Agi Questions

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8/10/2021

AGI - Ground Instructor (Advanced)

The following sample questions for Advanced Ground Instructor (AGI) are suitable
study material for all the Ground Instructor rating tests. Although these questions are
airplane based they represent the same type of questions that can be found on all
Flight Instructor tests. The applicant must realize that these questions are to be used as a
study guide, and are not necessarily actual test questions. The full AGI test contains
100 questions. The Application Identification, Information Verification and Authorization
Requirements Matrix lists all FAA exams. It is available at
www.faa.gov/training_testing/testing/media/testing_matrix.pdf

The FAA testing system is supported by a series of supplement publications. These


publications include the graphics, legends, and maps that are needed to successfully
respond to certain test questions. FAA-CT-8080-5H, Airman Knowledge Testing
Supplement for Flight Instructor, Ground Instructor, Remote Pilot and Sport Pilot
Instructor is available at
www.faa.gov/training_testing/testing/supplements/media/flight_ground_instructor_akts.pdf

The Learning Statement Reference Guide for Airman Knowledge Testing contains
listings of learning statements with their associated codes. Matching the learning
statement codes with the codes listed on your Airman Knowledge Test Report assists in
the evaluation of knowledge areas missed on your exam. It is available at
www.faa.gov/training_testing/testing/media/LearningStatementReferenceGuide.pdf.

The online Ground Instructor (Advanced) (AGI) practice test is available on the PSI website
at
https://faa.psiexams.com/FAA/login

NOTE: Some questions in the PSI Practice Test may contain the reference "Refer to FAA-
CT-8080 . ." You may access the referred to supplement by opening the following link in a
separate window while taking the te
test.
www.faa.gov/training_testing/testing/supplements/media/flight_ground_instructor_akts.pdf

1
1. Most midair collision accidents occur during

A. hazy days within the traffic pattern environment.


B. clear days in the vicinity of navigational aids.
C. night conditions during simulated instrument flight.

Metadata: LSCCode : PLT195

2. The most effective technique to use for detecting other aircraft at night is to

A. turn the head and sweep the eyes rapidly over the entire visible region.
B. avoid staring directly at the point where another aircraft is suspected to be
flying.
C. avoid scanning the region below the horizon so as to avoid the effect of ground
lights on the eyes.

Metadata: LSCCode : PLT194

3. What is the correct departure procedure at a non-towered airport?

A. The FAA-approved departure procedure for that airport.


B. Make all left turns, except a 45° right turn on the first crosswind leg.
C. Departure in any direction consistent with safety, after crossing the airport
boundary.

Metadata: LSCCode : PLT052

4. Normally, the vertical limits of Class D airspace extend up to and including how many
feet above the surface?

A. 2,500 feet.
B. 3,000 feet.
C. 4,000 feet.

Metadata: LSCCode : PLT161

2
5. Under what condition, if any, may a pilot allow a person who is obviously under the
influence of intoxicating liquors or drugs to be carried aboard an aircraft?

A. Under no condition.
B. Only if a second pilot is aboard.
C. Only if the person is a medical patient under proper care or in an emergency.

Metadata: LSCCode : PLT463

6. An aircraft's last annual inspection was performed on July 12, this year. The next
annual inspection will be due no later than

A. July 13, next year.


B. July 31, next year.
C. 12 calendar months after the date shown on the Airworthiness Certificate.

Metadata: LSCCode : PLT372

7. How often are emergency locator transmitters required to be inspected?

A. Every 12 months.
B. Every 24 months.
C. After every 100 hours of flight time.

Metadata: LSCCode : PLT404

8. Position lights are required to be displayed on all aircraft in flight from

A. sunset to sunrise.
B. 1 hour before sunset to 1 hour after sunrise.
C. 30 minutes before sunrise to 30 minutes after sunset.

