ATPLP0F 1

26 cards shown
- + Q» :
Question - Answer
1. An aircraft's mass is a result of: Its volume (note: mass=volume, mass = kilogram)
.
2 The unit of mass is the: Kilogram
3.The definition of a force is: A push or a pull
.
4 The unit of force is the: Newton
5.The unit of weight is the: Newton (Note: mass=kilogram, weight = newton)
6. Weight is the result of: The force on mass due to gravity
7. About which point does an aircraft rotate: The centre of gravity
8. If a force is applied to a mass and the mass does not move: No work is done
.
9 The unit of work is called the: Joule
10. The unit of power is called the: Watt
.
11 If a force of 20 Newton's moves a mass 5 metres: -
1 - the work done is 100 Nm 2 the work done is 100 Joules 1 and 2 (Note: 20 x 5 = 100)
12. If a force of 50 Newton's is applied to a 10 kg mass and the mass moves 10 metres and a force The work done is the same in both cases
.
13 The definition of power is: The rate of doing work
14.lf a force of 500 Newton's moves a mass 1000 metres in 2 mins, the power used is: 4167 Watts
15.Kinetic energy is: The energy a mass possesses because of its motion
16. The unit of kinetic energy is the: .
Joule (Note: work = joule kenetic energy = joule)
1 - a moving mass can apply a force by being brought to rest 2 - kinetic energy is the energy possessed by a body
.
17 When considering kinetic energy: because of its motion 3 - if a body's kinetic energy is increased, a force must have been applied 4 - kinetic energy
=1/2 mV2 joules 1, 2, 3 and 4
.
18 The property of inertia is said to be: The opposition which a body offers to a change in motion
19. Considering Newton's first law of motion: -
3 - a body will tend to remain at rest, or in uniform motion in a straight line, unless acted upon by an external force 4
to move a stationary object or to make a moving object change its direction, a force must be applied 3 and 4
2 - if the same force is applied, the larger the mass the slower the acceleration 3 - if two forces are applied to the
20. Considering Newton's second law of motion: same mass, the bigger the force the greater the acceleration 4 - the acceleration of a body from a state of rest, or
uniform motion in a straight line, is proportional to the applied force and inversely proportional to the mass 2, 3, and 4
21.Newton's third law of motion states: Every action has an equal and opposite reaction
22. The definition of velocity is the: Rate of change of displacement (Note: velocity = displacement)
23. When considering acceleration: 1 - acceleration is the rate of change of velocity
24. The definition of momentum is: The quantity of motion possessed by a body
1 - 2 4 Watts 3 - Force times distance moved in one second 4 - Force times the distance the mass is moved in one
25. A force of 24 Newton's moves a 10 kg mass 60 metres in 1 minute, the power used is:
second 1, 3 and 4
1 - Momentum is the quantity of motion possessed by a body 2 - Momentum is the tendency of a body to continue in
.
26 When considering momentum:
motion after being placed in motion 3 - A mass of 2000 kg moving at 55 m/ s has 110,000 kg-m/ s of momentum
 AT , _I POF 2
23 cards shown
- + Q. :

Question Answer
1 - Air has mass 3 - Air is able to flow or change its shape when subject to even small pressures 5 - Moving air has
1. When considering air:
kinetic energy (note: air = MPE mass pressures energy)
2. Why do the lower layers contain the greater proportion of the whole mass of the atmosphere: Because air is compressible (Note: lower layers = compressible)
3 - Density decreases steadily with increasing altitude 4 - Pressure falls steadily with increasing altitude The
3. With increasing altitude, up to about 40,000 ft, the characteristics of air change:
combination of true statements is:
-
1 In aviation, static pressure can be measured in hectopascal's 2 - The SI units for static pressure is N/m-' 3 -
Static pressure is the product of the mass of air pressing down on the air beneath 4 - Referred to as static pressure
4. When considering static pressure:
because of the air’s stationary or static presence 5 - The lower the altitude, the greater the static pressure The correct
statements are:
5. When considering air density: 4 - As altitude increases, density will decrease
6. Air density is: Mass per unit volume

7. When considering the ICAO International Standard Atmosphere and comparing it with the actual atmosphere, -
1 Temperature, pressure and density are constantly changing in any given layer of the actual atmosphere 2 - A
requirement exists for a hypothetical 'standard' atmosphere 4 - The International Standard Atmosphere was designed
which of the following statements is correct:
for the calibration of pressure instruments and the comparison of aircraft performance calculations
8. When considering the ICAO International Standard Atmosphere, which of the following statements is correct: 2 - Sea level temperature is assumed to be 15° C
9. A moving mass of air possesses kinetic energy. An object placed in the path of such a moving mass of air will be
Static pressure and dynamic pressure
subject to which of the following:
The amount by which the pressure rises at a point where a moving airflow is brought completely to rest (note:
10. Dynamic pressure is:
dynamic = rises)
11. Dynamic pressure is equal to: Half the density times the true airspeed squared (note: dynamic pressure = 1/2 DTASA 2)
12. A tube facing into an airflow will experience a pressure in the tube equal to: Static pressure plus dynamic pressure
13. A static pressure vent must be positioned: On a part of the structure where the airflow is undisturbed, in a surface parallel to the airflow direction
14. The inputs to an Air Speed Indicator are from: A pitot and a static source
15. The deflection of the pointer of the AirSpeed Indicator is proportional to: Dynamic pressure
16. Calibration of the Air Speed Indicator is based upon the density: At sea level ICAO International Standard Atmosphere temperature
17. When considering the relationship between different types of air speed: 3 - Indicated Air Speed is not a speed at all, it's a pressure 4 - True Air Speed is the speed of the aircraft through the air
- -
1 Calibrated Air Speed is Indicated Air Speed corrected for position error 2 Equivalent Air Speed is Indicated Air
-
Speed corrected for position error and compressibility 3 Position error, which causes false Indicated Air Speed
18. When considering the relationship between different types of air speed: readings, is due to variations in the pressures sensed at the pitot and static ports 4 - The Air Speed Indicator is
calibrated to read True Air Speed when the ambient density is that of the ICAO International Standard Atmosphere at
sea level
19 . The speed of sound: Is proportional to the square root of the absolute temperature of the air
20. Mach number is: The aircraft True Air Speed divided by the local speed of sound
21. An aircraft's critical Mach number is; The aircraft's Mach number when airflow over it first reaches the local speed of sound
22. When humidity of the atmosphere increases, the lift of an aerofoil:
23. The speed of sound in relation to height from the sea-level in the atmosphere
 ATPLP0F 3
10 cards shown
- + Q, :

