FIITJEE Solutions To IIT JEE-2003 Screening Paper
FIITJEE Solutions To IIT JEE-2003 Screening Paper
FIITJEE Solutions To IIT JEE-2003 Screening Paper
(C) (D)
2*. What is the maximum value of the force F such that the F
block shown in the arrangement, does not move? 60° 1
(A) 20 N (B) 10 N m=√3kg µ=
2 3
(C) 12 N (D) 15 N
4*. If W1, W2 and W3 represent the work done in moving a particle from A to B
B along three different paths 1, 2 and 3 respectively (as shown) in the m
gravitational field of a point mass m, find the correct relation between
2
W1, W2 and W3. 1
(A) W1 > W2 > W3 (B) W1 = W2 = W3 3
(C) W1 < W2 < W3 (D) W2 > W1 > W3
A
6*. The graph, shown in the adjacent diagram, represents the variation of
temperature (T) of two bodies, x and y having same surface area, with time (t) T y
due to the emission of radiation. Find the correct relation between the emissivity x
and absorptivity power of the two bodies.
(A) Ex > Ey & ax < ay (B) Ex < Ey & ax > ay t
(C) Ex > Ey & ax > ay (D) Ex < Ey & ax < ay
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∆l(×10−4m)
7*. The adjacent graph shows the extension (∆l) of a wire of length 1 m
suspended from the top of a roof at one end and with a load W 4
10−6 m2, calculate the Young’s modulus of the material of the wire. 2
9*. Two rods, one of aluminum and the other made of steel, having initial length l1 and l2 are
connected together to form a single rod of length l1 + l2. The coefficients of linear expansion for
aluminum and steel are αa and αs respectively. If the length of each rod increases by the same
amount when their temperature are raised by t°C, then find the ratio l 1 (l 1 + l 2 ) .
(A) αs/αa (B) αa/αs
(C) α s (α a + α s ) (D) α a (α a + α s )
10. The size of the image of an object, which is at infinity, as formed by a convex lens of focal length
30 cm is 2 cm. If a concave lens of focal length 20 cm is placed between the convex lens and the
image at a distance of 26 cm from the convex lens, calculate the new size of the image.
(A) 1.25 cm (B) 2.5 cm
(C) 1.05 cm (D) 2 cm
emerges finally parallel to the surface of water, then the value of µg r µW = 4/3
would be Water r
(A) (4/3)sini (B) 1/sini
(C) 4/3 (D) 1 Glass
i
r
12. The electric potential between a proton and an electron is given by V = V0 ln , where r0 is a
r0
constant. Assuming Bohr’s model to be applicable, write variation of rn with n, n being the
principal quantum number?
(A) rn ∝ n (B) rn ∝ 1/n
(C) rn ∝ n2 (D) rn ∝ 1/n2
13. If the atom 100Fm257 follows the Bohr model and the radius of 100Fm
257
is n times the Bohr radius,
then find n.
(A) 100 (B) 200
(C) 4 (D) 1/4
circuit, the phase difference between the emf e and the current i in the
circuit is observed to be π/4, as shown in the diagram. If the circuit
consists possibly only of R-C or R-L or L-C in series, find the
relationship between the two elements.
(A) R = 1 kΩ, C = 10 µF (B) R = 1 kΩ, C=1 µF
(C) R = 1 kΩ, L = 10 H (D) R = 1 kΩ, L = 1 H
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15. For a positively charged particle moving in a x-y plane initially along the y
16. Express which of the following setups can be used to verify Ohm’s law?
(A) (B)
A
V A V
(C) (D)
A V
V A
P P
C B
B C
V V
(D) (D)
A A
P P
C B
B C
V V
19. For uranium nucleus how does its mass vary with volume?
(A) m ∝ V (B) m ∝ 1/V
(C) m ∝ √V (D) m ∝ V2
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21*. In the experiment for the determination of the speed of sound in air using the resonance column
method, the length of the air column that resonates in the fundamental mode, with a tuning fork is
0.1 m. When this length is changed to 0.35 m, the same tuning fork resonates with the first
overtone. Calculate the end correction.
