Atpl Jaa Questions - Operational Procedures

JAA ATPL QUESTIONS OPERATIONAL PROCEDURES
Book 12: OPERATIONAL PROCEDURES
ICAO Annex 6
50 Questions
1. Aeroplanes with a take-off mass greater than 5700kg shall be fitted with an independent
automatically operated emergency power supply to operate and illuminate the artificial
horizon for:
a. 15 mins
b. 30 mins
c. 60 mins
d. 2 hrs
2. When are flight crew allowed to leave their stations?
a. In the performance of their duties
b. At any time specified by the operations manual
c. When having lunch
d. Only when the captain allows it
3. Destination alternate for a turbojet – what is the required fuel overhead?
a. 30 minutes at cruise speed
b. 30 minutes at 1500’ in standard conditions
c. 2 hours at 1500’ in standard conditions
d. 30 minutes at endurance speed
4. Who is responsible for ensuring that the aeroplane is airworthy prior to flight?
a. Operator
b. State of Registration
c. Captain
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d. State of the operator
5. One shall not initiate any flight made in accordance with instrument flight rules unless
the available information indicates that the conditions at the aerodrome of predicted
destination or, at an aerodrome of alternate of predicted destination, are, at the
predicted
a. Take-off equal to or better than the minimum conditions required for aerodrome
use
b. Arrival, and for a reasonable time before and after such a predicted time, equal
to or better than the minimum conditions required for aerodrome use
c. Arrival equal to or better than the minimum conditions required for aerodrome
use
d. Arrival better than the minimum conditions required for aerodrome use
6. Above what altitude are quick-donning masks required?
a. 25,000’
b. 15,000’
c. 10,000’
d. 32,000’
7. When must a radiation indicator be carried?
a. For flights above 29,000ft
b. For flights above 39,000ft
c. For flights above 49,000ft
d. For flights above 59,000ft
8. What is the requirement regarding the carriage of a CVR for aircraft registered before
April 1998?
a. Record last 30 mins of flight
b. Record for the duration of the flight
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c. Record last 25 hours of operation
d. Record last 48 hours of flight
9. Information concerning evacuation procedures can be found in the:
a. Operation manual
b. Flight manual
c. Journey logbook
d. Operational flight plan
10. What is the requirement for the carriage of life rafts?
a. 30 mins or 120nm whichever is less
b. 50nm from land
c. 120mins or 400nm whichever is less
d. 60 mins flying time at the engine out cruise speed
11. Who is to ensure safe handling of flights?
a. The Operator
b. The Authority
c. The State of Registration
d. The Operations Officer
12. What is the currency requirement for a co-pilot?
a. 3 take-offs and landings on an aeroplane of the same type within the last 90 days
b. 3 take-offs and landings on an aeroplane of the same type within the last 60 days
c. 3 take-offs and landings on an aeroplane of the same type or approved

simulator within the last 90 days
d. 3 take-offs and landings on an aeroplane of the same type or approved simulator

within the last 60 days
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13. Where is the general information about the carriage of dangerous goods to be found?
a. Operations Manual
b. AIC
c. Aircraft flight notes
d. Journey Logbook
14. What is the co-pilot currency requirement?
a. 3 flights in the last 90 days
b. 3 take-offs and landings in the last 60 days
c. At the controls for 3 flights in the last 60 days
d. At the controls for 3 take-offs and landings in the last 90 days
15. In determining Aerodrome Operating Minima, what of the following needs to be

considered?
1. Crew composition
2. Ability to communicate/receive meteorological information
3. Significant obstacles in the missed approach area
4. Dimensions and characteristics of the runway
5. Navigation equipment in the aeroplane
The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
a. 1, 2,4 & 5
b. 1, 2 & 3
c. 2, 3, 4 & 5
d. All of the above
16. Who compiles the MEL and where does it go?
a. The manufacturer and in the Flight Manual
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b. The manufacturer and in the Operations Manual
c. The operator and in the Flight Manual
d. The operator and in the Operations Manual
17. Following an indication of an unserviceability whilst taxiing to the holding point, what do
you consult first?
a. Flight manual
b. Operator
c. State of registration
d. MEL
18. Flight crew members on the flight deck shall keep their safety belt fastened:
a. Only during take-off and landing
b. While at their duty station
c. From take-off to landing
d. Only during take-off and landing and whenever necessary by the commander in
the interest of safety
19. The Minimum Equipment List (MEL) is established by the:
a. Airline operator
b. Manufacturer
c. Aeronautical authority the airline operator depends on
d. Civil Aviation Authority of the European states
20. When is it compulsory to carry life jackets for each person on board?
1. Flight over water and at a distance of more than 50nm from shore
2. Cruising speed unable to reach shore with one engine inoperative
3. Flight over water more than 100nm from shore
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4. Where a hazard exists during take-off or landing or ditching
a. 1 and 4
b. 2 and 3
c. 3 and 4
d. 1, 2, 3, and 4
21. Who checks, before flight, that the aircraft’s weight is such that the flight can be safely
made, and that any transported cargo is properly distributed and secured?
a. The company’s cargo technicians
b. The captain
c. The mechanic on board, or in his absence the co-pilot
d. The operator
22. Who accepts the MEL?
a. The country where the flight takes place
b. The country of the operator
c. The country of the designers
d. The country of the manufacturers
23. A pilot in command:
1. Must comply with ATC instructions immediately
2. Is only responsible when airborne
3. May deviate in an emergency
4. May deviate from complying with rules of the air to comply with
an ATC instruction
5. May request a new clearance if unsatisfied
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a. 1,3, 4 & 5
b. 3 & 5
c. 3, 4 & 5
d. All of the above
24. Who is the operator to provide an Operations Manual for?
a. Operations staff
b. All company personnel
c. Only for flight crew
d. For the Authority
25. Where is the Minimum Equipment List?
a. Appended to the Aeroplane Flight Manual
b. In the Operations Manual
c. In the Maintenance Documents
d. In the Operations Room
26. A modern aircraft must be provided with a flight data recorder when its certified take-
off gross weight is greater than:
a. 27,000kg
b. 5,700kg
c. 20,000kg
d. 14,000kg
27. When are life jackets required?
a. 50nm from land
b. 100nm from land
c. 300nm from land
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d. 400nm from land
28. What is the requirement for the issue of an AOC?
a. Not already hold an AOC issued by another authority
b. Have a fleet of serviceable aeroplanes
c. Have registered offices in all countries of operations
d. Have facilities for all maintenance
29. A flight Data Recorder is required in aeroplanes over:
a. 20, 000 kg
b. 5, 700 kg
c. 10, 000 kg
d. 7, 000 kg
30. Supplemental oxygen is used to:
a. Provide oxygen to passengers who might require it, following a cabin

depressurization
b. Assist a passenger with breathing difficulties
c. Protect a crew member who fights a fire
d. Provide passengers on board with oxygen during a cabin depressurization
31. In Accordance With (IAW) ICAO annex 6, how often should pilot proficiency checks be
performed?
a. No less than 6 months between checks
b. 2 checks every 13 months
c. 3 checks within the year with no less than 4 months between checks
d. 2 within a year, more than 4 months between checks
32. The recent experience conditions of a captain assigned to a flight on an aircraft by an

operator must not be less than:
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a. 6 take-offs and 6 landings as pilot in command on this type of aircraft during the
last 90 days
b. 3 take-offs and 3 landings as pilot in command on this type of aircraft during the
last 6 months
c. 6 take-offs and 6 landings as pilot in command on this type of aircraft during the
last 6 months
d. 3 take-offs and 3 landings as pilot in command on this type of aircraft during

the last 90 days
33. The “NO SMOKING” sign must be illuminated:
a. When oxygen is being supplied in the cabin
b. In each cabin section if oxygen is being carried
c. During climb and descent
d. During take-off and landing
34. When don’t you need a destination alternate aerodrome?
a. If there is a reasonable certainty that at the ETA at the destination aerodrome

and a reasonable time before and after you can expect VMC
b. If the flight time is less than 6 hours
c. If the flight time is less than 1 hour
d. If your operator deems the weather to be suitable for a visual landing
35. Who provides the operations personnel with the operations manual and the
amendments to keep it up to date?
a. Aircraft manufacturer
b. ATS authority of the state of registry
c. Aircraft operator
d. Owner of aircraft
36. To act as co-pilot for take-off or landing you must have:
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a. Acted as PIC or co-pilot on type in the last 90 days
b. Acted as PIC or co-pilot on type in the last 30 days
c. Acted as PIC or co-pilot on type in the last 60 days
d. Been at the controls for landing in the same type recently
37. When refueling is being conducted with passengers embarking or disembarking
a. Refueling is strictly prohibited whilst passengers are embarking/disembarking
b. All flight crew must be on board
c. Communications shall be maintained by ground crew and qualified crew on