Sort field Answer

1. If the cross sectional area of an airflow is mechanically reduced: The mass flow remains constant and the velocity of the airflow increases
2. The statement, "Pressure plus Kinetic energy is constant ", refers to: Bernoulli's theorem
The kinetic energy will increase, the dynamic pressure will increase and the static pressure will
3. If the velocity of an air mass is increased:
decrease
1 - A resultant decrease in static pressure is indicated by streamlines shown close together 2 - An
increase in velocity is indicated by streamlines shown close together 3 - Accelerating airflow with a
4. When considering a streamlined airflow, which of the following statements is correct: resultant decreasing static pressure is indicated by converging streamlines 4 - Diverging streamlines
indicate decelerating airflow with a resultant increasing static pressure (note: streamlined = all
answers)
5. If the pressure on one side of a surface is lower than on the other side: A force per unit area will exist, acting in the direction of the lower pressure
2 - A streamtube is a concept to aid understanding of aerodynamic force generation 3 - There is no
6. When considering a streamtube, which of the following statements is correct: flow into or out of the streamtube through the "walls", only flow along the tube 4 - A streamtube is an
imaginary tube made-up of streamlines
7. At flow speeds less than four tenths the speed of sound, the following will be insignificant: Changes in density due to dynamic pressure (note: DDD)
1 - Air accelerates when the cross-sectional area of a streamline flow is reduced 3 - Air decelerates
8. In accordance with the principle of continuity: when the cross-sectional area of a streamline flow is increased 4 - Changes in cross-sectional area
of a streamline flow will affect the air velocity
1 - If a streamline flow of air decelerates, its kinetic energy will decrease and the static pressure
will increase 2 - If a streamline flow of air accelerates, its kinetic energy will increase and the static
9, In accordance with Bernoulli's theorem:
pressure will decrease 4 - If a streamline flow of air is decelerated, its dynamic pressure will decrease
and the static pressure will increase The combination of correct statements is:
10. The statement, "Energy and mass can neither be created nor destroyed, only changed from one
The principle of continuity
form to another", refers to:
 ATPLP0F 4
21 cards shown
- + 0» :
Question Answer ^
2 - The angle of incidence is the angle between the chord line and the horizontal datum of the aircraft. 3 - The angle between the chord line
1. With reference to aerofoil section terminology, which of the following statements is true: and the relative airflow is called the aerodynamic incidence or angle of attack. 4 - The thickness/ chord ratio is the maximum thickness of the
aerofoil as a percentage of the chord; the location of maximum thickness is measured as a percentage of the chord aft of the leading edge.
2. The definition of lift is: the aerodynamic force which acts at 90 ° to the relative airflow
3. An aerofoil section is designed to produce lift resulting from a difference in the: higher air pressure below the surface and lower air pressure above the surface.
4. On an aerofoil section, the force of lift acts perpendicular to, and the force of drag acts parallel to the: flight path.
5. When the angle of attack of a symmetrical aerofoil is increased, the centre of pressure will: remain unaffected.
The increased speed of the air passing over an aerofoil's upper surface decreases the static pressure, thus creating a greater pressure
6. Why does increasing speed also increase lift?
differential between the upper and lower surface.
7. The point on an aerofoil section through which lift acts is the: centre of pressure
8. The angle between the chord line of the aerofoil section and the longitudinal axis of the aircraft is known as: the angle of incidence
9. The angle between the chord line of an aerofoil section and the relative wind is known as the angle of: attack
10. A line drawn from the leading edge to the trailing edge of an aerofoil section an d equidistant at all points from the upper and lower
mean camber line
countours is called the:
11. At zero angle of attack, the pressure along the upper surface of a symmetrical aerofoil section would be: less than atmospheric pressure.
12. The angle of attack of an aerofoil section directly controls: distribution of positive and negative pressure acting on the section
13. When the angle of attack of a positively cambered aerofoil is increased, the centre of pressure will: move forward along the chord line.
14. The term "angle of attack" is defined as the angle: between the section chord line and the relative wind.
- -
1 Relative airflow, free stream flow, relative wind and aircraft flight path are parallel. 2 Aircraft flight path, relative airflow, relative wind and
15. Which of the following statements is true: -
free stream flow are parallel, but the aircraft flight path is opposite in direction. 3 The pressure, temperature and relative velocity of the free
stream flow are unaffected by the presence of the aircraft. 4 - The relative wind is produced by the aircraft moving through the air. 5 - The
direction of flight is parallel with and opposite to the relative airflow.
- -
2 The thickness/chord ratio is expressed as a percentage of the chord. 3 It is easier for air to flow over a well rounded leading edge
16. Which of the following statements is correct: radius than a sharp leading edge. 4 - Two dimensional airflow assumes a wing with the same aerofoil section along its entire span, with no
-
spanwise pressure differential. 5 Air flowing towards the lower pressure of the upper surface is called upwash.
17. When considering an aerofoil section at a constant angle of attack, which of the following statements is true: If the static pressure on one side is reduced more than on the other side, a pressure differential will exist.
18. Considering an aerofoil section subject to a constant dynamic pressure, which of the following statements are correct: Up to about 16 °, increasing the angle of attack will increase the pressure differential between the top and bottom surface of the aerofoil.