Metadata: LSCCode : PLT461

9. If an aircraft is not equipped for night flight and official sunset is 1730 EST, the latest a
pilot may operate that aircraft without violating regulations is

A. 1629 EST.
B. 1729 EST.
C. 1829 EST.

Metadata: LSCCode : PLT220

3
10. The minimum age requirement for the applicant who is seeking a Student Pilot
Certificate limited to glider operations is

A. 14 years.
B. 16 years.
C. 17 years.

Metadata: LSCCode : PLT457

11. As pilot, what is the minimum flight time in an aircraft an applicant must have for a
Commercial Pilot Certificate with an airplane rating?

A. 250 hours.
B. 200 hours.
C. 150 hours.

Metadata: LSCCode : PLT451

12. What is the minimum age required to be eligible for a Commercial Pilot Certificate?

A. 17
B. 18
C. 21

Metadata: LSCCode : PLT448

13. Regarding Convective Outlook Charts, when well-organized severe thunderstorms


are expected, but in small numbers and/or low coverage, the risk is referred to as

A. SLGT.
B. POSSIBLE.
C. MDT.

Metadata: LSCCode : PLT051

14. Which in-flight advisory would contain information on severe icing?

A. PIREP.
B. SIGMET.
C. CONVECTIVE SIGMET.

Metadata: LSCCode : PLT290

4
15. What is the maximum weight that could be added at Station 150.0 without exceeding
the aft CG limit?
Aircraft weight: 5,000 lb
CG location: Station 80.0
Aft CG limit: Station 80.5

A. 70.0 pounds.
B. 69.5 pounds.
C. 35.9 pounds.

Metadata: LSCCode : PLT021

16. The objective of the Airmen Certification Standards (ACS) is to ensure the
certification of pilots at a high level of performance and proficiency, consistent with

A. safety.
B. the time available.
C. their abilities.

Metadata: LSCCode : PLT481

17. Proper oral quizzing by the instructor during a lesson can have which result?

A. Alerts the instructor to the level of student motivation.


B. Identifies points which need more emphasis.
C. Can serve as a lead-in to introduce new material.

Metadata: LSCCode : PLT482

18. (Refer to FAA-CT-8080-5H, Figure 47.) Class C airspace usually extends up to

A. 3,000 feet MSL.


B. 3,000 feet above airport.
C. 4,000 feet above airport.

Metadata: LSCCode : PLT040

19. (Refer to FAA-CT-8080-5H, Figure 45.) The controlled airspace located at the Corpus
Christi VORTAC (area 5) begins at

A. the surface.
B. 700 feet AGL.
C. 1,200 feet MSL.

Metadata: LSCCode : PLT064

5
20. Flight through a restricted area should not be accomplished unless the pilot has

A. filed an IFR flight plan.


B. received prior authorization from the controlling agency.
C. received prior permission from the commanding officer of the nearest military
base.

Metadata: LSCCode : PLT393

21. (Refer to FAA-CT-8080-5H, Figure 46.) What is the ceiling of the Class C airspace
surrounding San Jose International Airport (area 2)?

A. 2,500 feet AGL.


B. 4,000 feet MSL.
C. 6,000 feet MSL.

Metadata: LSCCode : PLT064

22. (Refer to FAA-CT-8080-5H, Figure 46.) What is the height of the Class D airspace over
Livermore Airport (area 5)?

A. 2,900 feet MSL.


B. 3,000 feet AGL.
C. Base of the overlying Class B airspace.

Metadata: LSCCode : PLT064

23. If the ground wire between the magneto and the ignition switch becomes
disconnected, the most noticeable result will be that the engine

A. will run very rough.


B. cannot be started with the switch in the ON position.
C. cannot be shut down by turning the switch to the OFF position.

Metadata: LSCCode : PLT478

24. What should be the indication on the magnetic compass as you roll into a standard
rate turn to the right from a south heading in the Northern Hemisphere?

A. The compass will initially indicate a turn to the left.


B. The compass will indicate a turn to the right, but at a faster rate than is actually
occurring.
C. The compass will remain on south for a short time, then gradually catch up to
the magnetic heading of the airplane.

Metadata: LSCCode : PLT215

6
25. When the pilot leans the mixture control, what is being accomplished?

A. The volume of air entering the carburetor is being reduced.


B. The volume of air entering the carburetor is being increased.
C. The amount of fuel entering the combustion chamber is being reduced.