board
d. The stairs shall be fully extended
38. From the flight deck you observe an aeroplane in the forward left position on an
opposite parallel track. What Nav light will be observed:
a. Green
b. Red
c. White
d. All of the above
39. FDRs must keep data and parameters for at least the last:
a. 30 hours of operation
b. 48 hours of operation
c. 25 hours of operation
d. The whole flight
40. When are all flight crewmembers required to be at their stations?
a. Take-off and landing
b. Throughout the flight
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c. At all times other than take-off and landing
d. As specified in the operations manual
41. How far way can a take-off alternate be for a 2-engined aeroplane?
a. 60 mins at one engine cruise speed
b. 60 mins at normal cruise speed
c. 120 mins at one engine cruise speed
d. 120 mins at normal cruise speed
42. A list to be carried in the aeroplane detailing minimum equipment required must be
approved by:
a. Country of operations
b. State of operator
c. Country of manufacturer
d. No such book is required to be approved by an authority
43. Who issues and updates the MEL?
a. The authority
b. The designer
c. The manufacturer
d. The operator
44. A piece of equipment on your public transport airplane fails while you are still parked.
The reference document you use to decide on the procedure to follow is the:
a. Operation manual’s chapter ‘Abnormal and Emergency procedures’
b. Flight manual
c. EU-OPS
d. Minimum equipment list
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45. What is the oxygen requirement for the crew and 100% of the passengers in an
unpressurised aircraft?
a. 10,000 ft
b. 11,000 ft
c. 12,000 ft
d. 13,000 ft
46. When are passengers briefed on the use of oxygen for a flight that is planned to operate
at FL290
a. Before Take-off
b. Before 10,000ft
c. Before 14,000ft
d. Before 29,000ft
47. What must be ensured with respect to navigation equipment?
a. The failure of one piece does not affect another
b. All navigation equipment must be serviceable at the start of flight
c. All equipment must conform to ICAO specifications
d. If one piece of equipment fails there must be a spare available
48. On board a pressurized aircraft, a flight shall be undertaken only if the aircraft is
provided with an oxygen reserve enabling all crew members and part of the passengers
to be supplied with oxygen in the event of cabin depressurization, throughout the flight
period, during which the pressure altitude is greater than:
a. 11,000 ft
b. 10,000 ft
c. 12,000 ft
d. 13,000 ft
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49. If there is unauthorized use of equipment that affects the aeroplane’s system, the
commander:
a. May authorize its use for take-off and landing
b. Must not authorize its use
c. May authorize its use for the whole flight
d. May authorize its use at his discretion
50. What skills constitute pilot proficiency checks?
a. Simulator flying skills
b. The ability to land safely
c. Flying technique, emergency procedures and IFR
d. The ability to conform with set procedures
JAR Ops
20 Questions
1. Coverage of permanently illuminated white light’s at the rear of the aircraft is:
a. 1400
b. 700
c. 1100
d. 2200
2. A copy of the following is to be left on the ground?
a. The aeroplane noise certificate
b. The operations manual
c. Parts of the operations manual relevant to the flight
d. Operational flight plan
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3. Each flight is subject to a preliminary file collecting a certain amount of information. The
operator will see that this file is kept on ground. It particularly contains:
1. The weather conditions for the day including the weather forecast
at destination
2. One copy of the operational flight plan and, if required, the

weight and balnce sheet
3. Copies of the relevant aircraft’s technical log
4. The en-route NOTAM documentation when specifically issued by

the operator
5. Special loads notification
6. For each flight, details of the day’s performance and limitations

with complete charts
a. 1,3 &5
b. 2, 3, 4 & 5
c. 2, & 4
d. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, &6
4. The first part of the EU-OPS document relates to:
a. Aircraft proceeding from over flying European States
b. JAA state operators flying civil commercial air transport aeroplanes
c. Aeroplanes in the police/defence
d. Treatment of passengers with pathological respiratory disorders
5. The first part of JAR-OPS is applicable to:
a. Civil Air transport
b. International Commercial Air Transport of JAA state members
c. Military & Police Transport
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d. Any operations overflying JAA states
6. After an accident, the operator of an aeroplane equipped with a flight recorders must
keep the original recordings for a minimum period of:
a. 30 days
b. 90 days
c. 45 days
d. 60 days
7. On an ILS, you are told that the weather has dropped below company minima. When
must you abort the approach?
a. Start of the glide-slope descent
b. FAF
c. Inner Marker
d. Outer Marker
8. The MEL is drawn up by the:
a. Operator and may be more restrictive than the MMEL
b. Operator and may be less restrictive than the MMEL
c. Manufacturer and may be more restrictive than the MMEL
d. Manufacturer and may be less restrictive than the MMEL
9. Where is permanent approval for the3 carriage of dangerous goods given?
a. Certificate of Airworthiness
b. Aircraft registration
c. Air Operator’s Certificate
d. Insurance Certificate
10. A copy of what info is to be left on the ground?
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a. Passenger manifests, notification of special passengers
b. Route specific maps and charts
c. NOTAMs, Tech log, Op flight plan, Mass & Balance, Spec load notification
d. AICs, AISs, and all company NOTAMs
11. The EU-OPS document is based on:
a. Federal Aviation Requirements (FAR)
b. A JAA guideline
c. Rules of the Air
d. ICAO Annex 6
12. What manuals are to be carried on board the aircraft?
a. Operations Manual in toto
b. Company instructions for all flight crew
c. All those specified in the Certificate of Airworthiness
d. Relevant parts of the ops manual and AFM
13. After an incident, the FDR recordings must be kept for:
a. 30 days
b. 60 days
c. 90 days
d. 120 days
14. What is required for navigation in IMC?
a. Radio equipment and equipment for guidance until the visual point
b. Anti-icing equipment
c. A serviceable weather radar
d. One VHF box and one HF box
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15. A copy of which of the following documents must be kept on the ground by an operator
for the duration of each flight?
a. The journey log
b. The ATC (Air Traffic Control) flight plan
c. The operational flight plan
d. The meteorological forecast
16. An aeroplane flying at 39,000ft would be required to provide oxygen dispensing units in
the passenger cabin for:
a. The total number of passengers +10%
b. The total number of passengers
c. The total number of seats
d. The total number of seats + at least 10% additional units
17. During a flight, the captain is informed that a passenger is using a portable electronic
device, which is adversely affecting the aircraft’s electrical avionics. The captain must:
a. Stop the passenger from using the device
b. Allow the device to be used at take-off and landing
c. Allow the device to be used from take-off and landing
d. Allow the device to be used for certain exceptions
18. What is the system minimum for an NDB approach?
a. 200ft
b. 250ft
c. 300ft
d. 350ft
19. On an NDB approach with an MDH of 360’ and a required RVR is 1500m and a reported
RVR of 2500m, when can you start an approach; ie which is most correct?
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a. When the cloud base is above the system minimum
b. With any cloud base
c. When the cloud base is above 360’
d. When the cloud base report is received
20. An aeroplane door would be rendered inoperative for the following unserviceabilities:
1. External opening mechanism
2. Internal opening mechanism
3. The emergency lighting
4. Doors hold open device
5. The door open assist device
a. All of the above
b. 1.2.5.
c. 2.3.4.
d. 1.2.3.4.
All Weather Operations
25 Questions
1. The information to be considered for a non-precision approach is:
1. Horizontal visibility
2. Ceiling
3. Minimum Descent Altitude
4. Decision Altitude
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a. 1,2 & 4
b. 1 &3
c. 1&4
d. 1, 2&3
2. What is the minimum horizontal visibility for a Cat D aircraft on a circling approach?
a. 1500m
b. 1600m
c. 2400m
d. 3600m
3. EU-OPS 1.465 (VFR Operating minima), establishes that, the operator shall ensure about
VFR flights that:
a. For conducted VFR flights in airspace F, vertical distance from clouds is 250m at
least
b. Special VFR flights are not commenced when visibility is less than 3km
c. For conducted VFFR flights in airspace B, horizontal distance from clouds is

1000m at least
d. For conducted VFR flights in airspace E, flight visibility at and above 3050m
(10000ft) is 5km at least (clear of cloud)
4. Aircraft are categorized according to their threshold speeds, multiplied by a factor.

