Grade 8 Science Test Items

Subject Area: Science
Grade Level: Grade 8

Quarter: I
Competency: Investigate the relationship between the amount of
force applied and the mass of the object to the
amount of change in the object’s motion (S8FE-Ia-15).
Multiple Choice
Directions: Read each item carefully and encircle the letter that
corresponds to the correct answer.
1. A box is pushed at a constant speed across a floor as shown in

the figure below.
Which of the following arrow represents the reaction force?

A.
B.
C.
D.
2. A carabao is pulling a karomata. Which of the following is

applied by the carabao?
A. 1st law of motion
B. 2nd law of motion
C. 3rd law of motion
D. the law of conservation of energy
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3. The coconut falls into the ground. Which of the following is the
reason for the movement of the coconut?
A. balanced force
B. magnetic force
C. gravitational force
D. unbalanced force
4. The carabao pulls a barsahan, then the barsahan moves along

with the carabao. Which of the following law/principle is
applied to the situation?
A. 1st law of motion
B. 2nd law of motion
C. 3rd law of motion
D. the law of conservation of energy
5. Which of the following diagram represents a balancing force?
A. 1.2 N
2
1.2 N 1.2N
1N
B.
0N
1.2 N 1.2N
1N
C.
0N
12 N 12N
0N
D.
8N
5N 8N
5N
Table Completion
Directions: Using the equation Fnet=ma, complete the table below.
Second Law of Motion
net force mass acceleration
(N) (kg) (m/s2)
3

10 80
20 50
50 50
30 20
40 20
Matching Type
Directions: Match the description to the quantity. Write the letter of
the
correct answer.
Description Quantity
_____1. It is equal to the product of mass and a. force
acceleration.
_____2. Considering the second law of motion; it is b. work
the quantity that is inversely proportional
to the net force acting on it. c. mass
_____3. It is opposite to the direction of the applied
force on the body. d. friction
_____4. It is the result of the applied force on the
object. e. acceleration
_____5. It is the product of force and displacement
on the object.

Quarter: I
Competency: Infer that when a body exerts a force on another, an
equal amount of force is exerted back on it (S8FE-Ia-
16).

Multiple Choice
1. If two people are pulling against each other with forces of 200
newtons and 250 newtons, there is a/an
A. balanced force.
B. unbalanced force.
C. universal gravitation.
D. frictional forces on both bodies.
2. If you push on a wall with a force of 30 newtons, how much force
is acting on you?
A. 0 newton
B. 10 newtons
C. 30 newtons
D. 60 newtons
3. A 20N force is applied on the ground. How much return force will
the ground exert?
A. 20N
B. 25N
C. 30N
D.40N
4. What is the downward force acting on a stationary physics book

on a table?
A. normal force
B. unbalance force
C. gravitational force
D. universal gravitational force
5. What is the force exerted by the ground on a 30 kg person?
A. 300N
5

B. 298N
C. 294N
D. 300N
Problem Solving
Directions: Solve what is asked.
1. How much force is needed to transfer a 30 kg balikbayan box
to a height of 10 meters?
2. Determine the force applied on a 20 kg object that moves at a
rate of 0.5 m/s2.
3. A bullet is fired and hits on a 25 kg block of wood and moves
into 2.0m/s2. How much force is applied to the wood?
4. A student drops a 2.0g ice water on the floor of the science
building. How much force will be exerted on the ice water
upon impact on the ground?
5. A 300 kg boat floats on the water. How much upward force will
the water apply to the boat?
True or False
Directions: Write TRUE if the statement is correct and FALSE if it is
wrong.
Write the answer before the number.
______1. Forces always come in pairs.
______2. Friction always causes a reaction force.
______3. Walking is possible on the frictionless surface.
______4. The team who wins in a tug-of-war is the team who exerts a
greater force on the ground.
______5. The force gravity acting on a person is the person's weight.
6

Quarter: I
Competency: Demonstrate that when a body exerts a force on
another, an equal amount of force is exerted back on
it (S8FE-Ib-17).
Short Answer Test

Directions: Supply what is asked.
1. A ball is thrown on the wall and bounces back to the hands of
the thrower. If the magnitude of the force applied to the ball is
7

equal to 2 Newtons, how much force will the wall exert on the
ball upon impact?
2. Illustrate the forces acting on the book stationary on a table
using a free body diagram.
3. Illustrate and discuss the forces acting on the ball thrown
upward.
4. Describe the forces acting on a picture frame hanging on the
wall.
5. Discuss the movement of the passenger on a bus when it
suddenly stops.
Fill in the Blank

Directions: Supply the missing word to complete the sentence in the
paragraph. Choose your answer from the box below.
unpaired pushes magnitude forces

equal acceleration upward
Action Reaction Force
There is no such thing as a/an ___1__ force in the universe.

The desk rests on the floor just as the book is based on it, and the

floor __2__ up on the desk with force equal in ___3__ to that with
which the desk presses down on the floor.
These sets of ____4__ exist universally. When you stroll, you

move forward by pushing backward on the ground with force ___5___
to your mass multiplied by your amount of downward gravitational
____6____. (This force, in other words, is the same as weight.) At the
same time, the ground pushes back with equal force. You do not
perceive the fact that Earth is pushing you ____7_, simply because
its enormous mass makes this motion negligible but it does.
True or False

wrong. Write the answer before the number.
___1. Seatbelt in the car is a safety precaution from the sudden

stop of the car.
___2. The headrest on the seat is a precaution from accident

when
the car is hit from behind.

___3. The tendency of the passenger is to move forward when
the
car is hit behind.
___4. During the sudden stop, the injury of the passenger is most
likely on the neck.
___ 5. During the collision of two objects, the energy is always

conserved.

Quarter: I
Competency: Relate the laws of motion to bodies in uniform circular
motion (S8FE-Ib-18).
Short Answer Test
Directions: Give what is asked in each

statement below.
10

1. The diagram shows an object moving in counter clockwise
circular motion. Draw the correct diagram of the force and
velocity of the figure above.
2. Identify and discuss the forces needed to keep the body in

circular motion.
3. You are whirling a ball in a string around

in circles as shown in the picture, then
the string suddenly snaps. What
direction does the ball fly? Explain your
c
answer using the laws of motion.
a
4. Illustrate the relationship of force, acceleration, and mass in a

circular motion using a free body diagram.
5. A communication satellite is in a circular orbit around Earth.
Describe the force acting on the satellite if the speed of the
satellite is constant.
True or False
wrong.
Write the answer before the number.
___1. The acceleration in circular motion is centripetal because it
is always directed to the center of the path.
___2. Newton’s second law requires the presence of unbalanced
force to produce acceleration.
___3. The force producing centripetal acceleration is called
centripetal
11

force.
___4. Centrifugal force is the same magnitude of centripetal force
in the opposite direction.
___5. For a truck to make a turn, a centrifugal force is needed.
Short Answer Test
Directions: Answer the following questions correctly.
1. Differentiate rotational motion from circular motion.
2. Discuss how second law of motion is applied in a circular
motion.
3. Differentiate centripetal from centrifugal force.
4. Explain why it takes more time to stop the large blade of a fan
than that of a shorter blade.
5. How do you determine a raw egg from a boiled egg by
spinning each on the table?

Quarter: I
Competency: Infer that circular motion requires the application of
constant force directed toward the center of the circle
(S8FE-Ib-19).
Multiple Choice
1. Consider a ball connected to a string and whirled in a circular

motion as shown in the figure below. What will happen to the
ball if the string is quickly cut?
A. The ball will continue to move on circular 12
Lead to Go, Love motion.
to Grow, Live to Glow
B. The
Tel. No. (053) ball depedleyte.net/
323-8882/ will move towards the center of the
depedleytedivision@gmail.com
circular path.
C. The movement of the ball will be tangent to its
circular path.
D. The movement of the ball will be opposite to
2. Consider a toy car moving in a circular path. Which of the
following is correct about the centripetal force?
A. It is always directed to the center.
B. It is directed parallel to the motion.
C. It is the reaction force acted by the object.
D. It comes after the force applied to the object.
3. Which of the following will likely happen if the gravitational

force between the moon and the earth gets lost?
A. The moon will spin towards the earth.
B. The moon will move towards the earth.
C. The moon will move tangent to its orbit.
D. The movement of the moon will not be affected.
4. Which of the following quantities in a circular motion is always

directed to the center of the path?
A. centripetal force
B. centrifugal force
C. centripetal acceleration
D. centrifugal acceleration
5. In a circular motion, which is the correct description of the

velocity of the object?
13

A. changing
B. constant
C. increasing
D. decreasing
Short Answer Test

Directions: Give the correct answers to the questions below.
1. What kind of force is always directed towards the center?

2. What force is needed so that acceleration becomes possible?
3. What force is needed for a moving object to turn or change
direction?
4. What quantities are always conserved?
5. What force is present on a swing if a boy is on it?
Fill in the Blank

Directions: Supply the missing words to complete the thought of the
paragraph.
accelerated body centripetal force

center magnitude
14

When an object is moving in a circular path at a constant speed,
it is said to be uniform ___1___ motion. It is a movement of a/an
____2_____ along a circle. ___3____ force is the force that tends to pull
the object towards ____4____ of the circular path. The __5_____ of the
acceleration of the circular motion is the square of its speed over
the radius.

Quarter: I
Competency: Identify situations in which work is done and in which
no work is done (S8FE-Ic-20).
Alternative Response Test

Directions: Write NW if the situation implies no work done, and W if
the
situation shows work done. Write your answer before
the
number.
______1.A woman carries a child on her shoulder while watching a
Buyogan Festival dance.
______2.A laborer pushes the wall.
______3. An athlete runs around the oval.
______4. An elevator is going to the upper floor.
______5. A ball is falling from the highest peak.
15

Problem Solving
Directions: Answer the following questions correctly.
1. A student pushes a 40 kg teacher’s cabinet at a distance of 2
meters with a force equal to 300 newtons. How much work
was done?
2. A carabao pulled a 400kg karomata at a distance of 1 km. The
carabao exerts a force equal to 500 N. How much work was
performed?
3. An 800 J of work was done on the object to move it 5.5 meters
away from its initial position. How much force was exerted to
the object?
4. A man is carrying one sack of rice that has a mass of 50 kg
while walking 10 meters towards his house. How much work
was done by the man?
5. A 30 kg box was pulled by the carabao to a distance of 10 m.
How much work was done by the carabao?
Fill in the Blank

Directions: Complete the paragraph below by supplying the missing
terms.
product applied movement

work used velocity
Work is defined as the ____1____ of the force ___2___ to a body

and the ____3_____ in the direction of the force applied. The amount
of ___4___ done is equal to the amount of energy ____5___. The unit
of work is joule which is the same as the unit of energy.
16

Quarter: I
Competency: Describe how work is related to power and energy.
(S8FE-Ic-21).
Multiple Choice
1. A force of 50N is applied to a 50kg object that doesn’t move.

How much work was done?
A. 0 J
B. 50 J
C. 300 J
D. 3000 J
2. A 300kg car is traveling at 10 m/s. How much work is needed to
change the speed of the car to 5 m/s?
A. 15,500J
B. 10,500J
17

C. 7,500J
D. 5,500J
3. A 50kg balikbayan box is lifted to the 3rd floor, the total

displacement of the balikbayan box is 15m. How much work was
applied on the Balikbayan box?
A. 7,350 J
B. 7,300J
C. 7,250 J
D. 7,200J
4. A carabao pulled a 150 kg karomata to a distance of 500 meters
at a rate of 5 m/s. How much work was done?
A. 1,875J
B. 1,900J
C. 1,925J
D. 1,950J
5. A carabao is pulling a plow on the field. If the force applied is
equal to 30N, how much work is done if the plow is pulled to a
distance of 300m? (Ignore other forces.)
A. 9,000 J
B. 6,000J
C. 3,000J
D. 1,500J
18

True or False
Directions. Write TRUE if the statement is correct and FALSE if it is
wrong.
___1. The change in kinetic energy in the object is equivalent to
work
done in the object.
___2. The change in potential energy of the object is equivalent to
the work done on the object.
___3. Consider an object thrown upward. The kinetic energy of the
object is converted to potential energy in going up.
___4. When the object goes down, the potential energy of the
object reduces, and the kinetic energy of the object
increases.
___5. The conservation of energy is clearly demonstrated using a
pendulum.
Matching Type
Directions. Match the description with the quantity.
Description Quantity
1. It is equivalent to the change in potential a. Gravity
energy. b. Work
2. It is a constant downward acceleration.
c. Acceleration
3. It is the quantity that is directed to the center
of the path in a circular motion. d. Power
4. It is the amount of work done per time. e. Joule

5. It is the unit of power.
f. Watts 19

Quarter: I
Competency: Differentiate potential and kinetic energy (S8FE-Id-22).
True of False
wrong.
Write the answer on the space before the number.
___1. Kinetic energy is an energy in motion.
___2. Potential energy is an energy at rest.
___3. The change in potential energy is equal to the work done
on the object.
___4. The unit of potential energy, kinetic energy, and work
are the same.
___5. Pendulum demonstrates the transformation of
mechanical
energy.
Problem Solving
Directions: Solve for what is asked.
1. Calculate the change in potential energy of 20 kg crate that is

transferred from the 1st floor to the 3rd floor of the building; it
has a total displacement of 35 meters.
20

2. What is the kinetic energy of a 20kg runner that runs at a rate
of 4 m/s?
3. What is the potential energy of a 0.3 kg coconut fruit at the
height of 20 meters?
4. The carabao pulled a karomata and applied a force of 200N to
transfer the karomata 300 meters away to its initial position.
How much work was done on the karomata?
5. A man carried a 50kg sack of rice. How much force did the
man apply on the sack of rice?
Fill in the Blank

Directions: Complete the paragraph by supplying the missing terms
on the blanks.
energy Joule potential energy

kinetic energy work power
The ____1____ is defined as the ability to do work and the

standard unit of ____2_____. Moreover the _____3________ is energy at
rest and _____4________ is energy in motion. ______5____ done on a
body changes its state of motion. The change in kinetic energy or
potential energy is also attributed to work done on the object.
21

Quarter: I
Competency: Relate speed and position of the object to the amount
of energy possessed by a body. (S8FE-Id-23).
Problem Solving
Directions. Solve for what is asked.
1. What is the potential energy of the 30kg object at the height

of 30 meters?
2. Calculate the kinetic energy of a 400kg race car traveling at

15 m/s.
3. How much energy does a 2.0 g bullet have if the speed is 25

m/s?
4. A woman pushed a 1.0 kg grocery cart horizontally with a

force of 300N. The cart moved horizontally and was displaced
3 meters from its initial position. How much work was done on
the cart?
5. A 2000-kg van has 900 J of kinetic energy. Compute the

magnitude of the velocity of the van.
22

True or False
Directions. Write T if the statement is correct and F if it is wrong.
_____1. Potential energy is the energy possessed by the body on

its
position.
_____2. The general unit of energy is Joule.
_____3. Energy in the body can also be measured by identifying
the
work done on the body.
_____4. The kinetic energy of a body is its ability to do work
because of its motion.
_____5. The sum of kinetic and potential energy is called total
mechanical energy.
Table Completion
Directions. Complete the table below. Write the correct answer on
the
space provided (answers expressed in whole numbers).
Mass Acceleration Heigh Wor Powe Tim Energ

(m/s²) t k r e y
(m) (J) (J/s) (s) (J)
1. 3 4m 3
10kg
2. 10 10 m 4
30kg
3. 10 20 m 5
60kg
4. 2 5m 6
90kg
23

5. 1 5 10 m 7
20kg

Quarter: I
Competency: Infer how the movement of particles of an object
affects the speed of sound through it (S8FE-Ie-24).
True or False
Directions: Write TRUE if the statement is correct, FALSE if it is

wrong.
___1. Sound travels fastest in solid than in gas and liquid.
___2. The sound is a longitudinal wave that is affected by the

temperature.
___3. The sound is audible at night because the direction of wave

fronts is towards the ground.
___4. The sound is affected by the movement of a particle in a

medium.
___5. The speed of sound is fast when the temperature in the

environment is high compared when its low.
24

Short Answer Test
Directions. Give the correct terms/quantities asked in the items

below.
_______1. What quantities that refers to the highness and

lowness of a sound?
_______2. What is the name of the energy delivered to a unit
area of a surface per unit time?
_______3. What is the other terms used in the reverberation of
sound?
_______4. What will happen if there is an apparent change in
pitch due to the relative motion of the source of the
sound and the observer?
________5. What will occur when sounds with slightly different
frequencies combine?
Problem Solving
Directions: Solve for what is asked.
1. What is the speed of sound at 20°C?