Metadata: LSCCode : PLT253

26. The reason for variations in geometric pitch (twisting) along a propeller blade is that it

A. prevents the portion of the blade near the hub to stall during cruising flight.
B. permits a relatively constant angle of attack along its length when in cruising
flight.
C. permits a relatively constant angle of incidence along its length when in cruising
flight.

Metadata: LSCCode : PLT351

27. On a multiengine airplane, where the propellers rotate in the same direction, why is
the loss of power on one engine more critical than the loss of power on the other
engine?

A. The corkscrew pattern of airflow from one propeller is less effective against the
airflow from the critical engine.
B. The torque reaction from operation of the critical engine is more severe around
the vertical axis as well as the longitudinal axis.
C. The asymmetric propeller thrust or P-factor results in the center of thrust from
one engine being farther from the airplane centerline than the center of thrust
from the other engine.

Metadata: LSCCode : PLT347

28. A series of continuous red lights in the runway centerline lighting indicates

A. 1,000 feet of runway remaining.


B. 3,000 feet of runway remaining
C. the beginning of the runway overrun area.

Metadata: LSCCode : PLT141

7
29. The visual glidepath of a 2-bar VASI provides safe obstruction clearance within plus
or minus 10° of the extended runway centerline and to a distance of how many miles
from the runway threshold?

A. 4 NM.
B. 6 NM.
C. 10 NM.

Metadata: LSCCode : PLT147

30. Pilots are encouraged to turn on their landing lights when operating below 10,000
feet, day or night, and when operating within

A. Class B airspace.
B. 10 miles of any airport.
C. 5 miles of a controlled airport.

Metadata: LSCCode : PLT119

31. A military airfield can be identified by

A. a white and red rotating beacon.


B. white flashing sequence lights (strobes).
C. a green and dual-peaked white rotating beacon.

Metadata: LSCCode : PLT141

32. What is the purpose for the runway hold position markings on the taxiway?

A. Identifies area where aircraft are prohibited.


B. Holds aircraft short of the runway.
C. Allows an aircraft permission onto the runway.

Metadata: LSCCode : PLT141

33. What does a destination sign identify?

A. Entrance to the runway from a taxiway.


B. Direction to takeoff runways.
C. Runway on which an aircraft is located.

Metadata: LSCCode : PLT141

8
34. Which technique should a student be taught to scan for traffic to the right and left
during straight-and-level flight?

A. Continuous sweeping of the windshield from right to left.


B. Concentrate on relative movement detected in the peripheral vision area.
C. Systematically focus on different segments of the sky for short intervals.

Metadata: LSCCode : PLT194

35. One aid in increasing night vision effectiveness would be to

A. look directly at objects.


B. force the eyes to view off center.
C. increase intensity of interior lighting.

Metadata: LSCCode : PLT333

36. What physical change would most likely occur to occupants of an unpressurized
aircraft flying above 15,000 feet without supplemental oxygen?

A. Gases trapped in the body contract and prevent nitrogen from escaping the
bloodstream.
B. The pressure in the middle ear becomes less than the atmospheric pressure in
the cabin.
C. A blue coloration of the lips and fingernails develop along with tunnel vision.

Metadata: LSCCode : PLT096

37. (Refer to FAA-CT-8080-5H, Figure 29.) What is the approximate glide distance?
Height above terrain: 5,500 ft
Tailwind: 10 kts

A. 11 miles.
B. 12 miles.
C. 13 miles.

Metadata: LSCCode : PLT006

9
38. (Refer to FAA-CT-8080-5H, Figure 30.) Using a maximum demonstrated crosswind
component equal to 0.2 VSO, what is a pilot able to determine?
VSO: 60 kts
Landing Rwy: 12
Wind: 150° at 20 kts

A. Headwind component exceeds recommended limits.


B. Crosswind component is within safe limits.
C. Maximum demonstrated crosswind component is exceeded.

Metadata: LSCCode : PLT013

39. (Refer to FAA-CT-8080-5H, Figure 31.) What is the total landing distance over a 50-foot
obstacle?
Temperature: 15 °C
Pressure altitude: 4,000 ft
Weight: 3,000 lb
Headwind: 22 kts

A. 1,250 feet.
B. 1,150 feet.
C. 1,050 feet.

Metadata: LSCCode : PLT008

40. In a twin-engine airplane, the single-engine service ceiling is the maximum density
altitude at which VYSE will produce

A. 50 feet per minute rate of climb.


B. 100 feet per minute rate of climb.
C. 500 feet per minute rate of climb.

Metadata: LSCCode : PLT132

41. How does temperature and weight affect the VNE of a helicopter?

A. VNE increases as temperature and weight increase.


B. VNE decreases as temperature and weight increase.
C. VNE decreases as temperature increases and weight decreases.

Metadata: LSCCode : PLT123

10
42. Performance of a helicopter can be determined by

A. knowing the density altitude, gross weight, and surface wind.


B. the formula pi times the rotor diameter divided by the blade area.
C. the highest altitude that can be maintained in a hover following liftoff.

Metadata: LSCCode : PLT124

43. (Refer to FAA-CT-8080-5H, Figure 17.) The airspeed indicated by point A is

A. maneuvering speed.
B. normal stall speed.
C. maximum structural cruising speed.

Metadata: LSCCode : PLT074

44. To taxi on the surface in a safe efficient manner, one should use the cyclic pitch to

A. control taxi speed.


B. maintain heading during crosswind conditions.
C. correct for drift during crosswind conditions.

Metadata: LSCCode : PLT112

45. Rotor torque is a concern in gyroplanes only during

A. prerotation or clutch engagement.


B. maneuvers requiring high rotor rpm.
C. maximum performance climbs and go-arounds requiring higher engine rpm.

Metadata: LSCCode : PLT470

46. What should a pilot do if a small hole is seen in the fabric of a balloon during
inflation?

A. Continue the inflation and make a mental note of the location of the hole for later
repair.
B. Instruct a ground crew member to inspect the hole and, if under 5 inches in
length, continue the inflation.
C. Consult the flight manual to determine if the hole is within acceptable damage
limits established for the balloon being flown.

Metadata: LSCCode : PLT373

11
47. During flight, if you apply cyclic control pressure which results in a decrease in pitch
angle of the rotor blades at a position approximately 90° to your left, the rotor disc will
tilt

A. aft.
B. left.
C. right.

Metadata: LSCCode : PLT199

48. Rotor blade flapping action is

A. an undesirable reaction to changes in airspeed and blade angle of attack.


B. an aerodynamic reaction to high speed flight and cannot be controlled by the
pilot.
C. a design feature permitting continual changes in the rotor blade angle of attack,
compensating for dissymmetry of lift.

Metadata: LSCCode : PLT470

49. Gyroplanes that use small wings will cause rotor drag to do what at higher cruise
airspeeds?

A. Increase.
B. Decrease.
C. Remain the same.

Metadata: LSCCode : PLT470

50. The forward speed of a rotorcraft is restricted primarily by

A. dissymmetry of lift.
B. transverse flow effect.
C. high-frequency vibrations.

Metadata: LSCCode : PLT470

51. Aileron deflection moves the airplane about its

A. lateral axis.
B. longitudinal axis.
C. vertical axis.

Metadata: LSCCode : PLT095

12
52. Action of the elevators moves the plane on its

A. lateral axis.
B. longitudinal axis.
C. vertical axis.

Metadata: LSCCode : PLT095

53. At a constant velocity in airflow, a high aspect ratio wing will have (in comparison
with a low aspect ratio wing)

A. increased drag, especially at a low angle of attack.


B. decreased drag, especially at a high angle of attack.
C. increased drag, especially at a high angle of attack.

Metadata: LSCCode : PLT238

54. (Refer to FAA-CT-8080-5H, Figure 21.) Of aircraft 1, 2 , or 3, which has the lowest
aspect ratio?

A. 1
B. 2
C. 3

Metadata: LSCCode : PLT238

55. What is the effect of center of gravity on the spin characteristics of a fixed-wing
aircraft? If the CG is too far

A. aft, a flat spin may develop.


B. forward, spin entry will be difficult.
C. aft, spins can become high-speed spirals.

Metadata: LSCCode : PLT245

56. If fuel consumption is 15.3 gallons per hour and groundspeed is 167 knots, how
much fuel is required for an aircraft to travel 620 NM?

A. 63 gallons.
B. 60 gallons.
C. 57 gallons.

Metadata: LSCCode : PLT015

13
57. How far will an aircraft travel in 3-1/2 minutes if its groundspeed is 65 knots?

A. 3.3 NM.
B. 3.8 NM.
C. 2.2 NM.

Metadata: LSCCode : PLT012

58. On a cross-country flight, point X is crossed at 1015 local. What is your expected
arrival time at point Y? Use the following information to determine your ETA.
Distance between X and Y: 32 NM
Forecast wind: 240° at 25 kts
Pressure altitude: 5,500 ft
Ambient temperature: +05 °C
True course: 100°
The indicated airspeed is 110 knots.

A. 1040 local.
B. 1059 local.
C. 1029 local.

Metadata: LSCCode : PLT012

59. If a true heading of 135° results in a ground track of 130° and a true airspeed of 135
knots results in a groundspeed of 140 knots, the wind would be from

A. 019° and 12 knots.


B. 200° and 13 knots.
C. 246° and 13 knots.

Metadata: LSCCode : PLT012

60. Which DME indication should you receive when you are directly over a VORTAC site
at approximately 6,000 feet AGL?

A. 0
B. 1
C. 1.3.

Metadata: LSCCode : PLT202

14
61. To properly compensate for a crosswind during straight-and-level cruising flight, the
pilot should

A. hold rudder pressure toward the wind.


B. establish a proper heading into the wind by coordinated use of the controls.
C. hold aileron pressure toward the wind and hold opposite rudder pressure to
prevent a turn.

Metadata: LSCCode : PLT112

62. If poor aircraft controllability is experienced during an emergency go-around with full
flaps, the cause is most probably due to

A. excessive airspeed with full flaps extended.


B. the high-power, low-airspeed situation with the airplane trimmed for a full-flap
configuration.
C. a reduction in the angle of attack with full flaps to the point where the aircraft
control is greatly impaired.

Metadata: LSCCode : PLT244

63. When explaining the techniques used for making short- and soft-field takeoffs, it
would be correct to state that

A. during soft-field takeoffs, lift-off should be made as soon as possible.


B. during soft-field takeoffs, lift-off should be made only when best angle-of-climb
speed is attained.
C. during short-field takeoffs, lift-off should be attempted only after best rate-of-
climb speed is attained.

Metadata: LSCCode : PLT486

64. What normally results from excessive airspeed on final approach?

A. Bouncing.
B. Floating.
C. Ballooning.

Metadata: LSCCode : PLT170

15
65. A go-around from a poor landing approach should

A. not be attempted unless circumstances make it absolutely necessary.


B. generally be preferable to last minute attempts to prevent a bad landing.
C. not be attempted after the landing flare has been initiated regardless of airspeed.

Metadata: LSCCode : PLT170

66. Two distinct flight situations should be covered when teaching slow flight. These are
the establishment and maintenance of

A. airspeeds appropriate for landing approaches, and flight at reduced airspeeds.


B. an airspeed which gives a stall warning indication, and an airspeed at which
complete recovery can be made from stalls.
C. an airspeed at which the airplane is operating on the back side of the power
curve, and an airspeed at which the elevator control can be held full-back with
no further loss of control.

Metadata: LSCCode : PLT219

67. The 'ILS critical area boundary sign' identifies

A. the exit boundary for the runway protected area.


B. the edge of the ILS critical area.
C. the area where an aircraft is prohibited from entering.

Metadata: LSCCode : PLT141

68. High EGT on a 2-cycle engine could be caused by

A. high oil temperature and low oil pressure.


B. pre-ignition, detonation or a air intake leak.
C. improper engine operation.

Metadata: LSCCode : PLT278

69. What is true altitude?

A. The vertical distance of the aircraft above sea level.


B. The vertical distance of the aircraft above the surface.
C. The height above the standard datum plane.

Metadata: LSCCode : PLT023

16
70. The pilot controls the air/fuel ratio with the

A. throttle.
B. manifold pressure.
C. mixture control.

Metadata: LSCCode : PLT249

71. Fouling of spark plugs is more apt to occur if the aircraft

A. gains altitude with no mixture adjustment.


B. descends from altitude with no mixture adjustment.
C. throttle is advanced very abruptly.

Metadata: LSCCode : PLT478

72. What effect, if any, does ambient temperature have on propane tank pressure?

A. It has no effect.
B. As temperature decreases, propane tank pressure decreases.
C. As temperature decreases, propane tank pressure increases.

Metadata: LSCCode : PLT253

73. The purpose of the heat exchange coil as used in hot air balloons is to

A. prevent ice from forming in the fuel lines.


B. warm the fuel tanks for more efficient fuel flow.
C. vaporize the fuel for more efficient burner operation.

Metadata: LSCCode : PLT253

74. What constitutes the payload of a balloon?

A. Total gross weight.


B. Total weight of passengers, cargo, and baggage.
C. Weight of the aircraft and equipment.

Metadata: LSCCode : PLT121

17
75. A standby source of fuel to an engine in a powered parachute is typically

A. from an electrically powered pump.


B. through gravity feed.
C. from a pressurized fuel tank.

Metadata: LSCCode : PLT253

76. Adding more oil to the fuel than specified by the manufacturer of a 2-cycle engine will
result in

A. increased engine performance.


B. increased carbon buildup and engine fouling.
C. increased engine lubrication and optimal performance.

Metadata: LSCCode : PLT251

77. Air cooled engines dissipate heat

A. through cooling fins on the cylinder and head.


B. by air flowing through the radiator fins.
C. through the cylinder head temperature probe.

Metadata: LSCCode : PLT343

78. Carburetor ice

A. occurs mostly as a function of temperature.


B. can only form when the outside air temperature is near freezing with high
relative humidity.
C. is more likely to form when outside air temperatures are below 70°F and relative
humidity is above 80%.

Metadata: LSCCode : PLT190

79. During preflight, the fuel vent system should always be checked

A. to ensure the vent is closed.


B. to ensure the vent is open.
C. to ensure the vent system pressure is in the green range.

Metadata: LSCCode : PLT253

18
80. (Refer to FAA-CT-8080-5H, Figure 18.) What is the stall speed of an airplane under a
load factor of 2 if the unaccelerated stall speed is 100 knots?

A. 115 knots.
B. 129 knots.
C. 140 knots.

Metadata: LSCCode : PLT018

81. With respect to using the weight information given in a typical aircraft owner`s
manual for computing gross weight, it is important to know that if items have been
installed in the aircraft in addition to the original equipment, the

A. allowable useful load is decreased.


B. allowable useful load remains unchanged.
C. maximum allowable gross weight is increased.

Metadata: LSCCode : PLT328

82. What can a pilot expect when landing at an airport located in the mountains?

A. Higher true airspeed and longer landing distance.


B. Higher indicated airspeed and shorter landing distance.
C. Lower true airspeed and longer landing distance.

Metadata: LSCCode : PLT127

83. What effect does high density altitude have on aircraft performance?

A. It increases engine performance.


B. It reduces climb performance.
C. It increases takeoff performance.

Metadata: LSCCode : PLT127

84. When making routine transponder code changes, pilots should avoid inadvertent
selection of which codes?

A. 0700, 1700, 7000.


B. 1200, 1500, 7000.
C. 7500, 7600, 7700.

Metadata: LSCCode : PLT497

19
85. What is pressure altitude?

A. The indicated altitude corrected for position and installation error.


B. The altitude indicated when the barometric pressure scale is set to 29.92.
C. The indicated altitude corrected for nonstandard temperature and pressure.