What aircraft category corresponds to a range of speeds 141 kts – 165 kts?
a. B
b. E
c. D
d. C
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5. A category A aircraft can carry out an indirect (circling) approach followed by a visual
manoeuvre only if the horizontal visibility is higher than or equal to:
a. 1600m
b. 2400m
c. 1500m
d. 3600m
6. What is the Cat IIIA RVR minimum?
a. 50m
b. 100m
c. 200m
d. 250m
7. An aeroplane is starting a non-precision approach with an MDH of 250’ and minimum

visibility of 800 metres. ATC gives threshold, mid-runway and final third RVRs. When
may the approach be stated?
a. When threshold and mid-runway RVRs are greater than 800m
b. When all 3 RVRs are greater than 800m
c. When the met viz is greater than 800m. RVR is for prevision approaches only.
d. When threshold RVR is greater than 800m
8. What is the minimum required RVR for CAT IIIB operations?
a. 100m
b. 75m
c. 150m
d. 200m
9. When is MDH referenced to the threshold as opposed to the aerodrome elevation?
a. The threshold is more than 2m above the ARP.
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b. The threshold is less than 2m above the ARP.
c. The threshold is less than 2m below the ARP.
d. The threshold is more than 2m below the ARP.
10. The considerations for a non-precision approach are:
1. MDA (H)
2. DH
3. Ceiling
4. Horizontal visibility
a. 2, 3 & 4
b. 1, 3 & 4
c. 1 & 3
d. 2 & 4
11. A category II precision approach (CATII) is an approach with:
a. A decision height of at least 100ft
b. No decision height
c. A decision height of at least 200ft
d. A decision height of at least 50ft
12. When establishing an instrument approach procedure, 5 aircraft categories according to

their speed at the threshold (Vat) are established. This speed is equal to the stalling
speed in the landing configuration multiplied by a factor of:
a. 1.5
b. 1.45
c. 1.15
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d. 1.3
13. What is DH used for?
a. Visual manoeuvring
b. Circling to land
c. Precision approaches
d. Non-precision approaches
14. What are the circling minimum visibility and MDH for a Cat B aeroplane?
a. 1600m, 400ft
b. 1600m, 500ft
c. 1500m, 450ft
d. 1500m, 600ft
15. A category I precision approach (CAT I) is an approach which may be carried out with a
runway visual range of at least:
a. 550m
b. 350m
c. 800m
d. 500m
16. What is the take-off RVR limit for a Cat A aeroplane, when high intensity centerline
lights and edge lights are on and the crew is IFR qualified and approved?
a. 150m if threshold RVR is available
b. 150m
c. 200m
d. 250m
17. The minimum visibility for a Cat C aeroplane on a circling approach is:
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a. 2400m
b. 2500m
c. 2600m
d. 2700m
18. According to JAR-OPS 1.430 (Aerodrome Operating Minima) a Category IIIA approach
has a Decision Height of less than 100 feet and a minimum RVR (Runway Visual Range)
of:
a. 200m
b. 250m
c. 300m
d. 230m
19. According to EU-OPS 1.430, Airfield Operating Minima, the lowest MDH using ILS (LLZ
only), VOR, NDB, SRA no glide path?
a. NDB-MDH 300ft
b. VOR-MDH 250ft
c. ILS (LLZ only) -MDH 200ft
d. VOR/DME-MDH 300ft
20. When can special VFR be commenced?
a. Visibility greater than 1500m
b. Greater than 3km vis
c. Visibility no more than 3000m
d. Greater than 5km vis
21. What is the minimum RVR for a CAT IIIC approach?
a. No minimum
b. 50m
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c. 75m
d. 100m
22. The Cat I minimum decision height is:
a. No decision height
b. 50 feet
c. 100 feet
d. 200 feet
23. What is the minimum visibility for a CAT A aircraft during a circling approach?
a. 1500m
b. 1600m
c. 2400m
d. 3600m
24. What are the threshold speeds for a Cat D aeroplane?
a. 121 – 140 kts
b. 131 – 155 kts
c. 141 – 165 kts
d. 145 – 160 kts
25. What is VAT?
a. VSO x 1.3
b. VSIG x 1.3
c. The lesser of VSO or VSIG
d. VSO x 1.23
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Instruments & Equipment
1 Question
1. What is the minimum capacity of life rafts that must be provided for passengers in the
event of the aeroplane ditching?
a. Enough for 10%
b. Enough for 10%
c. To cover the loss of 2 life rafts
d. To cover the loss of a life raft of the greatest capacity
Comms & Nav Equipment
2 Questions
1. A VFR flight in controlled airspace needs:
a. Navigation equipment in accordance with VFR requirements
b. Navigation equipment in accordance with VFR requirements plus attitude

