increase in colloid osmotic pressure of the glomerulus
GFRdecreases whenever there is decrease in Glomerular capillary hydrostatic pressure
GFRdecreases whenever there is increase in tubular hydrostatic pressure
 GFRincreases whenever there is increase in renal blood flow

GFR increased if

Options
1-2 nm
4-6 nm
Afferent arteriole dilates
10 -12 nm
Explanation

Dilatationof afferent arteriole leads to  increase in glomerular capillary hydrostatic pressure (PG) leading to increase in GFR

Effect of sympathetic stimulation on GFR

Options
Decreased GFR with afferent arteriolar constriction
Increased GFR with efferent arteriolar dilatation
Absorbed in PCT
Macula densa
Explanation

Sympathetic stimulation - Decreased GFR with afferent arteriolar constriction

All should be features of a substance to measure GFR, except

Options
Freely reabsorbed
Freely filtered across glomerulus membrane
Not secreted by kidney
None
Explanation

Criteria of a substance to be used in estimation of

GFR

Thesubstance is freely filtered by the glomeruli and neither reabsorbed nor secreted by the tubules
Itis biologically inert and non-toxic
Itis neither metabolized nor stored in the kidneys

Its concentration can be easily estimated in the laboratory

What is the clearance of a substance, Ifits concentration in plasma in 10 mg%, concentration in urine is 100 mg% and urine flow is 2
mL/min

Options
0.2 ml/min
Inulin
2 ml/min
20 mL/mi
Explanation

GFRestimation by inulin clearance is the gold standard method

Best test for GFR is with

Options
Inulin clearance
Freely reabsorbed
Creatinine
PAH

GFR is measured by

Options
Creatine clearance
Inulin clearance
PAH clearance
 Creatinine clearance

Best measured for GFR

Options
Serum creatinine
GFR
Loop of Henle
Collecting duct
Explanation

Creatinine clearance  is  less  accurate  than  the  inulin clearance test for measurement of GFR

Butin clinical practice, plasma creatinine level is used as a surrogate to estimate GFR

Inulin clearance is equal to

Options
cAMP
625 ml/min
125 ml/min
Vasopressin

Relaxation of mesangial cells of kidney is brought about by

Options
ANP
Endothelin
CAMP
Endothelin
Explanation

Agents that Cause Mesangial Cell Contraction           Agents that Cause Mesangial Cell Relaxation

Angiotensin-11                                                    cAMP                                        
Endothelins Nor epinephrine                                 Dopamine
Adenosine                                                           Atrialnatriuretic peptide (ANP)
Thromboxane-A2                                                 Prostaglandins
Antidiuretichormone (ADH)                                   Nitricoxide

GFR is increased by

Options
ANP
Vasopressin
Histamine
GFR
Explanation

ANP increases GFR by afferent  arteriole dilation and relaxation of mesangial cells

Which of the following does not form a filtration barrier in nephrons?

Options
Podocytes
Mesangium
Endothelial cells
Basement membrane
Explanation

Components of glomerular capillary membrane (filtering membrane) are,

Capillary endothelium
Glomerular basement membrane (GBM)

Visceral epithelial cells (podocytes

In the presence of vasopressin the greatest fraction of filtered water is re - absorbed which part of the nephron

Options
Proximal tubule
Inulin
Creatinine
Countercurrent multiplier
Explanation

Irrespectiveof presence or absence of vasopressin , maximum percentage (2/3'd ) of water resorption happen in PCT

Minimum reabsorption through renal tubule, among the

Options
Urea
HCO3
Tubulo - glomerular feedback
Uric acid
Explanation

Ureais only 50 % resorbed

Bicarbonate is absorbed

Options
PrevIndirectly PCT
MarkEqual to that of inulin clearance
SkipGreater than that of PAH clearance

Correct and is unaffected by the PAH overdose

Explanation

Forevery H+  ion secreted  out, one bicarbonate  ion is resorbed indirectly in PCT

The Principal site of absorption of sodium is

Options
Proximal convoluted tubule
Distal convoluted tubule
Loop of Henle (thick portion)
Collecting duct

Where in the kidney dose active reabsorption of sodium ions occur

Options
Collecting duct
Nephron
Inulin
All of the above
Explanation

Sodium resorption occurs throughout the nephron

Ascending loop of Henle has which transporter

Options
Na• Cl cotrasporter
Na + - 2Cl - K+ cotransporter
ENaC Channel
Na• - aminoacid contrasporter
Explanation

Sodium,chloride and potassium moves out of the thick ascending limb through Na-K-2Cl cotransporter
Proximal convoluted tubule have which type of aquaporin

Options
Aquaporin 1
Secretion by the distal tubule
Aquaporin 2
Aquaporin 5
Explanation

Water is resorbed in PCT through aquaporin water channels (AQPl)

Over half of the potassium that appears in the urine of a patient, who has ingested some potassium salts is derived form

Options
Aquaporin 1
Aquaporin 2
Aquaporin 5
Secretion by the distal tubule
Explanation

Potassium appearing in urine is the result of distal tubular secretion

Not absorbed from the PCT

Options
Na
Ff+
HC03
H
Explanation

H+ions are actively secreted out into the lumen in PCT

Glucose is transported in renal tubular cells by

Options
HCo, -
K antiport
Na antiport
Na cotranspor
Explanation

Glucoseand HCO,are completely resorbed by kidney

Least reabsorbed out of the following

Options
Na
K+
Urea
Glucose
Explanation

Ureais only 50 % resorbed

Substrate which is both secreted & filtered

Options
Uric acid
Creatinine
Glucose
Amino acids
Explanation
 Substances that are filtered and secreted by kidney are Potassium ions, creatinine and uric acid

Which of the following product is primarily filtered with little secretion or re - absorption in renal tubules

Options
Sodium
Creatinine
Respond to ADH
Reabsorbs H+
Explanation

Substanceslike inulin and creatinine are useful to estimate GFR because they are freely filtered, neither resorbed, nor
secreted

True about renal secretion

Options
Maximum reabsorption in distal tubule
Urea is absorbed 100% in proximal tubule
H+ is absorbed in proximal tubule
Drug is neither secreted, nor resorbed

What is implied, if a drug has more renal clearance than the GFR

Options
Drug is reabsorbed in the tubules
Drug is secreted in the tubules
Drug is excreted in bile
Drug is neither secreted, nor resorbed

Which of the following occurs along with glucose transport into a cell

Options
Sodium symport
Sodium antiport
Potassium transport
Amino acid transport

Which one of the following substances, actively transported by the tubular cells, has the higher tubular transport
Maximum

Options
Plasma protein
Glucose
300 mg/d L
400 mg/dL
Explanation

Highest transportmaximum (Tm) is for glucose - 375 mg/ minute

The tubuloglomerular feedback is mediated by

Options
Sensing of Na+ concentration in the macula densa
Sensing of CJ+ concentration in macula densa
Sensing NaCl concentration in the macula densa
Opening up of voltage gated Na• Channels in afferent arteriole
Explanation

Tubuloglomerular feedback  operates  to  decrease  GFR whenever there is increase in NaCl concentration sensed by

macula densa
According to myogenic hypothesis of renal autoregulation, the afferent arterioles contract in response to stretch induced
by

Options
Opening of Ca2+ channels
Noradren aline release
Opening of Ca2
Adenosine release
Explanation

Myogenicautoregulation - through Opening of Ca2+ channels
Tubuloglomerularfeedback - through release of adenosine

Which one of the following statements regarding water reabsorption in the tubules is true

Options
The bulk of water reabsorption occurs secondary to Na+ reabsorption
Majority of facultative reabsorption occurs in proximal tubule
Obligatory reabsorption is ADH dependent
20% of water is always reabsorption
Explanation

Sodium and chloride creates the gradient for water movement by the process of osmosis

 Osmotic gradient in medulla
The hydrostatic pressure of peritubular capillaries determine the glomerulotubular balance
Ureteric obstruction increases the hydrostatic pressure of Bowman's space and reduces the GFR
Explanation

Loop
of Henle plays an important role in concentration of urine by creating medullary hyperosmolarity through
countercurrent  mechanism

Counter current blood flow is seen in all except

Options
Kidney
Eye
Testis
Small intestine
Explanation

Countercurrent system is seen in kidney, limbs, testis and intestine

Which of the following is not a component of counter current multiplier mechanism

Prev
Mark
Options
SkipCollecting duct

Thick ascending limb of loop of henle

Vasa recta
Descending limp of loop of Henl
Explanation

Inkidney, counter current system is seen in the loop of Henle and vasa recta in renal medulla
Collecting duct is not a part of counter current system

The high sodium content of the filtrate in renal medulla is because

Options
At the loop of Henle, there is counter current mechanism
Collecting duct
Vasa recta
Descending limb ofloop of Henle

The prime driving force for counter current multiplier system is

Options
Medullary hyperosmolarity
Reabsorption of Na+ in thick ascending limb
Action of ADH via aquaporin channels
Urea recycling
Explanation

Theprimary driving force for counter current system is Reabsorption of Na+ in thick ascending limb
through Na K-2Cl cotransporter

Hypertonic urine is excreted due to absorption of water in

Options
100 ml
Collecting ducts
 100 ml
2000 ml
Explanation

Resorption of  water  in  collecting  duct  determines  the excretion of concentrated urine

In Collecting ducts, Resorption of water is ADH dependent

Elimination of waste product from a normal person requires minimal amount of urine of

Options
100 mOsm/L
500 ml
50 mOsm/L
20 mOsm/L
Explanation

A normal  70kilogram  human  must  excrete  about  600 mOsm of solute every day

Weknow that the maximum concentrating ability of kidney is 1200 mOsm
So,the minimal volume of urine that must be excreted is 600/1200 = 5 L/day or 500 ml/day
This500 ml/day is needed to excrete 600 mOsm of solute

Minimum urine osmolality that can be achieved by human kidney

Options
50 mOsm/L
100 - 1400
200 - 400
300 - 1200
Explanation

Normal range of urine osmolality is 50 - 1400 mOsm/L 

Counter current mechanism, all are true except

Options
Occurs due to opposite flow in vasa recta and loop of Henle
Seen in medullary nephron
Eye
Urea has no role
Explanation

Countercurrent system is seen in kidney, limbs, testis and intestine
Question (17/17)

Juxtaglomerular apparatus lies in relation to

Options
Proximal convoluted tubule
Ascending loop of Henle
Descending loop of Henle
Glomerulus
Explanation

Juxtaglomerular(JG) apparatus refers to the collection of specialized cells located very near to the glomerulus

Renin is secreted by

Options
Angiotensin I
Angiotensin II
Angiotensin III
Juxtaglomerular apparatus
Explanation

Juxtaglomerular cells  synthesize,  store  and  release  an enzyme called renin

Physiologically inactive form is

Options
PrevAngiotensin I
MarkAngiotensin II
SkipAngiotensin III

Angiotensin IV
Explanation

Angiotensin II& III got physiological activities
AngiotensinI is only the precursor of Angiotensin II

Angiotensinogen is secreted by

Options
Liver
Na
Glucose
CI
Explanation

Angiotensinogenis secreted by liver

Conversion of angiotensin -Ito angiotensin IIoccurs in

Options
Kidney
Lung
Liver
RBCs
Explanation
 Angiotensinconverting enzyme is present in pulmonary
capillary  It converts Angiotensin I to Angiotensin II

Angiotensin IIcauses all of the following except

Options
Stimulation of thirst
Vasodilation
Increased ADH secretion
Vasoconstrictor
Explanation

AngiotensinII is a powerful vasoconstrictor

Which of the following is most important in sodium and water retention

Options
Vasopressin
Water retention
Distal convoluted tubule
Increase in GFR
Explanation

angiotensinII and aldosterone have little effect on sodium concentration
Vasopressin isthe major regulator of sodium concentration under normal conditions

Macula densa is present in

Options
Collecting tubule
Proximal convoluted tubule
ANP
Loop of Henle
Explanation

Maculadensa - These are the specialized epithelial cells of thick ascending limb of loop of Henle

Which causes raised angiotensin in blood

Options
Increased blood volume
Raised cardiac output
Increased blood pressure
Decreased blood pressure
Explanation

Majorstimulus for renin release is Decreased blood pressure
Once  released,   renin   converts   Angiotensinogen to Angiotensin I
AngiotensinI to Angiotensin II is converted by Angiotensin converting enzyme
AngiotensinII releases aldosterone from adrenal cortex
Togetherthis system Renin Angiotensin Aldosterone Sys tem (RAAS) increase bloop pressure

Erythropoietin level are increased by

Options
..J,, P02
 ..J,,pco2
..J,, Hb
..J,,pH
Explanation

Hypoxiais the major stimulus for Erythropoietin secretion

Erythropoietin is secreted from

Options
Interstitial cells
..J,,pco2
. ..J,, Hb
CI-] - [Na
Explanation

Erythropoietin is  produced  by  Interstitial  cells  in  the peritubular capillary bed

Erythropoietin is inhibited by

Options
Estrogen
Progesterone
Thyroxine
Testosterone
Explanation

Large doses of estrogen inhibit the production of erythro poietin induced by hypoxia

ANP acts at which site

Options
Juxtaglomerular cells
Macula densa
Interstitial cells
Glomerulus
Explanation

ANPcauses sodium excretion by dilating afferent arterioles and relaxing mesangial cells

Aldosterone mainly acts upon

Options
Estrogen
Collecting duct
Thyroxine
Testosterone
Explanation

Aldosteronemainly acts on P cells and I cells in collecting duct

Action of ADH

Options
Reabsorption of water in DCT
 Loop of Henle
Phosphates
Nitrates
Explanation

ADHfacilitates water  resorption  by acting in DCT and collecting tubules

Where dose ADH not act

Options
Proteins
PCT
Phosphates
Hemoglobin
Explanation

ADHdoesn't act on PCT

Endocrine function associated with kidney include all of the following except

Options
Natriuretic peptide secretion
Plasma proteins
PCT
Collecting duct
Explanation

Natriureticpeptides are not produced by kidney
Othersubstances namely vitamin D, Erythropoietin and re nin are produced by kidney
 10. 10

Question (10/10)

Which of the following hormone is not secreted by the kidney

Options
Renin
Angiotensin I
Erythropoietin
1,25 DHCC
Explanation

AngiotensinI is the precursor of Angiotensin II

Anion gap equation is

Options
Phosphate
[Na•] - [CI-] - [HC03-J
Glomerulus
Collecting duct
Explanation

Anion gap = [Na•] - [HC03-+ Ci-] =

(140 mEq/L] - (25 mEq/L + 105 mEq/L] Anion gap = 10 mEq/L

Normal anion gap is (in mEq/L)

Prev
Options
Mark
SkipReabsorption of Na
10-12
Reabsorption of Glucose in DCT
Collecting duct
Explanation

Normalanion gap is 8 - 10 mEq/L

Anion gap is mostly due to

Options
Distal convoluted tubule
Proximal convoluted tubule
Proteins
Reabsorption of HC03 in DCT
Explanation

Anion gap is mainly due to plasma protein anions, sulfate, phosphate

Blood buffers are

Options
Bicarbonate;
Collecting duct
Collecting tubules
DCT
Explanation

Extracellularblood buffers are - Bicarbonate, Plasma proteins, Hemoglobin
Ammoniabuffer
& Phosphate buffer are the most important buffer in the tubular fluids of the kidneys

Most important extracellular buffer

Options
Ammonia
Phosphate
Protein
Bicarbonates
Explanation

Most important extracellular buffer - Bicarbonates

The principal site of acidification of urine is

Options
Erythropoietin secretion
Natriuretic peptide secretion
1,25 hydroxy D3 Formation
Collecting duct
Explanation

Themaximal H+ secretion in urine corresponds to a urine pH of about 5
ThispH 5, also called limiting pH is reached  only in collecting tubule
So,collecting tubules are the principal site of acidification of urine

Most important buffer convoluted tubule system present in the distal

Options
Increased pH with increased HC03-
Increased pH with Decreased HC0
Ammonia
Decreased pH with Decreased HC03-
Explanation

Ammonia buffer  system  is  the  most  important  buffer system of kidney

Uncompensated metabolic acidosis shows

Options
 Renin
Angiotensin I
Erythropoietin
Decreased pH with decreased HC03-
Explanation

Primary problem in metabolic acidosis is loss of HC03- or addition of non-
volatile acids causing decrease in pH

Carbonic anhydrase in maximally concentrated in

Options
Brain
Kidney
RBC
Plasma
Explanation

Carbonicanhydrase is abundant in,
RBCs
Intercalated(I) cells of kidney

 
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Question (30/30)
30. 30
Pacemaker is formed by which of the following cells in GIT-

Options
P- cells
Oxyntic cells
Cajal cells
Parietal cells
Explanation

Interstitial cells  of  Cajal  are  the  stellate  mesenchymal pacemaker cells

Pacemaker of the G.I.T.is located in

Options
Cardiac end of stomach
Long muscle of small intestine
Pyloric end of stomach
Central control of CBD origin
Explanation

Pacemakercells in stomach are located in the midbody of the stomach along the greater curvature

    

 
Prev
GJT pacemaker islocated-
Mark
Skip
Options
Esophagus
Stomach
Duodenum
Jejunum

Mixing wave of stomach-

Options
Originates in body of stomach
Originates in fundus of stomach
Originates at incisura angularis
Originates in any part of stomach

Stimulation for gastric emptying-

Options
Secretin
CCK
Gastrin
Distension
Explanation

Increased food volume in the stomach (distension) promotes increased emptying from the stomach

Enterogastric reflex is stimulated by all except-

Options
Alkaline content of small intestine
Hyperosmolarity of chyme
Distension of duodenum
None
Explanation
 Enterogastric reflex - stretching of the wall of the duodenum results in inhibition of gastric motility and reduced
rate of emptying of the stomach
Acidic content of small intestine inhibit gastric emptying

Which of the following is TRUE regarding gastric emptying-

Options
Decreased by CCK
Decreased by gastrin
Increased by secretin
Decreased by insulin
Explanation

Gatsrinpromotes gastric emptying
CCK and secretin inhibit gastric emptying

Gastric emptying is delayed by all expect -

Options
Fat in duodenum
Acid in duodenum
Gastrin
Secretin

Gastric emptying is mainly regulated by-

Options
Neural reflexes
Enteric reflexes
Local hormones produced in stomach
Local hormones produced in duodenum
Explanation

Most powerful regulator of gastric emptying is the Enterogastric reflex

Secondcomes the role of hormones in regulation of gastric emptying

What is responsible for clearing & flushing food from the intestinal lumen in the interdigestive Period-

Options
Gastrin
Migrating motor complexes
Secretin
CCK
Explanation

Most powerful regulator of gastric emptying is the Enterogastric reflex

Second comes the role of hormones in regulation of gastric emptying.

Migrating motility complex

Options
Occurs upon arrived of food in the stomach
Begins in the lower part of the small intestine
Are initiated by pacemaker cells in the intestine
Occurs at a rate of 5 ems per minute from the stomach
Explanation

MMC- movement seen during fasting
Itis initiated by motilin
Beginsin stomach
Itoccurs at a rate of 5 ems per minute from the stomach

Chyme is propelled forward in small intestine by

Options
Segmentation
Haustrations
Migratory motor complexes (MMC)
 Peristalsis
Explanation

Chymeis mixed thoroughly by segmentation movements
Chymeis moved forward by Peristalsis

All of the following statements are true for "Intestinal motility" except

Options
Does not depend on Gastric motility
Increased by Distension
Increased by Acetylcholine
Increased by Cholecystokinin
Explanation

Gastricmotility and intestinal motility are totally dependent on one another

Major initiating response for peristalsisis

Options
Hormonal
Local stretching of gut
Neural
None
Explanation

Mostimportant stimulus for peristalsis is the stretch of the gut wall

Gastric emptying sequence into duodenum

Options
Fat > Protein > carbohydrate
Fat > carbohydrate > Protein
Protein > Fat > carbohydrate
Protein > Fat > carbohydrate
Explanation

Gastricemptying is fastest for food rich in carbohydrate. It is slow for protein rich diet and is slowest for fat rich diet

Maximum postprandial motility is seen in

Options
Ascending colon
Transverse colon
Descending colon
Sigmoid colon
Explanation

Themajor postp randial increase in motilityoccurs in the proximal descending colon

In infants, defecation often following meal. The cause of colonic contraction in this situation is

Options
Gastroileal reflex
Enterogastric reflex
Increased circulation levels of CCK
Gastrocolic - reflex
Explanation

Distensionof the stomach by food - causes contractions of the rectum leading to defecation. This reflex is called gastrocolic reflex

Mass movement of the colon would be abolished by

Options
Extrinsic denervation
Distension of the colon
Gastrocolic reflex
Destruction of auerbach's plexus
Explanation

Auerbach'splexus primarily control GI motility

Migrating motor complex is due to which GI hormone

Options
Gastrin
Motilin
CCK
VIP
Explanation

MMC is initiated by Circulating level of motilin increases at intervals of approximately 90- 100 min in the interdigestive state

Major regulator of interdigestive myoelectric complexes

Options
VIP
GIP
Motilin
Neurotensin

Intestinal motility is increased by

Options
Secretin
Gastrin
CCK
Motilin

In peristalsis following is involved except

Options
NO
Substance P
Noradrenaline
VIP
Explanation

Contractingsegment of peristalsis - Acetylcholine and Substance P are responsible
Relaxationsegment of peristalsis - Nitric oxide and VIP are responsible

Which of the following is involved in peristalsis by causing relaxation

Options
Substance P
Acetylcholine
VIP
Oradrenaline

Longest transit time in GIT is seen in

Options
Stomach
Jejunum
Colon
Ileum
Explanation

Segment                              Transit Time

Cecum                                   4hrs

First thi rd of the colon            6hrs

Second thi rd of the colon        9h rs

Sigmoid colon                         12h rs
 

While doing sigmoidoscopy, if the rectum is inflated is inflated with gas increased peristalsis is seen in

Options
Whole colon
Proximal colon
Distal colon
Whole intestine
Explanation

Increasein rectum initiates defecation reflex
So,peristalsis increases in distal colon

Slow waves/BER maximum in

Options
Stomach
Ileum
Colon
Rectum
Explanation

GI Segment               Rate of BER

Duodenum                     12/min

Terminal Ileum                8/min

Stomach                         4/min

Cecum                            2/min

Sigmoid colon                  6/min

Submucosal plexus of GIT

Options
Myenteric plexus
Auerback's plexus
Meissner's plexus
Extrinsic nerve
Explanation

Auerbachplexus
Alsoknown as myenteric nerve plexus
Itis present in between the inner circular muscle layer and the outer longitudinal muscle layer
Itis concerned primarily with motor control (Myenteric: Motility)
Meissnerplexus
Alsoknown as submucous plexus
Itlies in the submucosa
primarilyinvolved in the control of intestinal secretion (Submucosal: Secretion and blood flow)
Innervatesthe glandular epithelium, intestinal endocrine cells, and submucosal blood vessels

Inhibition of Myentric plexus results in

Options
Hyperacidity
Diarrhea
Decreased gut motility
Increased secretions
Secretion in GIT is Controlled by

Options
Myenteric plextus
Auerbach's plexus
Meissner's plexus
Extrinsic nerve

Parasympathetic nerve stimulation results in

Options
Sphincter closure of gallbladder
Increased peristalsis
Decreased GIT motility
Detrusor muscle relaxation
Explanation

Parasympatheticstimulation causes,
Relaxationof sphincters
Increasedperistalsis
Increasein GI motility
Increasein gallbladder contraction
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11. 11

Question (11/11)

All of the following GIT hormones belong to secretin family except-

Options
Secretin
Glucagon
CCK
VIP
Explanation

Gastrin and cholecystokinin belongs to gastrin family

Which of the following statements, regarding 'secretin' is least correct?

Options
Increase bicarbonate rich secretion
Inhibit gastric acid secretion
Increase gastric acid secretion
Causes contraction of pyloric sphincter
Explanation

Secretininhibits gastric acid secretion

Stimulator of secretin secretion-

Options
Epinephrine
Acid
PrevAcetykholine
Mark
Fat
Explanation
Skip

Stimulatorof secretin is acidic chyme
In response to acidic chyme in duodenum, secretin causes pancreatic juice rich in bicarbonate

Effect of cholecystokinin on GIT-

Options
Increases gastric acid secretion
Increases small intestine peristalsis
Increases gastric motility
Relaxes gallbladder
Explanation

CCK Increases small intestine peristalsis

Fat in the duodenum lumen-

Options
Stimulates gallbladder contraction
Inhibits gallbladder contraction
Inhibits CCK secretion
Release secretion
Explanation

CCK causes contraction of the gallbladder

Gallbladder contraction is stimulated by

Options
Gastrin
Secretion
Vagus
Cholecystokinin
Explanation

Stimulator ofCCK is food containing fat in duodenum

Gastrin-

Options
Is a hormone secreted by pepsinogen cells
Is a polypeptide
Is released in cephalic phase
Cause gastricjuice secretion at a rate of 500-700 ml/hr
Explanation

Gastrinis a polypeptide hormone

Which one of the following is the primary site of production of gastrin

Options
Pylorus
Antrurn
Pancreas
Small intestine
Explanation

Producedby G cells in the antral portion of the gastric mucosa

Which causes antral gastrin release-

Options
Antral distension
Acid
Secretion
Calcitonin
Explanation
 Antraldistension causes gastrin release

Motilin is secreted by cells in-

Options
Stomach
Duodenum/ileum
Pancreas
Liver
Explanation

Motilinis produced by Mo cells in small intestine

Enteroendocrine Cell                Secreting Hormone

G cells                                         Gastrin

Icells                                           Cholecystokinin

S cells                                         Secretin

K cells                                         Gastric inhibitory peptide or glucose-
 dependent insulinotropic peptide (GIP)

Mo cells                                       Motilin  

D cells                                         Somatostatin

I cells of duodenum secrete

Options
Secretion
Gastrin
CCK
Motilin
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Question (27/27)

A man cannot digest carbohydrate. The enzyme deficient is

Options
Lipase
Amylase
Pepsin
Trypsin
Explanation

Amylaseis the carbohydrate digesting enzyme present in saliva and pancreatic secretions

Chymotrypsinogen is a

Options
Zymogen
Carboxypeptidase
Transaminase
Elastase
Explanation

Most of the pancreatic enzymes are stored as inactive forms
(zymogens). This is mainly to prevent the autodigestion of pancreas

All are secreted in zymogen form except

Options
Pepsin
Prev
MarkTrypsin
SkipLipase
Colipase
Explanation

Lipaseis released as active form

Trypsinogen is converted to Trypsin by

Options
Combination of 2 molecules of trypsinogen
Phosphorylation
Removal of few amino acids from trypsinogen
Addition of alkyl group
Explanation

Enterokinasecatalyzes the cleavage of one specific peptide bond in trypsinogen resulting in formation of trypsin

The mechanism that protects normal pancreas from auto digestion is

Options
Secretion of bicarbonate
Protease inhibitors present in plasma
Proteolytic enzymes secreted in inactive from
The resistance of pancreatic cells

All of the following enzymes are active within a cell except

Options
Trypsin
 Fumarase
Hexokinase
Alcohol dehydrogenase
Explanation

Trypsinogenis the inactive form of trypsin

All are endopeptidases except-

Options
Trypsm
Chymotrypsin
Elastase
Carboxy peptidases
Explanation

Carboxypeptidasesare exopeptidases
Trypsinis an endopeptidase

Salivary amylase is activated by-

Options
Na+
K+
HC03
Cl
Explanation

Salivaryamylase is activated by chloride ions

Digestion of disaccharides occurs at-

Options
Mouth
Stomach
Small intestine
Large intestine
Explanation

Disaccharidasesare present only in small intestine

Which disaccharides are not broken down in git-

Options
Lactulose
Maltose
Sucrose
Lactose
Explanation

Lactuloseis a non-absorbable sugar used in the treatment of constipation

Which of the following enzymes is stable at acidic pH-

Options
Pepsin
Trypsin
Chymotrypsin
Carboxypeptidase
Explanation

Pepsinis stable at the acidic gastric pH

Pepsin is activated by
Options
Enterokinase
HCL
Uropepsinogen
Trypsinogen
Explanation

Pepsinogento pepsin is converted by HCL

Trypsinogen is converted to trypsin by-

Options
Pepsin
Enterokinase
HCl
None

All have significant role in digestion of fat, except

Options
Pancreatic lipase
Colipase
Lingual lipase
Bile-salts
Explanation

Lipases in saliva and gastric juice have a minimal role in fat digestion

Pancreatic lipases is the most important

Pancreatic lipase that digests lipids requires-

Options
VitB12
Pyridoxine
Tocopherol
Colipase
Explanation

Colipasefunctions as a cofactor for pancreatic lipase

Main enzyme involved in digestion of Fatty food

Options
Lingual lipase
Gastric lipase
Pancreatic lipase
Phospholipase

Pancreatic lipase hydrolyses ester linkage of triglycerides at position -

Options
1& 2
1& 3
2&3
Only 3
Explanation

Pancreaticlipases hydrolyze triglycerides in the 1 and 3 position, leaving two free fatty acid molecules and a monoglyceride

End-Product of the action of salivary amylase is-

Options
Mannose
 Maltose
Sucrose
Fructose
Explanation

Saliva contains salivary amylase or ptyalin that hydrolyses a(l 4) glycoside bonds of starch producing a-
limit dextrins, maltotriose, and maltose

Amount of protein undigested in small intestine is?