2. What is the rate of sound in the air with 16 °C temperature?
3. You were standing at a distance when you saw lightning and
heard thunder 3 seconds after the lightning. How far was the
source of the sound?
25

4. During daytime, the air temperature near the surface of the
land is about 38°C. As the altitude increases, the air
temperature decreases by 3°C for every 5 meters. What is the
speed of sound near the surface? What is the speed of sound
5 meters above the surface?
5. What is the speed of sound in the air with 39°C temperature?

Quarter: I
Competency: Investigates the effect of temperature to speed of
sound through fair testing (S8FE-Ie-25).
Fill in the Blank
Directions: Fill in the blanks with the correct terms.
longitudinal medium reflected refracted

diffracted interference resonance
Sound waves are ___1___ waves capable of producing an

auditory sensation. Sound are transmitted through __2____. The
behaviors of sound are ___3_____, _____4____, _____5____,
______6_____, _______7______. The speed of sounds changes as the
air temperature changes.
26

Matching Type
Directions: Match the descriptions with the properties of sounds.

Write the letter of the correct answer.
Descriptions Sound Properties
1. sound with frequencies lower than 20Hz A. Refraction
2. sounds with frequencies higher than 20,000 B. Infrasound

Hz
C. Ultrasound
3. The angle of incidence equal to the angle of
reflection. D.Reflection
4. change in the pitch due to the motion of the E. Doppler

source of the sound and/or the observer
F. Intensity
5. bending of sound due to the difference of
temperature in the medium
27

Short Answer Test
Directions. Supply what is asked.
Figure 1 Figure 2
Photo credits: RTipolo
1. Describe the frequency of sound heard by the observer in

figure 1.
2. Compare the frequency of sound heard by the observer in
figure 1 and figure 2.
3. What is the effect of speed of the source of sound on the
frequency received by the observer?
4. What will happen if both the source of the sound and the
observer move and approach each other?
5. Describe the sound perceived by the observer if the source of
the sound and the observer move away from each other.
28

Quarter: I
Competency: Demonstrate the existence of the color components of
visible light using a prism or diffraction grating (S8FE-
If-26).
Fill in the Blank
Directions. Fill in the missing parts of the paragraph. Use the terms
in the
box.
highest lowest rainbow spectrum violet
When light strikes a transparent curved material,

___1___ of colors will be seen, the ___2____color is the most
refracted colors of light that carries the ____3___ frequency and
___4____ wavelength. In our sky, the dispersion of light into
different colors is known as ____5_____. The frequency of light will
depend on the energy it possess, the higher the frequency the
higher the energy.
29

True or False
___1. White light can be dispersed into different colors.
___2. The arrangement of the visible spectrum of light is the same

in all
materials.
___3. The bending of light happens when light enters into another
medium.
___4. The index of refraction is the ratio of the speed of light in a

vacuum and the speed of light in materials.
___5. The visible light is located in between infrared and ultraviolet

in the EM spectrum.
Multiple Choice
1. Light is incident from medium A to medium B then the
refracted light goes toward the normal line. How can we
compare the speed of light in medium B with that in medium
A?
A. The speed of light in B is slower than that A.
B. The speed of light in B is the same as that in A.
C. The speed of light in B is faster than that in A.
D. The speed of light in B varries than that in A.
30

2. Which is responsible for the blue sky and the red sunset?
A. diffraction
B. dispersion
C. reflection
D. refraction
3. Which of the following is the phenomenon that occurs when

white light strikes a transparent material?
A. blue sky
B. rainbow
C. red sunset
D. refraction
4. What is the result if the electromagnetic spectrum passes

through transparent materials?
A. white light
B. colorful light
C. infrared will occur
D. ultraviolet will occur
5. What is the index of refraction of the second medium if the

refracted light is towards the normal line?
A. lesser
B. greater
C. cannot be determine
D. equal to the first medium
31

Quarter: I
Competency: Explain the hierarchy of colors in relation to energy
(S8FE-If-27).
Short Answer Test
1. Arrange the colors of the visible light from highest to lowest

according to their frequency.
2. What color of light has the greatest energy level?
3. What is the position of the red color in the visible spectrum?
4. Among the visible light, which has the greatest refractive
index?
5. Among the visible light, which has the least refractive index?
Essay
Directions: Answer the following correctly.
1. Discuss the relationship between the index of refraction and

the position of the color in the visible spectrum.
2. Explain the arrangement of colors in visible spectrum using
frequencies and wavelengths.
3. Why light is refracted as it moves from air to glass?
4. Why is water able to separate white light into different colors?
5. What is the relationship between the speed of light and index
of refraction?
32

Short Answer Test
Directions: Give what is asked.
_______1. What is the ratio between the speed of light in the vacuum
and speed of light in materials?
_______2. What do you call the invisible line perpendicular to the
boundary of the two media?
_______3. What color bends most during refraction?
_______4. What color has the highest energy?
_______5. What color has the longest wavelength?

33

Quarter: I
Competency: Explain that red is the least bent and violet the most
bent according to their wavelengths or frequencies
(S8FE-If-28).
Multiple Choice
1. Which of the following color is bent most throughout the

dispersion of light?
A. blue
B. green
C. red
D. violet
2. Which of the following color is least bent throughout the
dispersion of light?
A. blue
B. green
C. red
D. violet
3. Which of the following color has the highest frequency?
A. blue
B. green
C. red
D. violet
4. Which of the following colors of light has the lowest energy?

A. blue
B. green
34

C. red
D. violet
5. Which of the following colors of light is nearest to the normal
line during dispersion?
A. blue
B. green
C. red
D. violet
Short Answer Test
___________1. In the primary colors of light, which of them has the

highest frequency but shortest wavelength?
___________2. In the EM spectrum, what color has the lowest
frequency and longest wavelength?
___________3. What is the relationship between the frequency and
wavelength of the EM spectrum?
___________4. What do you call the bending of light due to the
change in speed of light as it passes in a different
medium?
___________5. What do you call an imaginary line perpendicular to
the boundary of the medium?
Fill in the Blank
Directions. Complete the paragraph below using the terms inside

the word bank (not all terms will be used).
35

refraction phenomenon speed
colors reflection indices
Dispersion is a special kind of ____1_______ which gives us

different ____2___ of light. The different____3_____ of the diverse
colors of light show that light of different colors travels at different
____4_____ which accounts for the different amounts of bending.
Thus, blue light with greater refractive index ___5____ more and
appears at the bottom of the red light.

Quarter: I
Competency: Differentiate between heat and temperature at the
molecular level (S8FE-Ig-29).
36

Short Answer Test

_________1. What kind of energy that is in transit or transfer?
_________2. What is the measure of hotness and coldness of the
body?
_________3. What is the process of transferring energy without any
medium?
________ 4. What process of heat transfer requires touching or direct
contact?
_________5. What is the amount of energy needed to increase the
temperature of water by one degree?
Matching type
Directions. Match the descriptions with the correct terms. Write the
letter of the correct answer.
Description
Terms
1. amount of heat needed to increase the
temperature of water by one degree a. specific heat
2. measure of hotness and coldness b. heat capacity

3. The energy in transit
c. heat
4. heat transfer through direct contact
5. A transfer of energy that requires no d. temperature
medium for the energy to travel e. conduction
f. radiation
Problem Solving
Directions: Solve the following problems correctly. (5 pts each)
1. How much heat is needed to raise 10 grams of water by 5°C?
37

2. How much heat is absorbed by 20g of water with an increase
of 30°C temperature?
3. A 10 mL water has an initial temperature of 25°C and it
increased to 30°C. Compute for the change in temperature of
the water.
4. How much energy is needed to boil a 5 g of water that has an
initial temperature of 25°C?
5. Convert the temperature of 30°C to Kelvin?

Quarter: I
38

Competency: Infer the relationship between current and charge
(S8FE-Ih-30).
Short Answer Test
_________1. What do you call the flow of electrons in the circuit?
_________2. What term describes the measurement of the amount of

flow of charge per unit time?
_________3. What is the standard unit of the energy carried by the

charge?
_________4. What device measures the electric voltage in the circuit?
_________5. What devise measures the amount of current in the

circuit?
Table Completion
Directions. Complete the table below by computing the correct

values using Ohm’s law.
Voltage (V) Current (A) Resistance (Ω)

3 .0 5.0
5.0 3.O
3.0 3.0
2.0 1.0
5.0 2.0
Matching type
Directions. Match the description with the correct terms. Write the
letter of the correct answer.
Descriptions Terms
a. current
39
b. voltage
c. resistance
d. ohmmeter
e. ammeter
1. It is the device that measures voltage.
2. It is the device that measures current.
3. It is the product of current and resistance.
4. It is inversely proportional to the current in the circuit.
5. It is the measurement of the number of electrons that flows in
the circuit.

Quarter: I
Competency: Explain the advantages and disadvantages of series
and parallel connections in homes (S8FE-Ii-31).
Multiple choice
40

1. Which characterize current in a series circuit?
A. It is different in all loads.
B. It is the same in all loads.
C. It increases within the loads.
D. It diminishes along the loads.
2. What is the characteristic of current in the parallel circuit?

A. It is different in all loads.
B. It is the same in all loads.
C. It increases along the load.
D. It diminishes along the load.
3. Which of the following refers to the potential difference

between two points?
A. current
B. power
C. resistance
D. voltage
4. Three pieces of 3.0-Ω bulbs are connected in series to a 3-V
battery. How much voltage does each bulb gets from the
battery?
A. 1.0 V
B. 2.0 V
C. 3.0 V
D. 4.0 V
41

5. Two pieces of 3.0-Ω bulbs connected in parallel to a 12-V
battery. How much voltage does each bulb get?
A. 3.0 V
B. 6.0 V
C. 9.0 V
D. 12.0 V
Short Answer Test
______1. What is the potential difference between two points in the

battery?
______2. What type of connection is made when voltage is the same

in all throughout the electrical load?
______3. What is the standard unit of current?
______4. What connection used in fuses and in other circuit

protector?
______5. What amount of voltage is required by appliances in the

Philippines?
42

Problem Solving
Directions. Read carefully and answer the items correctly.
1. Solve for the total resistance of two 2.0 Ω resistors connected

in series.
2. If the two 2.0 Ω resistors are connected in parallel, what is the
total resistance of the circuit?
3. Which connection type (parallel/series) gives more voltage in
each electrical load? Explain your answer.
4. Which connection type (parallel/series) provides protection in
the circuit? Explain your answer.
5. Discuss which connection type (parallel/series) is used in-
house wiring.

Quarter: I
Competency: Differentiate electrical power and electrical energy
(S8FE-Ii-32).
Short Answer Test
_____1. What is the product of voltage and current in a circuit?
_____2. What is the term used to describe the amount of electron

that passes through a wire in a circuit?
_____3. What is the other term for the potential difference

between two points in the battery?
43

_____4. What quantity is inversely proportional to the current in
the circuit?
_____5. What is the product between the power rating of the

appliance and the time of its usage?
True or False
___ 1. The electron will flow to the wire that has less resistance.
___ 2. An electrical load such as bulb gives resistance in the

circuit.
___ 3. Electrons can move in an open circuit.
___ 4. The direction of the electron in the circuit is always from

negative to positive.
___ 5. Electrons transfer energy from the positive to negative

terminal of the battery.
Problem Solving
Directions. Read carefully and solve the following problems correctly.

44

1. A light bulb connected to 220-V source draws 2.0 A of current.
What is the power rating of the light bulb?
2. A LED TV has a power rating of 60 watts. If it is connected to
the power source of 220V, how much current will be drawn by
the LED TV?
3. A 750 W aircon was used for five hours. How much energy was
used by the appliance?
4. An electric fan has a power output of 60 W. How much work is
done if it is used for 2 minutes?
5. An appliance drew 2.0 A current and is connected to 220 V
source. What is the resistance of the appliance?