indicator and precise barometric indications
c. Navigation equipment in accordance with IFR requirements
d. More restrictive anti-icing systems
2. A VFR aircraft used for flight in controlled airspace should have:
a. Bearing indicator, accurate barometric altimeter
b. Equipment necessary for VFR flight
c. Once VOR, ADF, DME and ILS
d. 2 radios and an SSR transponder
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Nav & Instrument Nav Requirements
32 Questions
1. On a polar stereographic chart, the grid is aligned on the 180 0 meridian. At 800S 1000E,
with a grid heading of 2800, what is the true heading?
a. 0000
b. 0800
c. 1800
d. 2600
2. The chart being used is a polar stereographic chart and grid north is aligned with the
Greenwich Meridian. The gyro is aligned with grid north, heading 120 0, at 1400UTC at
latitude 600N. Take-off is delayed until 1630UTC, gyro not corrected for rate precession.
Error at time of take-off will be:
a. +130
b. -32.50
c. +73.50
d. +32.50
3. An aeroplane is at 600N 0100E and is to fly to 60N 0200E. The flight time is 1 ½ hours in
still air. The gyro is set with the reference to true north and not corrected in flight for
precession. What is the required initial heading if a constant gyro heading is to be
maintained?
a. 0800
b. 0760
c. 0660
d. 0860
4. Astronomical (earth rate) precession is:
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a. Independent of latitude
b. Dependent on chart being used
c. Zero on the ground
d. Valid whether the aircraft is on the ground or in the air
5. On a polar stereographic chart with grid aligned with the prime meridian; you are
heading 0450T; your position is 760N 1800W, what is your grid heading?
a. 0450
b. 2250
c. 3150
d. 1350
6. At the planning stage for a Class B performance aircraft, what minimum climb gradient
do you use?
a. 300ft min climb speed with one engine out
b. 500ft min climb speed with one engine out
c. 300ft min climb speed with all engines operating
d. 500ft min climb speed with all engines operating
7. What is the definition of a minimum time route?
a. Closest diversion on route
b. Shortest distance between two points of a route
c. Shortest time between destination and departure adhering to ATC restrictions
d. Route using the least amount of fuel
8. In the Southern Hemisphere (1300E, 800S), grid is aligned with the Greenwich Meridian,
aircraft is heading 1100T, what is the grid heading?
a. 2400
b. 1100
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c. 3400
d. 0800
9. In the absence of wind and without the astronomic precession effect, an aircraft would,
on a constant gyro heading, follow a:
a. Great circle line
b. Rhumb line
c. Straight map line
d. Spherical flight segment
10. How do you calculate Conversion Angle?
a. ½ Ch long x sin lat
b. Ch long x sin lat
c. ½ Ch long x cos lat
d. Ch long x cos lat
11. When flying ‘gyro’ on a transoceanic or polar flight near the North Pole, what is the
precession due to?
a. True North
b. Grid North
c. Magnetic North
d. Compass North
12. You are at 600S 1000E, using a polar stereographic chart with the grid based on the 180 0
meridian. Grid north is in the direction of geographic north. If you are heading 258 0G,
what is your true heading?
a. 1580
b. 1780
c. 3380
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d. 3580
13. You are at a latitude of 590 57’N with a heading of 1200 showing on a gyro compass. You
experience a delay of 2hrs 30 mins; what is the effect on your compass?
a. -18.50
b. 18.50
c. -32.50
d. 32.50
14. What is the angle of the red navigation light?
a. 90deg
b. 110deg
c. 140deg
d. 70deg
15. On a polar stereographic chart, with a grid referenced on the Greenwich meridian and
convergency of 100W, true heading of 3000, what is grid heading?
a. 2900
b. 0100
c. 3000
d. 3100
16. On a polar stereographic chart with a grid based on the Greenwich meridian, a track is
drawn from 620N 0100E to 660N 0500W. If the initial True track was 3050, what was the
initial grid track?
a. 3150
b. 3050
c. 2950
d. 2850
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17. If you are flying IFR to a destination with no alternative, when must weather be good for
you to continue?
a. 3 hours before to 3 hours after ETA
b. 3 hours before to 1 hours after ETA
c. 2 hours before to 2 hours after ETA
d. 1 hour before to 1 hour after ETA
18. What is the bearing of sun from an aeroplane at the North Pole using a grid track of 315 0
at 1840Z?
a. 0350
b. 3250
c. 1800
d. 0000
19. At a high ambient temperature (+300C) and with a relative humidity as low as 40%,in air
free of cloud, fog and precipitation, serious carburetor icing:
a. Is possible at any setting
b. Can occur, but only at a low power setting
c. Cannot occur
d. Can occur, but only at full power or cruise settings
20. What is conversion angle?
a. Ch long x sin lat
b. Ch long x ½ cos lat
c. Ch long x ½ sin lat
d. Ch long x cos lat
21. When the weather conditions require an alternate aerodrome to be available on take-
off, the latter shall be located, for a twin-engined aircraft, at an equivalent distance not
exceeding:
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a. 2 hours of flight at cruising speed with two engines
b. 2 hours of flight at cruising speed with single engine
c. 1 hour of flight at cruising speed with two engines
d. 1 hour of flight at cruising speed with single engine
22. If the grid datum is 0540W, position 80N 140E and true heading of 3300, what is the grid
heading?
a. 3160
b. 2760
c. 1640
d. 1360
23. For turbo-propeller aircraft, in the flight preparation stage, the landing distance at an
alternate aerodrome shall be less than the available landing distance multiplied by a
factor of:
a. 0.8
b. 0.6
c. 0.5
d. 0.7
24. When flying above optimum altitude:
a. Range reduces
b. Mach number stability increases
c. Flight envelope increases
d. Range increases
25. Earth rate or astronomic precession:
a. Causes the gyro axis to spin to the right in the Northern Hemisphere
b. Is zero at the South Pole
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c. Causes the gyro axis to spin to the left in the Northern Hemisphere
d. Is zero at the North Pole
26. For optimum performance for an aeroplane, step cruise climb is performed. What is the
best level to climb to?
a. Between “lock on” and “optimum” levels
b. Round “lock on” level
c. Around “optimum” level
d. Below “lock on” level
27. How far from an en route alternate airfield can a 2-engined aeroplane with more than
20 seats and a MTOM of 8600kg be flown?
a. 120 minutes flying time
b. 90 minutes flying time
c. 60 minutes flying time
d. 60 minutes at the one engine out speed
28. Which equation related to transport wander in polar and trans-oceanic areas? (Where
gm=ch long, Lm=mean lat, Lo=tangent of mean lat)
a. Gm x sin Lm
b. 15x sin Lm
c. Gm x 2(Lo-Lm)
d. 15 x 2(Lo-Lm)
29. The operator may not operate aircraft that do not conform to the ditching requirements
over water further away from a suitable landing field than:
a. 100nm or 30min at cruise speed
b. 200nm or 45min at cruise speed
c. 300nm or 90min at cruise speed
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d. 400nm or 120min at cruise speed
30. At 600N 0300W, the true heading is 0900 and the Gyro is 0000. At 620N 0100W, the True
heading is 0950 and it has taken 1.5hours to travel the distance. What will the Gyro read
assuming no Latitude Nut correction?
a. 3340
b. 3280
c. 3450
d. 0030
31. Desired track is 1000, actual track is 1200. Which statement is correct?
a. Track error angle is right
b. Track error angle is right
c. Converging with desired track
d. Diverging from desired track
32. During a night flight, an observer on the flight deck first sees an aircraft coming in from
the front right. The light observed would be a:
a. Steady green light
b. Steady white light
c. Flashing green light
d. Steady red light
NAT & MNPSA
41 Questions
1. In MNPS, FL370, you need to change your clearance but have no communications with
ATO. You turn left or right and get 30nm separation, do you:
a. Climb or descend 500ft
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b. Climb 1000ft or descend 500ft
c. Climb or descend 1000ft
d. Climb 500ft or descend 1000ft
2. A flight to Europe is expected to be at 0300W at 0030UTC. Where will you be?
a. Inside the daytime organized track system
b. Random airspace
c. Outside the organized track system
d. Inside the night time organized track system
3. The validity time for an Eastbound OTS is:
a. 1030 UTC to 1900 UTC
b. 1130 UTC to 1900 UTC
c. 0100 UTC to 0800 UTC
d. 0000 UTC to 0800 UTC
4. What Mach number do you maintain when leaving MNPS?
a. Flight plan mach number
b. Mach number complying with local regulations
c. Last cleared Mach number from MNPS
d. You revert to flight plan TAS
5. When in MNPS and the final LRNS fails, the pilot should:
a. Climb/descend 100ft
b. Contact ATC and await a reply within a reasonable period of time
c. Ask ATC for permission to follow another aeroplane
d. Turn left
6.
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Special Operating Procedures
165 Questions
1. The time limit for fuel jettison to reduce from MTOM to an Approach/Climb limiting
mass is:
a. 15 minutes
b. 30 minutes
c. 10 minutes
d. 20 minutes
2. What happens to the EPR if the probe is blocked by ice?
a. Overreads
b. Underreads
c. Depends on temperature
d. Nothing
3. What is the most important factor to be taken into account concerning dynamic
hydroplaning?
a. Weight of the aeroplane
b. Lift off speed
c. Depth of the water
d. Configuration of the aeroplane
4. When does the anti-icing holdover time begin on a 2 step procedure?
a. From the start of the anti-icing procedure
b. From the end of the anti-icing procedure
c. When all icing deposits have been removed from the airframe
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d. From the start of the de-icing procedure
5. A horizontal tailwind gust may cause an aeroplane to:
a. Climb
b. Climb or descend depending on gust strength
c. Descend
d. Have no effect on the flight path
6. What do you do in a microburst?
1. Apply engine power
2. Retract speed brakes
3. Retract flaps and gear
4. Retract all drag devices
5. Pitch up to stick shaker
a. 1, 3, 5
b. 1, 4, 5
c. 1, 2, 5
d. 2, 3, 5
7. In a situation where there is dense smoke in the cabin:
a. It is recommended to use O2 only above 10,000ft in this case
b. It is useless to use passenger O2 because it will explode
c. It is recommended to use O2 and is sensible
d. It is useless to use passenger O2 masks because they mix o2 with the cabin air
8. What is the major factor causing wake turbulence?
1. Wing Tip Vortices
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2. Engines
3. High Lift Devices
4. Size of the landing gear
a. 1
b. 2 &3
c. 1&4
d. 3
9. What would you expect to encounter in a microburst?
a. Rain
b. Hail
c. Windshear
d. Thunder and lightning
10. Where the maximum approved seating capacity of passengers is greater than 31 but less
than 60, how many Halon fire extinguishers are required?
a. At least one
b. At least two
c. At least three
d. None
11. Who is responsible for establishing and distributing amendments to noise abatement
procedures?
a. The country where the aeroplane is operated
b. The country where the aeroplane is registered
c. The country of the aeroplane of the aerodrome
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d. The operator of the aerodrome
12. According to DOC 4444 (ICAO), a wake turbulence radar separation minima of 9.3Km
(5.0 NM) shall be applied when a:
a. LIGHT aircraft is crossing behind a MEDIUM aircraft, at the same altitude or

less than 300m (1000ft).
b. LIGHT aircraft is crossing behind a HEAVY aircraft, at the same altitude or less
than 300m (1000ft).
c. MEDIUM aircraft is crossing behind a MEDIUM aircraft, at the same altitude or