Options
1-5 %
10-20 %
5-10 %
25-30 %
Explanation

99% of  ingested  proteins  are completely  digested  and absorbed

Which of the following is passively adsorbed in gut

Options
Glucose
Lipids
Fructose
Amino-acids
Explanation

Absorptionof glucose and proteins require sodium (active transport)
Lipids absorption is passive

Sodium potassium pump is essential for active intestinal transport of-

Options
Folic acid
Amino acids
Bile salts
Fatty acids

Resection of which intestinal segment causes marked electrolyte imbalance

Options
Duodenum
Jejunum
Ileum
Sigmoid
Explanation

Jejunumis the most important part of small intestine for nutrients, water and electrolytes absorption

Iron absorption takes place in which part of intestine

Options
Duodenum
Ileum
Jejunum
Colon
Explanation

Absorptionof iron mainly occurs in duodenum

Classification of dietary fibers

Water insoluble/less fermented

Cellulose
 Hemicellulose
Lignin

Water soluble/well fermented

Pectins
Gums
Mucilages

True about High roughage in diet is

Options
Decreases stool transit time
Increases stool transit time
Normalize stool transit
No effect on stool transit time
Explanation

Dietary  fibersspeeds the passage of  foods through  the digestive system (decreases transit time)

Which of the following plant components is not fermented by gastrointestinal microorganisms

Options
Lignin
Cellulose
Hemicellulose
Pectin

Colonic bacteria, on digestion of dietary fibers would give

Options
Free radicals
Glycerol
Butyrate
Sucrose
Explanation

Water soluble  fibers  are  fermented  by  microflora  to form Short-

chain fatty acids (SCFAs) which are acetate, propionate and butyrate

Caloric provided by lgm dietary fibers is

Options
2 cal
10 cal
15 cal
20 cal
Explanation

Dietaryfiber contribute 2 kcal or 8 KJ/g
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Question (10/10)

Appetite is stimulated by all of the following peptides Except

Options
Agouti - related peptide (AGRP)
Melanocyte stimulating hormone (MSH)
Melanin concentrating Hormone
Neuropeptide Y
Explanation

Melanocyte-stimulating hormone (a-
MSH) inhibits food intake. It is an Anorexigenic substance or satiety promoting factor

Appetite is increased by

Options
Leptin
GLP
Peptide YY
Ghrelin
Explanation

Ghrelin
Ghrelinis a 28-
amino acid peptide secreted primarily by oxyntic gland area of the stomach
MajorFunctions of ghrelin are,

+ It increases the appetite (orexinergic)

+ Increases gastric motility
Prev
+Mark
Increases secretion of gastric acid,
Skip
+ Increases adipogenesis

+ Increases insulin secretion

+ Increases growth hormone

Ghrelinlevels peakjust before food intake begins (fasting state)
Plasmalevels of ghrelin are low in obese persons
Ghrelinlevels are high in anorexia nervosa

Which hormone is secreted from stomach that control intake of food

Options
Orexin
Insulin like growth hormone
Cholecystokinin
Ghrelin
Ghrelin false is

Options
Produced by stomach cells
Increased appetite
Is related to regulation of thyroid hormone
Stimulated growth

Regarding Ghrelin which is false

Options
Secreted from oxyntic cells
Increased fat deposition
Stimulated appetite
Secretion increased in anorexia

Not true about ghrelin is

Options
Causes lipolysis
Has anorexic effect
Secreted by oxyntic cells
None of the above

During starvation, which level increases

Options
Leptin
MSH
Ghrelin
Insulin

In obesity, leptin level

Options
High
Normal
Low
May be low to normal
Explanation

Obesityis characterized by leptin resistance

The cell bodies of orexinergic neurons are present in

Options
Locus ceruleus
Dorsal raphe
Lateral hypothalamic area
Hippocampus
Explanation

Orexinis also called hypocretin

Itis produced mainly from Lateral hypothalamic area

About Neuropeptide Y all are true except

Options
It is mediated through melanocorticotropin hormone
Decreases thermogenesis
Its level decreases during starvation
Contains 36 aa residues
Explanation

NeuropeptideY increases feeding
Itslevel increases during starvation
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Question (9/9)

Energy expenditure in resting state depends on-

Options
Lean body mass
Adipose tissue
Resting heart rate
Exercise
Explanation

Leanbody mass means fat free mass
BMRdepends on lean body mass

Basal metabolic rate closely associated with?

Options
Lean body mass
Body surface area
Body mass index
Body height
Explanation
 Bodysurface area is the most important factor that affects basal metabolic rate
"Rubner'slaw"states that
BMR should be related to surface area rather than body mass.Thislaw isalso called as "surface law of metabolism"

BMR depends on-

Options
PrevBody weight
MarkSurface area
SkipAmount of adipose tissue
Amount oflean body mass

Decreased basal metabolic rate is seen in-

Options
Obesity
Hyperthyroidism
Feeding
Exercise
Explanation

Obesity occursbecause of decreased BMR, increased food intake, and reduced activity

Which of the following increases BMR-

Options
Starvation
Obesity
Ingestion of food
Sleep
Explanation

Ingestionof food increases BMR

02 consumption is minimal when temp gradient between skin and external environment is-

Options
<0.5
<2.5
< l.50
<3.5
Explanation

02consumption is minimal when temp gradient between skin and external environment is very very minimal

Slow wavesare generated by

Options
Myentric neurons
Smooth muscle
Interstitial cells of Cajal
Parasympathetic neurons
Explanation

Pacemakers of GI tract - "Interstitial cells of Cajal"

Interstitial cells of Cajal are the pacemaker cells

Theyform gap junctions with GI smooth muscles
Theyare mainly responsible for the "generation of Basic electrical rhythm (BER)"
Pacemakercells in stomach are located in the midbody of the stomach along the greater curvature
Incolon, they are located at the submucosal border of the circular musclelayer

Deglutitive inhibition

Options
Wave of inhibition preceding peristalsis
Inhibition occurs simultaneously with Peristalsis
Inhibition occurs after Peristalsis
Wave of stimulation preceding peristalsis
Explanation

Deglutitiveinhibition means "A second swallow, initiated while anearlier peristaltic contraction is still progressing in the striatedmuscle esop
ofthe contraction induced by the first swallow
Ithappens secondary to hyperpolarization of the circular smooth muscle
 It  is   mediatedthrough nonadrenergic, noncholinergic neurons in the myentericplexus in GI tract

A patient who underwent extensive bowel resection is on total parenteral nutrition (TPN) for 1 month. Endoscopy doneafteronemonth reveals
diffuse gastricmucosal atrophy. Which enzyme deficiencies are most likely responsible for gastric mucosa! atrophy in this patient?

Options
Gastrin and ghrelin
Secretin and CCK
Gastrin and CCK
Gastrin and secretin
Explanation

Gastrin and CCK deficiencies can cause Gastric mucosa! atrophy
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Question (10/10)

Which of the following secretions has a very high pH

Options
Gastric juice
Pancreatic juice
Bile in gallbladder
Saliva
Explanation

Highlyalkaline - pancreatric juice (pH- 3)
Highlyacidic - Gastric juice (pH - <3)

Lowest pH is seen in which of the gastrointestinal secretion

Options
Gastric juice
Bile juice
Saliva
 Pancreatic juice

Bile acids are synthesize from

Options
Cholesterol
Amino acids
Bilirubin
Protein
Prev
Explanation
Mark
Skip Bile acids are synthesized from cholesterol

Which of the following undergo enterohepatic circulation?

Options
Bilirubin
Biliverdin
PAHA (Para amino hippuric acid)
Urobilinogen
Explanation

Constituents of bile namely bile acids and bile salts undergo enterohepatic circulation

Entero hepatic circulation is necessary for the secretion of

Options
Bile
Intestinal Juice
Pancreatic Juice
Gastric Juice

Bilirubin is derived from

Options
Myoglobin
Haptoglobin
Muscle
Cholesterol
Explanation

Bilirubin- formed by breakdown of heme present in hemoglobin, myoglobin, cytochromes, catalase, peroxidase and tryptophan pyrrolase

In blood bilirubin iswith

Options
Protein
Steroid
Vitamin
Carbohydrates
Explanation

Inblood, bilirubin is albumin bound

Normal Brown colour of stool is due to

Options
Urobilin
Stercobilinogen
Stercobilin
Urobilinogen
Explanation

Stercobilinis responsible for the brown color of human feces

All of the following are trypsin inhibitors,Except

Options
Alpha - I antitrypsin
Alpha - I antiproteinase
Enterokinase
 Egg - White
Explanation

Enterokinaseactivates trypsinogen to trypsin

Paneth cells in the mucosa of the small intestine secrete

Options
Lysozyme
Bioactive peptides and bioamines
Bicarbonate
Pepsin and Rennin
Explanation

Paneth cells secrete lysozyme
Question (1/15)

Compensating mechanisms involved at high altitude

Options
Hyperventilation
Hypoventilation
Respiratory depression
Respiratory acidosis

Which of the following is seen in high altitude climbers -

Options
Hyperventilation
Decreased PaC02
Pulmonary edema
All Of above

A 32-year-old high altitude mountaineer is observed to have a hematocrit of 70%. Which of the
following represents the most likely cause/explanation :

Options
Polycythemia with increased red cell mass
Relative polycythemia due to dehydration
Polycythemia due to hemoconcentration
Polycythemia with high altitude pulmonary edema

During acclimatization to high altitude all of the following take place except:

Options
Increase inminute ventilation
Increase in the sensitivity of central chemoreceptors
Increase inthe sensitivity of carotid body to hypoxia
Shift in the oxygen dissociation curve to the left

A person goes to the mountains. When he reaches about 5000 ft. He develops dyspnea. Which of
following correctly explains for the symptoms:
Options
CNS depression
Co2 wash out
Increased work of breathing
Increased blood flow to the pulmonary tissues

A person unacclimatized develops pulmonary edema:

Options
19-21 days
Znd - 3rd month
2-3 days
6-7 days

The stimulation of which of the following causes hyperventilation at high altitude:

Options
Peripheral chemoreceptors
Vagal afferents
Central chemoreceptors
Proprioceptors

The following acute respiratory response to ascent to high altitude, there isnormalization of
blood pH. The mechanism is:

Options
Increased erythropoiesis leads to increased buffering by hemoglobin
Increased excretion of HC03- by the kidneys
Increased levels of 2, 3-DPG
Retention of bicarbonate by the kidneys

Which of the following adaptations willbe apt toincrease the work capacity at high altitude:

Options
Increasing workload, decreasing duration of exercise
Increasing workload, increasing duration of exercise
Decreasing workload, increasing duration of exercise
 Decreasing workload, decreasing duration of exercise

Nitrogen narcosis is caused due to:

Options
Nitrogen inhibits dismutase enzyme
Increase production of nitrous oxide
Increased solubility of nitrogen in nerve cell membrane
Decrease in oxygen free radicals

Caisson'sdisease is:

Options
Gas embolism
Fat embolism
Amniotic fluid embolism
Tumor embolism

True about caisson's disease:

Options
02 release from tissues
co2 release from tissues
N2 release from tissues
H2 release from tissues

In caissons disease pain in joint is because of:

Options
Nitrogen bubble
Oxygen bubble
Carbon monoxide
Air injoint

A pilot in Sukhoi aircraft is experiencing negative G which of the following physiological events
will manifest in such situation?

Options
 The hydrostatic pressure in veins of lower limb increases
The cardiac output decreases
Black out occurs
The cerebral arterial pressure rises

Asapart of space-research program, aphysiologist was asked to investigate the effect of flight-
induced stress on blood pressure. Accordingly the blood pressure of the cosmonauts was to be
measured twice: Once before the takeoff and once after the spacecraft entered the designated
orbit around the earth. For a proper comparison, the preflight blood pressure should be recorded
in:

Options
The lying down position
The sitting position
The standing position
Any position, as long as the post - flight recording is made in the same position
Prev
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Question
18. 18
Hemolysis
19. 19 is:
20. 20
Options
21. 21
22.Erythrocyte
22 sedimentation
23.Adhesive
23 of thrombocytes
24.Destruction
24 of erythrocytes
25.Lysis
25 of blood clot
26. 26
Which
27. 27one of the following parameters participates in water metabolism between blood and
tissues?
28. 28
29. 29
Options
30. 30
Osmotic pressure
31. 31
32.Blood
32 cells
33.Specific
33 weight
34.PH34
Prev
35. 35
Basic
Mark function of Neutrophiles is:
36. 36
Skip
37. 37
Options
38.Participation
38
in coagulation of blood
39. 39
Synthesis of heparin
40. 40
Phagocytosis
41. 41
42.Production
of antibodies
42
43. 43
What is appear in first phase of blood coagulation?
44. 44
45. 45
Options
46.Formation
46 of thrombosis
47.Aggregation
47 of thrombocytes
48.Formation
48
of prothrombinase
49. 49
Fibrinolysis of fibrin
50. 50
51.thrombus
Red 51 consist of:
52. 52
Options
53. 53
54.Thrombocytes
54 and leukocytes
55.Fibrin
55 and blood cells
56.Aggregated
56 thrombocytes
57.Hemolysed
57
erythrocytes
58. 58
59. 59solution leads to plasmolysis of erythrocytes?
Which
60. 60
Options
61. 61
62.Isotonic
62 solution
63.Hypotonic
63 solution
64.Hypertonic
64 solution
65.Distil
65 water
66. 66
Which
67. 67one of the following hemolysis may arise in transfusion of foreign blood?
68. 68
Options
69. 69
70.Chemical
70
Mechanical
71. 71
72.Biological
72
73.Osmotic
73
74. 74
PH of75
75. blood is:
76. 76
Options
77. 77
Neutral
78. 78
79.Alkaline
79
Acidic
80. 80
81.Alkalescent
81
82. 82
In which of the following cases according to the blood pH you see alkalosis?
83. 83
84. 84
Options
85.7.23
85
86. 86
7.35
87. 87
7.53
88. 88
89.7.40
89
90. 90
What kind of BODY PROTECTION can provide blood?
91. 91
92. 92
Options
93.Clotting
93 mechanism
94.Delivery
94 of O2 to tissues
95.Transport
95 of nutrients to cells
96. 96
Purification from waste products
97. 97
98. 98
Which
99. 99one of the followings is absent in blood serum?
100. 100
Options
101. 101
102.Albumins
102
Electrolytes
103. 103
104.Fibrinogen
104
105.Globulins
105
106. 106
In which
107. 107 of the following cases according to the blood pH you see acidosis?
108. 108
Options
109. 109
110.7.23
110
7.35
111. 111
112.7.53
112
7.40
113. 113
114. 114
Which
115. 115one of the following factors is important for physic-chemical regulation of blood pH?
116. 116
Options
117. 117
Buffers
118. 118
Neuro-reflectory junctions
119. 119
Gastrointestinal tract
120. 120
121.Plasma
121 proteins
122. 122
What is known as a homeostasis?
123. 123
124. 124
Options
125.Constancy
125 of external environment
126.Constancy
126 of interstitial tissue
127. 127
Constancy of internal environment
128. 128
Constancy of blood parameters
129. 129
130. 130
What does the Hematocrit represent?
131. 131
Options
132. 132
133.Correlation
133 of blood cell to plasma volume
134.Correlation
134 of WBCs to RBCs
135.Correlation
135 of Hemoglobin and leucocytes number concentration
136. 136
Correlation of plasma proteins
137. 137
138. 138 viscosity-hematocrit dependence?
Determine
139. 139
Options
140. 140
141.The
141more hematocrit the higher viscosity
142.The
142less hematocrit the higher viscosity
143.The
143hematocrit doesn’t have influence to the blood viscosity
144. 144
 145.Independent
145 correlation
146. 146
What will happen to the red blood cells when it is placed in a hypotonic solution?
147. 147
148. 148
Options
149. 149
150.It150
wrinkles
151.It151
swells and burst
152.None
152 of the above
153.All of the above
153
154. 154
Which
155. 155one of the following polypeptide chains combinations characterized Fetal Hb?
156. 156
Options
157. 157
2α2β
158. 158
2α2γ
159. 159
2α2σ
160. 160
161.2α2β-
161 glucose
162. 162
Which one of the following coagulation factors switch on first in blood coagulation?
163. 163
164. 164
Options
165.Fibrin
165 stabilizing factor
166.Anti-hemophilic
166 factor
167. 167
Hageman factor (contact)
168. 168
Christmas factor (PTC)
169. 169
170. 170
What is observed in hypotonic solution with RBCs ?
171. 171
Options
172. 172
173.Swelling
173 of RBCs
174.Wrinkling
174 of RBCs
175.Dissolving
175 of RBCs
176. 176
None of the above
177. 177
178. 178 effect to helminthes have a:
Cytotoxic
179. 179
Options
180. 180
181.Eosinophils
181
182.Neutrophils
182
183.Lymphocytes
183
184.Monocytes
184
185. 185
All of186
186. the following thrombocytes properties, EXEPT;
187. 187
Options
188. 188
189.Chemotaxis
189
Absorbing
190. 190
 191.Aggregation
191
192.Adhesive
192
193. 193
What determine hemostasis in the big vessels?
194. 194
195. 195
Options
196. 196
197.Formation
197 of White thrombus
198.Formation
198 of Red thrombus
199.Using
199 of anticoagulants
200.Endothelium
200 vasodilatators
201. 201
The
202.Rhesus-conflict
202 can arise
203. 203
Options
204. 204
At repeated transfusion Rh (-) blood Rh (+) recipient
205. 205
If at the mother Rh (+) blood and at a fetus Rh(-)
206. 206
207.At207
unitary transfusion Rh (+) blood to the patient with Rh (+)
208.At208
the mother and at a fetus blood Rh (-)
209. 209
How called liquid portion of the blood?
210. 210
211. 211
Options
212.Water
212
213. 213
Plasma
214. 214
ICF
215. 215
216.ECF
216
217. 217
Blood oxygen capacity depends on:
218. 218
219. 219
Options
220.Atmospheric
220 pressure
221.Partial
221 pressure of CO2
222. 222
Plasma proteins
223. 223
Hemoglobin concentration
224. 224
225. 225
Which one of the parameters may help in diagnosis of hypochromic anemia?
226. 226
Options
227. 227
228.Leukocyte
228 number concentration
229.Serum
229 total protein
230.Determination
230 of the leukocyte type number fraction
231.Erythrocyte
231 number concentration
232. 232
Most
233. 233
of the carbon dioxide produced by tissues is transported to the lungs as:
234. 234
Options
235. 235
236.Small
236 gas bubbles in the plasma
237.Gas
237bound to hemoglobin in the red blood cells
238.Bicarbonate
238 ions in the plasma
239.Gas
239bound to white blood cells and albumin
240. 240
Blood is composed of

Options
Plasma and red blood cells
Plasma and blood cells
Red and white blood cells
RBCs, WBCs and platelets

Blood fails to clot in the absence of

Options
Magnesium
Calcium
Sulphur
Potassium

The urge to breathe comes in direct response to:

Options
How long it has been since you last took a breath
The buildup of nitrogen within your blood stream
The pH of blood
The oxygen concentration of your surrounding environment

The threads formed during clotting are made up of

Options
Thrombin
Prothrombin
Fibrinogen
Ca++ and buffers

Which of the followings should be present for production of antibodies?

Options
RBCs
WBCs and platelets
Antigens
Hemoglobin

Which one of the following shapes has RBCs?

Options
 Biconcave discs
Biconvex discs
Cylindrical
Spherical

What is the difference of haemostatic phases - coagulation and platelets?

Options
Formation of white and red thrombus
Erythrocytes hemolysis
Thrombocyte adhesion
Vasoconstriction

What does fibrinolysis represent?

Options
Fibrin formation
Fibrin dissolution
Thrombus formation
Polymerization of fibrin fibers

Which function has an iron at the heme contents?

Options
Transport of CO2
Transport of O2
Determine the pH of blood
Formation of antibodies

What does estimate the eosinophiles?

Options
Anemia
Hypertension
Hypoxia
Mixed intestinal helminthes infestation

Taking aspirin every day can reduce the risk of heart disease because:

Options
It is a powerful vasodilator
It blocks pain receptors in heart tissue
It prevents platelet clumping
It loosens plaque on arterial walls

A hematocrit measures percentage of

Options
White blood cells
Serum
Platelets
Red blood cells

Which blood component plays the largest role in maintaining the Colloid osmotic pressure of
blood?

Options
Albumin
CO2
WBCs
Fibrinogen

Analyze the following presented reactions at the case if you hold your breath for one minute and
choose correct answer.

Options
The kidneys will increase sodium ion reabsorption
H+ concentration in the blood will increase
The heart rate will greatly slow
Hemoglobin will binds to oxygen more strongly

You take a blood sample from a male cyclist at the end of a long race. The hematocrit is 60%. The
most likely conclusion is:

Options
This is within normal range for most adult males
This cyclist is anemic
This cyclist is dehydrated
This low of a hematocrit could indicate liver damage or leukemia

The Fe3+ portion of hemoglobin is eventually:

Options
Converted into transferrin in the large intestine
Converted into transferrin in the kidney
Excreted from the body
All of the above

Which of the following is not found in the lymphatic system?

Options
Veins
Nodes.
 Arteries
Capillaries

An individual with type B (+) blood has which of the following antibodies in their blood:

Options
Anti-A and anti-O
Anti-B
Anti-A
None of the above

The releasing mechanism of hemostasis is:

Options
Vasoconstriction
Blood transfusion
Vascular disruption
Agglutination of erythrocytes

Red blood cells are destroyed in the ____________.

Options
Lungs
Liver
Kidney
Spleen

Mike's blood type is O- and Naomy's is B+. Mike and Naomy have a son who is AB+. What do you
conclude?

Options
If they have a second child Naomy needs to have Rh+ shot
There is no risk to a second child, unless it has a negative blood type
If the child needs a blood transfusion Mike could provide it safely, but not Naomy
Mike is not the boy’s father

A bag of donated blood does not clot because

Options
There is no enough oxygen
It cannot dry out
It is kept refrigerated
There is no free calcium

The blood vessels that carry blood to and from the head are the

Options
 Iliac arteries and veins.
Subclavian arteries and veins.
Carotid arteries and jugular veins.
Anterior (superior) and posterior (inferior) vena cavae.

An example of the urinary system working with the respiratory system to regulate blood pH
would be When you hold your breath the kidneys will remove CO2 from your blood

Options
If you exercise a lot your urine will become more acidic
If you develop emphysema the kidneys will remove fewer bicarbonate ions from circulation
If you hyperventilate the kidneys will counteract the alkalinity by adding hydrogen ions into
the blood stream
None of the above-the urinary system never works with the respiratory system

The Rh-conflict during pregnancy arises…

Options
Rh-factor presence in mother and absence in father and baby
Rh-factor presence in mother and baby and absence in father
Rh-factor presence in mother, father and baby
Rh factor presence in father and baby and absence in mother

The enzyme that ultimately lyses fibrin is:

Options
Plasminogen
TPA
Thromboxane A2
Plasmin

Shrinking of RBCs when solution is:

Options
Isotonic
Hypertonic
Hypotonic
All Of these

Each female average blood cell contains hemoglobin approximately:

Options
10 - 11 g/l
16 -20 g/l
11 - 17 g/l
12 - 14 g/l
Platelet aggregation is inhibited by:

Options
ADP
5-HT
PG I2
Thromboxane A2

Which of the following clotting factors is vitamin K dependent?

Options
Thrombin formation
Red thrombus formation
Fibrinolysis
Formation of prothrombin

Allergic reactions accompanies with …

Options
Neutrophilia
Basophilia
Eosinophilia
Monocytosis

Heme is converted to bilirubin mainly in the:

Options
Liver
Kidneys
Lungs
Bone marrow

Serum is:

Options
Blood that has no red blood cells
The liquid portion of blood including clotting factors
The liquid portion of blood after it has clotted
The proteins of blood

What are the Rh-agglutinin properties, EXCEPT?

Options
It appears after sensibilisation
It is a noncomplete antibody
It sticks Di-agglutinogens
 It relates to of gamma-globulins fraction

ESR is increased in:

Options
Erythrocytosis
Polycythemia
Anemia
All of the above

2 liters of Ringer’s lactate is administered to a 12-year old boy with isotonic dehydration. What
will be the change in ICF volume?

Options
No change
Increases by 2 liters
Increase
Decreases by 0.5 liter

The decrease in oxygen affinity of Hb when the pH of blood falls is:

Options
Bohr effect
Haldane effect
Hawthorne effect
Hamburger effect

Blood leaves the right ventricle via the

Options
Aorta.
Pulmonary trunk.
Coronary arteries.
Anterior vena cava.

O2 is chiefly transported in blood:

Options
As bicarbonate
Bound to hemoglobin
As dissolved O2
In combination with plasma proteins

Which type of blood vessels carries blood away from the heart?

Options
Veins
 Arteries
Capillaries
Arteries, veins and capillaries

Prolongation of prothrombin time does not occur when there is a deficiency of only:

Options
Factor VIII
Factor IX
Factor VII
Vitamin K

The severity of acidosis is related to:

Options
Anion gap
PH of arterial plasma
PH of ICF and plasma
Plasma HCO3

Amongst plasma proteins, albumin makes the greatest contribution to the colloid osmotic
pressure of plasma proteins because:

Options
Albumin has a very high molar mass, and its concentration in plasma is low
Albumin has a very low molar mass, and its concentration in plasma is high
Albumin has a very low molar mass, and its concentration in plasma is low
Albumin has a very high molar mass, and its concentration in plasma is high

Which of the following is not isosmotic with normal human plasma?

Options
5% dextrose
0.85% NaCl
20% mannitol
None of the above

ICF volume does not change when dehydration is:

Options
Isotonic
Hypertonic
Hypotonic
None of the above

In a healthy 70 kg adult, plasma volume was found to be 3000 ml. Hematocrit was 40%. His blood
volume would be about:
Options
5000 ml
5200 ml
5400 ml
5600 ml

ICF volume decreases when dehydration is:

Options
Isotonic
Hypertonic
Hypotonic
None of the above

Each red blood cell contains hemoglobin approximately:

Options
10 g/l
20 g/l
11 g/l
14 g/l

Platelet aggregation is stimulated by:

Options
Thromboxane A2
Fibrinogen
ADP
All of the above

Red cell antigens A and B are chemically:

Options
Phospholipids
Glycosphingolipids
Glycopeptides
Polypeptides

Which of the following is NOT synthesized in the liver?

Options
NaCL
α2 macroglobulin
Albumin
Angiotensinogen
The average half-life of neutrophils in the circulation is:

Options
6 hours
5 days
2 weeks
1 month

When a serum sample is electrophoresed, which one of the following bands is absent?

Options
Albumin
α1 globulin
α2 globulin
Fibrinogen

Which one of the following does NOT have vasodilator actions?

Options
NO
Thromboxane A2
Protein C and S
Endothelins

The HbO2 formation is due to:

Options
Allosteric effects
Leucocyte concentration
The effects of 2,3–BPG on oxygen affinity of Hb
Hemoglobin concentration

CO2 is chiefly transported in blood:

Options
As bicarbonate
Bound to hemoglobin
As dissolved CO2
In combination with plasma proteins

The most common acid-base disturbance in patients on mechanical ventilators is

Options
Metabolic acidosis
Metabolic alkalosis
Respiratory acidosis
 Respiratory alkalosis

Acidosis is diagnosed according to relations of:

Options
Anion gap
PH of arterial plasma
PH of ICF and plasma
Plasma HCO3-

Leucocytes formula (in %) of the adult person at total leucocytes content equal to 7х109/l is
normal, EXCEPT

Options
Basophils- 0%
Eosinophils - 18%
Neutrophils - 55% (tube-nuclear – 4%, segment-nuclear - 51%)
Lymphocytes- 22%

A hematocrit value of 80 is termed:

Options
Polycythemia
Anemia
Thrombocytopenia
Leukemia

During hemoglobin recycling in the spleen, heme is initially converted into:

Options
Bilirubin
Biliverdin
Urobilin
Urobilinogen

The Fe3+ portion of hemaglobin is eventually:

Options
Converted into transferrin in the large intestine
Converted into ferritin in the kidney
Excreted from the body
All of the above

Which of the following structures are commonly seen in both skeletal and cardiac muscle?

Options
Nexuses
 Distinct sarcoplasmatic reticulum
Neuromuscular junction
Ca++ sources into mitochondrias

Which one of the following correctly describes an event that normally occurs during the PR
interval?

Options
The ventricle is contracting
The cardiac action potential passes through the AV node
There is no change in the voltage tracing on the ECG
The mitral and aortic valves are both closed

An increased neutrophil count typically is associated with:

Options
An ongoing bacterial infection
Neutropenia
Allergic reactions
An ongoing parasitic infections

Helminthes invasion accompanies with …

Options
Neutrophil leucocytosis
Basophilia
Eosinophilia
Monocytosis

Patient, 20 years has hyperthermia (till 38,5˚C) and leucocytosis. Which types of leucocytes are
secreted the biologically active substance that induces hyperthermic reaction while circulating in
blood?

Options
Lymphocytes
Basophils
Eosinophils
Neutrophils

Healthy boy (5 years old) playing with knife accidentally cuts a finger. How long bleeding will last?

Options
A few seconds
A few minutes but not more than 6min
More than 5 min but not more than 10 min
Less than 1 hr
A hematocrit of 41% means that in the sample of blood analyzed

Options
41% of the hemoglobin is in the plasma;
4l% of the total blood volume is made up of blood plasma;
4l% of the total blood volume is made up of red and white blood cells and platelets;
4l% of the hemoglobin is in red blood cells;

Lymphocytes ?

Options
All originate from the bone marrow after birth;
Are unaffected by hormones;
Convert to monocytes in response to antigens;
Are part of the body’s defense against cancer

In which of the following diseases is the structure of the hemoglobins that are produced normal
but their amount reduced?

Options
Chronic blood loss;
Sickle cell anemia;
Hemolytic anemia;
Thalassemia;

The factors listed below determine ESR value, EXCEPT

Options
Leucocytes content;
Albumin content;
Globulin content;
Fibrinogen content;

ESR is considered to be the measure of following blood physical-chemical property

Options
Stability of colloid solution;
Blood suspensial properties;
Volume of blood cellular part;
Blood viscosity.

