2020 Intermediate Biology Olympiad

Intermediate Biology Olympiad Question Paper

60 minutes

68 marks

Write your name, school and exam centre details on the top of the answer sheet.

You may use a calculator.

You may use a dictionary to translate words from English. (Scientific dictionaries may not be
used.)

You may use spare paper for rough work or calculations.

Use black ink or black ball-point pen.

The paper consists of 68 questions. One mark per question.

Some questions have more than one answer you need to choose. For some questions, you
need to put the answers in the correct order.

No marks are subtracted for incorrect answers.

At the end of the exam when you have completed the test and have checked your answers,
return all test materials to the invigilator.
Section 1: The variety of life

1. Which is the correct classification of the organism in this photograph?

A. Domain: Eukarya, Kingdom: Plantae

B. Domain: Archaea, Kingdom: Plantae
C. Domain: Eukarya, Kingdom: Anamalia
D. Domain: Eukarya, Kingdom: Protista
E. Domain: Plantae, Kingdom: Archaea

2. Some scientists argue that viruses are truly living.

Here are some facts about viruses; which of these suggests viruses are
living?

A. Viruses cannot replicate outside of host cells

B. Viruses cannot generate their own energy
C. Viruses cannot produce proteins outside of host cells
D. Viruses can evolve
E. Viral particles are not made of cells

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3. What makes plants and animals different?

A. Only plants have a cell nucleus

B. Only plants can make fats (lipids)
C. Only plants have chloroplasts
D. Only animals have mitochondria
E. Only animals reproduce sexually

4. How could you accurately tell eukaryotes apart from bacteria?

A. Only bacteria can be single-celled (unicellular)

B. Only eukaryotes have cells
C. Only eukaryotes have ribosomes
D. Only eukaryotes have RNA
E. Only eukaryotes have mitochondria

5. Most viruses can only infect one host species.

Why is this?

A. Non-host species do not make the proper proteins from the genes of the
virus
B. Non-host species have antibodies against the virus
C. Non-host species do not have the same cell types
D. Non-host species have proteins which do not fit together well with virus
proteins
E. Non-host species already have other better adapted viruses which
outcompete the virus

3
6. The majority of all species on Earth are insects (contained within the
class Insecta). In turn, a large majority of all insect species are beetles
(contained within the order Coleopetra). This is shown in the
phylogenetic tree.

What does this phylogeny show?

A. Flies are a type of beetle

B. Beetles evolved from bugs
C. Cockroaches are the most ancient kind of insect
D. Flies are more closely related to moths than beetles
E. Dragonflies are more closely related to silverfish than beetles

4
7. Consider a unicellular photosynthesising algae, and a multicellular plant.

Which is an advantage algae have over plants?

A. Algae can more easily move to stay in sunlight

B. Algae can grow taller to compete for light
C. Algae can develop specialised organs to carry out tasks more effectively
D. Algae can store more nutrient reserves
E. Algae can grow thick protective coatings to survive on land

8. Evolution is fastest when:

Migration Selection pressure Variation due to

mutation

A absent high high

B absent low low

C high high low

D high low high

A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D

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9. The DNA sequences from four organisms have been aligned for
comparison.

Which two organisms are most closely related?

A. Organism 1 and Organism 2

B. Organism 1 and Organism 3
C. Organism 2 and Organism 3
D. Organism 2 and Organism 4
E. Organism 3 and Organism 4

6
Section 2: Ecology and behaviour

10. Bees pollinate flowers and are given nectar in return. Some orchid
flowers mimic other species, so are pollinated, but do not produce any
nectar.

Which word best describes the relationship between bees and the mimic
orchids?

A. Mutualism
B. Pathogenic
C. Parasitism
D. Commensalism
E. Predation

11. After being tricked by the mimic orchids, bees will stop visiting both the
orchids and the flowers they mimic.

What type of behaviour is this?

A. Instinct
B. Habituation
C. Imprinting
D. Reasoning
E. Conditioning

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12. Pine martens are a British predator which hunt squirrels. Grey squirrels,
which were introduced from America, have replaced red squirrels in
most of Britain. Recently, the marten population has been growing
because, unlike red squirrels, grey squirrels are not afraid of martens so
are easier to catch.

Why do the red and grey squirrels behave differently?

A. Conditioning
B. Teaching
C. Instinct
D. Play
E. Altruism

13. In very polluted areas, camouflaged animals tend to have many darkly
coloured individuals in their population. When pollution is stopped,
more lightly coloured individuals tend to become more common.