less than 300m (1000ft).
d. MEDIUM aircraft is crossing behind a HEAVY aircraft, at the same altitude or less
than 300m (1000ft).
13. Information about evacuation can be found in the:
a. Journey Logbook
b. Operations Manual
c. Operational Flight Plan
d. Flight Manual
14. What is the time of useful consciousness after a rapid decompression at 40,000ft?
a. 12 seconds
b. 30 seconds
c. 10 seconds
d. 3 minutes
15. Anti-icing hold-over times are affected by:
1. Ambient temperature
2. Temperature of the skin
3. Type and intensity of precipitation
4. Relative humidity
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5. Windspeed and direction
a. 1, 3 & 5
b. 1, 2, 3 & 5
c. 2, 3 & 4
d. All of the above
16. The time needed for the dissipation of a turbulent wake created by a wide-body aircraft
during take-off is about:
a. 10 minutes
b. 3 minutes
c. 30 seconds
d. 1 minute
17. An aeroplane with a tyre pressure of 10 Bar is in danger of dynamic hydroplaning if:
1. The aeroplane speed is in excess of 107 kts
2. The water depth is equal to the tyre tread depth
3. The aeroplane speed is in excess of 95 kts
4. The water depth is equal to half the tyre tread depth
a. 1 & 2
b. 1 & 4
c. 2 & 3
d. 3 & 4
18. Who is responsible for ensuring that the regulatory procedures for the transportation of
dangerous goods is complied with?
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a. Captain
b. Sender
c. Station Manager
d. Aerodrome Manager
19. First Aid (therapeutic) oxygen is carried for which of the following:
a. All crew and passengers in the event of an unexpected rapid depressurization
b. The crew in the event of noxious fumes entering the flight deck
c. 30% of passengers between 10,000ft and 13,000ft
d. Any passengers who require it for pathological respiratory disorders
20. A Class C fire is:
a. Materials
b. Flammable Liquids
c. Combustible Materials
d. Electrical
21. Oxygen should be used after rapid decompression in an emergency descent until what
altitude?
a. 10,000 ft
b. 15,000 ft
c. 13,000 ft
d. 14,000 ft
22. The terminal VOR transmits the following weather data. When would you expect
carburetor icing to occur?
a. Outside Air Temperature (OAT): -100C, Dew Point (DEWP): -150C
b. Outside Air Temperature (OAT): +250C, Dew Point (DEWP): +50C
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c. Outside Air Temperature (OAT): +100C, Dew Point (DEWP): +70C
d. Outside Air Temperature (OAT): +150C, Dew Point (DEWP): -50C
23. A slow decompression may be caused by:
1. A slight air leak from an overwing exit
2. A malfunction of the pressurization
3. The loss of a window
4. The loss of a door
The combination regrouping all the correct statements is
a. 1, 2 & 3
b. 1 & 2
c. 3 & 4
d. 1, 2, 3 & 4
24. Regarding the carriage of dangerous goods, the transport document, if required, is
drawn up by:
a. The operator
b. The captain
c. The handling agent
d. The shipper
25. According to EU-OPS, the time for emergency evacuation where the seating capacity is
more than 44 is?
a. 2 mins with 50% of the exits unavailable
b. 90 secs with 50% of the exits unavailable
c. 90 mins with 50% of the exits unavailable
d. 90 secs with all the exits available in a real emergency
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26. Which fires can a water fire extinguisher be used on?
1. Wood
2. Plastic
3. Electric
4. Furnishings
a. 1, 2, 3 & 4
b. 2, 3 & 4
c. 1, 3 & 4
d. 1, 2 & 4
27. What fires can a water fire extinguisher be used on?
a. Class A
b. Plastic
c. Chemical
d. Class B
28. If there is a fire in the cargo compartment in the lower half of the fuselage, what is your
action?
a. Turn off the ventilation
b. Turn off all the air conditioning
c. Reduce the airflow
d. Turn off the pressurization
29. When would you not have to turn on a noise abatement procedure?
a. Below 1000ft
b. When changing radio frequencies
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c. When reducing power
d. When raising flap
30. Which statement is correct concerning noise abatement?
a. There is no prohibition on the use of thrust reverse
b. Reverse thrust is not permitted at any time
c. At night, thrust reverse is not permitted
d. Thrust reverse may be permitted, but only at idle power
31. In the EU-OPS, a runway is considered damp when:
a. It is covered with a film of water of less than 3 mm
b. It is covered with a film of water of less than 1 mm
c. Surface moisture gives it a shiny appearance
d. Its surface is not dry, and when surface moisture does not give it a shiny
appearance
32. What is the best way of clearing birds from an airfield using modern methods?
a. Model predators
b. Shell crackers
c. Flashing lights
d. Recorded distress calls
33. What class of fire would require use of a H20 extinguisher
a. CLASS A
b. CLASS B
c. CLASS C
d. CLASS E
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34. If no other figure is published, by what factor must the landing distance on a wet
runway be corrected by?
a. 5 %
b. 10 %
c. 15 %
d. 20 %
35. In case you have to assume the emergency brace position, do you:
1. Legs together, feet flat on the floor
2. Arms on arm rests
3. Head on forearms
4. Head on seat in front
5. Seat belt tight round waist
a. All of the above
b. 1, 2, 3 & 4
c. 1,3,4 & 5
d. 1,2, 3 & 5
36. What effect does snow and ice contamination have on aircraft performance?
1. Increase take-off run
2. Decrease take-off run
3. Increase stall speed
4. Decrease stall speed
5. Reduce climb gradient
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a. 2,4 &5
b. 1, 3 & 5
c. 2,3 & 5
d. 1,2, & 3
37. On the approach you experience an increasing tailwind. What happens to the aircraft:
1. Descends below the glide path
2. Climbs above the glide path
3. TAS increases
4. TAS decreases
a. 1 and 4
b. 1 and 3
c. 2 and 4
d. 2 and 3
38. What action should you take after an emergency landing requiring emergency
evacuation?
1. Remain on runway
2. Take first taxiway exit off runway
3. Shut off all systems
4. Keep one engine or APU on to supply electrical equipment
a. 1 & 4
b. 2 & 3
c. 1 & 3
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d. 2 & 4
39. How is braking efficiency presented?
a. Decimal followed by two significant figures
b. Sequentially from A to E
c. Poor, medium, good
d. As a function of the length of the runway
40. Oxygen should be supplied for all crew members and some passengers above which
altitude?
a. 10,000’
b. 12,000’
c. 13,000’
d. 11,000’
41. After landing heavy and fast, an engineer should approach the landing gear from:
a. The sides
b. The front or rear
c. Neither
d. Only when the gear has cooled down
42. Wind shear is:
a. A horizontal wind velocity variation over a short distance
b. A vertical or horizontal wind velocity and/or a change in wind direction over a

short distance
c. A vertical or horizontal wind velocity and/or a change in wind direction over a

large distance
d. A vertical wind velocity variation over a short distance
43. Which language must dangerous goods be labeled in?
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a. English
b. French
c. Spanish
d. English, French or Spanish
44. With a heavy aircraft then a medium landing on the same runway, what are the
minimum distance and time criteria?
a. 5nm and 2 mins
b. 5nm and 3 mins
c. 4nm and 2 mins
d. 6nm and 3 mins
45. If you have an aeroplane with 201 seats, how many crowbars/fire axes have to be on
the aeroplane?
a. 1
b. 4
c. 2
d. 3
46. From the following list:
1. Fuel jettisoning system and its operation are free from fire hazard
2. The furl discharges clear of any part of the aeroplane
3. Fuel fumes do not enter any part of the aeroplane
4. The jettisoning operation does not adversely affect the

controllability of the aeroplane
Which of the above are requirements that must be shown to exist

during fuel jettisoning tests:
a. 1, 3 &4
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b. 1,2, 3 & 4
c. 1 & 4
d. 2, & 3
47. What would be most likely to attract birds near an airfield?
a. Mowed grass kept long
b. Modern sewerage plant
c. Mineral extraction
d. A refuse tip
48. Following an electrical failure, the emergency lighting unit must provide illumination for:
a. 90 secs
b. 5 mins
c. 10 mins
d. 30 mins
49. In accordance with ICAO and PANS RAC procedures, which letter should be entered into
a flight plan to denote an aeroplane which has a weight of less than 136000kg but
greater than 7000kg:
a. H
b. M
c. S
d. L
50. Following an explosive decompression, the maximum altitude without oxygen at which
flying efficiency is not impaired is:
a. 14,000 ft
b. 8,000ft
c. 25,000ft
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d. 2,500ft
51. Which statements is most correct with regard to the use of fire extinguishers?
a. CO2 is best used in a cargo aeroplane on cargo fires
b. Water is best used on small fires
c. Halon is best used on fires within the passenger compartment
d. Dry powder is best used on cockpit fires
52. On the approach you experience an increasing headwind. What happens to the aircraft:
1. Descends below the glide path
2. Climbs above the glide path
3. TAS increases
4. TAS decreases
a. 1 and 4
b. 1 and 3
c. 2 and 4
d. 2 and 3
53. On the approach you hit wind shear and have to go around; do you:
a. Do nothing to your gear and flaps
b. Take gear and flap in
c. Pitch up to the stick shaker
d. Avoid excessive attitude manoeuvres
54. In windshear associated with a microburst, you experience a 40kts headwind. Coming
out of the microburst, you will experience a windshear of:
a. -20kts
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b. -40kts
c. -60kts
d. -80kts
55. What is the weight range for medium category aircraft?
a. 5,700kg to 100,000kg
b. 7,000kg to 125,000kg
c. 5,700kg to 136,000kg
d. 7,000kg to 136,000kg
56. In case of a ditching, the cabin attendants will:
1. Evacuate woman and children first
2. Have the passengers embark directly into the liferafts
3. Prevent passenger movements which may impede the airplane’s