The functions of erythrocytes are following, EXCEPT

Options
Erythropoietic function;
Immunological function;
Homeostatic function;
 Trophic function

Patient with an artificial aortal valve was admitted to the hospital for additional observation
connected with hemolythic anemia symptoms. What type of hemolysis develops in the patient?

Options
The immune;
The osmotic;
The mechanical;
The thermal;

Erythropoietin’s secretion is caused by ...

Options
Blood androgens concentration;
Blood catecholamines concentration;
The level of oxygenation in the kidneys;
Blood estrogens concentration

What physiological property provides the erythrocytes biconcave form?

Options
The osmotic stability;
Membrane plasticity;
Blood antigen differentiation;
Easier gases diffusion through membrane

Blood analysis of man revealed big nucleus-containing erythrocytes content. What organism
condition could result in nuclear erythrocytes significant increasing?

Options
Cholera;
Burn;
Dyzenteria;
Acute bleeding;

Which of these leukocytes is an agranulocyte?

Options
Basophil;
Eosinophil;
Neutrophil;
Lymphocyte

Albumin, globulins, and fibrinogen are examples of

Options
 Formed elements;
Platelets;
Plasma proteins;
Granulocytes;

Rh antigen is found in:

Options
Erythrocyte;
Plasma;
Leukocytes;
Platelets

Serum - plasma is devoid of

Options
Albumin;
Globulins;
Fibrinogen;
Agglutinogen

Red cells in a hypertonic solution reduces its volume, as it develops:

Options
Hemolysis;
Plasmolysis
Globulins;
Agglutinogens

The acid-base state is maintained by the presence of blood in the blood

Options
Oxygen transport systems;
Immune responses;
Buffer systems;
Blood groups

Agglutinogens determining the blood group affiliation, consists in:

Options
Erythrocyte;
Plasma;
Leukocytes;
Platelet

Agglutinin is:
Options
Alpha;
Beta;
Alpha, Beta
None of these

Blood plasma proteins produce

Options
Osmotic pressure;
Blood pressure;
Venous pressure;
Oncotic pressure

Carbonic anhydrase in RBC forms :

Options
Oxyhemoglobin;
Carboxyhemoglobin;
HCO3 in blood;
Carbaminohemoglobin

When osmotic fragility is normal, RBC's be hemolyse when suspended in saline :

Options
0.33% ;
0.48%;
0.9% ;
1.2%

The general peripheral resistance of vessels depends on:

Options
Heart rate
Linear speed of a blood
Cardiac output
Diameter and length of a vessel

Thromboxane A2 is released mainly by the:

Options
Platelets;
Vascular endothelium
Liver
Muscles
The greatest amount of CO2 is transported i blood as :

Options
RBC's;
HCO3-
Carbaminohemoglobin
H2CO3

What is the effect of acetylcholine on the membrane potassium conductivity in SA node?

Options
Does not change
At first decreases, and then increases
Increases
Decreases

Endothelial cells synthesize:

Options
Fibrinogen
Factor VIII
Factor X
Factor XI

Life span of R.B.C. is:

Options
30 days;
90 days;
120 days;
160 days

How acts histamine on diameter of peripheral vessels:

Options
Increases only in the presence of angiotensin
Increases
Decreases
Does not change

Haemoglobin first appears in :

Options
Early normoblast;
Intermediate normoblast;
Late normoblast;
 Pro normoblast

Resistive vessels are:

Options
Arterioles
Veins
Capillaries
Aorta

Thrombosthenin is :

Options
Coagulation factor;
Contractile protein;
A thrombosis promoting protein;
A protein regulating platelet production

Thrombosthenin is present in :

Options
Plasma;
Platelets;
Neutrophils;
RBC's

Haematocrit is ratio of :

Options
WBC to plasma;
Platelets to plasma;
RBC's to plasma;
Total blood cells to plasma

Sympathetic cholinergic nervous fibers in blood vessels cause to:

Options
No essential influence
Sometimes vasoconstriction, sometimes vasodilatation
Vasodilatation
Vasoconstriction

The commonest site of haemopoiesis in fetus is :

Options
Liver;
Spleen;
 Bone marrow;
Gut

Eosinophilia is caused by all except :

Options
Stress;
Aspirin;
Pain;
Ascariasis

Average the BP at physical activity performance:

Options
At first increases, and then decreases
Increases
Decreases
Does not change

The term “capacitance vessels” is applied to:

Options
Pulmonary capillaries
Thoroughfare channels
Shunts
Veins and venules

Metabolic alkalosis associated with prolonged vomiting is primarily due to loss of

Options
Na+
K+
CI-
H+

Normal albumin/globulin ratio is

Options
2:1
1.7:1
1:1.7
1:2

All the following cells come under reticuloendothelial system, EXCEPT

Options
Microglia
 Ependymal cells
Osteoclasts
Pulmonary alveolar macrophages

During ventricular ejection, the pressure difference smallest in magnitude is between the

Options
Pulmonary artery and left atrium
Right ventricle and right atrium
Left ventricle and aorta
Left ventricle and left atrium

Life span of platelets is

Options
5-9 days
2-4 weeks
4-6 hours
1-2 months

Heparin acts as an anticoagulant by

Options
Preventing the action of calcium ions
Inhibiting the active form of factor X
Preventing activation of prothrombin to thrombin
Antagonizing vitamin K

Propagation of the action potential through the heart is fastest in the

Options
SA node
Atrial muscle
AV node
Purkinje fibers

Which intercellular junctions allow the passage of small molecules and ions from one cell to
another?

Options
Gap junctions
Focal adhesions
Zonula occludens
Desmosomes

The electrocardiogram is most effective in detecting a decrease in

Options
Ventricular contractility
Total peripheral resistance
Ejection fraction
Coronary blood flow

The force of muscle contraction cannot be increased by:

Options
Increasing the frequency of activation of motor units
Increasing the number of motor units activated
Increasing the amplitude of action potentials in motor neurons
Recruiting larger motor units

The site of origin in the nerve of conducted impulses is the:

Options
Dendritic zone
Axon hillock
Node of Ranvier
Terminal buttons

Action potential conduction velocity is influenced by:

Options
Axon diameter
Temperature
Myelination
All of the above

In the CNS, the membranes that wrap around myelinated neurons are those of:

Options
Schwann cells
Oligodendroglia
Endothelial cells
Astrocytes

Although the equilibrium potential of Na is + 40 mV, the membrane potential does not reach this
value during the overshoot because:

Options
The concentration gradient of Na is reversed
Na channels undergo rapid inactivation
K efflux commences immediately after the upstroke
The membrane is impermeable to Na
The percentage of the total cardiac output distributed to any single organ is most dependent on

Options
The contractile state of the heart
The magnitude of mean blood pressure
The magnitude of diastolic pressure
The ratio of an organ’ s vascular resistance to total peripheral resistance (TPR)

The duration of action potential in a skeletal muscle fiber is typically:

Options
5 ms
30 ms
300 ms
250 ms

Thin filaments do NOT contain:

Options
Actin
Myosin
Troponin
Tropomyosin

The ATPase activity of which of the following proteins is altered to regulate skeletal muscle
contraction?

Options
Actin
Myosin
Troponin
Tropomyosin

Smooth muscle lacks:

Options
Actin
Myosin
Troponin
Tropomyosin

Which of the following statements regarding type I muscle fibers is incorrect?

Options
They are rich in myoglobin
Their oxidative capacity is high
Their myosin ATPase activity is high
 Their glycolytic capacity is moderate

Turbulence is more likely to occur in a blood vessel if

Options
The velocity of blood within the vessel increases
The viscosity of blood within the vessel increases
The diameter of the vessel decreases
The length of the vessel increases

At which of the following sites does the blood flow lose the greatest amount of energy?

Options
Aorta
Arterioles
Capillaries
Venules

Which one of the following is FALSE about resistance to blood flow in the vessel:

Options
It is dependent on the haematocrit
It depends on the thickness of the vessel’s membrane
It is directly proportional to the length of the vessel and inversely to the fourth power of the 
radius of the vessel
It is depends on the character of blood flow

Which of the following is NOT increased during exercise?

Options
Stroke volume
Total peripheral resistance
Systolic BP
Heart rate

The PR interval of ECG corresponds to

Options
Ventricular repolarization
Atrial repolarization and conduction through AV node
Ventricular repolarization
Repolarization of AV node and bundle of His

The portion of the intrinsic conduction system located in the interventricular septum is the:

Options
AV node
 SA node
AV bundle
Purkinje fibers

An ECG provides information about:

Options
Cardiac output
Movement of the excitation wave across the heart
Coronary circulation
Valve impairment

In the heart, which of the following apply? (1) Action potentials are conducted from cell to cell
across the myocardium via gap junctions, (2) the SA node sets the pace for the heart as a whole, (3)
spontaneous depolarization of cardiac cells can occur in the absence of nerve stimulation, (4)
cardiac muscle can continue to contract for long periods in the absence of oxygen.

Options
All of the above
1, 3, 4
1, 2, 3
2, 3

Freshly oxygenated blood is first received by the:

Options
Right atrium
Left atrium
Right ventricle
Left ventricle

Hypokalaemia:

Options
Hyperpolarises membrane
Peaked T waves
Prolonged QT
Alt version

In a normal heart at rest the LV end-systolic volume is:

Options
10 to 30 ml
50 to 70 ml
120 to 150 ml
80 - 100 ml
Duration of ventricular systole:

Options
0,4 sec
0,З sec.
0,1 sec.
0,8 sec.

During pulmonary circulation, blood leaves the

Options
Left ventricle and moves to the lungs.
Right ventricle and moves to the lungs.
Right ventricle and goes directly to the aorta.
Right atrium and goes directly to the lungs.

The major source of calcium for contraction of skeletal muscle is:

Options
ECF
Cytosol
Mitochondria
Sarcoplasmic reticulum (SR)

Which nerve fiber type is MOST susceptible to conduction block by local anesthetics?

Options
Type A
Type B
Type C
All Of Above

Which of the following is the major force generating blood pressure?

Options
Blood vessel diameter
Blood viscosity
Peripheral resistance
Pumping action of the heart

Excitatory postsynaptic potentials (EPSP) are not produced by:

Options
Opening of Na channels
Closure of K channels
Opening of calcium channels
 Opening of chloride channels

Exchange of gases and nutrients occurs by diffusion between the

Options
Capillaries and tissue cells
Arterioles and tissue cells
Arterioles and venules
Artery walls and tissue cells

When skeletal muscle is in its resting state, myosin cross-bridges are prevented from binding to
actin molecules by

Options
Actin
Tropomyosin
Titin
Myoglobin

You are meausring the pulse and find it has a normal rhythm and volume. How should you record
this?

Options
Regular and strong
Thready and regular
Dysrhythmia and regular
Bounding and strong

Which of the following has an effect on blood pressure

Options
Pain
Severe hypoxia
Body position
All of the above

The inhibitory effect of troponin-tropomyosin complex on actin filament is itself inhibited by:

Options
Na+
Ca++
Mg++
K+

When measuring blood pressure, the first clear tapping sound represents

Options
 The diastolic Pressure
The palpatory blood pressure
The systolic pressure
Phase IV of the Korotkoff sounds

In an isotonic contraction,

Options
Muscle length shortens
Muscle tension exceeds the force of the load
The load is moved
All of the above

The functional unit of contractile system in striated muscle is

Options
Myofibril
Cross bridges
Z-band
Sarcomere

Atrial depoloarization is represented by the

Options
QRS complex
ST segment
P wave
T wave

Which one of the following sets of ions are necessary in the chemical events for muscle
contraction?

Options
Na+ and K+
Ca+ + and Mg+ + ions
Na+ and Ca++ ions
Na + and Mg++ ions

Excitability is ability of the

Options
High-differentiated tissues to conduct of excitation
High-differentiated tissues to give specific response (action potential) on irritant
Tissues to rhythmic self-excitation
None of the above
Where are synthesized mediators?

Options
In the soma
In the synaptic cleft
In the axon hillock
In the postsynaptic membrane

Regarding exocytosis:

Options
Is always employed by cells for secretion
Is used to deliver material into the extracellular space
Take up large molecules from the extracellular space
Allows the retrieval of elements of the plasma membrane

Motor units:

Options
Are largest in muscles responsible for delicate movements
Consist of a muscle fiber and all the nerves that supply it
Consist of a motor neuron and all the muscle fibers it supplies
Are the same as neuromuscular junctions

Skeletal muscle is described by all of the following EXCEPT:

Options
Striated
Voluntary
Multinucleate
Autorhythmic

The smallest contractile unit of skeletal muscle is a:

Options
Sarcomere
Motor unit
Synapse
Thin filament

When an action potential reaches the presynaptic terminal of the motor neuron:

Options
Calcium is released inside of the muscle fiber
Acetylcholine is released into the synaptic cleft
Acetylcholinesterease is released into the synaptic cleft
 Physical contact between the motor neuron and the muscle fiber occurs

Which of the following actions is caused by skeletal muscle?

Options
Vasoconstriction
Vasodilation
Eye movements
Heart beat

The main NT involved in skeletal muscle contraction is

Options
Epinephrine
Norepinephrine
Acetylcholine
None of these

Which description of muscle contraction means that all of the fibers within a muscle are fully
contracted?

Options
All-or-none law
Summation
Tetanic
Muscle twitching

Choose one correct answer.

Options
Calcium binds directly to myosin to promote crossbridge formation.
In a resting heart muscle cell, tropomyosin acts to shield the myosin binding sites on actin.
Binding of ATP to actin acts to detach myosin from actin.
None are correct.

Facilitated diffusion can be distinguished from simple diffusion by which of the following
statements?

Options
Facilitated diffusion is saturable, simple diffusion is not
Facilitated diffusion requires ATP, simple diffusion does not
Facilitated diffusion is not chemically specific, simple diffusion is
Facilitated diffusion is dependent on concentration gradient, simple diffusion is not

Branched nerve fibers that convey impulses toward the cell body of a neuron are called

Options
 Axons
Dendrites
Axon collaterals
Axon terminals

Precapillary sphincters

Options
Carry blood under high pressure
Control the blood flow into capillary beds
Are found in the tunica media
Serve as valves in veins

For an action potential to occur

Options
The stimulus must reach or exceed threshold
Na+ influx must exceed K+ efflux
The membrane must be out of the relative refractory period
A and B

The myelin sheath around a neuron is actually produced by the:

Options
Neuron
Axon
Dendrites
Schwann cells

Muscle fatigue sets in due to non availability of

Options
Calcium
ATP
Actin binding site
All Of These

Peter’s heart rate is 100 beats per minute, and his stroke volume is 50 ml per beat. Under these
conditions, what is Peter’s cardiac output?

Options
150 ml per minute
500 ml per minute
1500 ml per minute
5,000 ml per minute
Nerve fiber type C is:

Options
Thin myelined fiber
Thick myelined fiber
Preganglionary fiber
Postganglionary fiber

The major regulatory proteins in muscle tissue are:

Options
Myosin and tropomyosin
Myosin and actin
Actin and troponin
Troponin and tropomyosin

Light band has which of the following filament protein?

Options
Myosin
Actin
Myosin and actin
None of these

Regarding the skeletal muscle fiber, EXCEPT:

Options
Voluntary
Striated
Innervated by motor unit
Intercalated disc

Difference between the end diastolic and end systolic volume is

Options
Stroke volume
Cardiac output
Cardiac reserve
None of the above

An action potential is:

Options
A migrating region of membrane potential reversal
A flow of electrons along the sarcolemma
A nucleophilic reaction between Na and K ions
 Something that is only caused by acetylcholine

Choose one correct answer:

Options
During an isometric contraction the tension goes up and the muscle shortens.
Heart muscle cells can normally develop tetanic contractions.
Skeletal muscle cells are normally held at a muscle length that maximizes their ability to
generate force.
None are correct.

The difference between a person’s maximum cardiac output and resting cardiac output is called
the

Options
Cardiac reserve
Ejection Fraction
Preload
Afterload

Smooth tetanus is

Options
Summation of contractions in shortening phase
Delayed relaxation in a result of fatigue
Passive shortening owing to denaturation
Tonic contractions

The effect of calcium ions on neurotransmitter release at synapses include:

Options
Vesicular fusion
Tonic depolarization of the presynaptic neuron
Post-tetanic potentiation
Transport of synaptic vesicles to the presynaptic active zone of release

Stroke volume divided by the end-diastolic volume is

Options
Cardiac reserve
Ejection Fraction
Preload
Afterload

The resting membrane potential of a cell

Options
 Is dependent on the permeability of the cell membrane to K+ being greater to Na+
Falls to zero if Na+/K+ ATPase in membrane is inhibited
Is equal to the equilibrium potential  for K+
Is equal to the equilibrium potential of Na+

An example of co-transport is

Options
Na+-K+ pump
Ca++ pump
Na+- H+ pump
Na+ glucose transport

EDV-ESV is equal to

Options
Venous return
Stroke volume
Cardiac reserve
Cardiac output

Saltatory conduction

Options
Is seen only in myelinated nerve fibres
Is slower that non saltatory conduction
Is not affected if a local anesthetic is applied to the node of Ranvier
None of the above

Diffusion:

Options
Depends on the gradient of concentration
Results in net movement of molecules from regions of low concentration to regions of high
concentration
Is important for moving molecules over large distances in the body
All of the above

The sum of all the stroke volumes ejected from the heart over a one minute period is

Options
Cardiac output
End systolic volume
End diastolic volume
None of the above
During the rising phase of an action potential,

Options
Voltage-gated Na+ channels open
Voltage-gated K+ channels open
Voltage-gated Na+ channels close
Voltage-gated K+ channels close

Decreasing the extracellular concentration of calcium:

Options
Facilitates destruction of transmitter at cholinergic synapses
Inhibits destruction of transmitter at cholinergic synapses
Inhibits release of vesicles at all types of synapses
Acts like increased magnesium to facilitate release of vesicles at all types of synapses

Regarding to Cell membrane

Options
Formed entirely of protein molecules
Are impermeable to fat soluble substances
Have a liquid mosaic structure of lipids and proteins
Are not changed throughout the life

Choose one correct statement:

Options
Calcium binds directly to myosin to promote crossbridge formation.
In a resting heart muscle cell, tropomyosin acts to shield the myosin binding sites on actin.
Binding of ATP to actin acts to detach myosin from actin.
None are correct.

Hypokalemia would be expected to result in:

Options
Increased neuronal excitability
A more negative RMP
No change in RMP
A decrease in firing level of neurons

Which one of the followings is site of origin in the nerve electrical impulses:

Options
Dendritic zone
Axon hillock
Node of Ranvier
 Terminal buttons

The number of Na channels per square micrometer of membrane in myelinated mammalian

neurons is maximum in the:

Options
Cell body
Dendritic zone
Initial segment
Node of Ranvier

Which list of muscle structures proceeds from smaller to larger in diameter?

Options
Myofilament, fascicle, muscle fiber, myofibril
Fascicle, myofibril, muscle fiber, myofilament
Myofilament, myofibril, muscle fiber, fascicle
Myofibril, fascicle, muscle fiber, myofilament

Synaptic knobs are to axons as ____________ are to sarcolemmae, in that both are structural
modifications involved in transmitting electrochemical signals across the synaptic cleft.

Options
Synaptic vesicles
Motor end plates
Sarcoplasmic reticula
Transverse tubules

An action potential enters a neuron..

Options
By diffusion.
By the T-tubules.
By the sarcolemma.
By the actin myofilament.

The amount of blood in the ventricles at the end of diastolic filling is known as

Options
Cardiac output
EDV
ESV
None of the above

In the neuromuscular junction, acetylcholine...

Options
 Diffuses across the synaptic cleft and binds to acetylcholine receptors on the postsynaptic
muscle fiber.
Is actively transported across the synaptic cleft and binds to acetylcholine receptors on the
postsynaptic muscle fiber.
Diffuses across the synaptic cleft and causes calcium ions to diffuse into the postsynaptic
muscle fiber.
Diffuses across the synaptic cleft and causes sodium ions to diffuse out of the postsynaptic
muscle fiber.

Of the following substances, the lipid bilayer is most permeable to

Options
Sodium
Urea
Glucose
Water

Skeletal muscle contraction involves which of the following events?

Options
A nerve impulse followed by a muscle impulse
Release of calcium ions from terminal cisternae
Tropomyosin moving to expose active sites on actin molecules
All of the above

The magnitude of the maximal (end-diastolic) ventricular volume or the end-diastolic pressure
stretching the ventricles is

Options
Cardiac reserve
Ejection fraction
Preload
Afterload

In motor neurons, the portion of the cell with the lowest threshold for the production of a full-
fledged action potential is:

Options
Initial segment
Soma
Dendritic zone
Node of Ranvier

What actually shortens when a muscle fiber contracts?

Options
 Thick and thin filaments
A bands, M lines, and Z discs
Sarcomeres, H zones, and I bands
Both b and c

In a test subject, oxygen consumption was measured at 700 mL/min. Pulmonary artery oxygen
content was 140 mL per liter of blood and brachial artery oxygen content was 210 mL per liter of
blood. Cardiac output was which of the following?

Options
4.2 L/min
7.0 L/min
10.0 L/min
30.0 L/min

Which one of the following statements about electrotonic potentials is incorrect?

Options
They are graded responses
They are local (non-propagated) responses
They may be depolarizing or hyperpolarizing
They are produced by a threshold stimulus.

Which one of the following is the best index of preload?

Options
Blood volume
Central venous pressure
Pulmonary capillary wedge pressure
Left ventricular end-diastolic volume

Which one of the following is the best index of afterload?

Options
Left ventricular end-diastolic pressure
Left ventricular mean systolic pressure
Pulmonary capillary wedge pressure
Total peripheral resistance

A motor unit is made up of ______

Options
All the muscle fibers within a given muscle
A motor neuron and the muscle fibers it innervates
All the neurons going into an individual section of the body
A fascicle and a nerve
The "thick" muscle filament is composed of:

Options
Myosin
Actin
Z-Lines
Sarcomeres

The highest blood flow per gram of left ventricular myocardium would occur

Options
When aortic pressure is highest
When left ventricular pressure is highest
At the beginning of isovolumic contraction
At the beginning of diastole
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Question
18. 18
Which
19. 19of the following would result from a regurgitant aortic valve in a nonfailing heart?
20. 20
Options
21. 21
22.A 22
decrease in diastolic pressure
23.A 23
decrease in cardiac energy consumption
24.A 24
systolic murmur
25.A 25
decrease in heart rate
26. 26
Stroke
27. 27volume is increased by
28. 28
Options
29. 29
A decrease in venous compliance
30. 30
31.An31increase in afterload
32.A 32
decrease in contractility
33.An33increase in heart rate
34. 34
Prev
An increased preload would most likely be caused by an increase in
35. 35
Mark
36. 36
Options
Skip
37.Arteriolar
37
tone
38. 38
Venous tone
39. 39
Myocardial contractility
40. 40
41.Heart
41 rate
A 42.
42 in heart failure improves markedly after using a drug that increases the inotropic state
patient
of43.
her43heart. Which one of the following changes is primarily responsible for the improvement in
44. 44
her condition?
45. 45
46. 46
Options
47.A 47
reduction in heart rate
48.A 48
reduction in heart size
49.An49increase in end-diastolic pressure
50. 50
An increase in wall thickness
51. 51
52. 52
Closure
53. 53 of the aortic valve occurs at the onset of which phase of the cardiac cycle?
54. 54
Options
55. 55
56.Isovolumetric
56 contraction
57.Rapid
57 ejection
58.Prodiastole
58
59.Isovolumetric
59 relaxation
60. 60
Which
61. 61one of the following is most likely to be observed in a patient with untreated atrial
fibrillation?
62. 62
63. 63
Options
64. 64
65.An65increased venous A wave
66.An66increased left atrial pressure
67.A 67
decreased heart rate
68.An68increased stroke volume
69. 69
Normal
70. 70 splitting of the second heart sound (S2) into two components is increased during
inspiration because
71. 71
72. 72
Options
73. 73
The closing of the aortic valve is delayed
74. 74
The opening of the mitral valve is delayed
75. 75
76.The
76 closing of the pulmonic valve is delayed
77.The
77 stroke volume of the left ventricle is increased
78. 78
Which of the following statements about the third heart sound (S3) is correct?
79. 79
80. 80
Options
81.It81
is usually diminished in congestive heart failure
82.It82
is produced by turbulence during rapid ventricular filling in early diastole
83. 83
It is produced by turbulence following atrial contraction
84. 84
It is often associated with the “floppy” mitral valve syndrome
85. 85
In86. 86
a resting, healthy man, the ejection fraction is approximately?
87. 87
Options
88. 88
89.0.1
89
90.0.2
90
91.0.3
91
92. 92
0.6
93. 93
94. 94 elevation of cardiac output will occur with which of the following conditions?
Sustained
95. 95
Options
96. 96
97.Hypertension
97
98.Aortic
98 regurgitation
 99.Anemia
99
100.Third-degree
100 heart block
101. 101
A102.
diastolic
102 murmur accompanied by an increased preload can be caused by
103. 103
Options
104. 104
105.Mitral
105 stenosis
106.Mitral
106 regurgitation
107.Atherosclerosis
107
108.Aortic
108 regurgitation
109. 109
Increasing
110. 110 vagal stimulation of the heart will cause an increase in
111. 111
Options
112. 112
Heart rate
113. 113
PR interval
114. 114
115.Ventricular
115 contractility
116.Ejection
116 fraction
117. 117
During exercise, there is an increase in a person’ s
118. 118
119. 119
Options
120.Stroke
120 volume
121. 121
Diastolic pressure
122. 122
Venous compliance
123. 123
124.Pulmonary
124 arterial resistance
125. 125
Phase depolarization of SA nodal cells is caused by
126. 126
127. 127
Options
128.An128
increase in the flow of sodium into the cell
129.A 129
decrease in the flow of potassium out of the cell
130. 130
An increase in the activity of the Na/Ca exchanger
131. 131
A decrease in the flow of chloride out of the cell
132. 132
133. 133
Cardiovascular changes that occur during inspiration include decreased
134. 134
Options
135. 135
136.Right
136 ventricular filling
137.Right
137 ventricular output
138.Pressure
138 gradient from extrathoracic veins to the right atrium
139.Systemic
139 blood pressure
140. 140
Blood
141. 141
pressure increases and heart rate decreases in response to
142. 142
Options
143. 143
144.Exercise
144
 145.Increased
145 body temperature
146.Exposure
146 to high altitude
147.Increased
147 intracranial pressure
148. 148
During
149. 149exercise, cardiac output is augmented by
150. 150
Options
151. 151
152.Sympathetic
152 stimulation of resistance vessels
153.Increased
153 ventricular contractility
154.Decreased
154 end-diastolic volume
155.Decreased
155 mean systemic arterial pressure
156. 156
When flow through the mitral valve is restricted by mitral stenosis,
157. 157
158. 158
Options
159. 159
Exercise can induce acute pulmonary edema
160. 160
161.Left
161ventricular preload increases
162.Left
162atrial pressure diminishes
163.Right
163 ventricular end-diastolic pressure decreases
164. 164
Stroke volume can be decreased by
165. 165
166. 166
Options
167. 167
Increasing ventricular contractility
168. 168
Increasing heart rate
169. 169
170.Increasing
170 central venous pressure
171.Decreasing
171 total peripheral resistance
172. 172
An ectopic extrasystole caused by a ventricular focus is characterized by
173. 173
174. 174
Options
175.Interruption
175 of the regular SA node discharge
176. 176
Retrograde conduction of the action potential to the atria
177. 177
A skipped ventricular contraction
178. 178
A skipped atrial contraction
179. 179
180. 180
Stroke volume can be increased by
181. 181
Options
182. 182
183.Decreasing
183 ventricular compliance
184.Increasing
184 venous compliance
185.Decreasing
185 total peripheral resistance
186. 186
Increasing heart rate
187. 187
188. 188
Which one of the following will be observed in a patient with a dilated failing left ventricle and a
189. 189
normal resting mean blood pressure?
190. 190
Options
191. 191
192.A 192
decreased heart rate
193.A 193
decreased left ventricular wall stress
194.An194
increased left ventricular ejection fraction
195. 195
An increased pulmonary capillary hydrostatic pressure
196. 196
197.ventricular
Left 197 wall stress will be decreased by an increase in
198. 198
Options
199. 199
200.The
200left ventricular end-diastolic volume
201.The
201contractility of the left atrium
202.The
202thickness of the free wall of the left ventricle
203.The
203total peripheral resistance
204. 204
Which
205. 205one of the following will be observed in a patient with aortic regurgitation?
206. 206
Options
207. 207
208.An increased ejection fraction
208
209.An increased mean blood pressure
209
210.An increased diastolic blood pressure
210
211.A 211
decreased pulse pressursure
212. 212
The
213.diagnosis
213 of a first-degree heart block is made if
214. 214
Options
215. 215
The PR interval of the ECG is increased
216. 216
217.The
217P wave of the ECG is never followed by a QRS complex
218.The
218P wave of the ECG is sometimes followed by a QRS complex
219.The
219T wave of the ECG is inverted
220. 220
Positive inotropic drugs such a digitalis reduce ischemic cardiac pain (angina) in a dilated failing
221. 221
heart by
222. 222
223. 223
Options
224.Decreasing
224 preload
225. 225
Increasing diastolic filling time
226. 226
Decreasing total peripheral resistance
227. 227
228.Increasing
228 heart rate
229. 229
Mitral prolapse is a common cause of mitral regurgitation in young women. Which one of the
230. 230 is observed in a patient with mitral prolapse?
following
231. 231
232. 232
Options
233.A 233
diastolic murmur
234.A 234
decrease in left ventricular volume
235.A 235
decrease in left ventricular volume
236. 236
 237.An237
increase in the V wave
238. 238
The
239.upstroke
239 of the SA nodal action potential is produced by opening a channel that is
240. 240
Options
241. 241
242.Primarily
242 permeable to Na+
243.Primarily
243 permeable to Ca2+
244.Primarily
244 permeable to K+
245.Primarily
245 permeable to CL-
246. 246
The
247.channel
247 responsible for the initiation of phase-4 depolarization in SA nodal cells
248. 248
Options
249. 249
Is primarily permeable to Na+
250. 250
Is opened by membrane depolarization
251. 251
252.Is252
opened by vagal nerve stimulation
253.Is253
primarily permeable to K+
254. 254
Sympathetic stimulation of the heart results in
255. 255
256. 256
Options
257.An257
increase in the activity of the SR calcium pump
258.An258
increase in the duration of systole
259. 259
An increase in the duration of diastole
260. 260
A decrease in the affinity of troponin for calcium
261. 261
262.
An 262
exercise stress test to rule out ischemic heart disease is positive if
263. 263
Options
264. 264
265.The
265systolic blood pressure rises
266.The
266ST segment of the ECG is depressed
267.The
267heart rate fails to increase
268. 268
A diastolic murmur is heard
269. 269
270. 270
Which one of the following values is greater in the pulmonary circulation than in the systemic
271. 271
circulation?
272. 272
Options
273. 273
274.The
274arterial resistance
275.The
275vascular compliance
276.The
276blood flow
277.The
277sympathetic tone
278. 278
What are dark bands that define the two ends of each sacromeres called.
279. 279
280. 280
Options
281. 281
Myosin
 Actin
Z-Lines
Sarcomeres

This is the explanation of how muscles contract.