19. When considering the effect of changing angle of attack on the pitching moment of an aerofoil, which of the following statements are
- -
2 The pitching moment about the aerodynamic centre (AC) is constant at 'normal' angles of attack. 3 The aerodynamic centre (AC) is
correct:
-
located approximately at the 25% chord point. 4 The moment about the aerodynamic centre (AC) is a product of the distance between the
aerodynamic centre (AC) and the centre of pressure (CP) and the magnitude of the lift force
-
1 The profile of the leading portion of the surface can be changed, preventing normal acceleration of the airflow and substantially reducing
20. Ice contamination of the leading portion of the aerofoil has which of the following consequences: -
the magnitude of the lift force. 2 Form (pressure) drag will be increased because of the increased frontal area of the aerofoil section. 3
- Loss of lift will have a greater effect than an increase in form (pressure) drag. 4 - At 'normal' angles of attack lift can be lost entirely if
enough ice accumulates, (note: Ice = all of the above)
21. When the angle of attack increases:
 ATPLP0F 5
36 cards shown
- + Q . s

Question Answer
.
1 To maintain altitude, what must be done as Indicated Air Speed (IAS) is reduced: Increase angle of attack to maintain the correct lift force
2. If more lift force is required because of greater operating weight, what must be done to fly at the angle of attack which corresponds to C L MAX: Increase the Indicated Air Speed (IAS).
3. Which of the following statements is correct: - -
1 To generate a constant lift force, any adjustment in IAS must be accompanied by a change in angle of attack. 2 For a constant lift force, each IAS
requires a specific angle of attack. 3 - Minimum IAS is determined by CL MAX' 4 - The greater the operating weight, the higher the minimum IAS.
4. What effect does landing at high altitude airports have on ground speed with comparable conditions relative to temperature, wind, and aeroplane
weight:
Higher than at low altitude.
5. What flight condition should be expected when an aircraft leaves ground effect: An increase in induced drag and a requirement for a higher angle of attack.
6. What will be the ratio between airspeed and lift if the angle of attack and other factors remain constant and airspeed is doubled. Lift will be: Four times greater.
7. What true airspeed and angle of attack should be used to generate the same amount of lift as altitude is increased: A higher true airspeed for any given angle of attack
8. How can an aeroplane produce the same lift in ground effect as when out of ground effect: A lower angle of attack.
9. By changing the angle of attack of a wing, the pilot can control the aeroplane's: Lift, airspeed, and drag.
10. Which flight conditions of a large jet aeroplane create the most severe flight hazard by generating wingtip vortices of the greatest strength: Heavy, slow, gear and flaps up.
11. Hazardous vortex turbulence that might be encountered behind large aircraft is created only when that aircraft is: Developing lift.
12. Wingtip vortices created by large aircraft tend to: Sink below the aircraft generating the turbulence
13. How does the wake turbulence vortex circulate around each wingtip, when viewed from the rear: Outward, upward, and around the wingtip
14. Which statement is true concerning the wake turbulence produced by a large transport aircraft: The vortex characteristics of any given aircraft may be altered by extending the flaps or changing the speed.
15. What effect would a light crosswind have on the wingtip vortices generated by a large aeroplane that has just taken off: The upwind vortex will tend to remain on the runway longer than the downwind vortex.
16. To avoid the wingtip vortices of a departing jet aeroplane during takeoff, the pilot should: Climb above and stay upwind of the jet aeroplane's flightpath
17. What wind condition prolongs the hazards of wake turbulence on a landing runway for the longest period of time: Light quartering tailwind.
18. If you take off behind a heavy jet that has just landed, you should plan to lift off: At the point where the jet touched down and on the upwind edge of the runway.
19. The adverse effects of ice, snow,or frost on aircraft performance and flight characteristics include decreased lift and: An increased stall speed.
20. Lift on a wing is most properly defined as the: Force acting perpendicular to the relative wind.
21. Which statement is true relative to changing angle of attack: An increase in angle of attack will increase drag.
22. The angle of attack of a wing directly controls the: Distribution of pressures acting on the wing.
23. In theory,if the angle of attack and other factors remain constant and the airspeed is doubled, the lift produced at the higher speed will be: Four times greater than at the lower speed
24. An aircraft wing is designed to produce lift resulting from a difference in the: Higher air pressure below the wing's surface and lower air pressure above the wingfe surface.
25. On a wing, the force of lift acts perpendicular to, and the force of drag acts parallel to the: Flightpath.
26. Which statement is true, regarding the opposing forces acting on an aeroplane in steady-state level flight: These forces are equal.
27. At higher elevation airports the pilot should know that indicated airspeed: Will be unchanged, but ground speed will be faster.
28. An aeroplane leaving ground effect will: Experience an increase in induced drag and require more thrust.
29. If the same angle of attack is maintained in ground effect as when out of ground effect, lift will: Increase, and induced drag will decrease.
30. Which is true regarding the force of lift in steady,unaccelerated flight: There is a corresponding indicated airspeed required for every angle of attack to generate sufficient lift to maintain altitude.
31. At a given Indicated Air Speed, what effect will an increase in air density have on lift and drag Lift and drag will remain the same
32. If the angle of attack is increased beyond the critical angle of attack, the wing will no longer produce sufficient lift to support the weight of the
aircraft:
Regardless of airspeed or pitch attitude.

aspect ratio and wing area.