Quarter: I
Competency: Explain the functions of circuit breakers, fuses,
earthing, double insulation, and other safety devices
in the home (S8FE-Ii-33).
Identification
Directions. Give what is asked.
_______1. What will occur when an excess of load is connected to the

circuit?
_______2. What happens when electrons rush in wires due to sudden

resistance drop in the circuit?
_______3. What kind of circuit protection removes excess voltage in

the circuit?
45

_______4. What device in the circuit provides constant voltage output
to protection to appliances from a power surge?
_______5. What circuit connection is used by the circuit protectors?
True or False
___1. The concepts of series and parallel connections are combined

in the house wiring.
___2. In AC circuit, the direction of current is only one.
___3. The connection of the appliances should be in series-parallel

way to optimize the efficiency of the appliances.
___4. Switch is connected in series to the electrical load.
___5. In case of heating of the wire due to the movement of

electrons in the circuit, the fuse breaks the circuit as a
protection from fire.
Short Answer Test
Directions. Give what is asked in every item below. Write the correct
answer.
46

1. List down helpful tips in preventing electrical accidents at
home using Ohms Law.
2. How do the length and the cross-sectional area affect the
resistance of the wire?
3. Differentiate series and parallel circuits in terms of voltage,
current, and resistance.
4. Why is connecting many appliances into the same outlet is
discouraged?
5. Discuss the similarities of fuse, circuit breakers, and switch on
the basis of connection and its effect(s) to the circuit.
Subject: Science
Grade Level: 8
Quarter: II
Competency: Using models or illustrations, explain how movements
along faults generate an earthquake. (S8ES-IIa-
14)
Matching Type
Directions: Match the terminologies related to earthquake to its
descriptions.
Descriptions
Terminologies
_______1. A study of earthquakes and A. earthquake
the waves they create.
_______2. Block of crust that is located B. fault
above the fault plane.
47

_______3. Block of crust that lies C. footwall
beneath the fault plane
_______4. . A fracture in the Earth`s crust D.
hanging wall
where one side moves
relative to the other. E. seismology
________5. A sudden shaking of the ground
caused by the underground F. stress
rock masses that shift position.
Identification
Directions: Tell the SPECIFIC type of fault illustrated. Write your
answers on the space provided.
48

Fill in the blank
Directions: Fill in the blanks with the correct term that would
complete the thought of the paragraph. Choose from the
options inside the parenthesis.
Earthquakes occur repeatedly along ___________ (faults,

cliff) which are zones of weakness in the crust. These are formed
when the forces that move in different directions go beyond the
elastic limit of the rock masses. Shift in position results when
___________ (two, three) blocks slip or move against one another.
Tremendous amounts of ___________ (friction, stress) as plates grind
each other in different directions leads to jerky movements or
violent earthquakes. A ___________ (dip-slip, strike-slip) movement
occurs when the hanging wall moved predominantly up or down
relative to the footwall leading to a normal or reverse fault. A
___________ (dip-slip, strike-slip) movement, on the other hand,
happens when the hanging wall moves horizontally thereby
producing left lateral or right lateral fault. When the hanging wall
motion is neither dominantly vertical nor horizontal, the motion is
called oblique-slip.
49

Subject: Science
Grade Level: 8
Quarter: II
Competency: Differentiate the
 Epicenter of an earthquake from its focus
 Intensity of an earthquake from its
magnitude
 Active and inactive faults. (S8ES-IIa-15)

Directions: Write F if the statement refers to a focus of an
earthquake
and E if it describes an earthquake`s epicenter.
_______ 1. It is also known as the hypocenter of an earthquake.
_______ 2. A point within the earth where an earthquake originates.
_______ 3. It is the weakest part of the crust where slippage of rocks

occurs.
_______ 4. The area on earth`s surface directly above the

earthquake`s
starting point.
_______ 5. It is where the most violent shaking of the ground is felt

and
most damages are recorded.
50

Completion Type
Directions: Compare earthquake`s intensity from its magnitude by
completing the Venn diagram. Use the terms given
inside the box below.
Intensity Strength of Magnitude

an
Earthquake
seismograph Mercalli Scale Richter Scale
strength of shock waves damage caused by an earthquake
51

Table Completion
Directions: Differentiate active from inactive fault by filling in the
table below with the data required.
Basis of Comparison Active Fault Inactive Fault

No. of earthquakes
produced
Records of Activity
(specify time
element)
Location where it
tends to occur
Subject: Science
52

Grade Level: 8
Quarter: II
Competency: Demonstrate how underwater earthquakes generate
tsunamis. (S8ES-IIb-16)

Directions: Write TRUE if the statement is correct and FALSE if
it’s not.
_______1. Tsunami is a Japanese term for “harbor wave”.
_______2. Tsunamis are “wave trains” consisting of multiple

waves.
_______3. Tsunamis consist of series of ocean waves with very

long
wavelengths.
_______4. As tsunami travels it diminishes its height while

increasing its speed.
_______5. Tsunamis can be caused by many circumstances

underwater such as earthquakes, landslides, and
volcanic eruptions.
Sequencing Events
53

Directions: The following are statements that will explain how
tsunamis are generated by underwater earthquakes.
Show the order of the development of events in the
generation of tsunami by writing numbers (1-5) on the
box provided.
Energy is released and transferred to the water.
Two oceanic plates meet and collide with one another,

storing energy between them.
The displaced water forms into a wave and it travels into

shallower water in coastal area.
The two colliding plates move, the denser plate sub ducts
and the lighter plate up thrusts.
The wave`s speed as it travels diminishes but its height

increases drastically which causes destruction of life and
property.
Picture Analysis
Directions: Answer the following questions using the image below.
54

http://geology.com/articles/tsunami-geology.shtml
Describe the type of earthquakes that lead to the occurrence of

tsunami?
Epicenter location (3 pts) ____________________
Depth (2 pts) ____________________
Subject: Science
Grade Level: 8
Quarter: II
55

Competency: Explain how earthquake waves provide information
about the interior of the earth. (S8ES-IIc-17)
Completion Test
Directions: Fill in the blanks with the correct term to complete the
sentences
below.
seismogram seismograph body waves

primary waves surface waves secondary waves
1. A body wave that travels in all types of media is called

__________.
2. A wave that travels through the earth`s interior is classified as
__________.
3. During earthquakes, seismographs record data known as
__________.
4. Seismic waves are detected, measured and recorded by the
instrument __________.
6. Destructive ground movements that are last recorded by
seismographs are caused by __________.
True or False
Directions: Write TRUE if the statement given about earthquake and
seismic wave is correct and FALSE if it is not.
56

_________ 1. Primary wave is an example of a seismic wave.
_________ 2. Earthquake’s strength can be detected and recorded by
a
seismograph.
_________ 3. Seismic waves behaves differently as they encounter
materials in different states.
_________ 4. Earthquakes occur frequently in the area called Pacific
Ring of Fire.
_________ 5. Seismic waves exhibit the same speed and effect on
rock
masses where they pass through.
Fill in the blank

Directions: Using the terms inside the box, fill in the blanks with the
correct answer to complete the thought of the paragraph.
densities liquid pressure seismic waves solid

temperature
The deepest exploration made by man did not reach the

mantle layer. As the depth increases, _______________and pressure
likewise increase which served as obstacles for geologists to go
further. Though studies cannot be conducted directly, a lot of
information has been said about the earth. These came from
analyzing the behavior of _______________. The seismic waves
continually being refracted along a curved path as they travel
through the earth`s interior leads to the idea that the earth`s
interior is composed of materials of varying _______________.
Velocities of P and S waves that increased abruptly as they pass
through the mantle show that mantle is composed of materials that
have been elastic due to extreme _______________. The idea of outer
core in ________________ form considers the velocity of S wave that
57

had gone to zero when it reached the outer core. Seismic waves
play an important role in providing scientists information about the
nature and composition of the earth interior.
Subject: Science
Grade Level: 8
Quarter: II
Competency: Explain how typhoons develop. (S8ES-IId-18)
58

Picture Analysis
Directions: Name the parts of the typhoon. Write your answer on the
space provided after the number.
Photo Credits: https://integsci8rshscar.weebly.com/uploads/5/6/7/8/56780415/667331814.gi
Multiple Choice Test
59

1. Which of the following is characterized by counter clockwise
rotating air mass around a central part called eye that has a
low pressure?
A. hurricane
B. storm
C. tropical cyclone
D. typhoon
2. What do you call the tropical cyclone that occurs in the

Northwest Pacific Ocean?
A. hurricane
B. storm
C. tropical depression
D. typhoon
3. Which of the following conditions is NOT necessary for a

tropical cyclone to form?
A. displacement of 5⁰ Latitude from equator

B. enhanced mid-troposphere relative humidity
C. stable winds conditions at the genesis site.
D. sufficient ocean thermal energy of more than 26.5⁰C.
4. What category of tropical cyclone has a maximum wind speed

of 118 km/h?
A. Tropical Depression
B. Tropical Storm
C. Typhoon
D. Super Typhoon
60

5. Once a typhoon has developed, what factor is very much
needed to supply the abundance of water needed for its
development?
A. cold air
B. high humidity
C. low humidity
D. warm water
Fill in the blank
Directions: Using the words inside the box, fill in the blanks to
complete the thought of the paragraph.
cold water warm water

ocean water high humidity
optimal location Coriolis Effect 61

There are six main requirements for a typhoon to form
and develop. It needs an abundance of _______(1)_________. The
_______(2)_________ must have a temperature of 26.5⁰C spanning
from the surface up to a depth of at least 50 meters (160 ft.) or
more. Another requirement is to have too much water vapor present
in air known as _______(3)_________. The low vertical wind shear
also contributes to the formation of typhoon. It also needs an
_______(4)_________ for typhoon development which is 500 km (300
mi) from the Equator. The _______(5)_________ causes the powerful
wind to spin at this particular region. If any one of these
requirements were below average or minimum, a tropical cyclone
would not form.
Subject: Science
Grade Level: 8
Quarter: II
Competency: Infer why the Philippines is prone to typhoons.
(S8ES-IId-19)
Multiple Choice Item
62

1. What is meant by PAR?

A. Philippine Area of Responsibility
B. Philippine Altitude and Responsibility
C. Philippine Atmospheric and Responsibility
D. Philippine Astronomical and Responsibility
2. What weather bureau monitors the typhoon once it enters the
Philippines?
A. DENR
B. PAGASA
C. NASA
D. NDRRMC
3. In which part of the earth is Philippines located that makes it

prone to typhoons?
A. near the equator
B. away from the equator
C. near the tropic of cancer
D. near the tropic of Capricorn
4. What is the body of water surrounding the Philippines which
developed 60% of the world`s typhoons?
A. Atlantic Ocean
B. Arctic Ocean
63

C. Indian Ocean
D. Pacific Ocean
5. When PAGASA quotes a wind speed, in what part of the
typhoon are they referring to?
A. eye
B. eye wall
C. inner rain bands
D. outer rain bands
True or False
Directions: Write TRUE if the statement is correct and FALSE if it’s

wrong.
________ 1. The Philippines is considered as one of the typhoon-

prone
areas in the world.
________ 2. The Philippines is prone to typhoon because of its
optimal
location in the Earth near the Equator.
64

________ 3. Typhoons develop over large bodies of water and move
by
steering winds in the troposphere.
________ 4. The Philippines is situated in the Pacific Ring of Fire which
makes the country vulnerable to natural calamities like
typhoons.
________ 5. One source of tropical cyclone formation is the
Intertropical
Convergence Zone (ITCZ) located away from the tropic of
cancer.
Fill in the blank
Directions: Using the words inside the box, fill in the blanks to
developing storm optimal location

geographic area Pacific Ocean 65
geographic
Lead location tropical
to Go, Love to Grow, Live to Glow cyclone
The Philippines lies at the western rim of the _____
(1)________, north of the equator. The country is located within the
_____ (2)________ called tropics. It is an archipelago surrounded by
warm waters from the Pacific Ocean that powers the low-pressure
formation that leads to typhoon. Likewise, its distance from the
Equator is a/an _____ (3)________ for the Coriolis effect, which
causes powerful winds to spin in the _____ (4)________. Thus, it is all
about the countries _____ (5)________ that makes it vulnerable to
typhoon formation.
Subject: Science
Grade Level: 8
Quarter: II
Competency: Explain how landmasses and bodies of water affect
typhoons. (S8ES-IIe-20)
66

Multiple Choice Item
1. Which body of water along the Pacific Ring of Fire is the

Philippines located?
A. Eastern part of the Pacific Ocean
B. Western part of the Pacific Ocean
C. Northern part of the Pacific Ocean
D. Southern part of the Pacific Ocean
2. What conditions affect the formation of typhoons on the large

bodies of water?
A. cold water and low humidity
B. cold water and high humidity
C. warm water and low humidity
D. warm water and high humidity
3. How does the landmasses of the Philippines affect typhoons

during its landfall?
A. it weakens the typhoon
B. it stabilizes the typhoon
C. it builds up the typhoon
D. it strengthens the typhoon
4. In which body of water are typhoons usually formed?

A. Arctic Ocean
B. Indian Ocean
C. Pacific Ocean
D. Antarctic Ocean
67

5. What happens to a typhoon when it is on the large bodies of
water while making its way to the land?
A. bigger
B. stable
C. stronger
D. weaker
True or False
wrong, ____________ 1. A typhoon will weaken if the water is not
warm enough.
____________ 2. If a typhoon landed, it increases its sustained wind
and
heavy rains.
____________ 3. In the Philippines, most typhoons develop in the
large bodies of Indian Ocean.
____________ 4. Typhoons gain their energy from moisture that
evaporates from warm ocean water.
____________ 5. Even with warm water, a typhoon can encounter dry
air
masses, which can enter into a typhoon and
weaken it or
prevent it from strengthening.
Fill in the blank
Directions: Fill in the blanks with the correct term to complete the
thought of the paragraph.
68

The landmasses and ______(1)________ (bodies of water,
geologic features) that surrounds a country, greatly affects the
formation and strength of typhoons. They affect typhoon based on
what or how strong the ______(2)________ (energy, gustiness) is
released by the landforms and bodies of water. Typhoons gain
energy from warm ocean water and lose energy over
______(3)________ (cold, lukewarm) water. Interaction with land will
______(4)________ (strengthen, weaken) a typhoon. While the
typhoon is still in the vast bodies of ocean it becomes stronger
because of the presence of the warm water, ______(5)________ (high
humidity, low humidity) and low vertical wind shear. On the land,
since there is an absence of warm water and other requirements it
makes the typhoon weak and lesser energy gained.
Subject: Science
Grade Level: 8
Quarter: II
Competency: Trace the path of typhoons that enter the Philippine
69

Area of Responsibility (PAR) using a map and
tracking
data. (S8ES-IIf-21)
Alternative Response Type

Directions: Study the map of the Philippine Area of Responsibility
carefully. Given the following coordinates, identify if the
typhoon is located inside the PAR. Answer with YES or NO.
Photo credit: https://www.slideshare.net/science-grade-8-teachers-manual
1. 13⁰ N, 137⁰ E
2. 15⁰ N, 128⁰ E
3. 17⁰ N, 130⁰ E
4. 23⁰ N, 110⁰ E
5. 24⁰ N, 122⁰ E
Multiple Choice Test

70

Use the picture below of track of Typhoon LUIS to answer item no 1-
3.
https://nesinfo.inquirer.net/files/2014/09/Track-ofTyphoon-Luis.jpg
1. When did Typhoon Luis enter the PAR?

A. 2 a.m. of September 12, 2014
B. 2 a.m. of September 14, 2014
C. 2 a.m. of September 15, 2014
D. 2 a.m. of September 16, 2014
2. In what direction did Typhoon Luis move?

A. Northeast
B. Northwest
C. Southeast
D. Southwest
3. Which part of the Philippines was hit by Typhoon Luis?

A. Eastern Visayas
B. Northern Luzon
C. Southern Luzon
71

D. Western Visayas
Use the picture of track on Typhoon Yolanda to answer item no. 4 and 5.
Picture credits: https://static.rappler.com/images//track-yolanda-20131107-8am..gif
4. When did Typhoon Yolanda leave the PAR?

