Agi Questions
Agi Questions
Agi Questions
The following sample questions for Advanced Ground Instructor (AGI) are suitable
study material for all the Ground Instructor rating tests. Although these questions are
airplane based they represent the same type of questions that can be found on all
Flight Instructor tests. The applicant must realize that these questions are to be used as a
study guide, and are not necessarily actual test questions. The full AGI test contains
100 questions. The Application Identification, Information Verification and Authorization
Requirements Matrix lists all FAA exams. It is available at
www.faa.gov/training_testing/testing/media/testing_matrix.pdf
The Learning Statement Reference Guide for Airman Knowledge Testing contains
listings of learning statements with their associated codes. Matching the learning
statement codes with the codes listed on your Airman Knowledge Test Report assists in
the evaluation of knowledge areas missed on your exam. It is available at
www.faa.gov/training_testing/testing/media/LearningStatementReferenceGuide.pdf.
The online Ground Instructor (Advanced) (AGI) practice test is available on the PSI website
at
https://faa.psiexams.com/FAA/login
NOTE: Some questions in the PSI Practice Test may contain the reference "Refer to FAA-
CT-8080 . ." You may access the referred to supplement by opening the following link in a
separate window while taking the te
test.
www.faa.gov/training_testing/testing/supplements/media/flight_ground_instructor_akts.pdf
1
1. Most midair collision accidents occur during
2. The most effective technique to use for detecting other aircraft at night is to
A. turn the head and sweep the eyes rapidly over the entire visible region.
B. avoid staring directly at the point where another aircraft is suspected to be
flying.
C. avoid scanning the region below the horizon so as to avoid the effect of ground
lights on the eyes.
4. Normally, the vertical limits of Class D airspace extend up to and including how many
feet above the surface?
A. 2,500 feet.
B. 3,000 feet.
C. 4,000 feet.
2
5. Under what condition, if any, may a pilot allow a person who is obviously under the
influence of intoxicating liquors or drugs to be carried aboard an aircraft?
A. Under no condition.
B. Only if a second pilot is aboard.
C. Only if the person is a medical patient under proper care or in an emergency.
6. An aircraft's last annual inspection was performed on July 12, this year. The next
annual inspection will be due no later than
A. Every 12 months.
B. Every 24 months.
C. After every 100 hours of flight time.
A. sunset to sunrise.
B. 1 hour before sunset to 1 hour after sunrise.
C. 30 minutes before sunrise to 30 minutes after sunset.
9. If an aircraft is not equipped for night flight and official sunset is 1730 EST, the latest a
pilot may operate that aircraft without violating regulations is
A. 1629 EST.
B. 1729 EST.
C. 1829 EST.
3
10. The minimum age requirement for the applicant who is seeking a Student Pilot
Certificate limited to glider operations is
A. 14 years.
B. 16 years.
C. 17 years.
11. As pilot, what is the minimum flight time in an aircraft an applicant must have for a
Commercial Pilot Certificate with an airplane rating?
A. 250 hours.
B. 200 hours.
C. 150 hours.
12. What is the minimum age required to be eligible for a Commercial Pilot Certificate?
A. 17
B. 18
C. 21
A. SLGT.
B. POSSIBLE.
C. MDT.
A. PIREP.
B. SIGMET.
C. CONVECTIVE SIGMET.
4
15. What is the maximum weight that could be added at Station 150.0 without exceeding
the aft CG limit?
Aircraft weight: 5,000 lb
CG location: Station 80.0
Aft CG limit: Station 80.5
A. 70.0 pounds.
B. 69.5 pounds.
C. 35.9 pounds.
16. The objective of the Airmen Certification Standards (ACS) is to ensure the
certification of pilots at a high level of performance and proficiency, consistent with
A. safety.
B. the time available.
C. their abilities.
17. Proper oral quizzing by the instructor during a lesson can have which result?
19. (Refer to FAA-CT-8080-5H, Figure 45.) The controlled airspace located at the Corpus
Christi VORTAC (area 5) begins at
A. the surface.
B. 700 feet AGL.
C. 1,200 feet MSL.
5
20. Flight through a restricted area should not be accomplished unless the pilot has
21. (Refer to FAA-CT-8080-5H, Figure 46.) What is the ceiling of the Class C airspace
surrounding San Jose International Airport (area 2)?
22. (Refer to FAA-CT-8080-5H, Figure 46.) What is the height of the Class D airspace over
Livermore Airport (area 5)?
23. If the ground wire between the magneto and the ignition switch becomes
disconnected, the most noticeable result will be that the engine
24. What should be the indication on the magnetic compass as you roll into a standard
rate turn to the right from a south heading in the Northern Hemisphere?
6
25. When the pilot leans the mixture control, what is being accomplished?
26. The reason for variations in geometric pitch (twisting) along a propeller blade is that it
A. prevents the portion of the blade near the hub to stall during cruising flight.
B. permits a relatively constant angle of attack along its length when in cruising
flight.
C. permits a relatively constant angle of incidence along its length when in cruising
flight.
27. On a multiengine airplane, where the propellers rotate in the same direction, why is
the loss of power on one engine more critical than the loss of power on the other
engine?
A. The corkscrew pattern of airflow from one propeller is less effective against the
airflow from the critical engine.
B. The torque reaction from operation of the critical engine is more severe around
the vertical axis as well as the longitudinal axis.
C. The asymmetric propeller thrust or P-factor results in the center of thrust from
one engine being farther from the airplane centerline than the center of thrust
from the other engine.
28. A series of continuous red lights in the runway centerline lighting indicates
7
29. The visual glidepath of a 2-bar VASI provides safe obstruction clearance within plus
or minus 10° of the extended runway centerline and to a distance of how many miles
from the runway threshold?
A. 4 NM.
B. 6 NM.
C. 10 NM.
30. Pilots are encouraged to turn on their landing lights when operating below 10,000
feet, day or night, and when operating within
A. Class B airspace.
B. 10 miles of any airport.
C. 5 miles of a controlled airport.
32. What is the purpose for the runway hold position markings on the taxiway?
8
34. Which technique should a student be taught to scan for traffic to the right and left
during straight-and-level flight?
36. What physical change would most likely occur to occupants of an unpressurized
aircraft flying above 15,000 feet without supplemental oxygen?
A. Gases trapped in the body contract and prevent nitrogen from escaping the
bloodstream.
B. The pressure in the middle ear becomes less than the atmospheric pressure in
the cabin.
C. A blue coloration of the lips and fingernails develop along with tunnel vision.
37. (Refer to FAA-CT-8080-5H, Figure 29.) What is the approximate glide distance?
Height above terrain: 5,500 ft
Tailwind: 10 kts
A. 11 miles.
B. 12 miles.
C. 13 miles.
9
38. (Refer to FAA-CT-8080-5H, Figure 30.) Using a maximum demonstrated crosswind
component equal to 0.2 VSO, what is a pilot able to determine?
VSO: 60 kts
Landing Rwy: 12
Wind: 150° at 20 kts
39. (Refer to FAA-CT-8080-5H, Figure 31.) What is the total landing distance over a 50-foot
obstacle?
Temperature: 15 °C
Pressure altitude: 4,000 ft
Weight: 3,000 lb
Headwind: 22 kts
A. 1,250 feet.
B. 1,150 feet.
C. 1,050 feet.
40. In a twin-engine airplane, the single-engine service ceiling is the maximum density
altitude at which VYSE will produce
41. How does temperature and weight affect the VNE of a helicopter?
10
42. Performance of a helicopter can be determined by
A. maneuvering speed.
B. normal stall speed.
C. maximum structural cruising speed.
44. To taxi on the surface in a safe efficient manner, one should use the cyclic pitch to
46. What should a pilot do if a small hole is seen in the fabric of a balloon during
inflation?
A. Continue the inflation and make a mental note of the location of the hole for later
repair.
B. Instruct a ground crew member to inspect the hole and, if under 5 inches in
length, continue the inflation.
C. Consult the flight manual to determine if the hole is within acceptable damage
limits established for the balloon being flown.
11
47. During flight, if you apply cyclic control pressure which results in a decrease in pitch
angle of the rotor blades at a position approximately 90° to your left, the rotor disc will
tilt
A. aft.
B. left.
C. right.
49. Gyroplanes that use small wings will cause rotor drag to do what at higher cruise
airspeeds?
A. Increase.
B. Decrease.
C. Remain the same.
A. dissymmetry of lift.
B. transverse flow effect.
C. high-frequency vibrations.
A. lateral axis.
B. longitudinal axis.
C. vertical axis.
12
52. Action of the elevators moves the plane on its
A. lateral axis.
B. longitudinal axis.
C. vertical axis.
53. At a constant velocity in airflow, a high aspect ratio wing will have (in comparison
with a low aspect ratio wing)
54. (Refer to FAA-CT-8080-5H, Figure 21.) Of aircraft 1, 2 , or 3, which has the lowest
aspect ratio?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
55. What is the effect of center of gravity on the spin characteristics of a fixed-wing
aircraft? If the CG is too far
56. If fuel consumption is 15.3 gallons per hour and groundspeed is 167 knots, how
much fuel is required for an aircraft to travel 620 NM?
A. 63 gallons.
B. 60 gallons.
C. 57 gallons.
13
57. How far will an aircraft travel in 3-1/2 minutes if its groundspeed is 65 knots?
A. 3.3 NM.
B. 3.8 NM.
C. 2.2 NM.
58. On a cross-country flight, point X is crossed at 1015 local. What is your expected
arrival time at point Y? Use the following information to determine your ETA.
Distance between X and Y: 32 NM
Forecast wind: 240° at 25 kts
Pressure altitude: 5,500 ft
Ambient temperature: +05 °C
True course: 100°
The indicated airspeed is 110 knots.
A. 1040 local.
B. 1059 local.
C. 1029 local.
59. If a true heading of 135° results in a ground track of 130° and a true airspeed of 135
knots results in a groundspeed of 140 knots, the wind would be from
60. Which DME indication should you receive when you are directly over a VORTAC site
at approximately 6,000 feet AGL?
A. 0
B. 1
C. 1.3.
14
61. To properly compensate for a crosswind during straight-and-level cruising flight, the
pilot should
62. If poor aircraft controllability is experienced during an emergency go-around with full
flaps, the cause is most probably due to
63. When explaining the techniques used for making short- and soft-field takeoffs, it
would be correct to state that
A. Bouncing.
B. Floating.
C. Ballooning.
15
65. A go-around from a poor landing approach should
66. Two distinct flight situations should be covered when teaching slow flight. These are
the establishment and maintenance of
16
70. The pilot controls the air/fuel ratio with the
A. throttle.
B. manifold pressure.
C. mixture control.
72. What effect, if any, does ambient temperature have on propane tank pressure?
A. It has no effect.
B. As temperature decreases, propane tank pressure decreases.
C. As temperature decreases, propane tank pressure increases.
73. The purpose of the heat exchange coil as used in hot air balloons is to
17
75. A standby source of fuel to an engine in a powered parachute is typically
76. Adding more oil to the fuel than specified by the manufacturer of a 2-cycle engine will
result in
79. During preflight, the fuel vent system should always be checked
18
80. (Refer to FAA-CT-8080-5H, Figure 18.) What is the stall speed of an airplane under a
load factor of 2 if the unaccelerated stall speed is 100 knots?
A. 115 knots.
B. 129 knots.
C. 140 knots.
81. With respect to using the weight information given in a typical aircraft owner`s
manual for computing gross weight, it is important to know that if items have been
installed in the aircraft in addition to the original equipment, the
82. What can a pilot expect when landing at an airport located in the mountains?
83. What effect does high density altitude have on aircraft performance?
84. When making routine transponder code changes, pilots should avoid inadvertent
selection of which codes?
19
85. What is pressure altitude?
86. To properly purge water from the fuel system of an aircraft equipped with fuel tank
sumps and a fuel strainer quick drain, it is necessary to drain fuel from the
A. the spark plugs are fouled or shorted out or the wiring is defective.
B. hot spots in the combustion chamber ignite the fuel/air mixture in advance of
normal ignition.
C. the unburned charge in the cylinders explodes instead of burning normally.
88. What should be the first action after starting an aircraft engine?
A. Adjust for proper RPM and check for desired indications on the engine gauges.
B. Place the magneto or ignition switch momentarily in the OFF position to check
for proper grounding.
C. Test each brake and the parking brake.
20
90. (Refer to FAA-CT-8080-5H, Figure 45.) What is the elevation of the Thomas Airport
(T69) (area 5)?
92. When density altitude is beyond capability as indicated on the performance chart,
93. Your student holds a private pilot certificate with an airplane rating and wishes to
obtain a rotorcraft category rating. You inform the student that
A. none of the training/flight experience obtained toward the airplane rating can be
used for the rotorcraft rating.
B. he/she must complete the rotorcraft practical test in its entirety as per the private
pilot rotorcraft practical test standards.
C. some of the training/flight experience acquired toward the airplane rating can be
used to meet the requirements for a rotorcraft category rating.
A. is indication of an inversion.
B. denotes the beginning of the stratosphere.
C. means a cold front passage.
21
95. When the visibility is greater than 6 SM on a TAF it is expressed as
A. 6PSM.
B. P6SM.
C. 6SMP.
97. The lighter workloads associated with glass (digital) flight instrumentation
99. (Refer to FAA-CT-8080-5H, Figure 18.) What is the stall speed of an airplane in a 30
degree bank turn if the level stall speed is 100 knots?
A. 100 knots.
B. 102 knots.
C. 108 knots.
22
100. Determine the condition of the aircraft:
Pilot: 160 lb; 26 inch arm
Passenger: 120 lb; 26 inch arm
Baggage: 80 lb; 62 inch arm
Fuel: 24 gal; 7 inch arm
Airplane empty weight: 730.5 lbs
Empty CG: 17 inches
MAC: 59 inches
MGTOW: 1,320 lbs
A. The aircraft is slightly over MGTOW with the CG aft of the aft limit of 37% MAC.
B. The aircraft is under MGTOW with the CG at 35.2% MAC.
C. The CG is forward of the aft limit of 37% and the aircraft is 100 pounds under
MGTOW.
23