Options
Lock and Key Hypothesis
Cell Theory
Mendels laws
Sliding filament model

How many T-tubules lie within a single skeletal muscle sarcomere?

Options
1
2
3
4

In skeletal muscle, a triad refers to which of the following?

Options
A T tubule sandwiched between 2 dilated cisternae of the sarcoplasmic reticulum
A Z line flanked by 2 A bands
An A band flanked by 2 I bands
An H zone flanked by 2 A bands

Which of the following does not describe skeletal muscle fibers?

Options
Striated
Typically voluntary
Multinucleate
Branched

Intercalated disks:

Options
Are found only in smooth muscle
Are found in skeletal and cardiac muscle
Are part of the neuromuscular junction in bipennate muscles
Contain desmosomes and gap junctions

In muscle tissue, neurotransmitter receptors are located

Options
 In synaptic vesicles
On the motor neuron axon terminals
On the motor end plate
In the synaptic cleft

Which of the following is NOT TRUE?

Options
All muscle tissue is contractile
Skeletal muscle is voluntary but smooth muscle is not
Superficial fascia holds skin to muscle
Muscles use the skeleton as leverage points as they push against bones to produce body
movement

Which of the following is unique to cardiac muscle tissue?

Options
Involuntary
Striated
Contains intercalated disks
Contains actin AND myosin

The walls of hollow organs and some blood vessels contain this muscle tissue:

Options
Striated
Smooth
Skeletal
Cardiac

Muscular dystrophy is a congenital disorder characterized by

Options
Skeletal muscle degeneration
Excessive convulsions
Shaking and trembling
Only cardiac damage

Anabolic steroids have all these effects except:

Options
Builds muscle proteins
Increases muscle strength
Increases number of muscles in the body
Can result in liver cancer and heart disease
Which of the following statements regarding aging and the muscular system is true:

Options
Aging is associated with decreased myoglobin production
The effects of aging can be nearly completely reversed
Satellite cells increase in aging causing fibrosis
Young persons have more adipose in muscles compared to elderly persons

Asymmetry of cell membrane in the inner and outer surfaces is attributed to all the following,
EXCEPT

Options
Irregular distribution of proteins within the cell membrane
External location of carbohydrate attached to membrane protein
Location of specific enzymes exclusively on the inside or outside of the membrane
Presence of transmembrane protein channels.

In cell membranes following are true EXCEPT

Options
Lipids are regularly arranged
Lipids are symmetrical
Proteins displaced laterally
Membrane lipids are amphipathic

True about lipid bilayer of cell membrane

Options
Assymmetrical arrangement of cell membrane component
Lateral diffusion of ions
Symmetrical arrangement of cell membrane components
Not made up of amphipathic lipids

Adition of polyunsaturated fatty acid (PUFA) in plasma membrane has the following effect

Options
Membrane becomes rigid
Increase in fluidity of membrane
Decrease in fluidity of membrane
No change in fluidity of membrane

The lipid bilayer of cell membrane is most permeable to

Options
Potassium
Sodium
Glucose
 Urea

Chemical gradient across cell membrane is maintained chiefly by

Options
Na+
Ca2+
K+
Cl-

The ion channels in excitable cells are lined by

Options
Cephalins
Proteins
Lipids
Carbohydrates

The lipid bilayer of cell membrane exists as

Options
Solid
Semisolid
Gel
Fibres

What is the role of Schwann cells in neurotransmission?

Options
Thermal insulation of neuronal axons
Limit the speed of the action potential
Enhance the speed of the action potential
Protect the neuronal soma from trauma

The opening of axon membrane voltage-gated potassium channels is responsible for which part of
the action potential?

Options
Depolarisation of the membrane
Repolarisation of the membrane
Contraction of the post synaptic muscle fibre
Signalling vesicular release of neurotransmitters

Nerve cells that function as integrators and can be found in the brain and spinal cord are referred
to as

Options
 Interneurons
Sensory neurons
Reflex neurons
Motor neurons

Normal anion gap humans is

Options
5-10 mEq/L
8-14 mEq/L
20-30 mEq/L
14-20 mEq/L

What increases the anion gap:

Options
Increased concentration of Mg2+
Decreased concentration of plasma proteins
Decreased concentration of lactate
Increased concentration of ketoacids

The central nervous system includes all the following components, EXCEPT :-

Options
Spinal cord
Medulla oblongata
Autonomic ganglia
Diencephalon

Receptor potential initiated by an adequate stimulus :-

Options
Develops always at it full magnitudes
Undergoes temporal summation only
Undergoes spatial summation only
Could initiate an action potential

The ability to localize the site of stimuli depends upon :-

Options
The type of the stimulated receptor
Connections between the receptor and the sensory cortex
The rate of adaptation of the stimulated receptors
The nature of the stimulus

Proprioceptive sensations include all the following, EXCEPT :-

Options
Position sense
Equilibrium sense
Movement sense
Kinesthetic sense

Connexons of gap junctions in electric synapses :-

Options
Are Ligand-gated
Are voltage-gated
Allow transmission of potential changes in both directions between the pre- and post- synaptic
neurons
Close whenever the presynaptic neuron becomes hyperpolarized

Chemical synapses in the nervous system :-

Options
Allow diffusion of chemical substances form the presynaptic neuron into the postsynaptic
neuron
Allow transmission of potential changes in one direction only; from the presynaptic to the
postsynaptic neurons
Have potential-gated ionic channels
Are more numerous in the peripheral nervous system than the central nervous system

IPSP differs from EPSP in :-

Options
Being of shorter duration
Being unable o summate spatially
Moving the membrane potential away from threshold
Depending upon opening of voltage K + channels

Synaptic transmission s terminated by :

Options
Block of pretsynaptic receptors
Elevation of Ca ++ concentration in synaptic cleft
Reuptake of neurotransmitters by postsynaptic neurons
Degradation of neurotransmitters by specific enzymes

Presynaptic inhibition is characterized by all the following, EXCEPT :-

Options
Increased Cl- influx into presynaptic terminals
Increased Ca ++ influx into presynaptic terminals
 Decreased response of postsynaptic receptors
Hyperpolarization of presynaptic terminals

A reflex arc includes :-

Options
At least two sets of sequential neurons
At least two sequential sets of central synapses
At least two types of sensory receptors
At least two types of efferent neurons

Interneurons :-

Options
Provide communication between the central ends of afferent neurons
Provide communication between dendrites of the efferent neurons
Influence the rate of discharge from the alpha motor neurons
Participate in ascending sensory pathways

The divergence function of interneuron’s is involved in :-

Options
Temporal summation
Spatial summation
Reverberation
Irradiation

All of the following are descending motor tracts, EXCEPT :-

Options
Rubrospinal tract
Spinotectal tract
Reticulospinal tract
Corticobulbar tract

Spinal shock is due to :-

Options
Severe pain felt at the site of the lesion
Severe hypotensive shock
Interruption of the ascending sensory pathways
Interruption of the descending facilitatory tracts

Nystagmus :-

Options
Occurs as a result of symmetrical bilateral discharge from the SCCs at the onset of rotation
 Occurs as a result of symmetrical bilateral discharge from the SCCs at the end of rotation
Prevents stabilization of the eye balls on visual objects
Is a vestibulo-ocular reflex

Functions of basal ganglia include all the following, EXCEPT :-

Options
Planning and programming of voluntary movements
Initiation of reflex movement.
Postural regulation
Executing learned pattern of movement.

Increased activity of the sympathetic nervous system causes

Options
Penile erection
Papillary constriction
Accommodation
Bronchiolar dilation

Which of these is NOT a feature of postganglionic neurons in the sympathetic nervous system?

Options
Originating distal to the effector organ
Short
Unmyelinated
Noradrenergic

The sympathetic system

Options
Has short post ganglionic fibres
Consists of vagus nerve
Produces nicotine at its nerve endings
Has a thoraco-lumbar outflow from the spinal cord

Electrical impulses gather and accumulate in which part of a neuron, in order to initiate an action
potential?

Options
Dendrites
Axon hillock
Axon terminal branches
Node of Ranvier

What is largely responsible for the negative resting membrane potential (around -70 mV) in a
neuron?
Options
Axonal insulation by Schwann cells
Voltage-gated sodium channels opening
The action potential
Potassium leak currents

Flow of fluid through the lymphatic vessels will be decreased if there is an increase in

Options
Capillary pressure
Capillary permeability
Interstitial protein concentration
Capillary oncotic pressure

The basic unit of the nervous system is the

Options
Dendrite
Neuron
Synapse
Cell

The distribution of blood among the various organs of the body is regulated by regulating the
resistance of the

Options
Arteries
Arterioles
Precapillary sphincters
Veins

Which one of the following signs is observed in a patient who has lost a significant amount of
blood?

Options
Respiratory acidosis
Polyuria
Bradycardia
Low hematocrit

A patient is diagnosed with anaphylactic shock rather than hypovolumic shock because

Options
Cardiac output is higher than normal
Ventricular contractility is greater than normal
Total peripheral resistance is greater than normal
 Heart rate is greater than normal

Which one of the following will increase if massaging the neckstretches the carotid sinus
baroreceptor?

Options
Total peripheral resistance
Right atrial pressure
Ventricular contractility
Vagal nerve activity

In the lungs, _____ gas enters the blood and _____ gas exits the blood.

Options
O2, PO4
CO2, H2O4
CO2, O2
O2, CO2

The cilia hairs and mucus of the conducting passages

Options
Filter impurities from the inspired air.
Reduce pulmonary pressure.
Reduce the surface tension in the alveoli.
Keep the lungs moist so gas diffusion can occur.

The muscles used for normal inspiration are

Options
Internal intercostals and Abdominals
Abdominal muscles and Bronchiolis
Trachead major
Diaphragm and External intercostals

Message transfer from one axon terminal to another neuron is called

Options
Brain power
A thought
Conduction
Synapse

The fluid-filled membrane that surrounds the lungs is the _______.

Options
Pleura
 Peritoneum
Synovia
Pneuminear membrane

The amount of air that is inspired or expired in one breath during unforced breathing is the

Options
Residual volume.
Vital capacity.
Tidal volume.
Expiratory reserve volume.

At rest, the inner membrane of the neuron is

Options
Negatively charged
Positively charged
Neutral
Non-existent

What part of the brain is responsible for automatic functions such as breathing and heart rate?

Options
Cerebrum
Thalamus
Hypothalamus
Medulla oblongata

The concentrations of substances in the plasma, in the glomerular filtrate, and in urine differ in
what way?

Options
Plasma contains the most water, glomerular filtrate contains less water, and urine contains
the least.
Plasma and glomerular filtrate are virtually identical, but urine contains proportionately more
waste products.
Plasma differs from glomerular filtrate and urine, which have virtually identical
concentrations of substances.
All three have the same concentrations of nutrients and waste materials, but differ in the
amount of proteinaceous material they contain.

Which of the following is a function of the pons?

Options
Acts to regulate body temperature
Provides motor signals to the red nucleus
 Controls vomiting and coughing
Contains nuclei that relay information from cerebrum to cerebellum

Which of the following areas of the brain can be considered the gateway to the cerebral cortex?

Options
Pons
Cerebellum
Thalamus
Basal nuclei

Which of the following areas of the brain is involved in maintaining the body's homeostasis?

Options
Hypothalamus
Pons
Cerebral cortex
Medulla oblongata

Which force favors filtration?

Options
Glomerular capillary hydrostatic pressure
Capsular hydrostatic pressure
Glomerular capillary osmotic pressure
Capsular osmotic pressure

Which ONE of the following neurotransmitters would you expect to find in the synapse during
fast inhibitory synaptic transmission?

Options
GABA
Acetylcholine
Noradrenaline
Glutamate

All of the following statements about "cephalization" are correct EXCEPT

Options
The posterior portion of the CNS is enlarged
It reaches is highest level in humans
There is an elaboration of the rostral portion of the CNS
There is an increased number of neurons.

The cerebral cortex has all the following features EXCEPT that

Options
 It is arranged in six layers
It accounts for 40% of the brain mass
It is composed of white mater
Its convoluted surface triples its surface

Juxtaglomerular cells of the juxtaglomerular apparatus secrete_______ when_____ ___.

Options
Angiotensin-converting enzyme; blood pressure increases
Potassium; chloride concentration declines
Renin; blood pressure drops
Atrial natriuretic peptide; blood volume drops

In which part of the cerebral cortex do sensations, emotions and thoughts come together and
make us who we are?

Options
The primary sensory cortex
The premotor cortex
The motor cortex
The multimodal associate areas

Tubular reabsorption is responsible for retaining nutrients the body requires. Most tubular
reabsorption occurs in the ______ where microvilli, and their numerous carrier proteins, increase
the surface area available for reabsorption.

Options
DCT
PCT
Collecting duct
Nephron loop

Which of the following are not found in the glomerular filtrate?

Options
Glucose
Protein
Uric acid
Creatinine

During normal, relaxed respiration, about ____ml of air enters and leaves the lungs with each
respiratory cycle.

Options
500
1100
 2300
4800

What process moves gases between the lungs and the blood?

Options
Diffusion
Osmosis
Membrane transport proteins in the alveolar membrane cells
The ferric (iron ion) shuttle

Adults normal breathing rate is ______ breaths per minute

Options
6 – 10
14 – 18
30 – 36
80 - 120

The conducting passages of the respiratory system DO NOT

Options
Warm the inspired air.
Exchange gases with the blood.
Clean the inspired air.
Humidify the inspired air.

The ability of the lung to return to its normal size after stretching is known as

Options
Resilience.
Compliance.
Capacitance.
Elastic recoil

Which factor does not affect glomerular filtration rate?

Options
Blood pressure
Osmotic pressure of the glomerular filtrate
Plasma osmotic pressure
Concentration of leukocytes in the blood

Within the renal tubule, two hormones play a role in determining the final volume and sodium
concentration of the urine. The hormone______ regulates sodium reabsorption, while_____
regulates water reabsorption.
Options
Aldosterone; antidiuretic hormone (ADH)
Cortisol; atrial natriuretic peptide
Renin; angiotensin II
Antidiuretic hormone (ADH); epinephrine

The structure which receives the filtrate from the glomerulus is the _____.

Options
Proximal convoluted tubule
Distal convoluted tubule
Bowman capsule
Loop of Henle

Which vessel directs blood into the glomerulus?

Options
Renal artery
Afferent arteriole
Efferent arteriole
Peritubular capillaries

What is the average glomerular filtration rate?

Options
10L per day
180L per day
1,500 ml per day
1 ml per minute

The maximum amount of air that can be expired after a maximum inspiration is called the

Options
Residual volume.
Vital capacity.
Tidal volume.
Expiratory reserve volume.

The iron ions that carry oxygen are part of the protein _______, which is found inside RBCs.

Options
Albumin
Erythropoitin
Hemoglobin
Glucose
The main form of Carbon dioxide travels in the blood ?

Options
Carbonic acid.
Bicarbonate ion.
Carbon monoxide
Glucose

The motor cortex is located in the __________ lobe of the brain.

Options
Parietal
Frontal
Temporal
Occipital

Parkinson's disease is caused by the degeneration of brain cells that produce and use

Options
Dopamine
Serotonin
Norepinephrine
GABA

Atmospheric pressure is around

Options
760 mmHg
500 mmHg
159 mmHg
850 mmHg

Reed just missed being in a bad car accident. Immediately following the incident, his heart was
racing, his palms were sweaty and he felt terrified. Which of the following is involved in these
responses?

Options
Limbic system
Autonomic nervous system
Pituitary gland
Broca's area

Renshaw cell inhibition of alpha motoneuron is an example of:

Options
Presynaptic inhibition
Postsynaptic inhibition
 Pituitary gland
None

The inhibitory amino acid neurotransmitters in the CNS are

Options
Glutamate and glycine
Glutamate and aspartate
GABA and glycine
Aspartate and glycine

Which of the following is the best example of a polysynaptic reflex?

Options
Stretch reflex
Axon reflex
Inverse stretch reflex
Withdrawal reflex

The vagus nerve regulates major elements of which part of the nervous system?

Options
Parasympathetic nervous system
Methasympathetic nervous system
Sympathetic nervous system
None

Acetylcholine is synthesised and packaged in the presynaptic terminal before being released to act
on the postsynaptic receptors. Which of these statements about that process in parasympathetic
postganglionic neurons is NOT true

Options
Acetylcholine is synthesised by the action of choline-o-acetyltransferase on choline and acetyl
coenzyme A.
Release of neurotransmitter is triggered when voltage sensitive calcium channels open to
allow the influx of calcium.
The released acetylcholine acts on postsynaptic nicotinic receptors.
Choline is recycled by being taken back up into the presynaptic terminal.

In order for the lungs to function normally, the intrapleural pressure must

Options
Be lower than alveolar pressure
Alternate between being less than and greater than atmospheric pressure
Be the same as atmospheric pressure
Alternate between being less than and greater than atmospheric pressure
The role of the limbic system in control of emotional behavior involves all the following, EXCEPT :-

Options
Homeostasis
Somatic motor responses
Consolidation of memory
Generalized sympathetic stimulation

Which of the following is usually not found in the urine?

Options
Magnesium
Urea
Uric acid
Glucose

The rise of receptor potential above the threshold is associated with

Options
Increase in the magnitude of action potential
Increase in frequency of action potential
Increase in receptor fatigability
Decrease in frequency of action potential

All of the following are characteristics of the conditioned reflex, EXCEPT:

Options
It is inborn
Is dependent on pre-existing unconditional reflexes
It can be unlearned
Hereditary does not play part in its transmission

What process occurs in Reabsorption?

Options
Plasma components enters into the final urine
Transport of water and low molecular weight components from plasma to Bowman’s capsule
Most of plasma components are transported back into the blood
Active transport of some ions, organic substances from blood to renal tubules

What part of the brain is responsible for automatic functions such as breathing and heart rate

Options
Cerebrum
Thalamus
Hypothalamus
 Medulla oblongata

Which of the following occurred by active transport?

Options
Albumin in the urine
Creatine in the urine
Reabsorption of water at the proximal tubule
Reabsorption of amino acids

Higher motor commands originate in all the following centers, EXCEPT:

Options
Cerebral cortex
Thalamus
Caudate nucleus
Cerebellum

The most common neurotransmitter in the body is _____.

Options
Serotonin
Dopamine
Acetylcholine
Norepinephrine

The action of aldosterone is to increase _____.

Options
Sodium elimination
Potassium reabsorption
Sodium reabsorption
Chloride excretion

Junction of two neurons is called _____________.

Options
Synapse
End plate
Axon
Dendrite

This type of the nervous cell has a defense function.

Options
Microglia
Oligodendroglia
 Ependyma
None of the above

The fluid in the descending limb of the loop of Henle is _____ relative to the capillaries.

Options
Isotonic
Weakly hypotonic
Strongly hypotonic
Hypertonic

Which of the following cells is responsible for myelin formation in the peripheral nervous
system?

Options
Astrocyte
Oligodendrocyte
Schwann cell
Microglial cell

The system that controls smooth muscle, cardiac muscle, and gland activity is the:

Options
Somatic nervous system
Autonomic nervous system
Skeletal division
Sensory nervous system

A neuron with many short dendrites and a single long axon is a:

Options
Multipolar neuron
Bipolar neuron
Unipolar neuron
None of the above

The respiratory membrane, across which gases diffuse, is very thin and is made up of

Options
Alveolar macrophages and the alveolar cell membrane
Alveolar cell membrane and its basement membrane
Alveolar cell membrane and capillary membrane
Alveolar cell membrane, capillary membrane, and fused RBCs membrane

Gray matter contains primarily:

Options
 Myelinated fibers
Neuron cell bodies
Schwann cells
All of the above

Which of the following structures is a component of a reflex arc?

Options
Afferent neuron
Efferent neuron
Sensory receptor
All of the above

What is the partial pressure of atmospheric oxygen?

Options
159 mm Hg
21%
760 mm Hg
0.3 mm Hg

A convergent circuit:

Options
Is a positive feedback system that produces many action potentials
Is a negative feedback system that produces IPSPs
Occurs when multiple neurons synapse into one neurons
Cannot be affected by a sodium channel blocker

Which one of the following neurotransmitters is allocated with neurons of black substance?

Options
Dopamine
Norepinephrine
Serotonin
Acetylcholine

Which mechanism of postsynaptic inhibition is concerned with:

Options
Membrane depolarization
Membrane hyperpolarization
Repolarization of membrane
Exhaustion raising of neurotransmitter

The nervous center:

Options
Carries out the analysis and synthesis of the received information
Delivers the information on work of effectors
Perceives and keeps the information
Perceives energy of an irritant and will transform it to a nervous impulse

The basic function of axons:

Options
Carries out information from a cell body to effectors
Inactivation of neurotransmitter
Information carrying out to a body of a neuron
Summate electrical impulses to a cell body

Which type of neuroglial cells help regulate the composition of cerebrospinal fluid?

Options
Astrocytes
Oligodendrocytes
Microglia
Ependyma

The phospholipid known as reduces surface tension within the alveoli so they do not collapse
during exhalation.

Options
Surfactant
Lipoprotein
Beryllium
Alveolar membrane lipoprotein

The total lungs capacity in a healthy adults is approx.?

Options
500 ml
3000 L
7000 L
6000 ml

What affect does ADH have on urine output?

Options
Minimal
Increases
Decreases
Maintains
Where does ADH have its greatest effect?

Options
Loop of Henle
Proximal convoluted tubule
Distal convoluted tubule
Glomerulus

Eating large amounts of meat will increase the levels of _____ in the blood.

Options
Protein
Creatinine
Urea
Uric acid

Which muscle metabolism waste product is eliminated by the kidneys?

Options
Urea
Uric acid
Creatine
Creatinine

Which of these has the highest concentration in the urine?

Options
Glucose
Sodium
Phosphate
Protein

In an attempt to compensate for plasma acidosis:

Options
Breathing rate and depth will increase
Breathing rate and depth will decrease
Breathing rate will increase and depth will decrease
Breathing rate and depth will not change since only the renal mechanism can deal with
acidosis

Which of the following is INCORRECT?

Options
Aldosterone stimulates the reabsorption of Na+
Aldosterone stimulates the secretion of K+
Aldosterone affects water reabsorption
 Aldosterone is made in the hypothalamus and released from the anterior pituitary

Increased sympathetic stimulation of afferent arterioles results in:

Options
Increased filtrate volume per unit time
Decreased filtrate volume per unit time
Increased GFR
Decreased ANP release by macula densa cells

The most important function of the JG apparatus is to:

Options
Secrete water into the filtrate
Reabsorb Na+
Generate bicarbonate ions to compensate for renal acidosis
Secrete renin

Gas is exchanged in the alveoli by a process of _____.

Options
Simple diffusion
Active transport
Facilitated diffusion
Filtration

What is the normal PCO2 of the capillary blood?

Options
159 mm Hg
46 mm Hg
40 mm Hg
100 mmHg

Surfactant in the alveolus need for:

Options
Decrease of surface tension of alveolar liquid,
Increase of penetrability of alveolus membrane to the gases
Increase surface tension of alveolar liquid
Create the lung’s elastic traction

The utilization of oxygen by metabolic processes is correctly referred to as _____.

Options
Respiration
Ventilation
 External respiration
Cell respiration

Following statements are true for dopamine, EXCEPT:

Options
It is related to Parkinsonism
It is found in the cells uninhibited by Ach in basal ganglia
It is one of the endogenous opiates from CNS
It cannot be replaced in CNS from dietary dopamine

The intrapleural pressure at the end of deep inspiration is

Options
4 – 6 mm Hg
– 9 – 12 mm hg
+ 4 + 6 mm Hg
0 - 2 mm Hg

The Renshaw cell

Options
Receive recurrent collaterals from motor neurons and inhibit other motor neurons in the
vicinity
Is the inhibitory system of cerebellum
Are a major component of muscle spindle
Are present in retina

Which one of the represented volumes is residual air?

Options
2000-2500 ml
1000-1200 ml
350-500 ml
100 ml

Premotor cortex refers to

Options
Some areas anterior to primary motor cortex causing complex co-ordinate movements like
speech, eye movements
An area of motor cortex responsible for voluntary movements
An area in temporal cortex
An area of cerebellum

Functions of limbic system are all, EXCEPT

Options
Olfaction
Gestation
Feeding behaviour
Sexual behaviour

Which one of the represented volumes is reserve respiratory?

Options
500 ml
1200-1500 ml
2000-3000 ml
1000-1200 ml

What is the vital capacity of lungs in women?

Options
2000-2500 ml
1500-2500 ml
3000-4500 ml
4500-5000 ml

When a normally innervated skeletal muscle is stretched the initial response is contraction, with
increase in the stretch sudden relaxation occurs because of

Options
Decrease in gamma efferent discharge
Inhibition of the discharge from annulospiral endings of afferent nerve fibres
Decreased activity of afferent nerve fibres from golgi tendon organs
Increased activity of afferent nerve fibres from golgi tendon organs

Parasympathetic system

Options
Has short preganglionic fibres
Secretes dopamine
Controls most of the movements and secretions of gut
Brings increase in heart rate during exercise

What is the vital capacity of lungs in men?

Options
5000-8000 ml
2500-3000 ml
4000-6000 ml
7000-8000
The basal ganglia are primarily concerned with

Options
Sensory integration
Short term memory
Control of movement
Neuroendocrine control

The extrapyramidal system is NOT concerned with

Options
Stretch reflex
Righting reflex
Spasticity
Sensation of viscera

Thirst is stimulated by

Options
Increase in plasma osmolality and volume
Increase in plasma osmolality and decrease in volume
Decrease in osmolality and increase in volume
Decrease in plasma osmolality and volume

What is the general capacity of lungs?

Options
Vital capacity of lungs + collapse volume
Vital capacity of lungs + respiratory volume
Vital capacity of lungs + residual volume
None of the above

To that is the functional residual capacity of lungs equal?

Options
Residual volume + collapse volume
Residual volume + reserve volume of a breath
Residual volume + reserve volume of an exhalation
All of the above

Respiration rate in rest is:

Options
30-35/min
8-10/min
16-20/min
 20-28/min

What is cause an immediate hyperventilation of lungs in the high mountains?

Options
Stimulation of mechanoreceptors of lungs
Stimulation of irritant receptors
Stimulation chemoreceptors of sinocarotide zones
Stimulation central chemoreceptors

At rest, the inner membrane of the neuron is:

Options
Negatively charged
Positively charged
Neutral
Non-existent

Where there is an enzyme carboanhydraze?

Options
In surfactant
In erythrocytes
In blood plasma
None of the above

What part of the brain is responsible for automatic functions such as breathing and heart rate:

Options
Cerebrum
Thalamus
Hypothalamus
Medulla oblongata

Which of the following is NOT a component of the ascending sensory pathway from the receptors
to the cerebral cortex?

Options
1st order neurons in the dorsal ganglion
2nd order neurons in the dorsal horn of the spinal cord or medulla oblongata
3rd order neurons in the thalamus
4th order neurons in the hypothalamus

In which of the following areas does sorting and editing of impulses take place?

Options
Thalamic nuclei
 Basal nuclei
Post central cortex
Prefrontal cortex

Aldosterone mainly acts on the:

Options
On DCT
On ascending limb of a Henle’s loop
On descending limb of a Henle’s loop
On PCT

Melatonin is produced by the

Options
Pineal gland.
Choroid plexus.
Hypothalamus.
Pituitary.

Which of the following areas is NOT involved in speech processing?

Options
Superior colliculi
Lateral prefrontal cortex
Broca's area
Wernicke's area

Reabsorption occurs in:

Options
DCT
Ascending limb of a Henle’s loop
Descending limb of a Henle’s loop
PCT

In an organism deficiency K+ is revealed. In this case in nephritic channels potassium ions are
exposed:

Options
Filtrations
Reabsorption and secretions
Secretions
Increase of reabsorption

What is synthesized in the kidneys?

Options
Adrenaline, aldosteron
Histamin, calcitonin
Angiotensin II, serotonin
Renin

Where secretes potassium ions in urine formation:

Options
PCT
DCT
Henle’s loop
Collecting duct

The normal Hydrostatic pressure in the nephron:

Options
70-80 mm hg
80-90 mm hg
40-50 mm hg
20-30 mm hg

Which one of the represented hormones regulates water delay in the body?

Options
Aldosterone
Adrenaline
Glucagon
Antidiuretic hormone

Which one of the represented hormones regulates sodium delay in the body?

Options
Adrenaline
Antidiuretic hormone
Aldosterone
Glucagon

Outflow of urine from channels of nephron is complicated. How the glomerulus’s filtration will
change?