A. 8 p.m. of November 06, 2013
B. 8 a.m. of November 07, 2013
C. 8 a.m. of November 08, 2013
D. 8 a.m. of November 10, 2013
5. Which part of the Philippines was first hit by the typhoon?
A. Bohol
B. Cebu
C. Davao
D. Leyte
Tropical Cyclone Tracking

Directions: Using the map of the Philippine Area of Responsibility
(PAR) and the given data, trace the path of the typhoon
that enters the PAR by plotting the coordinates.
72

https://www.slideshare.net/science-grade-8-teachers-manual
Data on the path taken by the typhoon:
Time Date Coordinates

1. 5 p.m. December 04, 2016 8°N, 131°E
2. 7 p.m. December 04, 2016 10°N, 128°E
3. 9 a.m. December 05, 2016 12°N, 125°E
4. 6 p.m. December 05, 2016 14°N, 121°E
5. 8 a.m. December 06, 2016 16°N, 118°E
Subject: Science
Grade Level: 8
Quarter: II
Competency: Compare and contrast comets, meteors, and
asteroids. (S8ES-IIg-22)
Completion Type
73

Directions: Compare and contrast the characteristics of comets and
asteroids by completing the table with the missing
details.
Characteristics Comets Asteroids
Origin Kuiper Belt and Oort (1)

Cloud
Shape (2) Varied/ irregular
Ice (frozen water);

frozen gases (ammonia,
Chemical Composition methane, and carbon
(3)
dioxide); other organic
compounds ( carbon-
containing compounds)
Orbit (4) More rounded
Orbital period (years) 75 to 100,000++ (5)

Directions: Put a check mark (/) before the number if the following
phrases describes a meteor and mark X if not.
_____ 1. a light phenomenon
_____ 2. bright streak of light darting the night sky
_____ 3. moves and appears in the sky for a longer time
_____ 4. stray pieces of stony or metallic rocks that reach the
earth surface
74

_____ 5. come from two sources: from the asteroid belt and
from tails of comets
Fill in the blank

Directions: Fill in the blanks with the word or words that will
complete the thought of the paragraph. Choose the
correct answer inside the box.
light meteor shower

meteorite shooting star
meteoroid star
Meteor is another member of the solar system. A meteor is

a ______ phenomenon. It is also called as ______. It occurs when a
______ burns up when it enters the Earth’s atmosphere. Meteors that
are able to land ons the surface of the Earth are called ______. When
Earth orbits the sun and passes through the orbit of a comet where
these comet fragments are found, we observe a celestial event in
which a number of meteors radiate from one point in the sky. This
phenomenon is called ______. Both meteor and meteor shower are
not stars.
Subject: Science
Grade Level: 8
Quarter: II
Competency: Predict the appearance of comets based on recorded
data of previous appearances. (S8ES-IIh-23)
Directions: Predict the appearances of the comet based on the

information given by completing the timeline below.
Halley’s Comet appears every 76 years. 75

Edmund Halley predicted its reappearance in
1910.
Lead toThe Go,last
Lovetime it reappeared
to Grow, Live to Glow was in 1986.
Tel. No. (053) 323-8882/
When do you think will be thedepedleyte.net/ depedleytedivision@gmail.com
next five (5)
appearances of comet Halley?
1910 __(1)__ __(3)__ __(5)__
1986 __(2)__ __(4)__
Multiple Choice
Direction: Read each item carefully and encircle the letter that
1. What is the most commonly observed comet of the 21 st
century and reflected as one of the brightest for many
decades?
A. Encke
B. Hale-Bopp
C. Halley
D. Lovejoy
2. Which of the following comets is designated 2P in the list of
recognized periodic comets after the only one exceeding it in
fame, 1P Halley?
A. Encke
B. Hale-Bopp
C. Swift-Tuttle
D. Lovejoy
3. When is the closest approach of the comet Hale-Bopp to the
Sun?
A. July 23, 1995
B. April 1, 1997
C. April 19, 2007
76

D. March 10, 2017
4. Reports recorded that a comet approached Earth in 1531,
1607 and 1682. What could be the periodic pattern of the
appearance of this comet?
A. 67
B. 70
C. 76
D. 80
5. Comet Halley is the most well-known comet. It returns to
Earth’s vicinity periodically. The last time it appeared in the
sky was in 1986 and previous to it was in 1910. When could be
the next possible appearance of comet Halley on earth?
A. 2031
B. 2042
C. 2062
D. 2076
Fill in the blank

Directions: Read the paragraph. Complete every sentence by
choosing the correct answer inside the parenthesis.
Comets appear in the sky from time to time. The most popular
one is Comet ______ (Encke, Halley). This comet returns to Earth’s
vicinity periodically and is classified as ______ (long-period, short-
period) comet. It is seen in the sky every ______ (76, 85) years. The
last time it reappeared was in 1986 and is predicted to come again
in ______ (2062, 2071).
This comet was named after ______ (Edmund Halley, Franz
Encke), an English astronomer, who studied the reports of a comet
77

approaching Earth. Halley didn't live to see the comet's return, but
his discovery led to the comet being named after him.
Subject: Science
Grade Level: 8
Quarter: II
Competency: Explain the regular occurrence of meteor showers.
(S8ES-IIi-j-24)
Short Answer Test

Directions: Read and answer the questions correctly.
A meteor shower is a celestial event in which the number of meteors

is observed to radiate, or originate, from one point in the night sky.
These meteors are caused by streams of cosmic debris called
meteoroids entering earth`s atmosphere at extremely high speeds
in parallel trajectory.
78

1. What is a meteor shower?
2. Where do meteor showers originate?
3. When does a meteor shower occur?
4. Why do meteors seem to originate in only one point in the

sky?
5. Where does meteor shower get its name?
Sequencing Events
Directions: Arrange the following statements based on how the
events happen. Use numbers 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 to indicate the
arrangement of how meteor showers occur.
_____ Comets orbit the sun and leave fragments along their
orbit.
_____ These fragments continue to orbit the Sun just like their
parent comets.
_____ The meteor shower is named after the constellation
where
they seem to originate from.
_____ During a meteor shower, meteors seem to originate
from
79

only one point in the sky because the meteoroids are
travelling in parallel paths with the same velocity.
_____ When Earth orbits the Sun and passes through the orbit
of a
comet where these comet fragments are found, many
streaks of light are seen from Earth which is called
meteor shower.
Completion Test
Directions: Make a flowchart explaining how a meteor shower
occurs. Use the guide questions on the side in filling the
chart.
1. What do comets/asteroids leave along their orbit

as it revolves around the sun?
2. What happen to those materials left by comets/

asteroids?
3. What happen when Earth orbits the sun and

80

passes through the orbit of a comet where
fragments are found?
4. Why do meteors seem to originate in only

one point in the sky during meteor shower?
5. Where does a meteor shower get its name
Subject: Science
Grade Level: 8
Quarter: III
Competency: Explain the properties of solids, liquids, and gases
based on the particle nature of matter
(S8MT-IIIa-b-8)
Table Completion
Directions: Differentiate the properties of the states of matter by
completing the table below.
81

Properties
States of
Volume and Compressibilit
Matter Viscosity
Shape y
Solid Fixed volume (1) Does not flow
and shape easily
Liquid (2) (3) Flow easily
Gas (4) Highly (5)

Compressible
True or False
wrong.
___________ 1. Liquids are difficult to compress.
___________ 2. Molecules of solid are not close to one another.
___________ 3. Matter is anything that has mass and takes up space.
___________ 4. Molecules of gases are well separated with no regular
arrangement.
___________ 5. In general, as the temperature rises, matter moves to
a
more steady state.
Essay
Directions: Answer the question below comprehensively.
Why do gas molecules move rapidly while solids do

not? 82

_______________________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________.
Subject: Science
Grade Level: 8
Quarter: III
Competency: Explain physical changes in terms of the
arrangement and motion of atoms and molecules
(S8MT-IIIc-d-9)
Matching Type
Directions: Match the situation with the corresponding phase
change.
Write the letter only.
Situation Phase
Change
83

1. ice cube placed in a glass of water A. condensation
2. drying laundry under the sun B. deposition
3. making of popsicle C. evaporation
4. turning dry ice into fog D. freezing
5. formation of dew on the leaves E. melting
F. sublimation
Short Answer Test

Directions: Answer the questions with reference to the diagram
below:
Phase Diagram
http://www.kentchemistry.com/links/Matter/PhaseChanges.html
84

1. When do sublimation and deposition occur?
2. What is the difference between condensation and
vaporization?
3. Describe what happens to the temperature and pressure
during melting and freezing.
Multiple Choice
1. What happens to the water particles when ice melts?
A. It gains energy and begins to move.
B. It loses energy and begins to move.
C. It moves very far apart and gains energy.
D. It comes close together and loses energy.
2. What is produced when water changes from liquid to gas at

room temperature?
A. fog
B. ice
C. steam
D. water vapor
3. What change in the state of matter occurs when solid particles
begin to move away from each other?
A. boiling
B. condensation
C. melting http://sciencequiz.net/jcscience/jcchemistry/states_of_matter/matter_mcq.htm
D. sublimation
4. Which states of matter is the term "fluid" can be described?
A. gas and liquid
85

B. liquid and solid
C. solid and gas
D. solid, liquid and gas
5. This diagram shows how particles of a gas occupy space,
move randomly at high speeds in three dimensions and collide
with each other with the container. The arrows represent the
velocities of the gas particles. What property best explains the
illustration?
A. It does not flow.
B. It has definite shape.
C. It can be compressed. http://sciencequiz.net/jcscience/jcchemistry/states_of_matter/matter_mcq.htm
D. It moves randomly at all direction.
Subject: Science
Grade Level: 8
Quarter: III
Competency: Determine the number of protons, neutrons, and
electrons in a particular atom (S8MT-IIIe-f-10)
Fill in the Blank

Directions: Fill in the blanks with the correct word from the box to
atom electrons element ion neutron

proton
What is an Atom?
All substances are made up of matter and the fundamental
unit of matter is the (1)______. The atom constitutes the smallest
86

particle of a/an (2)______. The atom is made of a central nucleus
containing (3)______ (positively-charged) and (4)______ (with no
charge). The (5)______ (negatively-charged with negligible mass)
revolve/s around the nucleus in different imaginary paths called
orbitals or shells.
Multiple Choice
1. Who first developed the concept of atom as the smallest

indivisible piece of matter?
A. Arnold Sommerfeld
B. Democritus
C. Joseph J. Thomson
D. Niels Bohr
2. Which of the following statement is TRUE?

A. The number of protons is equal to the mass number.
B. Atomic weight is approximately equal to atomic mass.
C. Mass number is approximately equal to atomic number.
D. Isotopes are elements having the same atomic masses but
different atomic numbers.
87

3. Who discovered the electron?
A. Ernest Rutherford
B. Erwin Schrödinger
C. John Dalton
D. Joseph J. Thomson
4. What atomic model did Joseph J. Thomson propose?

A. Nuclear Model
B. Planetary Model
C. Plum Pudding Model
D. Quantum Mechanical Model
5. Which of these does NOT conclude Rutherford’s alpha particle

scattering experiment?
A. The atom is mostly an empty space.
B. The electrons move around in the space outside the
nucleus.
C. Massive, negatively-charged particles are scattered within
the atom.
D. There is a small and heavy mass with positive charge at
the center of the atom known as the nucleus.
Table Completion
Directions: Complete the chart below. Use your periodic table for the
symbol of the element.
88

Atomic Mass Symbol of Number of Number of
Number Number the Protons Neutrons
Element
23 12
19 K
27
Subject: Science
Grade Level: 8
Quarter: III
Competency: Trace the development of the periodic table from
observations based on similarities in properties of
elements. (S8MT-IIIg-h-11)
Sequencing Event
Directions: Arrange in chronological order the development of the
periodic table. Write letters from A to E on the space
provided.
___ 1. John Newland (Great Britain) arranged the elements in order
of
their increasing atomic weights into sets of eight elements
called
Law of Octaves.
___ 2. Antoine Lavoisier (France) arranged the elements into groups

of
simple substances that do not decompose by any means.
89

___ 3. Dmetri Mendeleev (Russia) arranged the elements in order of
increasing atomic weights in a graphical method; but in
addition, he left gaps for still undiscovered elements.
___ 4. Johann W. Dobereiner (Sweden) arranged the elements in

triads.
___ 5. Lothar Meyer (Germany) arranged elements in order of

increasing atomic weights in graphical method made by
plotting atomic volume against the relative atomic mass
explaining the anomalies in Newland’s Table.
Fill in the Blank

Directions: Fill in the blanks with the correct word/s from the box to
atomic number elements increasing modern periodic

table
periodic law periodically regularly
The organization of the (1) __________ in the periodic table are

all related to their electronic structures. The (2) __________ states
that properties of the elements vary periodically with the atomic
numbers. It is because the elements vary in a regular way with
increasing (3) __________. This becomes the basis for the
arrangement of the elements in the (4) __________. Each horizontal
row of the periodic table is called a (5) __________ while each vertical
column is called a (6) __________ or family.
True or False
90

wrong.
in the periodic table,
___________ 1. each horizontal row is called a period.
___________ 2. each vertical column is called a group or family.
___________ 3. transition elements are the elements in groups 1-2
and
13-18.
___________ 4. group 16 elements are called noble gases.
___________ 5. the metals are found on the left of the metalloids
(except hydrogen), and the nonmetals on the right
side.
Subject: Science
Grade Level: 8
Quarter: III
Competency: Use the periodic table to predict the chemical
behavior of an element (S8MT-IIIi-j-12)
Short Answer Test

Directions: Arrange the following elements according to the property
and trend given.
1. increasing atomic radius K Na Rb

2. increasing ionization energy S Se O
3. decreasing electron affinity Br F Cl
4. decreasing metallic property Al Mg Na
5. increasing reactivity K Rb Cs
True or False
91

wrong.
Write the answer on your paper.
________ 1. Metallic properties decrease within a period.
________ 2. Metals have the tendency to lose electrons and become
cations.
________ 3. Atomic size within the same group decreases from top to
bottom.
________ 4. Elements with high ionization energies tend to have very
metallic properties.
________ 5. Electronegativity decreases from top to bottom within
the
same group of elements.
Sentence Completion
Directions: Read the following items and fill in the blanks with the
correct word/s from the box below.
electron configuration electronegativity energy levels

valence electrons valence shell reactivity
1. The ease and speed with which metal reacts with another
substance is called ___________.
2. The highest energy level that an electron occupies is referred
to as ___________.
3. Electrons that are involved in the chemical reactions are called
___________.
4. Electron shells are also called ____________ because each of
them correspond to a particular energy.
5. The way electrons of an atom are distributed in various energy
levels or electron shells is called ____________.
92

Multiple Choice
1. Which of the following atoms has the smallest atomic radius?
A. Aluminum (Al)
B. Boron (B)
C. Gallium (Ga)
D. Indium (In)
2. The following elements belong to period 3, which of these is

the most electronegative?
A. Chromium (Cr)
B. Magnesium (Mg)
C. Manganese (Mn)
D. Titanium (Ti)
3. Which of the following is NOT a metalloid?