flotation ability
4. Ensure the complete evacuation of the airplane
a. 2 & 3
b. 1,2, 3 & 4
c. 1 & 4
d. 2, 3 & 4
57. What is a dry powder extinguisher used for?
a. Brakes
b. Hydrocarbons
c. Plastics
d. Paper
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58. 4mm of rain is covering a runway. It is:
a. Flooded
b. Wet
c. Damp
d. Contaminated
59. In what minimum time must sufficient fuel be jettisoned in order to comply with
approach/climb gradient specifications?
a. 90 minutes
b. 60 minutes
c. 30 minutes
d. 15 minutes
60. You are a heavy aeroplane behind a heavy aeroplane on the approach. What is the
required separation:
a. 7.4km, 4nm
b. 3.6km, 2nm
c. 5.5km, 3nm
d. 9.2km, 5nm
61. What are Class 6 dangerous goods?
a. Explosives
b. Toxic
c. Radioactive
d. Flammable liquids
62. For a light aircraft following a medium what is the minimum time for wake turbulence
separation (assuming take-off from the same point)?
a. 3 min
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b. 2 min
c. 1 min
d. 5min
63. Braking action is described as 0.25 or below. Is it good/medium/poor?
a. Poor
b. Medium to poor
c. Medium
d. Just blood awful!
64. The engine fire warning system on a multi-engine aircraft consists of:
a. One warning light, individual bells
b. Individual warning light, common bells
c. Individual warning light, individual bells
d. One warning light, one bell
65. An aeroplane with one passenger deck, is configured with 61 seats. The required
number of megaphones on board is:
a. 0
b. 1
c. 2
d. 2 if the seating capacity with one passenger deck is 31
66. What is the best way for crews to be warned of bird activity?
1. ATIS
2. BIRDTAMs
3. Weather radar
4. Other crews
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5. NOTAMs
a. All of the above
b. 1, 2 & 5
c. 3, 4 & 5
d. 1, 4 & 5
67. Halon type fire extinguisher are usable on:
1. Class A fires
2. Class B fires
3. Electrical fires
4. Special fires – metal, chemical
a. 2, 3 and 4
b. 1, 2 and 4
c. 1, 3 and 4
d. 1, 2and 3
68. What are the characteristics of windshear?
a. It occurs at any altitude in the horizontal and vertical plane
b. It can occur at any altitude only in the horizontal plane
c. It occurs only below 2000’ and never in the horizontal plane
d. It occurs below 2000’ and never in the vertical plane
69. Noise abatement for landing:
a. Precludes the use of thrust reverse
b. Should not preclude the use of thrust reverse
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c. Stop use of thrust reverse before the threshold
d. Precludes the use of thrust reversers at night only
70. When is 3 minutes separation applied?
a. A light aeroplane departing after a heavy aeroplane from the same position
b. A medium aeroplane departing after a heavy aeroplane has made a missed

approach in the opposite direction
c. A light aeroplane landing following a medium aeroplane
d. A medium aeroplane landing following a heavy aeroplane
71. ICAO (International Civil Aviation Organization) Appendix 18 is a document with the:
a. Safety of the air transport of hazardous materials
b. Technical operational use of aircraft
c. Air transport of live animals
d. Noise pollution of aircraft
72. The use of passenger oxygen in the case of severe smoke I the cabin is:
a. Useless because the oxygen units do not operate under smoke conditions
b. Useless because breathing oxygen would explode under smoke conditions
c. Possible and recommended
d. Useless because the toxic cabin smoke is mixed with the breathing oxygen
73. A fire occurs in a wheel and immediate action is required to extinguish it. The safest
extinguisher to use is:
a. CO2 (carbon dioxide)
b. Foam
c. Dry powder
d. Water
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74. In a mountainous region you encounter windshear and see an increase in airspeed. You:
a. Reduce power to stay on the glidepath
b. Reduce power to 1.2VS and make a precision landing
c. Bring to level flight, allow speed to fall and intercept the glidepath from above
d. Allow speed to increase while staying on the glidepath and monitoring speed
75. How long is holdover time for Type II anti-icing fluids?
a. 24 hours
b. 3 hours
c. A certain time dependent on concentration
d. A certain time independent of skin temperature
76. Which statement is correct concerning turns on noise abatement procedures?
a. All turns must give at least 100m obstacle and terrain clearance
b. Turns of a bank angle of up to 200 are allowed maintaining VAT + 10-20kts
c. Turns of a bank angle of up to 280 are allowed maintaining VAT + 10-20kts
d. No turns should be coincident with a reduction in power
77. The greatest possible risk if ice build-up occurs when flying in icing conditions:
a. On the aircraft front surfaces
b. Only on pilot or static probes
c. On the rudder upper and lower surfaces
d. On the wing upper and lower surfaces
78. What is the transponder code to be used by an aircraft that is subject to unlawful
interference (hijacked)?
a. 7800
b. 7500
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c. 7700
79. When you encounter windshear, what input is needed by the pilot?
a. Small
b. Nil
c. Substantial
d. Moderate
80. Viscous hydroplaning is caused by:
a. A smooth & clear runway surface
b. A smooth and dirty runway surface
c. Bald tyres
d. A rough runway surface
81. The radar separation between a medium aeroplane followed by a light aeroplane on
departure is:
a. 4nm
b. 3nm
c. 5nm
d. 2nm
82. When planning a flight in icing conditions, what are the requirements?
a. Aircraft to be equipped with approved anti-icing equipment
b. Apply anti-icing fluid
c. A met officer will decide if the flight can take place
d. Take off anyway and hope for the best
83. When carrying hazardous dangerous air cargo on an aeroplane with passengers, what
must you have?
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a. A trained person accompanying the goods
b. Details on procedures if split during an emergency
c. A company representative
d. Transport documentation
84. In case of an engine jet pipe fire while on the ground you:
a. Pull the fire shut off handle and trigger the engine’s fire extinguishers
b. Carry out a dry motoring cycle
c. Fight the jet pipe fire with a water fire extinguisher
d. Carry out a wet motoring cycle
85. When does the fire handle warning light go out?
a. When all bottles to that engine are discharged
b. When fire detected as being out
c. When fire handle is pulled
d. When that fire bottle has been fired
86. What action is required in flight for a fire in an air conditioned cargo hold?
a. Put out the fire
b. Reduce the airflow and put out the fire
c. Turn off the ventilation and put out the fire
d. Don’t do anything because it is not permissible to have flammable or toxic

materials in modern aeroplane holds
87. In a SNOWTAM, if the cleared length of runway is less than the published length, what
and where would the information be displayed?
a. Box D with the cleared length expressed as a percentage
b. Box D with the cleared length in metres
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c. Box T explained in plain English
d. Box DC with the runway designator
88. On encountering windshear what do you do?
a. Apply take-off power and pull to the stick shaker
b. Apply small increase in power
c. Apply moderate power and pull to the stick shaker
d. Pull to the stick shaker
89. Why should you not use oxygen masks when the cabin is affected by smoke?
a. Because the oxygen would spontaneously combust
b. Because the mask allows the smoke to mix with the oxygen
c. Because the chemical oxygen generator does not work in smoky conditions
d. You should use the oxygen masks in smoky conditions
90. An aircraft has a bird-strike at take-off and is forced to land immediately due to
vibrations from the engine. Does the pilot:
a. Report an AIRPROX because ATC didn’t inform him of birds
b. File a bird strike report
c. Inform the RSPB
d. Check with the engineers if any damage has occurred
91. After a fast landing, hot brakes are suspected. What action should be taken?
a. Apply the parking brake and approach the aeroplane from the front to rear
b. Apply the parking brake and approach the aeroplane from the sides
c. Release the brakes and approach the aeroplane from the sides
d. Release the brakes and approach the aeroplane from the front or rear
92. The principle of operation of a fire loop detector is as the temperature increases, the:
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a. Resistance decreases
b. Reference current decreases
c. Pressure decreases
d. Pressure increases
93. Time for separation for wake turbulence for a light behind a medium
a. 3 min for landing
b. 3 min for departure
c. 2 min if departing from an intersection
d. 3 min if approaching in the opposite direction
94. If taking off in icing conditions, pilot-in-command must make sure:
a. Icing doesn’t affect performance within the constraints of the operations

manual
b. Icing doesn’t affect the mass and balance of the aeroplane
c. Icing on the airframe is not greater than 5nm
d. Anti-ice is still present on the airframe
95. Following an act of unlawful interference on board an aeroplane, the commander

should submit a report to:
a. The Authority of the state within which the aeroplane is operating at the time of
the unlawful interference
b. The Authority of the State of the Operator only
c. The local authority only
d. Both the local authority and the Authority of the State of the operator
96. In a microburst combined with a violent storm the winds at:
a. Low altitude diverge from the centre of the phenomenon and the atmospheric
pressure increases by a few hectopascals
59/79
b. Low altitude diverge from the centre of the phenomenon and the atmospheric
pressure decreases by a few hectopascals
c. Low altitude converge from the centre of the phenomenon and the
atmospheric pressure decreases by a few hectopascals
d. High altitude converge from the centre of the phenomenon and the
atmospheric pressure increases by a few hectopascals
97. Ice accretion depends on many factors including ambient temperature and type of
precipitation. Which of the following would give the longest holdover time?
a. Steady snow
b. Freezing fog
c. Rain on a cold soaked wing
d. Frost
98. Under a microburst, what happens?
a. Air is diverging and local pressure increases
b. Air rotates and local pressure decreases
c. Air is diverging and local pressure decreases
d. Air rotates and local pressure increases
99. After de-icing/anti-icing still in freezing conditions, how should you position the aircraft?
a. In propo and jet wash
b. In jet wash but not prop wash
c. In prop wash but not jet wash
d. In neither
100. After an overweight landing on a short runway, do you check:
a. Pressure of tyres
b. Pressure of hydraulic fluid
60/79
c. Temperature of hydraulic fluid
d. Temperature of brakes
101. Halon fire extinguishers cab be sued on:
1. Electrical
2. Material
3. Liquids
4. Metals
a. 1,2,3 &4
b. 2 &3
c. 1, 2 & 3
d. 1, 2 & 4
102. An aeroplane flying at 39,000 ft would be required to provide Oxygen dispensing