(A) 0.012 m (B) 0.025 m
(C) 0.05 m (D) 0.024 m
22*. A particle undergoes uniform circular motion. About which point on the plane of the circle, will the
angular momentum of the particle remain conserved?
(A) centre of the circle (B) on the circumference of the circle.
(C) inside the circle. (D) outside the circle.
24. A current carrying loop is placed in a uniform magnetic field in four different orientations, I, II, III & IV,
arrange them in the decreasing order of Potential Energy.
I II B
n̂
B
n̂
III IV n̂
B
B
n̂
(A) I > III > II > IV (B) I > II > III > IV
(C) I > IV > II > III (D) III > IV > I > II
25*. 2 kg of ice at −20°C is mixed with 5 kg of water at 20°C in an insulating vessel having a negligible
heat capacity. Calculate the final mass of water remaining in the container. It is given that the
specific heats of water & ice are 1 kcal/kg/°C & 0.5 kcal/kg/°C while the latent heat of fusion of ice
is 80 kcal/kg.
(A) 7 kg (B) 6 kg
(C) 4 kg (D) 2 kg
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27. The three resistance of equal value are arranged in the different combinations shown below.
Arrange them in increasing order of power dissipation.
I II
i
III IV
i
i
(A) III < II < IV < I (B) II < III < IV < I
(C) I < IV < III < II (D) I < III < II < IV
28. A nucleus with mass number 220 initially at rest emits an α-particle. If the Q value of the reaction
is 5.5 MeV, calculate the kinetic energy of the α-particle.
(A) 4.4 MeV (B) 5.4 MeV
(C) 5.6 MeV (D) 6.5 MeV
29*. Among the following, the molecule with the highest dipole moment is:
(A) CH3Cl (B) CH2Cl2
(C) CHCl3 (D) CCl4
HOOC
31.
OH
2 moles NaNH2
→ A
O 2N
CH
OH
The product A will be
OOC
OOC
OH OH
(A) O 2N (B) O 2N
CH C
O
OH
HOOC HOOC
O OH
(C) O 2N (D) O 2N
CH C
O O
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34. When MnO2 is fused with KOH, a coloured compound is formed, the product and its colour is:
(A) K2MnO4, purple green (B) KMnO4, purple
(C) Mn2O3, brown (D) Mn3O4 black
36*. Which of the following represents the given mode of hybridisation sp2 – sp2 – sp – sp from left to
right?
(A) H2C CH C N (B) HC C C CH
CH2
(C) H2C C C CH2 (D) H2C
H2N
P = H2C Q=
CH3 OCOCH3
(A) Lucas Reagent (B) 2,4−DNP
(C) Fehling’s Solution (D) NaHSO3
OH
39.
−
O C 2H5
+ C2H5I →
Anhydrous ( C 2H5OH )
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CHO OHC
41.
(i)NaOH / 100°C
+
→ Major Product is :
(ii)H / H2O
CHO OHC
COOH HOOC OH HOOC
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
O CH2OH HOH2C
O
43*. In a first order reaction the concentration of reactant decreases from 800 mol/dm3 to
50 mol/dm3 is 2 × 104 sec. The rate constant of reaction in sec–1 is:
(A) 2 × 104 (B) 3.45 × 10–5
–4
(C) 1.386 × 10 (D) 2 × 10–4
44. During depression of freezing point in a solution the following are in equilibrium
(A) liquid solvent, solid solvent (B) liquid solvent, solid solute
(C) liquid solute, solid solute (D) liquid solute solid solvent
2+ +
46*. Ph C C Hg / H
CH3 → A. A is :
O
Ph
Ph
(A) (B) O
H3C
H3C
OH
Ph
Ph
(C) (D) OH
H3C
H3C
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CH MgBr
47. Ethyl ester
3
→ P. The product P will be
excess
CH3 C2 H5
H3C H3C
(A) (B)
OH OH
H3C H5C 2
C2 H5 C 2H5
H5 C2 H5C 2
(C) (D)
OH OH
H5C 2 H7C3
48. Mixture X = 0.02 mol of [Co(NH3)5SO4]Br and 0.02 mol of [Co(NH3)5Br]SO4 was prepared in 2 litre
of solution.