A. Antimony (Sb)
B. Germanium (Ge)
93

C. Iodine (I)
D. Silicon (Si)
4. Which of the following atoms has the least tendency to give

up electrons?
A. Cobalt (Co)
B. Fluorine (F)
C. Lithium (Li)
D. Phosphorus (P)
5. Which of these statements is TRUE?

A. Metals are good reducing agents.
B. Metals have high ionization energies.
C. There are more non-metallic elements than metallic
elements.
D. Electronegativity and electron affinity are both measures of
how an atom gives off electrons.
94

Subject: Science
Grade Level: 8
Quarter: 4
Competency: Explain ingestion, absorption, assimilation, and
excretion.
(S8LT-IVa-13)
Picture Analysis
Directions: Identify the parts and functions of the digestive system.

Write your answers in the table below.
The Digestive System’s Parts and Functions
95

Matching Type
Directions: Match the parts of the digestive system with their

appropriate descriptions.
Descriptions Parts of the Digestive System
1. first peristaltic action takes place A. Large intestine

here
2. food is masticated here so its B. Stomach

surface
96

area will increase
3. muscular churning takes place here C. Mouth
4. undigested particles move in this D. Anus

part
5. this part is where undigested E. Rectum

particles
are excreted
F. Esophagus
Short Answer Test (Sequencing Events)
Directions: From numbers 1 to 5, give the correct sequence of the

chemical digestion of food, absorption and assimilation of
nutrients. Write the number on the space provided.
___ A. Digested food particles are absorbed through villi and

microvilli structures in the small intestine out of
diffusion and other cell transport mechanisms.
___ B. Digestion of fats, (emulsification using bile and

digestion through lipase), carbohydrates (through
amylases from pancreas) and protein (through
97

pancreatic and intestinal enzymes) takes place in the
small intestine.
___ C. Liver process food nutrients in blood to become

compounds vital for living. Cells then make use of
various nutrients processed in the liver.
___D. Hydrochloric acid and other stomach juices mix with food
to break down fats and proteins into smaller molecules.
___E. Salivary amylase starts to digest carbohydrates breaking

it
into smaller compounds.
Essay
Directions: Discuss how food absorption and assimilation of

nutrients takes place in the digestive system. Mention
briefly the interactions of Digestive System to other
organ systems.
Chemical Digestion: Absoption and Assimilation of Food Nutrients
_______________________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________________________
98

_____________________________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________.
Subject: Science
Grade Level: 8
Quarter: 4
Competency: Explain how diseases of the digestive system are
prevented, detected, and treated. (S8LT-IVb-14)
Multiple Choice
1. What is the disease of the digestive system that is characterized
by extreme diarrhea with rapid and severe depletion of body
fluids and salts caused by a bacteria infecting the small intestine?
99

A. cholecystitis
B. cholera
C. inflammatory bowel disease
D. jaundice
2. What is the digestive system disorder characterized by delayed

passage of waste through the lower portion of the large intestine
and discharge of hardened and dry feces?
A. constipation
B. diarrhea
C. hepatitis
D. hernia
3. What disease of the digestive system is characterized by the

inflammation of the liver that results from a variety of causes either
infectious or non-infectious agents?
A. cirrhosis
B. gastritis
C. hepatitis
D. ulcerative colitis
4. What is the disease of the digestive system having symptoms

which includes the abnormal and swift passage of waste material
through the large intestine, with consequent discharge of loose
feces from the anus? A. celiac disease
B. Crohn disease
C. diarrhea
D. irritable bowel syndrome

100

5. What is the disease of the digestive system whose symptoms
includes
Heart burn with burning sensation in the chest and upper
abdomen?
A. appendicitis
B. Celiac Disease
C. esophageal cancer
D. gastro esophageal reflux disease
True or False

not.
1. Eating at the right time, the right kind and the right amount
of
food is the best way of keeping our digestive system
healthy.
2. One must be mindful to eat food that is rich in fiber to

avoid loose bowel movement and other diseases in the
digestive system.
3. One must take at least 5 glasses of water a day for proper

digestion and elimination of wastes.
4. Vitamins and minerals deficiency can be avoided if one

carefully plans his menu.
101

5. An ideal food plate should contain ¾ full of vegetables and
fruits.
Subject: Science
Grade Level: 8
Quarter: 4
Competency: Identify healthful practices that affect the digestive
system. (S8LT-IVc-15)
Picture Analysis
Directions: Based on the pictures below, identify the digestive

disease a person is suffering from. Mention at least one common
cause of such disease.
1.
102

Photo credits http://www.caretricks.com/health/appendicitis-causes-symptoms-diagnosis-treatment/
Disease:_________________________________________________
Cause: _________________________________________________
2.
Photo credits: https://www.fascrs.org/patients/disease-condition/colon-cancer-expanded-version
Disease:_________________________________________________
Cause: _________________________________________________
3.
Photo credits: https://www.drugs.com/health-guide/gastroesophageal-reflux-disease-gerd.html
Disease:_________________________________________________
103

Cause: _________________________________________________
4.
Photo credits: http://www.mayoclinic.org/diseases-conditions/cirrhosis/home/ovc-20187218
Disease:________________________________________________
Cause: ________________________________________________
5.
Photo credits: https://hepcassoc.org/Whatishepatitisc.html
Disease:________________________________________________
Cause: ________________________________________________
104

Short Answer Test (Checklist)
Directions: Read the following statements below and place a check

mark on the agree column if the statement shows a good
practice of keeping the digestive system healthy and
place a check mark on the disagree column if it’s not a
good practice and fill in the reason in the column
provided.
Statements Agree Disagree Reason for

disagreeing
1. Careful planning of meal can
help maintain a healthy
digestive system.
2. Regular excretion of wastes
like feces promotes healthy
intestines.
3. Eating junk food improves
the process of digestion.
4. Nutrient deficiency can be
minimized by taking the right
kind and the right amount of
food.
5. Regular excersice can help
in improving peristaltic
movement and digestion.
105

True or False
Directions: Write TRUE if the statement below describes a practice

that
keeps the digestive sytem healthy and FALSE if it’s not.
1. Food rich in fats and oil should be taken moderately.

2. Exercise and healthy lifestyle can help in maintaining
a
healthy digestive system.
3. People having problems with regulating their sugar
intake should eliminate food rich in carbohydrates.
4. To avoid peptic ulcers, one must always eat on time.
5. Eating fibrous food will help eliminate wastes easily.
6. Fatty liver can be avoided by drinking alcohol.
7. Drinking softdrinks with an empty stomach can help
digest food.
8. Proper diet can reduce the risk of having gallstones.
9. Stress should be managed to avoid problems like
indigestion and loose bowel movement.
10. One good way to avoid cholera is to make sure that
the water is safe to use.
106

Test IV Essay
Directions: Discuss how a person can keep his digestive system

healthy?
Mention practices that promotes a healthy digestive

system.
_______________________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________________________
______________________________________.
107

Subject: Science
Grade Level: 8
Quarter: 4
Competency: Compare mitosis and meiosis, and their role in the
cell-
division cycle. (S8LT-IVd-16)
Multiple Choice
1. What is the longest part of the cell cycle?
A. S phase
B. G2 phase
C. Interphase
D. Mitotic phase
2. What do you call the protein where the DNA coils around to form
a
chromatin?
A. histone
B. keratin
C. lactase
D. transcriptase
108

3. Cells that mature leave the cell cycle and are arrested at _____
phase.
A. G 0
B. G 1
C. G 2
D. S
4. Sister chromatids are attached in a point called _______________.
A. centromere
B. kinetochore
C. p arms
D. q arms
5. The specific phase of the cell cycle that ensures the replication of
the DNA is _______.
A. G0
B. G1
C. G 2
D. S
109

6. What is the role of mitosis?
A. growth and repair of tissues
B. preservation of species
C. formation of gametes
D. variation of species
7. What’s the role meiosis in the living world?
A. growth and repair of tissues
B. preservation of species
C. control of deformities
D. repair of genes
8. How many daughter cells are produced after mitosis?
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5
9. If an organism has 8 chromosomes, how many
chromosomes will be produced in each daughter cell after

meiosis?
110

A. 8
B. 6
C. 4
D. 2
10. How would you describe the nature of daughter cells produced
in
mitosis?
A. completely different from the parent cell.
B. partly the same to that of the parent cell.
C. almost alike to that of the parent cell
D. exactly alike from the parent cell.
Picture Analysis
111

Directions: Using the picture below, arrange the stages of mitosis
and
describe each stage.
Picture Credits:
http://www.town.hull.ma.us/Public_Documents/HullMA_HighSchClass/Blair/mitosis
%20questions (w/ modification)
No. Stage Name

First Stage : ___ ____________
Description: _________________________________________
Second Stage : ___ ________

Description: _________________________________________
Third Stage : ___ ________

Description: _________________________________________
Fourth Stage : ___ ________

Description: _________________________________________
Matching Type
112

Directions: Match the stages of meiosis with their corresponding
descriptions.
Descriptions Stages of Meiosis

1. Nucleus starts to re-appear, cytoplasm is A. Prophase 1
finally divided, chromosomes uncoil.
2. Homologous chromosomes break apart B. Telophase 2
and moves towards the opposite poles.
3. Sister chromatids start to re-appear. C. Prophase 2
4. Centromeres break as spindle fibers D. Anaphase 1
contract, pulling the sister chromatids
toward the opposite poles.
5. Homologous chromosomes align E. Telophase 1
themselves side by side at the center.
6. Sister chromatids align themselves at the F. Metaphase 1
center.
7. Nucleus starts to reappear, sister G. Anaphase 2
chromatids uncoil and become less visible.
8. Homologous chromosomes become visible. H. Metaphase 2
I. Interphase 1
Table Completion
Directions: Given the basis below, compare mitosis from meiosis.
Comparison between Mitosis and Meiosis
Criterion Mitosis Meiosis
113

Importance
No. of daughter cells

produced
No. of stages involved
Daughter cells
compared to the parent
cell (in genetic
content).
No./set of chromosomes
(haploid/diploid)
Subject: Science
Grade Level: 8
Quarter: 4
Competency: Explain the significance of meiosis in maintaining the
chromosome number. (S8LT-IVe-17)
Multiple Choice
114

1. How many sperm cells are produced in every cell that undergoes
spermatogenesis?
A. 2
B. 4
C. 6
D. 8
2. How many oocyte(s) is/are produced in every cell that completes

oogenesis?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
3. How many nuclear division(s) is/are taking place in meiosis?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
115

4. In what stage of meiosis does the actual reduction of
chromosome
number occur?
A. Anaphase 1
B. Anaphase 2
C. Telophase 1
D. Telophase 2
5. In what stage of meiosis does crossing over takes place?
A. Metaphase 1
B. Metaphase 2
C. Prophase 1
D. Prophase 2
Matching Type
Directions: Match the chromosomal aberration with its description.
Description Chromosomal aberration

1. Presence of 3 copies of A. Klinefelter’s syndrome
chromosome 21
116

2. Part of chromosome 5 is lost B. Edward’s syndrome
during cell division
3. XXY chromosome condition in C. Down Syndrome
chromosome 23
4. Only one pair of sex D. Turner’s Syndrome
chromosome is seen (X, 0)
5. Presence of an extra 18th E. Cri du chat syndrome
chromosome
F. Patau syndrome
Fill in the blank
Directions: Fill in the blank with the correct word to complete the
idea of each sentence in the paragraph below.
Meiosis and the Preservation of Species
Meiosis is a specialized type of cell division that reduces

the (1)________ (chromosome, chromatin) number by half,
creating four (2)________ (haploid, diploid) cells which are
genetically distinct from the parent cell. This process occurs in all __
(3)________ (asexually, sexually) reproducing single-celled
and multicellular eukaryotes, including animals, plants, and fungi.
Errors in meiosis resulting in (4)_______ (aneuploidy, polyploidy)
usually causes miscarriage and developmental disabilities.
Meiosis is important for the preservation of species and

for (5)_______ (variation, growth). It ensures that the gamete
it produces are different from each other at some extent to create
variation among species. This is made possible by the process called
(6)_____ (tetrad formation, crossing-over) happening in prophase 1
where genetic material is exchanged between homologues. Meiosis
ensures that only species of the same kind will be able to
___(7)_______ (self-pollinate , interbreed) as it produces haploid cells
117

containing only __ (8) _ (half, a quarter) of the number of
chromosomes that it contained at the start of the process. Once the
sperm meets its egg counterpart in the process of_____ (9)________
(fertilization, gastrulation) , the cell attains a complete set of
chromosome. Meiosis therefore conserves the number of
(10)________ (gametes, chromosomes) among species as it ensures
that only the sperm and the egg of the same kind will be able to
restore the diploid number of chromosomes among the organisms
involved.
Subject: Science
Grade Level: 8
Quarter: 4
Competency: Predict phenotypic expressions of traits following
simple patterns of inheritance. (S8LT-IVf-18)
Multiple Choice
118

1. During gamete formation, the pair of genes separate from each
other. This is stated in what Mendelian law?
A. co-dominance
B. dominance
C. independent assortment
D. segregation
2. What does the law of dominance says?
A. A trait is expressed more when present in heterozygous

form than in homozygous form.
B. Dominant traits are not expressed not until it is combined

with an allele of the same kind.
C. Recessive traits are expressed over dominant traits.
D. Dominant traits are expressed whenever it is present.
3. What does the law of independent assortment says about gamete
formation and genes? They __________.
A. separate from each other freely
B. are linked to each other
C. blend with each other
D. join with each other
4. What is a gene? It is a/an __________.
A. DNA segment that codes for a certain protein/trait
119

B. trait that is based on a protein
C. RNA that codes for a protein
D. protein that leads to a trait
5. What is an allele? It is a __________.
A. point that connects two sister chromatids
B. segment of a given chromosome
C. variant form of a given gene
D. locus in a gene
Picture Analysis
Directions: Study the illustrations below and give the possible

genotypes of the gametes. Apply the Mendelian law of
segregation and independent assortment. Write your
answer inside each sex cell.
120

Table Completion
Directions: Fill in the Punnett square by crossing the Pea Plants with
the
given traits. Supply the phenotypic and genotypic ratios
in
each cross.
121

A. Monohybrid Cross
Heterozygous Tall Pea Plant that will undergo self-pollination
(Note: Tall is dominant over short)
Phenotypic Ratio: _______________
Genotypic Ratio: ________________
Male
Female
B. Dihybrid Cross
Heterozygous yellow seed color homozygous axial flower position

crossed with homozygous yellow seed color terminal flower
position.
(Note: Yellow seed color is dominant over green, axial flower

position is dominant over terminal)
Male
Female
122

Phenotypic Ratio: _______________
Genotypic Ratio: ________________
Subject: Science
Grade Level: 8
Quarter: 4
Competency: Explain the concept of a species. (S8LT-IVg-19)
Fill in the Blank
Directions: Supply what is asked. Write your answer on the space

provided.
1. A group of individuals that interbreed in nature is called

____________.
2. The diversity of animals and plants present in a community is

called ____________.
123

3. The one who devised the binomial system of naming organisms
is ____________
4. The lowest among the taxonomic ranks is ____________.
5. Scientific name have two important parts, the _____________

name and the species name.
True of False
Directions: Write True if the statement about species and

biodiversity is TRUE and FALSE if it’s not.
1. Species diversity refers to the level of biological diversity that

describes as to how many kinds of species are there in a
particular place.
2. If two species interbreed and they always produce an offspring

that is sterile, the offspring produced is not a species.
3. The richness of interactions present in a particular place between

organisms and the place they live is what genetic diversity is all
about.
4. All organisms in the world are already classified and had been
given scientific names.
5. Gene pool variation is measured through the genetic diversity of

species living in a place.
Essay
Directions: Discuss the concept of species and biodiversity through

an essay. Write your answer on the space provided.
My Understanding of Biodiversity and Species
124