What type of evolution explains this?

A. Genetic drift
B. Sexual selection
C. Natural selection
D. Artificial selection
E. Inheritance of acquired characteristics

14. In a food chain, the energy, carbon, nitrogen and oxygen fixed into
molecules, often comes from different sources.

Which class of organism can fix all of these by themselves?

A. Plants
B. Animals
C. Fungi
D. Bacteria
E. None of the above

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15. Scientists estimate up to 1030 bacterial cells live inside rocks deep
within the earth. They may survive by very slowly metabolising
hydrogen produced by the decay of radioactive elements.

What type of organisms are they?

A. Consumer (heterotroph)
B. Producer (auto/lithotroph)
C. Decomposer (detritivore/sacrophage)
D. Omnivore
E. Herbivore

9
16. Historically, lawns were made from a variety of small herbs. These were
re-branded as weeds by grass seed companies, and have become rare.
We counted the number of some animals in a herb lawn versus a grass
lawn. The table includes the partial results of some calculations you will
need to use.

Grass lawn Herb lawn

Number of (n-1) n(n-1) Number of (n-1) n(n-1)

individuals individuals

Woodlice 21 20 420 18 17 306

Ladybirds 1 0 0 11 10 110

Earwigs 8 7 56 8 7 56

Worms 1 0 0 3 2 6

Ants 12 11 132 7 6 42

The Simpson index of diversity is D = 1 - [ Σn(n-1) / N(N-1)], where

n = the total number of organisms of a particular species

N = the total number of organisms of all species

Calculate D for the herb lawn. Pick the nearest answer.

A. 0.5
B. 0.6
C. 0.65
D. 0.7
E. 0.75
F. 0.8

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17. If you replaced a grass lawn with a herb lawn, what would you most
notice?

A. Ants become more common

B. Woodlice become more common
C. The number of animals increases
D. The variety of animals increases
E. No obvious differences

18. The characteristic smell of rain after long dry spells is caused by a type
of bacteria releasing scents. These attract insects which feed on the
bacteria. Whilst feeding, the insects are coated in bacterial spores.

The insect shows:

A. Phytotaxis/phototaxis
B. Gravitropism
C. Chemotaxis
D. Kinesis
E. Chemotropism

19. What benefit do the scent producing bacteria get from this process?

A. Population control
B. Fertilisation
C. Dispersal
D. Nutrition
E. Protection

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20. Scottish wildcats are Britain's only surviving indigenous cat species.
Motion-sensitive cameras in 347 Scottish locations captured 200 000
images, and volunteers used these to identify wildcats by their markings.

In one year, they found 10 different wildcats. In the next year, they found
9 different Scottish wildcats, one of which 1 had the same markings as a
cat photographed in the preceding year.

Use the mark recapture method to estimate, to the nearest 50, the
number of wildcats in Scotland.

A. 50
B. 100
C. 150
D. 200
E. 250

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Section 3: Genetics

21. In Harry Potter, children are more likely to have magical ability if their
families do. However, some children have magical ability even though
their parents do not.

What mechanisms of inheritance cannot explain this pattern?

A. Magical ability is a recessive allele

B. Magical ability is controlled by many genes (polygenic)
C. Magical ability is a consequence of cultural/environmental factors in
childhood
D. Magical ability is a dominant allele
E. Magical ability is spread by an infectious organism

22. In flu viruses, each gene is encoded on 8 separate pieces of RNA. The H
and N genes determine the virulence of flu. The pieces of RNA are
packaged together to make a viral particle. If two different strains of flu
infect the same cell, a random mix of RNA from each strain is packaged
into new viral particles.

If a H1 N2 flu virus from birds, and a H5 N9 flu virus from pigs, infect the
same cell, how many different H and N combinations will be present in
the resulting viral particles?

A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
E. 8
F. 12

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23. How many different combinations of all 8 genes will the new viral
particles contain?

A. 8
B. 16
C. 64
D. 256
E. 512

24. Scientists want to modify an organism so it can incorporate an

unnatural amino acid with special properties into proteins encoded by
artificial genes.

What steps should they take to achieve this most easily?

1. Identify the rarest codon, and replace it in all the organism's existing
genes with an alternative encoding the same amino acid

2. Modify tRNA synthesis so it adds the unnatural amino acid to the

appropriate tRNA

3. Alter RNA polymerase so it incorporates different bases at some

codons

4. Alter ribosomes so they read codons differently

5. Alter tRNAs so they bind four mRNA bases.

6. Alter all genes so they use a quad code rather than triplet code

7. Add genes encoding enzymes to synthesise the unnatural amino acid

A. 1,2,7
B. 1,2,3,7
C. 2,4,7
D. 4,5,6,7
E. 2,4,5,6,7

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25. You want to create rose flowers which are both whorled and large.
Therefore you cross a plant producing small whorled flowers with a
plant producing large open (not whorled) flowers.

All the plants from this cross had small open flowers - the opposite of
what you wanted! However, you allowed these plants to set seed
anyway. If 1 gene controls whorled versus open flowers and 1 gene
controls flower size, what proportion of the seeds will grow into plants
with large whorled flowers?

A. ¹/₂₀
B. ¹/₁₆
C. ¹/₁₄
D. ¹/₁₂
E. ¹/₈
F. ¹/₄
G. ¹/₂

26. A cell contains an amount of DNA, X, in G2 phase. How much DNA will a
cell contain after anaphase 2 of meiosis?

A. x/4
B. x/2
C. x
D. 2x

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27. The gene RMS1 controls how branched plants become, and it was
altered in modern crops as part of the ‘green revolution’.

Parts of seedlings with normal RMS1 were grafted onto seedlings which
have no RMS1 to study how the gene works.

Which of the following is true?

A. RMS1 increases shoot branching

B. The signal produced by RMS1 travels towards the shoot tip, rather than
towards the roots
C. RMS1 in the roots alone is enough to give normal shoot branching
D. Shoots cannot branch normally unless RMS1 is in the roots
E. The signal produced by RMS1 only travels a short distance

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28. Complex behaviour can be genetically controlled by a single gene.
Burrowing mouse burrows of species A have an escape tunnel.

Burrows of species B do not have escape tunnels.

When species A and B interbreed, the hybrids always dig an escape

burrow.

What is correct?

A. Alleles for digging an escape tunnel are recessive

B. If the hybrids breed with species A (backcross), half the offspring dig an
escape tunnel
C. If the hybrids breed with species B (backcross), half the offspring dig an
escape tunnel
D. If the hybrids breed with each other, half of the offspring dig an escape
tunnel
E. Offspring of hybrids will never build an escape tunnel

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29. People with pale eyes are more likely to get skin cancer. What is a
plausible explanation for this correlation?

A. The same genes control the amount of pigment in skin and eyes, and
pigment in skin protects against skin cancer
B. People with pale eyes are more likely to grow up in cultures that do not
take adequate steps to prevent skin cancer
C. Genes for pale eyes and increased risk of skin cancer tend to be inherited
together
D. All of the above
E. None of the above

30. It is not possible to predict accurately whether a mutation is likely to be

harmful, but you can make a reasonable guess based on your
knowledge of biology.

Which is most likely?

A. Deleting a base in an intron is worse than deleting a base in an exon

B. Deleting 3 bases in an exon is worse than deleting 1 base
C. Deleting 1 base near the start of an exon is worse than deleting 1 base
near the end
D. Deleting 3 bases in the middle of an intron is worse than deleting 3 bases
at its start
E. Swapping 1 base for another is worse than deleting 1 base

31. What is different between meiosis and mitosis?

A. sister chromatids are separated

B. DNA is replicated
C. Chromosomes condense
D. Homologous chromosomes pair up

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32. A certain kind of blood cancer (leukaemia) is always caused when
pieces of two chromosomes are swapped, which causes two genes to
be stuck together. This new fusion gene produces a protein which
forces cells to divide.

DNA from different chromosomes can be stained different colours, and

seen down a microscope. Chromosomes from a person with this blood
cancer are shown.

Which of the following is true?

A. This mutation is recessive

B. Pieces of chromosome 8 and 3 are swapped
C. This person is female
D. This person has Down syndrome (an extra copy of chromosome 21)
E. This person is heterozygous for the mutation

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33. A complementary strand of DNA, formed by semi-conservative
replication has the base sequence 5'-TAGGCATT-3'.

5' refers to the phospho end of the nucleotides, and 3' the OH group,
hence the orientation of the strand.

What is the base sequence on the original DNA strand?

A. 5'-AAUGCCUA-3'
B. 5'-ATCCGTAA-3'
C. 5'-AATGCCTA-3'
D. 5'-AUCCGUAA-3'

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Section 4: Physiology

34. What is true of both the animal cardiovascular system and the plant
transpiration system?

A. Fluid is pushed along vessels

B. Fluid is water based
C. Fluid circulates in a loop
D. Fluid movement is mostly active (requires energy generated by the
organism)
E. Fluid has the same osmolarity as cells (isosmotic/isotonic)

35. Which of the following processes does not occur during digestion in
animal guts?

A. Active transport of glucose into the body

B. Facilitated diffusion of water into the body
C. Hydrolysis of proteins
D. Secretions of salts into the gut
E. Excretion of urea

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36. Light harvesting proteins are embedded in the internal membranes of
chloroplasts.

Consider:

1. A primitive chloroplast where the internal membrane simply lines the

outside of the chloroplast.

2. A modern chloroplast where the internal membrane is invaginated

and stacked to fill much of the volume of the chloroplast.

How much more light will the primitive chloroplast harvest if it grows to
double its radius?

A. The same amount of light

B. 1.5 times
C. 2 times
D. 4 times
E. 8 times

37. How much more light will a modern chloroplast harvest if it grows to
double its radius?

A. The same amount of light

B. 1.5 times
C. 2 times
D. 4 times
E. 8 times

22
38. Fick's law models the rate of diffusion across a surface, such as oxygen
travelling from air sacs into blood in the lungs.

Q = K (C1 - C2) A / d

Q = rate of transfer

K = diffusion constant. For Oxygen in air at body temperature, K = 0.3.

For Oxygen in water at body temperature, K = 0.00002

(C1 - C2) = the concentration difference of Oxygen between air and blood

A = surface area of airsacs

d = distance (or thickness) the Oxygen moves

What is not an adaptation of lungs to increase exchange of oxygen

according to Fick's law?

A. Fast rate of blood flow to keep C₂ low

B. Fast rate of breathing to keep C₁ high
C. Minimum thickness of cells lining air sacs
D. Air sacs lined with a layer of water
E. Red blood cells bind most oxygen to keep C₂ in blood low

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39. In a resting muscle, the pressure of oxygen 60 mmHg and the pH is 7.4.

When exercising, the muscle consumes oxygen, so the pressure of

oxygen drops to 30 mmHg, and the muscle produces carbon dioxide
and other acids, so the pH drops to 6.6.

These changes affect how much oxygen is bound to haemoglobin

according to the curves shown below.

Calculate how much more oxygen the muscle extracts from blood when
exercising than resting.

A. 180 ml/l
B. 160 ml/l
C. 140 ml/l
D. 120 ml/l
E. < 120 ml/l

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40. Tissue fluid is extruded from capillaries and bathes cells. The amount of
tissue fluid produced depends on the balance of pressures and
osmolarities in blood versus tissues.

Excess tissue fluid accumulates in several diseases. What would not

cause excess tissue fluid?

A. High blood pressure

B. Blockage in veins
C. Blockage in lymph vessels
D. Reduced protein concentration in blood
E. Kidneys unable to concentrate urine (unable to absorb fluid)

41. Vaccines aim to stimulate an adaptive immune response.

What is involved in stimulating the adaptive immune system?

A. Antibodies bind to things on the pathogen, stopping them from working

B. Cytotoxic cells kill other cells infected with the pathogen
C. Phagocytic cells ingest the pathogen
D. An inflammatory response increases immune system activity
E. All of the above

42. What feature of a pathogen is most likely to make it difficult to vaccinate

against?

A. Causes very severe illness

B. Usually causes very mild illness
C. Lives inside host cells
D. Mutates rapidly
E. Has genes which suppress immune responses

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43. A blood vessel was observed using a microscope with a ruler etched
into the eyepiece. Without changing the magnification, a micrometer
was also observed through the microscope. Each small division on the
on the micrometer is 100 µm.

Estimate the diameter of the blood vessel lumen (inside) in µm. Choose
the nearest answer.