.
33. GIVEN THAT: Aircraft A. Wingspan - 51 m, Average wing chord- 4 m Aircraft B. Wingspan - 48 m Average wing chord-3.5 m Determine the correct
Aircraft B has an aspect ratio of 13.7, and has a smaller wing area than aircraft A.
34. Aspect ratio of the wing is defined as the ratio of the: Wing span to the average chord.
35. What changes to aircraft control must be made to maintain altitude while the airspeed is being decreased: Increase the angle of attack to compensate for the decreasing dynamic pressure,
36. Take-off from an airfield with a low density altitude will result in: a shorter take off run because of the lower TAS required for the same IAS.
 ATPLP0F 6
32 cards shown
-
Question Answer
1. What is the effect on total drag of an aircraft if the airspeed decreases in level flight below that speed for maximum L/D? Drag increases because of increased induced drag,
2. By changing the angle of attack of a wing, the pilot can control the airplane's: lift, airspeed, and drag.
3. What is the relationship between induced and parasite drag when the gross weight is increased? Induced drag increases more than parasite drag
4. In theory, if the airspeed of an airplane is doubled while in level flight, parasite drag will become: four times greater
5. As airspeed decreases in level flight below that speed for maximum lift/ drag ratio, total drag of an aeroplane: increases because of increased induced drag,
6. (Refer to annex 'A') At the airspeed represented by point B, in steady flight, the airplane will have its maximum L/D ratio.
7. Which statement is true relative to changing angle of attack? An increase in angle of attack will increase drag,
8. On a wing, the force of lift acts perpendicular to, and the force of drag acts parallel to the: flightpath.
9. That portion of the aircraft's total drag created by the production of lift is called: induced drag, and is greatly affected by changes in airspeed,
10. The best L/ D ratio of an aircraft occurs when parasite drag is: equal to induced drag.
11. An aircraft has a L/ D ratio of 15:1 at 50 kts in calm air. What would the L/D ratio be with a direct headwind of 25 kts? 15 : 1
12. Which is true regarding aerodynamic drag? Induced drag is a by-product of lift and is greatly affected by changes in airspeed
13. At a given True Air Speed, what effect will increased air density have on the lift and drag of an aircraft? Lift and drag will increase,
14. If the Indicated Air Speed of an aircraft is increased from 50 kts to 100 kts, parasite drag will be: four times greater,
15. If the Indicated Air Speed of an aircraft is decreased from 100 kts to 50 kts, induced drag will be: four times greater.
16. The best L/ D ratio of an aircraft in a given configuration is a value that: remains constant regardless of Indicated Air Speed changes,
17. The tendency of an aircraft to develop forces which restore it to its original condition, when disturbed from a condition of steady flight, is
stability
known as:
18. As Indicated Air Speed increases in level flight, the total drag of an aircraft becomes greater than the total drag produced at the maximum
ncrease in parasite drag,
lift/ drag speed because of the:
19. The resistance, or skin friction, due to the viscosity of the air as it passes along the surface of a wing is a type of: parasite drag.
20. Which relationship is correct when comparing drag and airspeed? Induced drag varies inversely as the square of the airsp
21. If the same angle of attack is maintained in ground effect as when out of ground effect, lift will: increase, and induced drag will decrease.
22. Which statement is true regarding aeroplane flight at L/Dmax Any angle of attack other than that for L/Dmax increases total drag for a given aeroplane's lift.
23. Aspect ratio of a wing is defined as the ratio of the: area squared to the chord
24. A wing with a very high aspect ratio (in comparison with a low aspect ratio wing) will have: poor control qualities at low airspeeds
25. At a constant velocity in airflow, a high aspect ratio wing will have (in comparison with a low aspect ratio wing): decreased drag, especially at a high angle of attack.
26. (Refer to annex 'B') Which aircraft has the highest aspect ratio? 2
27. (Refer to annex 'B') Which aircraft has the lowest aspect ratio? 1.
28. (Refer to annex 'B') Consider only aspect ratio (other factors remain constant). Which aircraft will generate greatest lift? 2.
29. (Refer to annex 'B') Consider only aspect ratio (other factors remain constant). Which aircraft will generate greatest drag ? 1
30. What happens to total drag when accelerating from CLmax to maximum speed? Decreases then increases
31. (Refer to annex 'C'), the whole aircraft CL against CD polar. Point ’B' represents: -
1 Best Lift/Drag ratio.
32. If the Indicated Air Speed of an aircraft in level flight is increased from 100 kt to 200 kt, what change will occur in (1) TAS (ii) Cdi (iii) Di ? 2 1/ 16 1/ 4
 ATPLP0F 7
36 cards shown
-
Question Answer
1 . An aeroplane will stall at the same: angle of attack regardless of the attitude with relation to the horizon
2. A typical stalling angle of attack for a wing without sweepback is: 16 -
3. If the aircraft weight is increased without change of C of G position, the stalling angle of attack will: remain the same.
4 . If the angle of attack is increased above the stalling angle: lift will decrease and drag will increase
5 . The angle of attack at which an aeroplane stalls: will remain constant regardless of gross weight
6. An aircraft whose weight is 237402 N stalls at 132 kt. At a weight of 356103 N it would stall at: 162 kt
7. For an aircraft with a 1 g stalling speed of 60 kt IAS, the stalling speed in a steady 60 ' turn would be: 84 kt
8. For an aircraft in a steady turn the stalling speed would be: at a higher speed than in level flight and at the same angle of attack,
9. Formation of ice on the wing leading edge will: cause the aircraft to stall at a higher speed and a lower angle of attack,
10. Dividing lift by weight gives: load factor
11 . The stalling speed of an aeroplane is most affected by: variations in aeroplane loading
12. Stalling may be delayed to a higher angle of attack by: increasing the kinetic energy of the boundary layer
13 . A stall inducer strip will: cause the wing to stall first at the root
14 . On a highly tapered wing without wing twist the stall will commence: at the tip.
15 . Sweepback on a wing will: increase the tendency to tip stall
16 . The purpose of a boundary layer fence on a swept wing is: to control span wise flow and delay tip stall ,
17. A wing with washout would have: the tip incidence less than the root incidence
18. On an untapered wing without twist the downwash: increases from root to tip
19. A wing of constant thickness which is not swept back: could drop a wing at the stall due to the lack of any particular stall inducing characteristics ,
20. Slots increase the stalling angle of attack by: delaying separation.
21 . A rectangular wing, when compared to other wing planforms, has a tendency to stall first at the: wing root providing adequate stall warning
22. Vortex generators are used: to reduce boundary layer separation
23 . A stick shaker is: a device to vibrate the control column to give a stall warning,
24 . A stall warning device must be set to operate: at a speed about 5 % to 10 % above the stalling speed
25 . Just before the stall the wing leading edge stagnation point is positioned: below the stall warning vane
26 . A wing mounted stall warning detector vane would be situated: at the leading edge on the lower surface
27 . The input data to a stall warning device (e. g. stick shaker ) system is: angle of attack, and in some systems rate of change of angle of attack
28 . A stick pusher is: a device to prevent an aircraft from stalling.
29. In a developed spin: the angle of attack of both wings will be positive
30. To recover from a spin, the elevators should be: moved down to reduce the angle of attack
31 . High speed buffet (shock stall) is caused by: the boundary layer separating immediately behind the shock wave
32. In a 30 " bank level turn, the stall speed will be increased by: 7%
33 . Heavy rain can increase the stall speed of an aircraft for which of the following reasons ? The extra weight and distortion of the aerodynamic surfaces by the film of water
34 . If the tailplane is supplying a download and stalls due to contamination by ice: the aircraft will pitch nose down
36 . If a light single engine propeller aircraft is stalled, power- on, in a climbing turn to the left, which of the following is the preferred recovery
elevator stick forward, ailerons stick neutral, rudder to prevent wing drop.
action?
37 . If the stick shaker activates on a swept wing jet transport aircraft immediately after take- off while turning, which of the following
Decrease the angle of attack
statements contains the preferred course of action?
 ATPLP0F 8
15 cards shown
- + Q . :