_____________________________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________________________
_____________________________.
Subject: Science
Grade Level: 8
Quarter: 4
Competency: Classify organisms using the hierarchical taxonomic
system. (S8LT-IVh-20)
Multiple Choice
1. What domain represents organisms whose cell wall composition is

different from the usual and is considered to be ancient?
A. archaea
B. eubacteria
125

C. eukarya
D. protista
2. What kingdom is characterized of organisms whose cell walls

have peptidoglycans and carbohydrates?
A. archaea
B. eubacteria
C. eukarya
D. protista
3. What do you call plants that bear fruits and flowers?
A. angiosperms
B. bryophytes
C. ferns
D. gymnosperms
4. What do you call plants that have no tissues for food and water
transport?
A. flowering
B. non flowering
C. non vascular
D. vascular
126

5. Which of the following presents the correct hierarchy of
classification of organisms?
A. kingdom, phylum, class, family, order, genus, species
B. kingdom, phylum, family, class, order, genus, species
C. kingdom, phylum, family, order, class, genus, species
D. kingdom, phylum, class, order, family, genus, species
Matching Type
Directions: Match the representative species with the phyla where

they belong in.
Phyla Representative Species
1. Nematoda A. Snake
2. Chordata B. Tape worm
3. Molusca C. Star fish
4. Platyhelminthes D. Ascaris
5. Arthopoda E. Sponges
6. Annelida F. Centipede
7. Echinodermata G. Earthworm
8. Cnidaria H. Corals
9. Porifera I. Mussels
J. Dragon
127

Concept Mapping
Fill in the boxes with the appropriate term.
128

Subject: Science
Grade Level: 8
Quarter: 4
Competency: Explain the advantage of high biodiversity in
maintaining
the stability of an ecosystem. (S8LT-IVh-21)
True or False
Directions: Write TRUE if the statement describes the endangered

species and FALSE if it’s not.
1. An endangered species is a type of organism that is threatened

to become extinct.
2. Species become endangered for two main reasons: loss
of habitat and loss of genetic variation.
3. High genetic variation is a factor that can lead species to be

extinct.
4. High consumption of shark fins soup affects the population of

sharks seriously.
129

5. Conversion of forests into industrial and residential lands
improves
animals’ habitat.
Situation Analysis
Directions: Read each situation carefully. Answer the questions given

and identify possible solution to the given problem.
Situations Questions Possible solutions

1. A place has lots of What is the effect of the
coconuts in one genetic said virus to the entire
variation. A virus suddenly coconut industry in the
affected the said coconut said area?
variety causing it to bear
less fruits thereby
affecting the farmers’
income. Many of the
coconuts eventually died
after a year of infection.
2. Continued housing What is the effect of the
projects of the housing projects to the
government caused the habitat of the tarsiers?
conversion of forests into
residential lots. Many
tasiers are living in the
said forest. This caused
stress to these animals
whose population is
130

already critical.
3. Pawikan eggs are sold What is the effect of this
by the natives into the activity to the population
market. Some of the of pawikan?
pawikans are slaughtered
for economic reasons.
Essay
Directions: Discuss how genetic diversity and population level of

species affect ecological stability.
The Effect of Genetic Diversity and Population Levels of Species to

Ecological Stability.
_______________________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________.
131

Subject: Science
Grade Level: 8
Quarter: 4
Competency: Describe the transfer of energy through the trophic
levels. (S8LT-IVi-22)
Multiple Choice
1. What is the original source of energy in the biosphere?
A. decomposers
B. moon
C. producers
D. sun
2. What do you call the organisms capable of photosynthesis?
A. consumers
B. decomposers
C. plants
D. producers
132

3. What do you call the organisms that obtain energy by eating
other organisms?
A. consumers
B. decomposers
C. plants
D. producers
4. When you eat something, how much of the energy is

approximately transferred to you?
A.10%
B. 20%
C. 30%
D. 40%
5. What form of energy is released to the biosphere when one eat

something?
A. chemical energy
B. heat
C. light
D. mechanical energy
133

Picture Analysis
Directions: Study the picture carefully. Answer the questions below.
Picture credits: http://k8schoollessons.com/food-chains-food-webs/
1. What organisms served as producers?
___________________________________________________________________
2. In what order consumer do rabbit, grasshopper and rat belong?
__________________________________________________________________
3. Between the python and the eagle (food chain 3), who gets most
of the energy from the producer?
__________________________________________________________________
4. In what order of consumer do fox, owl and frog belong?
__________________________________________________________________
5. As one consumes another organism, what form of energy is

released?
__________________________________________________________________
134

True or False
Directions: Write true if the statement about the energy pyramid is

correct and false if it’s not.
Picture credits: http://kids.britannica.com/elementary/art-215105/An-energy-pyramid-is-a-model-that-shows-the-
1. Much of the energy from the producer to tertiary consumer is lost

in the form of heat.
2. Grasses and plants capture energy from the sun through

photosynthesis.
3. Snakes belong to third order consumer.
4. Rabbits received lesser amount of energy compared to the

eagles.
5. Eagle belongs to the 3rd order consumer.
135

Subject: Science
Grade Level: 8
Quarter: 4
Competency: Analyze the roles of organisms in the cycling of
materials. (S8LT-IVi-23)
Multiple Choice
Directions: Read each item carefully. Encircle the letter of the correct
answer.
1. In the carbon-oxygen cycle, what is the process responsible for

the production of oxygen made by plants?
A. oxygenation
B. photosynthesis
C. respiration
D. transpiration
2. Nitrogen in air is converted into nitrates through the process of

nitrification carried by what kind of organism?
A. animals
B. bacteria
C. flowering plants
D. leguminous plants
136

3. When organisms die, their remains are decomposed by
bacteria who returns the nitrogen back to the air in what
form?
A. liquefied nitrogen
B. nitrogen gas
C. nitrates
D. protein
4. Water cycle cannot take place in the absence of what

element?
A. human
B. moon
C. sun
D. trees
5. What do you call the conversion of liquid water in plant

leaves into water vapor?
A. condensation
B. evaporation
C. precipitation
D. transpiration
Table Completion
137

Directions: Fill in the table with the organisms involved in the
processes being described.
Events in Biogeochemical Cycles Organism Involved

NITROGEN CYCLE
Denitrification out of remains of living 1.
things
Ammonification of N2 in air 2.
CARBON-OXYGEN CYCLE
Releasing of Carbon dioxide through 3.
respiration
Absorption of carbon dioxide 4.
Release of oxygen in air 5.
WATER CYCLE
Release of water vapor in air through 6.
transpiration
True or False
Directions: Write TRUE if the statement describes the

biogeochemical cycle and FALSE if it’s not.
1. The hotter the day the faster is the rate of transpiration.
138

2. Humans can readily consume nitrogen in air for its
biological
needs.
3. Cellular respiration takes place both in plants and animals

to
utilize oxygen and release CO2.
4. Industrial plants can minimize nitrogen concentration in air.
5. Denitrifying bacteria use remains of living things to

produce N2
released in air.
Subject: Science
Grade Level: 8
Quarter: 4
Competency: Explain how materials cycle in an ecosystem.
139

(S8LT-IVi-24)
Picture Analysis
Directions: Identify the processes in water cycle as seen in the

picture below.
1. ______________________________
2. ______________________________
3. ______________________________
4. ______________________________
5. ______________________________
Diagram Making
Directions: Arrange the boxes below to show how carbon and

oxygen are cycled in the environment. Use arrows to link
one to another.
140

Fill in the blank
Directions: Read the selection below and choose the appropriate

term for each blank to complete the idea presented.
Nitrogen Cycle
Nitrogen is a vital element to sustain life. Nitrogen is

important to life because it is a key part of amino acids and
___1._____ (nucleic acids, sugars). Also, it is an important part of ATP,
which is the basic energy molecule for living things. It comprises
about ___2._____(78%, 79%) of air.
Neither plants nor animals can obtain nitrogen directly from

the atmosphere. Instead, they depend on a process known
as ____3_____ (nitrogen fixation, denitrification). Key players in this
process are legumes and the symbiotic___4._____ (fungi, bacteria)
which are associated with the legume's root nodules. These
organisms convert nitrogen in the soil to ___5._____ (ammonia,
proteins) which can then be taken up by plants. This process also
occurs in aquatic ecosystems, where cyanobacteria participate.
141

After nitrogen has been fixed, other bacteria convert it
___6._____ (nitrate, proteins), in a process known as nitrification.
Series of conversions takes place till it takes into a form that can be
assimilated by the plants which later is consumed by animals who in
turn gets the nitrogen containing compounds.
When plants and animals die, they are decomposed and the
decomposers perform the process called ___7._____ (ammonification,
denitrification) releasing the nitrogen back into the air.
Subject: Science
Grade Level: 8
Quarter: 4
Competency: Suggest ways to minimize human impact on the
environment. (S8LT-IVj-25)
142

Multiple Choice
1. Monoculture disrupts ecological balance as it

___________________.
A. displaces other organisms who plays a role in
sustaining the
ecosystem balance of the place.
B. causes the release of harmful gases to the

environment.
C. affects how water is cycled in an ecosystem.
D. disrupts cycling of phosphorous.
2. Why is it NOT advisable to use herbicides and insecticides for

a long period of time?
I. It can lessen harvest.
II. It requires skilled personnel to manage.
143

III. It can lead to biological magnification of the
chemical.
IV. It can wipe out population of certain insects which is

a
food to other organisms.
A. I and II
B. II and III
C. III and IV
D. IV and I
3. Some chemical fertilizers that reach the water in rivers can

cause
___________.
I. enhancement of water quality.
II. eutrophication.
III. death of many life forms in the river.
IV. improved crop yield and growth.
A. I and II
B. II and III
C. III and IV
D. IV and I
4. Continued release of CFCs in air can cause______________.
A. lesser incidence of asthma attacks.
B. decreased oxygen level in seas.
144

C. improvement of air quality.
D. global warming
5. The following are the harmful effects of herbicides and

insecticides EXCEPT________.
A. accumulation of the said chemicals in the food

pyramid
B. death of all insects including those which are

beneficial
C. death of all crops in the vicinity.
D. resistance to pesticides
Directions: Place a check mark if the given practice minimizes

negative impact of humans to the environment and x if it
does not.
Human Activities / or x
1. Hunting Butandings (Whale Shark)
2. Monoculture
3. Organic Farming
4. Land conversions
5. Use of Solar Energy
Table Completion
Directions: Suggest ways/activities that may be done to address

issues that disrupt balance in nature. Write down the
145

expected benefits it will give the environment. Write your
answers in the table provided.
Environmental Suggested Human Anticipated Positive Effects to the

Issues/Problems Activities Minimizing Environment
Impacts to Ecological
Balance
1. Pollution
2. Animal Extinction
3. Loss of habitat
4. Global Warming
5. Depletion of
Resources
Answers Key: Physics – Quarter I

Code: S8FE-Ia-15 (page 1)
Multiple Choice
1. B
2. B
146

3. D
4. A
5. C
Table Completion
net force mass acceleration

(N) (kg) (m/s2)
10 80 0.125
1000 20 50
2500 50 50
30 20 1.5
40 20 2
Matching Type
1. A
2. C
3. D
4. E
5. B
Answers Key
Code: S8FE-Ia-16 (page 5)
Multiple Choice
1. B
2. C
3. A
4. C
147

5. A
Problem Solving
1. 294N
2. 10N
3. 50N
4. 19.6N
5. 2940N
True or False
1. True
2. False
3. False
4. True
5. True
Answers Key
Code: S8FE-Ib-17 (page 8)
Short Answer
1. 2 N
2. balanced force, Force of gravity downward and normal force
3. The force going up (makes the ball climb at a certain height),

while acceleration going down (makes the ball slow in climbing and
eventually stop and go back to earth).
4. Force is balance
148

5. Passenger moves forward due to Inertia
Fill in the Blank

True or False
1.Unpaired
1.True
2. Pushes
2. True
3. Magnitude
3. False
4. Forces
4. False
5. equal
5. True
6. Forces
7. Upward
Short Answer Test

Answers Key
1. Rotation is the motion of a body
Code: S8FE-Ib-18 (page 11) turning about an axis, While circular
motion is a body.
Short Answer
2. An unbalance torque about an axis
1. see answer #4
produces an angular acceleration
2. centripetal force and centrifugal about an axis that is directly
force. proportional to the torque and
3. b inversely proportional to the moment

F
of inertia of the body.
4.
3. Centripetal force is a force directed
a to the center, While centrifugal is a
force directed away from the center.
149
4. Because large blade have large
Lead to Go, Love to Grow, Live tomoment
Glow of inertia.
5. Boiled egg will spin with greater

speed than the unboiled one.
5. the force is directed to the center (earth).
True or False
1.True
2. True
3. True
4. True
5. True
Answers Key
Code: S8FE-Ib-19 (page 13)
Multiple Choice
1. C
2. A
3. C
4. A
5. A
Short Answer Test
1.Centripetal
150

2. Unbalance
3. Centripetal
4. Energy
5. Centripetal and Centrifugal force
Fill in the Blank
1.Accelerated
2. Body
3. Centripetal force
4. Center
5. Magnitude
Answers Key
Code: S8FE-Ic-20 (page 16)

1. NW
2. NW
3. W
4. NW
5. W
Problem Solving
1. 600 J
2. 500,000 J
3. 145.45 N
151

4. 0 J
5. A pushing cart
Fill in the Blank
1. Product
2. Applied
3. Movement
4. Work
5. Used
Answers Key
Code: S8FE-Ic-21 (page 18)
Multiple Choice Matching Type
1. A 1. B
2. A
2. D
3. C
3. A
4. D
4. A 5. F
5. A
True or False
1. True
152

2. True
3. True
4. True
5. True
Answers Key
Code: S8FE-Id-22 (page 21)
True or False
1.True
2. True
3. True
4. True
5. True
Problem Solving
1.6,860 J
2. 160 J
3. 58.8 J
4. 60,000 J
153

5. 490 N
Fill in the Blank
1. Energy
2. Joule
3. Potential energy
4. Kinetic energy
5. Work
Answers Key
Code: S8FE-Id-23 (page 23)
Problem Solving
1.8,820 J
2. 45,000 J
3. 0.625 J
4. 400 J
5. 0.95 m/s
True or False
1. T
2. T
3. T
4. T
5. T
154

