केन्द्रीय विद्यालय संगठन/KENDRIYA VIDYALAYA SANGATHAN

है दराबाद संभाग /HYDERABAD REGION

QUESTION BANK OF MULTIPLE-CHOICE QUESTIONS 2021-22

CLASS -XII SUBJECT - CHEMISTRY
CHIEF PATRON
SRI K. SASEENDRAN, DEPUTY COMMISSIONER
PATRON
DR (SMT) V. GOWRI, ASSISTANT COMMISSIONER
COORDINATORS
1. SMT KRISHNA KARMAKAR-KV MALKAPURAM
2. Y.SURENDER VICE PRINCIPAL-KV PICKET
PREPARED & VETTED BY SUBJECT TEACHERS
1. MR. P HEMACHANDER,PICKET- ALCOHOLS PHENOLS AND ETHERS HALOALKANES AND
HALOARENES
2. MRS.B.KOTESWARI- P BLOCK,BIOMOLECULES
3. MRS.V.ROOPA,HAKIMPET -SOLID STATE
4. MR SREEDHAR- PGT CHEMISTRY-N0-2 NAUSENABAGH (SOLUTIONS)
5. MR MADHUSUDHAN RAO -PGT CHEMISTRY, KV GOLCONDA -2(SOLUTIONS)
6. MR HARIKITHAN.P -PGT CHEMISTRY- KV BOLARAM (SOLIDSTATE)
7. MR SHOBHAN BABU- PGT CHEMISTRY-(SOLID STATE)
8. MR ANJANEYULU- PGT CHEMISTRY-(HALOALKANES AND HALOARENES)
9. MR DLN MURTHY -PGT CHEMISTRY-(P-BLOCK ELEMENTS)
10. MR VICTOR EMMANEUL- PGT CHEMISTRY-(BIOMOLECULES)
11. MRS LAXMI PAPPAI -PGT CHEMISTRY, KV NSB-1(P- BLOCK ELEMENTS)
12. MR NAVEEN-PGT CHEMISTRY-(HALOALKANES AND HALOARENES)
13. MR VENKATESH –PGT-CHEMISTRY, KV STEEL PLANT (ALCOHOLS, PHENOLS,AND ETHERS)

KENDRIYA VIDYALAYA SANGATHAN HYDERABAD REGION

Questions based on assessment introduced by the CBSE.
CLASS: XII SUBJECT: CHEMISTRY
LESSON:1. SOLID STATE(1)

1. Case based Questions: Ans

Passage I wer
Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow: s
At absolute zero crystals tend to have perfectly ordered arrangement. As the
temperature increases crystals start to deviating perfectly ordered
arrangement. Point defects are the deviations from the ideal arrangement.
Point defects may be classified into three types.
i) stoichiometric defects ii)
ii) impurity defects and
iii) non stoichiometric defects.
1) Cations are present in the interstitial sites in
i) schottky defect
ii) Frenkel defect
iii) Metal deficiency defect
iv) Vacancy defect

2. 2) schottky defect is observed in crystals when ii)

i) some cations move from their lattice site to interstitial sites
ii) equal number of cations and anions are missing from the lattice
iii) some lattice sites are occupied by electrons
iv) some impurity is present in the lattice

3. 3) Which of the point defects are shown by AgBr crystals? i)

a) schottky defect
b) Frenkel defect
c) Metal deficiency defect
d) Metal excess defect
i) a) and b)
ii) c) and d)
iii) a) and c)
iv) b) and d)

4. 4) Alkali metal halide on heating with same alkali metal vapors imparts iv)
particular color to the crystal. What kind of defect is it?
i) Due to impurity defect
ii) Metal excess defect due to interstitial cation
iii) Metal deficiency defect
iv) Metal excess defect due to anionic vacancies
 Passage II ii)
Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow:
In solids, the constituent particles are close packed, leaving the minimum
vacant space, considering the constituent particles as identical hard spheres
and build up the three dimensional structure in three steps.
a) close packing one-dimension
b) close packing in two-dimension
c) close packing in three dimension.
Two types of voids namely tetrahedral voids and octahedral voids involved in
close packed structures.
1) What is the coordination number in a square close packed structure in two
dimensions?
i) 3
1. ii) 4
iii) 6
iv) 2

2. 2) The correct order of packing efficiency in different types of unit cells is iii)
i) bcc < fcc > simple cubic
ii) fcc < bcc <simple cubic
iii) fcc > bcc > simple cubic
iv) fcc < bcc > simple cubic

3. 3) The total number of tetrahedral voids in the face centered unit cell is iii)
i) 12
ii) 6
iii) 8
iv) 10

4. 4) The percentage of empty space in a face centered cubic arrangement is iv)

i) 74
ii) 68
iii) 32
iv) 26
 Passage III iv)
Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow:

Crystalline solids can be classified in different types on the basis of nature of

intermolecular forces or bonds that hold the constituent particles together.
These are Vander Waals forces, ionic bonds, covalent bonds and metallic
bonds. on this basis Crystalline solids further classified in to molecular, ionic,
metallic and covalent solids. Crystalline solids are anisotropic in nature
whereas amorphous solids are isotropic in nature.

1) Which of the following is not a characteristic of a Crystalline solids?

i) A regular periodically repeated pattern of arrangement of constituent in the
crystal lattice
ii) Definite and characteristic heat of fusion
1. iii) properties of crystalline solids like electrical resistance or refractive index
show different values when measured along different directions
iv) properties of crystalline solids like electrical conductivity or refractive index
show same values when measured in all directions

2. 2) CCl4 molecules are held in the crystal lattice by ii)

i) dipole- dipole interactions
ii) dispersion forces
iii) columbic forces
iv) dipole –induced dipole interactions

3. 3) Which of the following is a network solid? iii)

i) H2 O (ice)
ii) SO2 (solid)
iii) diamond
iv) I2

4. 4) The lattice site in a pure crystal cannot be occupied by iv)

i) ion
ii) electron
iii) molecule
iv) atom
 Assertion and Reason Questions: a)

In the following questions a statement of Assertion (A) followed by a

statement of Reason (R) is given. Choose the correct answer out of the
following choices.
Assertion and Reason both are correct statements and Reason is correct
explanation for Assertion.
Assertion and Reason both are correct statements but Reason is not correct
explanation for Assertion.
Assertion is correct statement but Reason is wrong statement.
Assertion is wrong statement but Reason is correct statement.

1) Assertion (A): Tetrahedral void is bigger than octahedral void.

Reason (R): Octahedral void refers to six touching spheres, whereas
tetrahedral void refers to four touching spheres.
1.

2. 2) Assertion (A): Packing efficiency is maximum in face centered cubic a)

structure.
Reason (R): In fcc structure, each sphere is in contact with twelve spheres.

3. 3) Assertion (A): The total number of atoms present in a simple cubic unit cell a)
is one.
Reason (R): Simple cubic unit cell has atoms at its corners, each of which
is shared between eight adjacent unit cells.

4. 4) Assertion (A): Graphite is a good conductor of electricity, however diamond b)

belongs to the category of insulators
Reason (R): Graphite is soft nature on the other hand diamond is very hard.

5. 5) Assertion (A): Crystalline solids exhibit isotropy. d)

Reason (R): The constituent particles in a crystalline solid are arranged in
an orderly arrangement

6. 6) Assertion (A:) The density of a crystalline substance remains the same. c)

Reason (R): Due to schottky defect.

7. 7) Assertion (A): AgCl shows Frenkel defect. a)

Reason (R): The substance in which there is a large difference in the size
of ions.

8. 8) Assertion (A): Due to frenkel defect there is no effect on the density of the a)
crystalline solid
Reason (R:) In frenkel defect no cation and anion leaves the crystal lattice

9. 9. Assertion: Metal deficiency defect can be seen in FeO. c)

 Reason: Li compound (LiCl) has pink colour due to F- centre.
Ans: (b)
10. 10. Assertion: The number of tetrahedral voids is double the number c)
of octahedral voids.
Reason: The size of tetrahedral voids is half that of the
octahedral void.
Ans: (c)
 LESSON:1. SOLID STATE(2) a)
SAMPLE QUESTIONS ON ASSERTION AND REASON
TYPE:
Note: In the following questions of Solid State a
statement of assertion followed by a statement of
reason is given. Choose the correct answer out of the
following choices.
(a) Both assertion and reason are true and the reason is the
correct explanation of assertion.
(b) Both assertion and reason are true but the reason is not
the correct explanation of assertion.
(c) Assertion is true but reason is false.
(d) Assertion is false but reason is true.

1.Assertion : The total number of atoms present in a face

centered cubic unit cell is four.
Reason : Face centered cubic unit cell has atoms at its
corners, each of which is shared between eight adjacent unit
cells and atom at the center of the six faces.
Ans: (a)
1.

2. 2.Assertion : Total number of octahedral voids present in unit c)

cell of cubic
close packing including the one that is present at the body
center is four.
Reason : Besides the body center there is one octahedral
void present at the center of each of the six faces of the unit
cell and each of which is shared between two adjacent unit
cells.
Ans: (c)

3. 3. Assertion: Group-13 doped crystals of silicon are a)

responsible for the semi-conducting properties.
Reason: Holes (positive in charge) are responsible for
the semi-conducting properties.
Ans: (a)

4. 4. Assertion : Due to the Frenkel defect the density of the a)

crystalline solid remains same.
Reason: In Frenkel defect, no cations or anions leave
the lattice
Ans: (a)

5. 5. Assertion: In an ionic solid [MX] with Schottky defects, the a)

number of missing positive and negative ions is the same.
Reason: Equal number of cation and anion vacancies are
present.
Ans: (a)
6. 6. Assertion: The Frenkel defect is not shown by alkali metal a)
halides.
Reason: The size of the cation is too big to be
accommodated in the interstitial space.
Ans: (a)

7. 7. Assertion: The radius of copper atom is 128pm. it c)

crystallizes in a face centered cubic structure.
Reason: The length of the edge of the unit cell is
256pm.
Ans: (c)

8. 8. Assertion: CaCO3 shows polymorphism. a)

Reason: CaCO3 exists in two forms called aragonite and
calcite.
Ans: (a)

9. 9. Assertion: Metal deficiency defect can be seen in FeO. b)

Reason: Li compound (LiCl) has pink colour due to F-
centre.
Ans: (b)

10. 10. Assertion: The number of tetrahedral voids is double the c)

number of octahedral voids.
Reason: The size of tetrahedral voids is half that of the
octahedral void.
Ans: (c)

Case Based Questions: c)

Packing refers to the arrangement of constituent units in
such a way that the force of attraction among the constituent
particles is maximum and the constituents occupy the
maximum available space. In two-dimensions there are
square close packing and hexagonal close packing. In
three-dimensions, however, there are hexagonal close
packing, cubic close packing and body-centered cubic
packing.
hcp: AB AB AB AB… arrangement
co-ordination number is =12
percentage occupied space is= 74
ccp: ABC ABC …..arrangement
co-ordination number is =12
percentage occupied is= 74
bcc: 68% space is occupied
co-ordination number is 8
Answer the following questions:

1.
 1.The empty space left in hcp in three-dimensions is
(a) 52.4%
(b) 80%
(c) 26%
(d) 74%
Ans: (c)

2. 2. In closed packed lattice containing n particles, the number a)

of tetrahedral and octahedral voids are
(a). 2n, n
(b). n, n
(c). n,2n
(d). 2n ,n/2
Ans: (a)

3. 3. The pattern of successive layers of hcp arrangement can a)

be designed as
(a). AB AB AB AB…
(b). ABC ABC…
(c). AB ABC AB ABC …
(d). AB BA AB BA …
Ans: (a)

4. 4. The space occupied by spheres in bcc arrangement is b)

(a) 70%
(b) 68%
(c) 74%
(d) 26%
Ans: (b)

5. 5. A certain oxide of metal M crystallizes in such a way that c)

O2- occupy hcp arrangement following AB AB ….. . pattern
the metal ions however, occupy 2/3rd of the octahedral
voids. The formula of the compound is
(a). MO2
(b). M3O
(c). M2O3
(d). M8/3 O3
Ans: (c)

6. 6. Which type of stacking pattern is found in sodium chloride c)

crystal lattice
(a). A-B-A-B
(b). A-A-A
(c). ABC-ABC-ABC
(d). None of these
Ans: ©
7. 7.Ionic solids are composed of anions and cations that are a)
held together by electrostatic forces. For example, common
salt, NaCl, contains Na+ and Cl- ions. Ionic solids have high
melting points, they are hard and brittle and conduct
electricity when molten or in solution. Covalent solids are
made up of atoms of the same or different elements held
together by a network of covalent bonds. Diamond is the
moist example of a covalent solid. Silicon and silicon dioxide
are also covalent solids. These solids are very hard, strong
and have high melting points due the presence of strong
covalent bonds. The oxide of silicon, SiO2 exists in several
forms with crystal structures. Such different forms of the
compound are called polymorphs and the phenomenon,
polymorphism.

7. During the formation of a solid,

(a) Some energy is lost
(b) some energy is gained
(c) Energy remains constant
(d) some energy may be gained or lost depending on the
system
Ans: (a)

8. 8. Molecular solids have c)

(a) Very low melting points
(b) Very high melting points
(c) fairly low melting points
(d) None of these
Ans: (c)

9. 9. Among the following, the strongest bond is the d)

(a) hydrogen bond
(b) metallic bond
(c) covalent bond
(d) Ionic bond
Ans: (d)

10 10. Metallic solids are generally b)

(a) soft and plastically deformable
(b) Malleable and ductile
(c) hard brittle
(d) none of these
Ans: (b)
Q.no Topic: solid state(3) Answers:
1. Questions: a)
Multiple choice questions:
1) The edge length of the unit cell in terms of the radius of spheres
constituting body centred cubic unit cell
a) a= 4r/ √3
b) a= 2r
c) a=4r
d) a= 2 √2r

2. 2) Graphite cannot be classified as c)

a) Network solid
b) conducting solid
c) ionic solid
d) covalent solid

3. 3) Which of the following statements is not true about amorphous a)

solids?
a) They are anisotropic in nature
b) On heating they may become crystalline on certain temperature
c) They may become crystalline on keeping for long time
d) Amorphous solids can be moulded by heating

4. 4) Schottky defect is generally appears in d)

a) KCl
b) Cscl
c) NaCl
d) all of these

5. 5) Which statement does not make sense ? c)

a) Frenkel defect is not found in alkali metal halides
b) Schottky defect lowers the density of the crystal
c) Frenkel defect lowers the density of the crystal
d) Schottky defect is very common in alkali metal halides

6. 6) Doping of AgCl crystals with CdCl 2 results in b)

a) Formation of F - centres
b) substitutional cation vacancy
c) schottky defect
d) frenkel defect

7. 7) Cations are present in the interstitial sites in c)

a) Metal deficiency defect
b) vacancy defect
c) frenkel defect
d) schottky defect
8. 8) Which of the following also known as dislocation defect ? a)
a) Metal excess defect
b) frenkel defect
c) non stoichiometric defect
d) schottky defect

9. 9) Which of the following crystals does not exhibit frenkel defect ? c)

a) a) ZnS
b) Agcl
c) KBr
d) AgBr

10. 10) The crystal with metal deficiency defect is a)

a) FeO
b) NaCl
c) NaI
d) ZnO

11. 11) What type of solid ‘quartz’ is ? b)

a) Molecular solid
b) Covalent solid
c) Ionic solid
d) Metallic solid

12. 12) Which type of solid conduct electricity in molten state but not in c)
solid state ?.
a) Covalent
b) metallic
c) ionic
d) molecular

13. 13) Which of the following is an amorphous solid ? b)

a) Graphite (C)
b) Quartz glass ( SiO2 )
c) Chrome alum
d) Silicon carbide ( SiC )

14. 14) Which of the following is true about the value of refractive index of a)
quartz glass?
a) Same in all directions
b) Different in different directions
c) Cannot be measured
d) Always zero

15. 15) What is the coordination number in a hexagonal close packed c)

structure in three dimensions?
a) 9
b) 6
c)12
 d) 4

16. 16) What type of defect is produced when NaCl is doped with SrCl2? b)
a) Dislocation defect
b) impurity defect
c) metal excess defect
d) schottky defect

17. 17) The Appearance of colour in solid alkali metal halides is generally b)
due to
a) vacancy defect
b) F –centres
c) interstitials
d) metal deficiency defect

18. 18) In FCC crystal lattice , Number of atoms per unit cell : c)
a) 2
b) 1
c) 4
d) none of the above

19. 19) A compound is formed by two elements M and N . The element N c)

forms hcp and atoms of M occupy 2/3 rd of octahedral voids . What is
the formula of the compound ?
a) M2 N3
b) MN
c) M3 N2
d) MN3

20. 20) Which of the following arrangements correctly represents ccp a)

and hcp in three dimensions respectively ?
a) ABCABC.... and ABAB...
b) ABAB... and ABCABC...
c) Both have ABAB .... arrangement
d) ABCABC.... arrangement
1. LESSON 2: SOLUTIONS(1) B)
CASE-STUDY PASSAGE BASED MULTIPLE CHOICE.
1.Scuba divers must cope with high concentrations of dissolved
gases while breathing air at high pressure underwater. Increased
pressure increases the solubility of atmospheric gases in blood.
When the divers come towards surface, the pressure gradually
decreases. This releases the dissolved gases and leads to the
formation of bubbles of nitrogen in the blood. This blocks capillaries
and creates a medical condition known as bends, which are painful
and dangerous to life. To avoid bends, as well as the toxic effects of
high concentrations of nitrogen in the blood, the tanks used by scuba
divers are filled with air diluted with helium, nitrogen, and oxygen.

1.Scuba divers carry the cylinder consisting the mixture of gases

diluted in air
A) O2, He, CO2
B) O2, He, N2
C) O2, He, Ne
D) O2, Ar, N2

2. 2.The people living longer at high altitudes suitably suffer from the D)
disease known as
A) High blood pressure
B) Breathlessness
c) suffocation
D) Anoxia

3. 3.Soft drinks are prepared by dissolution of CO2, by applying more C)

pressure, this can be understood by
A) Daltons law
B) Charles law
C) Henrys law
D) Avogadro law

4. 4.What is the effect of temperature on solubility of gases in liquids. B)

A) No effect
B) Increase in temperature decreases solubility
C)Increase in temperature increases solubility
D) It cannot be correlated.

5. 5)If scuba divers do not carry the proper diving device along with D)
appropriate cylinder containing suitable mixture of required gases,
meant for breathing support, when they come to surface they
experience
A) Blood clots
B) Scratches on the skin
C) Burst capillaries
 D) causes bends

2. Our Human body has portions of organs at different osmotic Ans :

pressure and an active pumping mechanism is required to offset Osmosis
osmosis. The cells of the transparent tissues of exterior eye, the takes place
cornea, have a more concentrated optical fluid than does the from
aqueous humor, a solution just behind the cornea. To prevent the hypotonic to
cornea from taking up additional water from the aqueous humor, cells hypertonic
that pump water are located in the corneal tissues adjacent to solution
aqueous humour. .Thus ,in our
Answer the following questions, in few words? eyes,
osmosis
6)What is the direction of osmosis between corneal tissues and takes place
aqueous humor? from
6. Ans : Osmosis takes place from hypotonic to hypertonic solution aqueous
.Thus ,in our eyes, osmosis takes place from aqueous humor to humor to
cornea cornea

7. 7) Corneas that are used for transplants must be removed from the Ans:
globe of eye, soon after donor’s death. Explain Why? Corneas that
Ans: Corneas that are to be stored and used for transplants must be are to be
removed from the globe of eye soon after the donor’s death. This stored and
prevents the clouding that occurs when pumping mechanism fails used for
after death. transplants
must be
removed
from the
globe of eye
soon after
the donor’s
death. This
prevents the
clouding that
occurs when
pumping
mechanism
fails after
death.

8. 3.PASSAGE: In winter season, aqueous solution of NaCl is sprinkled Ans: When

along road side of hill stations, to clear the roads after heavy snow solution of
fall. On the other hand, freezing mixture of salt and ice is used in the NaCl is
manufacture of ice cream. sprinkled
Answer following questions with few words. over snow,
the freezing
8)What is the principle behind the clearance of road after snow fall? point is
Ans: When solution of NaCl is sprinkled over snow, the freezing point lowered and
 is lowered and snow melts. Thus, roads are cleared for traffic. snow melts.
Thus, roads
are cleared
for traffic.

9. 9). Why the liquid material of ice cream freezes soon when the cane Ans: In the
containing material is dipped in freezing mixture. freezing
Ans: In the freezing mixture (combination of salt and ice) the freezing mixture
point is lowered to -200 C hence the liquid material of ice cream (combination
freezes. of salt and
ice) the
freezing
point is
lowered to
-200 C
hence the
liquid
material of
ice cream
freezes.

10. 10) What is the value behind this kind of Act? Ans: One
Ans: One should keep the surrounding clean. should keep
the
surrounding
clean

11. 4.Passage: one day a dental check-up was conducted for particular Ans: one
class in a school .it was found that some students had cavities in should not
their teeth. The teacher asked them how many chocolates or sweets eat too many
do they eat? Which tooth paste do they use for brushing their teeth, chocolates
does it contain fluoride or not. or sweets as
Answer the following with few words they damage
our teeth.
11). What values are expressed by teacher?
Ans: one should not eat too many chocolates or sweets as they
damage our teeth.

12. 12)What is the limiting value of fluoride that should be present in the Ans: The
tooth paste? What happens if this limit is exceeded? fluoride
Ans: The fluoride present in the paste would be up to 1ppm. If it present in
exceeds up to 1.5 ppm, the teeth become mottled. If it exceeds the paste
above 1.5 ppm it becomes a poison. would be up
Mainly rats poison is NaF, that contains more amount of fluoride. to 1ppm. If it
exceeds up
to 1.5 ppm,
 the teeth
become
mottled. If it
exceeds
above 1.5
ppm it
becomes a
poison.
Mainly rats
poison is
NaF, that
contains
more
amount of
fluoride.

13. MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS D)

13.What is the normality of 1M H3PO4 solution?
A) 0.5 N
B)1.0 N
C)2.0 N
D)3.0 N

14. 14). An azeotropic mixture of two liquids boils at a temperature lower C)

than either of them when
A) it is saturated
B) it does not deviate from Raoults law
C) it shows positive deviation from Raoults law D) it D)shows
negative deviation from Raoults law.

15 15.The hard cell of an egg was dissolved in HCl. The egg was then A)
placed in a concentrated solution of Nacl. What will happen?
A) The egg will shrink
B) The egg will swell
C)The egg will become harder
D) There will be hardly any change

16. 16. A substance will be deliquescent, if its vapour pressure is C)

A) equal to the atmospheric pressure
B) equal to that of water vapour in air
C)lesser than that of water vapour in air
D)greater than that of water vapour in air.

17. 17.solutions A, B, C, D are 0.1M glucose,0.05M NaCl,0.05M BaCl2 B)

and 0.1M AlCl3 respectively. Which of the following pairs is isotonic?
A) B and C
B) A and B
C) A and D
D) A and C
18. 18.Camphor is often used in molecular mass determination because B)
A) it is readily available
B) it has very high cryoscopic constant
C)It is volatile
D) It is solvent for organic substances

19. 19.If an Aqueous solution of glucose is allowed to freeze, then B)

crystals of which will be separated out first?
A) Glucose
B) Water
C) both of these
D) None of these

20. 20.The depression in freezing point for 1M urea, IM glucose, and 1M C)

NaCl are in the ratio
A) 1:2:3
B) 3:2:2
C) 1:1:2
D) None of these

21. 21.. A substance will be deliquescent ,if its vapour pressure is C)

A)equal to the atmospheric pressure
B)equal to that of water vapour in air
C)lesser than that of water vapour in air
D)greater than that of water vapour in air.

22. REASONING-ASSERTION TYPE QUESTIONS. A)

A) Assertion and reason both are correct statements and reason is correct
explanation for assertion.
B) Assertion and reason both are correct statements but reason is not
correct explanation for assertion.
C)Assertion is correct statement but reason is wrong statement.
D)Assertion is wrong statement but reason is correct statement.

22.Assertion: Molarity of a solution in liquid state changes with

temperature.
Reason: The volume of a solution changes with change in temperature

23. 23. Assertion: 0.1 M HCl solution has higher osmotic pressure than 0.1 M D)
NaCl solution.
Reason: Cl- ions being common, the small size H+ ions have greater ionic
mobility than large size Na+ ions.
24. 24.Assertion: If on mixing the two liquids, the solution becomes hot, it B)
implies that it shows negative deviation from Raoults law.
Reason: Solution which show negative deviation are accompanied by
decrease in volume.

25. 25.Assertion: D)
Vapor pressure of water is less than 1.013 bar at 373 K
Reason: Water boils at 373 K as the vapour pressure at this temperature
becomes equal to atmospheric pressure.

26. 26.Assertion: D)
Any concentration of NaCl solution can be injected intravenously as NaCl
being a common table salt, is a harmless chemical.
Reason: 0.9% (mass/volume) NaCl solution is isotonic with the fluid inside
the body cells.

27. 27.Assertion: Vant Hoff factor for benzoic acid in benzene is less than one. C)
Reason: Benzoic acid behaves as a weak electrolyte in benzene.

28. 28.Assertion: One molar aqueous solution has always a higher C)

concentration than one molal solution.
Reason: The molality of a solution depends on the density of solution
whereas molarity does not.

29. 29. Assertion: Out of various colligative properties, osmotic pressure is A)

used for determination of molecular masses of polymers.
Reason: Polymer solutions do not possess a constant boiling point or
freezing point.

30. 30.Assertion: The Vapour pressure of 0.1M sugar solution is less than that A)
of 0.1 M KCl solution.
Reason: Lowering of vapour pressure is directly proportional to the number
of solute particles present in the solution.

31. 31.Assertion: C)
Ethylene glycol is used as antifreeze in the radiator of a car.
Reason: Ethylene glycol is insoluble in water due to lack of its ability to
form hydrogen bond with water molecules.
1. CLASS XII A)
TOPIC: SOLUTIONS(2)

Read the assertion and reason carefully to mark the correct option
out of the options given below:
(a)If both assertion and reason are true and the reason is the correct
explanation of the assertion.
(b)If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct
explanation of the assertion.
(c)If assertion is true but reason is false.
(d)If assertion is false but reason is true.

1.Assertion : One molal aqueous solution of urea contains of urea in

water.
Reason:Solution containing one mole of solute in solvent is called as
one molal solution.

2. 2.Assertion: Azeotropic mixtures are formed only by non-ideal solutions B)

and they may have boiling points either greater than both the
components or less than both the components.
Reason : The composition of the vapour phase is same as that of the
liquid phase of an azeotropic mixutre.

3. 3.Assertion: Molecular mass of polymers cannot be calculated using B)

boiling point or freezing point method.
Reason : Amorphous polymers solutions do not possess a constant
boiling point or freezing point.

4. 4.Assertion: Reverse osmosis is used in the desalination of sea water. A)

Reason : When pressure more than osmotic pressure is applied; pure
water is squeezed out of the sea water through the membrane.

5. 5.Assertion: Elevation in boiling point and depression in freezing point B)

are colligative properties.
Reason : All colligative properties are used for the calculation of
molecular masses.

6. 6.Assertion: Use of pressure cooker reduces cooking time. A)

Reason: At higher pressure cooking occurs faster.
7. 7.Assertion: Isotonic solution do not show the phenomenon of osmosis. A)
Reason: Isotonic solutions have equal osmotic pressure.

8. 8.Assertion: Henry’s law and Roult’s law are not independent, i.e., one B)
can be derived from the other.
Reason : The partial pressure is directly proportional to the mole fraction
of the concerned species for ideal solutions.

9. 9.Assertion: An ideal solution obeys Raoult’s law A)

Reason : In an ideal solution, solute-solute as well as solvent-solvent
interactions are similar to solute-solvent interactions

10. 10.Assertion: One molar solution is always more concentrated than one A)
molal solution (assume density of solution is 1 gm/mL)
Reason : The amount of solvent in 1 M solution is always less than 1 m
aqueous solution

1. Passage I B)
The osmotic pressure ( ) depends on the molar concentration of the
solution (=CRT). If two solutions are of equal solute concentration and,
hence, have the same osmotic pressure, they are said to be isotonic. If
two solutions are of unequal osmotic pressure, the more concentrated
solution is said to be hypertonic and the more diluted solution is
described as hypotonic. Osmosis is the major mechanism for
transporting water upward in the plants.
Answer the following questions.

1. A plant cell shrinks when it is kept in:

a) Hypotonic solution
b) Hypertonic solution
c) Isotonic solution
d) pure water.

2. 2. What would be the percent strength of solution of urea that would be C)

isotonic with 4.5% solution of glucose?
a) 4.5%
b) 13.5%
C) 1.5 %
d) 9 %

3. 3. The glucose solution to be injected into the bloodstream and the blood C)
itself
should have the same;
a) Molarity
b) Molality
c) Osmotic pressure
 d) Viscocity

4. 4. Isotonic solution have same D)

a) Density
b) Molefraction
c) Molality
d) Osmotic pressure

5. 5. Osmotic pressure is based on the which of the following concentration A)

terms
a) Molarity
b) Molality
c) Molefraction
d) Normality

6. Passage II B)
The solution which boil at constant temperature like a pure liquid and
possess same composition in liquid as well as vapor state are called
azeotropes. The components of azeotropes cannot be separated by
fractional distillation. Only non-ideal solutions form azeotropes.
Solutions with negative deviation form maximum boiling azeotrope and
solutions with positive deviation forms minimum boiling azeotrope. The
boiling point of an azeotrope is never equal to the boiling points of any of
the components of the azeotrope.

Answer the following questions

6. The azeotropic solutions of the two miscible liquids
A) Can be separated by simple distillation
B) May show positive or negative deviation from Raoult’s law
C) Are supersaturated
D)Behave like single pure component and does not boil at a fixed
temperature

7. 7. Solutions which distill without any change in composition or D)

temperature are called
a) Saturated
b) Supersaturated
c) Ideal
d) Azeotrope

8. 8. The azeotropic mixture of water and HCl boils at 108.5oC. The C)

solution is
a) Ideal
b) Non ideal with positive deviation
c)Non ideal with negative deviation
d) None of these

9. 9. 100 mL of liquid A and 50 mL of liquid B are mixed to form 138 mL of B)

solution, it is
a) Ideal solution
 b) High boiling azeotrope
c)Low boiling azeotrope
d) None of these

10. 10. Which among the following combinations is a maximum boiling D)

azeotrope.
a) H2O + CH3OH
b) CCl4+CHCl3
c) (CH3)2CO + C2H5OH
d) H2O+HNO3
1. TOPIC : SOLUTIONS(3) 3)
Multiple choice questions:
1.The vapour pressure of a solution of 5 g of non-electrolyte in 100 g
of water at a particular temperature is 2985 . The vapour

pressure of water is 3000 . The molecular mass of the

solute is:
1) 60
2) 12
3) 180
4) 380

2. 1)
2.The Henry’s law constant for the solubility of gas in water at

298 K is atm. The mole fraction of in air is 0.8. The

number of mole of from air dissolved in 10 moles of water at

298 K at 5 atm pressure is:
1) 4x10-4
2) 4x10-5
3) 5x10-5
4) 4x10-5

3. 3. Mixture of volatile components A and B has total vapour pressure 3)

(in torr): where, is mole fraction of A in

mixture. Hence , and are ( in torr) :

1) 254,119
2) 119,254
3) 135,254
4) 154,119

4. 4.Molar solubility of helium, nitrogen and oxygen are plotted against 2)

partial pressure of the gas at constant temperature.
 Henry’s law constant for these gases will lie in following sequence ?

1)

5. 5.Solubility of oxygen gas in water follows Henry’s law. When the 2)

solubility is plotted against partial pressure at a definite temperature,
we get following plots.

Which of the following sequence of temperature is

correct ?
1)

6. 6. 620 g glycol is added to 4 kg water in the radiator of a car. What 2)

amount of ice will separate out at -6oC?

1) 800 g
2) 900g
3) 600g
4) 1000g

7. 7.Two liquids A and B form ideal solutions. At 300 K, the vapour 1)

pressure of solution containing 1 mole of A and 3 mole of B is
550mm Hg. At the same temperature, if one more mole of B is
added to this solution, the vapour pressure of the solution increases
by 10 mm Hg. Determine the vapour pressure of A and B in their
pure states ( in mm Hg.)
1) 400, 600
2) 500, 500
3) 600, 400
4) 300,500
8. 8. Two liquids A and B have vapour pressure in the ratio 1)

at a certain temperature Assume A and B form an

ideal solution and the ratio of mole fractions of A to B in the vapour
phase is 4:3. Then the mole fraction of B in the solution at the same
temperature is :

1)

2)

3)

4)

9. 9.When 36.0 g of a solute having the empirical formula CH2O is 4)

dissolved in 1.20 kg of water, which freezes at -. What is

the molecular formula of the solute ? ( )

1)

2)

3)

4)

10. 10.At 300 K, 40 mL of O3 (g) dissolves in 100g of water at 1.0 atm. 2)

What mass of ozone dissolves in 400 g of water at a pressure of 4.0
atm at 300 K ?
1) 0.1 g
2) 1.2 g
3) 0.48 g
4) 4.8 g
11. 2)

11.Ratio of of 10 g AB2 and 14 g A2B per 100 g of solvent in

their respective, solution (AB2 and A2B both are non-electrolytes) is
1 mol/kg in both cases. Hence, atomic wt.of A and B are
respectively:
1) 100,40
2) 60,20
3) 20,60
4) 40,60

12. 12.Which of the following is correct for an ideal solution 1)

1)

2)

3)

4)

13. 13.The properties of solutions which depend only on the number of 4)

particles of solute but independent of the nature of solute are called
1) extensive property
2) intensive property
3) colloidal property
4) Colligative property

14. 1)
14. At the osmotic pressure of urea solution is 500mm. The
solution is diluted and temperature is raised to the osmatic

pressure of dilute solution is 105.3mm at . If and are

initial and final volumes of solution, the extent of dilution can be
shown as

1)

2)

3)

4)

15. 15.Solution distilled without change in composition at a temperature 2)

is called
1) amorphous
2) Azeotropic mixture
3) Ideal solution
4) Super staturated solution
16. 3)
16.On mixing o f acetone with o f chloroform the total
volume of solution is
1)
2)
3) equal to 50ml

4) cannot be predicted

17. 17. A mixture of Bezene and Toluene forms 1)

1) An ideal solution
2) Non Ideal solution
3) Suspension
4) Emulsion

18. 18.The relationship between osmotic pressure at 273 K when 10 g 3)

glucose (P1), 10 g urea(P2) and 10 g sucrose(P3) are dissolved
in 250 ml of water is
1) P1>P2>P3
2) P3>P1>P2
3) P2>P1>P3
4) P2>P3>P1

19. 19.an aqueous solution of ethanol in water has vapour pressure 3)

1) equal to the water
2) equal to that of ethanol
3) more than that of water
4) less than that of water

20. 1)
20.The relative lowering of Vapour Pressure dissolving of a
substance in of water is the molecular mass
of the substance is
1) 180
2) 218
3) 134
4) 80
21. Match the following:

Coloumn I nColoumn II

a. Hypertonic p. solutions having same osmotic pressure

b. Isotonic q. One solution has higher osmatic pressure

than the second solution

c. Hypotonic r. solutions which obeys Roults law

d. Ideal solutions s. One solution has lower osmatic pressure

_____________________________________ than the second solution
1)A-q, B-p, C- s, D- r
2)A-p, B-q, C- s, D- r
3)A-q, B-p, C- r, D- s
4)None of these Ans: 1)

22. Match the following: Coloumn II

Column I

a. Molality p. Number of gram moles of solute per Kg of

solvent

b. Molarity q. Number of moles of solute per lit of

solution

c. Molefraction of solute r. Number of moles of solute/ number of

moles of solute+ number of moles of solvent

d. Ppm s. parts per million

1. A-p, B-q, C- s, D- r
2. A-p, B-q, C- r, D- s
3. A-q, B-p, C- r, D- s
4. None of these
Ans: 2)
23. Match the following: Column II
Column I

a). Chloroform + Nitric acid p. effect of pressure on solubility of a gas in

liquid

b). Henry’s law q. Ideal solution

c). Alcohol+water r. non ideal with positive deviation

d). Benzene + Tolune s. non ideal with negative deviation

1)A-p, B-q, C- s, D- r
2)A-p, B-q, C- r, D- s
3)A-s, B-p, C- r, D- q
4)None of these
Ans: 3)

21. Match the following: Answers

COLUMN 1 COLUMN 2

1.Soda water a) A solution of gas in liquid. 1-e

2.Sugar solution b) A solution of gas in gas 2-c
3.German silver c) A solution of solid in solid 3-d
4.Air d) A solution of solid in solid 4-b
5.Hydrogen gas in palladium e) A solution of gas in liquid 5-a
f) A solution of liquid in solid
 LESSON :P-BLOCK ELEMENTS(1) c)
1.The Noble gases have closed shell electronic configuration and are
mono atomic gases under normal conditions. The low boiling points of
the lighter noble gases are due to the weak dispersion forces between
the atoms and the absence of other interatomic interactions.

The direct reaction of Xenon with fluorine leads to a series of compounds

with
Oxidation numbers +2,+4 and +6. XeF6 reacts violently with water to
give XeO3. The compounds of Xenon exhibit rich stereochemistry and
their geometries can be deduced considering the total number of electron
pairs in the valence shell.
i)The gas used in magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) system is
a) Argon
b) Neon
i) c) Helium
d) Xenon

ii) ii)The hydrolysis of XeF6 lead to a reaction d)

a) Oxidation
b) Reduction
c) Redox
d) Non

iii) iii)The structure and hybridization of XeO3 is c)

a)T-Shaped SP3d
b) Linear SP
c)Pyramid,SP3
d)Tetrahedral,SP3

iv) iv)Argon is used in arc welding because of its b)

a) Flammability
b) low reactivity with metals
c)Ability to lower melting points of metals
d) High calorific value

v) v)XeF4 and XeF6 are expected to be a)

a) Oxidizing
b) unreactive
c) reducing
d) Strongly Basic
 2.Among Noble gases, Xe forms with F and O, XeF2, XeF4 and XeF6 a)
are colourless crystalline solids, they sublime readily at 298K due to
weak vander waal’s forces of attraction. They are powerful fluorinating
and oxidizing agents. They are hydrolyzed even by traces of water.
Xenon Flourides react with fluoride ion acceptors to form cationic
species and fluoride ion donors to form anionic species.
i). The compound that cannot formed by Xenon is
a) XeCl4
i) b) XeO3
c) XeF2
d) XeO2F2

ii) ii) The noble gases can be separated by b)

a) Passing them through some chemical
b) Adsorption and desorption on coconut charcoal.
c) Electrolysis of their fluorides
d) Adsorption and desorption on activated platinum.

iii) iii)Which of the following Xenon compound has the same number of b)
lone pairs
a)XeO4
b) XeF2
c) XeF4
d)XeO3

iv) iV)XeF6 and XeF2 are separately hydrolyzed a)

a)XeF6 alone gives O2
b) neither of the give HF
c)XeF6 gives O2
d) both give out O2

v) V) MF+XeF6 ‘A’ (M= Alkali metal). The state of hybridization of the c)

central atom ‘A’ and shape of the complex formed is
a) SP3d3, Pentagonal planar
b) SP3, Tetrahedral
c) SP3d2, distorted octahedral
d) SP3d, Trigonal bipyramidal
 3.In 1961 Neil Bartlett while experimenting with fluorine and platinum a)
had accidently produced a deep red solid whose exact chemical
composition remained a mystery. After much research, he found that
the known gaseous Fluorine, platinum hexa fluoride (PtF6) was able to
oxidize oxygen and produce the red solid (O2+ PtF6- )
He then realized that the first ionization enthalpy of molecular oxygen
was identical with xenon. And he was successful in preparing another
compound( Xe +Pt 6- ) by mixing PtF6 and Xenon. At room
temperature. Later other compounds of Xe with F2 and O2 are
synthesized.
Recently Oganesson has been synthetically produced by Radio active
transmutation as follows.

24898cf + 4820Ca --🡪249118Og +3 0n1

[24898cf(48 Ca, 3n) 249118Og]

i).The electronic configuration of last element in the Modern periodic

table is
a)[Rn] 5f14 6d10 7S2 7P6
b) [Xe] 5f14 6d10 7S2 7P6
i) c)[Xe] 6f14 5d10 7S2 7P6
d) [Rn] 6d10 7S2 7P6

ii) ii) Complete hydrolysis of XeF6 produces along with HF c)

a)XeOF4
b) XeO2F2
c) XeO3
d) Xe

iii) iii) XeF4 is a)

a) Square planar and acts as a fluoride donor with PF5
b) Sea-saw shape and acts as a fluoride donor with AsF5
c) Square planar and acts as fluoride donor with NaF
d) Tetrahedral and acts as a fluoride donor with SbF5

iv) iv) Which of the following noble gas not form clathrate compound c)
a)Kr
b) Ar
c) Xe
d) Ne

v) v) Which of the following is not true about Helium? c)

a) It was first discovered by observing solar spectrum
b) It can diffuse through rubber and plastic material
c) It has highest boiling point
d) It has the highest first ionization energy
i) 4.When two different halogens react each other, inter halogen d)
compounds are formed. They can be assigned general compositions
as XX’,XX’3,XX’5,XX’7. Where X is of larger size and X’ of smaller size
and X is more electropositive than X’. as the ratio between radii of X
and X’ increases the number of atoms per molecule also increases.
The inter halogen compounds can be prepared by the direct
combination or by the action of halogen on lower inter halogen
compounds.
i) Which of the following is more reactive?
a) Cl2
b) Br2
c) I2
d) ICl

ii) ii) The structure and hybridization of BrF5 is a)

a)Square pyramid SP3d2
b) bent T-shape SP3d3
c) Pentagonal bi pyramidal,SP3d3
d) octahedral SP3d3

iii) iii) Which inter halogen is used for the production of UF6 in the c)
enrichment of Fissionable isotope of uranium used in Nuclear reactor.
a)ClF
b) IF7
c) BrF3
d) ICl3

iv) iv) BrF3+H2O a)

……………………… + ………………………….
a) HF +HOBr
b)HBr + HOF
c) HBr+HF
d) F2+HOBr

v) v)Br2+F2(excess) ………> a)
a)BrF5
b) BrF
c) BrF3
d) BrF7
 5.Glauber prepared hydrochloric acid in 1648 by heating common salt b)
with concentrated sulphuric acid (king of acids or oil of vitriol). Davy in
1810 showed that it is a compound of Hydrogen and Chlorine. It is
colourless and pungent smelling gas. It is easily liquefied to a
colourless liquid as it has high critical temperature. It also freezes to a
white crystalline solid. It is extremely soluble in water and ionizes to
maximum due to high Ka value it reacts with ammonia and forms white
fumes. Con.HCl is used in aqua regia it decomposes salts of weaker
acids.

i) Which of the following equations not true.

a) Fe + 2HCl FeCl2+H2
b) 2Fe + 6 HCl 2FeCl3 +3H2
i) c) Na2CO3+2HCL 2NaCl +H2O +CO2
d) NH3 + HCl NH4Cl

ii) ii) Hydro chloric acid can be dried by passing through d)

a) Ammonia
b) baking soda
c) caustic soda
d) sulphuric acid

iii) iii) Aqua Regia (super solvent ) is b)

a)1 part Con HCl + 3 parts Con. Sulphuric acid
b)3 parts Con HCl + 1 Part Con.Nitric acid
c)3 parts Con HCl + 1 part Con. Sulphuric acid
d)1 pat Con. Hcl + 3 parts Con.Nitric acid

iv) iv) Acid used for permanent engravement on glass surface is a)

a)HF
b) HCl
c) HBr
d) HI

v) v) HCl produces an acid with a)

a)CH3COO-Na+
b) Na2SO4
c) KNO3
d)Na3PO4
 a)
6.Chlorine was discovered in 1774 by sheele. In 1810 Davy established
its elementary nature and suggested the name chlorine. (chloros =
Greenish yellow). It is present in 17th group of modern periodic table. F
and Cl gases, Br liquid, I,At,Ts solids. The only group follow gases to
solid state trend down the group. Cl2 is greenish yellow gas with
pungent and suffocating odour.
It has great affinity for hyderogen. Hence upon reacting with hydrogen
containing compounds and produces HCl
Cl2 undergoes disproportion (Redox) reaction with caustic soda and
slaked lime. It also reacts with Hydro Carbons and Under goes
substitution and addition reactions with saturated and unsaturated
respectively. Cl2 forms four types of Oxo acids. It exhibits oxidizing &
bleaching properties in moisture. Bleaching is due to oxidation and it is
permanent.
i) Which of the following compounds don’t react with chlorine gas
a) HF
b) CH4
c) C2H4
i) d) H2S

ii) ii) Which of the following is not a disproportional reaction b)

a) 2NaOH +Cl2 NaCl + NaOCl +H2O
b) SO2 + Cl2 + H2O H2SO4 +2HCl
c) 2Ca(OH)2 +2Cl2 Caq (OCl)2 +CaCl2 +H2O
d) 6NaOH +3Cl2 5NaCl + NaClO3 +3H2O

iii) iii) Which is not product of chlorine gas d)

a)Phosgene
b) tear gas
c) mustard gas
d) oleum

iv) iv) Chlorine gas is not prepared by a)

a)Haber process
b) Deacon’s process
c) Castner kellner’s process
d) Nelson Cell

v) v) Correct order of negative electron gain enthalpy. c)

a) F>Cl>Br>I
b) F<Cl<Br<I
c) F<Cl>Br>I
d) I > Br<F>Cl
i) 7..The halogens have the smallest atomic radii in their respective b)
periods. Fluorine atomic size is extremely small. It is also called super
halogen. All 17th group elements exhibit -1 oxidation state. Except
fluorine other halogens exhibit +1,+3,+5 and +7 oxidation states.
Based on compound. Fluorine exhibits anomalous behavior. For
example electro negativity, oxidizing power and ionization enthalpy
high. Bond dissociation enthalpy, electron gain enthalpy, m.p and b.p
are low than expected. All halogens are di atomic and exhibit colour.

i) Which of the following hydro halic acid exhibit inter hydrogen

bonding even in gaseous state.
a) HI
b) HF
c) HBr
d) HCl

ii) ii) Which oxide don’t exist a)

a)Br2O7
b) Br2O
c) BrO3
d) BrO2

iii) iii) Which oxide is used to estimate carbon monoxide d)

a)O2F2
b) ClO2
c) BrO3
d) I2O5

iv) iv) Which of the following halides cannot be hydrolysed? d)

(I) NF3
(II) NCl3
(III) TeF6
(IV) SF6
a)II and IV
b) III and IV
c) I,II and IV
d) I & IV

v) v) Which of the following halogen disproportionate in water a)

a)Cl2
b) F2
c) I2
d) None

vi) vi) In oxygen fluoride compounds oxygen exhibits the following a) a) c)

a)oxidation states
b) -2,+1
c) -2,+2
 d) +1,+2

1. ASSERTION- REASON TYPE QUESTIONS c)

a) if both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
b) if both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not correct explanation of (A)
c)if (A) is true but (R) is false
d) if (A) is false but (R) is true.
1.(A): When two gaseous ‘OF’ molecules dimerise
Though O-atom
(R): O2F2 is having one peroxy linkage

2. 2.(A): Liquid IF5 conducts electricity a)

(R): In liquid state IF5 changes as (IF4+)(IF5)-

3. 3.(A): Cl2 gas disproportinates when combine with slaked lime a)

O-Cl+
(R): ca bleaching powder forms oxidation state of Cl changes from
zero to Cl-

4. 4.(A): I2 is sparingly soluble in water. a)

(R):When KI salt added to above solution I2 becomes KI3 complex and
solubility increases.

5. 5.(A): Bond dissociation energy of F2 is lesser than Cl2 molecule d)

(R): In F2 molecule due to lonepair. Lone pair repultions bond enthalpy
is very low

6. 6.(A): AgI does not dissolve in Ammonia c)

(R): Due to Ionic character of AgI

7. 7.(A): Helium gas is used in diving apparatus (Scuba divers) a)

(R): It will easily come out from body after coming out from water avoid
bends.

8. 8.(A) : F2 gas is used to separate U235 and U238 b)

(R) : Fluorine atomic size small.

9. 9.(A) : Noble gases have large positive values of electron gain enthalpy c)
(R) :They have high electro negativity

10. 10.(A) :Noble gases form inter hydrogen bonds among themselves. d)
(R): Helium has the lowest boiling point (4.2 K) of any known
substance.

11. 11.(A) : Og (Z=118) atomic mass 294 has half life period 0.7 m seconds a)
(R) :It is radio active due to very high nuclear density and n/p ratio

12. 12.(A) :Among 1% of noble gases in the atmosphere Argon is the Major c)
constituent
(R) :All noble gases occur in the earths atmosphere.
 P-BLOCK ELEMENTS (2)
NITROGEN FAMILY:

Passage # 1 (Q. 1 to 5)
An important phosphate fertilizer it super phosphate of lime by the
action of 60–70% of H2SO4 on the apatite (Ca3(PO4)2) and
fluoroapatite. The mixture of monocalcium phosphate and CaSO4
constitute super phosphate of lime. Super phosphate of lime contains
16–18 % available P2O5. Triple super phosphate of lime is prepared
by digersting apatite with conc H3PO3

1. 1.Which of the following properties should not be associated with the (A)
fertilizer–
(A)Insolubility in water
(B)It should not change the pH.
(C)It should be nontoxic to the nitrifying bacteria.
(D)It should be suitable in the soil

2. 2.Which of the following represent the preparation of superphosphate (C)

of lime from fluoroapatite –
(A) Ca3 (PO4)2 ′ CaF2 + 6H3PO4 ⎯→
4Ca(H2PO4)2 + 2HF ↑
(B) Ca3 (PO4)2 ′ CaF2 + 4H2 SO4⎯→
4CaSO4 + 2H3PO4 + 2HF↑
(C) 3 [Ca3 (PO4)2 ′ CaF2] + 7H2 SO4 ⎯→
3Ca(H2 PO4)2 + 7CaSO4 + 2HF↑
(D) Ca3(PO4)2 + 3H3PO4 ⎯→
3Ca(HPO4)2

3. 3.Triple super phosphate of lime approximately contain (X) % (D)

available P2O5. Thus (X) is -
(A) (X) ≡ 32 %
(B) (X) ≡ 90 %
(C) (X) ≡ 96 %
(D) (X) ≡ 48 %

4. 4.What happens when urea is slowly hydrolyses in soil– (D)

(A)CO(NH2)2 ⎯→ NH4CNO
 (B)CO(NH2)2 ⎯→ CO ↑ + NH3↑
(C) CO(NH2)2 ⎯→ CH4↑ + N2O ↑
(D) CO(NH2)2 + 2H2O ⎯→ (NH4)2 CO3

Q.5 5.What is the disadvantages of using (NH4)2 SO4 as a

fertilizer– [D]
(A) (NH4)2 SO4 is water soluble
(B) (NH4)2 SO4 decomposes slowly to NH3 and NH4HSO4
in the soil.
(C) (NH4)2 SO4 increases the pH of the soil.
(D) (NH4)2 SO4 decreases the pH of the soil.

Passage # 2 (Q. 6 to 8)
Compared to the oxyacids of nitrogen, phosphorus
presents a much more complicated picture particularly due to the
formation of condensed phosphates. Phosphorus forms oxyacids
in the oxidation numbers, +1, +3, +4 and +5. The oxyacids with
oxidation number +3 and +5 occur in metal, pyro and
ortho-forms. The three oxyacids, H3PO2, H3PO3 and H3PO4
are based on sp3 hybridized phosphorus and may be conceived
to be formed from hypophosphorus acid by stepwise
replacement of H by OH

6. 6.H3PO2 + CuSO4 ⎯→ (X); a red ppt (X) is – (D)

(A) Cu
(B) Cu2O
(C) CuO
(D) Cu2H2

7. 7.P4(white) + P (an alkaline solution) ⎯→ (A)

Q (reducing gas) + R
R + dil H2SO4 ⎯→
T (ppt) + S (oxyacid of P)
T gives apple green colour in the flame. Thus, P, Q, R, S and T
respectively are–
(A) Ba(OH)2; PH3 ; Ba (H2PO2)2; H3PO2;
BaSO4
(B) Ca(OH)2; P2H4; Ca (H2PO2)2;H3PO2;
CaSO4
(C) Ba(OH)2; PH3; Ba(H2PO3)3 ; H3PO3;
BaSO4
(D) Ba(OH)2; P2H4; Ba(H2PO2)2; H3PO3;
BaSO4

8. 8.Which of the following represent the isopolyacid of (D)

phosphorus–
 (A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

Passage # 3 (Q.9 to 11) (C)

There are some deposits of nitrates and phosphates in earth’s
crust. Nitrates are more soluble in water. Nitrates are difficult to
reduce under the laboratory conditions but microbes do it easily.
Ammonia forms large number of complexes with transition metal
ions. Hybridization easily explains the ease of sigma donation
capability of NH3 and PH3. Phosphine is a flammable gas and is
prepared from white phosphorous.

9.Among the following, the correct statement is-

9. (A)Phosphates have no biological significance in humans
(B)Between nitrates and phosphates, phosphates are less
abundant in earth’s crust
(C)Between nitrates and phosphates, nitrates are less abundant
in earth’s crust
(D)Oxidation of nitrates is possible in soil

10. 10.Among the following, the correct statement is- (C)

(A) Between NH3 and PH3, NH3 is a better electron donor Sol. In PH3
because the lone pair of electrons occupies spherical ‘s’ p-character
orbital and is less directional is mostly
 (B) Between NH3 and PH3, PH3 is a better electron donor used for
because the lone pair of electrons occupies sp3 orbital bonding
and is more directional while lone
(C) Between NH3 and PH3, NH3 is a better electron donor pair is in
because the lone pair of electrons occupies sp3’ orbital and is predominantl
more directional y s-character
(D) Between NH3 and PH3, PH3 is a better electron donor orbital which
because the lone pair of electrons occupies spherical ‘s’ orbital is diffused &
and is less directional less
reactive..

11. 11.White phosphorus on reaction with NaOH gives PH3 as one (B)
of the products. This is a-
(A) Dimerization reaction
(B) Disproportionation reaction
(C) condensation reaction
(D)precipitation reaction

1. P- BLOCK ELEMENTS(3) (. )
Multiple choice questions:
 Which of the following is not tetrahedral?
a.SF4
b. SiCl4
c. NH4+
d. SO4-2

2. Which of the following statement is true? (. )

a.Hydrolysis of XeF6 is a redox reaction
b.Xenon Fluorides are not reactive
c.He and Ne forms compounds with highest electronegative fluorine
d.Ionization enthalpy of dioxygen is very close to Xenon

3. If chlorine gas is passed cold Sodium Hydroxide solution, two (. )

changes in Oxidation state of chlorine happen , they are
a.+1,-1
b. +1,+1
c. -1,-1
d. 0,1

4. Which statement is true (. )

a.Xenon Fluorides are unreactive
b.Xenon Fluoriddes are highly reactive and readily even by traces of
water
c.Neon forms compounds only with fluorine
d.Xenon fluorides undergo disproportionation.

5. Which of the following don’t exist (. )

a.HOCl2
b. HOBr2
c. HOF2
d. HOI2

6. Molecule having two types of bond angles (. )

a.PCl3
b. XeF4
c. SF6
d. PCl5

7. A neutral oxide is (. )
a.CO2
b. SO3
c. XeO3
d. SO2

8. The gas which diffuses through rubber, glass and plastic (. )

a.Helium
b. Xenon
c. Argon
d. Krypton

9. Chlorine gas discovered by (. )

 a.Davy
b. Sheele
c. Haber
d. Lechateler

10. Which molecule is not linear in shape (. )

a.XeF2
b. ICl
c. C2H2
d. SO2

Q.1 COLUMN-I COLUMN-II Answer:

S.No

1. Xenon Tetra Fluoride (A) XeF6 1-D

2. The partial hydrolysis (B) Discovered first 2-A

does not change oxidation Xenon compound
state of central atom

3. Neil Bartlett ( C) Helium 3-B

4. High temperature (D) SP3d2-Square planar 4-E

metallurgical process

5. It is used in modern diving (E) Argon 5-C

apparatus

Q2 COLUMN-I COLUMN-II.
Answers:
S.No

1. Sea saw shaped molecule (A) BrO3. 1-E

2. Pyramidal Shaped ( B) CCl4. 2-A

3. Tetrahedral shaped (C) I3-. 3-B

4. Linear Shaped (D) BrF3. 4-C

5. Bent T-Shaped (E) SF4. 5-D

Q3 COLUMN-I COLUMN-II
S.No Answers:

1. Xe +F2 (A) XeF6 + O2. 1-D

2. XeF4 + O2F2 (B) HCl + C

2-A

3. C10H16 +8Cl2 (C)XeO3 + HF. 3-B

4. Fe + HCI (D) XeF2. 4-E

5. XeF6 + 3H2O (E) FeCl2 + H2. 5-C

1. P-BLOCK ELEMENTS(4) A)
Multiple choice questions:
Which of the following pairs of ions are isoelectronic and iso
structural?
A) CO32-,NO3-
B)ClO3-,CO32-
C)SO32-,NO3-
D)ClO3-,SO32-

2. In the preparation of HNO3, we get NO’s gas by catalytic oxidation of A)

ammonia. The moles of NO’s produced by the oxidation of two
moles of NH3 will be
A) 2
B) 3
C) 4
D) 6

3. The brown gas formed when HNO3 is reduced by metal is C)

A) N2 O
B) N2 O3
C) NO2
D) NO

4. Which of the following is least volatile A)

A) H2O
B) H2S
C) H2Se
D) H2Te

5. Which of the following oxide is neutral A)

A) CO
B) SnO2
C) ZnO
D) SiO2

6. Which of the statement given below is incorrect C)

A) ONF is isoelectronic with O2N
B) O3 molecule is bent
C) OF2 is an oxide of fluorine
D) Cl2O7 is an anhydride of perchloric acid

7. On addition of conc H2SO4 to a chloride salt colourless fumes are C)

evolved but in a case of iodine salt violet fumes come out. This is
because
A) H2SO4 reduces HI to I2
B) HI is of violet colour
C) HI gets oxidised to iodine (I2)
D) HI changes to HIO3
8. SO2 act as an D)
A) Oxidizing agent
B) Reducing agent
C) Bleaching agent
D) All of the above

9. The paramagnetic Oxides of nitrogen are B)

A) N2O and NO
B) NO and NO2
C) NO2 and NO3
D) NO3 and N2O4

10. Which of the following has –O—O—linkage B)

A) H2SO4
B) H2S2O8
C) H2S2O3
D) H2S4O6

11. Which of the following has least basic D)

A) NI3
B) NBr3
C) NCl3
D) NF3

12. Ammonia can be dried by C)

A) Con.H2SO4
B) P4O10
C) CaO
D) Anhyd. CaCl2

13. Ozone can be tested by B)

A) Ag B) Hg C) Zn D) Au

14. On heating ammonia dichromate, the gas evolved is D)

A) O2
B) NH3
C) HNO3
D) N2

15. The stability of +5 oxidation state decreases and that A)

Of +3 increases down the group of 15 elements due
A)Inert pair effect
B) Decreases in I.E
C) Increases in size
D) Shielding effect
16. Acidic character of hydrides of group 16 elements in A)
The order of
A)H2O < H2S < H2Se< H2Te
B)H2S < H2Se< H2Te< H2O
C)H2O <H2Se < H2Se< H2S
D)H2O <H2S <H2Te < H2Se

17. Out of the following halides of groups 16 which does not possess D)
reducing property
A)H2Te
B) H2Se
C) H2S
D) H2O

18. A brown ring is formed in the ring test for NO-3 Ion. It is due to A)
formation of
A) [Fe (H2O)5(NO)]2+
B) FeSO4 NO2
C) [Fe (H2O)4 NO2]
D) FeSO4.HNO3

19. Maximum covalency of nitrogen is C)

A) 3
B) 5
C) 4
D) 6

20. The oxidation state of central atom in the anion of compound C)

NaH2PO2 Will be
A)+3
B) +5
C) +1
D) -3
Match the items of column 1 and Column2 Answer:
column 2 in the following questions
and mark the correct option (for Q1 to
Q3 below)

Column1

a)Pb3O4 1) Neutral Oxide B

b) N2O 2) Acetic Oxide

c) Mn2O7 3) Basic Oxide

d) Bi2O3 4) Mixed oxide

A .a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4
B .a) 4 b) 1 c) 2 d) 3
C .a) 3 b) 2 c) 4 d) 1
D .a) 4 b) 3 c) 1 d) 2

1. Column1 Column2 Answer

a) H2SO4 1) Highest electron gain enthalpy A

b) CCl3NO2
2) Chalcogen

c) Cl2 3) Tear gas

d) Sulphur 4) storage batteries

A) a) 4 b) 3 c) 1 d) 2
B) a) 3 b) 4 c) 1 d) 2
C) a) 4 b) 1 c) 2 d) 3
D) a) 2 b)1 c)3 d) 4
 1. COLUMN1 COLUMN 2 Answer

1.CUO+ NH3 a) nitric oxide (NO) GAS evolved A

2. CU + HNO3 conc b) CO2 gas evolved

3.CU + HNO3 dil c) N2 gas evolved

4. ZnS + O3 d) Oxygen gas evolved

A)1-c 2-e 3-a 4-d e) NO2 gas evolved

B)1-d 2-c 3-b 4-a
C)1-c 2-b 3-a 4-e
D)1-e 2-c 3-b 4-a
1. HALOALKANES AND HALOARENES(1) A)
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS:
Which of the following compounds can yield only one mono
chlorinated product upon free radical chlorination?
(a) 2, 2-Dimethylpropane
(b) 2-Methylpropane
(c) 2-Methylbutane
(d) n-Butane

2. The negative part of the addendum (the molecule to be added) adds C)

on the carbon atom of the double bond containing the least number
of hydrogen atoms. This rule is known as
(a) Saytzeffs rule
(b) Peroxide rule
(c) Markovnikov’s rule
(d) van’t hoff rule

3. Which of the following compounds has the highest boiling point? B)

(a)CH3CH2CH2Cl
(b) CH3CH2CH2CH2Cl
(c) CH3CH(CH3)CH2Cl
(d) (CH3)3CCl

4. SN1 reaction of alkyl halides lead to B)

(a) Retention of configuration
(b) Racemisation
(c) Inversion of configuration
(d) None of these

5. Fitting reaction can be used to prepare C)

(a) Toluene
(b) Acetophenone
(c) Diphenyl
(d) Chlorobenzene

6. p-dichlorobenzene has higher melting point than its o- and m- B)

isomers because
(a) p-dichlorobenzene is more polar than o- and m- isomer.
(b) p-isomer has a symmetrical crystalline structure.
(c) boiling point of p-isomer is more than o-and m-isomer.
(d) All of these are correct reasons.

7. Identify the end product (C) in the following sequence: C)

8. The reaction of toluene with chlorine in presence of FeCl3 gives A)
predominantly.
(a) a mixture of o-and p-chlorotoluene
(b) benzyl chloride
(c) m-chlorotuluene
(d) benzoyl chloride

9. Arrange the following compounds in-decreasing order of their boiling B)

points
(i) CH3Br
(ii) CH3CH2Br
(iii) CH3CH2CH2Br
(iv) CH2CH2CH2CH2Br
(a) (i) > (ii) > (iii) > (iv)
(b) (iv) > (iii) > (ii) > (i)
(c) (i) > (iii) > (ii) > (iv)
(d) (iii) > (iv) > (i) > (ii)

10. Alkyl halides are insoluble in water though they are polar because C)
(a) they react with water to give alcohols
(b) C -X bond cannot be broken easily
(c) they cannot form hydrogen bonds with water
(d) they are stable compounds and are not reactive

11. Methyl bromide reacts with AgF to give methyl fluoride and silver B)
bromide. This reaction is called
(a) Fittig reaction
(b) Swartz reaction
(c) Wurtz reaction
(d) Finkelstein reaction

12. In SN2 reactions with the sequence of bond breaking and bond C)
formation is as follows
(a) bond breaking is followed by formation
(b) bond formation is followed by breaking
(c) bond breaking and formation are simultaneously
(d) bond breaking and formation take place randomly

13. Which of the following is the most reactive towards nucleophilic A)

substitution reaction?
(a) ClCH2– CH = CH2
(b) CH2 = CH-Cl
(c) CH3CH = CH-Cl
(d) C6H5Cl
14. The order of reactivity of following alcohols with halogen acid (HX) is B)
(i) CH3 —CH2 —CH2 —OH
(ii) CH3—CH2 —CH—OH

CH3

CH3

(iii) C6H5—CH2—C—OH

CH3
(a) i > ii > iii
(b) iii > ii > i
(c) ii > i > iii
(d) i > iii > ii

15. Which of the following statements are correct? C)

(a) Benzyl halides are less reactive than vinyl and aryl halides
(b) Vinyl halides are more reactive than alkyl halides
(c) Aryl halides are less reactive than alkyl halide
(d) Aryl halides are more reactive than benzyl halides

16. Which reagent will you use for the following reaction? A)
CH3CH2CH2CH3 → CH3CH2CH2CH2Cl + CH3CH2CH(Cl)CH3
(a)Cl2 /UV light
(b)NaCl + H2SO4
(c)Cl2 gas in dark
(d)Cl2 gas in the presence of iron in dark

17. Chlorobenzene is formed by reaction of chlorine with benzene in the B)

presence of AlCl3. Which of the following species attacks the
benzene ring in this reaction?
(a)Cl –
(b)Cl +
(c)AlCl3
(d) [AlCl4 ] –

18. Match the items of column 1 and column 2 B)

Column1 Column 2
(A) CH2 Cl2 P. Antiseptic
(B) CCl4 Q. Insecticide
(C) (p-Cl C6H4)2CHCCl3 R. Pyrene
(D) CHI3 S. Refrigerent
(a) A–R, B–Q, C–S, D–P
(b) A–S, B–R, C–Q, D–P
 (c) A–Q, B–P, C–S, D–R
(d) A–P, B–S, C–R, D–Q

19. Match the items of column 1 and column 2 C)

Column1 Column 2
(A) CH3 —CH—CH3 P. Aryl halide
X
(B) C6H5—X Q. Alkyl halide
(C) CH2 =CH—CH2—X R. Vinyl halide
(D) CH2 =CH—X S. Allyl halide

(a) A–P, B–Q, C–S, D–P

(b) A–S, B–R, C–Q, D–P
(c) A–Q, B–P, C–S, D–R
(d) A–P, B–S, C–R, D–Q

20. Match the items of Column I and Column II. A)

Column I Column II
(i) SN1 reaction (a) vic-dibromides
(ii) Chemicals in fire extinguisher (b) Saytzeff rule
(iii) Bromination of alkenes (c) Racemisation
(iv) Elimination of HX from alkyl halide (d) Chlorobromocarbons

(i) - (c) (ii) - (d) (iii) - (a) (iv) - (b)

(i) - (b) (ii) - (d) (iii) - (c) (iv) - (a)
(i) - (c) (ii) - (a) (iii) - (d) (iv) - (b)
(i) - (a) (ii) - (d) (iii) - (c) (iv) - (b)
1. HALOALKANES and HALOARENES(2) c)
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS (MCQs):
In the following questions four options are given. Select one
correct option.
C2H5Cl + KCN -----> X + KCl and
C2H5Cl + AgCN -----> Y + AgCl
The wrong statement regarding X and Y is
(a) In X the CN- group is linked to ethyl carbon through the carbon
(b)In Y the CN- group is linked to ethyl carbon through the nitrogen
(c)X and Y are position isomers
(d)X is propionitrile and Y is propioisonitrile

2. Compound A reacts with PCl5 to give B which on treatment with c)

KCN followed by hydrolysis gave propanoic acid. What are A and B
respectively
(a)C3H8 and C3H7Cl
(b)C2H6 and C2H5Cl
(c)C2H5OH and C2H5Cl
(d)C2H5OH and C2H4Cl2

3. CH3- Cl + AgF ----> CH3-F + AgBr. The reaction is called as a)

(a)Swarts reaction
(b)Finkelstein reaction
(c)Groove’s reaction
(d)Wurtz reaction

4. Among the isomeric alkanes of the molecular formula C5H12, the b)

one which gives a single monochloride on photochemical chlorination
is
(a)2-Methyl butane
(b(2,2-Dimethyl propane
(c)n- Pentane
(d)Isopentane

5. Most reactive halide towards SN1 reaction is d)

(a)n- Butyl chloride
(b)sec- Butyl chloride
(c)tert-Butyl chloride
(d)Allyl chloride

6. C2H5Cl aqKOH A Na B C2H5Cl C. In this d)

_________>. __________>
reaction C is
(a)C2H5OH
(b)C2H5ONa
(c)C4H10
(d)C2H5-O-C2H5
7. Which of the following isomers has the highest melting point? c)
(a)1,2- Dichlorobenzene
(b)1,3- Dichlorobenzene
(c)1,4- Dichlorobenzene
(d)All isomers have the same melting points

8. Which reagents are required for the one step conversion of a)

chlorobenzene to toluene?
(a)CH3Cl, Na, Dry ether
(b)CH3Cl/ AlCl3
(c)CH3Cl/Fe dark
(d)NaNO2/HCl/ 0-50 C

9. Tertiary alkyl halides are practically inert to substitution by SN2 d)

mechanism because of
(a)Insolubility
(b)Inductive effect
(c)Instability
(d)Steric hinderance

10. In which of the followinghalides Csp2 –X bond is present? b)

(a)Allyl halide
(b)Aryl halide
(c)Benzyl halide
(d)Alkyl halide

11. The correct increasing order of boiling points for the following is: b)
(a)RCl < RF < RI < RBr
(b)RF < RCl < RBr < RI
(c)RI < RBr < RCl < RF
(d)RCl < RBr < RI < RF

12. IUPAC name of CH2 = CH- CH2Cl is d)

(a)Allyl chloride
(b)Vinyl chloride
(c)1- Chloro-3-propene
(d)3-Chloro-1-propene

13. a)
C3H8 + Cl2 UV light ____> C3H7Cl + HCl is an example of
(a)Free radical substitution
(b)Free radical addition
(c)Electrophilic addition
(d)Electrophilic substitution

14. The best method for conversion of an alcohol into an alkyl chloride is c)
by treating alcohol with
(a)PCl5
 (b)Dry HCl + anhyd. ZnCl2
(c)SOCl2 in presence of pyridine
(d)PCl3

15. Which of the following reactions is an example of nucleophilic d)

substitution reaction?
(a)RX + H2 ______> RH + HX
(b)RX + Mg Ether RMgX
_________>
(c)2 RX + 2 Na Ether R – R + 2 NaX
_______>
(d)RX + aq KOH______>R-OH + KX

16. Which among MeX, RCH2X, R2CHX and R3CX is most reactive a)
towards SN2 reaction?
(a)MeX
(b)R3CX
(c)R2CHX
(d)RCH2X

17. Racemic mixture has a)

(a)Equimolar mixture of enantiomers
(b)1:1 mixture of enantiomers and diastereomers
(c)1:1 mixture of diastereomers
(d)1:2 mixture of enantiomer and diastereomers

18. Which of the following compounds is optically active? b)

(a)(CH3)2CHOH
(b)CH3CHClCOOH
(c)CH3CH2CH2CH3
(d)(CH3)3CCl

19. An alkyl halide forms its Grignard reagent followed by treating with c)
water yields propane. The original alkyl halide is
(a)Methyl iodide
(b)Ethyl bromide
(c)Propyl bromide
(d)Butyl bromide

20. Haloarenes are ortho and para directing due to c)

(a)+ I effect of halogen atom
(b)– I effect of halogen atom
(c)Resonance in aryl halides
(d)Both b and c
II. Match the items of Column 1 and column 2. Answers:

1) Column 1 Column 2 i-e

i)Saytzeff rule a) Racemic mixture ii-d
ii)Markonikovv’s rule b) 2,4,6 -Trinitrophenol iii-a
iii)SN1 reaction c) gem- dihalide iv-f
iv)SN2 reaction d) Addition of HBr to propene v-b
v)Picric acid e) Dehydrohalogenation of alkyl halides vi-c
vi)Alkylidene halide f) Inversion in configuration

2) Match the items of Column 1 and column 2. Answers:

Column 1 Column 2 i-d

i)C6H5CH2Cl a) Vinyl halide ii-c
ii)C6H5Cl b) Alkyl halide iii-e
iii)CH2=CH-CH2-Cl c) Aryl halide iv-a
iv)CH2=CH-Cl d) Benzyl halide v-b
v)CH3CH2Cl e) Allyl halide

3) Match the items of Column 1 and column 2.

Column 1 Column 2 i-c

i) 2R-X Na, D.E R-R a) Carbocation intermediate ii-d
ii)R- X + R-ONa ____> R –O-R b) Electrophilic addition iii-e
iii)SN1 reaction c)Wurtz reaction iv-a
iv)SN2 reaction d) Williamson’s synthesis v-f
v)Halogenation of alkanes in e)Takes place in one step the vi-b
presence of sunlight
vi)Bromination of alkene in dark f) Free radical substitution
 HALOALKANES AND HALOARENES(3) ii)
CASE-BASED/PASSAGE-BASED INTEGRATED QUESTIONS
1. Observe the histogram related by comparison of boiling points of
some alkyl halides and answer the questions that follow:
Melting and boiling points: Methyl chloride, methyl bromide, ethyl
chloride and some chlorofluoromethanes are gases at room temperature.
Higher members are liquids or solids. As we have already learnt,
molecules of organic halogen compounds are generally polar. Due to
greater polarity as well as higher molecular mass as compared to the
parent hydrocarbon, the intermolecular forces of attraction (dipole-dipole
and van der Waals) are stronger in the halogen derivatives. That is why
the boiling points of chlorides, bromides and iodides are considerably
higher than those of the hydrocarbons of comparable molecular mass.
The attractions get stronger as the molecules get bigger in size and have
more electrons. The pattern of variation of boiling points of different
halides is depicted in Fig.

1.
For the same alkyl group, the boiling points of alkyl halides decrease in
the order: RI> RBr> RCl> RF. This is because with the increase in size
and mass of halogen atom, the magnitude of van der Waal forces
increases.
Q.1) Name the alkyl halides in gaseous state.
i) CH3CH2Br
ii) CH3CH2Cl
iii) CH3I
iv) CH3CH2CH2Cl
Ans. (ii)

2. Q.2) Why do alkyl iodides have highest boiling points among alkyl iv)
halides?
i) It is due to higher molar mass ii) It is due to
 bigger size
iii) It is due to more van der Waals’ forces of attraction.
iv) All the above
Ans. (iv)

3. Q.3) Which of the following have highest boiling point? i)

i) CH3CH2CH2CH2Cl
ii) CH3CH2CH2Cl
iii) CH3Cl
iv) CH3CH2Cl
Ans. (i)
As the carbon chain increases, surface area increases, van der Waals’
forces of attraction increases, hence boiling point increases

4. Q.4) Arrange the following compounds in increasing order of their boiling iii)
points.
(a) (CH3)2CHCH2Br
(b) CH3CH2CH2CH2Br
(c) (CH3)3CBr
(i) (b) < (a) < (c) (ii) (a) < (b) < (c)
(iii) (c) < (a) < (b) (iv) (c) < (b) < (a)
Ans: (iii)
As the number of branches increases, the surface area decreases.
Hence boiling points
decreases with branching.

5. Q.5) Which of the following set of arrangement is correct in order of iv)

increasing boiling points?
i) Bromomethane, Bromoform, Chloromethane,
Dibromomethane.
ii) Bromoform, Chloromethane, Dibromomethane,
Bromomethane
iii) Chloromethane, Dibromomethane, Bromomethane,
Bromoform
iv) Chloromethane, Bromomethane, Dibromomethane,
Bromoform
Ans: (iv)
As molar mass increases, the boiling point also increases.
2. Read the passage given below and answer the following C)
questions:
Nucleophilic substitution reaction of halo alkane can be conducted
according to both SN 1 and SN 2 mechanisms. However, which
mechanism it is based on is related to such factors as the structure of
halo alkane, and properties of leaving group, nucleophilic reagent and
solvent.
Influences of halogen: No matter which mechanism the nucleophilic
substitution reaction is based on; the leaving group always leave the
central carbon atom with electron pair. This is just the opposite of the
situation that nucleophilic reagent attacks the central carbon atom with
electron pair. Therefore, the weaker the alkalinity of leaving group is , the
more stable the anion formed is and it will be more easier for the leaving
group to leave the central carbon atom; that is to say, the reactant is
more easier to be substituted. The alkalinity order of halogen ion is I− <
Br− < Cl− < F− and the order of their leaving tendency should be I− > Br−
> Cl− > F−. Therefore, in four halides with the same alkyl and different
halogens, the order of substitution reaction rate is RI > RBr > RCl > RF.
In addition, if the leaving group is very easy to leave, many carbocation
intermediates are generated in the reaction and the reaction is based on
SN 1 mechanism. If the leaving group is not easy to leave, the reaction is
based on SN 2 mechanism.
Influences of solvent polarity: In SN 1 reaction, the polarity of the system
increases from the reactant to the transition state, because polar solvent
has a greater stabilizing effect on the transition state than the reactant,
thereby reduce activation energy and accelerate the reaction.
In SN 2 reaction, the polarity of the system generally does not change
from the reactant to the transition state and only charge dispersion
occurs. At this time, polar solvent has a great stabilizing effect on Nu
than the transition state, thereby increasing activation energy and slow
down the reaction rate. In a word, the level of solvent polarity has
influence on both SN 1 and SN 2 reactions, but with different results.
Generally speaking, weak polar solvent is favorable for SN 2 reaction,
while strong polar solvent is favorable for SN 1 reaction, because only
under the action of polar solvent can halogenated hydrocarbon
dissociate into carbocation and halogen ion and solvents with a strong
polarity is favorable for solvation of carbocation, increasing its stability.
Generally speaking, the substitution reaction of tertiary halo alkane is
based on SN 1 mechanism in solvents with a strong polarity (for
example, ethanol containing water).
The following questions are multiple choice questions.
Choose the most appropriate answer:
Q. 1. SN1 mechanism is favored in which of the following solvents:
(A) benzene
(B) carbon tetrachloride
(C) acetic acid
(D) carbon disulphide
Ans. Option (C) is correct
1.

2. Q. 2. Nucleophilic substitution will be fastest in case of: B)

(A) 1-Chloro-2,2-dimethyl propane
(B) 1-Iodo-2,2-dimethyl propane
(C) 1-Bromo-2,2-dimethyl propane
(D) 1-Fluoro-2,2-dimethyl propane
Ans. Option (B) is correct.

3. Q. 3. SN 1 reaction will be fastest in which of the following solvents? C)

(A) Acetone (dielectric constant 21)
(B) Ethanol (dielectric constant 24)
(C) Methanol (dielectric constant 32)
(D) Chloroform (dielectric constant 5)
Ans. Option (C) is correct.

4. Q. 4. Polar solvents make the reaction faster as they: D)

(A) destabilize transition state and decrease the activation energy
(B) destabilize transition state and increase the activation energy
(C) stabilize transition state and increase the activation energy
(D) stabilize transition state and decrease the activation energy
Ans. Option (D) is correct.

5. Q. 5. SN1 reaction will be fastest in case of: B)

(A) 1-Chloro-2-methyl propane
(B) 1-Iodo-2-methyl propane
(C) 1-Chlorobutane
(D) 1-Iodobutane
Ans. Option (B) is correct.
1. 3. Read the passage given below and answer the following B)
questions:
The substitution reaction of alkyl halides occurs in SN1 or SN2
mechanism whatever mechanism alkyl halide follow for substitution
reaction to occur; the polarity of the carbon-halogen bond is responsible
for the substitution reaction. The rate of SN1 reactions is governed by the
stability of carbocation where as for SN2 reactions steric factor is the
deciding factor. If the starting material is a chiral compound, we may end
up with an inverted product or racemic mixture depending upon the type
of mechanism followed by alkyl halide.
Aryl halides are extremely less reactive towards nucleophilic substitution
reactions due to the following reasons:
(i) In haloarenes, the electron pairs on halogen atom are in conjugation
with π-electrons of the ring. (ii) In haloalkane, the carbon atom attached
to halogen is sp3 hybridized while in case of haloarene, the carbon atom
attached to halogen is sp2 -hybridized.
(iii) In case of haloarenes, the phenyl cation formed as a result of
self-ionization will not be stabilized by resonance.
The following questions are Multiple Choice Questions. Choose the most
appropriate answer:
Q. 1. A primary alkyl halide would prefer to undergo ________.
(A) SN1 reaction
(B) SN2 reaction
(C) α-Elimination
(D) Racemization
Ans. Option (B) is correct.

2. Q. 2. Which of the following alkyl halides will undergoes SN1 reaction D)

most readily?
(A) (CH3)3C—F
(B) (CH3)3C—Cl
(C) (CH3)3C—Br
(D) (CH3)3C—I
Ans. Option (D) is correct

3. Q. 3. Which of the following statements are correct about the reaction C)

intermediate in SN1
reaction?
(A) Intermediate is unstable because in this carbon is attached to 5
atoms.
(B) Intermediate is unstable because carbon atom is sp2 hybridized.
(C) Intermediate is stable because carbon atom is sp2 hybridized.
(D) Intermediate is more stable than the reactant.
Ans. Option (C) is correct.
4. Q. 4. Reaction of C6H5CH2Br with aqueous sodium hydroxide A)
follows_______.
(A) SN1 mechanism (B) SN2 mechanism
(C) Any of the above two depending upon the temperature of reaction
(D) Saytzeff rule.
Ans. Option (A) is correct.

5. Q.5. Molecules whose mirror image is non-superimposable over them A)

are known as chiral.
Which of the following molecules is chiral in nature?
(A)2-Bromobutane
(B)1-Bromobutane
(C) 2-Bromopropane
(D) 2-Bromopropan-2-ol
Ans. Option (A) is correct.

1. 4.Read the given passage and answer the questions that follow: A)

Halo alkanes are colorless (when pure), sweet smelling liquids. CH3Cl,
CH3Br and C2H5Cl and freons are gases. Boiling point increases with
increase in molecular weight and increase in carbon chain and
decreases with branching. They are insoluble in water due to inability to
form H-bonds with water. Dipole moment increases with polarity, density
increases with increase in molar mass. They are non-inflammable,
therefore, CCl4 is used as fire extinguisher under the name pyrene.
p-dichloro benzene has zero dipole moment, higher melting point than
o-dichloro benzene due to symmetry, fits into crystal lattice readily. Halo
alkanes undergo nucleophilic substitution reaction by SN2 mechanism,
1° > 2° > 3°, SN1 if carbocation formed is stable. They also undergo
nucleophilic elimination reactions with alcoholic KOH. Haloarenes are
less reactive than halo alkanes towards nucleophilic substitution due to
resonance. Haloarenes undergo electrophilic substitution reaction like
nitration, sulphonation, Friedel Crafts alkylation, acylation. Chloroform is
used as solvent, Freon is used as refrigerant, dichloromethane is used
as paint remover. Iodoform is used as antiseptic. DDT is insecticide but
non-biodegradable.

Q.1. Arrange R—F, R—Br, R—I, R—Cl in increasing order of boiling

point.
(A)R—F < R—Cl < R—Br < R—I
(B)R—Cl < R—Br < R—I <R—F
(C)R—Br < R—I <R—F< R—Cl
(D)R—I <R—F< R—Cl <R—Br
Ans. A
2. Q.2. Name the chlorine containing drug used in treatment of coronavirus B) or C)
and malaria.
(A)Chloroquin
(B)Hydroxychloroquin
(C)Pencillin
(D)Pyrene
Ans. B
(OR)
Which of the following have highest boiling point?
(A) CH3CH2Br
(B) CH3CH2Cl
(C) CH3CH2CH2I
(D) CH3CH2CH2F
Ans: (C)
As the size of halogen atom increases the boiling points also increase
due to more molar mass.

3. Q.3. Toluene reacts with a halogen in the presence of iron (III) chloride B)
giving ortho and para halo compounds. The reaction is
(A)Electrophilic elimination reaction
(B) Electrophilic substitution reaction
(C) Free radical addition reaction
(D) Nucleophilic substitution reaction
Ans. B

4. Q4. What is the stereochemistry of the product formed if (+) C)

2-bromopentane reacts with aqueous KOH by SN2 mechanism.
(A)(-) (+) 2-pentanol
(B)(+) 2-pentanolA)
(C)(-) 2-pentanol
(D)None of the above.
Ans. C

5. Q5. Out of the following which one undergoes SN1 mechanism faster? A)
(A) CH2=CH—CH2Cl
(B) CH3CH2CH2Cl
(C) (CH3)2CHCl
(D) CH3CH2CH2Cl
Ans. (A) CH2=CH—CH2Cl because CH2=CH—CH2⊕ is more stable
due to resonance
 Assertion and Reason Type Questions ii)
Note: In the following questions a statement of assertion followed
by a statement of reason is given. Choose the correct answer out
of the following choices.
(i) Assertion and reason both are correct and reason is correct
explanation of assertion.
(ii) Assertion and reason both are wrong statements.
(iii) Assertion is correct but reason is wrong statement.
(iv) Assertion is wrong but reason is correct statement.
(v) Assertion and reason both are correct statements but reason is not
correct explanation of assertion.
1. Assertion: Phosphorus chlorides (tri and penta) are preferred over
thionyl chloride for the preparation of alkyl chlorides from alcohols.
Reason: Phosphorus chlorides give pure alkyl halides.

1.

2. 2. Assertion: The boiling points of alkyl halides decrease in the order: RI V)

> RBr > RCl > RF
Reason: The boiling points of alkyl chlorides, bromides and iodides are
considerably higherthan that of the hydrocarbon of comparable
molecular mass.

3. 3. Assertion: KCN reacts with methyl chloride to give methyl isocyanide iv)
Reason: CN – is an ambident nucleophile.

4. 4. Assertion: tert-Butyl bromide undergoes Wurtz reaction to give 2, 2, 3, i)

3- tetramethylbutane.
Reason: In Wurtz reaction, alkyl halides react with sodium in dry
ether to give hydrocarbon containing double the number of carbon
atoms present in the halide.

5. 5. Assertion: Presence of a nitro group at ortho or para position i)

increases the reactivity of haloarenes towards nucleophilic substitution.
Reason: Nitro group, being an electron withdrawing group
decreases the electron density over the benzene ring.

6. 6. Assertion: In monohaloarenes, further electrophilic substitution occurs i)

 at ortho and para positions.
Reason: Halogen atom is activating the benzene ring at ortho and
para positions by resonance effect.

7. 7. Assertion: Aryl iodides can be prepared by reaction of arenes with iii)

iodine in the presence of an oxidising agent.
Reason: Oxidising agent oxidises I2 into HI.

8. 8. Assertion: It is difficult to replace chlorine by –OH in chlorobenzene in i)

comparison to that in chloroethane.
Reason: Carbon- Chlorine (C—Cl) bond in chlorobenzene has a
partial double bond character due to resonance.

9. 9. Assertion: Hydrolysis of (–)2-bromooctane proceeds with formation of i)

racemic mixture.
Reason: This reaction proceeds through the formation of a
carbocation.

10. 10. Assertion: Nitration of chlorobenzene leads to the formation of iv)

m-nitrochlorobenzene
Reason: —NO2 group is a m-directing group.
1. HALOALKANES AND HALOARENES(4) a)
I) Assertion and Reasoning Type questions:
Directions: These questions consist of two statements, each
printed as Assertion and Reason. While answering these
questions, you are required to choose any one of the following four
responses.
(a) Assertion and Reason both are correct and the Reason is a correct
explanation of the Assertion.
(b) Assertion and Reason both are correct but Reason is not a correct
explanation of the Assertion.
(c) Assertion is correct but reason is wrong statement.
(d) Assertion is wrong but reason is correct statement.
1. Assertion: Thionyl chloride is preferred for the preparation of alkyl
chlorides from alcohols.
Reason: Thionyl chloride is preferred because the other two products
are escapable gases.

2. 2. Assertion: The boiling point of 1-Chloropropane is greater than that of b)

Isopropyl chloride.
Reason: As the molecular mass increases magnitude of van der Waal
forces increases.

3. 3. Assertion: Aryl halides can be prepared by reaction of phenol with d)

HCl in the presence of ZnCl2
Reason: The carbon-oxygen bond in phenols has partial double bond
character.

4. 4. Assertion: It is necessary to avoid even traces of moisture during the c)

use of a Grignard reagent.
Reason: Grignard reagents are least reactive.

5. 5. Assertion: Allylic and benzylic halides show high reactivity towards a)

 the SN1 reaction.
Reason: The carbocation formed from them gets stabilized through
resonance.

i) II) Case Study Based Questions: b)

Read the given Passage and answer the following questions:
Passage1. Haloarenes are less reactive than halo alkanes. The low
reactivity of haloarenes can be attributed to
(i) resonance effect
(ii) sp2 hybridisation of C of C - X bond in haloarenes
(iii) polarity of C - X bond
(iv) instability of phenyl cation (formed by self-ionisation of haloarene)
(v) repulsion between the electron rich attacking nucleophiles and
electron rich arenes.

Reactivity of haloarenes towards nucleophilic substitution can be

increased or decreased by the presence of certain groups at certain
positions. For example, nitro (-NO2) group at o- or p- positions
increases the reactivity of haloarenes towards nucleophilic substitution
reactions.
The following questions are multiple choice questions. Choose the most
appropriate answer:
(i) Aryl halides are less reactive towards nucleophilic substitution
reaction as compared to alkyl halides due to
a)the formation of less stable carbocation
b)partial double bond character of C – X bond due to resonance
c)Larger C – X bond length
d) inductive effect.

ii) (ii) Which of the following aryl halides is the most reactive towards d)
nucleophilic substitution?

iii) (iii) Which one of the following will react fastest with aqueous NaOH? c)
iv) iv) The reactivity of the compounds (i) MeBr (ii) PhCH2Br (iii) MeCl d)
(iv) p-MeOC6H4Br towards nucleophilic substitution decreases as
(a) (i) > (ii) >(iii) > (iv)
(b) (iv) > (ii) >(i) > (iii)
(c) (iv) > (iii) >(i) > (ii)
(d) (ii) > (i) > (iii) > (iv)

i) Passage 2: Nucleophilic substitution reactions are of two types; c)

substitution nucleophilic bimolecular (SN2) and substitution nucleophilic
unimolecular (SN1) depending on molecules taking part in determining
the rate of reaction. Reactivity of alkyl halide towards SN1 and SN2
reactions depends on various factors such as steric hindrance, stability
of intermediate or transition state and polarity of solvent. SN2 reaction
mechanism is favoured mostly by primary alkyl halide or transition state
and polarity of solvent, SN2 reaction mechanism is favoured mostly by
primary alkyl halide then secondary and then tertiary. This order is
reversed in case of SN1 reactions.
The following questions are multiple choice question. Choose the most
appropriate answer:
i) Which of the following is most reactive towards nucleophilic
substitution reaction?
(a) C6H5Cl
(b) CH2=CHCl
(c) ClCH2CH=CH2 (d) CH3CH=CHCl

ii) ii) Isopropychloride undergoes hydrolysis by c)

(a) SN1 mechanism
(b) SN2 mechanism
(c) SN1 and SN2 mechanism
(d) neither SN1 nor SN2 mechanism

iii) iii) Tertiary alkyl halides are practically inert to substitution by SN2 d)
mechanism because of
(a) insolubility
(b) instability
(c) inductive effect
 (d) steric hindrance

iv) iv) Which of the following is the correct order of decreasing SN2 a)
reactivity?
(a) RCH2X > R2CHX > R3CX
(b) R3CX > R2CHX >RCH2X
(c) R2CHX >R3CX > RCH2X
(d) RCH2X >R3CX >R2CHX

Passage 3: In haloalkanes, when a nucleophile stronger than the

halide ion approaches the positively charged carbon atom of an alkyl
halide, the halogen atom along with its bonding electron pair gets
displaced and a new bond with the carbon and the nucleophile is
formed. These reactions are called nucleophilic substitution reactions.

In these reactions the atom or group of atoms which loses its bond
from carbon and takes on an additional pair of electrons is called
leaving group. Halide ions are good leaving groups. Some important
nucleophilic substitution reactions of halo alkanes with common
nucleophiles are given in the table below.

S.No Reagent Nucleophile (Nu-) Substitution Class of main

product product
R-Nu

1. NaOH or KOH OH- ROH Alcohol

or moist Ag2O

2. H2O H2O ROH Alcohol

3. NaI I- R-I Alkyl iodide

4. R'NH 2 R′NH2 RNHR' Sec. amine

5. KCN C¯≡N: RCN Nitrile (cyanide)

6. KNO2 O=N-O- R-O-N=O Alkyl nitrite

i) In these questions (i-iv), a statement of assertion followed by a a)

statement of reason is given. Choose the correct answer out of the
following choices.
(a) Assertion and reason both are correct statements and reason is
correct explanation for assertion.
(b) Assertion and reason both are correct statements but reason is not
correct explanation for assertion.
(c) Assertion is correct statement but reason is wrong statement.
(d) Assertion is wrong statement but reason is correct statement.

Assertion: Alkyl halides are hydrolyzed to alcohols by moist silver oxide.

Reason: Hydroxide ion is a stronger nucleophile than halide ion.

ii) Assertion : Alkyl halides form alkenes when heated with alc KOH above c)
300°C.
Reason: Substitution reaction predominates over elimination reaction.

iii) Assertion : RBr reacts with AgNO2 to give nitro alkane. c)

Reason: Silver nitrite (AgNO2) is an ionic compound, therefore the
negative charge on nitrogen is the attacking site.

iv) Assertion: Among CH3CH2I and CH3CH2Cl, ethyl chloride undergoes d)

substitution easily.
Reason: Iodide is a good leaving group compared to chloride ion.

i) PASSAGE 4: When a chemical reaction involves bond cleavage or a)

bond formation at an asymmetric carbon atom, three different products
may be formed. For example, during the substitution of a group X by Y
in the following reaction, the three possible products may be shown
below:
 (i) If B is the only product, the process is called retention of configuration
because B has the same configuration as the starting reactant (A).
(ii) If C is the only product, the process is called inversion of
configuration because C has the configuration opposite to the starting
reactant (A).
(iii) If an equimolar mixture of B and C (i.e., a 50 : 50 mixture) is formed,
then the process is called racemization and the product is optically
inactive because one isomer will rotate the light in the direction opposite
to another.

In these questions (i-iv), a statement of assertion followed by a

statement of reason is given. Choose the correct answer out of the
following choices.
(a) Assertion and reason both are correct statements and reason is
correct explanation for assertion.
(b) Assertion and reason both are correct statements but reason is not
correct explanation for assertion.
(c) Assertion is correct statement but reason is wrong statement.
(d) Assertion is wrong statement but reason is correct statement.

(i) Assertion: SN1 substitution of a 30 alkyl halide produces racemic

mixture.
Reason: A stable planar carbocation is formed as an intermediate in
SN1 substitution.

ii) (ii) Assertion: tert- Butyl iodide undergoes SN2 substitution. d)

Reason: SN2 reactions involves attack by nucleophile from rear side

iii) (iii) Assertion: Optically active 2-iodobutane on treatment with NaI in c)

acetone undergoes recemization.
Reason: Repeated Walden inversions on the reactant and its
product eventually gives a racemic mixture.

iv) (iv) Assertion: SN2reaction of an optically active alkyl halide with an a)

aqueous solution of KOH always gives an alcohol with opposite sign of
rotation.
Reason: SN2 reactions always proceed with inversion of
configuration.

i) PASSAGE 5: Alkyl halides are more polar than alkanes and hence b)
 have more boiling point than those of alkanes. Among alkyl halides
with same alkyl group alkyl iodides have greater boiling point than
other alkyl halides due to their greater size and mass. Among alkyl
chlorides the molar mass increases with increase in bulkiness of alkyl
group and hence boiling point of higher members of alkyl chlorides will
be higher, Among isomeric alkyl chlorides the boiling point increases
with increase in the surface area. Alkyl halides are insoluble in water.

The following questions are multiple choice question. Choose the

most appropriate answer:
i) Which of the following will have highest boiling point?
a) Bromomethane
b) Bromoform
c) Chloromethane
d)Dibromomethane

ii) ii) Among the following which one will have lowest boiling point? b)
a) 1- Chloropropane
b) Isopropyl chloride
c) Isobutyl chloride
d) 1- Chlorobutane

iii) iii) Among the following which one will be soluble in water? d)
a)Chloroethane
b) Ethane
c) Bromopropane
d) Ethyl alcohol

iv) iv) Among the following which one will have highest boiling point? c)
a)Butane
b) Pentane
c) n-Pentyl chloride
d) Isopentane
1. ALCOHOLS,PHENOLS AND ETHERS(1) b)
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS (MCQs):
In the following questions four options are given. Select one
correct option.

1.What happens when tertiary butyl alcohol is passed over heated

copper at 300°C?
(a) Secondary butyl alcohol is formed
(b) 2-methylpropene is formed
(c) 1-butene is formed
(d) Butanol is formed

2. 2.A compound X with the molecular formula C3H8O can be oxidised to c)

another compound Y whose molecular formulae is C3H6O2. The
compound X may be
(a) CH3CH2OCH3
(b) CH3CH2CHO
(c) CH3CH2CH2OH
(d) CH3CHOHCH3

3. 3.The decreasing order of boiling point of the following alcohols is b)

(a) 3-methylbuan-2-ol > 2-methylbutan-2-ol > pentan-1-ol
(b) Pentan-1-ol > 3-methylbutan-2-ol > 2-methylbutan-2-ol
(c) 2-methylbutan-2-ol > 3-methylbutan-2-ol > pentan-1-ol
(d) 2-methylbutan-2-ol > pental-1-ol > 3-methylbutan-2-ol

4. 4.Propanone on reaction with alkyl magnesium bromide followed by c)

hydrolysis will produce
(a) primary alcohol
(b) secondary alcohol
(c) tertiary alcohol
 (d) carboxylic acid

5. 5.Phenol when treated with excess of bromine water gives a white a)

precipitate of
(a) 2, 4, 6-tribromophenol
(b) o-bromophenol
(c) p-bromophenol
(d) bromobenzene

6. 6.The reaction between phenol and chloroform in the presence of c)

aqueous NaOHis
(a) nucleophilic substitution reaction
(b) electrophilic addition reaction
(c) electrophilic substitution reaction
(d) nucleophilic addition reaction

7. 7.The most suitable reagent for the conversion of RCH2OH → RCHO d)

is
(a) K2Cr2O7
(b) CrO3
(c) KMnO4
(d) PCC

8. 8.Tertiary butyl alcohol gives tertiary butyl chlorideon treatment with a)

(a) ConcHCl/anhydrous ZnCl3
(b) KCN
(c) NaOCl
(d) Cl2

9. 9.Conversion of phenol to salicyclic acid and to salicyaldehyde are d)

known as (respectively)
(a) Reimer-Tiemann reaction and Kolbe’s reaction
(b) Williamson’s synthesis and Hydrobration-oxidation
(c) Kolbe’s reaction and Williamson’s synthesis
(d) Kolbe’s reaction and Reimer-Tiemann reaction

10. 10.Benzoquinone is prepared by reaction of phenol with a)

(a) Na2Cr2O7, H2SO4
(b) KMnO4, H2SO4
(c) Na2CrO4,HCl
(d) K2MnO4, H2SO4

11. 11.In the following reaction sequence Z is c)

 (a) butan-1-ol
(b) butan-2-ol
(c) 2-methylpropan-2-ol
(d) 1, 1-dimethylethanol

12. 12.Arrange the following alcohols in order of increasing reactivity c)

towards sodium metal.
(i) (CH3)3C-OH
(ii) (CH3)2CH-OH
(iii) CH3CH2OH
(a) (iii) < (ii) < (i)
(b) (ii) > (i) < (iii)
(c) (i) < (ii) < (iii)
(d) (iii) < (i) < (ii)

13. 13.An unknown alcohol is treated with “Lucas reagent” to determine a)

whether the alcohol is primary, secondary or tertiary. Which alcohol
reacts fastest and by what mechanism?
(a) Tertiary alcohol by SN1
(b) Secondary alcohol by SN1
(c) Tertiary alcohol by SN2
(d) Secondary alcohol by SN2

14. 14.An alcohol X when treated with hot cone. H2SO4 gave an alkene Y b)
with formula C4H8. This alkene on ozonolysis gives single product with
molecular formula C2H4O. The alcohol is
(a) butan-1-ol,
(b) butan-2-ol
(c) 2-methylpropan-1-ol
(d) 2,2-dimethylbutynal-1-oI

15. 15.The compound which gives the most stable carbonium ion on b)
dehydration is
(a) (CH3)2CHCH2OH
(b) (CH3)3COH
(c) CH3CH2CH2CH2OH
(d) CH3CH OH CH2 CH3

16. 16.Which of the following cannot be made by using Williamson d)

Synthesis:
(a) Methoxybenzene
 (b) Benzyl p-nitrophenyl ether
(c) tert. butyl methyl ether
(d) Ditert. butyl ether

17. 17.The I.U.P.A.C. name of the ether CH2 = CH-CH2O CH3 is c)

(a) Alkyl methyl ether
(b) l-Methoxy-2-propene
(c) 3-Methoxy-l-propene
(d) Vinyl dimethyl ether

18. 18.Dehydration of alcohol to ethers is catalysed by a)

(a) conc. H2SO4 at 413 K
(b) Hot NaOH
(c) Hot HBr
(d) Hot HNO3

19. 19.Ethers are b)

(a) Neutral
(b) Basic
(c) Acidic
(d) Amphoteric

20. 20.An ether is more volatile than alcohol having the same molecular a)
formula. This is due to
(a) intermolecular hydrogen bonding in alcohols.
(b) dipolar character of ethers
(c) alcohols, having resonance structures
(d) intermolecular hydrogen bonding in ethers

21. 21.Strength of acidity is in order: b)

 (a) II > I > III > IV
(b) III > IV > I > II
(c) I > IV > III > n
(d) IV > III > I > II

22. 22.During dehydration of alcohols to alkenes by heating with cone. b)

H2SO4 the initial step is
(a) formation of an ester
(b) protonation of alcohol molecule
(c) formation of carbocation
(d) elimination of water

23. a)

(a) CH3CH Br CH3

(b) CH3 CH2 CH2 Br Br

(c) CH2 = CH-Br

(d) Br CH = CH-CH3

24. 24.When Phenol is distilled with zinc dust, it gives a)

(a) Benzene
(b) Toluene
(c) Benzaldehyde
 (d) Benzoic acid

25. 25.In the reaction of phenol with CHCl3 and aqueous NaOH at 343 c)
K, the electrophile attacking the ring is:
(a) CHCl3
(b) CHCl2
(c) CCl2
(d) COCl2

26. 26.Phenol reacts with Br2 in CS2 at low temperature to give b)

(a) o-Bromophenol
(b) o-and p-Bromophenols
(c) p-Bromophenol
(d) 2, 4, 6Tribromophenol

27. 27.1-Propanol and 2-propanol can be best distinguished by c)

(a) Oxidation with KMnO4 followed by reaction with Fehling solution?
(b) Oxidation with acidic dichromate followed by reaction with
Fehling solution.
(c) Oxidation by heating with copper followed by reaction with
Fehling solution.
(d) Oxidation with cone. H2SO4 followed by reaction with Fehling
solution.

28. 28.Ethylene reacts with Baeyer’s reagent to give c)

(a) ethane
(b) ethyl alcohol
(c) ethylene glycol
(d) None of these

29. 29.By which of the following methods alcohol can be prepared in b)

excellent yield?
(a) From alkenes
(b) By hydroboration-oxidation
(c) From carbonyl compounds
(d) From Grignard reagent

30. 30.Lucas reagent is a)

(a) Conc. HCl and anhydrous ZnCl2
(b) Conc. HNO3 and hydrous ZnCl2
(c) Conc. HCl and hydrous ZnCl2
(d) Conc. HNO3 and anhydrous ZnCl2

II. Match the items of Column 1 and column 2. i-d

1. Column 1 Column 2 ii-e
i) PCC a) Neutral FeCl3 iii-a
ii)Lucas reagent b) Conc. HNO3 + Conc. iv-c
 H2SO4 v-b
iii)Reagent for detection of Phenol c) Alkyl magnesium halide
iv)Grignard reagent d) CrO3 + Pyridine + HCl
v)Nitration mixture e) Conc. HCl + anhydrous
ZnCl2

2. Match the items of Column 1 and column 2. i-c

Column 1 Column 2 ii-e
i)Kolbe’s reaction a) Ethyl alcohol iii-b
ii) Reimer Tiemann reaction b) Alkyl halide to ether iv-a
iii)Williamsons synthesis c) Sodium Phenoxide tosalicylic acid v-d
iv)Fermentation d) Ethylene glycol
v)Antifreeze used
in car engines e) Phenol to salicylaldehyde

3. Match the items of Column 1 and column 2 i-d

Column 1 Column 2 ii-e
i) Ethanol to ethene a) PCC iii-f
ii) Ethene to ethanol b) tert- Butyl alcohol iv-a
iii) Oxidation of propan-1-ol v-c
with alk KMnO4 c) Picric acid vi-b
iv) Oxidation of 10 alcohol
to aldehyde d) Conc. H2SO4 /1800 C
v) Phenol, Conc. HNO3 e) H2O/ H+
vi) Acetone, CH3MgBr, H2O f) Propanoic acid

Alcohols, Phenols and Ethers(2) Answers:

1. Match the items of Column 1 and column 2. C)

Sl.No. Column 1. Column 2 i-r
i. Isopropyl benzene p. Anisole ii- s
ii. Benzene-1,2-diol q. Salicylic acid iii- q
iii. o-hydroxybenzoic acid r. Cumene iv- t
iv. 2,4,6-trinitrophenol s. Catechol v- p
v. Methoxy benzene t. Picric acid

(a) i-r , ii-s, iii-p , iv-t , v-q

(b) i-r , ii-q, iii-p , iv-t , v-s
(c) i-r , ii-s, iii-q , iv-t , v-p
(d) i-r , ii-s, iii-t , iv-q , v-p
1. MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS (MCQs): d)
In the following questions four options are given. Select one
correct option.
1. The ether
reacts with HI to form

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

2. d)

The IUPAC name of o is

(a)Pent-2-yn-4-ol
(b)Pent-3-yne-2-ol
(c)Pent-3-yn-4-ol
(d)Pent-3-yn-2-ol

3. The major product obtained on heating excess of ethanol with b)

Conc.H2SO4 at 413K is
(a)CH2=CH2
(b)(C2H5)2O
(c)But-2-ene
(d)(CH3CH2)2SO4

4. Identify D in the following reaction sequence c)

(a)n-butylalcohol
(b)Propanal
(c)n-propylalcohol
 (d)Butanal

5. The most acidic among the following is c)

(a)

(b)
 (c)

(d)

6. Correct statements in case of n-butanol and t-butanol are: b)

(i) both are having equal solubility in water
(ii) t-butanol is more soluble in water than n-butanol
(iii) boiling point of t-butanol is lower than n-butanol
(iv) boiling point of n-butanol is lower than t-butanol
(a) Only (iii)
(b)Both (ii) and (iii)
(c)Both (iii) and (iv)
(d)(i), (iii) and (iv)

7. Which of the following alcohols has the highest vapour pressure at c)

room temperature?
(a)n-butyl alcohol
(b)sec-butyl alcohol
(c)tert-butyl alcohol
(d)iso-butyl alcohol

8. Which of the following forms the least stable carbocation? b)

(a)(CH3)3COH
(b)CH2=CH-OH
(c)CH2=CHCH2OH
(d)C6H5CH2OH

9. Though the molecular mass of ethanol and propane is same, the c)

boiling point of ethanol is higher than propane, this is because
(a)Ethanol is polar and propane is non polar
(b)Ethanol involves in intermolecular hydrogen bonding but propane
doesn’t
(c)Both (a) and (b)
(d)Only (b)

10. Aspirin is obtained by acetylation of a)

 (a)o-hydroxy benzoic acid
(b)m-hydroxy benzoic acid
(c)o-dihydroxy benzene
(d)p-dihydroxy benzene

11. The common name of Benzene-1,3-diol is c)

(a)Catechol
(b)Quinol
(c)Resorcinol
(d)glycerol

12. The correct order of decreasing acid strength of the following b)

compounds is

(a)V > IV > II > I > III

(b)II > IV > I > III > V
(c)IV > V > III > II > I
(d)II > IV > III > V > I

13. Which of the following will not produce an ether by Williamson a)

synthesis

(a)

(b)
 (c )

(d)

14. Identify Y in the following reaction sequence b)

(a)Benzene
(b)Benzaldehyde
(c)Phenol
(d)None of these

15. c)

In the reaction the products formed are

(c)

. (a)
 (d)
(

16. Which of the following statements is not correct? c)

(a)Phenol is used to prepare analgesic drugs
(b)Solubility of phenol in water is more than that of chlorobenzene
(c)Phenol is neutralised by sodium carbonate
(d)Boiling point of o-nitrophenol is Lower than that of p-nitrophenol

17. Carbolic acid is d)

(a)C6H5CHO
(b)C6H6
(c)C6H5COOH
(d)C6H5OH

18. Alcohols are d)

(a)Bronsted acids
(b)Lewis base
(c)Reducing agents
(d)All of (a), (b) and ©

19. The correct order of acid strength of the following substituted phenol c)
in water is
(a)p-nitrophenol<p-fluorophenol<p-chlorophenol
(b)p-chlorophenol < p-fluorophenol < p-nitrophenol
(c)p-fluorophenol < p-chlorophenol < p-nitrophenol
(d)p-fluorophenol < p-nitrophenol < p-chlorophenol

20. The major product in the following reaction is a)

1. ALCOHOLS, PHENOLS AND ETHERS(3) d)
I) Assertion and Reasoning Type questions:
Directions: These questions consist of two statements, each
printed as Assertion and Reason. While answering these
 questions, you are required to choose any one of the following
four responses.
(a) Assertion and Reason both are correct and the Reason is a correct
explanation of the Assertion.
(b) Assertion and Reason both are correct but Reason is not a correct
explanation of the Assertion.
(c) Assertion is correct but reason is wrong statement.
(d) Assertion is wrong but reason is correct statement.
1.Assertion: PKavalue of Ortho-nitrophenol is more than
ortho-methoxyphenol.
Reason: NO2 group is an electron withdrawing group while methoxy
group is electron donating in nature..
Answer: d

2. 2.Assertion: Phenol is more reactive than benzene towards a)

electrophilic substitution reactions.
Reason: -OH group in phenols is electron donating ring activating
group.

3. 3.Assertion: The boiling point of ethanol is more than that of methoxy c)

methane,
Reason: In ethanol intramolecular hydrogen bonding is present.

4. 4.Assertion: (CH3)3C-O-CH3 on reaction with HI gives (CH3)3C-I. a)

Reason: The reaction takes place by SN1 mechanism.

5. 5.Assertion: Oxidation of ethyl alcohol with acidified potassium d)

permanganate produces aldehydes.
Reagent: Acidified potassium permanganate is a strong oxidizing
agent.

1. II) Case Study Based Questions: a)

Read the given Passage and answer the following questions:
PASSAGE 1: In alcohols, the oxygen of the –OH group is attached to
carbon by a sigma (σ) bond formed by the overlap of a sp3 hybridized
orbital of carbon with a sp3 hybridized orbital of oxygen. The bond
angle in alcohols is slightly less than the tetrahedral angle. In phenols,
the –OH group is attached to sp2 hybridized carbon of an aromatic
ring. In ethers, the four electron pairs, i.e., the two bond pairs and two
lone pairs of electrons on oxygen are arranged approximately in a
tetrahedral arrangement.

1. The bond angle in alcohols is less than the tetrahedral angle

because of
a) Repulsion of electron pairs on oxygen
 b) Difference in hybridization
c)High electronegativity of oxygen
d) Repulsion between the bulky alkyl groups

2. 2. The C-O bond length in phenol is less than that in methanol d)

because of
a) Partial double bond character
b) conjugation of unshared electron pair of oxygen with the aromatic
ring
c)sp2 hybridized state of carbon to which oxygen is attached
d) All of these.

3. 3. The C–O bond length in ether is a)

a) Same as that in alcohols
b) Greater than that of alcohols
c)Less than that in alcohols
d) None of these.

4. 4. Identify the incorrect statement b)

a) The bond angle in ether is greater than tetrahedral angle.
b) The bond angle in ether is less than tetrahedral angle.
c)There is strong repulsive interaction between the two bulky (–R)
groups in ether.
d)The C-O bonds in ethers are polar.

i) PASSAGE 2: A compound (X) containing C, H and O is unreactive d)

towards sodium. It also does not react with Schiff’s reagent. On
refluxing with an excess of hydroiodic acid, (X) yields only one organic
product (Y). On hydrolysis, (Y) yields a new compound (Z) which can
be converted into (Y) by reaction with red phosphorous and iodine.
The compound (Z) on oxidation with potassium permanganate gives a
carboxylic acid. The equivalent weight of this acid is 60.
The following questions are multiple choice question. Choose the most
appropriate answer:
(i) The compound (X) is an
(a) acid
(b) aldehyde
(c) alcohol
(d) ether

ii) ii) The IUPAC name of the acid formed is b)

(a) methanoic acid
(b) ethanoic acid
(c) propanoic acid
(d) (d) butanoic acid

iii) (iii) Compound (Y) is a or b)

(a) ethyl iodide
(b) (b)methyl iodide
 (c) propyl iodide
(d) (d)mixture of (a) and (b)
or
Compound (Z) is
(a) methanol
(b) ethanol
(c) propanol
(d) butanol

iv) (iv) Compound (X) on treatment with excess of Cl2 in presence of light c)
gives
(a) α-chlorodiethyl ether
(b) α, α’-dichlorodiethyl ether
(c) perchlorodiethyl ether
(d) none of these

1. PASSAGE 3: Alcohols and phenols react with active metals such as a)

sodium, potassium and aluminium to yield corresponding alkoxides
/phenoxides and hydrogen. The above reactions show that alcohols
and phenols are acidic in nature. In fact, alcohols and phenols are
Brönsted acids i.e., they can donate a proton to a stronger base (B:).
The acidic character of alcohols is due to the polar nature of O–H
bond.
Alcohols are acidic in nature due to the polar nature of O-H bond but
they are weak acids and donate proton only to a strong base. Alcohols
are weaker acids than water. Phenols are acidic in nature because its
conjugate base i.e phenoxide ion is more resonance stabilized than
phenol.

In these questions (i-iv), a statement of assertion followed by a

statement of reason is given. Choose the correct answer out of the
following choices.
(a) Assertion and reason both are correct statements and reason is
correct explanation for assertion.
(b) Assertion and reason both are correct statements but reason is not
correct explanation for assertion.
(c) Assertion is correct statement but reason is wrong statement.
(d) Assertion is wrong statement but reason is correct statement.
1. Assertion : p-nitrophenol is more acidic than phenol.
Reason : Nitro group helps in the stabilisation of the phenoxide ion
by dispersal of negative charge due to resonance.

2. 2 Reason: Alkoxide ions are not stabilised by resonance. d)

Assertion: Alcohols are better proton donors than water.

3. 3. Assertion: o-cresol is less acidic than phenol. a)

Reason: Alkyl groups due to its +I effect destabilises the phenoxide
ion and decreases the acidity.
4. 4. Assertion: Ethanol is a weaker acid than phenol. c)
Reason: Alkoxide ion is stabilised by resonance while phenoxide ion
is destabilised by resonance.

i). PASSAGE 4: Due to intermolecular hydrogen bonding, the boiling b)

points of alcohols and phenols are much higher than those of
corresponding halo alkanes, haloarenes, aliphatic and aromatic
hydrocarbons. Among isomeric alcohols, the boiling points follow the
order: primary > secondary > tertiary. Boiling points of ethers are
much lower than those of isomeric alcohols. The solubility of alcohols
in water decreases as the molecular mass of alcohols increases. The
solubility of phenols in water is much lower than that of alcohols.
Lower ethers such as dimethyl ether and ethyl methyl ether are
soluble in water, but the solubility decreases as the molecular mass
increases.
In these questions (i-iv) a statement of assertion followed by a
statement of reason is given. Choose the correct answer out of
the following choices.

(a) Assertion and reason both are correct statements and reason is
correct explanation for assertion.
(b) Assertion and reason both are correct statements but reason is
not correct explanation for assertion.
(c) Assertion is correct statement but reason is wrong statement.
(d) Assertion is wrong statement but reason is correct statement.

(i) Assertion: Alcohols have higher boiling points than ethers of

comparable molecular masses.
Reason: Alcohols and ethers are isomeric in nature.

ii). (ii) Assertion: The solubility of phenols in water is much lower than c)
that of alcohols.
Reason: Phenols do not form H-bonds with water.

iii). (iii) Assertion : Among n-butane, ethoxyethane,1-propanol and d)

1-butanol, the increasing order of boiling points is,1-butanol <
1-propanol < ethoxyethane < n-butane.
Reason: Boiling point increases with increase in molecular mass.

iv). (iv) Assertion: Dimethyl ether and diethyl ether are soluble in water. c)
Reason: As the molecular mass increases, solubility of ethers in
water decreases.

1. PASSAGE 5: Ethers are the least reactive of the functional groups. a)

The cleavage of C-O bond in ethers takes place under drastic
conditions with excess of hydrogen halides. The reaction of dialkyl
ether gives two alkyl halides. Alkyl aryl ethers are cleaved at the
 alkyl-oxygen bond due to the more stable aryl-oxygen bond. The
order of reactivity of hydrogen halides is as follows: HI >HBr>HCl.
The cleavage of ethers takes place with concentrated HI or HBr at
high temperature.
1.Identify the products in the reaction of anisole with HBr
(a)C6H5OH and CH3Br
(b)C6H5Br and CH3OH
(c)C6H5OH and C2H5Br
(d)C6H5Br and C2H5OH

2. 2. tert-Butyl methyl ether on heating with HI gives a mixture of b)

(a) tert-Butyl alcohol and methyl iodide
(b) tert-Butyl iodide and methanol
(c) Isobutylene and methyl iodide
(d) Isobutylene and methanol.

3. 3. Among the following ethers, which one will produce methyl alcohol a)
on treatment with hot concentrated HI?

(c) CH3-CH2-CH2-CH2-O-CH3

4. 4. Chloroethane reacts with which of the following to give Diethyl c)

Ether?
(a)NaOH
(b)H2SO4
(c)C2H5Ona
(d)Na2S2O3

1. ALCOHOLS, PHENOLS AND ETHERS(4) (ii.)

I. ASSERTION AND REASONING QUESTIONS: Reason is a correct
Two statements are given - one labelled statement, but it’s not an
 Assertion (A) and the other labelled Reason explanation for assertion.
(R). Select the correct answer to these Butan-2-ol is the major
questions from the codes (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv) as product because of the higher
given below: stability of the 20 carbocation
i.Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are correct formed.
statements, and Reason (R) is the correct
explanation of the Assertion (A).
ii.Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are correct
statements, but Reason (R) is not the correct
explanation of the Assertion (A).
iii.Assertion (A) is correct, but Reason (R) is
incorrect statement.
iv.Assertion (A) is incorrect, but Reason (R) is
correct statement

Assertion(A): Acid Catalyzed hydration of

But-1-ene yields Butan-2-ol as the major product.
Reason(R): Addition of water to alkene in acidic
medium proceeds through carbocation
Intermediate.

2. Assertion(A): The solubility of alcohols in water (iii)

decreases with increase in molecular weight. As the length of hydrocarbon
Reason(R): As molecular weight increases the chain increases the tendancy
length of hydrocarbon chain increases, this to form hydrogen bonding
increases the chances of hydrogen bonding with water decreases.
with water.

3. Assertion(A): Secondary alcohol reacts faster with (iv).

metal like Na than primary alcohol Assertion is incorrect. The
Reason(R) : O-H bond in secondary alcohol is less order of reactivity of alcohol
polar than primary alcohol with metal is CH3OH >
10>20>30. Reason is correct
because with increase in
number of alkyl groups
attached to C containing –OH
group the polarity in O-H
bond decreases due to the +I
effect of alkyl groups

4. Assertion (A): Acidic dehydration of alcohols is an i)

elimination reaction. The order of reactivity is
10<20<30.
Reason(R) : Dehydration of alcohols involves a
carbocation intermediate,formed due to the
cleavage

5. Assertion(A): Lucas reagent can be used to (iv)

distinguish between ethanol and propan-1-ol Assertion is incorrect
 Reason(R) : The reactivity of Lucas reagent with because both ethanol and
10,20 and 30 alcohol are different propan-1-ol are 10 alcohols
and Lucas reagent cannot be
used to distinguish between
them.

6. Assertion(A): Phenols are more reactive towards iv)

nucleophilic substitution reaction compared to
benzene
Reason(R) : -OH group in phenol increases the
electron density in ortho and para position due to
resonance

7. Assertion(A): o-nitrophenol and p-nitrophenol are i)

more acidic than m-nitrophenol
Reason(R) : Effective delocalisation of negative
charge in phenoxide ion takes place when electron
withdrawing groups are present in ortho and para
position.

8. Assertion (A): CH3OCH2CH2CH3 is named as i)

1-Methoxypropane in IUPAC system.
Reason(R): According to IUPAC system of
nomenclature, ethers are regarded as
hydrocarbon derivatives in which a hydrogen atom
is replaced by an –OR or –OAr group. The larger
(R) group is chosen as the parent hydrocarbon.

9. Assertion(A): Arylhalides are not used in the (iii)

preparation of ethers by Williamson’s synthesis Reason is incorrect
Reason(R) : Aryl halides undergo elimination statement. Aryl halides do not
reaction in presence of alkoxide undergo elimination reaction.
Arylhalides are not used in
Williamson’s synthesis
because they are less
reactive towards nucleophilic
substitution reaction.

10. Assertion(A): The C-O-C bond length in ethers is i)

slightly greater than the normal tetrahedral angle.
Reason(R) : Due to the repulsive interaction
between the two alkyl groups in ethers

i) I. CASE BASED MCQs: ANSWERS TO

Read the passage given below and answer the CASE BASED
 questions following it. The questions have four MCQS
alternatives select the most appropriate one. (i) (c) 30 < 20 < 10
(ii) (b)
Phenols and Alcohols both have the same functional CH3CH2CH2CH(Cl)
group(-OH) but phenols are stronger acids than alcohols. OH
This is mainly due to the reason that phenoxide ion left (iii) (d) o-Cresol <
after the release of H+ ion in phenol is resonance p-Cresol < m-Cresol
stabilized while alkoxide ion does not show similar (iv) (c) p-nitrophenol
characteristics. The electron withdrawing groups tend to
increase the acidic strength of phenols while electron
releasing groups tend to decrease it. The effect of both
types of groups is more pronounced when present at the
para position than when these are present at the ortho
position in the ring. However, their effect at the meta
position is relatively very small.
(i) The increasing order of reactivity of 10,20 and 30
alcohols towards sodium metal is
(a) 10 < 20 < 30
(b) 10 < 30 <20
(c) 30 < 20 < 10
(d) 20 < 10 < 30
(ii) Which of the following is the strongest acid?
(a) ClCH2CH2CH2CH2OH
(b) CH3CH2CH2CH(Cl)OH
(c) CH3CH2CH(Cl)CH2OH
(d) CH3CH(Cl)CH2CH2OH
(iii) The acidic strength increases in the order
(a) p-Cresol < m-Cresol < o-Cresol
(b) p-Cresol < o-Cresol < m-Cresol
(c) m-Cresol < o-Cresol < p-Creso
(d) o-Cresol < p-Cresol < m-Cresol
(iv) The strongest acid among the following is?
(a) o-nitrophenol
(b) m-nitrophenol
(c) p-nitrophenol
(d) phenol

ii) ii)An organic compound A having molecular formula (i) (b) Kolbe’s
C6H6O gives a characteristic colour with aq. FeCl3 reaction
solution. When a is treated with CO2 and NaOH at 400K (ii) (d) Electrophilic
and 4 to 7 atm pressure, compound B is obtained. The substitution reaction
compound B on acidification gives compound C. (iii) (a)
C reacts with acetyl chloride to form D. D is a popular 2-hydroxybenzoicacid
analgesic. (iv) (b) phenolic

(i) Name the reaction by which A is converted to C

 (a) Reimer-Tiemann Reaction
(b) Kolbe’s reaction
(c) Alkylation
(d) Acylation
(ii) The conversion of A to B is
(a) Nucleophile substitution reaction
(b) Addition reaction
(c) decarboxylation
(d) Electrophilic substitution reaction
(iii) The IUPAC name of C is
(a) 2-hydroxybenzoicacid
(b) 3-hydroxybenzoicacid
(c) 4-hydroxybenzoicacid
(d) Benzoicacid
(iv) The functional group in the organic compound A is
(a) Alcoholic
(b) phenolic
(c) Carboxylicacid
(d) Amine

iii) The boiling point of alcohols and phenols are much higher (i) (d).
than those of corresponding haloalkanes, haloarenes, (ii) (a)
ethers and hydrocarbons. Among isomeric alcohol the (iii) (c).
boiling point decreases in the order primary > secondary > (iv) (b)
tertiary. Solubility of alcohols and phenols in water is due
to their ability to form hydrogen bonds with water
molecules as shown. The solubility decreases with
increase in size of alkyl/aryl (hydrophobic) groups. Several
of the lower molecular mass alcohols are miscible with
water in all proportions. The miscibility of ethers with water
resembles those of alcohols of the same molecular mass.
This is due to the fact that just like alcohols, oxygen of
ether can also form hydrogen bonds with water
In the questions (i) to (iv) below a statement of
Assertion and a statement of Reason is given. Choose
the correct answer out of the following.
(a)Both Assertion and Reason are correct statements, and
Reason is the correct
explanation of the Assertion.
(b)Both Assertion and Reason are correct statements, but
Reason is not the correct explanation of the Assertio
(c). Assertion is correct, but Reason is incorrect
statement.
(d). Assertion is incorrect, but Reason is correct
statement.

(i) Assertion: 1-Propanol has less boiling point than

2-Propanol.
 Reason: as branching increases boiling point
decreases
(ii) Assertion: Ethers do not contain a Hydrogen attached
to O but are soluble in water
Reason: Ether form hydrogen bonding with water
through O.
(iii) Assertion: Propanol has more boiling point than
ethanol.
Reason: As molecular mass increases the
intermolecular force of attraction decreases.
(iv) Assertion: The boiling point of methoxymethane is
lesser than ethanol
Reason : methoxy methane and ethanol are isomers

iv) Grignard reagents react with aldehydes and ketones to (i) (c)
form an addition product, which on hydrolysis gives 2-Methylbutan-2-ol
primary, secondary and tertiary alcohol. Formaldehyde (ii) (a)
gives primary alcohol whereas all other aldehydes give 2-Methylpropan-2-ol
secondary alcohols and ketones give tertiary alcohol. (iii) (d) X,Y and Z
(i) The tertiary alcohol among the following is (iv) (b)
(a) 2,2-Dimethylpropan-1-ol Propylmagnesiumbro
(b) 3-Methylbutan-2-ol mide
(c) 2-Methylbutan-2-ol
(d) 3,3-Dimethylbtan-2-ol
(ii) CH3MgBr reacts with acetone to form an adduct which
on hydrolysis gives
(a) 2-Methylpropan-2-ol
(b) 2-Methylpropan-1-ol
(c) 2-Butanol
(d) 3-Pentanol
(iii) Consider the following statement about Grignard
reagent (X)the carbon – Mg bond is covalent but polar
(Y)the Mg – halogen bond is ionic (Z)They are highly
reactive
The correct statement about Grignard reagent is (a) only Z
(b) only X and Z
(c) only Y and Z
(d) X, Y and Z
(iv) Formaldehyde reacts with which among the following
to form 1-butanol
(a) Isopropylmagnesiumbromide
(b) Propylmagnesiumbromide
(c) Butylmagnesiumbromide
(d) Isobutylmagnesiumbromide

v) Ethers are the least reactive of the functional groups. The (i) (a) The bond in
cleavage of C-O bond in ethers takes place under drastic ether is less polar
 conditions with excess of hydrogen halides. The reaction and stronger
of dialkyl ether gives two alkyl halide molecules. Alkyl aryl compared to bond in
ethers are cleaved at the alkyl-oxygen bond due to the alcohols and phenols
more stable aryl-oxygen bond. The cleavage of ethers (ii) (b) HI > HBr > HCl
takes place with concentrated HI or HBr at high (iii) (c) SN2 attack of
temperature. in the cleavage of mixed ethers with two I- on the oxonium ion
different alkyl groups, the alcohol and alkyl iodide formed, of CH3CH2OCH3
depend on the nature of alkyl groups. When primary or (iv) (a) it involves
secondary alkyl groups are present, it is the lower alkyl SN1 mechanism
group that forms alkyl iodide However, when one of the
alkyl group is a tertiary group, the halide formed is a
tertiary halide.
(i) Ethers are less reactive than alcohols and phenols
because
(a) The bond in ether is less polar and stronger compared
to bond in alcohols and phenols.
(b) The bond in ether is more polar and stronger
compared to bond in alcohols and phenols.
(c) The bond in ether is less polar and weaker compared
to bond in alcohols and phenols.
(d) The bond in ether is more polar and weaker compared
to bond in alcohols and phenols.
(ii) The order of reactivity of hydrogen halides towards
ether is
(a) HI<HBr<HCl
(b) HI > HBr > HCl
(c) HI>HBr<HCl
(d) HCl >HI>HBr
(iii) Reaction of CH3CH2OCH3 with HI involves
(a) SN2 attack of I- on the CH3CH2OCH3
(b) SN1 attack of I- on the CH3CH2OCH3
(c) SN2 attack of I- on the oxonium ion of CH3CH2OCH3
(d) SN1 attack of I- on oxonium ion of CH3CH2OCH3
(iv) (CH3)3C-O-CH3 reacts with HI to form (CH3)3CI and
CH3OH because
(a) it involves SN1 mechanism
(b) it involves SN2 mechanism
(c) less stable intermediate
(d) None of the above

vi) Williamson synthesis is an important laboratory method for (i) (d)

the preparation of symmetrical and unsymmetrical ethers. PhCH2OCH2Ph
In this method, an alkyl halide is allowed to react with (ii) (c) In primary alkyl
sodium alkoxide to form ethers. Better results are obtained halide substitution
if the alkyl halide is primary. competes over
elimination
(iii) (b) alkoxide are
not only nucleophiles
(i) Identify the symmetrical ether among the following but also strong bases
(a) CH3OCH2Cl (iv) (a) ether and
 (b) CH3CH2OCH3 alcohol
(c) CH3CH2OCH2Ph
(d) PhCH2OCH2Ph
(ii)When primary alkyl halide is used in the synthesis the
yield of ether is higher because
(a) In primary alkyl halide elimination competes over
substitution
(b) In primary alkyl halide substitution and elimination
takes place at the same rate
(c) In primary alkyl halide substitution competes over
elimination
(d) None of the above
(iii) The correct statement about alkoxides among the
following is
(a) alkoxide are not only nucleophiles but also weak bases
(b) alkoxide are not only nucleophiles but also strong
bases
(c) alkoxide are not only electrophiles but also strong
bases
(d) alkoxide are not only electrophiles but also weak bases
(iv) When tertiary butyl halide is reacted with CH3ONa the
product obtained is
(a) ether and alcohol
(b) alkene and alcohol
(c) only alcohol
(d) only ether

vii) The oxidation of alcohols to carbonyl compounds is one of (i) (b) benzyl alcohol
the most fundamental reactions in synthetic organic to benzaldehyde
chemistry. An efficient vanadium-based catalyst has been (ii) (c)
discovered recently for the aerobic oxidation of benzylic, (iii) (a)
allylic and propargylic alcohols to their corresponding (iv) (b)
aldehydes or ketones in good yields.

where, R1 = aryl, vinyl, alkynyl R2 = H, CH3, aryl

The catalyst can be easily prepared under air using
commercially available reagents and is effective for a wide
range of primary and secondary alcohols. Reactions
proceed under mild conditions and in a variety of
environmental friendly solvents.

(i) The vanadium-based catalyst mention in the study

 above can be used to convert
(a) acetone to t-butyl alcohol
(b) benzyl alcohol to benzaldehyde
(c) 2-phenylpropan-2-ol to 2-phenylpropan-2-one
(d) 1-methyl cyclopentene to 1-methyl cyclopentanol
(ii) Which of the following is secondary allylic alcohol?
(a) 2-Methylbut-3-en-2-ol
(b) Prop-2-enol
(c) 1-phenylbut-2-en-1-ol
(d) 2-phenylbut-3-en- 2-ol
(iii) An unknown organic compound, X having molecular
formula, C8H10O undergoes oxidation in presence of this
vanadium-based catalyst and gives a compound, Y.
Compound, Y on treatment with aq. Na2CO3 and I2
solution gives yellow ppt. The compound, Y is

(iv) Isopropyl alcohol is oxidised with this vanadium-based

catalyst to give
(a) CH3CHO
(b) CH3COCH3
(c) CH3CH==CH2
(d) CH3CH2CH2COOH

viii) When haloarenes are heated with an aqueous solution of (i) (d) II > III > I
NaOH at 623 K and under 300 atmospheric pressure, (ii) (d) nucleophilic
sodium phenoxides are formed which upon acidification substitution reaction
yield phenols. (iii) (d)
(iv) (b) Phenols

This process is called Dow process. The presence of

electron withdrawing group at ortho and para
Position increases the reactivity of haloarenes.
Only warm water is required in the formation of picric acid
from 2, 4, 6 –trinitrochlorobenzene

(i) The correct order of reactivity towards nucleophilic

substitution reaction with CH3ONa of the following
compound is

(a) I > II > III

(b) III > II > I
(c) I > III > II
(d) II > III > I
(ii) Dow's process involves
(a) electrophilic addition reaction
(b) nucleophilic addition reaction
(c) electrophilic substitution reaction
(d) nucleophilic substitution reaction
(iii) Identity (P) in the following sequence of reactions:
 (iv) Dow's process is used for the preparation of which of
the following:
(a) Esters
(b) Phenols
(c) Alcohols
(d) Ethers

ix) Phenol, also known as carbolic acid, was first isolated in (i) (b)
the early nineteenth century from coal tar. Phenol is Isopropylbenzene
manufactured from the hydrocarbon, cumene. Cumene is (ii) (b) Ph-O-CH3
oxidised in the presence of air to cumene hydroperoxide. (iii) (c) both (a) and
It is converted to phenol and acetone by treating it with (b)
dilute acid. Acetone, a by-product of this reaction, is also (iv) (d) X, Y and Z
obtained in large quantities by this method.
(i) The IUPAC name of Cumene is
(a) Isobutybenzene
(b) Isopropylbenzene
(c) Phenylpropane
(d) 1-phenylpropane
(i) Phenol is obtained as a product when HI is added to
(a) Ph-CH2OCH3
(b) Ph-O-CH3
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) None of these
(iii) Acetone is used as
(a) Solvent
(b) nail polish remover
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) None of these
(iv) The correct statement among the following is (X)
Cumenehydroperoxide has a sinle bond between two
oxygen (Y) High yield of acetone is one of the main
reason for preparation of phenol from Cumen (Z) Cumene
has a branched structure
(a) Only X
(b) X and Y only
(c) Z only
(d) X, Y and Z
x) Oxidation of alcohols involves the formation of a (i) (c) PCC
carbonoxygen double bond with cleavage of an O-H and (ii) (c) 2-Butanone
C-H bonds. Such a cleavage and formation of bonds (iii) (c) Undergoes
occur in oxidation reactions. These are also known as dehydration to form
dehydrogenation reactions as these involve loss of an alkene
dihydrogen from an alcohol molecule. Depending on the (iv) (b)
oxidising agent used, a primary alcohol is oxidised to an CH3CH(OH)CH3
aldehyde which in turn is oxidised to a carboxylic acid.
Secondary alcohols are oxidised to ketones. Tertiary
alcohols do not undergo oxidation reaction under normal
conditions.
(i) The best reagent to convert ethanol to ethanal is
(a) alk. KMnO4
(b) CrO3
(c) PCC
(d) Conc. HNO3
(ii) Butan-2-ol is oxidised using CrO3. The product
obtained is
(a) Butanoicacid
(b) Butanal
(c) 2-Butanone
(d) 2-Propanone
(iii) Tertiary alcohols on oxidation with Conc. HNO3
(a) Undergoes dehydrogenation to form ketone
(b) Undergoes dehydrogenation to form an alkene
(c) Undergoes dehydration to form an alkene
(d) Undergoes dehydration to form a ketone
(iv) An alcohol on oxidation using strong oxidising agent
like acidic K2Cr2O7 give an organic acid of same
molecular mass. The alcohol is
(a) CH3CH2CH2OH
(b) CH3CH(OH)CH3
(c) (CH3)3COH
(d) CH3CH2OH
1. BIOMOLECUELS(1) (c)
Case Study based Question No :1:
Read the passage given below and answer the following
questions:
When a protein in its native form, is subjected to physical changes
like change in temperature or chemical changes like change in pH,
the hydrogen bonds are disturbed. Due to this, globules unfold and
helix gets uncoiled and protein loses its biological activity. This is
called denaturation of protein. The denaturation causes change in its
secondary and tertiary structures but primary structures remains
intact. Examples of denaturation of protein are coagulation of egg
white on boiling, curding of milk, and formation of cheese when an
acid is added to milk.
The following 1 to 5 questions are multiple choice questions. Choose
the most appropriate answer

Q1. Find the wrong statement about denaturation of proteins.

(a) The primary structure of the protein does not change.
(b) Globular proteins are converted into fibrous proteins.
(c) Fibrous proteins are converted into globular proteins.
(d) The biological activity of the protein is destroyed.
Answer: (c) Fibrous proteins are converted into globular proteins
(Wrong)

2. Q2. Which statement(s) of protein remain(s) intact during (b)

denaturation process?
(a) Both secondary and tertiary structures
(b) primary structure only
(c) secondary structure only
(d) tertiary structure only
Answer: (b) primary structure only

3. Q3. α-helix and β-pleated structures of proteins are classified as, (b)
(a) primary structure of protein
(b) secondary structure of protein
(c) tertiary structure of protein
(d) quaternary structure of protein
Answer: (b) secondary structure of protein

4. Q4. Cheese is a (c)

(a) globular protein
(b) conjugated protein
(c) denatured protein
(d) derived protein
Answer:(c) denatured protein
5. Q5. Secondary structure of protein refers to, (d)
(a) mainly denatured of proteins and structures of prosthetic groups
(b) three-dimensional structure, especially the bond between amino
acid residues that are distant from each other in the polypeptide
chain
(c) linear sequence of amino acid residues in the polypeptide chain
(d) regular folding patterns of continuous portions of the polypeptide
chain.
Answer: (d) regular folding patterns of continuous portions of the
polypeptide chain

6. Case Study based Question No :2: (a)

Carbohydrates are polyhydroxy aldehydes and ketones and in
addition to that, those compounds which on hydrolysis give such
compounds are also carbohydrates. The carbohydrates which are
not hydrolysed are called monosaccharides. Monosaccharides with
aldehyde group are called aldose and those with free ketonic group
are called ketose. Carbohydrates are optically active. The number of
optical isomers = 2n, where n= number of asymmetric carbons or
chiral carbons. Carbohydrates are mainly synthesized by plants
during photosynthesis. The monosaccharides give the characteristic
reactions of alcohols and carbonyl group (Aldehyde and Ketones). It
has been found that these monosaccharides exist in the form of
cyclic structures. In cyclization, the –OH group (generally C-5 or C-4
in aldohexoses and C-5 or C-6 in ketohexoses) combine with the
aldehyde or keto group. As a result, cyclic structures of five of six
membered rings containing one oxygen atom are formed, e.g,
glucose forms a ring structure. Glucose contains one aldehyde
group, one primary alcoholic group and four secondary alcoholic
groups in its open structure.
The following questions 6 to 10 are multiple choice questions.
Choose the most appropriate answer

Q6. The first member of Ketose sugar is,

(a) Ketotriose
(b)Ketotetrose
(c) Ketopentose
(d) Ketohexose
Answer: (a) Ketotriose

7. Q7. In CH2(OH)-CH(OH)-CH(OH)-CH(OH)-CH(OH)-CHO the (a)

number of optical isomers will be,
(a) 16
(b) 8
(c) 32
(d) 4
Answer: (a) 16 (Because, 2n where n = number of chiral carbons:
glucose has 4 chiral carbons)
8. Q8. Some statements are given below: (c)
1. Glucose is an aldohexose
2. Naturally occurring glucose is dextrorotatory
3. Glucose contains three chiral carbons
4. Glucose contains one primary alcoholic group and four secondary
alcoholic groups

Among the above, correct statements are,

(a) 1 and 2
(b) 3 and 4
(c) 1,2 and 4
(d) 1,2,3 and 4
Answer: (c) 1,2 and 4 (Glucose contains 4 chiral carbons but not 3)

9. Q9. Two hexoses form the same osazone, find the correct statement (d)
about these hexoses.
(a) both of them must be aldoses
(b) They are epimers at C-3
(c) The carbon atoms of 1 and 2 in both have the same configuration
(d) The carbon atoms of 3, 4 and 5 in both have the same
configuration
Answer: (d) The carbon atoms of 3, 4 and 5 in both have the same
configuration

10. Q10. Which of the following reactions of glucose can be explained (c)
only by its cyclic structure?
(a) Glucose forms cyanohydrin with HCN
(b) Glucose reacts with hydroxyl amine to form and oxime
(c) Pentaacetate of glucose does not react with hydroxyl amine
(d) Glucose is oxidized by nitric acid to give gluconic acid
Answer: (c) Pentaacetate of glucose does not react with hydroxyl
amine

11. Case Study based Question No :3: (d)

The sequence of bases along the DNA and RNA chain establishes
its primary structure which controls the specific properties of the
nucleic acid. The RNA molecule is usually a single chain of ribose-
containing nucleotide. On the basis of X-ray analysis of DNA, J D
Watson and F H C Crick (Shared the Nobel prize in 1962) proposed
a three dimensional secondary structure of DNA. The DNA molecule
is a long and highly complex, spirally twisted, double helix, ladder
like structure. The two polynucleotide chains or strands are linked up
by hydrogen bonds between the nitrogenous base molecules of their
nucleotide monomers. Adenine (purine) always links with Thymine
(Pyrimidine) with two hydrogen bonds and Guanine (purine) links
with Cytosine (Pyrimidine) with three hydrogen bonds. Hence, the
two strands extend in opposite direction, i.e. are anti-parallel and
complimentary to each other.
 Directions: Q No: 11 to 15 are of Assertion (A) followed by a
statement of Reason (R) is given. Choose the correct answer
out of the following choices.
(a) Assertion (A) and Reason (R) both are correct statements, and
Reason (R) is correct explanation for Assertion (A)
(b) Assertion (A) and Reason (R) both are correct statements but
Reason (R) is not correct explanation for Assertion (A)
(c) Assertion (A) is correct statement, but Reason (R) is wrong
statement
(d) Assertion (A) is wrong statement, but Reason (R) is correct
statement

Q11. Assertion (A): DNA molecules and RNA molecules are found
in the nucleus of a cell.
Reason (R): There are two types of nitrogenous bases, purines and
pyrimidines. Adenine (A) and Guanine (G) are substituted purines,
Cytosine (C), Thymine (T) and Uracil (U) are substituted pyrimidines.
Answer: (d) (Only DNA molecules are present in the nucleus of a
cell)

12. Q12. Assertion (A): In both DNA and RNA, heterocyclic base and (b)
phosphate ester linkages are at C-1’ and C-5’ respectively of the
sugar molecule
Reason (R): Nucleotides and Nucleosides mainly differ from each
other in presence of phosphate units
Answer: (b) Purine or pyrimidine bases links at C-1 and Phosphate
ester links at C-5 of Ribose sugar

13. Q13. Assertion (A): The backbone of RNA molecule is a linear chain (c)
consisting of alternating units of a heterocyclic base, D-ribose and a
phosphate
Reason (R): The segment of DNA which acts as the instruction
manual for the synthesis of protein in ribose
Answer: (c) (Reason: explained about DNA but not RNA)

14. Q14. Assertion (A): The double helical structure of DNA was (d)
proposed by Emil Fischer
Reason (R): A nucleoside is an N- glycoside of heterocyclic base.
Answer: (d) (The double helical structure of DNA was proposed by
Watson and Crick)

15. Q15. Assertion (A): In DNA, the complementary bases are Adenine (d)
& Guanine and Thymine & Cytosine
Reason (R): The phenomenon of mutation is a chemical change in
DNA molecule.
Answer: (d) (In DNA, the complementary bases are Adenine &
Thymine & Guanine and Cytosine)
16. QUESTIONS BASED ON ASSERTION AND REASON TYPE (c)
Directions: Q No: 16 to 30 are of Assertion (A) followed by a
statement of Reason (R) is given. Choose the correct answer
out of the following choices.
(a) Assertion (A) and Reason (R) both are correct statements, and
Reason (R) is correct explanation for Assertion (A)
(b) Assertion (A) and Reason (R) both are correct statements but
Reason (R) is not correct explanation for Assertion (A)
(c) Assertion (A) is correct statement, but Reason (R) is wrong
statement
(d) Assertion (A) is wrong statement, but Reason (R) is correct
statement

Q16. Assertion (A): Glucose gets oxidized to gluconic acid on

reaction with mild oxidizing agent like bromine water.
Reason (R): Glucose contains a keto group
Answer: (c) (Glucose contains aldehyde group)

17. Q17. Assertion (A): Glucose is correctly named as D- (+)-glucose. (c)

Reason (R): ‘D’ before the name of glucose represents its
dextrorotatory nature
Answer: (c) (‘D’ before the name of glucose represents its
configuration, ‘d’ represents dextrorotatory)

18. Q18. Assertion (A): The two cyclic hemiacetal forms of glucose, (a)
α-form and β form are called anomers
Reason (R): Anomers differ only in the configuration of the hydroxyl
group at C-1
Answer: (a) (Correct Assertion and Correct explanation)

19. Q19. Assertion (A): Fructose is a keto hexose. (c)

Reason (R): It has aldehyde functional group
Answer: (c) (Fructose has a ketone functional group)

20. Q20. Assertion (A): Purine bases present in DNA are Adenine and (c)
Guanine
Reason (R): The base Thymine is present in RNA while base uracil
is present in DNA
Answer: (c) (Thymine is not present in RNA, but Uracil is present)

21. Q21. Assertion (A): The two strands of DNA are complementary to (c)
each other
Reason (R): Adenine specifically forms hydrogen bonds with
Guanine whereas Cytosine forms hydrogen bonds with Thymine
Answer: (c) (In DNA, A = T, two hydrogen bonds: G ≡ C, three
hydrogen bonds)
22. Q22. Assertion (A): α- amino acids exist as dipolar ions or zwitter (b)
ions
Reason (R): α- amino acids are the building blocks of protein
Answer: (b) (Zwitter ion has both positive and negative charges)

23. Q23. Assertion (A): DNA undergoes replication (b)

Reason (R): DNA contains cytosine and thymine as pyrimidine
bases
Answer: (b) (DNA contains long - double helix strand, spirally twisted
having ladder type structure and can undergo replication as the
strands are complementary to each other)

25. Q24. Assertion (A): Haemoglobin is a globular protein (c)

Reason (R): Globular proteins are insoluble in water
Answer: (c)(Globular proteins are soluble in water)

25. Q25. Assertion (A): In DNA, Nucleotides are phosphate esters of (c)
nucleosides
Reason (R): In DNA, the various nucleotides are linked either
through purine or pyrimidine bases.
Answer: (c) (Linked through ribose to ribose through phosphate
ester, not linked through bases)

26. Q26. Assertion (A): Glycine is not an essential amino acid. (a)
Reason (R): Glycine need not be taken through diet as it is
synthesized by our body
Answer: (a) (both are correct with correct explanation)

27. Q27. Assertion (A): All naturally occurring α-amino acids except (b)
glycine are optically active.
Reason (R): Most naturally occurring amino acids have
L-configuration.
Answer: (b) (All amino acids have chiral carbons except glycine)

28. Q28. Assertion (A): Glycylalanine is a dipeptide, consists of peptide (a)

linkage
Reason (R): The bond between glycine and alanine is -CO-NH-
bond
Answer: (a) (both are correct with correct explanation)

29 Q29. Assertion (A): Disruption of the native structure of a protein is (b)

called denaturation
Reason (R): The change in colour and appearance of egg during
cooking is due to denaturation
Answer: (b) Disruption of secondary and Tertiary structure of protein
is called denaturation)
30. Q30. Assertion (A): DNA has double helical structure (c)
Reason (R): The two strands in DNA molecule are exactly similar in
same direction
Answer: (c) The two strands in DNA molecule are complementary to
each other (in opposite direction)

31. SOME MORE IMPORTANT COMMON MCQs (b)

Question 31.
During acetylation of glucose it needs, x moles of acetic anhydride.
The value of x would be,
(a) 3
(b) 5
(c) 4
(d) 1
Answer: (b) 5 (because it forms pentaacetate)

32. Question 32. (c)

On oxidation with a mild oxidising agent like Br2/H2O, the glucose is
oxidized to,
(a) saccharic acid
(b) glutamic acid
(c) gluconic acid
(d) valeric acid
Answer: (c) gluconic acid

33. Question 33. (d)

Invert sugar is,
(a) a type of cane sugar
(b) optically inactive form of sugar
(c) mixture of glucose and galactose
(d) mixture of glucose and fructose in equimolar quantities
Answer: (d) mixture of glucose and fructose in equimolar quantities

34. Question 34. (b)

Which reagent is used to convert glucose into saccharic acid?
(a) Br2/H2O
(b) Nitric acid
(c) Alkaline solution of iodine
(d) Ammonium hydroxide
Answer: (b) Nitric acid

35. Question 35. (a)

Which of the following is an example of an aldopentose?
(a) D-Ribose
(b) Glyceraldehyde
(c) Fructose
(d) Glucose
Answer: (a) D-Ribose
36. Question36. (c)
The α-and β-forms of glucose are,
(a) isomers of D (+) glucose and L (-) glucose respectively
(b) diastereomers of glucose
(c) anomers of glucose
(d) isomers which differ in the configuration of C-2
Answer: (c) anomers of glucose

37. Question 37. (a)

The anomeric carbon in D (+) glucose is,
(a) C-1 carbon
(b) C-2 carbon
(c) C-5 carbon
(d) C-6 carbon
Answer: (a) C-1 carbon

38. Question 38. (b)

Glucose Product is,
(a) hexanoic acid
(b) gluconic acid
(c) saccharic acid
(d) bromohexane
Answer: (b) gluconic acid

39. Question39. (b)

How many carbon atoms and oxygen atoms are there with in a
pyranose ring respectively?
(a) 3, 2
(b) 5, 1
(c) 6, 0
(d) 7, 0
Answer: (b) 5, 1

40. Question 40. (b)

The letter ‘D’ in carbohydrates signifies,
(a) dextrorotatory
(b) configuration
(c) diamagnetic nature
(d) mode of synthesis
Answer: (b) configuration

4. Question 41. (c)

A diabetic person carries a packet of glucose with him always, because
(a) glucose increases the blood sugar level slowly
(b) glucose reduces the blood sugar level
(c) glucose increases the blood sugar level almost instantaneously
(d) glucose reduces the blood sugar level slowly
Answer: (c) glucose increases the blood sugar level almost
instantaneously
42. Question 42. (c)
Among the naturally occurring carbohydrates, furanose ring is found in,
(a) Glucose unit of cane sugar
(b) Glucose unit of cellulose
(c) Fructose unit of cane sugar
(d) Galactose unit of lactose
Answer: (c) Fructose unit of cane sugar

43. Question 43. (d)

The given structure (I) and (II) represent configuration of the simplest
sugar glyceraldehyde. Which of the following statements is not correct
for the structures?

(a) I represents D-form while II represents L-form of glyceraldehyde

(b) The sugars having same configuration as D- glyceraldehyde are
designated as D-sugars
(c) Natural glucose and fructose are D-forms
(d) ‘D’ is dextrorotatory while ‘L’ is levorotatory enantiomer
Answer: (d) ‘D’ is dextrorotatory while ‘L’ is levorotatory enantiomer is
wrong. (Actually ‘d’ is dextrorotatory, ‘l’ is levorotatory)

44. Question 44. (d)

Amino acids generally exist in the form of Zwitter ions, which means
they contain,
(a) Basic – NH2 group and acidic – COOH group
(b) The basic – NH3+ group and acidic – COO– group
(c) Basic -NH2 and acidic – H+ group
(d) Basic – COO– group and acidic – NH3+ group
Answer: (d) Basic – COO– group and acidic – NH3+ group

45. Question 45. (d)

Globular proteins are present in
(a) blood
(b) egg
(c) milk
(d) all of the above
Answer: (d) all of the above
46. Question 46. (a)
Which one of the amino acids can be synthesized in the body?
(a) Alanine
(b) Lysine
(c) Valine
(d) Histidine
Answer: (a) Alanine

47. Question 47. (c)

Which of the following is not true about amino acids?
(a) Amino acids are constituents of all proteins
(b) Alanine is having one amino and one carboxylic group
(c) Most naturally occurring amino acids have D-configuration
(d) Glycine is the only naturally occurring amino acid which is optically
inactive.
Answer: (c) Most naturally occurring amino acids have D-configuration
is not true (They have L -configuration)

48. Question 48. (b)

A compound which contains both …………….……… and
……………….… is called amino acid. The amino acids are joined by
……………………..… bonds to make polypeptide chain,
(a) amino, carboxylic group, ester
(b) amino, carboxylic group, peptide
(c) nitrogen, carbon, glycosidic
(d) hydroxy, carboxylic group, peptide
Answer: (b) amino, carboxylic group, peptide

49. Question 49. (d)

Denaturation of protein leads to loss of its biological activity by,
(a) formation of amino acids
(b) disruption of primary structure
(c) disruption of both primary and secondary structure
(d) disruption of both secondary and tertiary structures only
Answer: (d) disruption of both secondary and tertiary structures only

50. Question 50. (a)

Proteins are condensation polymers of,
(a) α-amino acids
(b) β-amino acids
(c) α-hydroxy acids
(d) β-hydroxy acids
Answer: (a) α-amino acids
51. Question 51. (b)
Find the correct statement about the structural difference between
ribose of DNA and RNA
(a) DNA and RNA show difference at C-1 carbon of sugar moiety
(b) DNA and RNA show difference at C-2 carbon of sugar moiety
(c) DNA and RNA show difference at C-3 carbon of sugar moiety
(d) DNA and RNA show difference at C-4 carbon of sugar moiety
Answer: (b) DNA and RNA show difference at C-2 carbon of sugar
moiety, (In DNA, C-2 of ribose has no oxygen atom but it has H and H,
however in RNA, there is -OH and H at C-2)

52. Question 52. (c)

In fibrous proteins, polypeptide chains are held together by,
(a) van der waals forces
(b) electrostatic forces of attraction
(c) hydrogen bonds
(d) covalent bonds
Answer: (c) hydrogen bonds

53. Question 53. (b)

What types of interactions are responsible for making the α-helix
structure stable?
(a) Peptide bonds between -NH2 and -CO groups of adjacent carbon
chain
(b) Hydrogen bonds between -NH of amino acid in one turn with -CO of
amino acid to adjacent turn
(c) -OH group of one amino acid with -CO group of other amino acid on
the turn
(d) Hydrogen bonds between adjacent amino acids
Answer: (b) Hydrogen bonds between -NH of amino acid in one turn
with -CO of amino acid to adjacent turn

54. Question 54. (c)

Secondary structure of protein refers to,
(a) sequence of amino acids in polypeptide chain
(b) bonds between alternate polypeptide chains
(c) folding patterns of polypeptide chain
(d) bonding between NH3+ and COO– of two peptides
Answer: (c) folding patterns of polypeptide chain

55. Question 55. (b)

Which compound can exist in a dipolar (zwitter ion) structure?
(a) C6H5-CH2-CH (N = CH2)- COOH
(b) (CH3)2CH-CH (NH2) -COOH
(c) C6H5-CONHCH2-COOH
(d) HOOC-CH2-CH2-CO-COOH
Answer: (b) (CH3)2CH-CH (NH2)- COOH, (as it has both –NH2 and
–COOH groups)
56. Question 56. (d)
Which of the following is an acidic amino acid?
(a) Glycine
(b) Valine
(c) Leucine
(d) Glutamic acid
Answer: (d) Glutamic acid

57. Question 57. (b)

Most common types of secondary structures of proteins are,
(a) α-helix and β-helix structures
(b) α-helix and β-pleated sheet structures
(c) right and left hand twisted structures
(d) globular and fibrous structures
Answer: (b) α-helix and β-pleated sheet structures

58. Question 58. (d)

Find the incorrect example,
(a) Keratin and myosin are fibrous proteins
(b) Insulin and albumins are Globular proteins
(c) Glycylalanine is a dipeptide
(d) Enzymes and haemoglobin are derived proteins
Answer: (d) Enzymes and haemoglobin are derived proteins, (it is not
correct, as they are natural proteins)

59. Question 59. (c)

Find the correct statement,
(a) Haemoglobin, albumin are fibrous proteins
(b) Keratin and myosin are globular proteins
(c) Wool and Silk are fibrous proteins
(d) None of the above is correct
Answer: (c) Wool and Silk are fibrous proteins

60. Question 60. (b)

Find the wrong statement about DNA finger printing,
(a) DNA finger printing is used in forensic laboratories for identification
of criminals
(b) DNA finger printing is used to find the primary structure of protein
(c) DNA finger printing is used to determine paternity of child
(d) DNA finger printing is used to identify the dead bodies in accident
Answer: (b) It is used to find the primary structure of protein (it is a
wrong statement)
61. BIOMOLECUELS (2) Answer: (d)
i-A, ii- C, iii-
Match the following: D, iv-B
I II
(i)Amino acids (A) Protein
(ii)Thymine (B) Nucleic acid
(iii) Uracil (C)DNA
(iv)Phosphodiester linkage (D) RNA
(v)Insulin

Which of the following are the best matched options?

(a) i-A, v- D, iii- C, iv-B

(b) i-D, ii-C, iii- A, iv-B
(c) i-D, v- D, iii- A, iv-B
(d) i-A, ii- C, iii- D, iv-B

62. Match the following: Answer: (a)

I II i-B, ii-A-
(i) D,L Configuration (A) C-1 carbon iii-D, iv- C
(ii) Anomers (B) Glyceraldehyde
(iii) Lactose (C)Glucose
(iv) Aldohexose (D) Milk
(v) Furanose

Which of the following are the best matched options?

(a) i-B, ii-A- iii-D, iv- C

(b) i-C, ii-D, iii- A, iv-B
(c) i-B, ii-C, iii- D, iv-A
(d) i-A, ii- C, iii- D, iv-B

____________________________________________________________________________
PREPARED BY:

1.MR SREEDHAR- PGT CHEMISTRY-N0-2 NAUSENABAGH(SOLUTIONS)

2.MR MADHUSUDHAN RAO -PGT CHEMISTRY, KV GOLCONDA -2(SOLUTIONS)
3.MR HARIKITHAN.P -PGT CHEMISTRY- KV BOLARAM(SOLID STATE)
4.MR SHOBHAN BABU- PGT CHEMISTRY-(SOLID STATE)
5.MR ANJANEYULU- PGT CHEMISTRY-(HALOALKANES AND HALOARENES)
6.MR DLN MURTHY -PGT CHEMISTRY-(P-BLOCK ELEMENTS)
7.MR VICTOR EMMANEUL- PGT CHEMISTRY-(BIOMOLECULES)
8.MRS LAXMI PAPPAI -PGT CHEMISTRY,KV NSB-1(P- BLOCK ELEMENTS)
9.MR NAVEEN-PGT VHEMISTRY-(HALOALKANES AND HALOARENES and
ALCOHOLS,PHENOLS AND ETHERS)
10.MR VENKATESH –PGT-CHEMISTRY, KV STEEL PLANT(ALCOHOLS, PHENOLS,AND
ETHERS)