Question - Answer
1. With the flaps lowered, the stalling speed will: decrease
2. When flaps are lowered the stalling angle of attack of the wing: decreases, but C Lmax increases
3. With full flap, the maximum Lift/ drag ratio: decreases and the stalling speed decreases
4. When a leading edge slot is opened, the stalling speed will: decrease
5. The purpose of a leading edge droop is: to increase wing camber, and delay separation of the airflow when trailing edge flaps are lowered,
6. Lowering flaps sometimes produces a pitch moment change due to: movement of the centre of pressure.
.
7 Which type of flap would give the greatest change in pitching moment? Fowler
a flap where the upper surface contour of the wing trailing edge is fixed and only the lower surface
8. A split flap is:
contour is altered when the flaps are lowered
9. If the flaps are lowered in flight, with the airspeed kept constant, to maintain level flight the angle of
must be reduced
attack:
10. If flaps are lowered during the take-off run: the lift would increase when the flaps are lowered.
11. When flaps are lowered the spanwise flow on the upper surface of the wing: increases towards the root
12. If a landing is to be made without flaps the landing speed must be: increased
13. Lowering the flaps during a landing approach: increases the angle of descent without increasing the airspeed
14. With reference to Annex A , the type of flap illustrated is a: Slotted Fowler flap
15. With reference to Annex F , the type of flap illustrated is a: Variable camber flap
 ATPLP0F 9
7 cards shown
- + Q. :