Table Completion
Work ( J ) Power ( J/S ) Energy ( J )

1.120 40 120
2. 3,000 750 3,000
3. 12,000 2,400 12,000
4. 900 180 900
5. 6,000 857 6,000
Answers Key
Code: S8FE-Ie-24 (page 25)
True or False
1. True
2. True
3. True
4. True
5. True
Short Answer Test
1. Pitch
2. Intensity
3. Resonance
4. Doppler’s effect
5. Beat
155

Problem Solving
1. 343m/s
2. 340.6 m/s
3. approximately 993 m away
4. 353.8 near the surface 352.20 Above
5. 354.4 m/s
Answers Key
Code: S8FE-Ie-25 (page 27)
Fill in the Blank

1. Longitudinal
2. Medium
Short Answer Test
(Answers from number 3 to 7 can 1. Sound changes its pitch
be interchanged) 2. F1 increasing pitch F2 decreasing pitch
3. Reflected 3. Changes the pitch or frequency
4. Same observation in F1
4. Refracted
5. Same observation in F2
5. Diffracted
6. Interference
7. Resonance
Matching Type
1. B
2. C
156

3. D
4. E
5. A
Answers Key
Code: S8FE-If-26 (page 30)
Fill in the blank
I. Spectrum
Multiple Choice
2. Violet
1. A
3. Lowest
2. B
4. Highest 3. B
4. A
5. Rainbow
5. B
True or False
1.T
2.T
3. T
4. T
5. T
157

Answers Key
Short Answer Test
I. ROYGBIV (colors)
2. violet
3. above other colors (or first among the visible colors)
4. violet
5. red
Essay (Key ideas to look for in the answer)
1. The greater the n, the more it is bend.
2. Colors in spectrum are arranged in terms of higher to lower
frequency and longest to shortest wavelength.
3. The speed of light decreases in the glass.
4. Light changes it speed when it enters into another medium,
thus this will separate the different colors of light because
each color has different speed. When light enters into another
medium, it will bend in different direction.
5. Inversely proportional, as the index of refraction increases, the
speed of light decreases.
Short Answer Test
1.inversely proportional
2. normal line
3. violet
4. violet
5. red
158

Answers Key
Multiple Choice Fill in the blank
1. D 1. phenomenon
2. C 2. colors
3. indices
3. D
4. speed
4. C 5. refraction
5. D
Short Answer Test
1. violet
2. red
3. inversely proportional
4. refraction
5. normal line
159

Answers Key
Code: S8FE-Ig-29 (page 38)
Short Answer Test
1. Heat
2. Temperature
3. Radiation
4. Conduction
5. Specific Heat
Matching Type
1. A
2. D
3. C
4. E
5. F
Problem Solving
1. 50 cal
2. 600 cal
3. 5°C
4. 25 cal
5. 303 K
160

Answers Key
Code: S8FE-Ih-30 (page 40)
Short Answer Test
1. Current
2. Current
3. Coulomb
4. Voltmeter
5. Ammeter
Table Completion
Voltage (V) Current (A) Resistance (Ω)

3 .0 5.0 0.6
5.0 1.67 3.0
9.0 3.0 3.0
2.0 1.0 2.0
5.0 2.0 2.5
Matching type
1. f (Voltmeter)
2. e (Ammeter)
3. b (Voltage)
4. c (Resistance)
5. a (Current)
Answers Key
Code: S8FE-Ii-31 (page 42)

161
Short Answer
Lead to Go, Love to Grow,
1. 4 ΩLive to Glow
2. 1 Ω
3. Parallel connection, because it gives equal
voltage to all loads
4. Series connection, because if one load is
Multiple Choice
1. B
2. A
3. D
4. A
5. D
Short Answer Test
1. Voltage
2. Parallel Connection
3. Ampere
4. Series
5. 220-V
Answers Key
Identification
162

1. power
2. current
3. voltage
4. resistance
5. energy consumption
True or False
1. T
2. T
3. F (Close)
4. T
5. F (negative to positive)
Problem Solving
1. 440 watts
2. 0.27 A
3. 3.75 kwh
4. 7200 J
5. 110 Ω
Answers Key
Short Answer Test Problem Solving
1. overloading
1. Answer may vary
2. The longer the wire the higher the163
resistance, the smaller the cross-
sectional area the higher the
resistance.
3. In Series circuit, voltage is divided,
current is the same. While in parallel,
voltage is the same and current is
divided. (see formula)
occurs
2. Heating
occurs
3.Grounding
4. AVR
5. series
True or False
1. T
2. T
3. T
4. T
5. T
Answers Key: Earth Science – Quarter II

Code: S8ES-IIa-14 (page 49)
Matching Type
1. E
2. D
3. C
164

4. B
5. A
Identification
1. Dip-Slip Normal fault
2. Dip-Slip Reverse fault
3. Strike-slip Left-lateral
4. Strike-slip Right -lateral
5. Oblique-slip
Fill in the blank

Earthquakes occur repeatedly along faults which are
zones of weakness in the crust.These are formed when the forces
that move in different directions go beyond the elastic limit of the
rock masses. Shift in position results when two blocks slip or move
against one another. A tremendous amount of friction as plates
grind each other in different directions leads to jerky movements or
violent earthquakes. A dip-slip movement occurs when the hanging
wall moved predominantly up or down relative to the footwall
leading to a normal or reverse fault. A strike-slip movement, on the
other hand, happens when the hanging wall moves horizontally
thereby producing left lateral or right lateral fault. When the hanging
wall motion is neither dominantly vertical nor horizontal, the motion
is called oblique-slip.
Answers Key
Code: S8ES-IIa-15 (page 52)
1. F
2. F
3. F
4. E
165

5. E
Completion Type
Magnitude
Intensity
Strength of
-StrengthMagnitude
of
-Damage caused by an
shock waves
an earthquake Earthquake
-Richter Scale
-Mercalli Scale -Seismograph
Table Completion
Basis of Comparison Active Fault Inactive Fault
No. of earthquakes 1 or more O or none
produced
Records of Activity With seismic activities Without any seismic
(specify time element) during the last 10,000 activity for millions of
years years
Location where it In tectonic plate In the crust, mostly
tends to occur boundaries confined in the lower
sediments only.
Answers Key
Code: S8ES-IIb-16 (page 55)
1. True
2. True
3. True
4. False
5. True
166

Sequencing Events
3 Energy is released and is transferred to the water.
Two oceanic plates meet and collide with one another, storing energy between
1
them.
The displaced water forms into a wave and it travels into shallower water in
4 coastal area.
The two colliding plates move, the denser plate subducts and the lighter plate is
2
up thrusted.
5 The wave`s speed as it travels diminish but its heights increase drastically causes
destruction of life and property.
Picture Analysis
Epicenter location: Submarine, undersea or
on oceanic plates
Depth: Shallow Earthquakes
Answers Key
Code: S8ES-IIc-17 (page 58)
Sentence Completion
1. Primary waves
2. Body waves
3. Seismogram
4. Seismograph
5. Secondary waves
True or False
1. True
167

2. True
3. True
4. True
5. False
Fill in the blank
The deepest exploration made by man did not reach the mantle
layer. As the depth increases, temperature and pressure likewise increase
which served as obstacles for geologists to go further. Though studies
cannot be conducted directly a lot of information has been said about the
earth. These came from analyzing the behavior of seismic waves. The
seismic waves continually being refracted along a curved path as they
travel through the earth`s interior leads to the idea that the earth`s
interior is composed of materials of varying densities. Velocities of P and S
waves that increased abruptly as they pass through the mantle show that
mantle is composed of materials that have been elastic due to extreme
pressure. The idea of outer core is in solid form considers the velocity of S
wave that had gone to zero when it reached the outer core. Seismic waves
play an important role in providing scientists information about the nature
and composition of the earth interior.
Answers Key
Code: S8ES-IId-18 (page 61)
Identification
1. eye
2. eye wall
3. inner ring bands
4. outer ring bands
Multiple Choice
1. C
2. D
3. B
168

4. B
5. B
Fill in the blank
1. warm water
2. ocean water
3. high humidity
4. optimal location
5. Coriolis effect
Answers Key
Code: S8ES-IId-19 (page 65)
Multiple Choice
1. A
2. B
3. A
4. D
5. B
True or False
1. TRUE
2. TRUE
3. FALSE
169

4. TRUE
5. FALSE
Fill in the blank
1. Pacific Ocean 4. developing storm

2. geographic area 5. geographic location
3. optimal location
Answers Key
Code: S8ES-IIe-20 (page 69)
Multiple Choice
1. A
2. D
3. A
4. C
5. C
True or False
1. TRUE
2. FALSE
3. FALSE
4. TRUE
170

5. TRUE
Fill in the blank
1. bodies of water
2. energy
3. cold
4. weaken
5. high humidity
Answers Key
Code: S8ES-IIf-21 (page 72)
Picture Analysis
1. No
2. No
3. Yes
4. Yes
5. Yes
Multiple Choice
1. A
2. A
3. B
4. D
5. D
Tropical Cyclone Tracking:
171

Answers Key
Code: S8ES-IIg-22 (page 76)
Completion Test
1. main asteroid belt
2. varied/ irregular
3. silicates, iron, nickel
4. highly elliptical
5. 1 – 100

1. /
2. /
3. x
4. x
5. /
Fill in the blank

172

Another member of the solar system is the meteor. A
meteor is a light phenomenon. It is also called as shooting star. It
occurs when a meteoroid burns up when it enters the Earth’s
atmosphere. Meteors that are able to land on the surface of the
Earth are called meteorite. When Earth orbits the sun and passes
through the orbit of a comet where these comet fragments are
found, we observe a celestial event in which a number of meteors
radiate from one point in the sky. This phenomenon is called meteor
shower. Both meteor and meteor shower are not stars.
Answers Key
Code: S8ES-IIh-23 (page 78)
Completion Test
1910 1) 2062 3) 2214 5) 2366
1986 2) 2138 4) 2290
Multiple Choice
1. B
2. A
3. B
4. C
5. C
Fill in the blank

Comets appear in the sky from time to time. The most popular
one is Comet ______ (Encke, Halley). This comet returns to Earth’s
vicinity periodically and is classified as ______ (long-period, short-
173

period) comet. It is seen in the sky every ______ (76, 85) years. The
last time it reappeared was in 1986 and is predicted to come again
in ______ (2062, 2071).
This comet was named after ______ (Edmund Halley, Franz
Encke), an English astronomer, who studied the reports of a comet
approaching Earth. He didn't live to see the comet's return, but his
discovery led to the comet being named after him.
Answers Key
Code: S8ES-IIi-j-24 (page 81)
Short Answer Test
1. Meteor shower is a celestial event in which a number of
meteors are observed to radiate from one point in the sky.
2. Meteor shower originates from fragments of comets.
3. Meteor shower occurs when Earth orbits the sun and passes
through the orbit of a comet where fragments of comets are
found
4. Meteors seem to originate in only one point in the sky during
meteor shower because meteoroids travel in parallel paths
with the same velocity.
5. A meteor shower is named after the constellation where they
seem to come from.
Sequencing Events
1 _____ Comets orbit the sun and leave fragments along their
orbit.
2 _____ These fragments continue to orbit the Sun just like
their
parent comets.
5 _____ The meteor shower is named after the constellation
where
174

they seem to originate from.
4 _____ During a meteor shower, meteors seem to originate
from
only one point in the sky because the meteoroids are
travelling in parallel paths with the same velocity.
3 _____ When Earth orbits the Sun and passes through the
orbit of
a comet where these comet fragments are found,
many
streaks of light are seen from Earth which is called
meteor
shower.
Completion Test
Comets/ asteroids leave fragments along their orbit

as it revolves around the sun.
These fragments continue to orbit the sun just like their parents .
When Earth orbits the sun and passes through the orbit of a comet where
fragments are found, streaks of light are observed from earth.
Meteors seem to originate in only one point in the sky during meteor shower
because the meteoroids are travelling in parallel paths with the same velocity.
A meteor shower is named after the constellation where they seem to come from.
175

Answers Key: Chemistry – Quarter III
Code: S8MT-IIIa-b-8 (page 84)
Table Completion
1. Very slightly compressible
2. Has definite volume; assumes the shape of its container
3. Slightly compressible
4. No definite volume and shape
5. Flow easily
True or False
1. True
2. Close together/tightly packed
3. True
4. True
5. Active
Essay
Answers may vary. Please refer to the attached Rubrics for
scoring.
176

Rubric for Scoring Students’ Responses
Description Raw Score Points Earned

Organization of Ideas 5pts.
Scientific Content 3pts.
Number of words 2pts.
TOTAL 10pts.
Answers Key
Code: S8MT-IIIc-d-9 (page 86)
Matching Type
1. E
2. C
3. D
4. F
5. A
Short Answer Test
1. Sublimation occurs when a solid substance is heated and it

directly turned into gaseous state. Deposition occurs when the
temperature of a gas decreases for it to solidify without
passing liquid state.
2. As temperature and pressure increases, liquid substances turn
to gaseous state through vaporization. As temperature and
pressure decreases, gaseous substance turns to liquid through
the process of condensation.
3. As temperature and pressure decreases, it causes liquid
substance to become solid. As temperature and pressure
177

increases, solid substance undergo melting and become
liquid.
Multiple Choice
1. A
2. D
3. C
4. A
5. D
Answers Key
Code: S8MT-IIIe-f-10 (page 89)
Fill in the blank

1. Atom
2. Element
3. Protons
4. Neutrons
5. Electrons
Multiple Choice
1. B
2. B
3. D
4. C
5. C
178

Table Completion
Atomic Mass Symbol of Number of Number of

Number Number the Protons Neutrons
Element
11 23 Na 11 12
19 39 K 19 20
27 59 Co 27 32
Answers Key
Code: S8MT-IIIg-h-11 (page 92)
Sequencing Test
1. C
2. A
3. E
4. B
5. D
Fill in the Blank
1. elements
2. periodic law
3. atomic number
4. modern periodic table
5. period
6. group
179

True or False
1. True
2. True
3. False
4. False
5. True
Answers Key
Code: S8MT-IIIi-j-12 (page 94)
Short Answer Test
1. Na, K, Rb
2. O, S, Se
3. F, Cl, Br
4. Na, Mg, Al
5. K, Rb, Cs
True or False
1. True
2. True
3. False
4. False
5. True
Sentence Completion
1. reactivity
2. valence shell
180

3. valence electrons
4. energy levels
5. electron configuration
Multiple Choice
1. B
2. B
3. C
4. B
5. A
Answers Key: Biology – Quarter 4
Code: S8LT-IVa-13 (page 98)
Picture Analysis
1. mouth- entrance of food/ responsible for mastication of

food/breaking it down into pieces.
2. esophagus- passage of food from mouth to stomach
3. stomach- it holds the foods while enzymes are being mixed with
it.
4. small intestine- responsible for final chemical digestion and
absorption of nutrients.
5. large intestine- undigested foods are stored here and are
processed for easy removal.
6. anus- controls stool movement outside the body
7. rectum- receives stool from colon.
8. pancreas- releases enzymes for the digestion of proteins,
carbohydrates and fats.
181