A. <700
B. 700
C. 780
D. 800
E. 830
F. 1500
G. 8000

44. When trees are transpiring, the diameter of their trunks decreases
because:

A. Less water is present in xylem vessels

B. More water is present in xylem vessels
C. Tension in xylem vessels increases
D. Tension in xylem vessels decreases

26
45. Put the stages of the cardiac cycle in order:

a. Ventricular systole begins

b. Atrial systole begins
c. Atrioventricular valves shut
d. Semilunar valves shut

A. a > c > d > b

B. a > b > c > d
C. a > d > b > c
D. a > d > c > b
E. a > c > b > d

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Section 5: Biochemistry and cell biology

46. Animals generate more energy from glucose in the presence of oxygen,
than in the absence of oxygen. This is because oxygen…

A. is needed as an oxidising agent to fully break down glucose

B. molecules are split to make free radicals which react with glucose
C. binds to the enzymes which break down glucose
D. neutralises acids made by breaking down glucose
E. is needed as a reducing agent to fully break down glucose

47. Many molecules (DNA, proteins, carbohydrates etc) are polymers. There
are many reasons polymers are so important in biology.

Which is not a correct reason?

A. Polymers give structural strength

B. Polymers are more compact than small molecules
C. Polymers are less soluble and have less impact on osmolarity than small
molecules
D. Polymers often require little energy to assemble/disassemble
E. Polymers are more chemically reactive than small molecules

48. What is the key difference between lipids (fats) and carbohydrates?

A. Molecular size
B. Amount of carbon
C. Amount of nitrogen
D. Presence of closed rings versus open chains
E. Amount of oxygen

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49. In people with diabetes, blood sugar levels may become very high. The
kidney usually reabsorbs all the sugar from blood plasma it fliters into
urine. However, in diabetic people, the rate of glucose reabsorption in
the kidney may become saturated. A Benedict's test used to be used to
test the amount of sugar in samples from diabetic people.

Which is order of samples, from left to right, giving the results shown in
the test-tubes?

A. Urine from healthy person; urine from diabetic; blood plasma from diabetic;
positive control (glucose)
B. Urine from diabetic person; urine from healthy person; blood plasma from
diabetic; positive control (glucose)
C. Urine from healthy person; blood plasma from diabetic; urine from diabetic;
positive control (glucose)
C. Blood plasma from healthy person; urine from healthy person; urine from
diabetic; positive control (glucose)
E. Positive control (glucose); urine from diabetic; blood plasma from diabetic;
urine from healthy person
F. Positive control (glucose); blood plasma from diabetic; urine from diabetic;
urine from healthy

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50. Plants use underground tubers to store carbohydrates densely over the
winter. Plants pack fruits with sweet tasting carbohydrates to attract
animals which will disperse their seeds. Other parts of the plant contain
a mix of sugars being transported and metabolised or stored.

An iodine test was used on samples from a plant. Which is order of

samples, from left to right, giving the results shown in the test-tubes?

A. Fruit; tuber
B. Leaf; tuber
C. Leaf; fruit
D. Tuber; fruit
E. Tuber; leaf

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51. A scientist wants to analyse the cytoplasm of some cells, but not their
membranes. Therefore, she separates the cytoplasm and membranes
into different tubes. She performs an emulsion test to measure how
effective the separation was.

What results would she expect for the cell membranes?

A. Insoluble in ethanol; then forms cloudy layer when water added

B. Successfully dissolves in ethanol; then forms cloudy layer when water
added
C. Insoluble in ethanol; then clear when water added
D. Soluble in water; then forms a clear layer when ethanol added
E. Insoluble in water; then forms cloudy layer when ethanol added

52. The high energy bonds of the triphosphate group of ATP are the enrgy
source for many active processes within cells. However, DNA
polymerases do not directly require ATP to extend a DNA strand.

Why?

A. Condensation of the DNA polymer is more energetically favourable than its

hydrolysis
B. DNA polymerases use GTP instead of ATP
C. Hydrolysis of one DNA strand provides energy for synthesising another
D. Deoxyribonucleotides are synthesised with their own triphosphate groups
E. Base pairing with the template strand provides energy for synthesising the
new strand

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53. Albumins are soluble proteins present at extremely high concentrations
in biological fluids (such as blood). When denatured, albumins loose
certain properties, which is why fluids (such as egg whites) set when
heated.

What key property do you suppose albumins have?

A. Very large molecular size

B. Hydrophobic surfaces
C. Long, fibrous shapes
D. Approximately neutral pH
E. Shape mostly maintained by covalent bonds

32
54. Pineapples contain an enzyme which digests proteins (protease).

The amino acid tyrosine is aromatic, so it absorbs UV light in proportion

to its concentration. When tyrosine is within a protein, it does not
absorb UV.

These graphs are different measurements from a protein sample treated

with pineapple extract.

Which graph shows absorbance on the Y axis, and tyrosine

concentration on the X axis?