Options
Considerably increase
Decrease
Increase
Essentially no change
How will change diuresis in increase of sodium reabsorption?

Options
Decrease
No change
Increase
None of the above

What is the mechanism of vasopressin action on diuresis?

Options
Increases reabsorptions of waters
Reduces reabsorptions waters
Reduces reabsorptions of sodium
Increases reabsorptions of sodium

Which of the following areas of the brain is histologically similar to the spinal cord?

Options
Brain stem
Basal nuclei
Cerebral cortex
Pons

What is the mechanism of aldosterone action on diuresis?

Options
Increases reabsorptions of sodium
Reduces reabsorptions of sodium
Reduces reabsorptions of waters
Increases reabsorptions of waters in proximal channels

Which of the following centers is NOT located in the hypothalamus?

Options
Center for regulation of sleep-wake cycles
Autonomic control center
Center for central balance
Body temperature regulation center

The quantity of primary urine (filtrate), origin in kidneys every day:

Options
180-200 l
200-300 l
10-15 l
 1,5 l

Final urine is formed as a result:

Options
Filtrations, reabsorption, secretions
Filtrations, osmosis
Filtrations, hemolysis, secretions
Filtrations, diffusions, absorptions

On which department of nephron mainly operates ADH?

Options
On a collecting duct
On a Henle’s loop
On proximal channels
On distal chaelsnn

Reabsorption of amino acids occurs in:

Options
In proximal channels
Collective tubules
In distal channels
To loop of Henle

Colloidal oncotic pressure of plasma in the nephron’s capillaries is:

Options
25-30 mm hg
50-70 mm hg
70-80 mm hg
80-90 mm hg

Primary urine is formed in process of:

Options
Filtrations
Concentration
Osmosis
Reabsorption

Which of the following coordinate head and eye movements when we visually follow a moving
object?

Options
Red nucleus
 Substantia nigra
Inferior colliculi
Superior colliculi

Which of the following corresponds to the little feet of the cerebrum?

Options
Thalamus
Pons
Cerebral peduncles
Medulla oblongata

Which of the following is a function of the basal ganglia?

Options
Cognitive activities
Regulation of body temperature
Starting, stopping and monitoring arm swinging and gait
Determining whether a person is left or right-handed

Which of the following is NOT composed of white matter?

Options
Putamen
Internal capsule
Projection fibers
Corpus callosum

Which of the following is NOT one of the basal nuclei?

Options
Amygdala
Globus pallidum
Caudate nucleus
Corpus callosum

Which of the following statements concerning the prefrontal cortex is INCORRECT?

Options
It occupies the posterior portion of the frontal lobe
Its development is very dependent on positive and negative feedback from the environment
It is the most complicated cortical region
It is involved with cognitive abilities

Which of the following is the autonomic control center?

Options
 Diencephalon
Pons
Midbrain
Hypothalamus

Raises of water reabsorption in the nephron as a result of:

Options
Vasopressin
Acetylcholine
Renin
Epinephrine

Which type of brain waves are seen when a person is concentrating on solving a problem?

Options
Theta waves
Delta waves
Gamma waves
Beta waves

Which part of the brain is involved in thirst sensations?

Options
Cerebral cortex
Cerebellum
Hypothalamus
Temporal lobe

Which of the following statements concerning epilepsy is INCORRECT?

Options
It can have a genetic factor
It is associated with intellectual impairment
It involves abnormal discharges from a group of brain neurons
Most cases are due to brain injuries such as blows to the head, stroke or infections

Which of the following is the central layer of the meninges?

Options
Dura mater
Dural sinuses
Arachnoid mater
Pia mater

At what maintenance of glucose in blood there is its allocation to urine?

Options
Above 10 mmol/l
Above 50 mmol/l
Above 20 mmol/l
Above 5,5 mmol/l

Reabsorption of urine formation is:

Options
Process of the return reabsorption substances from nephron channels into the blood
Allocation of substances from blood in a gleam nephritic channels
Formation of primary urine
Only active reabsorption substances from nephritic channels

Reabsorbtion in the nephron is regulated by:

Options
Aldosterone, vasopressin
Acetylcholine, histamine
Serotonin, norepinepherine
Epinephrine, oxytocin

Which of the following areas would NOT contain cerebrospinal fluid?

Options
Subdural space
3rd ventricle
4th ventricle
Dural sinuses

A distinction is made in memory research between ______ memory and______ memory. The former
refers to ______, whereas the latter refers to ______.

Options
Semantic; short-term; memory for personally meaningful events; memory held in temporary
storage
Semantic; episodic; memory for general knowledge; memory for personally meaningful events
Episodic; autobiographical; memory for personally meaningful events; memory for general
knowledge
Semantic; procedural; memory for general knowledge; memory for personally meaningful
events

At the neural level, memory is thought to represent:

Options
Weakening connections between neurons
 Severing the connections between neurons
Leaving neurons unaffected
Strengthening connections between neurons

Reabsorbtion of water in nephron is carried out by a:

Options
Passive transport
The facilitated diffusion
Filtrations
Active transport

The main difference between REM sleep and wakefulness is:

Options
EEG desynchronization
Rapid eye movements
Decreased muscle tone
Characterised by delta waves on ECG

Which transport of an ion is connected with reabsorption of glucose?

Options
Sodium
Magnesium
Chlorine
Potassium

REM is

Options
A sound and dreamless sleep
Characterised by total lack of muscular activity
Referred to as paradoxical sleep
Characterised by delta waves on ECG

The naked nerve endings are responsible for the sensation of

Options
Pain
Touch
Hearing
Vision

The specific gravity of the urine is:

Options
 1010-1025
1045-1050
1030-1040
1005-1010

The phone number discussed in question 5 probably could have been remembered for a longer
period if you had practiced

Options
Chunking
Repression
Rehearsal
A and c

Lesions of which of the following hypothalamic nuclei cause loss of circadian rhythm

Options
Ventromedial
Dorsomedial
Suprachiasmatic
Supraoptic

Visual-auditory reflex is a function of :

Options
B.amygdala
Insula
Pons
Corpora quadrigemina

The structure that overlies the organ of Corti is the

Options
Basilar membrane.
Tectorial membrane.
Perilymph.
Endolymph.

The GFR is caused:

Options
Difference between pressure of blood in nephrons capillaries, oncotic pressure of plasma and
pressure of an ultra filtrate in a Bowman’s capsule
Difference between pressure of blood in nephrons capillaries, osmotic pressure and pressure
of blood in vasa afferens
 Difference between pressure of blood in an aorta, oncotic pressure and osmotic pressure of
blood
None of the above

Sour taste occurs when :

Options
Sour gustants bind to receptors in the cell membrane
Ions enter the gustatory cells through ion channels.
Perilymph.
Endolymph.

One of the following cranial nerves carries taste signal from fungiform papillae :

Options
Facial nerve
Glossopharyngeal nerve
Vagal nerve
None of the above

Effective filtration pressure is:

Options
20 mm hg
50 mm hg
120 mm hg
70 mm hg

Suckling reflex in newborn baby is a:

Options
Congenital reflex
Acquired reflex
Both A and B
None of the above

The gustatory sense from the anterior two thirds of the tongue is received by:

Options
Facial nerve
Glossopharyngeal nerve
Hypoglossal nerve
All of the above.

The author of the hierarchical theory of motivation is:

Options
 O. H. Mowrer
McClelland
J. W. Atkinson
A. H. Maslow

Motives can be:

Options
Used to predict behaviour
Inferred from behaviour
Observed directly
Used to explain behaviour

A 50 years old female patient presented for routine examination at her doctor having broken her
reading glasses. She only complained from mild headache. She had been on medication for
hypertension (increased blood pressure)  for 10 years . Eye examination by a doctor revealed
normal visual acuity , NO optic nerve disk damage, her intraocular pressure (IOP) was 22 mmHg .
Aqueous humor is produced by :

Options
Ciliary body
Iris
Sclera
Lacrimal gland

At the healthy patient BP=120/80 mm hg. If the BP decreases till 100/60 mm hg, whether will
change of diuresis?

Options
Decrease
No change
Increase
None of the above

Sleep deprivation

Options
Can cause psychotic episodes
Is associated with sluggishness of thoughts
Makes a person more alert
Has no effect on the individual

Pulmonary vascular resistance decreases if

Options
The lungs are inflated to total lung capacity
 Alveolar oxygen tension is decreased
Plasma hydrogen ion concentration is decreased
Cardiac output is increased

Each of the following is true regarding differences between STM and LTM, except

Options
Information in LTM is indexed
Information in STM is stored in terms of physical qualities
Information in LTM may be permanent
Information in LTM s primarily stored in the frontal lobes of the cortex

In a health adult sitting with eyes closed the EEG rhythm observed with electrodes on occipital
lobes

Options
Alpha
Theta
Delta
Beta

An increase in the P50 of an oxyhemoglobin curve would result from a decrease in

Options
Metabolism
PH
Temperature
Oxygen

In the human eye, most refraction occurs when light passes through the

Options
Iris
Cornea
Lens
Aqueous humor

During moderate aerobic exercise,

Options
PaO2 increases
PaCO2 decreases
Arterial pH decreases
Alveolar ventilation increases

Which of the following statements concerning vision is false?

Options
Fibers of the optic nerve synapse at the thalamus
Optic tracts are found after the optic chiasma
The visual cortex of the brain is located in the frontal lobe
Cone cells are better for color vision and visual acuity

When a rod is stimulated by light, all of the following occur, EXCEPT

Options
The plasma membrane of the rod cell becomes hyperpolarized.
The rod cell generates an action potential.
Less neurotransmitter is released by the rod cell.
The bipolar cell is activated.

Reduction of functional hemoglobin associated with anemia, methemoglobinemia, or carbon

monoxide poisoning does not produce hyperpnea because the

Options
Blood flow to the carotid body is decreased
PO2 of arterial blood is normal
Carotid body chemoreceptors are stimulated
Central chemoreceptors are stimulated

The round window is connected directly to which passageway?

Options
Scala tympani
External auditory meatus
Cochlear duct
Scala vestibule

Pulmonary alveoli are kept dry by factors that include the

Options
Phagocytic activity of alveolar macrophages
Negative interstitial fluid pressure
Low vapor pressure of water in inspired air
Secretion of surfactant

In which one of the following conditions will the diffusing capacity of the lung increase?

Options
Formation of pulmonary emboli
Fibrotic lung disease
Polycythemia
Congestive heart failure
If the patient doubles his tidal volume without changing his CO2 production, his PaCO2 will be

Options
15 mmHg
20 mmHg
25 mmHg
30 mmHg

The percentage of hemoglobin saturated with oxygen will increase if

Options
The arterial PCO2 is increased
The hemoglobin concentration is increased
The temperature is increased
The arterial PO2 is increased

Which of the following will return toward normal during acclimatization to high altitude?

Options
Arterial hydrogen ion concentration
Arterial carbon dioxide tension
Arterial bicarbonate ion concentration
Arterial hemoglobin concentration

The activity of the central chemoreceptors is stimulated by

Options
An increase in the PCO2 of blood flowing through the brain
A decrease in the PO2 of blood flowing through the brain
A decrease in the oxygen content of blood flowing through the brain
A decrease in the metabolic rate of the surrounding brain tissue

In an acclimatized person at high altitudes, oxygen delivery to the tissues may be adequate at rest
because of

Options
An increase in hemoglobin concentration
The presence of an acidosis
A decrease in the number of tissue capillarie
The presence of a normal arterial PO2

During a normal inspiration, more air goes to the alveoli at the base of the lung than to the alveoli
at the apex of the lung because

Options
The alveoli at the base of the lung have more surfactant
The alveoli at the base of the lung are more compliant
 The alveoli at the base of the lung have higher V/Q ratios
There is a more negative intrapleural pressure at the base of the lung

A spirometer can be used to measure directly

Options
Functional residual capacity
Inspiratory capacity
Residual volume
Total lung capacity

All are GIT hormones, EXCEPT:

Options
Cholecystokinin
Gastrin
Secretin
Erythropoetin

Which of the following has a highest pH?

Options
Gastric juice
Pancreatic juice
Bile in GB
Secretions of intestinal glands

Man is unable to digest:

Options
Cellulose
Starch
Meat
Fat

Secretion of pepsinogen occurs in:

Options
Parietal cells of the stomach
Chief cells of the stomach
Salivary glands
Pancreatic cells

Greatest water absorption in:

Options
Colon
 Jejunum
Mouth
Stomach

Secretin released by:

Options
Acid in the duodenum
Acid in the stomach
Liver cells
Colon intestinal cells

Mechanism of salivary secretion:

Options
Hormonal
Local mechanism
Conditional reflex
All correct

After secretion into the duodenum, the enzyme trypsinogen is converted into its active form –
trysin, by the:

Options
Enterokinase
HCL
Secretin
Trypsin

Neutralization of acidic stomach contents entering duodenum is due to:

Options
Saliva
Secretions of intestinal glands
Pancreatic juice
Bile
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1. 1
2. 2
3. 3
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27. 27
28. 28
29. 29
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31. 31
32. 32
33. 33
34. 34
35. 35
Question (240/240)
36. 36
37. gastric
Low 37 pH:
38. 38
39. 39
Options
40.Inhibits
40 release of gastrin
41. 41
42.Is42
necessary for pepsin activity
43.Inhibits
43 release of histamine
44.Reduces
44 irritation caused by aspirin
45. 45
Serves
46. 46as lubricant in GIT:
47. 47
Options
48. 48
49.HCL
49
50.HCO3-
50
51.NaCL
51
52. 52
Mucin
53. 53
54. 54 gastrin output in the stomach:
Regulate
55. 55
56. 56
Options
57.HCL
57
58. 58
59.HCO3-
59
NaCL
60. 60
61.Mucin
61
62. 62
Absorption
63. 63 by small intestine utilizes Na+ carrier:
64. 64
Options
65. 65
66.Glucose
66
67.Amino
67 acids
68. 68
Glucose and amino acids
69. 69
70.Glucose,
70 amino acids and triglyceredes
71. 71
Prev
Moved from intestinal epithelial cell to intracellular space by diffusion:
72. 72
Mark
73. 73
Options
Skip
74. 74
75.Glucose
75
76.Amino
76 acids
77.Glucose
77 and amino acids
78.Glucose,
78 amino acids and glycerol
79. 79
80. 80 is partially completed before entering duodenum:
Digestion
81. 81
Options
82. 82
83.Carbohydrates
83
84.Proteins
84
85. 85
Fats
86. 86
87.Carbohydrates
87 and proteins
88. 88
Absorption of digestive products involves carrier-mediated transport in small intestine:
89. 89
90. 90
Options
91. 91
92.Carbohydrates
92
Proteins
93. 93
94.Fats
94
95.Carbohydrates
95 and proteins
96. 96
97. 97
Substances that enter the systemic circulation as chylomicrons via lymphatic ducts are:
98. 98
Options
99. 99
100.Glycerol
100
101.SCFAs
101
102. 102
103.MCFAs
103
LCFAs
104. 104
105. 105
All correct,
106. 106 EXCEPT ONE about cholecystokinin in fat’s absorption:
107. 107
Options
108. 108
109.Stimulates
109 the gall bladder to contract
110.Potentiates
110 effect of secretin on the secretion of bicarbonate by the pancreas
111.Stimulates
111 the secretion of pancreatic lipase
112.Increase
112 the strnght of gastric peristalsis
113. 113
114. 114formation is necessary for absorption and transport to intestinal epithelium of:
Micelle
115. 115
Options
116. 116
117.Cholesterol
117
118.SCFAs
118
119. 119
120.MCFAs
120
Glycerol
121. 121
122. 122
Components
123. 123 of the intestinal mucosa combine to increase the surface area to 600 times that of a
cylinder.
124. 124 Which component makes the greatest contribution to increasing the surface area?
125. 125
Options
126. 126
127.The
127folds
128.The
128villi
129.The
129microvilli
130.The
130cilia
131. 131
132. 132ions play an important role in carbohydrate absorption. All of the following processes
Sodium
133. 133it, EXCEPT:
require
134. 134
135. 135
Options
136.Sugars
136 leaving the intestinal cell to enter the portal blood system.
137. 137
Glucose absorption from gut lumen by second active transport.
138. 138
139.Process
139 that brings potassium into the instestinal cell.
140.Galactose
140 absorption from the gut lumen.
141. 141
A142.
deficiency
142 of colipase would result in which of the following?
143. 143
Options
144. 144
145.Lipase
145 would not be able to bind to the oil-water interface of the lipid.
146.An146
inability to digest phospholipids.
147.An147
inability to digest cholesterol.
148.An148
inability to digest lipids in the stomach.
149. 149
150. 150
Which of the following pass through the thoracic duct before passing through the liver?
151. 151
152. 152
Options
153.Proteins.
153
154. 154
Micelles
155. 155
156.SCFAs
156 and MCFAs
157.Chylomicrons.
157
158. 158
Which
159. 159of the following deficiencies would make trypsin's role of protein digestion more crucial?
160. 160
Options
161. 161
162.Lipase
162 deficiency.
163.A 163
defect in the amino acid intestinal transport mechanism.
164.Enterokinase
164 deficiency.
165. 165
Cholecystokinin deficiency.
166. 166
167. 167
Which of the following is absorbed primarily by passive diffusion powered by a concentration
168. 168
gradient?
Options
169. 169
170.Sodium
170
171. 171
Potassium
172. 172
173.Calcium
173
Iron.
174. 174
175. 175
The
176.main
176 principle of digestion is
177. 177
Options
178. 178
179.Hydrolysis
179 of products till polymers
180.Transformation
180 of specific substances into the unspecific
181.Transport
181 nutrients by GIT
182.Transformation
182 of nutrients energy into the electrical and mechanical
183. 183
184. 184
Which one of the following processes of monomer’s absorption (final products of hydrolysis)
185. 185
occurs in the:
186. 186
187. 187
Options
188.Stomach
188
189. 189
Mouth
190. 190
191.Small
191 intestine
192.Large
192 intestine
193. 193
Which
194. 194one of the following enzymes has a glycolytic action?
195. 195
Options
196. 196
197.Pepsin
197
198.Tripsin
198
199.Maltase
199
200.Lipase
200
201. 201
202. 202 begins in the mouth. Which of the following statement is INCORRECT?
Digestion
203. 203
204. 204
Options
205.The
205tongue aids in the digestion of the food
206. 206
The saliva changes some of the starches in the food to sugar
207. 207
208.The
208tongue keeps the food in place in the mouth
209.The
209digestive juices can react more easily with the food when chewed
210. 210
Where
211. 211does the partly-digested food (in liquid form) go after it leaves the stomach?
212. 212
Options
213. 213
214.The
214gullet
215.The
215appendix
216.The
216small intestine
217. 217
The large intestine
218. 218
219. 219 buds have a life span of :
Gustatory
220. 220
221. 221
Options
 222.10222
days
223. 223
10 months
224. 224
225.10225
years
226.For life
226
227. 227
The
228.extraocular
228 muscle which turns eye inferiorly and laterally is:
229. 229
Options
230. 230
231.Superior
231 rectus
232.Superior
232 oblique
233.Inferior
233 rectus
234.Inferior
234 oblique
235. 235
236. does
How 236 digested food finally reach the bloodstream?
237. 237
238. 238
Options
239.It239
passes through the gullet into the blood.
240. 240
It is absorbed into the blood through blood vessels
It is absorbed into the blood through the walls of the lungs
It passes from the small intestine into the large intestine, then into the blood

Production of aqueous humor would be decreased if

Options
The cornea was damaged.
The lens was damaged.
The ciliary body was damaged.
The iris was damaged.

Pupillary light reflex is used to examine:

Options
Optic nerve
Oculomotor nerve
Trochlear nerve
Abducent nerve.

According to Maslow, the self-actualizing tendency is:

Options
Instinct
Imprinting
Growth Motivation
Deficiency motivation

The liver is located in the abdomen and performs many functions. Which of the following is NOT a
function of the liver?

Options
Manufacturing insulin
 Storing food
Producing digestive juices
Healing itself when it is damaged

A young woman who turns herself into a religious worker has a strong:

Options
Approach gradient
Social Motive
Hypervigilance
Encephalization

A motivated behaviour is directed towards:

Options
Situation
Object
Goal
Group

Needs, drives or motives:

Options
Can be directly observed
Cannot be directly observed
Are always dormant
Are same

All of the following functions of large intestinal microphlora, EXCEPT:

Options
Synthesis of vitamins K and B
Suppressing of pathogen microorganisms
Participate in metabolism
Secreted proteolytic enzymes

Lori reads three newspapers a day and is always reading a book in the evening. She has a high
need to engage in thinking, and she actually enjoys it. She likes to complete crossword puzzles and
do other types of word games. Lori has a high need for _____.

Options
Cognition
Affection
Ethnocentrism
Acceptance

Which of the following is a characteristic associated with emotions?

Options
Emotions occur independently from physiological changes.
 Emotions are not associated with behaviors.
Emotions involve objective feelings.
Emotions are often triggered by environmental events.

Sneezing is a

Options
Stimulation of receptors
Involuntary action
Voluntary action only
None of the above

The duration of the one period of REM sleep?

Options
5-7 min
60-90 min
15-20 min
4-5 hours

When the motive has a biological or physiological basis, it is called a/an:

Options
Drive
Incentive
Imprinting
Libido

Activation of the pepsinogen of gastric juice occurs due to the

Options
Hydrochloric acid
Trypsin
Enterokinase
Bile salts

An increase in refractive power is produced by contraction of the

Options
Iris
Ciliary body
Suspensory ligaments
Extraocular muscles

Which of the following is not a stage in the information-processing model of memory?

Options
Short-term memory
Long-term memory
 Episodic memory
Sensory register

Which of the following is a way of testing retrieval of long-term memories?

Options
Recall
Recognition
Relearning
All of the above

Which of the following receptors is responsible for measuring the intensity of a steady pressure
on the skin surface?

Options
Pacinian corpuscle
Ruffini ending
Merkel’s disk
Meissner’s corpuscle

Which sense is most likely to adapt rapidly?

Options
Taste
Smell
Hearing
Vision

Which part of the brain involved in performing exact mathematical calculations?

Options
Hippocampus
Left hemisphere of brain cortex
Right hemisphere of brain cortex
Prefrontal lobes

The area of the brain that integrates proprioceptor data is the _________.

Options
Cerebrum
Cerebellum
Hypothalamus
Medulla oblongata

Which area allows one to perceive the aroma of a pizza?

Options
Olfactory bulb
Olfactory lobe
Olfactory cortex
 Olfactory tracts

During which stage of gastric secretion do gastric glands actually begin secreting gastric juice?

Options
Cephalic phase
Gastric phase
Intestinal phase
Enterogastric reflex

Bile facilitates digestion by causing the _____ of fats.

Options
Hydrolysis
Digestion
Catalysis
Emulsification

Which of the following are not active in the duodenum?

Options
Nuclease
Enterokinase
Pepsin
Amylase

In which one of the following sensory systems does stimulation cause the receptor cell to
hyperpolarize?

Options
Vision
Hearing
Taste
Touch

Which specific factor is GENERAL in the secretion of intestinal juice?

Options
Conditional digestive reflex
Unconditional reflex from tongue receptors
Humoral regulation
Local reflex arcs

The artery that provides oxygen and nutrients to heart tissue is the

Options
Carotid.
Systemic.
Coronary.
Pulmonary.
An increase in which of the following would cause hypotension?

Options
Heart rate
Cardiac output
Arteriole dilation
Reabsorption of water by the kidneys

After secretion of trypsinogen into the duodenum, the enzyme is converted into its active from,
trypsin, by

Options
Aminopeptidases
Enterokinase
Alkaline pH
Pancreatic lipase

The maximum pressure rise in the ventricle occurs during:

Options
Ejection
Isovolumetric contraction
Protodiastole
Diastasis

Which of the following is normal resting systolic blood pressure for an adult?

Options
50 mm Hg
80 mm Hg
120 mm Hg
180 mm Hg

The major mechanism for absorption of sodium FROM LUMEN OF SMALL INTESTINE into
enterocytes is

Options
Neutral NaCL absorption
Na+ - H+ exchange
Co-transport with potassium
Exchange to Ca++

Which of the following changes would be expected to make the membrane potential of a muscle
cell more positive than normal (resting cell)

Options
Decreased conductance to Ca++
Increased conductance to K+
Decreased conductance to K+
Decreased conductance to Na+
The highest blood pressure in the aorta occurs when the

Options
Atria contract.
Heart muscle is relaxed.
Blood is pushed to the ventricle.
Blood is pumped from the heart.

The sequence of structures through which the nerve impulse passes to cause contraction of the
heart is

Options
AV node – SA node – Purkinje fibres.
Purkinje fibres – AV node – SA node.
Purkinje fibres – SA node – AV node.
SA node – AV node – Purkinje fibres.

The rate of gastric emptying increases with an increase in

Options
Intragastric volume
Intraduodenal volume
Acidity of duodenum
Acidity of duodenum

Thick walls, elastic tissue and smooth muscle are characteristics of

Options
Veins.
Arteries.
Arteriole-venular anastomosis
Capillaries.

Blockages in which of the following blood vessels reduces blood flow to the heart muscle?

Options
Aorta.
Carotid artery.
Coronary artery.
Pulmonary artery.

Vitamins synthesized by intestinal bacteria and absorbed in significant quantities include

Options
Vit. B6
Vit. C
Vit. A
Vit.K

Stroke volume can be increased by:

Options
Decreasing ventricular compliance
Increasing venous compliance
Decreasing total peripheral resistance
Increasing heart rate

The major factor that protects the duodenal mucosa from damage by gastric acid is

Options
Pancreatic bicarbonate secretion
Secretin secretion
CCK secretion
Salivary amylase secretion

The SA node (pacemaker) of the heart is located in the wall of the

Options
Left atrium.
Right atrium.
Left ventricle.
Right ventricle.

Capillary beds are equipped with sphincter muscles in order to

Options
Prevent the backflow of blood.
Expand and recoil with each heart beat.
Divert blood toward areas of increased metabolic activity.
Hold blood in the beds until nutrient and waste exchange is complete.

The function of the nodes in the lymphatic system is to

Options
Filter debris.
Produce platelets for clotting.
Break down worn-out red blood cells.
Help maintain a constant blood pressure.

SCFAs absorption occurs almost exclusively from the

Options
Stomach
Duodenum
Jejunum
Ileum

Blood capillaries and lymph capillaries both

Options
Filter bacteria.
 Have one-way valves.
Contain red blood cells.
Have walls which are onecell thick.

A person is found to have increased basal and maximal acid outputs, decreased serum Ca++
levels, and microcytic anemia. Inflammation in which area of the GIT would explain these
findings?

Options
Colon
Stomach
Duodenum
Gall bladder

Which primary transport is characterized for absorption of proteins, lipids and carbohydrates?

Options
Active
Passive
Simple diffusion
Filtration

Where does the greatest amount of digestion occur?

Options
Small intestine
Stomach
Large intestine
Liver

How effects vagal stimulation on secretion of pancreas.

Options
Decrease
Increase
Not change
Increase then decrease

Chronic administration of which of the following types of drugs would lead to a sustained
increase in serum gastrin levels?

Options
H2 receptor antagonist
Proton pump inhibitor
Anticholinergic
Antacid

Which one of the following statements about small intestinal motility is correct?

Options
 Contractile frequency is constant from duodenum to terminal ileum
Peristalsis is the major contractile pattern during feeding
Migrating motor complexes occur during the digestive period
Contractile activity is initiated in response to bowel wall distention

Which one of the following statements about gastric emptying is correct?

Options
Vagotomy decreases accommodation of the proximal stomach
Vagotomy accelerates the emptying of solids
Indigestible food empties during the digestive period
Acidification of the antrum decreases gastric emptying

Vitamin B12 is absorbed primarily in the

Options
Stomach
Duodenum
Jejunum
Ileum

The principal paracrine secretion involved in the inhibitory feedback regulation of gastric acid
secretion is

Options
Gastrin
Somatostatin
Histamine
Acetylcholine

Cholera toxin causes diarrhea by inhibiting

Options
Neutral NaCl absorption in the small intestine
Electrogenic Na absorption from the small intestine
Na-glucose coupled absorption from the small intestine
Na/H exchange in the small intestine

Which one of the following statements best describes water and electrolyte absorption in the GI
tract?

Options
Most water and electrolytes come from ingested fluids
The small intestine and colon have similar absorptive capacities
Osmotic equilibration of chyme occurs in the stomach
The majority of absorption occurs in the jejunum

The main function of capillaries is to:

Options
 Return blood to the heart.
Prevent the backflow of blood.
Take blood away from the heart.
Exchange nutrients and wastes with tissues.

Hypokalemic metabolic acidosis can occur with excess fluid loss from the

Options
Stomach
Ileum
Colon
Pancreas

Which gastrointestinal motor activity is most affected by vagotomy?

Options
Secondary esophageal peristalsis
Distention-induced intestinal segmentation
Orad stomach accommodation
Primary intestinal peristalsis

The hormone involved in the initiation of the migrating motor complex is

Options
Gastrin
Motilin
Secretin
Cholecystokinin

Basal acid output is increased by

Options
Acidification of the antrum
Administration of an H2 receptor antagonist
Vagotomy
Alkalinization of the antrum

Which one of the following processes applies to the proximal stomach?