Question Answer
2. Icing conditions may be encountered in the atmosphere when: relative humidity is high and temperature is low.
3. Which is an effect of ice, snow, or frost formation on an aeroplane? Increased stall speed.
4. Frost covering the upper surface of an aircraft wing will usually cause: the aircraft to stall at an angle of attack that is lower than norma
5. If it is suspected that ice may have formed on the tailplane and longitudinal control difficulties are
immediately decrease the flap setting
experienced following flap selection, the prudent action to take would be:
6. When considering in-flight airframe contamination with frost or ice, which of the following
Visual evidence of the accumulation of airframe icing may not exist.
statements is correct?
7. In the event of an icing-induced wing stall, which of the following indications will reliably be 4 - Airframe buffet. 5 - A roll control problem (increasing roll oscillation or violent wing drop). 6 - A
available to the flight crew? high rate of descent. (ANS: 4, 5 and 6)
1. After an artifact has been exposed to severe weather: all snow and ice should be removed.
 ATPLPOF 10
31 cards shown
- + Q. :
Sort field - Answer
1. An aeroplane which is inherently stable will: have a built-in tendency to return to its original state following the removal of any disturbing force.
.
3 Longitudinal stability is given by: the horizontal tailplane.
4. An aircraft is constructed with dihedral to provide: lateral stability about the longitudinal axis.
.
5 Lateral stability is reduced by increasing: Anhedral.
6. If the wing AC is forward of the CG: changes in lift produce a wing pitching moment which acts to increase the change of lift,
7. The longitudinal static stability of an aircraft: is reduced by the effects of wing downwash
.
8 To ensure some degree of longitudinal stability in flight, the position of the CG: must be forward of the Neutral Point.
9. When the CG is close to the forward limit: very high stick forces are required to pitch because the aircraft is very stable,
10. The static margin is equal to the distance between: the CG and the neutral point
11. If a disturbing force causes the aircraft to roll: wing dihedral will cause a rolling moment which reduces the sideslip.
12. With flaps lowered, lateral stability: will be reduced because the centre of lift of each semi - span is closer to the wing root.
13. Dihedral gives a stabilising rolling moment by causing an increase in lift: on the lower wing if the aircraft is sideslipping.
greater lateral stability due to the airflow pattern around the fuselage when the aircraft is sideslipping increasing the
14. A high wing configuration with no dihedral, compared to a low wing configuration with no dihedral, will provide:
effective angle of attack of the lower wing.
15. At a constant IAS, what affect will increasing altitude have on damping in roll: decreases because the density decreases
16. Sweepback of the wings will: increases lateral stability at all speeds.
.
17 At low forward speed: a large sideslip angle could cause the fin to stall.
18. Following a lateral disturbance, an aircraft with Dutch roll instability will: develop simultaneous oscillations in roll and yaw.
.
19 To correct dutch roll on an aircraft with no automatic protection system: use roll inputs
20. A yaw damper: augments stability.
.
21 A wing which is inclined downwards from root to tip is said to have: anhedral
22. The lateral axis of an aircraft is a line which: passes through the centre of gravity, parallel to a line through the wing tip
23. Loading an aircraft so that the CG exceeds the aft limits could result in: loss of longitudinal stability, and the nose to pitch up at slow speed
24 The tendency of an aircraft to suffer from dutch roll instability can be reduced: by giving the wings anhedral
25. What determines the longitudinal static stability of an aeroplane? The location of the CG with respect to the AC
26. Dihedral angle is: the upward and outward inclination of the main planes to the horizontal datum
27. Stability around the normal axis: is increased if the keel surface behind the CG is increased
28. The Centre of Gravity of an aircraft is found to be within limits for take-off:: the C of G for landing must be checked, allowing for fuel consumed
29. The ailerons are deployed and returned to neutral when the aircraft has attained a small angle of bank. If the aircraft
statically and dynamically stable
then returns to a wings-level attitude without further control movement it is:
30. The property which tends to decreases rate of displacement about any axis, but only while displacement is taking
aerodynamic damping
place, is known as:
31. If an aircraft is loaded such that the stick force required to change the speed is zero the CG is on the neutral point
2. After a disturbance in pitch an aircraft oscillates in pitch with increasingamplitude. It is: statically stable but dynamically unstable
Qrroonchnt
 ATPLP0F 11
40 cards shown
-
Sort field Answer
Aileron reversal would be most likely to occur: with a flexible wing at high speed.
If the ailerons are deflected to 10 * , compared to 5 * ,this will cause: an increased rate of roll.
Yawing is a rotation around: the normal axis obtained by rudder.
If the control column is moved forward and to the left: the left aileron moves up, right aileron moves down, elevator down,
The secondary effect of yawing to port is to: roll to port
Due to the AC of the fin being above the longitudinal axis, if the rudder is moved to the right, the force acting on the fin will give: a rolling moment to the left,
What should be the feel on a full and free check of the controls:
1
a solid stop.
The purpose of control locks on a flying control system is: to prevent structural damage to the controls in gusty conditions when the aircraft is on the ground.
An irreversible control: may be moved by operating the cockpit control but not by the aerodynamic loads acting on the control surface.
Ailerons may be rigged slightly down (drooped):
The tailplane shown has inverted camber. To cause the aircraft to pitch nose up the control column must be:
-
to allow for up float in flight to bring the aileron into the streamlined position
the control column must be pulled backwards
If an aileron is moved downward: the stalling angle of that wing is decreased
When rudder is used to give a coordinated turn to the left: the left pedal is moved forward and the rudder moves left
The higher speed of the upper wing in a steady banked turn causes it to have more lift than the lower wing. This may be compensated for by: operating the ailerons slightly in the opposite sense once the correct angle of bank has been reached
The purpose of a differential aileron control is to: reduce the yawing moment which opposes the turn
When displacing the ailerons from the neutral position: the down going aileron causes an increase in induced drag,
The purpose of aerodynamic balance on a flying control is: to make the control easier to move.
A horn balance on a control surface is: a projection of the outer edge of the control surface forward of the hinge line.
An aileron could be balanced aerodynamically by: having the control hinge set back behind the control surface leading edge.
Control overbalance results in: a sudden reduction then reversal of stick force
A control surface is mass balanced by: attaching a weight acting forward of the hinge line .
If the control wheel is turned to the right, a balance tab on the port aileron should: move up relative to the aileron
-
The purpose of an anti balance tab is to:
When the control column is pushed forward a balance tab on the elevator:
give more feel to the controls
will move up relative to the control surface.
The purpose of a spring tab is: to reduce the pilot 's effort required to move the controls against high air loads,
The purpose of a trim tab is: to zero the load on the pilots controls in the flight attitude required,
- -
To re trim after failure of the right engine on a twin engine aircraft:
To trim an aircraft which tends to fly nose heavy with hands off, the top of the elevator trim wheel should be:
the rudder trim tab will move right and the rudder left.
moved backwards to raise the nose, and this would cause the elevator trim tab to move down, and the elevator to move
To achieve the same degree of longitudinal trim,the trim drag from a variable incidence trimming tailplane would be: none of the above
-
Following re trimming for straight and level flight because of forward CG movement:
An aircraft has a tendency to fly right wing low with hands off. It is trimmed with a tab on the left aileron. The trim tab will:
nose up pitch authority will be reduced
move down causing the left aileron to move up, and right aileron to move down,
An aircraft takes off with the elevator control locks still in position. It is found to be nose heavy: backward movement of the trim wheel would increase nose heaviness,
On a servo tab operated elevator, if the pilot 's control column is pushed forward in flight : the servo tab will move up causing the elevator to move down.
If a cockpit control check is made on an aircraft with servo operated controls, and it is found that the cockpit controls move fully and freely in all
the servo tabs are free but there could be locks on the control surfaces,
directions:
In a servo operated aileron control system, turning the cockpit control wheel to the right in flight will cause the servo tab on the left aileron: to move up and the left aileron to move down
Spoilers on the upper surface of the wing may be used on landing: to reduce the lift and so put more weight on the wheels, making the brakes more effective
Wing mounted spoiler surfaces may be used as: all of the above
Spoilers, when used for roll control will: decrease lift on the upper wing surface when deployed asymmetrically
On an aircraft fitted with ro;; control spoilers, a roll to port is achieved by: deflecting the port spoiler up
In a fully power operated flying control system feel is provided by: -
an artificial feel unit (Q Feel)
 ATPLP0F 12
35 cards shown
-
Sort field Answer
For an aircraft in level flight, if the wing CP is aft of the CG and there is no thrust/drag couple, the tailplane load must be: thrust, lift, drag, weight .
- -
When considering the forces acting upon an aeroplane in straight and level flight at constant airspeed, which statement is correct? downward
The horizontal stabilizer usually provides a download in level flight because: weight acts vertically toward the centre of the Earth
The reason a light general aviation aircraft tends to nose down during power reduction is that the: centre of gravity is located forward of the centre of pressure
To give the best obstacle clearance on take off, take off should be made with: flaps retracted and at best angle of climb speed (Vx
The angle of climb is proportional to: the amount by which the thrust exceeds the drag,
In a climb at a steady speed, the thrust is: greater than the aerodynamic drag .
A constant rate of climb in an aeroplane is determined by: excess engine power
-
Assume that after take off a turn is made to a downwind heading. In regard to the ground, the aeroplane will climb at:
What effect does high density altitude have on aircraft performance?
a steeper angle into the wind than downwind
It reduces climb performance
During a steady climb the lift force is: less than the weight.
In a steady climb the wing lift is: equal to the weight component perpendicular to the flight path
During a glide the following forces act on an aircraft: lift, drag, weight.
For a glider having a maximum L/ D ratio of 20:1, the flattest glide angle that could be achieved in still air would be: 1 ft in 20 ft
To cover the greatest distance when gliding the gliding speed must be: t he one that gives the highest L/ D ratio.
I f the weight of an aircraft is increased the maximum gliding range: remains the same, but rate of descent increases.
When gliding into a headwind, the ground distance covered will be: less than in still air.
-
During a 'power on glide the forces acting on an aircraft are:
1