units in the passenger cabin for:
a. The total number of passengers plus 10%
b. The total number of passengers
c. The total number of seats
d. The total number of seats plus at least 10% additional units
103. How can the direction of wing tip vortices be described?
a. Both clockwise
b. Both counter clockwise
c. From above the wing to below the wing
d. From below the wing to below the wing
61/79
104. For aeroplanes having a maximum approved seating capacity between 61-200
passengers, the minimum required number of portable Halon fire extinguishers required
on the aeroplane is:
a. 3
b. 2
c. 1
d. 5
105. You see smoke coming from the air conditioning. Do you:
a. Don your oxygen mask
b. Turn all the air conditioning off
c. Investigate to find the source of the smoke
d. Do an emergency descent
106. What type of fire extinguisher do you use on a magnesium fire?
a. Water
b. Sand
c. Halon
d. Foam
107. Where is the best position following a heavier aeroplane?
a. Above its flight path and downwind
b. Below its flight path and downwind
c. Below its flight path and upwind
d. Upwind and above its flight path
108. How many fire extinguishers must be carried in the cabin for a seating
configuration of 300 passengers?
a. 4
62/79
b. 3
c. 5
d. 2
109. Which combination of statements describes a wet runway?
1. The surface has a shiny appearance
2. The runway surface has a darker appearance
3. The runway has 25% or less of the runway surface covered by

water less than 3mm deep
4. The runway has more than 25% of the runway surface covered by
water less than 3mm deep
a. 1 & 4
b. 2 & 4
c. 2 & 3
d. 1 & 3
110. A Class B fire is a fire of:
a. An electrical nature
b. Metal, gas or chemical product
c. Liquid or liquefiable solid
d. Solid material usually of organic nature
111. Wake turbulence should be taken into account when:
a. A much heavier aeroplane has landed just previously on the same runway, a
light crosswind exists and all high-lift devices are being used
b. When just before the landing a much lighter aeroplane has landed with a strong
crosswind on a long runway
63/79
c. During cruise the vertical separation is reduced to 1000ft
d. A preceding aeroplane has performed low altitude high roll rate rolling
manoeuvres over the runway
112. Where can you carry safety matches?
1. On your person
2. Hand baggage
3. Checked in luggage
a. 1 & 2
b. 1, 2 & 3
c. Not allowed
d. 1 & 3
113. For an oxygen diluter demand system, the regulator controls the amount of pure
oxygen mixed with air. Following explosive decompression with the regulator set to
“normal”, at what approximate altitude will undiluted oxygen be supplied?
a. 8000’
b. 24000’
c. 14000’
d. 32000’
114. When the pressurization system fails, the RCDI shows:
a. A climb
b. A descent
c. No change
d. Fluctuations
115. What is the first indication of windshear? A change in:
64/79
a. Pitch angle
b. Ground speed
c. Vertical speed
d. Indicated airspeed
116. An aeroplane with a seating capacity of 180 has a total of 47 passengers on

board. According to EU-OPS the required amount of First Aid Oxygen is:
a. Enough for 3 passengers for the duration of the flight following a

depressurization when the cabin altitude is between 10,000ft and 14,000ft
b. Sufficient for one passenger when the cabin altitude exceeds 8,000ft but does
not exceed 15,000ft for the remainder of the flight following a
depressurization
c. Sufficient for one passenger for the duration of the flight above 8,000 ft cabin
altitude
d. None required
117. Water fire extinguisher with a directed spray can be used on which fires?
a. Fabric fires
b. Liquid fires
c. Gas fires
d. Special fires
118. 90% of bird strikes happen at:
a. 500-1500m
b. 500-1000m
c. Over 1000ft
d. Under 500ft
119. Flying at FL390, before what cabin altitude must the Oxygen drop out masks be
automatically presented?
65/79
a. 12,000 ft
b. 13,000 ft
c. 14,000 ft
d. 15,000 ft
120. What is the evacuation time for an aeroplane with more than 44 seats?
a. 60 secs
b. 90 secs
c. 120 secs
d. 132 secs
121. For the purpose of wake turbulence separation, what is the ICAO minimum non-
radar separation time if a light aeroplane (7000kg or less) is following a medium
aeroplane (less than 136000kg but more than 7000kg) on the approach to landing?
a. 3 minutes
b. 2 minutes
c. 4 minutes
d. 5 minutes
122. If you have a fire in a toilet what fire extinguishers would you use?
a. All available liquids
b. Only toilet extinguishers
c. All available in sequence
d. All available simultaneously
123. Wake turbulence starts:
a. When selecting the drag devices and stops when retracting the drag devices
b. When the airplane reaches a height of 300ft above the ground and stops when
it crosses this height before landing
66/79
c. During rotation and stops as soon as the airplane’s wheels touch the ground
d. As soon as the aeroplane is commencing the take-off run and stops as soon as it
has come to a stop after landing
124. According to EU-OPS, which of the following are considered dangerous goods
that are required to be carried on board the aeroplane.
1. Portable fire extinguishers
2. Emergency oxygen supplies
3. Passenger food
4. First aid lots
5. Alcoholic beverage
The combination regrouping all the correct statements
a. 1, 2
b. 1,2, 4
c. 1, 3,4
d. 2,4,5
125. What would be evident during a rapid decompression?
1. Violent rush of gas from lungs
2. Expansion of body gases
3. Blast of air to the exterior
4. Mist in the cabin
The combination regrouping all the correct statements
a. All of the above
b. 1,2, 4
c. 2, 3,4
67/79
d. 1,2,3
126. What is the definition of a wet runway?
a. 25% contamination of the runway with water depth less than 3mm
b. More than 25% coverage of water greater than 3 mm deep
c. Water standing on a runway without grooves or a porous pavement
d. Water standing on a runway with water depth less than 3mm appearing non-
reflective
127. During an aircraft de-icing/anti-icing procedure the:
a. De-icing fluid is applied without heating and the anti-icing fluid is applied hot
b. Anti-icing and de-icing fluids are applied cold
c. Anti-icing fluid is applied without heating and the de-icing fluid is applied hot
d. Anti-icing and de-icing fluids are applied hot
128. An aircraft having undergone an anti-icing procedure and having exceeded the
protection time of the anti-icing fluid:
a. Must only undergo a de-icing procedure for take-off
b. Need not to undergo a new anti-icing procedure for take-off
c. Must undergo a de-icing procedure before a new application of anti-icing fluid

for take-off
d. Must only undergo a new anti-icing procedure for take-off
129. In a pressurization malfunction:
1. Noise increases
2. Change in RCDI
3. Pressure differential decreases
a. 1 &2
68/79
b. 2 &3
c. 1 &3
d. 1,2 &3
130. When you have been unlawfully interfered with, the state in which you land is
required to inform certain people:
1. State of the Operator
2. ICAO
3. State of registration of aircraft
4. JAA
a. All of the above
b. 1 & 2
c. 1, 2 & 3
d. 2 & 4
131. After take-off the pilot of a commercial aeroplane notices a flock of birds which
could pose a bird-strike risk. Does the pilot:
a. Contact the ground station immediately
b. Inform other aircraft by radio
c. Inform the appropriate persons in a reasonable time
d. Ignore the problem and hope someone else will make a report
132. Noise attenuation shall not be the determining factor in the designation of a
runway, under the following circumstances:
1. When the crosswind component, including gust, exceeds 15 knots
2. When the tail wind component, including gust, exceeds 5 knots
3. When the runway is not clear and dry
69/79
a. 1, 2 & 3
b. 1 & 2
c. 1 & 3
d. 2 & 3
133. For a flight deck fire which of the following do you use?
1. BCF
2. Halon
3. Dry Powder
4. Water
a. 1, 2, 3 & 4
b. 1 & 2
c. 3 & 4
d. 1, 2 & 3
134. An aircraft with a tyre pressure of 14 Bar will be subject to hydroplaning when:
1. The water depth is equal to the tyre tread depth
2. The speed is greater than 128kts
3. The water depth is equal to half the tyre tread depth
4. The speed is greater than 95kts
a. 1 & 2
b. 2 & 3
c. 1 & 4
70/79
d. 3 & 4
135. Who checks that any dangerous cargo offered for shipping is legal?
a. The pilot-in-command
b. The operator
c. The shipper
d. No one specified
136. An aeroplane suffers an explosive decompression at an altitude of 31000ft. what