Options
Accommodation
Peristalsis
Retropulsion
Segmentation

After secretion of trypsinogen into the duodenum, the enzyme is converted into its active form,
trypsin, by

Options
Enteropeptidase
 Procarboxypeptidase
Pancreatic lipase
Previously secreted trypsin

The major mechanism for absorption of sodium from the small intestine is

Options
Na+ - H+ exchange
Cotransport with potassium
Electrogenic transport
Neutral NaCl absorption

Pharmacological blockade of histamine H2 receptors in the gastric mucosa

Options
Inhibits both gastrin- and acetylcholine-mediated secretion of acid
Inhibits gastrin-induced but not meal-stimulated secretion of acid
Has no effect on either gastrin-induced or meal-stimulated secretion of acid
Prevents activation of adenyl cyclase by gastrin

Removal of proximal segments of the small intestine results in a decrease in

Options
Basal acid output
Maximal acid output
Gastric emptying of liquids
Pancreatic enzyme secretion

Dietary fat, after being processed, is extruded from the mucosal cells of the gastrointestinal tract
into the lymphatic ducts in the form of

Options
Monoglycerides
Diglycerides
Triglycerides
Chylomicrons7

Gas within the colon is primarily derived from which one of the following sources?

Options
CO2 liberated by the interaction of HCO3− and H+
Diffusion from the blood
Fermentation of undigested oligosaccharides by bacteria
Swallowed atmospheric air

Removal of the pyloric sphincter is associated with

Options
A decrease in gastric compliance
An increase in maximal output of acid
 An increase in basal output of acid
An increase in the rate of gastric emptying of solids

Removal of the terminal ileum will result in

Options
A decrease in absorption of amino acids
An increase in the water content of the feces
An increase in the concentration of bile acid in the enterohepatic circulation
A decrease in the fat content of the feces

Which one of the following statements about the colon is correct?

Options
Absorption of Na+ in the colon is under hormonal (aldosterone) control
Bile acids enhance absorption of water from the colon
Net absorption of HCO3− occurs in the colon
Net absorption of K+ occurs in the colon

Contraction of the gallbladder is correctly described by which of the following statements?

Options
It is inhibited by a fat-rich meal
It is inhibited by the presence of amino acids in the duodenum
It is stimulated by atropine
It occurs in response to cholecystokinin

Acidification of the duodenum will

Options
Decrease pancreatic secretion of bicarbonate
Increase secretion of gastric acid
Decrease gastric emptying
Increase contraction of the gallbladder

Which one of the following statements about small intestine crypt cells is correct?

Options
They evidence well-developed microvilli
They are responsible for net NaCl and water absorption
They contain significant quantities of brush border hydrolases
They are responsible for net NaCl and water secretion

In contrast to secondary esophageal peristalsis, primary esophageal peristalsis is characterized by

which of the following statements?

Options
It does not involve relaxation of the lower esophageal sphincter
It involves only contraction of esophageal smooth muscle
It is not influenced by the intrinsic nervous system
 It has an oropharyngeal phase

Absorption of fat-soluble vitamins requires

Options
Intrinsic factor
Chymotrypsin
Pancreatic lipase
Pancreatic amylase

Which of the following sugars is absorbed from the small intestine by facilitated diffusion?

Options
Glucose
Galactose
Fructose
Sucrose

Nearly all binding of cobalamin (vitamin B12) to intrinsic factor occurs in the

Options
Stomach
Duodenum
Jejunum
Ileum

Secondary esophageal peristalsis

Options
Is preceded by an oral-pharyngeal phase of swallowing
Involves activation of medullary swallowing centers
Is accompanied by lower esophageal sphincter relaxation
Occurs in both the skeletal and smooth muscle portions of the esophagus

At concentrations present in the diet, which vitamin is absorbed primarily by diffusion?

Options
Vitamin C
Vitamin D
Folate
Niacin

As compared to long-chain fatty acids, medium-chain fatty acids

Options
Are also packaged as chylomicrons
Can be used as a source of calories in patients with malabsorptive disease
Are more abundant in the diet
Are less water-soluble
Severe inflammation of the ileum may be accompanied by

Options
Increased vitamin B12 absorption
Decreased bile acid pool size
Increased colon absorption of water
Decreased release of secretin

Which one of the following statements about the process of vitamin B12 absorption is correct?

Options
In humans, intrinsic factor is secreted from chief cells of the gastric gland
Vitamin B12 binds preferentially to intrinsic factor in the stomach
In adults, vitamin B12 absorption occurs along the length of the small intestine
Absorption may be reduced in a patient with pancreatic insufficiency

Patients may experience nausea and a sense of early satiety following

Options
Surgical resection of the proximal small bowel
A vagotomy of the distal stomach
Surgical resection of the proximal stomach
Surgical removal of the gastric antrum

The origin of electrical slow wave activity in gastrointestinal tract smooth muscle is

Options
The interstitial cells of Cajal
The smooth muscle of the circular muscle layer
The smooth muscle of the longitudinal muscle layer
The smooth muscle of the muscularis mucosa

Which one of the following statements is correct?

Options
Maximal acid output may be increased in a patient with duodenal ulcer disease
Pepsin is inactivated at a pH of 3 and below
Pepsin is inactivated at a pH of 3 and below
Gastric acid secretion is greatest during the cephalic phase of digestion

Bicarbonate absorption from the upper small intestine is closely coupled with

Options
Na-glucose absorption
Na–vitamin B12 absorption
Na/H exchange
Electrogenic Na absorption

Which one of the following statements about bile acids is correct?

Options
Conjugation with glycine enhances passive absorption of bile acids
Bile acids constitute approximately 80% of the total solutes in bile
Deoxycholic acid and lithocholic acid are examples of primary bile acids
Bile acid synthesis is catalyzed by the microsomal enzyme 7α-hydroxylase

Withdrawal from chronic administration of an antisecretory compound is followed by rebound

gastric acid hypersecretion. Which drug could account for the observed result?

Options
A H1 receptor antagonist
A proton pump inhibito
A cholinergic receptor antagonist
An antacid

The migrating motor complex in humans

Options
Occurs only in the small intestine
Requires an intact intrinsic nervous system for coordinated propagation
Is the result of food-mediated distension of the small intestine
Mixes intestinal contents with bile and the digestive enzymes

The delivery of chyme into the proximal small intestine will

Options
Increase gastric acid secretion
Decrease pancreatic bicarbonate secretion
Increase gastric emptying of solids
Increase small intestine segmentation

A person is found to have increased basal and maximal acid outputs, decreased serum calcium
levels, and microcytic anemia. Inflammation in which area of the gastrointestinal tract would
explain these findings?

Options
Colon
Jejunum
Duodenum
Gallbladder

Which one of the following statements best describes water and electrolyte absorption in the
gastrointestinal tract?

Options
Most water and electrolytes derive from the oral intake of fluids
The small and large intestines have similar absorptive capacities
Net secretion of potassium occurs from the ileum
Osmotic equilibration of chyme occurs in the duodenum
The paracrine secretion responsible for inhibiting gastric acid secretion is

Options
Histamine
Enterogastrone
Somatostatin
Pepsin

Which one of the following is the putative inhibitory neurotransmitter responsible for relaxation
of gastrointestinal smooth muscle?

Options
Dopamine
Vasoactive intestinal peptide
Somatostatin
Acetylcholine

A medical student presents to the emergency room with a two-day history of severe vomiting and
orthostatic hypotension. What kind of metabolic abnormalities would you expect?

Options
Hypokalemia, hypochloremia, and metabolic acidosis
Hyperkalemia, hyperchloremia, and metabolic alkalosis
Hypokalemic, hypochloremic, metabolic alkalosis
Normal serum electrolytes and metabolic alkalosis

The metabolic effects of insulin include

Options
Decreased glucose utilization
Decreased lipolysis
Increased proteolysis
Increased gluconeogenesis

Which one of the following statements about bile acids is correct?

Options
They are essentially water-insoluble
The majority of bile acids is absorbed by passive diffusion
Glycine conjugates are more soluble than taurine conjugates
The amount lost in the stool each day represents the daily loss of cholesterol

In contrast to secretory diarrhea, osmotic diarrhea

Options
Is characterized by an increase in stool osmolarity
Is the result of increased crypt cell secretion
Is the result of decreased electroneutral Na absorption
Is caused by bacterial toxins
The macrolide antibiotic erythromycin is associated with gastrointestinal disturbances related to
increased motility. The antibiotic works by binding to receptors on nerves and smooth muscle that
recognize the gastrointestinal hormone

Options
Gastrin
Motilin
Secretin
CCK

Short-chain fatty acid absorption occurs almost exclusively from the

Options
Colon
Duodenum
Jejunum
Ileum

Which one of the following statements about medium-chain fatty acids is correct?

Options
They are more water-soluble than long-chain fatty acids
Within the enterocyte, they are used for triglyceride resynthesis
They are packaged into chylomicrons
They are transported in the lymph

Secretion of gastric glands rises:

Options
Histamine
Cholecistokinine
Secretine
None of the above

Which of the following hormone peaks during the mid-luteal phase?

Options
Inhibin
Activin
Follistatin
Relaxin

HCG can be detected in the blood of a pregnant woman as early as ___ days post conception.

Options
5 days
8 days
10 days
14 days
Human chorionic gonadotropin is structurally and functionally similar to: .

Options
LH
FSH
Growth hormone
Inhibin

Which of the following treatments is most likely to elicit an early surge of luteinizing hormone
(LH) in a normal nonpregnant 21-year-old woman? An injection of:.

Options
E2 10 days after the onset of menses
Progesterone 10 days after the onset of menses
E2 20 days after the onset of menses
Progesterone 20 days after the onset of menses

Inhibits milk synthesis during pregnancy

Options
HCG
Estradiol
Oxytocin
Prolactin

Promotes synthesis of milk.

Options
HCG
Estradiol
Oxytocin
Prolactin

Select the BEST ONE answer: Progesterone asserts which one of the following actions?.

Options
Causes the cervical mucus to become thin and watery
Inhibits the secretion of LH during the luteal phase of the menstrual cycle
Causes body temperature to decrease
Increases the sensitivity of myometrium to oxytocin

Select the BEST ONE answer: The rate of prolactin secretion is:.

Options
Decreased when all hypothalamic hormones are prevented from reaching the anterior
pituitary
Elevated in lactating women even during the intervals between nursing
Inhibited by estradiol
Inhibited by dopamine
Select the BEST ONE answer. All the following statements regarding testosterone are correct,
EXCEPT:

Options
For its optimal action in the prostate and in the penis, testosterone must be converted to
dihydrotestosterone
Near the end of puberty, testosterone promotes the calcification of the epiphyseal plates of
long bones
Near the onset of puberty, testosterone inhibits the production of insulin-like growth factor
(IGF-I)
Sertoli cells convert testosterone into estradiol

The ultimate stoppage of menstrual cycle is called _______.

Options
Puberty
Menarche
Menopause
Old age

The hormone synthesized in the hypothalamus that initiates release of pituitary hormones is:

Options
ICSH (interstitial cell–stimulating hormone)
LH (luteinizing hormone)
GnRH (gonadotropin-releasing hormone)
NRH (gonadotropin-releasing hormone)

Which one of the following statements about spermatogenesis is correct?

Options
Production and release of spermatozoa is cyclical
Sertoli cells are required for mitotic and meiotic activity of germ cells
Spermatogenesis requires continuous release of gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GRH)
Leydig cell secretion of testosterone requires follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH)

The source of estrogen and progesterone during the last seven months of pregnancy is the

Options
Ovary
Placenta
Corpus luteum
Anterior pituitary

Ovulation is caused by a sudden increase in the secretion of

Options
Estrogen
Progesterone
LH
 FSH

Which of the following is a correct statement about the production of human sperm?

Options
Spermatogonia undergo meiosis
Spermatogenesis occurs in the epididymis
Normally, 10 to 20 million sperm are produced daily
FSH is required

Implantation of the zygote in the uterine wall

Options
Precedes formation of the zona pellucida
Involves infiltration of the endometrium by the syncytiotrophoblast
Occurs 3 to 5 days after fertilization
Occurs when the embryo consists of approximately 128 cells

Which one of the following hormones interacts with a cytoplasmic receptor, then localizes in the
nucleus and directs protein and nucleotide synthesis?

Options
Thyrotropin-releasing hormone
Epinephrine
Luteinizing hormone
Cortisol

The hormone responsible for stimulating milk letdown is

Options
Oxytocin
Progesterone
Estradiol
Prolactin

Hormone replacement therapy is being considered for a 55-year-old woman undergoing

menopause. Which one of the following is a benefit of the therapy?

Options
A return to normal menstrual cycle pattern
Hot flashes
A reduced risk of stroke
Increased risk of osteoporosis

Which one of the following statements about semen is correct?

Options
The bulk of semen volume is contributed by the prostate gland
It prevents sperm capacitation
It buffers vaginal acidity
 It activates sperm motility in the male tract

Prolactin secretion is tonically suppressed in nonpregnant women by

Options
Estrogens
Progesterone
Dopamine
FSH

A woman tests positive for pregnancy. In order for the pregnancy to proceed uneventfully, which
of the following must occur?

Options
The corpus luteum must secrete progesterone to sustain the endometrium
The pituitary must secrete hCG to maintain the corpus luteum
The pituitary must secrete prolactin to sustain the placenta
The placenta must secrete FSH to maintain ovarian function

Which one of the following conditions experienced by pregnant women may be due to the effects
of pregnancy?

Options
Increased incidence of heartburn
Decreased facial acne
Increased gastric emptying leading to intestinal cramping and diarrhea
Decreased afterload

An abnormal decrease in the circulating levels of which placental hormone is indicative of a

nonviable pregnancy?

Options
Human placental lactogen
Estrogen
Corticotropin-releasing hormone
Human chorionic gonadotropin

Which one of the following statements about prolactin is correct?

Options
Prolactin initiates ovulation
Prolactin causes milk ejection during suckling
Prolactin inhibits the growth of breast tissue
Prolactin secretion is tonically inhibited by the hypothalamus

The principal steroid secreted by the fetal adrenal cortex is

Options
Cortisol
Dehydroepiandrosterone
 Progesterone
Pregnenolone

An indication that ovulation has taken place is

Options
An increase in serum FSH levels
A drop in body temperature
An increase in serum LH levels
An increase in serum progesterone levels

The hormone involved in the ejection of milk from a lactating mammary gland is

Options
FSH
LH
Growth hormone
Oxytocin

The hormone primarily responsible for development of ovarian follicles prior to ovulation is

Options
Chorionic gonadotropin
Estradiol
Follicle-stimulating hormone
Luteinizing hormone

Progesterone

Options
Is secreted by the corpus luteum
Secretion by the placenta increases at week 6 of gestation
Plasma levels increase during the menses
Plasma levels remain constant after implantation

Administration of estrogens in women will

Options
Limit the growth of ovarian follicles
Produce cyclic changes in the vagina and endometrium
Cause cervical mucus to become thicker and more acidic
Retard ductal proliferation in the breast

Select the BEST ONE answer. The rate of FSH:

Options
Decreases, if GnRH is injected every two hours
Is increased by inhibin secreted by Sertoli cells
Is increased along with LH during the middle of menstrual cycle
 Is decreased in postmenopausal women

The fertilization of human egg by the sperms takes place in____.

Options
Ovary
Oviduct
Vagina
Uterus

Bone resorption is induced by:

Options
IGF-1
Insulin
Estrogens
Glucocorticoids

All correct statements regarding oxytocin, EXCEPT one:

Options
It is essential for milk ejection
It decreases uterine contractility
It facilitates ejaculation of semen
It facilitates sperm transport in the uterus

The major adrenal androgen is:

Options
Etiocholanolone
Testosterone
Dihydrotestosterone
Dehydroepiandrosterone (DHEA)

Which of the following organelles is a major site of steroidogenesis?

Options
Peroxisomes
Ribosomes
Smooth endoplasmic reticulum
Rough endoplasmic reticulum

The principal estrogen secreted by the fetoplacental unit is:

Options
Estriol
Estradiol
Estrone
None of the above
The virilizing form of adrenogenital syndrome usually occurs due to a deficiency of:

Options
21β hydroxylase
17α hydroxylase
11β hydroxysteroid dehydrogenase
3α hydroxysteroid dehydrogenase

Promotes ejection of milk

Options
HCG
Estradiol
Oxytocin
Prolactin

Its presence in urine produces a positive pregnancy test

Options
HCG
Estradiol
Oxytocin
Relaxin

Ovulation is triggered by______.

Options
Follicle-stimulating hormone
A mid-cycle surge of luteinizing hormone
Hormones from the follicular cells
Hormones from the theca interna

The fertilized egg is called____.

Options
Ovum
Blastocyst
Diploid cell
Zygote

Spermatogenesis differs from mitosis because the resulting cells have _________ the number of
chromosomes as the original cell.

Options
Twice as many
Only half
Three times of
Only a quarter of

The fertilization of human egg by the sperms takes place in______.

Options
Ovary
Oviduct
Vagina
Uterus

The source of estrogen and progesterone during the first two months of pregnancy is the

Options
Ovary
Placenta
Corpus luteum
Anterior pituitary

Functions of the Sertoli cells in the seminiferous tubules include

Options
Secretion of FSH into the tubular lumen
Secretion of testosterone into the tubular lumen
Maintenance of the blood-testis barrier
Synthesis of estrogen after puberty

Biological actions of estrogens include

Options
Inhibition of follicular growth
Delayed bone loss at menopause
Increased glucose tolerance
Decreased serum LDL cholesterol

The principal androgen responsible for transforming undifferentiated fetal external genitalia into
male external genitalia is

Options
Müllerian-inhibiting substance
Androstenedione
Dihydrotestosterone
Testosterone

Which one of the following hormones initiates a biological effect by activation of cell membrane
receptors?

Options
Progesterone
Estrogens
Cortisol
Epinephrine

Use the following diagram to answer the questions. At which point on the action potential does the
Na+ current exceed the K+ current?
Options
Point A
Point B
Point C
Point D

Use the following diagram to answer the question. Ventricular filling begins at point

Options
A
B
C
D

Use the following diagram to answer the questions. Closing of the mitral valve begins at point
Options
A
B
C
D

What phase of ventricular cardiac cycle represented on the below figure

Options
Sovolumetric Contraction
Rapid Ejection
Reduced Ejection
Isovolumetric Relaxation

The phases of the ventricular muscle action potential are represented by the lettered points on the
diagram. At which point on the above ventricular action potential is membrane potential most
dependent on calcium permeability?
Options
Point A
Point B
Point C
Point D

Which of the following is consistent with the ECG tracing shown below?

Options
Bradycardia
First-degree heart block
Second-degree heart block
Third-degree heart block

The mean electrical axis during the ventricular depolarization recorded in the three leads shown
below would be closest to

Options
30 degrees
 90 degrees
150 degrees
210 degrees

Use the pressure-volume curve illustrated below to determine the ejection fraction and diastolic
pressure. The ejection fraction equals

Options
0.5
0.55
0.6
0.65

The diagram below illustrates the pressure-volume curves for two different hearts. Which of the
following is greater in curve 1?

Options
Preload
Stroke volume
Energy consumption
Efficien

The phases of the ventricular muscle action potential are represented by the lettered points on the
diagram. At which point on the above ventricular action potential is membrane potential most
dependent on calcium permeability?
Options
Point A
Point B
Point C
Point D

Use the following ECG to answer the next question. During which interval on the above ECG does
the aortic valve close?

Options
A
B
D
E

Use the following pressure-volume loop to answer the question. The mitral valve opens at point

Options
A
 B
C
D

Use the following diagram to answer the question. Ventricular filling begins at point

Options
A
B
C
D

Use the following diagram of three Starling curves to answer the question. An increase in
afterload and venous compliance can cause stroke volume to change from the point marked X to
point

Options
A
 B
C
D

Use the pressure-volume curve illustrated below to determine the ejection fraction and diastolic
pressure. The diastolic pressure equals

Options
0 mmHg
5 mmHg
70 mmHg
90 mmHg

Use the following ECG to answer the next question. During which interval on the ECG does the
bundle of His depolarize?

Options
A
B
C
D

Use the following pressure-volume loop to answer the question. The second heart sound begins at
point
Options
A
B
C
D

Use the following pressure-volume loop to answer the question. Systole begins at point

Options
A
C
D
E

Use the following diagram to answer the question. Closing of the mitral valve begins at point
Options
A
B
C
D

Use the following diagram of three Starling curves to answer the question. A mild hemorrhage
will cause stroke volume to shift from point X to point

Options
A
B
C
D

Select the letter in the graph below that best fits the relationship between testosterone and LH in
the situatuion described. A normal 3-year-old boy.
Options
B
C
D
E

The normal pattern of progesterone secretion during the menstrual cycle is exhibited by which of
the curves shown below?
Options
A
B
C
D

In a normal pregnancy, human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) prevents the involution of the
corpus luteum that normally occurs at the end of the menstrual cycle. Which of the curves shown
below approximates the level of this hormone during pregnancy?

Options
A
B
C
D

A 21-year-old male taking large doses of an anabolic steroid

Options
B
C
D
E

Use the following diagram to answer the question. At which point on the action potential is the
membrane closest to the Na+ equilibrium potential?

Options
Point A
Point B
Point C
Point D

The polymers in food are broken down into their constituent monomers by ____ reactions in the
digestive tract

Options
Polymerization
Absorption
Condensation
Hydrolysis
The digestive system is specialized to perform all of the following functions except

Options
Deglutition
Peristalsis
Metabolism
Defecation

Which of the following locations does not belong with the others?

Options
Buccal cavity
Stomach
Salivary glands
Small intestine

Movement of solutes through a membrane with the use of a transport protein is called

Options
Osmosis
Facilitated diffusion
Carrier-mediated transport
Active transport

If a membrane that is permeable to urea has a solution of 100 mOsm urea on side A and 300
mOsm urea on side B,

Options
No urea can diffuse from side A to side B
Urea will diffuse through the membrane until both sides have 200 mOsm
There will be net diffusion of urea from side A to side B
Movement (diffusion) of urea through the membrane will stop when equilibrium is reached

Cells continually generate CO2 and must get rid of it. The mechanisms for getting CO2 out of the
cell is

Options
Active transport
Facilitated diffusion
Cotransport
Simple diffusion

Sudden changes in the permeability of a membrane to a certain solute are achieved by

Options
Increasing the concentration gradient of the solute
Increasing the number of carrier proteins in the membrane
Increasing the transport maximum of the membrane
Changes in the shape of carrier proteins in the membrane
Which of the following is not considered to be an accessory organ of the digestive system?

Options
Teeth
Rectum
Pancreas
Gallbladder

Which of the following is a subdivision and does not belong with the other layers of the
gastrointestinal wall?

Options
Mucosa
Lamina propria
Submucosa
Serosa

A high density of microvilli is to be expected especially on the surface of epithelial cells located in
the

Options
Brain
Liver
Muscles
Small intestine

Most of the digestive system receives its parasympathetic innervation from the

Options
Vagus nerve
Thoracic spinal nerves
Lumbar spinal nerves
Sacral spinal nerves

Water passes from the tissue fluids into the blood capillaries mainly because the

Options
Blood has a lower protein concentration than the tissue fluids
Blood has a higher protein concentration than the tissue fluids
Blood contains more salt than the tissue fluids
Tissue fluids are more concentrated than the blood plasma

Plant cells have a tough, fibrous cell wall that can push against the expanding cell membrane and
prevent the uptake of excess water. The pressure that the cell wall must generate to oppose the
uptake of water is called

Options
Osmotic pressure
Hydrostatic pressure
Osmolality
 Tonicity

The amount of blood pumped by one ventricle in one minute, is called the

Options
Stroke volume
End-diastolic volume
Ejection fraction
Cardiac output

Avogadro's number (6.02 x 1023) refers to

Options
How many moles of solute are needed to make an isotonic solution
The freezing point depression in relation to osmolality
How many molecules are present in one mole of a substance
How many moles of a substance are present on one kilogram

The sinoatrial (SA) node depolarizes less frequently under the influence of

Options
Norepinephrine
Epinephrine
The vagus nerve
The medulla oblongata

Glutamic acid weighs 147 grams per mole. To make a 1 M solution of glutamic acid, you could

Options
Dissolve 147 g in 1 kg (kilogram) of water
Dissolve 147 g in 1 L (liter) of water
Dissolve 147 g in enough water to make 1 L of solution
Dissolve 147 g in enough water to make 1 kg of solution

Stroke volume is regulated by all of the following except

Options
End-diastolic volume (EDV)
Cardiac output
Contractility
Peripheral resistance

The afterload imposed on a ventricle refers to

Options
Its end-systolic volume, the blood left after contraction is complete.
The amount of blood added to a ventricle by atrial systole.
The total peripheral resistance opposing the ejection of blood.
The ejection fraction, or percentage of EDV ejected by ventricular systole.
To enter the small intestine, partially digested food must pass through the

Options
Gastroesophageal sphincter
Pyloric sphincter
Ileocecal valve
Sphincter of Oddi

Glucose has a molecular weight of 180, sucrose 342, and lactic acid 90. If we dissolve 18 g of
glucose, 34 g of sucrose, and 9 g of lactic acid in 1 kg of water, the resulting solution will have a
concentration that can be designated

Options
0.3 M
3.0 M
0.1 m
0.3 Osm

The Frank-Starling law of the heart pertains to stroke volume and essentially says that

Options
Stroke volume x heart rate = cardiac output
Stroke volume is proportional to the EDV
Stroke volume is proportional to peripheral resistance
Both ventricles have equal stroke volumes

Which of the following cell types does not belong with the others?

Options
Alpha cells
G cells
Enterochromaffin-like cells
Parietal cells

The basic purpose of all sense organs is to convert stimulus energy (for example, sound or light)
into action potentials. Anything that converts one energy form into another like this is called a(n)
____.

Options
Adapter
Transducer
Generator
Encoder

If a sample of plasma were placed in an apparatus to measure its freezing point, and the fluid
froze at -1.12° C, we could estimate its osmolality as

Options
300 mOsm
112 mOsm
 600 mOsm
6 Osm

Two solutions are said to differ in ____ if they have different effects on the osmosis of water.

Options
Tonicity
Molarity
Molality
Osmolality

Rods and cones are sensory cells that respond to light are known functionally, as

Options
Mechanoreceptors
Thermoreceptors
Nocioceptors
Photoreceptors

Red blood cells placed in a 0.3 m urea solution (urea is permeable) will exhibit

Options
Shrinkage
No change
Crenation
Hemolysis

Receptors in the muscles, tendons, and joints that inform the brain of the position and movements
of the body parts, are functionally known as

Options
Nocioceptors
Cutaneous receptors
Proprioceptors
Exteroreceptors

A positive inotropic effect is something that

Options
Reduces the heart rate in positive feedback loop.
Increases the heart rate in positive feedback loop.
Increases the contractility of myocardial fibers.
Decreases the contractility of myocardial fibers.

Suppose a carrier protein in a cell membrane can transport amino acid A and amino acid B. It will
transport less A per minute when B is present than it will when only A is present, because of

Options
Saturation
Inhibition
 Competition
The transport maximum (Tm)

Which of the following is not considered one of the special senses?

Options
Pain
Vision
Hearing
Taste

The colloid osmotic pressure of blood plasma is due to its high concentration of

Options
Albumin
Hemoglobin
Sodium
Glucose

According to the classic view of the Starling forces, capillaries usually tend to absorb fluid

Options
At the arteriolar end.
At the venular end.
Only when the precapillary sphincters are open.
At neither end; they filter fluid, and it is up to the lymphatic vessels to absorb it.