A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D

55. Which graph shows rate of reaction on the Y axis, and temperature on
the X axis?

A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D

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56. Which graph shows rate of reaction on the Y axis, and pH on the X axis?

A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D

57. Which graph shows absorbance on the Y axis and time on the X axis?

A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D

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58. Next, different chemicals were added to the mix of pineapple extract and
protein sample. The chemicals could either

(a) Have no effect on pineapple protease

(b) Competitively inhibit pineapple protease
(c) Non-competitively inhibit pineapple protease

Which curve matches which chemical?

A. I=a, II=b, III=c

B. I=a, II=c, III=b
C. I=b, II=a, III=c
D. I=b. II=c, III=a
E. I=c, II=a, III=b
F. I=c, II=b, III=a

35
59. A Biuret test was carried out on samples from these experiments.

Which is order of samples, from left to right, giving the results shown in
the test-tubes?

A. Protein, protein exposed to pineapple, no protein

B. Protein, no protein, protein exposed to pineapple
C. Protein exposed to pineapple, protein, no protein
D. Protein exposed to pineapple, no protein, protein
E. No protein, protein, protein exposed to pineapple
F. No protein, protein exposed to pineapple, protein

36
60. Two distances were measured during mitosis.

What were the distances?

1 2
Distance between Distance between
A nuclei centrioles and
centromeres
Distance between Distance between
B centromeres of centrioles and
sister chromatids centromeres
Distance between Distance between
C centrioles and centromeres of
centromeres sister chromatids
Distance between Distance between
D centrioles centrioles and
centromeres

A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D

37
61. A student would like to film the movement of chromosomes during cell
division. Their best choice for a microscope would be a…

A. light microscope, because of its resolving power

B. transmission electron microscope, because of its magnifying power
C. scanning electron microscope, because the specimen is alive
D. transmission electron microscope, because of its great resolving power
E. light microscope, because the specimen is alive

62. Which of the following is responsible for the high resolution of an

electron microscope?

A. Extremely thin sections

B. High magnification
C. The short wavelengths of the electron beam
D. Using heavy metal stains

63. Which cellular structure is responsible for producing membrane bound

vesicles?

A. Golgi body
B. Mitochondrion
C. Nucleus
D. Rough endoplasmic reticulum
E. Smooth endoplasmic reticulum

38
64. Which of the following combinations of statements is correct?

1. The nuclear envelope consists of a single membrane layer.

2. The pH inside lysosomes is approximately 8.
3. Rough endoplasmic reticulum is coated with ribosomes.
4. Glycolysis takes place in mitochondria.
5. The pH in the matrix of mitochondria is higher than in the intermembrane
space.

A. 1, 3 & 5.
B. 2, 4 & 5.
C. 1, 2 & 3.
D. 3 & 5 only
E. 1 & 4 only

65. Which combination of the following statements concerning the fluid

mosaic model of the cell membrane is true?

i. The membrane is 6 – 10nm wide.

ii. Phospholipid structure has a glycerol with three fatty acid groups
attached.
iii. Transmembrane proteins have a hydrophobic 'waist'.
iv. The membrane surface has a negative charge.

A. all of them
B. i, ii and iii
C. i, iii and iv
D. ii, iii and iv
E. i and iii only

39
66. A scientist added a solution of positively-charged ions to a solution
containing an animal cell and measured the concentration of the ions
inside the cell 20 minutes later. If she repeated the experiment using a
new cell and doubled the external concentration of the ions, the
concentration inside the cell also was doubled. When she injected the
living cell with a dye that specifically fluoresced when it bound to the
ions, she saw that the cytoplasm fluoresced uniformly throughout the
cell.

What is the most likely explanation for how the ions were taken up into
the cell?

A. Via channel proteins in the plasma membrane

B. By active transport
C. By simple diffusion through the membrane
D. By endocytosis
E. By osmosis

40
67. Various forces are important in the interactions contributing to the
tertiary structure of a protein.

The figure below is a diagram showing several possible interactions.

Which of the following letters represent the correct names for each type
of interaction?

Hydrogen Hydrophobic Disulphide Ionic

bond interaction bond bond
A 2 3 4 1
B 1 2 3 4
C 1 2 4 3
D 3 1 2 4

A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D

41
68. A peptide six amino acids long was partially digested and the following
peptides were produced:

TEY
YEG
EGG
EYE

What was the sequence of amino acids in the original peptide?

A. TEEYGG
B. YEGGTE
C. EGGTEY
D. TEYEGG

END.

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