1 litre of mixture X + excess AgNO3 → Y.
1 litre of mixture X + excess BaCl2 → Z
No. of moles of Y and Z are
(A) 0.01, 0.01 (B) 0.02, 0.01
(C) 0.01, 0.02 (D) 0.02, 0.02
23
50*. Na is the more stable isotope of Na. Find out the process by which 24
11
Na can undergo
radioactive decay
(A) β– emission (B) α emission
(C) β+ emission (D) K electron capture
52*. A solution which is 10–3 M each in Mn2+, Fe2+, Zn2+ and Hg2+ is treated with 10–16 M sulphide ion. If
Ksp of MnS, FeS, ZnS and HgS are 10–15, 10–23, 10–20 and 10–54 respectively, which one will
precipitate first?
(A) FeS (B) MgS
(C) HgS (D) ZnS
[X] + Zn → [Y] + Au
Identify the complexes [X] and [Y]
(A) X = [Au(CN)2]–, Y = [Zn(CN)4]2– (B) X = [Au(CN)4]3–, Y = [Zn(CN)4]2–
(C) X = [Au(CN)2]–, Y = Zn(CN)6]4– (D) X = [Au(CN)4]–, Y = [Zn(CN)4]2–
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55*. CH3
+
−→
H
[F] →C 4H8Br2
B r2 , CCl4
H2O 1
4243
5 such products
are possible
H3C OH
How many structures of F is possible?
(A) 2 (B) 5
(C) 6 (D) 3
56. An enantiomerically pure acid is treated with racemic mixture of an alcohol having one chiral
carbon. The ester formed will be
(A) Optically active mixture (B) Pure enantiomer
(C) Meso compound (D) Racemic mixture
x
57. If f : [0, ∞) → [0, ∞), and f (x) = then f is
1+ x
(A) one−one and onto (B) one−one but not onto
(C) onto but not one−one (D) neither one−one nor onto
3 1 1
58. If P (B) = , P (A ∩ B ∩ C ) = and P ( A ∩ B ∩ C ) = , then P (B ∩ C) is
4 3 3
1 1
(A) (B)
12 6
1 1
(C) (D)
15 9
60*. The area of the quadrilateral formed by the tangents at the end points of latus recta to the ellipse
x2 y2
+ = 1, is
9 5
(A) 27/4 sq. units (B) 9 sq. units
(C) 27/2 sq. units (D) 27 sq. units
61*. The number of integral points (integral point means both the coordinates should be integer)
exactly in the interior of the triangle with vertices (0, 0), (0, 21) and (21, 0), is
(A) 133 (B) 190
(C) 233 (D) 105
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α 0 1 0 2
62. If A = and B = , then value of α for which A = B, is
1 1 5 1
(A) 1 (B) − 1
(C) 4 (D) no real values
64*. If the angles of a triangle are in the ratio 4 : 1 : 1, then the ratio of the longest side to the
perimeter is
(A) 3 : (2 + 3 ) (B) 1 : 6
(C) 1 : 2 + 3 (D) 2 : 3
66. Two numbers are selected randomly from the set S = {1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6} without replacement one by
one. The probability that minimum of the two numbers is less than 4 is
(A) 1/15 (B) 14/15
(C) 1/5 (D) 4/5
x2 y2
67*. For hyperbola − = 1 which of the following remains constant with change in ‘α’
cos2 α sin2 α
(A) abscissae of vertices (B) abscissae of foci