If airbrakes are extended during a glide, and speed maintained, the rate of descent will:
lift, drag, thrust and weight.
increase and glide angle will be steeper.
An aircraft has a L/D ratio of 16:1 at 50 kt in calm air. What would the approximate GLIDE RATIO be with a direct headwind of 25 kt? 16:1\
During a turn the lift force may be resolved into two forces, these are: centripetal force and a force equal and opposite weight .
In a turn at a constant IAS, compared to straight and level flight at the same IAS: more power is required because the drag is greater.
In a turn at a given TAS and bank angle: only one radius of turn is possible.
As bank angle is increased in a turn at a constant IAS, the load factor will: increase at an increasing rate .
Skidding outward in a turn is caused by: insufficient bank
For a turn at a constant IAS if the radius of turn is decreased the load factor will: increase .
An aircraft has a stalling speed in level flight of 70 kt IAS. In a 60 * balanced turn the stalling speed would be: 99 kt.
An increase in airspeed while maintaining a constant load factor during a level, coordinated turn would result in: an increase in the radius of turn
How can the pilot increase the rate of turn and decrease the radius at the same time? steepen the bank and decrease airspeed
I f an aircraft with a gross weight of 2,000 kg were subjected to a total load of 6,000 kg in flight, the load factor would be: 3 G's
Why must the angle of attack be increased during a turn to maintain altitude? Compensate for loss of vertical component of lift ,

Two aircraft of different weight are in a steady turn at the same bank angle: they would both have the same "g" load

able to:
-
For a multi engined aircraft, VMcg is defined as the minimum control speed on the ground with one engine inoperative. The aircraft must be
continue the take off using primary controls only.

-
What criteria determines which engine is the "critical" engine of a twin engine aeroplane? the one with the centre of thrust closest to the centerline of the fuselage
-
Following failure of the critical engine, what performance should the pilot of a light, twin engine aeroplane be able to maintain at V MCA? Heads only
 ATPLP0F 13
27 cards shown
- + Q, s

Sort field Answer

Identify which of the following is the correct formulla for the Mach number is -TAS:) a = constant M
-
What is the result of a shock induced separation of airflow occurring symmetrically near the wing root of a sweptwing
aircraft?:) -
a severe nose down pitching moment or -tuck under-

Mach number is:) the ratio of the aircraft's TAS to the speed of sound at the same atmospheric conditions,
For an aircraft climbing at a constant IAS the Mach number will:) increase .
The term transonic speed' for an aircraft means:) speeds where the airflow is partly subsonic and partly supersonic .
At M 0.8 a wing has supersonic flow between 20% chord and 60% chord. There will be a shockwave:) at 60% chord only.
As air flows through a shockwave:) static pressure increases, density increases, temperature increases,
For a wing section of given thickness, the critical Mach number:) will decrease if angle of attack is increased,
At speeds just above the critical Mach number, the lift coefficient:) will start to decrease,
As air flows through a shockwave:) its speed decreases.
If an aeroplane accelerates above the Critical Mach number, the first high Mach number characteristic it will usually a nose down pitching moment -Mach, or high speed tuck-.
experience is:)
High speed buffet is caused by:) the airflow being detached by the shock wave and the turbulent flow striking the tail,
The "area rule " applied to high speed aircraft requires:) that the variation of cross sectional area along the length of the aircraft follows a smooth pattern,
-
An all moving tailplane is used in preference to elevators on high speed aircraft:)
Mach Trim is a device which:)
because shock wave formation ahead of the elevator causes separation and loss of elevator effectiveness,
automatically compensates for pitch changes while flying in the transonic speed region .
The airflow behind a normal shockwave will:)
-
What is the movement of the centre of pressure when the wingtips of a sweptwing aeroplane are shock stalled first?) inward and forward
always be subsonic and in the same direction as the original airflow.
As airflow passes through a normal shockwave, which of the following changes in static pressure 1, density 2, and
increase increase < 1.0
Mach number 3 will occur)
An aerofoil travelling at supersonic speed will:) have its centre of pressure at 50 % chord.
A bow wave is:) a shock wave that forms immediately ahead of an aircraft which is travelling faster than the speed of sound.
When an aircraft is flying at supersonic speed, where will the area of influence of any pressure disturbance due to the
Within the Mach Cone.
presence of the aircraft be located?)
The temperature of the airflow as it passes through an expansion wave:) decreases.
The influence of weight ‘wing loading' on the formation of shockwaves is: ) low wing loading will give a higher M CRIT
What influence does an oblique shock wave have on the streamline pattern 1 variation of pressure 2 temperature, 3
parallel to surface increase increase increase decrease
density 4 and 5 velocity ?:)
Wave drag is caused by:) the conversion of mechanical energy into thermal energy by the shock wave .
What is the effect of a shock wave on control surface efficiency?) loss of efficiency, due to control deflection no longer modifying the total flow over the wing.
At what speed does an oblique shockwave move over the earth surface?) Aircraft ground speed
 ATPLP0F 14
13 cards shown
- + Q, :

