INTERNAL TEST

10TH CLASS

QUIZ
30 t h JANUARY 2022
Time: 1 hour Max. Marks: 120

INSTRUCTIONS
Question Paper contains 60 questions.
Question paper consists of 6 parts (IQ, Maths, Physics, Chemistry, Biology and Social).
Each question has 4 options with one correct answer. Bubbling of correct answer must be done on OMR Sheet.
Each question carries 2 mark. There is no negative marking.

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-2- 10 Class Quiz Ex. Dt. 30-01-2022

IQ

1. In the number series given below, one number is missing. Each series is followed by 4 alternatives (1), (2),
(3), (4). One of them is the right answer. Identify and indicate it as per the ‘instructions’
6, 28, 120, 496, ……
(A) 1035 (B) 2016 (C) 2019 (D) 1234

2. In each of the following questions, a setter series is given in which some letters are missing. The missing
letters are given in the proper sequence as one of the alternatives. Find the correct alternative.
__ __ aba __ __ ba _ ab
(A) abbba (B) abbab (C) baabb (D) bbaba

3. In this type of questions, a figure or a matrix is given in which some numbers are filled according to a rule. A
place is left blank with question mark. Find out which number will replace the questions mark (?) from given
options.

(A) 29 (B) 42 (C) 36 (D) 28

4. Arrange the words given below in a meaningful sequence and chose correct answer from the 4 options.
(1) Key (2) Door (3) Lock (4) Room (5) Switch on
(A) 5, 1, 2, 4, 3 (B) 4, 2, 1, 5, 3 (C) 1, 3, 2, 4, 5 (D) 1, 2, 3, 5, 4

5. Find out the relationship between the first two words and choose the word from the given alternative, which
bears the same relationship to the third word, as the first two bear.
Vine: Grapes: : Poppy:?
(A) Opium (B) Tobacco (C) Pears (D) Pineapple

6. In this question, one word is coded according to a particular pattern and the candidate is asked to given the
code letters for the another word following the same pattern.
In a given code, SISTER is coded as 535301. UNCLE as 84670 and BOY as 129. How is RUSTIC written in
the code?
(A) 633185 (B) 185336 (C) 363815 (D) 581363

7. Which of the following diagrams indicates the best relation Iron, Lead and Nitrogen?

(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4

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-3- 10 Class Quiz Ex. Dt. 30-01-2022

8. The number of triangles in the figure.

(A) 12 (B) 13 (C) 14 (D) 15

9. How many points will be on the face opposite to face, which contains 2 points?

(A) 1 (B) 5 (C) 4 (D) 6

10. Each of the following question consists of two sets of figures. There is a definite relationship between figures
A and B. Establish a similar relationship between figures C and D by selecting suitable figure from the
answer set.

(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4

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-4- 10 Class Quiz Ex. Dt. 30-01-2022

MATHEMATICS

11. The figure given shows two identical semi-circles cut out from a
piece of coloured paper. Find the area of the remaining piece of
 22 
paper Use   
 7 
(A) 296.1 cm2
(B) 265.4 cm2
(C) 221.5 cm2
(D) 201.7 cm2

12. Mrs. Vidya bough a piece of cloth as shown in the figure. The
portion of the cloth that is not coloured consists of 6 identical
semi-circles. Find the area of the coloured portion.
2 2
(A) 144 cm (B) 126 cm
2 2
(C) 195 cm (D) 243 cm

13. The figure below shows two concentric circles with centre O. PQRS
is a square inscribed in the outer circle. It also circumscribes the
inner circle, touching it at point B, C, D and A. The ratio of the
perimeter of the outer circle to that of polygon ABCD is
 3
(A) (B)
4 2

(C) (D) 
2

14. Which of the following statement is/are not correct?

(A) A chord divides the interior of a circle into two parts.
(B) An arc of a circle whose length is less than that of a semicircle of the same circle is a called a minor arc.
(C) Circles having the same centre but different radii are called concentric circles.
(D) A line segment joining any two points of a circle is called an arc.