(C) eccentricity (D) directrix
x2 + x + 2
68. Range of the function f (x) = ; x ∈ R is
x2 + x + 1
(A) (1, ∞) (B) (1, 11/ 7]
(C) (1, 7/ 3] (D) (1, 7/ 5]
f (2h + 2 + h2 ) − f (2)
69. lim , given that f ′ (2) = 6 and f′ (1) = 4
h →0 f (h − h2 + 1) − f (1)
(A) does not exist (B) is equal to − 3/ 2
(C) is equal to 3/ 2 (D) is equal to 3
70*. If f (x) = x2 + 2bx + 2c2 and g (x) = − x2 − 2cx + b2 such that min f (x) > max g (x), then the relation
between b and c, is
(A) no real value of b and c (B) 0 < c < b 2
(C) |c| < |b| 2 (D) |c| > |b| 2
71*. The centre of circle inscribed in square formed by the lines x2 − 8x + 12 = 0 and
y2 − 14y + 45 = 0, is
(A) (4, 7) (B) (7, 4)
(C) (9, 4) (D) (4, 9)
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72*. The focal chord to y2 = 16x is tangent to (x – 6)2 + y2 = 2, then the possible values of the slope of
this chord, are
(A) {−1, 1} (B) {−2, 2}
(C) {−2, 1/2} (D) {2, −1/2}
π
73. Domain of definition of the function f(x) = sin−1(2x ) + for real valued x, is
6
1 1 1 1
(A) − , (B) − ,
4 2 2 2
1 1 1 1
(C) − , (D) − ,
2 9 4 4
z −1
74*. If |z| = 1 and ω = ( where z ≠ −1), then Re(ω) is
z +1
1
(A) 0 (B) - 2
z +1
z 1 2
(C) ⋅ (D)
z + 1 | z + 1 |2 | z + 1 |2
π tan2 α
75*. If α ∈ 0, then x 2 + x + is always greater than or equal to
2 x2 + x
(A) 2 tanα (B) 1
(C) 2 (D) sec2α
1
76. If I(m, n) = ∫t
m
(1 + t )n dt , then the expression for I(m, n) in terms of I(m + 1, n - 1) is
0
2n n n
(A) − I(m + 1, n − 1) (B) I(m + 1, n − 1)
m +1 m +1 m +1
2n n m
(C) + I(m + 1, n − 1) (D) I(m + 1, n − 1)
m +1 m +1 n+1
x 2 +1
∫e
−t2
77. If f (x) = dt, then f (x) increases in
x2
78. The area bounded by the curves y = x , 2y + 3 = x and x−axis in the Ist quadrant is
(A) 9 (B) 27/4
(C) 36 (D) 18
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80. The value of ‘a’ so that the volume of parallelopiped formed by î + a ĵ + k̂, ĵ + ak̂ and a î + k̂
becomes minimum is
(A) − 3 (B) 3
(C) 1/ 3 (D) 3
81. If the system of equations x + ay = 0, az + y = 0 and ax + z = 0 has infinite solutions, then the
value of a is
(A) − 1 (B) 1
(C) 0 (D) no real values
dy
82. If y(t) is a solution of (1 + t ) − ty = 1 and y(0) = -1, then y(1) is equal to
dt
(A) − 1/2 (B) e + 1/2
(C) e − 1/2 (D) 1/2
84*. Orthocentre of triangle with vertices (0, 0), (3, 4) and (4, 0) is
5
(A) 3, (B) (3, 12)
4
3
(C) 3, (D) (3, 9)
4
Note: FIITJEE solutions to IIT−JEE, 2003 Screening Test is based on Screening Test paper created using
memory retention of select FIITJEE students appeared in this test. Every effort has been made to
reproduce the original paper in the interest of the aspirant students, yet FIITJEE does not guarantee
its authenticity.