is the initial action by the operating crew?
a. Transmit a MAYBAY message
b. To put on oxygen masks
c. Disconnect the autopilot
d. Place the seats belts sign to ON
137. The greatest wake turbulence occurs when the generating aircraft is:
a. Large, heavy , at maximum speed in full flaps configuration
b. Small, light, at maximum speed in full flaps configuration
c. Large, heavy, at low speed in clean configuration
d. Small, light, at low speed in clean configuration
138. When anti-icing has been applied, when must you make sure it is still active?
a. When clear of icing conditions
b. On rotation
c. At brake release for take-off
d. Until one can use ones own anti-icing equipment
139. What precludes a runway being used for noise abatement procedures if landing
in VMC?
71/79
a. Any tailwind
b. Crosswind including gusts of 10kts
c. Tailwind up to 3kts
d. No ILS or visual guidance
140. After ditching, when must a passenger inflate the life jacket?
a. If the water is deep
b. Before leaving the aeroplane
c. On entering the water
d. After leaving the aeroplane
141. To which situation is 3 mins wake turbulence separation applied?
a. Light following a medium departing from a runway intersection on a parallel

runway less than 760m apart
b. A light taking off after a heavy has taken off in the opposite direction
c. A medium landing after a heavy aircraft
d. A light aircraft departing after a heavy on the same runway
142. A runway is considered to be wet when:
1. Slush/snow equivalent or water less than 3mm in depth
2. Change of color but not shiny
3. Shiny appearance
4. Large stagnant sheets of water
a. 4 only
b. 2 & 4
c. 1 & 3
72/79
d. 3 & 4
143. For how long is a SNOWTAM valid?
a. 6 hours
b. 12 hours
c. 24 hours
d. 2 hours
144. An airplane creates wake turbulence when:
a. Flying with its gear and flaps extended
b. Generating lift
c. Flying at high speed
d. Using a high engine RPM
145. When approaching to land in heavy rain:
a. Decrease airspeed on landing, area may be more slippery
b. Increase airspeed as rain affects boundary layer
c. Keep the speed the same until landing
d. Aim further down the runway to avoid landing short of the threshold
146. An aeroplane has between 9 and 200 seats. Does it require?
a. A crash axe or crowbar in the cockpit
b. A crash axe in the cockpit, a crowbar in the cabin
c. A crowbar in the cockpit, a crash axe in the cabin
d. A crash axe or crowbar in the cabin
147. Under what conditions is a radar separation of 5nm separation 5nm required for
wake turbulence spacing?
a. Heavy following a heavy
73/79
b. Medium following a heavy
c. Light following a heavy
d. Heavy following a medium
148. When the pressurization system fails, the differential pressure:
a. Rises
b. Falls
c. Remains the same
d. Fluctuates
149. Which habitat is he least favourable for birds?
a. Long grass
b. Rubbish tips
c. Short grass cut by gang mowers
d. Areas that flood
150. A bomb alert is received at cruise altitude, fuel is not a problem that needs to be
considered, what do you do?
a. Descend to safety altitude
b. Go to the maximum altitude not affected by pressure
c. Go to cabin altitude pressure and remain clean until the final approach
d. Descend to cabin pressure altitude or safety altitude, whichever is the higher,

and go to landing configuration as a safety measure
151. An aircraft is configured for seating 61 to 200 passengers. What is the

requirement for hand held fire extinguishers.
a. 4 Conveniently located in the passenger compartment
b. 5 Conveniently located in the passenger compartment
c. 2 Conveniently located in the passenger compartment
74/79
d. 3 Conveniently located in the passenger compartment
152. Holdover time can be considerably reduced by:
a. Air temperature being slightly below 00C
b. Airframe temperature being slightly below 00C
c. Strong winds and effect of jet blast from other aeroplanes
d. Effect of headwind
153. Which of the following may a Halon fire extinguisher be used for:
1. A paper fire
2. A plastic fire
3. A hydrocarbon fire
4. An electric fire
a. 1, 2, 3 & 4
b. 1, 2 & 3
c. 2 & 3
d. 3 & 4
154. After decompression and descent, there will be enough supplementary oxygen
available for flight crew for all flight time above:
a. 13,000ft
b. 15,000ft
c. 25,000ft
d. 14,000ft
155. A change to a horizontal tail wind causes:
a. A climb
75/79
b. A descent or climb depending upon the strength of the gust
c. A descent only
d. Increase in TAS
156. In icing conditions, the pilot in command must:
a. Ensure sufficient anti-ice is still present on surfaces
b. Ensure surfaces are free from build-up of ice within constraints allowed by the
operations manual
c. Ensure no ice more than 5mm in depth is on surfaces
d. Ensure holdover time has not exceeded the time since de-icing started
157. On the approach, you experience a decrease in tailwind, what happens to the
aeroplane without any corrections being applied?
1. Climbs above glide path
2. Descends below glide path
3. TAS increases
4. TAS decreases
a. 1 & 3
b. 1 & 4
c. 2 & 3
d. 2 & 4
158. What is the worst case for hold over time following de-ice/anti-ice?
a. Freezing rain
b. Freezing fog
c. Frost
76/79
d. Snow
159. What is the aquaplaning speed if the main gear tyre pressure is 10.8 Bar?
a. 112kts
b. 143kts
c. 85kts
d. 95kts
160. What is supplementary oxygen used for?
a. To passengers in an aircraft, following a loss of pressurization
b. For passengers who may require it, following a loss of pressurization
c. For passengers with breathing difficulties
d. Protect crew when combating a fire
161. Landing on a flooded runway in heavy rain:
1. Decrease your approach speed
2. Make a positive touch down on the main gear and lower the nose
gear as soon as practicable
3. Increase the approach speed
4. Make a smooth touchdown
5. Use all available lift dumpers in a systematic manner
6. Brake heavily
a. 2, 4, 5 , 6
b. 2, 5
c. 1, 2, 5
d. 1, 2, 5, 6
77/79
162. What flying conditions give the worst wake turbulence?
a. Large, heavy, slow and clean
b. Large, heavy, fast and full flaps
c. Large, high power, slow and full flaps
d. Large, high power fast and clean
163. If cabin altitude increases during level flight, the differential pressure:
a. Remain constant
b. Attains its maximum permitted operating limit
c. Increases
d. Decreases
164. When is wake turbulence worst?
1. Heavy
2. Slow
3. Clean
4. High power
a. 1, 2 and 3
b. 1, 3 & 4
c. 2, 3 & 4
d. All of the above
165. Mist in the cabin accompanied by a drop in pressure and temperature are
indications of:
a. A rapid decompression
b. A slow decompression
78/79
c. An electrical fire
d. A plastic fire
79/79

Atpl Jaa Questions - Operational Procedures

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JAA ATPL QUESTIONS OPERATIONAL PROCEDURES

Book 12: OPERATIONAL PROCEDURES

2. When are flight crew allowed to leave their stations?

a. In the performance of their duties

b. At any time specified by the operations manual

c. When having lunch

d. Only when the captain allows it

3. Destination alternate for a turbojet – what is the required fuel overhead?

a. 30 minutes at cruise speed

b. 30 minutes at 1500’ in standard conditions

c. 2 hours at 1500’ in standard conditions

d. 30 minutes at endurance speed

d. State of the operator

6. Above what altitude are quick-donning masks required?

7. When must a radiation indicator be carried?

a. For flights above 29,000ft

b. For flights above 39,000ft

c. For flights above 49,000ft

d. For flights above 59,000ft

a. Record last 30 mins of flight

b. Record for the duration of the flight

c. Record last 25 hours of operation

d. Record last 48 hours of flight

9. Information concerning evacuation procedures can be found in the:

d. Operational flight plan

10. What is the requirement for the carriage of life rafts?

a. 30 mins or 120nm whichever is less

b. 50nm from land

c. 120mins or 400nm whichever is less

d. 60 mins flying time at the engine out cruise speed

11. Who is to ensure safe handling of flights?

c. The State of Registration

d. The Operations Officer

12. What is the currency requirement for a co-pilot?

c. 3 take-offs and landings on an aeroplane of the same type or approved

d. 3 take-offs and landings on an aeroplane of the same type or approved simulator

c. Aircraft flight notes

14. What is the co-pilot currency requirement?

a. 3 flights in the last 90 days

b. 3 take-offs and landings in the last 60 days

c. At the controls for 3 flights in the last 60 days

d. At the controls for 3 take-offs and landings in the last 90 days

15. In determining Aerodrome Operating Minima, what of the following needs to be

2. Ability to communicate/receive meteorological information

3. Significant obstacles in the missed approach area

4. Dimensions and characteristics of the runway

5. Navigation equipment in the aeroplane

The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

d. All of the above

16. Who compiles the MEL and where does it go?

a. The manufacturer and in the Flight Manual

b. The manufacturer and in the Operations Manual

c. The operator and in the Flight Manual

d. The operator and in the Operations Manual

a. Only during take-off and landing

b. While at their duty station

c. From take-off to landing

19. The Minimum Equipment List (MEL) is established by the: