SQA MCQs With ANS

Software Testing and Quality Assurance (STQA) MCQs [set-1]
1. Software project management comprises of a number of activities,

which contains _.
A. system software
B. application softwarec
C. scienti?c software
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D. none
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Answer: A
a
2. Software is de?ned as ____ . q M
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A. instructions M
B. data structures
C. documents
D. all above
Answer: D
3. What are the signs that a software project is in trouble
A. the product scope is poorly de?ned.
B. deadlines are unrealistic.
C. changes are managed poorly.
D. all of the above
Answer: D
4. A Project can be characterized as _ .
A. every project may not have a unique and distinct goal.
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B. project is routine activity or day-to-day operations.
C. project does not comes with a start time and end time.
D. none
Answer: D
5. CMM model in Software Engineering is a technique of ______ .
A. develop the software.
B. improve the software process.

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C. improve the testing process.
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D. all of above
a
Answer: B
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6. Project risk factor is considered in which model
A. spiral model
B. waterfall model
C. prototyping model
D. none of the above.
Answer: A
7. Effective software project management focuses on the four P’s. What

are those four P’s?
A. people, performance, payment, product
B. people, product, process, project
C. people, product, performance, project
D. all
Answer: B
8. What are the signs that a software project is in trouble?

A. the product scope is poorly de?ned.
B. deadlines are unrealistic.
C. changes are managed poorly.
D. all
Answer: D
9. Software quality assurance is an umbrella activity.
A. true
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B. false
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Answer: A
a
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10. Which of the following are the valid relationships in Use Case
Diagrams c
A. generalization
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B. include
C. extend
D. all
Answer: D
11. Which one of the following is not an Evolutionary Process Model?
A. winwin spiral model
B. incremental model
C. concurrent development model
D. all of the mentioned
Answer: D
12. The Incremental Model is a result of combination of elements of which

two models?

A. build & fix model & waterfall model
B. linear model & rad model
C. linear model & prototyping model
D. waterfall model & rad model
Answer: C
13. The spiral model was originally proposed by
A. ibm
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B. barry boehm
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C. pressman
a
D. royce
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Answer: B
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14. Spiral Model has user involvement in all its phases.
A. true
B. false
Answer: B
15. If you were to create client/server applications, which model would you
go for?
A. winwin spiral model
B. spiral model
C. concurrent model
D. incremental model
Answer: C
16. Which of the following is not a phase of SDLC?
A. requirement gathering

B. maintenance
C. testing
D. all
Answer: D
17. Selection of particular life cycle model is based on,
A. requirements
B. technical knowledge of development team

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C. users
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D. all
a
Answer: D
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18. Which of the following are incremental developmental models?
A. prototyping
B. agile development
C. both a and b
D. none
Answer: C
19. In a college,students are asked to develop a software. Which model

would be preferable
A. waterfall model
B. spiral model
C. aglie model
D. code nad ?x model
Answer: D
20. In waterfall model, output of one phase is input to next phase.

A. true
B. false
Answer: A
21. The ?rst step in Software Development Life Cycle(SDLC) is
A. preliminary investigation and analysis
B. system design
C. system testing
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D. coding
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Answer: A
a
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22. The detailed study of existing system is referred to as :
c
A. system planning M
B. system analysis
C. feasibility study
D. design dfd
Answer: B
23. System analysis and design phase of Software Development Life Cycle
(SDLC)
A. parallel run
B. sizing
C. all of these
D. speci?cations freeze
Answer: C
24. Prototyping aims at :
A. end user understanding and approval

B. program logic
C. program logic
D. none of these
Answer: A
25. What is a prototype ?
A. mini-model of existing system
B. mini-model of the proposed system

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C. working model of the existing system
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D. none
a
Answer: B
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26. The phase of System Development associated with creation of the test
data is
A. system analysis
B. physical design
C. system acceptance
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D. logical design
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Answer: C
a
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27. Which of the following is not a named phase in the System
development life cycle ? c
A. assessment
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B. maintenance
C. development
D. testing
Answer: A
28. What is the ?nal outcome of the requirements analysis and

speci?cations phase ?
A. drawing the data ?ow diagram
B. the srs document
C. coding the project
D. the user manual
Answer: B
29. QFD stands for

A. quality function design
B. quality function development
C. quality function deployment
D. none
Answer: C
30. A Use-case actor is always a person having a role that different people
may play.
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A. true
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B. false
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Answer: B
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c are the parts of which document ?
31. The user system requirements
A. sda
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B. srs
C. srr
D. rar
Answer: B
32. What are the types of requirement in Quality Function

Deployment(QFD) ?
A. known, unknown, undreamed
B. user, developer
C. functional, non-functional
D. normal, expected, exciting
Answer: D
33. Traceability is not considered in Requirement Analysis.

A. true
B. false
Answer: B
34. Which of the following statements about SRS is/are true ? i. SRS is
written by customer ii. SRS is written by a developer iii. SRS serves as a
contract between customer and developer
A. only i is true
B. both ii and iii are true

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C. all are true
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D. none of the above a
Answer: C
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35. Risk management is one of the most important jobs for a
A. client
B. client
C. production team
D. project manager
Answer: D
36. Which of the following risk is the failure of a purchased component to

perform as expected?
A. product risk
B. project risk
C. business risk
D. programming risk
Answer: A
37. Which of the following term is best de?ned by the statement: “There

will be a change of organizational management with different priorities.”?
A. staff turnover
B. technology change
C. management change
D. product competition
Answer: C
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38. Which of the following term is best de?ned by the statement: “The
underlying technology on which the system is built is superseded by new
technology.”?
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A. technology change
a
B. product competition
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C. requirements change c
D. none of the mentioned
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Answer: A
39. What assess the risk and your plans for risk mitigation and revise
these when you learn more about the risk?
A. risk monitoring
B. risk planning
C. risk analysis
D. risk identi?cation
Answer: A
40. Which of the following risks are derived from the organizational
environment where the software is being developed?
A. people risks
B. technology risks
C. estimation risks

D. organizational risks
Answer: D
41. Which of the following risks are derived from the software or hardware
technologies that are used to develop the system?
A. managerial risks
B. technology risks
C. estimation risks
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D. organizational risks
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Answer: B
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a
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42. Which of the following term is best de?ned by the statement: “Derive
c
traceability information to maximize information hiding in the design.”?
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A. underestimate d development time
B. organizational restructuring
C. requirements changes
Answer: C
43. Which of the following strategies means that the impact of the risk will
be reduced?
A. avoidance strategies
B. minimization strategies
C. contingency plans
Answer: B
44. Risk management is now recognized as one of the most important

project management tasks.

A. true
B. false
Answer: A
45. Choose the correct option according to the given statements regarding
risk management.Statement 1: A risk is a potential problem—it might
happen, it might not. Statement 2: Managers, software engineers, and
customers participate in risk analysis and management. Statement 3: Only
Managers participate in risk analysis and management.
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A. statement 1 and 2 are correct.
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B. only statement 1 is correct.
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C. only statement 3 is correct.
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D. statement 1 and 3 are correct.
c
Answer: A
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46. Reactive risk management is sometimes described as:
A. fire ?ghting mode
B. solution mode.
C. uncertain mode
Answer: A
47. Software risk always involves two characteristics. What are those
characteristics?
A. uncertainty and loss
B. certainty and pro?t
C. staff size and budget
D. project deadline and budget
Answer: A

48. What is/are the different types of risk may occur when you develop
software?
A. project risks
B. technical risks
C. business risks
D. all of the above
Answer: D
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49. Effective risk management plan needs to address which of these
issues?
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a
A. risk avoidance
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B. risk monitoring c
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C. risk management and contingency planning
D. all of the above.
Answer: D
50. Risk mitigation is a risk activity. Risk monitoring is a activity
A. avoidance, project tracking.
B. increasing, project tracking.
C. project tracking, avoidance.
D. random, tracking.
Answer: A

51. Which of the following categories is part of the output of software

process?
A. computer programs
B. documents that describe the computer programs
C. data
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Answer: D
a
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52. Which of the following is the process of assembling program
c
components, data, and libraries, and then compiling and linking these to
create an executable system? M
A. system building
B. release management
C. change management
D. version management
Answer: A
53. Which of the following is / are the output of the Software Process?
A. computer programs
B. documents that describe the computer programs.
C. data (contained within the program or external to it).
D. all of the above
Answer: D
54. As the reliability increases, failure intensity _.

A. decreases
B. increases
C. no effect
D. none of the above
Answer: A
55. Which of the following term describes testing?
A. finding broken code

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B. evaluating deliverable to ?nd errors
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C. a stage of all projects
a
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Answer: B
c
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56. What is Cyclomatic complexity?
A. black box testing
B. white box testing
C. yellow box testing
D. green box testing
Answer: B
57. Lower and upper limits are present in which chart?
A. run chart
B. bar chart
C. control chart
Answer: A

58. Maintenance testing is performed using which methodology?
A. retesting
B. sanity testing
C. breadth test and depth test
D. con?rmation testing
Answer: C
59. White Box techniques are also classi?ed as o m

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A. design based testing
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B. structural testing
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C. error guessing technique
c
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Answer: B
60. Exhaustive testing is
A. always possible
B. practically possible
C. impractical but possible
D. impractical and impossible
Answer: C
61. Which of the following is/are White box technique?
A. statement testing
B. decision testing
C. condition coverage
Answer: D

62. What are the various Testing Levels?
A. unit testing
B. system testing
C. integration testing
Answer: D
63. Boundary value analysis belong to? o m

.c
A. white box testing
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B. black box testing
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C. white box & black box testing
c
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Answer: B
64. Alpha testing is done at
A. developer’s end
B. user’s end
C. developer’s & user’s end
Answer: A
65. E-Commerce software testing follows different approach than gaming

software testing. Which testing principle implies this?
A. pareto principle
B. testing is context dependent
C. testing shows presence of defects
D. absence of errors-fallacy
Answer: B

66. When a cost to remove defect is not high?
A. during requirement analysis
B. during designing
C. during coding
D. during testing
Answer: A
67. In software development life cycle , who iso

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.c the best person to catch a
defect?
e
at
A. software tester
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B. customers
c
C. designer
D. business analyst
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Answer: D
68. Which of the following statement is true?
A. exhaustive testing is impossible but practicable
B. exhaustive testing is possible but impracticable
C. exhaustive testing is impossible and impracticable
D. exhaustive testing is possible and practicable
Answer: B
69. Software tester focuses more on complex part of the software. Which
of the following testing principle implies this?
A. testing shows presence of defects
B. pesticide paradox
C. testing is context dependent

D. defect clustering
Answer: D
70. The defect cluster change over time. Which of the following testing
principle implies this?
A. testing shows presence of defects
B. pesticide paradox
C. testing is context dependent
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D. defect clustering
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Answer: B
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71. When testing principles are useful?
q M
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A. during testing
B. during execution
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C. during review
D. throughout life-cycle
Answer: D
72. In white box testing what do you verify?
A. verify the security holes in the code
B. verify the incomplete or broken paths in the code
C. verify the ?ow of structure according to the document speci?cation
D. all of these
Answer: D
73. End result of Software Requirement Analysis is ________
A. functional and behavioral
B. architectural and structural

C. usability and reliability
D. algorithmic and data structure
Answer: A
74. The inputs for developing a test plan are taken from
A. project plan
B. business plan
C. support plan
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Answer: B
a
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75. Testing beyond normal operational capacity is __________
c
A. load testing M
B. performance testing
C. stress testing
D. all of these
Answer: C

76. Test wares are handed over to maintenance team during which phase?
A. test implementati on and execution
B. test closure activity
C. evaluating exit criteria and reporting
D. test analysis and design

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Answer: B
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a
2. Size of development team q M
77. What are the criteria to decide the testing efforts?1. Time and budget
3. Size of testers c
4. Risk associated with project M
A. a. 1, 3, 4
B. b. 1, 2, 3
C. c. 1, 4
D. d. 1, 3
Answer: C
78. Who leads a formal review process?
A. author
B. moderator
C. reviewer
D. scribe
Answer: B

79. A chronological record of relevant details about the execution of tests
is called as, a _______
A. test suite
B. test procedure
C. test data
D. test log
Answer: D
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80. Non functional testing is performed only at system testing level. True
or false.
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a
A. true
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B. false c
Answer: B M
81. Which of the following is not other name for structural testing?
B. glass box testing
C. behavioral testing
Answer: C
82. Which things are measured by software Test effectiveness?
A. how many customer requirements are implemented in system?
B. how well the customer speci?cations are achieved by the system?
C. how much effort is put in developing the system?
D. all of the above
Answer: D

83. In which of the following type of testing, testing is done without
planning and documentation?
A. unit testing
B. retesting
C. ad hoc testing
D. regression testing
Answer: C
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84. When should company stop the testing of a particular software?
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A. after system testing done a
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B. it depends on the risks for the system being tested
c
C. after smoke testing done

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Answer: B
85. ___________ refers to a different set of tasks ensures that the software
that has been built is traceable to Customer Requirements.
A. veri?cation
B. requirement engineering
C. validation
Answer: C
86. Who performs the Acceptance Testing?
A. software developer
B. end users
C. testing team

D. systems engineers
Answer: B
87. Before handing over the software to the client, which testing is to be
done in-house?
A. alpha
B. betta
C. gamma
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D. theta
.c
Answer: A
te
a
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88. Requirement Engineering is not concern with _.
c
A. requirement design
B. requirement elicitation
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C. requirement analysis
D. requirement documentatio n
Answer: A
89. When an expected result is not speci?ed in test case template then _.
A. we cannot run the test.
B. it may be di?cult to determine if the test has passed or failed.
C. it may be di?cult to repeat the test.
D. we cannot automate the user inputs.
Answer: B
90. End result of Software Requirement Analysis is _.
A. functional and behavioral
B. architectural and structural

C. usability and reliability
D. algorithmic and data structure
Answer: A
91. Bug status is set to postpone due to _.
A. priority of that bug may low.
B. lack of time for the release.
C. the bug may not be the major effect in the software.

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D. data may be unavailable.
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Answer: D
a
92. Which Testing is performed ?rst? q M
c
A. black box testing M
C. dynamic testing
D. static testing
Answer: D
93. Veri?cation and Validation uses _.
A. internal and external resources respectively.
B. internal resources only.
C. external resources only.
D. external and internal resources respectively.
Answer: A
94. Testing beyond normal operational capacity is _.
A. load testing

C. stress testing
D. none
Answer: C
95. The expected results of the software is _.
A. only important in system testing
B. only used in component testing

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C. most useful when speci?ed in advance
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D. derived from the code.
a
Answer: A
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96. Test cases are created in which phase?
A. test speci?cation
B. test planning
C. test requirement
D. test con?guration
Answer: A
97. 7n test cases are generated in which case of Boundary Value

Analysis?
A. worst case
B. roust worst case
C. critical fault assumption
D. none
Answer: B
98. Which testing cannot be performed on ?rst build of the software?

A. regression testing
B. retesting
C. a,b
D. none
Answer: C
99. Which testing is performed with Planning and Documentation?
A. ad-hoc testing
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B. monkey testing
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C. fuzz testing
a
D. end-to-end testing
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Answer: D
c
100. GUI means
M
A. graphical user interface
B. graphical user interaction
C. graphics uniform interaction
D. none
Answer: A

101. Plasma panel have resolution.
A. high
B. good
C. a,b
D. none
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.c
Answer: A
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102. First graphical user interface used commercially was introduced in
q
A. 1975 c
B. 1966
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C. 1977
D. 1967
Answer: A
103. What is/are the main component / components of user interface ?
A. presentation language
B. action language
C. a,b
D. none
Answer: A
104. Which one is the basic input device in GUI
A. mouse
B. keyboard

C. cpu
D. monitor
Answer: A
105. Which of the following model put much more emphasis on testing?
A. waterfall model
B. agile model
C. spiral model
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D. v-v model
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Answer: D
a
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106. Independent modules are easier to maintain and test because of.
c
A. code modi?cation is limited, M
B. error propagation is reduced
C. reusable modules are possible.
D. all of the above.
Answer: D
107. Which of the following option is not tracked by con?guration

management tools?
A. tracking of change proposals
B. storing versions of system components
C. tracking the releases of system versions to customers
Answer: D
108. Which of the following is not a Software Con?guration Management

Activity?

A. con?guration item identi?cation
B. risk management
C. release management
D. branch management
Answer: B
109. The de?nition and use of con?guration management standards is

essential for quality certi?cation in
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A. iso 9000
.c
B. cmm
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a
C. cmmi
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c
Answer: D
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110. Client/server architectures cannot be properly tested because
network load is highly variable.
A. true
B. false
Answer: B
111. Which of the following is / are types of Software Maintenance?
A. corrective
B. adaptive
C. perfective
D. all of the above
Answer: D

112. _______ is a Software Con?guration Management concept that helps
us to control change.
A. baseline
B. procedure
C. audit
Answer: A
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113. Software Con?guration Management (SCM) is an umbrella activity.
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A. true a
B. false
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c
Answer: A
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114. What is the main aim of Software Con?guration Management (SCM)?
A. identify change
B. control change
C. ensure that change is
D. all of the above
Answer: D
115. Select which option is not true about SQA…?
A. audits and reviews to be performed by the team
B. amount of technical work to be performed
C. evaluations to be performed
D. documents that are produced by the sqa team.
Answer: C

116. A product which is manufactured by using the degree of the design
speci?cation…
A. quality of conformance
B. quality control
C. quality assurance
Answer: A
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117. Which of the following is not included in prevention cost?
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A. equipment calibration and maintenance a
B. formal technical reviews
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c
C. test equipment revie ws
D. quality planning review s

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Answer: A
118. Select the people who identify the document and veri?es the
correctness of the software…
A. project manager
B. sqa team
C. project team
Answer: B
119. Select the option which is not an appraisal in SQA?
A. inter-process inspection
B. maintenance
C. testing

D. quality planning
Answer: D
120. What does Qa and QC stands for
A. quality assurance and quality control
B. quality adjustment and quality quaity completion
C. quality assurance and queuing control
D. quality adjustment and queuing control

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Answer: A
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a plan for a project?
121. Which of the following is not a SQA
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c
A. evaluations to be performed
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B. amount of technical work
C. audits and reviews to be performed
D. ocuments to be produced by the sqa group
Answer: B
122. Which of the following is not included in External failure costs?
A. testing
B. help line support
C. warranty work
D. complaint resolution
Answer: A
123. Who identi?es, documents, and veri?es that corrections have been
made to the software?
A. project manager
B. project team

C. sqa group
Answer: C
124. Quality also can be looked at in terms of user satisfaction which

includes
A. a compliant product
B. good quality output
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C. delivery within budget and schedule
.c
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a
Answer: D
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125. Which of the following iscnot a core step of Six Sigma?
A. de?ne
M
B. control
C. measure
D. analyse
Answer: B

126. Non-conformance to software requirements is known as
A. software availability
B. software reliability
C. software failure

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.c
Answer: C
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a
management responsibility? q M
127. According to ISO 9001, inspection and testing comes under which
c
A. process control M
B. document control
C. control of nonconforming products
D. servicing
Answer: A
A. developer???s end
B. user\s end
C. both a and b
Answer: A

B. evaluating deliverable to ?nd errors
Answer: B
130. Behavioral testing is
B. black bozx testing

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C. grey box testing
.c
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a
Answer: B
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c
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131. In which testing level the focus is on customer usage?
A. alpha testing
B. beta testing
C. validation testing
D. both a and b
Answer: D
132. Which testing is an integration testing approach that is commonly

used when “shrink-wrapped” software products are being developed?
B. integration testing
C. smoke testing
Answer: C

133. Testing of individua l components by the developers are comes under
which type of testing?
A. integration testing
B. validation testing
C. unit testing
Answer: C
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134. When different combination of input requires different combination of
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actions,Which of the following technique is used in such situation
a
A. boundary value analysis
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B. equivalence partition c
C. decision table M
D. decision coverage
Answer: C
135. Which of the following is a myth in testing?
A. tester can ?nd bugs
B. any user can test software
C. missed defects are not due to testers
D. complete testing is not possible
Answer: B
136. ISO published the standard in __________
A. 1987
B. 1985
C. 1890

D. 1980
Answer: A
137. -----------is theapplication of quality principles to all facets and

business process of an organization.
A. tqm
C. software failure
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D. software testing
.c
Answer: A
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a
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138. .Innovation is the activity leading to changes.
c
A. planned
B. accidental
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C. virtual
D. user
Answer: A
139. Quality management system of a organization based on which pillars
A. test plans, test conditions & decisions
B. quality processes, guidelines and standards & formats and templates
C. quality police, objectives and manuals
Answer: B
140. V-model uses test models
A. component testing, integration testing, system testing and acceptance testing
B. not ?x

C. alpha testing, beta testing , acceptance testing and user testing
D. black box testing, white box testing and gray box testing
Answer: B
141. Which of the following is a principle of total quality management?
A. continuous process improvement
B. continuous productivity improvement
C. continuous value enhancement

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D. continuous defect elimination
.c
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Answer: C
a
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142. The difference between and internal and an external customer is:
c
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A. internal customers usually work in the business, external customers do not.
B. quality-oriented businesses care only about external customers.
C. external customers care about what they receive, internal customers do not.
D. internal customers do not evaluate quality, and external customers do.
Answer: B
143. Costs associated with efforts to prevent errors are
A. appraisal cost
B. direct cost
C. prevention cost
D. expectedcost
Answer: A
144. What is meant by Kaizen?
A. card signal

B. to avoid inadvertent errors
C. change for better quality
Answer: C
145. What is the aim of fool proo?ng technique used for total quality
management?
A. to achieve zero defects
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B. to specify time cschedule
.c
C. to specify targets
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D. none of the aove
q M
Answer: A
c
M
146. ISO 14000 quality standard is related with
A. environmental management systems
B. automotive quality standards
C. eliminating poor quality
D. customer satisfaction
Answer: A
147. What is quality assurance?
A. quality assurance deals with activities which prove that products and services meet the
required quality standard
B. quality assurance deals with activities which aim at customers satisfaction
C. quality assurance deals with controlling the quality of products by inspection
Answer: A
148. Which of the following statements is/are false?

1. Fault tree analysis method is used to determine reliability of product
2. The goal of Six Sigma is to reduce number of defects to 2.4 parts per
billion
3. Six sigma is represented by normal distribution curve
4. Poka yoke is a policy which prevents occurrence of human errors
A. only statement 3
B. statement 2 and statement 3
C. only statement 2
D. statement 1, 3 and 4
o m
Answer: C
.c
t e
a principle is to eliminate
149. The aim of Just-In-Time manufacturing
q M
A. time wastage
c
B. labour wastage
M
C. cost of excessive inventory
Answer: D
150. To what does the ISO 9000 standards family apply?
A. calibration
B. e?ciency & productivity
C. quality system design &
Answer: A

151. "The degree to which a set of inherent characteristics of an object

ful?ls requirements" is known as
A. conformity
B. quality
C. grade
o m
.c
te
Answer: A
a
q M
152. Which of the following is not one of the seven Quality Management
Principles? c
M
A. system approach to management
B. engagement of people
C. leadership
D. customer focus
Answer: A
153. The role of management is to ____________________
A. provide resources
B. monitor the effectiveness of the system
C. both a and b
Answer: C
154. ISO – 14001 gives stress on ___________
A. plan – do -check -act

B. environmental protection
C. prevention rather than detection
D. all of the above
Answer: D
155. Service Assurance is _______
A. con?dence with customer
B. customer has trust

o m
C. employee has knowledge
.c
te
D. all of the above
a
Answer: D
q M
c
M
156. When a manager monitors the work performance of workers in his
department to determine if the quality of their work is 'up to standard', this
manager is engaging in which function?
A. planning
B. controlling
C. organizing
D. leadig
Answer: B
157. What are the three C'c of TQM?
A. cultural, country, commitment
B. cultural, comunication and commitment
C. cultural, comunication and contribution
Answer: C

158. ______________ is not a process tools for TQM systems
A. process ?ow analysis
B. histograms
C. lpier
D. control of chart
Answer: C
o m
159. Processes that operate with "six sigma quality" over the short term
.c
are assumed to produce long-term defect levels below defects per million
opportunities (DPMO).
te
a
A. 2.4
q M
B. 2 c
C. 3 M
D. 3.4
Answer: D
160. ______________ are used in six sigma
A. black belt
B. green belt
C. both a and b
Answer: C
161. Customers are primarily concerned with ______________
A. communicatio n, courtesy, and credibility of the sales person
B. competence, courtesy, and security of the sales person
C. competence, responsiveness, and reliability of the sales person

D. communication, responsiveness, and cleverness of the sales person
Answer: A
162. Assured quality is necessary for building customer con?dence.
A. correct
B. correct to some extent
C. correct to great extent
D. incorrect
o m
Answer: A
.c
te
a is
163. "Quality is de?ned by the customer"
q M
c
A. an unrealistic de?nition of quality
M
B. a user-based de?nition of quality
C. a manufacturing- based de?nition of quality
D. a product-based de?nition of quality
Answer: B
164. Deming's 4 step cycle for improvement is______________
A. plan, do, check, act
B. schedule, do, act, check
C. do, act, check, monitor
D. plan, control, act, sustain
Answer: A
165. In Six Sigma, a is de?ned as any process output that does not meet
customer speci?cations
A. error
B. cost

C. quality
D. defect
Answer: D
166. Quality practices must be carried out ______________
A. at the start of the project
B. throuout the life of the project
C. at the end of the project

o m
D. no neeed to carry out quality practices
.c
te
Answer: B
a
q M
167. The Pareto Chart is a bar chart that allows for analysis of data in
c
search of the Pareto Principle or the _______________________
A. 80/20 rule.
M
B. pareto rule
C. negotiation rule
D. all of the above
Answer: A
168. The pareto chart is a that allows us to focus on the issues that are
causing the biggest problem, and thus maximize our impact.
A. prioritization tool
B. mu sigma
C. ishikawa tool
D. all of the above
Answer: A

169. The Cause and Effect diagram is a visual tool to explore all the that
may be causing or contributing to a particular problem
A. potential factors
B. similar factors
C. unrealistic factors
Answer: A
o m
.c
170. Data are onthe check sheet to record the frequency of speci?c events
during a datacollection period.
te
a
A. “collected and tabulated”
q M
B. "circulated" c
C. "reported" M
Answer: A
171. Histogram is very useful tool to describe a of the

frequencydistribution of observed values of a variable
A. sense
B. quality
C. measurement
D. all of the above
Answer: A
172. The diagram is a problem-solving tool that investigates and

analizessystematically all the potential or real causes that result in a single
effect.
A. cause and effect

B. pareto
C. histogram
D. all of the above
Answer: A
173. Which of the following does not affect the software quality and
organizational performance?
A. market
o m
B. product
.c
C. technology
te
a
D. people
q M
Answer: A
c
M
174. Which of the following is an indirect measure of product?
A. quality
B. complexity
C. reliability
D. all of the above
Answer: D
175. A graphical technique for ?nding if changes and variation in metrics

data are meaningful is known as
A. defect removal e?ciency
B. function point analaysis
C. control chart
D. all of the above
Answer: C

176. What encapsulates state data and services in a manner that is

analogous to objects?
A. state box
B. clean box
C. white box
o m
D. black box
.c
te
Answer: A
a
q M
177. MTTF stands for _______________________
c
A. mean-time-to-f unction M
B. mean-time-to-fa ilure
C. manufacture-ti me-to-function
Answer: B
178. A is an existing defect that hasn’t yet ust because another defect has
yet caused a failure because the exact set of conditions were never met.
A. mutant defect
B. bksu defect
C. latent defect
D. delayed defect
Answer: C
179. Which of the following is not a state of a defect in defect life cycle:
A. new

B. open
C. veri?ed
D. critical
Answer: D
180. ........... happens when defect introduced in one phase passes to

another phase without getting caught in the phase-end veri?cation or
validation activities.
A. defect cascading
o m
.c
B. defect prevention
te
C. qc a
D. defect leakage
q M
Answer: D c
M
181. Defect is a technique that was developed to estimate the number of
defects resident in a piece of software.
A. density
B. seeding
C. age
D. latency
Answer: B
182. The main focus of is to reduce defects and variations in the

processes.
A. qa
B. qc
C. six sigma
Answer: C

183. Who among the following suggested seven quality tools for
controlling quality?
A. juran
B. kaoru ishikawa
C. dr. w. edward deming
D. feigenbaum
Answer: B
o m
.c
184. Which among the following depicts positive and negative relation
between driving factor and performance factor?
te
a
A. scatter diagram
q M
B. histogram c
C. check sheet M
Answer: A
185. Which of the following is the limitation of Quality circle?
A. higher cost
B. training time and cost
C. development of leadership
D. all of the above
Answer: B
186. Which of the following is the task ofproject indicators:
A. help in assessment of status of ongoing project
B. track potential risk
C. help in assessment of status of ongoing project and track potential risk

Answer: C
187. The intent of project metrics is :
A. minimization of development schedule
B. for strategic purposes
C. assessig project quality on going basis
o m
D. minimization of development schedule and assessing project quality on going basis
Answer: D
.c
te
188. Inspections and testing are whatakinds of Quality Costs?
q M
A. prevention
c
B. internal failure M
C. external failure
D. appraisal
Answer: D
189. -----------is the ability to encourage by "push or pull" technical people

to produce to their best ability.
A. evaluating
B. motivation
C. monitoring
Answer: B
190. Which of the following is responsible for the quality objective?
A. top level management
B. middle level management

C. frontline management
D. all of the above
Answer: A
191. Select the operating system which is not supported by Selenium IDE
A. unix
B. linux
C. windows
o m
D. solaries
.c
te
Answer: A
a
192. The Selenium RC is used q M
c
M
A. to run your test against different browers on different opearting systems
B. to create test with little or no prior knowledge in programming
C. to test a web application against ?refox only
D. to run a huge test suite, that can be executed on multiple machines
Answer: A
193. Out of the following which can only test web applications
A. qtp
B. selenium
Answer: B
194. Select the component which is not part of Selenium Suite
A. selenium ide
B. selenium rc
C. seleniumgrid