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Answers
1. C 2. A 3. A
4. B 5. A 6. C
7. A 8. B 9. C
10. B 11. B 12. A
13. D 14. A 15. B
16. A 17. 18. B
19. A 20. A 21. B
22. A 23. B 24. C
25. B 26. A 27. A
28. B 29. A 30. A
31. A 32. A 33. A
34. A 35. A 36. A
37. A 38. C 39. A
40. A 41. B 42. C
43. C 44. A 45. A
46. A 47. A 48. A
49. B 50. A 51. C
52. C 53. A 54. A
55. D 56. A 57. B
58. A 59. A 60. D
61. B 62. D 63. A
64. A 65. D 66. D
67. B 68. C 69. D
70. D 71. A 72. A
73. A 74. A 75. A
76. A 77. D 78. A
79. D 80. C 81. A
82. A 83. B 84. C
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1 F 3
⇒ F/2 ≤ ( 3 ×g + )
2 3 2
f
⇒ F/2 ≤ g
mg
⇒ Fmax = 20 N Fsin60°
F ∆l 20 × 1
7. Y= = −6 = 2 × 1011 N/m2
A l 10 × 10 − 4
2π
8. For constructive interference ∆φ = (dsecθ + dsecθ cos2θ) + π = 2nπ
λ
⇒ cosθ =
(2n − 1)λ
4d
9. l1αat = l2αst
l 2 αa l + l1 αa + αs
⇒ = ⇒ 2 =
l1 αs l1 αs
l1 αs
⇒ =
l1 + l 2 αa + αs
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dU mv 2
12. |F| = − =
dr r
v 0r
⇒v= which is a constant
m
nh
mvnrn =
2π
rn ∝ n
m2
13. rn = (0.53)A°
Z
m 2 (0.53 )A°
(rn)Fm = = 0.53 A°×n
100
m is 5 for Z = 100
⇒ n = 1/4
15. Plane of motion must be perpendicular to at least one of the component of the magnetic field.
16. Ammeter is always connected in series and voltmeter is always connected in parallel
v 3v
21. =
4(l 1 + x ) 4(l 2 + x )
x = 2.5 cm
22. About the centre of circle the torque of the force causing the circular motion is zero.
r r
24. U = −µ.B
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29. Methane molecule being symmetrical, has zero dipole moment. Replacement of one of the H−
atoms by Cl atom increases the dipole moment. The increase in dipole moment is rather more
than what can be expected because of the fact that the bond dipole moment of C – H bond and
that of C – Cl bond reinforce one another. Replacement of another H atom of Cl increases the
bond angle due to lone pair − lone pair repulsion between two Cl−atoms thereby reducing the
dipole moment of the molecule. Increase in angle is again caused by the introduction of third Cl−
atom. When the fourth Cl−atom is introduced, the molecule (CCl4) again becomes symmetrical
and dipole moment reduces to zero. So, CH3Cl will have the maximum dipole moment.
30. NO 3− and CO 32− both have same number of electrons (equal to 32) and central atom in each
being sp2 hybridised, are isostructural too
−
31. Two moles of N H 2 ions will abstract two moles of most acidic hydrogen out of the four moles of
hydrogen present per mole of the acidic compound. The acidic strength is in the order:
– COOH > – OH (phenolic deactivated by NO2 group) > – OH (phenolic) > alkynic H.
32. SO2 and H2S both being reducing agents, can turn acidified dichromate solution green. SO2 can
be obtained by the action of acid upon sulphite while H2S is evolved by the action of acid upon
sulphide. However, SO2 has a burning sulphur smell which is irritating. H2S has rotten egg like
smell.
33. The structure of H3PO3 is as follows: There are only two –OH groups and hence H
dibasic. The oxidation number of P in this acid is +3. Whereas P may have +5
oxidation state also. Therefore, H3PO3 can be oxidised which means H3PO3 is a P
reducing agent. OH
O
OH
34. Stable oxidation state of Mn in alkaline medium is +6. So, MnO2 is oxidised to K2MnO4 by
atomospheric oxygen in KOH medium.
2MnO2 + 4KOH + O2 → 2K2MnO4 + 2H2O
36. sp 2 sp 2 sp sp
H2C CH C CH
from left to right
38. OH O
H2O / H+
P
→ H2C H3C
CH3 CH3
H3C H3C
+
Q →
H2O / H
OH CHO
Ketone (non−reducing) and aldehyde (reducing) can be distinguished by Fehling solution.
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39. C2H5O– will abstract proton from phenol converting the latter into phenoxide ion. This would then
make nucleophilic attack on the methylene carbon of alkyl iodide. But C2H5O– is in excess.
C2H5O– is better nucleophile than C6H5O– (phenoxide) ion since while in the former the negative
charge is localised over oxygen and in the latter it is delocalised over the whole molecular
framework. So, it is C2H5O– ion that would make nucleophilic attack at ethyl iodide to give diethyl
ether (Williamson’s synthesis).
H3C + H3C + I−
- H3C O CH3
O I
40. 24g carbon amounts to 2 mole i.e. 2 × 6.023 × 1023 atoms whereas all the rest amount to 1 mole
each only.
-
41. CHO OHC COO HOH 2C COOH HOH 2 C
OH− / 100°
→
intramolecular
+
→
H / H2O
Cannizaro reaction
42. In an electrolytic cell electrons do not flow themselves. It is the migration of ions towards
oppositely charged electrons that indirectly constitutes the flow of electrons from cathode to
anode through internal supply.
44. At the freezing point liquid and solid remain in equilibrium. If a solution of a non−volatile solute is
cooled to a temperature below the freezing point of solution, some of liquid solvent will separate
as a solid solvent and thus the concentration of solution will increase.
45. The central boron atom in boric acid, H3BO3 is electron−deficient i.e. boric acid is a Lewis acid
with one p−orbital vacant. There is no d−orbital of suitable energy in boron atom. So, it can
accommodate only one additional electron pair in its outermost shell.
OH2
-
B
H2O •• + B(OH)3 → [B(OH)4 ] − + H+
Base Acid HO OH
OH
+
46. Ph +
→
H Ph C
CH3 CH3
H2O
H3C
+
O CH3 O H O
Ph Ph Ph
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-
47. O O
OC2H5
O
CH3MgX
HO XMgO
CH3 CH3
+
←
HOH / H
R R
CH3 CH3
Thus, the choice with at least two methyl groups at the carbon linked with –OH group will be the
correct choice.
48. Ag + + 0Br −
.01 mole
→ AgBr
Excess 0.01 mole
Ba
Excess
+ SO 4 → BaSO 4
2+ 2−
n 13
50. ratio of 24Na nuclide is i.e. greater than unity and hence radioactive. To achieve stability, it
p 11
n
would tend to adjust its ratio to the proper value of unity. This can be done by breaking a
p
neutron into proton and electron.
0
n 1 → +1 p 1 + −1 e 0 or β −
The proton will stay inside the nucleus whereas electron which cannot exist in the nucleus, will be
emitted out as β−ray.
51. It appears at the first sight that Me2SiCl2 on hydrolysis will produce Me2Si(OH)2 which ultimately
upon loss of water, will form Me2Si = O. But silicon atom, because of its very large size in
comparison to oxygen, is unable to form π−bond. Thus, the product of hydrolysis is polymeric in
nature.
52. HgS having the lowest Ksp among the lot will precipitate first.
1
53. 2Au + 4CN– + H2O + O2 → 2[Au(CN)2]– + 2OH–
2
2[Au(CN)2]– + Zn → [Zn(CN)4]2– + 2Au
56. The optically active acid will react with d and l forms of alcohol present in the racemic mixture to
form two types of isomeric esters. In each the configuration of the chiral centre of acid will remain
the same. So the mixture will be optically active.