15. Column-I Column-II


(A) Circumference of circle (p) 2r   2r
360

(B) Area of a quadrant (q) r 2
360
r 2
(C) Length of the arc of the sector (r)
4

(D) Perimeter of the sector (s)  2r
360
(E) Area of the sector (t) 2r
(A) A-t, B-r, C-s, D-p, E-q (B) A-r, B-t C-s, D-q, E-p
(C) A-t, B-r, C-p, D-q, E-s (D) A-s, B-t, C-q, D-p, E-r

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16. One card is drawn from a well shuffled deck of 52 cards

(I) The probability that the card will be diamond, is 1/2
(II) The probability of an ace of heart is 1/52
(III) The probability of not a heat is 3/4
(IV) The probability of king or queen is 1/26
Which of the statement(s) is/are true?
(A) I and II (B) II and III (C) III and IV (D) None of these

17. From a bag containing 100 tickets numbered 1, 2, 3,……, 100 one ticket is drawn. If the number on this ticket
1
is x, then the probability that x   2 is …..
x
(A) 0 (B) 0.99 (C) 1 (D) None of these

18. Rahul and Ravi planned to play Business (board game) in which they were supposed to use two dice.

Ravi got first chance to roll the dice. What is the probability that he got the sum of the two numbers
appearing on the top face of the dice is 8?
1 5 1
(A) (B) (C) (D) 0
26 36 18

19. Assertion: If the probability of an event is P then probability of its complementary event will be 1-P.
Reason: When E and E are complementary events, then P E  P E  1 
(A) If both Assertion and Reason are correct and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(B) If both Assertion and Reason are correct, but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(C) If Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect.
(D) If Assertion is incorrect but Reason is correct.

20. Match the proposed probability under Column-I with the appropriate written description under column-II :
Column -I Column-II
(Probability) (Written Description)
(A) 0.95 (p) An incorrect assignment
(B) 0.02 (q) No chance of happening
(C) –0.3 (r) As much chance of happening as not
(D) 0.5 (s) Very likely to happen
(E) 0 (t) Very little chance of happening
(A) A-t, B-s, C-p, D-q, E-r (B) A-s, B-t, C-r, D-p, E-q
(C) A-s, B-t, C-p, D-r, E-q (D) A-p, B-q, C-p, D-r, E-s

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-6- 10 Class Quiz Ex. Dt. 30-01-2022

PHYSICS

21. The size of the pupil of the eye is adjusted by

(A) cornea (B) retina (C) iris (D) blind spot

22. When we enter a cinema hall, we cannot see properly for a short time. This is because
(A) pupil does not open
(B) pupil does not close
(C) adjustment of the size of pupil takes sometime
(D) none of these

23. When we go out in bright sunlight, the pupil of the eye

(A) contracts
(B) expands
(C) sometimes contracts and sometimes expands
(D) neither contracts nor expands

24. The phenomena of mirage is seen due to

(A) total dispersion (B) total internal interference
(C) reflection (D) refraction

25. In an eye the focal length of the eye-lens increases when

(A) ciliary muscles contracts (B) ciliary muscles expands
(C) iris expands (D) iris contracts

26. The far point of a myopic person is 80 cm in front of the eye. What is the power of the lens required to enable
him to see the distant objects clearly?
(A) 1.25 D (B) 1.50 D (C) 1 D (D) 1.75 D

27. A mark at the bottom of a liquid appear to rise by 0.1m. The depth of the liquid is 1m. The refractive index of
the liquid is…….
9 10
(A) 1.33 (B) (C) (D) 1.5
10 9

28. Which of the following phenomena of light are involved in the formation of a rainbow?
(A) reflection, refraction and dispersion (B) refraction, dispersion and total internal reflection
(C) refraction, dispersion and internal reflection (D) dispersion, scattering and total internal reflection

29. A student sitting on the last bench can read the letters written on the blackboard but is not able to read the
letters written in his textbook. Which of the following statements is correct?
(A) the near point of his eyes has receded away
(B) the near point of his eyes has come closer to him
(C) the far point of his eyes has come closer to him
(D) the far point of his eyes has receded away

30. Even in absolutely clear water, a diver cannot see very clearly
(A) because rays of light get diffused
(B) because velocity of light is reduced in water
(C) because of ray of light passing through the water makes it turbid
(D) because the focal length of the eye lens in water gets changed and the image is no longer focused
sharply on the retina

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CHEMISTRY

31. IUPAC name of the following compound is

CH3  CH2  CH2  CH  CH3
|
CH3
(A) 2 – methyl pentane (B) 2 – methyl hexane
(C) petane (D) hexane

32. IUPAC name of the following compound is

(A) pent – 3 – ene (B) pent – 2 – ene (C) hex – 3 – ene (D) butane

33. Identify the functional group in the following compound.

O

O
(A) carboxylic acid (B) amide (C) ester (D) acid halide

34. IUPAC name of the following compound is

(A) 3 – ethyl – 3 – methyl pentane (B) 3, 4 – diethyl pentane

(C) 4 – methyl – 3 – ethyl hexane (D) 3 – ethyl – 4 – methyl hexane

35. Identify the functional group:

O
||
CH3  CH2  C NH2
(A) ketone (B) aldehyde (C) amide (D) amine

36. IUPAC name of the following is

(A) 3 – methyl pentane (B) 3, 3 – dimethyl pentane

(C) 3 – ethyl propane (D) 3, 3 – diethyl propane

37. IUPAC name of the following compound is

(A) 3 – ethyl hept – 2 – ene (B) 5 – ethyl hexane

(C) 5 – ethyl hept – 5 – ene (D) octane

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38. IUPAC name of the following compound is