Myxedema is a disease caused by hypothyroidism, which causes production of excessive amounts

of glycoprotein in the interstitial spaces. The effect of this on capillary fluid dynamics would be to
cause

Options
Precapillary sphincters to shut off blood flow to affected tissues
Vasodilation of the capillaries
Increased filtration and accumulation of fluid in the tissues
Increased transfer of tissue fluid into the bloodstream, resulting in hypertension

The normal action of antidiuretic hormone (ADH) is to

Options
Stimulate fluid retention by the kidneys.
Stimulate sodium retention .
Accelerate the heartbeat.
Cause vasoconstriction.
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34. 34
35. 35
Question (278/278)
36. 36
37.cutaneous
The 37 senses would include all of the following except
38. 38
39. 39
Options
40.Pressure
40
41. 41
42.Heat
42
43.Odor
43
44.Touch
44
45. 45
Sextracellular
46. 46 fluid (ECF) contains up to 10,000 times more calcium than intracellular fluid (ICF),
and yet
47. 47 all cells continue to pump out even more calcium. They could only do this by means of
48. 48
Options
49. 49
50.Pinocytosis
50
51.Facilitated
51 diffusion
52.Osmosis
52
53. 53
Active transport
54. 54
55."salt-retaining
The 55 hormone," secreted in response to low blood pressure, is called
56. 56
57. 57
Options
58.Aldosterone
58
59. 59
60.Angiotensin
60 II
61.Vasopressin
61 (ADH)
62.Atrial
62 natriuretic hormone (ANH)
Receptors
63. 63 that respond when a stimulus is first applied, but quickly stop responding to continual
stimulation,
64. 64 are the
65. 65
Options
66. 66
67.Phasic
67 receptors
68.Nocioreceptors
68
69. 69
Exteroceptors
70. 70
71.Tonic
Prev 71 receptors
72. 72
Mark
Angiotensin II has all of the following effects except to
73. 73
Skip
74. 74
Options
75. 75
76.Cause
76 vasoconstriction of arterioles and muscular arteries.
77.Stimulate
77 the sense of thirst.
78.Stimulate
78 excretion of excess sodium by the kidneys.
79.Raise
79 the blood pressure.
80. 80
81. 81transport involves a conformational change in the carrier protein. The most immediate
Active
82. 82 for this is
stimulus
83. 83
Options
84. 84
85.A 85
change in membrane voltage
86.Binding
86 of the carrier protein to a molecule in the extracellular fluid
87. 87
Phosphorylation (binding of the carrier protein to a phosphate group) within the cell
88. 88
89.Fluctuations
89 in the pH of the medium around the carrier protein
90. 90
The
91.brain
91 interprets signals from the eye as light even if the eye is actually being stimulated by
something else, such as pressure. This best describes (p. 240)
92. 92
93. 93
Options
94. 94
95.Sensory
95 adaptation
96.Visual
96 accommodation
97.The
97 law of specific nerve energies
98.The
98 pupillary reflex
99. 99
100. 100
Blood will not flow unless there is a sufficient DP between point A and point B in the circulatory
101. 101
system. In this sentence DP represents
102. 102
Options
103. 103
104.Colloid
104 osmotic pressure in the plasma
105.Plasma
105 protein concentration
106. 106
Hydrostatic pressure difference
107. 107
108.An osmotic gradient
108
109. 109
Some cells employ a countertransport (or antiport) mechanism to maintain a high extracellular
110. 110
Ca2+ concentration
111. 111 coupled to the passive inward diffusion of Na+ . This best describes
112. 112
Options
113. 113
114.A 114
membrane which is impermeable to Ca2+ and will not let it into the cell
115.Primary
115 active transport of Ca2+ out of the cell
 116.Facilitated
116 diffusion of Ca2+ out of the cell
117.Secondary
117 active transport of Ca2+ out of the cell
118. 118
119.
In the119
proportionality expression R ∞ Lη / r4, R represents the total force that resists the flow of
blood120
120. from point A to point B, and h represents the
121. 121
122. 122
Options
123.Systolic
123 pressure generated by the heart.
124. 124
Viscosity of the blood.
125. 125
126.Radius
126 of a blood vessel.
127.Length
127 of a blood vessel.
128. 128
An environmental
129. 129 stimulus acting on the body initially produces an electrical response, called
a(n)
130.____
130 in the receptor neuron.
131. 131
Options
132. 132
133.Generator
133 potential
134.Excitatory
134 postsynaptic potential
135.Action
135 potential
136. 136
Stimulus potential
137. 137
138.
Of all138
the factors that can affect blood flow to a particular tissue, the most effective and easiest to
139. 139
control from moment to moment, is
140. 140
141. 141
Options
142.Vessel
142 radius
143. 143
Blood viscosity
144. 144
145.Vessel
145 length
146.Pressure
146 differential
147. 147
The
148.cell
148membrane is more permeable to ____ than any other cation..
149. 149
Options
150. 150
151.Na+
151
152.K+
152
153.Ca2+
153
154. 154
H+
155. 155
156. 156
Tonic receptors provide information about the intensity of a stimulus through
157. 157
158. 158
Options
159.The
159duration of their response
160. 160
161.The
161frequency of their action potentials
162.The
162amplitude of their action potentials
163.Their
163 generator potentials
164. 164
During
165. 165exercise or stress ("fight-or-flight" situations), the sympathetic nervous system causes
vasodilation
166. 166 in the skeletal muscle but vasoconstriction in the skin. It is able to achieve these
opposite
167. 167 effects because
168. 168
Options
169. 169
170.Sympathetic
170 fibers secrete epinephrine in the muscle and acetylcholine in the skin.
171. 171
Bradykinin stimulates constriction of arterioles in the dermis.
172. 172
173.The
173muscles have cholinergic sympathetic fibers and the skin has adrenergic fibers
174.The
174muscles have α-adrenergic receptors and the skin has β-adrenergic receptors.
175. 175
Vasodilation
176. 176 is often caused by any of the following local conditions except the
177. 177
Options
178. 178
179.Decrease
179 in oxygen concentration in the tissue fluid.
180.Decrease
180 in carbon dioxide concentration in the tissue fluid.
181.Decrease
181 in pH of the tissue fluid.
182.Increase
182 in K+ concentration in the tissue fluid.
183. 183
184. 184
Deep pressure on the skin is sensed by
185. 185
186. 186
Options
187.Free
187nerve endings
188. 188
Meissner's corpuscles
189. 189
190.Pacinian
190 corpuscles
191.Merkel's
191 discs
192. 192
Coronary
193. 193 arteries must dilate during exercise to meet the heart's increased oxygen demand. This
occurs
194. 194 under the influence of all of the following compounds, except
195. 195
Options
196. 196
197.Carbon
197 dioxide
198.Potassium
198
199.Adenosine
199
200.Acetylcholine
200
201. 201
202. 202
From the time a tactile stimulus is detected by a receptor in the foot, to the time the resulting
203. 203
nerve impulses arrive in the postcentral gyrus of the brain, the impulses will have traveled over
204. 204
____ neurons.
205. 205
206. 206
Options
207.One
207
208. 208
Two
209. 209
210.Three
210
211.Hundreds
211 of
212. 212
Athletes
213. 213trained for endurance, such as swimmers and marathon runners, have a higher stroke
volume
214. 214at rest mainly because they have
215. 215
Options
216. 216
217.A 217
higher resting heart rate
218.More
218 sympathetic stimulation of the SA node
219.Increased
219 end-diastolic volume
220. 220
Decreased end-diastolic volume
221. 221
____
222.is222
a polypeptide vasodilator produced by the sweat glands.
223. 223
Options
224. 224
225.Bradykinin
225
226.Histamine
226
227. 227
Serotonin
228. 228
229.Endorphin
229
230. 230
Somatesthetic sensations reach the postcentral gyrus by way of a third-order neuron which begins
231. 231
in the
232. 232
233. 233
Options
234. 234
235.Cerebral
235 medulla
236.Thalamus
236
237.Medulla
237 oblongata
238.Spinal
238 cord
239. 239
240. 240
When a cell reaches a potassium equilibrium,
241. 241
Options
242. 242
243.All
243
diffusion of K+ stops
244.There
244 are equal amounts of K+ ion on both sides of the cell membrane
245. 245
K+ outward diffusion is balanced by electrical attraction inward
246. 246
247.The
247membrane potential is about +60 mV
248. 248
Baroreceptors
249. 249 are specialized pressure receptors found in the
250. 250
Options
251. 251
252.Vena
252 cava
253.Descending
253 aorta
254.Medulla
254 oblongata
255.Carotid
255 sinuses
256. 256
A257.
zone 257of the skin where stimulation generates action potentials in a particular sensory neuron is
258. 258
called that neuron's ____.
259. 259
Options
260. 260
261.Receptive
261 field
262.Sensory
262 domain
263. 263
264.Stimulus
264 modality
265.Projection
265 area
266. 266
The
267.Nernst
267 equation enables us to calculate the membrane voltage that exactly balances the
diffusion
268. 268 of a particular ion down its concentration gradient. To use the equation, however, we
must know all of the following, except the
269. 269
270. 270
Options
271. 271
272.Valence
272 of the ion (for example, +1 for potassium; +2 for calcium)
273.Equilibrium
273 potential of the ion in millivolts (mV)
274.Intracellular
274 concentration of the ion in mEq/L
 275.Extracellular
275 concentration of the ion in mEq/L
276. 276
277. 277
Stretch receptors in the left atrium help control blood pressure by
278. 278
Options
Reducing the heart rate
Stimulating sodium retention
Stimulating production of more ADH
Causing increased urine output

The two-point touch threshold test serves as a demonstration of

Options
Lateral inhibition.
The law of specific nerve energies.
Sensory adaptation.
Receptive fields

Excessive blood loss due to a gunshot wound is most likely to cause

Options
Cardiogenic shock
Anaphylactic shock
Septic shock
Hypovolemic shock

The reason Braille can be read by blind people is that the raised dots are

Options
High enough to stimulate the pacinian corpuscles of the skin.
Close enough to cause lateral inhibition.
Close enough to come within the two-point touch threshold.
Sufficiently far apart to exceed the two-point touch threshold.

The most important effect of lateral inhibition is to

Options
Enable two points of skin contact to be felt separately rather than as one.
Sharpen perception of the precise location of a stimulus.
Enable the brain to distinguish between one sensory modality and another.
Allow for stimulus intensity to be encoded in the firing frequency of a neuron.

The membrane of a resting cell leaks sodium and potassium ions, but the ____ compensates for
this and maintains the membrane potential near a constant value.

Options
Sodium/potassium pump
Transport of calcium ions
Closure of potassium channels in the membrane
Closure of sodium channels in the membrane
The senses of smell and taste have all of the following in common except that they

Options
Are both based on exteroceptors.
Are both based on chemoreceptors.
Can only sense molecules dissolved in liquid.
Both transmit to the brain via the glossopharyngeal nerve (IX).

The Na+/K+ pump does not merely compensate for the "leakiness" of the cell membrane to these
ions, but actively helps keep the intracellular fluid more negative than the extracellular fluid. This
is primarily because

Options
It is involved in cotransport of Ca2+ out of the cell
It helps trap organic anions in the cytoplasm
For every two positive K+ charges it brings into the cell, it transfers three positive Na+ charges
out of the cell
For every two anions it pumps out of the cell, it pumps three anions in

The sense of taste depends on stimulatory molecules binding with

Options
Microvilli of receptor cells
Hair cells of the taste buds
Nerve endings in the tongue
Neurotransmitter receptor sites

Which defense mechanism is not in the nonspecific category of immunity?

Options
Epithelial membranes that cover the body surfaces
Strong acidity of gastric juice
Phagocytosis of unwanted substances
Activity of lymphocyte populations

Which of the following does not belong with the others?

Options
Salty
Aromatic
Bitter
Sweet

The highly mobile cells that are the first to arrive at the site of an infection, are the

Options
Neutrophils
Monocytes
Macrophages
Basophils
The thermoregulatory control center or "thermostat" that regulates the body's response to
changes in temperature such as during a fever, is located in the

Options
Hypothalamus
Pituitary
Cerebral cortex
Adrenal gland

Of the four basic taste modalities, the one most limited to the tip of the tongue is

Options
Bitter
Sour
Salty
Sweet

The clumping of antigen-to-antibody particles during an immunoassay such as the modern

pregnancy test, is known as

Options
Clustering
Agglutination
Chemotaxis
Diapedesis

Hydrogen ion (H+) is associated with which of the basic taste modalities?

Options
Sweet
Sour
Salty
Bitter

Which plasma protein does not form a distinct band in the globulin class during electrophoresis of
blood?

Options
Fibrinogen
Albumin
Alpha-1 globulin
Beta globulin

The neuron structure generally has all of the following principal areas, except

Options
Microvilli
A cell body
Dendrites
An axon
Olfaction (smell) differs from other sensory modalities because it

Options
Does not transmit to the cerebral cortex but only to lower brain centers.
Does not transmit to the cerebral cortex via the thalamus
Can function as either an interoceptor or exteroceptor
Uses lateral inhibition

Which subclass of immunoglobulin molecules mediates allergic reactions?

Options
IgA
IgB
IgD
IgE

Densely staining areas or Nissl bodies of the perikaryon are composed of

Options
Mitochondria
Rough endoplasmic reticulum
Golgi apparatus
Microfilaments and microtubules

Which substance is released from tissue mast cells and plasma basophils to dilate blood vessels, to
increase blood flow and to increase capillary permeability?

Options
Complements C5 through C9
Histamine
IgG
Complements C2 through C4

The origin of the axon near the cell body is an expanded region where nerve impulses originate,
and is known as the

Options
Axon
Axon hillock
Axon collateral
Dendrite

Which symptom is not characteristic of local inflammation?

Options
Redness
Shortness of breath
Swelling (edema)
Pus formation
The hydrochloric acid secreted by the parietal cells of the stomach serves all of the following
purposes, except

Options
The low pH produced by HCl makes pepsin more active
The acid helps convert pepsinogen into pepsin
It denatures dietary proteins and makes them more digestible
It hydrolyzes the peptide bonds between the amino acids of dietary proteins

The immunization procedures of Jenner and Pasteur support the clonal selection theory, which
demonstrates and helps to explain

Options
The primary immune response
The secondary immune response
The secretion of monoclonal antibodies
Passive immunity

Involuntary effectors (glands, smooth or cardiac muscle) are innervated (stimulated by)

Options
Autonomic neurons
Efferent neurons
Motor neurons
Association neurons

Contributing factors in acute gastritis include all of the following except

Options
Regurgitation of bile salts from the duodenum into the stomach
Deficiency of bicarbonate
Hypersecretion of hydrochloric acid
Histamine secretion

Which statement about passive immunity is false?

Options
A mother may transfer some IgG antibodies passively through the placenta to the fetus.
A mother may transfer some IgA antibodies passively to the newborn in her first breast milk
(the colostrum).
It can occur when either attenuated pathogens or similar vaccines are injected.
Passive immunity can occur when antiserum or antitoxin preparations are injected.

Myelin sheaths around axons located within the CNS are formed by

Options
Schwann cells
Microglia
Astrocytes
Oligodendrocytes
Which of the following general chemical categories is not represented by a group of hormones?

Options
Catecholamines (epinephrine and norepinephrine)
Polypeptides and glycoproteins
Nucleic acids
Steroids

All of the following substances except ____ stimulate the secretion of gastric acid

Options
Epinephrine
Gastrin
Histamine
Acetylcholine

Which of the following cell types is not a supporting cell or glial cell of the nervous system?

Options
Schwann cell
Oligodendrocyte
Astrocyte
Association neuron

More ____ is absorbed by the duodenum and the jejunum than by the ileum

Options
Vitamin B12
Water
Carbohydrate
Bile salt

Which of the following does not accurately describe the steroid hormones?

Options
Steroid hormones are derived from cholesterol molecules as a raw material.
Steroid hormones are lipophilic, lipid-like molecules not soluble in water.
Steroid hormones include the prostaglandins.
Steroid hormones include the sex hormones and corticosteroids.

The nervous system supporting cell (neuroglia) that has both amoeboid properties to permit
migration through the CNS and phagocytosis properties to remove foreign and degenerated
material from the CNS tissue, is the

Options
Schwann cells
Satellite cells
Oligodendrocytes
Microglia
The gland most responsible for maturation, storage, and formation of T lymphocytes, is the

Options
Thymus
Thyroid
Spleen
Liver

The lacteals of the small intestine absorb

Options
Monosaccharides
Amino acids
Electrolytes
Lipids

Which hormones are secreted by the adrenal cortex?

Options
Corticosteroids: aldosterone and cortisol among others
Thyroxine
Epinephrine and norepinephrine catecholamines
ADH and oxytocin

The ____ are large, star-shaped cells with numerous cytoplasmic processes radiating outward.
They take up potassium ions from the extracellular fluid and also release glutamine, an important
raw molecule for neurons.

Options
Microglia
Astrocytes
Enterocytes
Satellite cells

The subpopulation of T lymphocytes that is attacked by the human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)
in AIDS victims, is the

Options
Helper T cells
Suppressor T cells
Cytotoxic T cells
Killer T cells

Which of the following is a brush border enzyme?

Options
Pepsin
Lactase
Trypsin
Amylase
The cell types that are most responsible for presenting foreign antigens together with surface
antigens to specific receptors on the membrane of T lymphocytes are the and the dendritic cells.

Options
B lymphocytes
Macrophages
Platelets
Neutrophils

All cells in the body maintain a potential difference (voltage) across the membrane called the
_____, in which the inside of the cell is negatively charged in comparison to the outside of the cell.

Options
Graded potential
Threshold potential
Resting potential
Graded potential

Which of the following hormones contain the element iodine?

Options
Triiodothyronine (T3) and tetraiodothyronine (T4)
Catecholamines (epinephrine and norepinephrine)
Sex steroids
Corticosteroids

Lactose, salt, or other solutes that increase the osmolarity of the contents of the colon tend to
cause

Options
Diverticulitis
Acute gastritis
Diarrhea
Ulcerative colitis

Arrange these action potential events in their proper sequence: 1. threshold voltage is reached 2.
K+ gates begin to open 3. K+ gates close 4. Na+ gates begin to open 5. Na+ gates begin to close 6.
membrane repolarization begins

Options
1, 2, 4, 3, 5, 6
4, 6, 3, 2, 1, 5
4, 6, 2, 1, 5, 3
1, 4, 2, 5, 6, 3

Which of the following statements about the major histocompatibility complex of genes is false?

Options
Class 1 molecules are made by all cells in the body except red blood cells; whereas class 2
molecules are made only by macrophages and B lymphocytes.
 Each gene can code for the synthesis of only one protein molecule.
They can help reduce the risk of organ transplant rejection by matching the genes of the
recipient to those of the potential donors.
They direct the synthesis of molecules that promote the immune interaction between
macrophages and B lymphocytes.

The hormones that are small, nonpolar and can be taken orally, yet are not steroids are

Options
Prostaglandins
Estrogen and progesterone
Insulin and glucagon
Thryoid hormones (T3 and T4)

Dedifferentiation is a term that refers to the process by which tumor cells become

Options
Relatively unspecialized and similar to the less specialized cells of an embryo
More specialized and thus similar to the more complex cells of the adult
Stimulated to divide erratically with less inhibitory control than that seen in normal cells
Altered by mutations that interfere with the normal expression of MHC antigens

Both the depolarization and repolarization changes that occur during the action potential are
produced by

Options
Simple diffusion of ions down their concentration gradients
Active transport pumps along the neuron membrane
Negative feedback loops
Carrier mediated transport

Which statement about prohormones is false?

Options
Are often derived from prehormones
Include proinsulin from the endocrine beta cells of the pancreas
Are usually more active than the final hormones themselves
Are usually longer chained molecules than those of the final hormones

Which statement about natural killer (NK) cells is false?

Options
NK cells are not processed (matured) by the thymus gland.
NK cells can attack and destroy tumor cells
NK cells provide a first line of cell-mediated defense, destroying tumors in a nonspecific
fashion.
NK cells must first be activated by macrophages that present foreign tumor antigens.

The bile contains all of the following components except

Options
Lecithin
Albumin
Cholesterol
Urobilinogen

During the absolute refractory period along an axon membrane of a neuron,

Options
The potassium gates are open and K+ is diffusing down its concentration gradient.
The sodium gates are closed and Na+ is diffusing down its concentration gradient.
The neuron is unable to respond to a stimulus of any intensity.
The membrane is most sensitive to stimuli.

Whether a molecule acts as a neurotransmitter or a hormone, which statement about

physiological regulation by these molecules is false?

Options
Target cells must have specific receptor proteins with which these molecules combine.
When these molecules bind to target cells, specific sequences of changes must occur.
There must be an "off-switch" that will stop the induced changes.
Second messengers will always be involved in the response of the target cell

The liver synthesizes all of the following except

Options
Plasma albumin
Fibrinogen
Plasma globulins
Immunoglobulins

Which of the following is not a neuron-neuron synapse?

Options
Neuromuscular junction
Axosomatic synapse
Axoaxonic synapse
Dendrodentritic synapse

The autoimmune disease characterized by the abnormal production of IgM type antibodies that
attack IgG type antibodies, is called

Options
Hashimoto's thyroiditis
Sympathetic ophthalmia
Thrombocytopenia
Rheumatoid arthritis

Cholic acid and chenodeoxycholic acid are the main ____ in humans
Options
Bile salts
Bile pigments
Bile globulins
Conjugated bilirubin

Which of the following does not describe the synergistic effects of hormones?

Options
Two or more hormones working together to produce a particular result
Effects that may be additive or complementary
Effects that enhance the activity of a second hormone at a target
The action of epinephrine and norepinephrine on the heart rate

Which statement about systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) is false?

Options
SLE results from the abnormal combination of self-antigens and autoantibodies.
SLE victims produce antibodies against their own DNA and nuclear protein.
SLE is an autoimmune disease that results in the formation of immune complexes throughout
the body.
SLE is characterized by unexpected immediate hypersensitivity reactions

The small membrane-enclosed compartments that hold and release the neurotransmitter
molecules from within the presynaptic neuron, are called

Options
Synaptic vesicles
Synaptic clefts
Terminal boutons
Gap junctions

The liver detoxifies ammonia by converting it to

Options
Bilirubin
Urea
Uric acid
Nothing, since ammonia is processed by the kidneys and not the liver

Between which of the following hormone pairs is the interaction between hormones not an
example of the permissive effect of a first hormone for a second hormone?

Options
Estrogen for prolactin on the mammary glands during pregnancy
Parathyroid hormone (PTH) for vitamin D3 on blood Ca2+ levels
Estrogen for progesterone on the uterus
Glucocorticoids for catecholamine actions

Which immunoglobulin is most responsible for the symptoms of immediate hypersensitivity?

Options
IgG
IgE
IgM
IgD

The liver is able to make glucose from non-carbohydrates such as amino acids and fatty acids
when the body's need for glucose is not met from dietary intake or glycogen reserves. This process
is called

Options
Glycogenesis
Glycogenolysis
Lipogenesis
Gluconeogenesis

Which statement about delayed hypersensitivity is false?

Options
It is a cell-mediated T cell response, rather than a B cell humoral response involving
antibodies.
Its symptoms are caused primarily by the action of various secreted lymphokines.
Both the tine test and the Mantoux test for tuberculosis are examples.
Antihistamines are clinically effective as treatment in sufferers of delayed hypersensitivity.

The half-life of most hormones ranges from

Options
Seconds to minutes
Minutes to hours
Hours to days
Days to weeks

Which event is not involved in the release of neurotransmitter chemicals from the presynaptic
terminal boutons following the arrival of action potentials?

Options
Phosphorylation of synapsin proteins in the membrane of the synaptic vesicles
Turning off the Na+/K+ membrane pumps
Activation of intracellular enzymes (protein kinases) by calmodulin regulatory protein
Exocytosis of membrane-bound vesicles

The pulsatile (noncontinuous) secretion of hormones

Options
Describes how many polypeptide and glycoprotein hormones are released
Is needed to prevent upregulation of target cells
Describes the use of anabolic steroids (synthetic androgens) by athletes
Prolongs the half-life of a given hormone
Many of the pancreatic enzymes must be activated by trypsin before they can begin digesting
food, but trypsin itself requires the activating effect of

Options
Chymotrypsin
Carboxypeptidase
Phospholipase
Enterokinase

Which cell type does not participate in phagocytosis?

Options
Neutrophils within the blood and tissues
B lymphocytes
Macrophages within the connective tissues
Kupffer cells that are "fixed" within the liver

The smell, taste, or just the thought of food can activate gastric secretion and stomach motility by
activating the

Options
Sympathetic nervous system
Release of gastrin
Vagus nerve
Release of cholecystokinin (CCK)

Which statement about chemically regulated (or ligand-regulated) gates is false?

Options
They open in response to chemical changes in the postsynaptic cell membrane.
Once opened, ions flow can depolarize (EPSP) or hyperpolarize (IPSP) the membrane.
They contain receptor proteins that recognize and bind with a specific ligand.
They are found in the axons and open in response to depolarization.

The receptors for steroid hormones are found here. (p. 292)

Options
Receptor proteins within the nucleus of the target cell
Receptor proteins within the cytoplasm of the target cell
Receptor proteins on the outer surface of the target cell membrane
None of these

Contraction of the gallbladder is stimulated by neural reflex as well as by the action of

Options
Cholecystokinin (CCK)
Secretin
Guanylin
Somatostatin
Which organelle contains powerful digestive enzymes and participates directly in the process of
phagocytosis?

Options
Nucleus
Mitochondrion
Endoplasmic reticulum
Lysosome

Acetylcholinesterase (AChE) is an enzyme located on or immediately outside the

Options
Presynaptic membrane
Postsynaptic membrane
Axon terminal cytoplasm
Vesicles released by exocytosis

More of the total daily calories in the average American diet come from the consumption of ____
than from any of these other components

Options
Lipids
Carbohydrates
Nucleic acids
Proteins

Which statement about haptens is false?

Options
They are small organic molecules that are not antigenic by themselves.
Bonded to protein, haptens can become antigenic.
Bonded to protein, haptens are available for research or diagnostic purposes.
They release chemicals that are able to attract phagocytes (chemotaxis).

The receptors for thyroid hormones are found here.

Options
Receptor proteins within the nucleus of the target cell
Receptor proteins within the cytoplasm of the target cell
Receptor proteins on the outer surface of the target cell membrane
None of these

Myasthenia gravis is a muscle weakness disease caused by

Options
Immune system antibodies that block and destroy ACh receptors
Blocking the release of ACh from presynaptic vesicles
Enhancing the breakdown of ACh by AChE
Blocking the flow of Na+ through open ion channels
The receptors for catecholamine and polypeptide hormones are found here.

Options
Receptor proteins within the nucleus of the target cell
Receptor proteins within the cytoplasm of the target cell
Receptor proteins on the outer surface of the target cell membrane
None of these

Each villus of the small intestine contains a lymphatic vessel called a lacteal which is specialized
for the absorption of digested

Options
Milk
Carbohydrate molecules
Protein molecules
Lipid molecules

Which of the following actions is not used to inhibit the stimulatory effects of monoamines
released from presynaptic vesicles?

Options
Reuptake into the presynaptic neuron ending
Enzyme degradation(breakdown) by monoamine oxidase (MAO) enzymes
Blockade of the receptor and inhibition by specific receptor antibodies
Enzyme degradation by catecholamine-O-methyltransferase (COMT) enzymes

Which statement about thyroxine is false?

Options
It is the major hormone secreted by the thyroid gland; also known as triiodothyronine, or T3.
About 99.96% of thyroxine is attached to carrier proteins in the plasma and the rest is free.
Its carrier protein in the blood is named thyroxine-binding globulin (TBG) and has a high
affinity for thyroxine.
It is not the active thyroid hormone that acts within the target cells.

Drugs known as amphetamines stimulate neural pathways causing mental arousal and peripheral
nervous system effects that duplicate sympathetic nerve activation. The neurotransmitter that
amphetamines mimic in this way, is

Options
Acetylcholine (ACh)
Norepinephrine (NE)
Serotonin
Dopamine

The membrane enzyme that is activated by G-protein subunits to catalyze the synthesis of cAMP
as the second messenger of target cells is

Options
Protein kinase
 Phosphodiesterase
Adenylate cyclase
None of these

The neurotransmitter that appears to be involved in diseases that affect the motor control of
muscles, such as Huntington's chorea, status epilepticus (seizures), and perhaps, severe alterations
in mood and emotions, is known as

Options
ACh
Norepinephrine
Serotonin
GABA

The normally inactive enzyme that becomes active, catalyzing the phosphorylation of proteins,
when newly formed cAMP binds to it, is known as

Options
Protein kinase
Phosphodiesterase
Adenylate cyclase
None of these

He neural mechanism that may represent a form of "learning" when transmission along
frequently used nerve pathways results in improved efficiency of synaptic transmission, is called

Options
Long-term potentiation
Synaptic inhibition
Presynaptic inhibition
Synaptic plasticity

The enzyme that inactivates the second messenger cAMP by hydrolyzing it into inactive
fragments.

Options
Protein kinase
Phosphodiesterase
Adenylate cyclase
None of these

Which of the following does not describe the cytoplasmic protein, calmodulin?

Options
It binds to the alpha subunit of membrane G-proteins to produce effects.
The ultimate function of this protein may be stimulated by the actions of phospholipase C.
It is activated by Ca2+ entering the cytoplasm from the endoplasmic reticulum or from outside
the cell.
It activates specific protein kinase enzymes that phosphorylate other proteins to affect target
cell activity.
Which statement about the total rate of body metabolism, or metabolic rate is false?

Options
It can be measured by the amount of heat generated by the body
It can be measured by the amount of oxygen consumed by the body per minute
It is increased both by eating and by physical exercise
It is increased when the body core temperature is lowered (hypothermia)

Which of the following is not part of the adenohypophysis or anterior pituitary gland?

Options
Pars distalis
Pars nervosa
Pars tuberalis
None of these

Which factor is not involved in the direct determination of the basal metabolic rate (BMR)?

Options
Male or female gender
Age and body frame size
Thyroid hormone secretions
Daily dietary caloric intake

Which of the primary germ layers of the embryo gives rise to the nervous system?

Options
Ectoderm
Blastoderm
Mesoderm
Endoderm

Which of the following is not a fat-soluble vitamin?

Options
A
D
C
E

The neural crest of the embryo gives rise to the ____.

Options
Cerebrum
Brain stem
Spinal cord
Peripheral ganglia

The hormone that stimulates the growth of ovarian follicles in females and the production of
sperm in the testes of males, is
Options
Growth hormone (GH, or somatotropin)
Thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH, or thyrotropin)
Adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH, or corticotropin)
Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH, or folliculotropin)

External respiration refers to

Options
Pulmonary ventilation
Ventilation and gas exchange the air and blood
Ventilation, gas exchange, and gas transport by the blood
Everything except cellular respiration

The brain contains a series of central cavities called ___ which are filled with cerebrospinal fluid
(CSF).

Options
Chambers
Vesicles
Ventricles
Atria

The hormone secreted in both males and females, that plays a supporting role in the regulation of
the male reproductive system by the gonadotropin (FSH and LH) and acts on the kidneys to help
regulate water and electrolyte balance

Options
Adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH, or corticotropin)
Luteinizing hormone (LH, or luteotropin)
Prolactin (PRL)
Interstitial cell-stimulating hormone (ICSH)

Of the following elements, which one is needed in relatively large amounts to function as a
cofactor for specific enzymes and, therefore, is not considered a trace element?

Options
Fluorine
Zinc
Magnesium
Iron

The conducting zone of the respiratory system includes all of the following passages, except

Options
The trachea
Alveolar ducts
Tertiary bronchi
Terminal bronchioles
The white matter of the central nervous system gets its white color from the ____.

Options
Scarcity of blood vessels
Scarcity of pigment
Nerve cell bodies
Presence of myelin sheaths

Which of the following is not considered a circulating energy substrate?

Options
Vitamins
Fatty acids
Ketone bodies
Amino acids

The space ____ is referred to as a potential space.

Options
Between the parietal and visceral pleurae
Between the parietal pleura and intercostal muscles
Between the visceral pleura and lung
Within the alveoli

Which statement about the adipostat regulatory centers regulatory system, is false?

Options
It is responsible for increasing the size of adipose tissue depots when we overeat.
It maintains body weight homeostasis by means of negative feedback mechanisms.
It acts to "defend" a particular body weight, or the amount of adipose tissue.
It influences hunger and metabolism through the action of hormones.

Adipocytes secrete many molecules (cytokines), including _____, whose increased production in
the overweight may contribute to the insulin resistance seen in obese people.