Metadata: LSCCode : PLT023

86. To properly purge water from the fuel system of an aircraft equipped with fuel tank
sumps and a fuel strainer quick drain, it is necessary to drain fuel from the

A. fuel strainer drain.


B. lowest point in the fuel system.
C. fuel strainer drain and the fuel tank sumps.

Metadata: LSCCode : PLT253

87. Detonation occurs in a reciprocating aircraft engine when

A. the spark plugs are fouled or shorted out or the wiring is defective.
B. hot spots in the combustion chamber ignite the fuel/air mixture in advance of
normal ignition.
C. the unburned charge in the cylinders explodes instead of burning normally.

Metadata: LSCCode : PLT115

88. What should be the first action after starting an aircraft engine?

A. Adjust for proper RPM and check for desired indications on the engine gauges.
B. Place the magneto or ignition switch momentarily in the OFF position to check
for proper grounding.
C. Test each brake and the parking brake.

Metadata: LSCCode : PLT479

89. An abnormally high engine oil temperature indication may be caused by

A. the oil quantity being too low.


B. operating with a too high viscosity oil.
C. operating with an excessively rich mixture.

Metadata: LSCCode : PLT324

20
90. (Refer to FAA-CT-8080-5H, Figure 45.) What is the elevation of the Thomas Airport
(T69) (area 5)?

A. 122 feet MSL.


B. 43 feet MSL.
C. 48 feet MSL.

Metadata: LSCCode : PLT064

91. Public figures are protected by

A. special use airspace.


B. prohibited areas.
C. temporary flight restriction.

Metadata: LSCCode : PLT376

92. When density altitude is beyond capability as indicated on the performance chart,

A. interpolate the data and attempt takeoff.


B. extrapolate the data and attempt takeoff.
C. do not attempt takeoff until conditions permit calculations to provide the data to
determine a safe takeoff and climb out.

Metadata: LSCCode : PLT373

93. Your student holds a private pilot certificate with an airplane rating and wishes to
obtain a rotorcraft category rating. You inform the student that

A. none of the training/flight experience obtained toward the airplane rating can be
used for the rotorcraft rating.
B. he/she must complete the rotorcraft practical test in its entirety as per the private
pilot rotorcraft practical test standards.
C. some of the training/flight experience acquired toward the airplane rating can be
used to meet the requirements for a rotorcraft category rating.

Metadata: LSCCode : PLT451

94. An increase in temperature with an altitude increase

A. is indication of an inversion.
B. denotes the beginning of the stratosphere.
C. means a cold front passage.

Metadata: LSCCode : PLT512

21
95. When the visibility is greater than 6 SM on a TAF it is expressed as

A. 6PSM.
B. P6SM.
C. 6SMP.

Metadata: LSCCode : PLT288

96. Automation in aircraft has proven to

A. present new hazards in its limitations.


B. that automation is basically flawless.
C. prevent accidents.

Metadata: LSCCode : PLT104

97. The lighter workloads associated with glass (digital) flight instrumentation

A. are instrumental in decreasing flightcrew fatigue.


B. have proven to increase safety in operations.
C. may lead to complacency by the flightcrew.

Metadata: LSCCode : PLT104

98. Human behavior

A. rarely results in accidents unless deliberate actions are performed.


B. causes three out of four accidents.
C. is well understood, so behavioral induced accidents are exceedingly rare
occurrences.

Metadata: LSCCode : PLT104

99. (Refer to FAA-CT-8080-5H, Figure 18.) What is the stall speed of an airplane in a 30
degree bank turn if the level stall speed is 100 knots?

A. 100 knots.
B. 102 knots.
C. 108 knots.

Metadata: LSCCode : PLT018

22
100. Determine the condition of the aircraft:
Pilot: 160 lb; 26 inch arm
Passenger: 120 lb; 26 inch arm
Baggage: 80 lb; 62 inch arm
Fuel: 24 gal; 7 inch arm
Airplane empty weight: 730.5 lbs
Empty CG: 17 inches
MAC: 59 inches
MGTOW: 1,320 lbs

A. The aircraft is slightly over MGTOW with the CG aft of the aft limit of 37% MAC.
B. The aircraft is under MGTOW with the CG at 35.2% MAC.
C. The CG is forward of the aft limit of 37% and the aircraft is 100 pounds under
MGTOW.

Metadata: LSCCode : PLT021

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