9. liver- manufactures bile for fat digestion, it also process absorbed
nutrients by the small intestine.
Matching Type
Short Answer Test
1. F
4 A. 3 B. 5 C. 2 D. 1 E.
2. C.
3. B.
4. A
5. D
Answers Key
Code: S8LT-IVa-13
Essay
Sample Rubric for Short Essay
(Teacher may adopt his/her own rubric)
Features/ 4- Expert 3- 2-Capable 1- Beginner Score

Score Accomplished
Content Comprehensi Adequate Few There was
and Quality ve discussion discussions on discussions an attempt
of Writing was made absorption and were made on to discuss
featuring assimilation absorption absorption
how were made. and and
absorption Interaction of assimilation. assimilatio
and the digestive Interaction of n.
assimilation system to the digestive Interaction
takes place organ system system was to other
182

and how this was made directly organ
cause mentioned. or implied. system was
interactions not
to diff. organ mentioned.
systems.
Grammar, No spelling, Few spelling, A number of Many
Usage / punctuation punctuations spelling, spelling,
Mechanics or error. Minor punctuations punctuatio
grammatical grammatical and ns and
errors errors. grammatical grammatic
error were al errors
seen. were seen.
TOTAL
SCORE
Answers Key
CODE: S8LT-IVb-14 (page 102)
Multiple Choice
1. B
2. A
3. C
4. C
5. D
Table Completion
1. Proper diet and seek doctor’s advice
2. Severe abdominal pain especially in the lower right hand side

accompanied by nausea, gas release problem
3. Frequent and urgent bowel movements, pain with diarrhea, blood

in your stool, or abdominal cramps
183

4. Gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD)
5. Severe pain in your upper right abdomen, Pain that radiates from
your right shoulder or back. Tenderness over your abdomen when
it's touched, nausea, vomiting, and fever.
True or False
1. True
2. True
3. False
4. True
5. False
Answers Key
CODE: S8LT-IVc-15 (page 105)
Picture Analysis
1. appendicitis- bacterial infection/ delayed waste removal
2. colon cancer- genetic/poor lifestyle
3. GERD- lifestyle- eating food that irritate lower esophageal

sphincter
4. liver cirrhosis- unhealthy lifestyle-too much alcohol drinking/poor

food choices
5. hepatitis- infection/ eating contaminated foods
Short Answer Test

Ideal Answers: 1,2,4,5- Agree , 3- Disagree – Junk foods conatin high
amounts of salt and sodium compounds that may cause adverse
effect to normal digestion processes.
Reasons may vary.
Ideal Answers: 1,2,4,5- Agree , 3- Disagree – Junk foods conatin high
amounts of salt and sodium compounds that may cause adverse
effect to normal digestion processes.
Reasons may vary.
184

True or False
1.True 8.True
2 True
9. True
3. False
4. True 10. True
5. True
6.False
7. False
Answers Key
CODE: S8LT-IVc-15
Essay
Features/ 4- Expert 3- 2-Capable 1- Beginner Score

Score Accomplished
Content Comprehensi Adequate Little There was
and Quality ve discussion discussion was discussion an attempt
of Writing was made on made was made on to discuss
how one can mentioning how to keep on how to
keep his several one’s keep the
digestive practices on digestive digestive
system how to keep system system
healthy. ones digestive healthy. healthy. It
system healthy. is not is not
sufficient in
substance.
185

Grammar, No spelling, Few spelling, A number of Many
Usage and punctuation punctuations spelling, spelling,
Mechanics or error. Minor punctuations punctuatio
grammatical grammatical and ns and
errors errors. grammatical grammatic
error were al errors
seen. were seen.
TOTAL
Answers Key
CODE: S8LT-IVd-16 (page 111)
Multiple Choice
1. C
2. A
3. A
4. A
5. D
6. A
7. B
8. A
9. C
10. D
Picture Analysis
1st Stage: 3 Prophase
Description: Nucleus starts to disappear, chromosomes becomes
thick and condensed. Spindle fibers become visible.
2nd Stage: 2 Metaphase
Description: Nucleus completely disappeared, Spindle fibers moves
the chromosomes to the center.
3rd Stage : 1 Anaphase

Description: Spindle fibers contract thereby pulling the sister
chromatids apart from each other moving towards the
opposite poles. Centromere breaks.
th
4 Stage: 4 Telophase
186

Description: Nucleus starts to reappear, chromosomes uncoil and
becomes thin and less visible. Spindle fibers
disassemble. Cytoplasm is cleaved/divided.
Answers Key
CODE: S8LT-IVd-16
Matching Type
1. B
2. D
3. C
4. G
5. F
6. H
7. E
8. G
Table Completion
Mitosis Meiosis
Importance repair and growth of preservation of
organisms species and
variation
No. of daughter cells 2 4
187

No. of stages involved 4 8
Daughter cells compared Similar different
to parent cell (in genetic
content)
No. of chromosomes complete/diploid half/ haploid
Answers Key
CODE: S8LT-IVe-17 (page 118)
Multiple Choice
1. B
2. A
3. B
4. A
5. C
Matching Type
1. D
2. E
3. A
4. D
5. B
Fill in the blank

1. chromosome 7. interbreed
2. haploid 8. half
3. sexually 9. fertilization
10. chromosomes
188

4. aneuploidy
5. variation
6. crossing-over
Answers Key
CODE: S8LT-IVf-18 (page 122)
Multiple Choice
1. D
2. D
3. A
4. A
5. C
Short Answer Test
1. T , t , t , t
2. TR , tR , tR , tr
189

Male T t
Female
T
TT
Tt
T Tt tt
Table Completion
A. Monohybrid Cross
Phenotypic Ratio: 3:1 (3 tall is to 1 short)
Genotypic Ratio: 1:2:1 (1Homozygous tall, 2 Heterozygous tall, 1 short)
Dihybrid Cross
Male Ya Ya Ya Ya
Female
YA YYAa YYAa YYAa YYAa
YA YYAa YYAa YYAa YYAa
yA YyAa YyAa YyAa YyAa
yA YyAa YyAa YyAa YyAa
Phenotypic Ratio: All Yellow axial
Genotypic Ratio: 1:1 - 1 Homozygous yellow heterozygous axial is to 1

Heterozygous yellow, heterozygous axial
Answers Key
190

CODE: S8LT-IVg-19 (page 127)
Fill in the Blanks

1. species
2. biodiversity
3. Carl Linnaeus/ Carl von Linne
4. species
5. genus
True of False
1. True
2. True
3. False
4. False
5. True
Essay
Features/ 4- Expert 3- Accomplished 2-Capable 1- Beginner Score
Score
Content Comprehensiv An adequate Few discussion There was an
and Quality e discussion discussion on was made on attempt to
of Writing was made on concept of concept of discuss
the concepts species/biodiver species/ concept of
of sity was made. biodiversity. species and
species/biodiv biodiversity.
ersity.
Grammar, No spelling, Few spelling, A number of Many spelling,
Usage and punctuation or punctuations spelling, punctuations
Mechanics grammatical error. Minor punctuations and
errors grammatical and grammatical
errors. grammatical errors were
error were seen
seen. interfering the
idea
presented.
TOTAL SCORE
Answers Key
CODE: S8LT-IVh-20 (page 129)
191

Multiple Choice
1. A
2. B
3. A
4. C
5. D
Matching Type
1. D
2. A
3. I
4. B
5. F
6. G
7. C
8. H
9. E
Concept Mapping
3. Angiosperms
1. Non Vascular
4. Monocots
2. Vascular
5. Hornworts
Answers Key
CODE: S8LT-IVh-21 (page 133)
True or False
1. True
2. True
3. False
192

4. True
5. False
Situation Analysis
Answers may vary.
Essay
Answers may vary.
Features/ 4- Expert 3- Accomplished 2-Capable 1- Beginner Score
Score
Content Comprehensiv An adequate Few There was an
and e discussion discussion on discussions attempt to
Quality was made on concepts of were made on discuss
of the concepts genetic concepts of concepts
Writing of genetic diversity, pop. genetic genetic
diversity, pop. levels of species diversity, pop. diversity, pop.
levels of and ecological levels of levels of
species and diversity was species and species and
ecological made. ecological ecological
diversity . diversity. diversity.
Gramma No spelling, Few spelling, A number of Many spelling,
r, Usage punctuation or punctuations spelling, punctuations
and grammatical errors. Minor punctuations and
Mechani errors grammatical and grammatical
cs errors. grammatical errors were
error were seen
seen. interfering the
though
presented.
TOTAL SCORE
Answers Key
CODE: S8LT-IVi-22 (page 136)
Multiple Choice
1. D
2. D
3. A
193

4. A
5. B
Picture Analysis
1. corn, carrot, grass

2. 1st order consumer
3. python
4. 2nd order consumer
5. heat
True or False
1. True
2. True
3. False
4. False
5. True
Answers Key
Multiple Choice
1. B
2. B
3. B
4. C
194

5. D
Table Completion
1. Denitrifying bacteria
2. Ammonifying bacteria
3. plants and animals (others may include certain bacteria,

monerans etc.)
4. plants and other photosynthetic organisms
5. plants and other photosynthetic organisms
6. plants
True or False
1. True 4. False
2. False
5. True
3. True
Answers Key
Picture Analysis
1. condensation
2. precipitation
3. transpiration
4. evaporation
195

5. absorption
Diagram Making
Fill in the blank

1. nucleic acids
2. 78%
3. nitrogen fixation
4. bacteria
5. ammonia
6. nitrate
7. denitrification
Answers Key
CODE: S8LT-IVj-25 (page 147)
Multiple Choice
1. A
2. C
3. B
4. D
5. C

1. x
2. x
3. /
4. x
196

5. /
Table Completion
Answers may vary
List of References
Acosta,H.D. (2015) Science 10 Learner’s Material. Pasig City

Philippines:Rex Printing Company Inc.
Acosta,H.D. (2015) Science 10 Teacher’s Guide. Pasig City

Philippines:Rex Printing Company Inc.
Campbel Neil., (1994) Biology 4th Ed. Singapore, Benjamin

Cummings Co.
Capco, P.C. et al. (2013) Science 8 Learner’s Module. Pasig City

Philippines: Vibal Publishing House Inc.
Capco, P.C. et al. (2013) Science 8 Teacher’s Guide. Pasig City

Philippines: Vibal Publishing House Inc.
197

Hewitt, Paul (1989). Conceptual physics (6th Ed.) London: Scoot,
Foresman and Company.
Hewitt, P.G. (2002). Conceptual physics. USA: Prentice-Hall, Inc.

Saddle
River, New Jersey
Keeton W.T. et al.,(1983) Elements of Biological Science 3rd Ed. NY:

WW
Norton Co., Inc,.
Valdoz MP., et al (2015) Science Links Worktext for Scientific and

Technological Literacy. Manila, Philippines: Rex Printing Company
Inc.
______. DepEd Science and Technology IV. SEDP Series. (1992).

Philippines: Book Media Press, Inc.
List of Writers, Editors and Division Focal Persons
WRITERS EDITORS
1. Raphi T. Anover 1. Cynthia M. Agner
Granja-Kalinawan National High School Palo National High
School
2. Norica A. Barona 2. Myrna M.

Borqueta
Dulag National High School Palo I Central School
3. Jason D. Caande 3. Zaira G. Escobedo

Burauen Comprehensive National Palo National High School-
198

High School Pawing Annex
4. Nimfa R. Liad 4. Maryjean T. Susaya

Mayorga National High School Granja-Kalinawan National
High School
5. Airyn P. Manidlangan
Burauen Comprehensive National High School
6. Roderick L. Tipolo
Balocawehay National High School
DIVISION FOCAL PERSONS:

SOCORRO B. AUSA
Division Science Coordinator
FELICIDAD T. ESPINOSA
Chief- Curriculum Implementation Division
RONELO AL K. FIRMO, Ph.D, CESO-V

SCHOOLS DIVISION SUPERINTENDENT
199


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Subject Area: Science

Grade Level: Grade 8

1. A box is pushed at a constant speed across a floor as shown in

Which of the following arrow represents the reaction force?

2. A carabao is pulling a karomata. Which of the following is

Lead to Go, Love to Grow, Live to Glow

4. The carabao pulls a barsahan, then the barsahan moves along

5. Which of the following diagram represents a balancing force?

Lead to Go, Love to Grow, Live to Glow

Subject Area: Science

Lead to Go, Love to Grow, Live to Glow

4. What is the downward force acting on a stationary physics book

Lead to Go, Love to Grow, Live to Glow

Lead to Go, Love to Grow, Live to Glow

Short Answer Test

Lead to Go, Love to Grow, Live to Glow

Fill in the Blank

unpaired pushes magnitude forces

Action Reaction Force

There is no such thing as a/an ___1__ force in the universe.

Lead to Go, Love to Grow, Live to Glow

These sets of ____4__ exist universally. When you stroll, you

Directions: Write TRUE if the statement is correct and FALSE if it is

___1. Seatbelt in the car is a safety precaution from the sudden

___2. The headrest on the seat is a precaution from accident

Lead to Go, Love to Grow, Live to Glow

___ 5. During the collision of two objects, the energy is always

Subject Area: Science

Short Answer Test

Directions: Give what is asked in each

Lead to Go, Love to Grow, Live to Glow

2. Identify and discuss the forces needed to keep the body in

3. You are whirling a ball in a string around

4. Illustrate the relationship of force, acceleration, and mass in a

Lead to Go, Love to Grow, Live to Glow

Subject Area: Science

1. Consider a ball connected to a string and whirled in a circular

3. Which of the following will likely happen if the gravitational

4. Which of the following quantities in a circular motion is always

5. In a circular motion, which is the correct description of the

Lead to Go, Love to Grow, Live to Glow

Short Answer Test

1. What kind of force is always directed towards the center?

Fill in the Blank

accelerated body centripetal force

Lead to Go, Love to Grow, Live to Glow

Subject Area: Science

Alternative Response Test

Lead to Go, Love to Grow, Live to Glow

Fill in the Blank

product applied movement

Work is defined as the ____1____ of the force ___2___ to a body

Lead to Go, Love to Grow, Live to Glow

1. A force of 50N is applied to a 50kg object that doesn’t move.

Lead to Go, Love to Grow, Live to Glow

3. A 50kg balikbayan box is lifted to the 3rd floor, the total

Lead to Go, Love to Grow, Live to Glow

1. It is equivalent to the change in potential a. Gravity

4. It is the amount of work done per time. e. Joule

There is no such thing as a/an _1 force in the universe.

These sets of __4 exist universally. When you stroll, you

Work is defined as the __1 of the force _2___ to a body

The 1 is defined as the ability to do work and the

Sound waves are _1_ waves capable of producing an