1
57. f′(x) = > 0 ∀ x ∈ [0, ∞) and range ∈ [0, 1) ⇒ function is one−one but not onto
(1 + x )2
58. From venn diagram, we can see that A C
P (B ∩ C) = P (B) − P (A ∩ B ∩ C ) − P ( A ∩ B ∩ C )
3 1 1 1 A ∩B ∩ C
= − − = .
4 3 3 12 B
A ∩B ∩ C
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60. By symmetry the quadrilateral is a rhombus. So area is four times the area of the right angled
triangle formed by the tangent and axes in the Ist quadrant.
Now, ae = a2 − b2 ⇒ ae = 2
5 2 5 y x y
⇒ tangent (in first quadrant) at end of latus rectum 2, is x + = 1 i.e. + =1
3 9 3 5 9 / 2 3
1 9
Area = 4. ⋅ .3 = 27 sq units.
2 2
20 × 20 − 20
61. Number of points exactly in the interior of the triangle = = 190.
2
α 0 α 0 α 2 0
62. A2 = =
1 1 1 1 α + 1 1
clearly, no real value of α.
63. Point (4, 2, k) should lie in the given plane ⇒ 2 (4) − 4 (2) + 1 (k) = 7 ⇒ k = 7.
2x cos 300
64. Angles are 30°, 30° and 120°. Hence sides are x, x and 2x cos30° ratio is
2x + 2 x cos 300
⇒ 3 : (2 + 3 ).
sin nx tan x 1
65. lim n ⋅ lim (a − n)n − = 0 ⇒ n ((a−n)n− 1) = 0 ⇒ (a − n)n = 1 ⇒ a = n + .
x →0 nx x →0 x n
24 4
66. Total ways 2! 6C2 = 30. Favourable cases = 30 − 6 = 24. Probability = =
30 5
67. ae = a 2 + b2 = cos 2 α + sin2 α = 1.
1
68. f(x) = 1 + 2
⇒ Range = (1, 7/ 3].
1 3
x + +
2 4
70. f(x) = (x + b)2 + 2c2 − b2 and g (x) = b2 + c2 − (x + c)2 ⇒ 2c2 − b2 > b2 + c2 ⇒ |c| > 2 |b|.
x=2 x=6
(2, 5)
y=5
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π π 1 1 1
73. − ≤ sin-1(2x) ≤ ⇒ − ≤ 2x ≤ 1 ⇒ x ∈ − 4 , 2
6 2 2
π
74. arg (ω) = ± z
2
⇒ ω is purely imaginary. (-1, 0) O (1, 0)
Re(ω) = 0
tan2 α
75. x2 + x + ≥ 2 tanα (AM ≥ GM)
x2 + x
1 1 1
tm+1 tm+1 2n n
76. I(m , n) = ∫ t (1 + t ) dt = (1 + t)
m n n
− n(1 + t )n−1
∫ dt = − I(m + 1, n − 1) .
m+1 m+1 m +1 m +1
0 0 0
77.
2 2
f′(x) = e−( x +1) . 2x − e
−( x 2 ) 2 4 2
( 2
)
. 2x = 2x e −( x +1+ 2 x ) 1 − e 2 x +1 ⇒ f′ (x) > 0 ∀ x ∈ (− ∞, 0).
78. y2 = 2y + 3 ⇒ y = 3 y
The required area
3 x = y2 (9, 3)
3
y3
∫ (2y + 3 − y 2 ) dy = y + 3y −
2
=
3
0 0 x = 2y + 3
= 9 + 9 − 9 = 9.
(3, 0) x
1 a 0
2 3
81. 0 1 a = 0 ⇒ 1 + a (a ) = 0 ⇒ a = − 1 ⇒ a = − 1.
a 0 1
1 k 3 y
84. From figure tanθ = = ⇒k= A(3, 4)
4 3 4
θ
• (3, k)
θ x
O(0, 0) 3 1 B(4, 0)
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