Sort field Answer

If an aircraft is flown at its design manoeuvering speed Va:) it is not possible to exceed the limit load.
The speed VNE is:) the maximum airspeed at which an aircraft may be flown
Maximum structural cruising speed VNO is the maximum speed at which an aeroplane can be
normal operations.
operated during:)
The maximum allowable airspeed with flaps extended 'VFE' is lower than cruising speed because:) the additional lift and drag created would overload the wing and flap structure at higher speeds
Vlo is a lower IAS because the undercarriage doors are vulnerable to aerodynamic loads when the gear
Why is VLE greater than VLo on the majority of large jet transport aircraft?)
is in transit, up or down.
The phenomenon of flutter is described as:) oscillatory motion of part or parts of the aircraft relative to the remainder of the structure.
The wing structure can be lighter because the engine acts as a mass balance and also relieves wing
What is the purpose of fitting the engines to an aircraft using wing mounted pylons?)
bending stress.
dynamic pressure acting on the aileron twisting the wing in the opposite direction, possibly causing
Aileron reversal at high dynamic pressures is caused by:)
the aircraft to bank in a direction opposite to that intended,
Controls are mass balanced in order to:) eliminate control flutter.
If an aircraft weight is reduced by 15%, VA will:) Decrease by 7.5%.
Which of the following statements is correct?) Both a and b
VLo is defined as:) maximum landing gear operating speed.
reduce speed immediately by closing the throttles, but avoid rapid changes in attitude and/or
If flutter is experienced during flight, the preferable action would be:)
configuration.
 ATPLP0F 15
16 cards shown
- + 0» :

Sort field Answer

Maximum downdrafts in a microburst encounter may be as strong as: 6,000 ft/min.
An aircraft that encounters a headwind of 45 knots, within a microburst, may expect a total shear
90 knots.
across the micro burst of:
What is the expected duration of an individual micro burst?: Seldom longer than 15 minutes from the time the burst strikes the ground until dissipation.
-
Which wind shear condition results in a loss of airspeed?:
Which performance characteristics should be recognized during takeoff when encountering a tailwind
Decreasing headwind and increasing tailwind.
Loss of, or diminished climb ability.
shear that increases in intensity?:
Which condition would INITIALLY cause the indicated airspeed and pitch to increase and the sink rate
Sudden increase in a headwind component.
to decrease?
Which INITIAL cockpit indications should a pilot be aware of when a constant tailwind shears to a
Altitude, pitch, and indicated airspeed increase.
calm wind?
What is the recommended technique to counter the loss of airspeed and resultant lift from wind shear? Avoid overstressing the aircraft, pitch to stick shaker, and apply maximum power.
Which of the following would be acceptable techniques to minimise the effects of a windshear Increase the pitch angle until the stick shaker activates, then decrease back pressure to maintain that
encounter" angle of pitch and use maximum power available as soon as possible.
Which of the following statements about windshear is true?: Both a and b.
A microburst is one of the most dangerous sources of windshear associated with thunderstorms. -
smalhscale 'typically less than 1 mile in diameter intense down draughts which, on reaching the
1

They are:
Thrust is being managed to maintain desired indicated airspeed and the glide slope is being flown.
-
surface, spread outward in all directions from the down draught centre.

-
Which of the following is the recommended procedure when you observe a 30 kt loss of airspeed and Apply full power and execute a go around; report windshear to ATC as soon as practicable,
the descent rate increases from 750 ft/min to 2,000 ft/min?:
Which of the following statements are correct?: All of the above.
Which of the following statements are correct?: A shear from calm to a headwind is an 'energy gain' and A downdraught is an energy loss'.
Which of the following sequences might be encountered when flying into a microburst?
Increased
-
following take off.
-
headwind, followed by down draught, followed by increased tailwind on the approach, or

Which of the following statements is correct when considering windshear? All of the above
 ATPLP0F 16
17 cards shown
- + Q. :

Sort field Answer

As a result of gyroscopic precession, it can be said that:) any yawing around the normal axis results in a pitching moment
A propeller rotating clockwise as seen from the rear, creates a spiralling slipstream that tends to rotate
left around the normal axis, and to the right around the longitudinal axis
the aeroplane to the:)
The reason for variations in geometric pitch 'twisting' along a propeller blade is that it: ) permits a relatively constant angle of attack along its length when in cruising flight.
The Geometric Pitch of a propeller is:) the distance it would move forward in one revolution if there were no slip.
Propeller 'slip' is:) the amount by which the distance covered in one revolution falls short of the geometric pitch.
The distance a propeller actually advances in one revolution is:) effective pitch.
Blade angle of a propeller is defined as the angle between the:) chord line and plane of rotation.
Propeller efficiency is the:) ratio of thrust horsepower to shaft horsepower.
-
A fixed pitch propeller is designed for best efficiency only at a given combination of:)
Which statement is true regarding propeller efficiency? Propeller efficiency is the:)
airspeed and RPM.
ratio of thrust horsepower to shaft horsepower.
-
Which statement best describes the operating principle of a constant speed propeller?)
When does asymmetric blade effect cause the aeroplane to yaw to the left?)
The propeller control regulates the engine RPM and in turn the propeller RPM.
When at high angles of attack.
The left turning tendency of an aeroplane caused by asymmetric blade effect is the result of the:) propeller blade descending on the right, producing more thrust than the ascending blade on the left.
With regard to gyroscopic precession, when a force is applied at a point on the rim of a spinning disc,
In the same direction as the applied force, 90 * ahead in the plane of rotation,
the resultant force acts in which direction and at what point? )
The angle of attack of a fixed pitch propeller:) is constant for a fixed pitch propeller.
-
Counter rotating propellers are:)
If engine rpm is to remain constant on an engine fitted with a variable pitch propeller, an increase in
two propellers driven by separate engines , rotating in opposite directions,

an increase in blade angle.

engine power requires:)