Options
Leptin
Tumor necrosis factor-alpha (TNFα)
Cholecystokinin (CCK)
Neuropeptide Y

____ states that the pressure of a given quantity of gas is inversely proportional to its volume

Options
LaPlace's law
Dalton's law
Henry's law
Boyle's law

Insulin resistance would best be observed in people who

Options
Have very little body fat due to starvation or eating disorders.
Have very large skeletal muscle development, such as athletes and body builders.
Have type II diabetes mellitus secondary to obesity.
Were born with the homozygous ob/ob genotype.

The tendency of the lungs to get smaller when the stretching force ceases, is called their

Options
Resilience
Compliance
Capacitance
Elasticity

In the diagnosis of obesity, the body mass index (BMI) is often calculated. This measurement
requires the individual's weight in kilograms and the individual's

Options
Height in meters
Body surface area in square centimeters
Head circumference in centimeters
Waist-to-hip ratio

According to ____, if it were not for pulmonary surfactants, we should expect the surface tension
in a small alveolus to produce greater pressure than in a larger one, and air would flow from the
smaller alveolus into the larger one.

Options
Henry's law
Dalton's law
LaPlace's law
Boyle's law

The hormone, _____ is secreted by the delta cells of the islet of Langerhans and is identical to that
produced by the hypothalamus and the intestine

Options
Insulin
Glucagon
Somatostatin
All of the above

Lung surfactant is produced by

Options
Type I alveolar cells
Type II alveolar cells
Filtration from the alveolar capillaries
Alveolar macrophages
When a skeletal muscle contracts, it usually moves the bone at one end much more than the bone
at its other end. The attachment of the muscle to the more movable bone is called its

Options
Ligament
Insertion
Flexor
Origin

Which statement about the regulation of insulin and glucagon secretion from the islets of
Langerhans is false?

Options
Alpha and beta cells respond to changes in both the glucose and the amino acid concentrations
in the plasma.
Hormone level homeostasis is regulated by negative feedback loops.
Alpha and beta cells act as both the sensors and the effectors in this control system.
After a meal, the rise in plasma glucose levels stimulates the release of glucagon.

Flexor and extensor muscles make up pairs, that together are called

Options
Antagonistic
Agonistic
Complementary
None of these

The amount of air left in the lungs after a forceful expiration is called the

Options
Residual volume
Vital capacity
Tidal volume
Expiratory reserve volume

The right and left cerebral hemispheres are connected to each other mainly by a bundle of nerve
fibers called the ____.

Options
Thalamus
Insula
Corpus cavernosum
Corpus callosum

Insulin promotes all of these effects except the

Options
Cellular uptake of plasma glucose and amino acids.
Synthesis of glycogen (glycogenesis) in the liver and muscles.
Synthesis of triglycerides (fat) in adipose cells and cellular uptake of plasma fatty acids.
 Hydrolysis of liver glycogen and activation of glucose 6-phosphatase, releasing free glucose
molecules into the blood.

During normal, relaxed respiration, about 500 cc of air enters and leaves the lungs with each
respiratory cycle. This is called the

Options
Inspiratory reserve volume
Vital capacity
Total lung capacity
Tidal volume

Suppose you are sitting in the middle of a sofa and you raise both your arms to rest them
stretched out along the back of the sofa. This action of the arms is known as

Options
Extension
Abduction
Adduction
Flexion

A restrictive lung disorder is most likely to reduce the

Options
Vital capacity
Forced expiratory volume
Residual volume
Functional residual capacity

The enzyme called hormone-sensitive lipase

Options
Is found only in liver cells
Is sensitive to and activated by the hormone, insulin
Promotes the hydrolysis of stored triglycerides, releasing free fatty acids and glycerol
Converts triglycerides into ketone bodies as an alternative energy source

The fibrous connective tissue sheath which encloses a whole muscle is called the

Options
Endomysium
Perimysium
Epimysium
Sarcolemma

Destruction of pulmonary tissue by protein-digesting enzymes released by alveolar macrophages

in people who smoke, for example, is a cause of

Options
Asthma
 Emphysema
Pulmonary fibrosis
Pneumothorax

Within a muscle the fibers are divided into larger bundles called ____, each surrounded by its own
connective tissue sheath.

Options
Sarcomeres
Sarcolemmas
Myofibers
Fascicles

Type II diabetes mellitus is characterized by

Options
Destruction of the beta cells by an autoimmune attack or by viruses, for example.
The absence of the hormone insulin in the plasma.
Its occurrence in people over 40, representing 90% of the people with diabetes mellitus.
Its diagnosis in people under the age of thirty; consequently once called juvenile-onset
diabetes.

Obstruction of circulation through the lungs can put a strain on the right ventricle, which must
work to pump blood against this increased resistance, and can lead to failure of that chamber.
This syndrome is known as

Options
Anthracosis
Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease
Asthma
Cor pulmonale

The pressure of dry atmospheric gas is primarily determined by all the following gases, except
____, which makes a comparatively negligible contribution.

Options
Nitrogen
Hydrogen
Oxygen
Carbon dioxide

The term ____ is synonymous with muscle cell.

Options
Myofiber
Sarcomere
Myofibril
Fascicle

Skeletal muscle cells are unusual in that they

Options
Lack smooth endoplasmic reticulum
Have no mitochondria
Have multiple nuclei
Depend entirely on anaerobic respiration

Fibrotic deterioration of the retina leading to blindness can occur as a result of

Options
Nitrogen narcosis
Decompression sickness
Hyperbaric oxygen therapy
Carbon dioxide accumulation

Four lobes of the cerebrum can be seen from the surface, but a fifth lobe called the ____ lies deep
to these and cannot be seen without probing or dissecting the brain.

Options
Insula
Occipital lobe
Parietal lobe
Temporal lobe

The rhythmicity center, a sort of pacemaker that sets the rhythm of automatic breathing, is
located in the

Options
Pleurae
Lungs
Medulla oblongata
Diaphragm

Skeletal muscle cells are striated that is, they have alternating dark and light bands called ____,
respectively.

Options
A and I bands
H and M bands
Z and M lines
I and H bands

Impulses from the cochlea of the ear are transmitted to what part of the brain?

Options
The hippocampus
The occipital lobe
The temporal lobe
The postcentral gyrus

Reactive hypoglycemia is a condition characterized by

Options
Inadequate insulin secretion from the beta cells.
Genetic predisposition to type I diabetes (IDDM).
An exaggerated response of the beta cells to a rise in blood glucose levels, especially in
potential type II (NIDDM) individuals.
The lack of response by the target cells to either diet or exercise treatments.

The I bands of skeletal muscle fibers each have a dark line in the middle called a

Options
D line
H line
Z line
X line

Bicarbonate ion (HCO3-) and hydrogen (H+) ions result from a reaction of ____ with water.

Options
Oxygen
Hydrogen
Carbon dioxide
Carbon monoxide

Which statement about the hormone, thyroxine is false?

Options
It is also called tetraiodothyronine, or T4.
It is released from the thyroid follicles when stimulated by the hormone, ACTH.
It has target cells in almost all organs of the body.
It is a prehormone that must first be converted to T3 within the target cells to be active.

If a person's PCO2 remains chronically high, as in emphysema, the peripheral chemoreceptors

become insensitive to hypercapnia and pulmonary ventilation becomes stimulated by ____ rather
than by increases in blood PCO2.

Options
Hypocapnia
Acidosis
Hypoxic drive
The Hering-Breuer reflex

Oxygen binds to the ____ of deoxyhemoglobin

Options
Alpha chains
Beta chains
Globin portion
Heme groups
At rest, about ____ of the oxyhemoglobin in the arterial blood dissociates (unloads its oxygen) in
one pass through the systemic capillaries

Options
10-12 %
20-25 %
50-60 %
85-97 %

Your attempt to answer this question will most likely cause increased ____ activity in your
cerebrum.

Options
Alpha wave
Beta wave
Theta wave
Delta wave

When there is less oxyhemoglobin in the blood, red blood cells produce 2,3-DPG. This metabolic
product

Options
Enhances oxygen unloading at the systemic capillaries
Makes deoxyhemoglobin less stable
Shifts the oxyhemoglobin dissociation curve to the left
Stimulates the production of more red blood cells

Decussation (crossing over) of nerve fibers is responsible for the fact that ____

Options
Somatesthetic sensations from the right side of the body are received by the left cerebral
cortex
Left-handed people recover from damage to the language areas of the brain faster than right-
handed people
The right cerebral hemisphere is better than the left at geometric puzzles, recognizing faces,
and composing music
Leonardo da Vinci, Michelangelo, and the author of your text (S. Fox), were left-handed

Cretinism, is a condition that

Options
Is due to an overactive thyroid (hyperthyroidism).
Results in severe mental retardation.
Results from a lack of growth hormone.
Results in excessive growth.

Myoglobin differs from adult hemoglobin (A) in which of the following ways?

Options
Glutamic acid is replaced by valine in the beta chain
 The two beta chains are replaced by gamma chains
It has two heme groups instead of four
It consists of only a single globin chain and heme group

Fear appears to be processed by what part of the brain?

Options
The frontal lobes
The angular gyrus
The thalamus
The limbic system

Which statement about growth hormone (GH) is false?

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Its secretion increases after a high protein meal, during which amino acids are absorbed.
Its secretion falls during prolonged fasting or starving.
It secretion is increased when plasma glucose levels are low.
It stimulates the catabolism of fat and release of fatty acids from adipose tissue.

When HCO3- diffuses out of the red blood cells into the plasma in systemic capillaries, ____
diffuses into the RBCs to replace it.

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Hydrogen ion (H+)
Hydroxyl ion (OH-
Chloride ion (Cl-)
CO2

The largest part of the diencephalon is the____.

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Cerebellum
Thalamus
Epithalamus
Hypothalamus

Which statement about bone is false?

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Bone serves as a large store of minerals, namely calcium and carbonate.
Calcium is stored in the form of hydroxyapatite crystals in bone.
Osteoblasts are bone-forming cells that secrete an organic matrix of collagen protein that
becomes hardened by deposits of hydroxyapatite.
Osteoclast cells routinely dissolve hydroxyapatite crystals in a process called resorption.

Which bone disorder is due to excessive secretion of parathyroid hormone (PTH) that result in the
stimulation of bone osteoclast activity?

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 Rickets
Osteomalacia
Osteoporosis
Osteitis fibrosa cystica with hypercalcemia

"Centers" for hunger, thirst, fear, sexual arousal, and pleasure are found in the ____.

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Precentral gyrus
Thalamus
Hypothalamus
Medulla oblongata

The synthesis of 1,25-dihydroxyvitamin D3

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Follows a diurnal cycle and is greatest during sleep.
Requires an hydroxylation reaction using an enzyme made in the skin epithelial cells.
Requires an hydroxylation reaction using an enzyme made in the kidneys.
Is inhibited by parathyroid hormone (PTH).

The mesencephalon contains all of the following except the

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Corpora quadrigemina
Cerebral peduncles
Basal nuclei
Red nucleus

Damage to the cerebellum, the second largest structure of the brain, causes

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Hyperphagia
Coma
Aphasia
Ataxia

Which statement about calcitonin is false?

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Calcitonin is secreted by the parafollicular cells, or C cells, of the thyroid gland.
Calcitonin acts to lower blood Ca2+ levels by inhibiting the activity of osteoclasts, thus
reducing bone resorption.
Calcitonin inhibits the reabsorption of calcium and phosphate in the kidneys, thus increasing
the urinary excretion of these minerals.
Calcitonin's action is clearly synergistic to that of parathyroid hormone and is therefore
required to maintain calcium homeostasis in the body.

The pyramids of the medulla oblongata are the sites of

Options
Origin of cranial nerves IX-XII
Decussation of nerve tracts
Respiratory, cardiac, and vasomotor control
None of the above is correct

The vagus nerve (cranial nerve X) carries parasympathetic nerve stimulation to most of the
thoracic and abdominal viscera, and originates in the ____.

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Red nucleus of the midbrain
Epithalamus
Pons
Medulla oblongata

The reticular formation extends through the ____, among other regions of the CNS.

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Medulla, pons, midbrain, thalamus, and hypothalamus
Anterior and lateral spinothalamic tracts
Cerebellum and limbic system
Basal nuclei

All of the following spinal tracts are ascending, transmitting information up to the brain, except
the ____, which is a descending tract.

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Lateral spinothalamic tract
Fasciculus cuneatus
Corticospinal tract
Corticothalamic tract

Most nerve fibers of the pyramidal tracts of the spinal cord originate in the ____

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Precentral gyrus
Thalamus
Midpyramids of the medulla oblongatabrain
Pyramids of the medulla oblongata

In an adult, the Babinski reflex is an indication that ____

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The spinal reflex arcs are functioning normally
There is damage to the corticospinal tracts
There is damage to the extrapyramidal tracts
Midbrain functions are normal

Which of the following activities is not regulated by the kidneys?

Options
Regulating the volume of blood plasma and thus blood pressure in the body
Regulating the concentrations of certain electrolytes and waste products in the blood
Regulating the absorption of substances from the gastrointestinal tract
Regulating the acid-base balance (pH) of the blood plasma

Most cranial nerves are classified as ____ nerves.

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Sensory
Motor
Mixed
Autonomic

Kidney stones are primarily composed of

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Cholesterol and esters of other steroid compounds
Crystals and proteins that grow in the renal medulla
Heavy metals that precipitate in the urinary filtrate
Salts of weak acids that serve as buffers in the nephron

The name of the blood vessel delivering blood directly to the glomerulus is the

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Renal artery
Interlobar artery
Arcuate artery
Afferent arteriole

The name of the blood vessels that are found in the medulla as part of the vasa recta are the

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Peritubular capillaries
Afferent arterioles
Arcuate arteries
Efferent arterioles

The net filtration pressure at the glomerulus that results in the formation of ultrafiltrate is

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About equal to arterial blood pressure at 100 mmHg
Partially due to the very low colloid osmotic pressure of plasma
Opposed by the high osmotic pressure of ultrafiltrate
Estimated to be approximately 10 mmHg

The return of filtered molecules from the nephron tubules back into the blood is called

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Filtration
 Reabsorption
Secretion
Excretion

Spinal reflexes are muscle responses that can occur without the participation of any of the
following except ____, which is/are indispensable.

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Consciousness
None
Sensory receptors
The brain

Which of these statements about the proximal tubule is false?

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Sixty-five percent of the original glomerular ultrafiltrate is reabsorbed here and returned to
the blood.
Reabsorption in this portion of the nephron is not regulated by hormones.
Although ATP is consumed, the overall energy expenditure here is minimal.
The tubular fluid entering the loop of Henle remains isosmotic with blood at about 300 mOsm.

Which event does not occur in the descending limb of the loop of Henle?

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Deeper regions of the medulla, closer to the pelvis, reach very high salt concentrations
Water easily diffuses by osmosis out of the tubular filtrate and into the medulla
NaCl is removed from the filtrate both by active transport and by passive diffusion
At the tip of the loop, the tubular filtrate concentration is increased and its volume is
decreased

When the concentration of antidiuretic hormone (ADH) rises in the blood

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The walls of the collecting ducts become less permeable to dissolved solutes and water.
Water channels, or aquaporins, appear in the cell membranes of the collecting duct epithelial
cells promoting the reabsorption of water from the filtrate.
The ultrafiltrate flowing through the collecting duct becomes more hypotonic.
A greater volume of dilute urine is excreted.

The disease diabetes insipidus

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Is associated with the inadequate secretion or action of antidiuretic hormone (ADH).
Results from overeating and hypersecretion of hormones by the pancreas
Is characterized by an abnormal increase in glucose concentrations in the blood and urine.
Can be cured by injections of the hormone, insulin.

Which substance is filtered and then completely (100%) reabsorbed by the nephron?
Options
Protein
Inulin
Urea
Glucose

Which substance is filtered, reabsorbed, and secreted by different regions of the nephron tubules?

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Potassium ion (K+)
Inulin
Urea
Glucose

The concentrations of which plasma electrolyte is not regulated mainly by the kidneys?

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Phosphate
Potassium
Iron
Bicarbonate

Which of the following is not an effector (target organ) of impulses generated by motor neurons of
the autonomic nervous system (ANS)?

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Cardiac muscle
Exocrine glands
Skeletal muscle
Endocrine glands

Which statement about the juxtaglomerular apparatus (JGA) of the kidney is false?

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It is a location in each nephron where the afferent arteriole and the distal convoluted tubule
contact each other.
The role of the macula densa region of the distal tubule is to secrete the enzyme renin.
The granular cells within the afferent arteriole are sensitive to renal blood flow (perhaps
acting as baroreceptors).
High Na+ concentrations in the filtrate can inhibit the secretion of renin.

Somatic motor neurons have cell bodies located ____ the CNS that project axons only to ____; and
are usually under ____ control.

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Outside; skeletal muscle; involuntary
Inside; the viscera; voluntary
Inside; the viscera; involuntary
Inside; skeletal muscle; voluntary
Which statement about the role of the kidneys the regulation of normal blood pH is false?

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The kidneys excrete bicarbonate ion and reabsorb hydrogen ion.
Hydrogen ion (H+) enters the filtrate in two ways: by glomerular filtration and by secretion
into the nephron tubule.
Most of the hydrogen ion secretion occurs across the wall of the proximal tubule in exchange
for the reabsorption of sodium ion.
Buffers like bicarbonate ion can bind and release free H+ and thus can stabilize pH.

The two organs most responsible for acid-base balance are the

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Heart and kidneys
Liver and lungs
Kidneys and lungs
Lungs and heart

Which of the following statements does not describe denervation hypersensitivity?

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Autonomic target tissues become more sensitive than normal to stimulating agents
Skeletal muscle effectors enter a state of flaccid paralysis and atrophy
Can result from severing (cutting) autonomic motor neurons
An example is restoring the secretion of acid from the stomach following vagotomy (severing
the vagus nerve)

Which statement regarding autonomic sympathetic neurons is false?

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They are usually activated as a single unit (mass activation).
They emerge from the brain and sacral regions.
They form white rami communicantes fibers.
They may have ganglia located along the spinal cord.

The most powerful diuretics, inhibiting salt and water reabsorption by as much as 25%, are the

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Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors
Loop diuretics
Thiazides
Potassium-sparing diuretics

Which of the following ganglia is not a collateral (prevertebral) ganglion?

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Celiac
Superior mesenteric
Inferior mesenteric
Cervica
The major kidney function that cannot be performed by artificial dialysis membranes is t0

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Separate molecules on the basis of size
Prevent the diffusion of plasma proteins
Reabsorb Na+, K+, glucose, and other molecules
Allow the free movement of water (solvent)

Which system is not served by postganglionic fibers that arise from the collateral (prevertebral)
ganglia?

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Respiratory
Digestive
Urinary
Reproductive

Examining the structure of the kidney reveals that the

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Medulla is in contact with the outer capsule
Medulla is divided into eight to fifteen conical renal pyramids
Cortex drains into the minor calyces
Urethra transports urine to the urinary bladder

Which of the following statements about parasympathetic neurons is false?

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Like sympathetics, they travel within spinal nerves.
They synapse in terminal ganglia, either next to or within the organs innervated.
They originate in the brain or sacral spinal cord regions (the craniosacral division).
Postganglionic fibers are usually shorter than those of sympathetic neurons.

Which statement about the process of micturition is false?

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It is controlled by a reflex center located in the sacral levels of the spinal cord.
Stretch receptors in the bladder initiate this reflex when stretched by filling with urine.
Firing of the reflex centers, results in simultaneous contraction of the detrusor muscle and
relaxation of the external urethral sphincter, pressuring urine into the urethra
The urge to urinate is a reflex involving the stimulation of specific autonomic nerves

Which of the following cranial nerves does not contain preganglionic parasympathetic fibers?

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Oculomotor (III)
Facial (VII)
Optic (II)
Glossopharyngeal (IX)
That portion of the nephron consisting of a single layer of cuboidal cells with microvilli to
increase the surface area for reabsorption is the

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Glomerular capsule
Proximal convoluted tubule
Loop of Henle
Distal convoluted tubule

Which substance is easily filtered by the glomerulus and thus is normally found in the
ultrafiltrate?

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Red and white blood cells
Platelets
Proteins
Electrolytes

The very long, "vagrant," or "wandering," cranial nerve that originates from nuclei in the medulla
oblongata and projects preganglionic fibers through the neck to the thoracic and abdominal
cavities, is the _____ nerve.

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Optic (II)
Oculomotor (III)
Facial (VII)
Vagus (X)

Which statement about the glomerular filtration rate (GFR) is false?

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The GFR averages approximately 180 L per day (about 45 gallons
The GFR will increase during fight-or-flight situations due to the vasodilation of afferent
arterioles.
A decrease in GFR results in a decrease in the total urine output.
Renal autoregulation maintains the GFR at a relatively constant rate despite fluctuations in the
mean arterial blood pressure.

Which neuron does not release the neurotransmitter, acetylcholine (ACh)?

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Preganglionic sympathetic fibers
Postganglionic sympathetic fibers
Preganglionic parasympathetic fibers
Postganglionic parasympathetic fibers

Catecholamines, which are derived from the amino acid, tyrosine, and are considered to serve as
both hormones and neurotransmitters, include all of the following except

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 Acetylcholine (ACh)
Epinephrine
Norepinephrine
Norepinephrine

Which of the following is not a β-adrenergic response?

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Inhibition (relaxation) of the digestive tract muscular motility, such as peristalsis
Opening (dilation) of the airways or bronchioles in the lung
Increasing the force and rate of the heart beat
Dilating the smooth muscle of blood vessels in the skin and intestinal area

The drug muscarine, derived from some poisonous mushrooms stimulates all of the following
cholinergic receptors, except those receptors in the

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Heart.
Neuromuscular junction of skeletal muscle fibers.
Digestive system.
Most target organs of postganglionic parasympathetic nerve fibers.

The drug that should aid the suffering of asthmatics by serving as a selective β2 agonist, resulting
in dilation of the airways in the lung, is

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Terbutaline
Atenolol
Phenylephrine
Clonidine

Which statement about muscarinic receptors is false?

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They are not found in the autonomic ganglia or at the neuromuscular junctions of skeletal
muscle fibers.
They are stimulated by extracts from certain poisonous mushrooms.
They are subtypes of adrenergic receptors.
They are not affected by the drug, curare, which specifically blocks nicotinic receptors.

All of the following molecules are considered "nonadrenergic noncholinergic" neurotransmitters

produced by postganglionic autonomic axons, except?

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Adenosine triphosphate (ATP)
Acetylcholine (ACh)
Vasoactive intestinal peptide (VIP)
Nitric oxide (NO)

When the contractile behavior of a muscle is studied in vitro, this means the studies were done
Options
With the muscle removed from the body
With the muscle in place in the body
Under the microscope to observe the fibers better
With artificial stimulation of the muscle

The separate effects of sympathetic and parasympathetic innervation of the pacemaker region of
the heart can best be described as

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Antagonistic
Complementary
Cooperative
All of the above

A muscle is stimulated and exhibits a contraction (twitch). Before this twitch is over, it is
stimulated again, and a second twitch occurs "piggyback" on the first one and causes a higher
contraction strength. This phenomenon is called

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Tetanus
Graded contraction
Summation
Isometric contraction

The effects of sympathetic and parasympathetic innervation on the urinary and reproductive
systems, causing the male erection and ejaculation for example, are called

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Antagonistic
Complementary
Cooperative
None of the above

When a muscle is stimulated at such high frequency there is no visible relaxation between
stimuli, the muscle is said to be in a state of

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Treppe
Complete tetanus
Isotonic contraction
Summation

The effects of sympathetic and parasympathetic stimulation of the salivary glands, producing a
thicker, more viscous saliva, are called

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Antagonistic
Complementary
Cooperative
 None of the above

If enough muscle fibers contract to make the muscle as a whole shorten in length, the muscle is
said to exhibit

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Complete tetanus
Graded contraction
Isometric contraction
Isotonic contraction

Which of the following target tissues is innervated by neurons from both the sympathetic and
parasympathetic nervous system?

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Adrenal medulla
Arrector pili muscle
Flexor digitorum superficialis muscle
Pupil of the eye

The series elastic component of muscle action refers to the

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Necessity of numerous myofibers to contract if the muscle is to shorten
Connection between electrical excitation of a myofiber and its contraction
Sliding filament interaction between thick and thin filaments
Ability of tendons to stretch and absorb some of the force of contraction

A motor unit is

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The motor end plate where a nerve fiber synapses with a muscle fiber
One motor neuron and all muscle fibers to which it leads
A spinal reflex arc
A sarcomere

The brain area that most directly controls the activity of the autonomic nervous system, is the

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Medulla oblongata
Pituitary gland
Cerebellum
Hypothalamus

The contraction strength of a whole muscle varies in accordance with the

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Number of motor units activated
Innervation ratio
Amount of calcium released from the sarcoplasmic reticulum
 Amplitude of the arriving action potentials

Which system is not controlled by an autonomic nerve center in the medulla oblongata?

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Cardiovascular
Respiratory
Immune
Digestive

A muscle contracts because its

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Protein molecules get shorter
Thick filaments get shorter
Thin filaments slide between the thick filaments
Tendons pull on it from opposite ends

The thick filaments of a myofibril account for the

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Narrow dark line known as the Z line
Dark color of the I bands
Light color of the I bands
Dark color of the A bands

The thick filaments of muscle are composed of

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Tropomyosin
Actin
Troponin
Myosin

The basic unit of muscle contraction is the sarcomere, which is

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One A band and the adjacent I band.
The distance from one Z line to the next.
Equivalent to a fascicle of muscle fibers.
Equivalent to one of the myofibrils within a muscle fiber.

Which of the following does not shorten when a muscle fiber contracts?

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Actin filaments
I bands
Sarcomeres
Myofibrils
Where are the "cross bridges" of a muscle fiber located?

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In close association with the T tubules
Midway between one A band and the next
In the neuromuscular cleft
On one end of the thick filaments

Which of the following is not a broad area of function within the circulatory system?

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Neurochemical release
Transportation
Regulation
Protection

Which substances involved in cellular metabolism are not normally transported by the
circulatory system?

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Respiratory gas molecules, such as oxygen and carbon dioxide
Absorbed products of digestion
Krebs cycle enzymes
Metabolic wastes, water and ions

How many liters of blood does the adult heart pump each minute at rest?

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Three
Five
Seven
Nine

The thinnest and most numerous of all blood vessels are the

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Arteries
Arterioles
Capillaries
Veins

The specific blood vessels that receive lymph after it has drained from throughout the body and is
about to rejoin blood are the _____

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Arteries
Arterioles
Capillaries
Veins
The "buffy coat" that forms when whole blood is centrifuged in a test tube, is composed of

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Red blood cells
White blood cells
Platelets
White blood cells and platelets

A normal hematocrit value of 45 means that

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45% of the formed elements are erythrocytes
There are 45 million formed elements per ml of whole blood
45% of the total blood volume is formed elements
45 ml of plasma are tested by centrifugation

The major solute, dissolved in the plasma portion of the blood as well as the extracellular fluid
(ECF), and is found in the highest concentration in both locations, is _____.

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Glucose
Na+
K+
Albumin

Which of the following proteins is not considered a major plasma protein?

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Globulin
Insulin
Albumin
Fibrinogen

Which statement about erythrocytes, or (RBCs), is false?

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They lack both a nucleus and mitochondria organelles.
They outnumber leukocytes by a large margin.
They require dietary iron and vitamin B12 for normal production.
Their circulating life span is about twelve months.

Pernicious anemia results in an abnormally low red blood cell count, due to

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Lack of iron content or iron absorption from the diet
Destruction of the bone marrow, perhaps by chemicals in the environment or chemotherapy
Insufficient protein in the diet in those individual suffering from malnutrition
Inadequate vitamin B12 absorption from the diet because the intrinsic factor is absent

Which of the following does not belong to the class of granular leukocytes?
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Neutrophil
Basophil
Lymphocyte
Eosinophil

Which statement about platelets is false?

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They have a life span of about 120 days.
They are the smallest of the formed elements, derived originally from megakaryocytes.
During blood clotting, they release a chemical, called serotonin, that constricts blood vessels in
the injured area.
Phospholipids in their membranes activate the clotting factors in the plasma.

In general, which of the following cells has the shortest life span?

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Erythrocytes
Platelets
Agranular leukocytes
Granular leukocytes

Which of the following cells is present in the blood in greatest numbers?

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Erythrocytes
Platelets
Agranular leukocytes
Granular leukocytes

Which of the following leukocytes is the rarest, with counts less than 1% of white cells present?

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Neutrophils
Eosinophils
Basophils
Lymphocytes

In the ABO system of red blood cell typing, which of the following genotypes is not possible?

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Iiii
IAi
IBi
IAIB

A person whose blood genotype is IBi has red blood cells with ____ antigens bound to the outer
membrane surface and anti-____ antibodies floating in the plasma.
Options
B; B
B; A
A; A
A; B

Which statement about erythroblastosis fetalis (hemolytic disease of the newborn) is false?

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The baby is Rh positive and the mother is Rh negative.
The mother's immune system has made antibodies against the Rh factor present on the red
blood cells of the previous baby.
The baby is born with an abnormally high number of red blood cells (anemia).
The Rh negative mother should have been given RhoGAM (antibodies) by injection.

Which of the following events does not occur during the process of hemostasis (to stop bleeding)
after a blood vessel becomes injured?

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The endothelial lining is damaged, exposing collagen proteins to the blood.
The injured blood vessel is dilated by newly released chemicals to let in defense cells.
Platelets become "sticky" and a platelet plug is formed near the injury site.
A web of fibrin protein strands tightly interweave the platelet plug.

The endothelial cells of the blood vessel produce two important chemicals involved in hemostasis
- prostacyclin and ____.

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Serotonin
Von Willebrand factor
ADP
Thromboxane A2

The most important ion involved in the blood clotting sequences is

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Na+
Ca2+
K+
H+