(A) 2 – methyl pent – 3 – yne (B) 4 – methyl pent – 2 – yne

(C) hex – 2 – yne (D) pent – 2 – yne

39. IUPAC name of the following compound is

(A) butane (B) but – 1 – yne (C) propane (D) prop – 1 – yne

40. Identify the functional group:

O

H
(A) carboxylic acid (B) ester (C) aldehyde (D) ketone

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-9- 10 Class Quiz Ex. Dt. 30-01-2022

BIOLOGY

41. The study of relationship between living organisms and their environment is called as
(A) ecology (B) ecosystem (C) taxonomy (D) biosphere

42. 10% law of energy transfer in a food chain was explained by

(A) Haeckel (B) Linneaus (C) Lindeman (D) Eichler

43. A food chain consists of

(A) producers and primary consumers (B) producers, herbivores and decomposers
(C) producers, herbivores and carnivores (D) none of these

44. Which is the correct sequence in the food chain in grassland.

(A) grass – wolf – deer – rabbit (B) grass – snake – insect – deer
(C) bacteria – grass – rabbit – wolf (D) grass – insect – bird – wolf

45. A pond or lake is

(A) a biome (B) a natural ecosystem
(C) an artificial ecosystem (D) none of these

46. The flow of energy from producers to consumers is

(A) bidirectional (B) unidirectional (C) tridirectional (D) multidirectional

47. Biotic components of an ecosystem consists of

(A) producers (B) consumers (C) decomposers (D) all of these

48. In a food chain the second trophic level is occupied by

(A) herbivores (B) decomposers (C) producers (D) carnivores

49. Which of the following belong to the category of primary consumer?

(A) eagles and snakes (B) insects and cattle (C) aquatic plants (D) snakes and frogs

50. In an ecosystem, there is a flow of

(A) energy only (B) nutrients only
(C) water only (D) energy and nutrients

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SOCIAL

51. Arrange the following in chronological order

(i) Establishment of WTO
(ii) New Economic Policy in India
(iii) Ford and Mahindra started joint venture
(A) i, iii, ii (B) i, ii, iii (C) iii, ii, i (D) ii, i, iii

52. Match the following

(i) Liberalisation (a) Integration of domestic economy with work
(ii) Privatisation (b) Abolition of restrictions
(iii) Globalisation (c) Sale of public sector shares
(A) i – b; ii – c; iii – a (B) i – c; ii – b; iii – a
(C) i – a; ii – b; iii – c (D) i – a; ii – c; iii – b

53. Which one of the following is wrongly matched?

(A) Producer of Edible Oil - Cargil
(B) Ford Motors set up large plant - Kolkatta
(C) WTO Head quarters - Geneva
(D) It is referred as World Bank - IBRD

54. Which of the following are Indian MNC’s (Multi National Corporations)
(A) Microsoft & Google (B) Ranbaxy and Asian paints
(C) Sony and Panasonic (D) Honda and Harley Davidson

55. The main aim of Special Economic Zones (SEZ’s) is

(A) To encourage unemployed youth to start industries
(B) To attract Foreign investment
(C) To encourage Govt enterprises
(D) All the above

56. The effect of Chinese toys on Indian toy makers is

(A) Making profits (B) Suffering losses
(C) No effect (D) None of these

57. Which of the following is not a method used by Govt for fair Globalisation?
(A) It can impose trade barriers
(B) It can Negotiate at the WTO for fairer rules
(C) It can close its market for foreign trade
(D) It can align with other developing countries

58. The examples of industries where production is carried out by large number of small producers around the
World?
(A) Garments, Footwear and Sport items
(B) Electrical, Electronic and Automobile industries
(C) Arms and Ammunition
(D) Telecom and Aeronautical

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59. Many MNC’s are investing in India because

(A) It is a hub of New technology
(B) It has multi-party system
(C) It can provide cheap skilled as well as unskilled labour
(D) All the above

60. Cargil foods, a MNC has bought over which indigenous Indian company
(A) Amul (B) Dabur (C) Britania (D) Parakh foods

Wish you all the best

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