D. selenium web
Answer: D
195. Select the language which is not supported by the Selenium RC
A. asp
B. java
C. c#
D. php
o m
Answer: A
.c
te
196. Select the name which is not theatype of locators
q M
A. id
c
B. name M
C. password
D. link text
Answer: C
197. The Web Driver is used
A. to execute tests on the html unit browser
B. to design a test using selenese
C. to quickly create tests
D. to test a web application against firefox only
Answer: A
198. The Selenium IDE is used
A. to create customized test results
B. to deploy your tests across multiple environments using selenium grid

C. to test with html unit
D. to test a web application against firefox only
Answer: D
199. Select the browser which is supported by Selenium IDE
A. google chrome
B. opera mini
C. mozilla firefox
o m
D. internet explorer
.c
te
Answer: C
a
200. Selenium IDE stands for q M
c
M
A. selenium initialization development environment
B. selenium interrelated development environment
C. selenium integrated development environment
D. selenium information development environment
Answer: C

201. Is Web driver a component of the Selenium ?
A. no
B. yes
Answer: B
o m
.c
202. Select the component which is not a type of assertion in Selenium IDE
te
A. assert
a
B. verify
q M
C. waitfor c
D. wait
M
Answer: D
203. Select the method which selects the option at the at the given index
A. selectbyindex()
B. selectindex()
C. selectedbyinde x()
D. selectbyindexe s()
Answer: A
204. The selenium can
A. access controls within the desktop
B. both web and desktop applications
C. only test web applications
Answer: C

205. The Selenium
A. provides professional computer support
B. tests reports are generated automatically
C. comes with a built in object repository
D. cannot access elements outside of the web application under test
Answer: D
206. Can Google Chrome be supported by Selenium o m

.c
A. yes
te
a
B. no
q M
Answer: B
c
M
207. Can Unix operating system be supported by Selenium
A. no
B. yes
Answer: A
208. Which command can be used to enter values onto text boxes ?
A. sendskey()
B. sendkey()
C. sendkeys
D. sendkeys()
Answer: D
209. Select the language which is supported by the Selenium Web driver
A. perl
B. sql

C. asp
D. cobol
Answer: A
210. Which Selenium Component Supports all operating systems
A. selenium generator
B. selenium ide
C. selenium webdriver
o m
Answer: C
.c
te
a used to open a web page using
211. Select the command in SeleniumIDE
theURL
q M
c
A. openrecord
B. open
M
C. opentext
D. opentable
Answer: B
212. In case of Selenium IDE, the source view shows your script in
A. dhtml format
B. xml format
C. j2ee format
D. html format
Answer: D
213. The Actions Commands
A. are commands that directly interact with page elements
B. are commands that allow you to store values to a variable

C. are commands that verify if a certain condition is met
Answer: A
214. Select the command which is used to check the presence of a certain
element
A. verifytable
B. verifytitlepres ent
C. verifytextpres ent
o m
D. verifyelement present
.c
Answer: D
te
a
q M
215. Select the command which is used to print a string value of a variable
in Selenium IDE c
A. the \display\ command
M
B. the \echo\ command
C. the \print\ command
D. the \printr\ command
Answer: B
216. Which component of Selenium can create customized test results ?
A. web driver
B. selenium rc
C. selenium ide
D. selenium grid
Answer: A
217. Select the command that will not wait for the new page to load before
moving on to the next command

A. clickandwait
B. typeandwait
C. selectandwait
D. selectandtype
Answer: D
218. Select the command which is used to pause execution until the page
is loaded completely
o m
A. waitforpageto load
.c
B. waitforelemen tpresent
te
a
C. waitforpage
q M
D. waitforload
c
Answer: A
M
219. What can be used to test Flex/Flash aplication using Selenium
A. flexuiseleniu m
B. flexui
C. uiflexseleniu m
D. seleniumflex
Answer: A
220. Select the command which is used to compare the actual page title
with an expected value
A. verifytitle
B. veri?edtitle
C. verifytitles
D. veri?edtitles
Answer: A

221. Select the tab which gives feedback and other useful information
when executing tests
A. information
B. feddback
C. reference
D. element
Answer: C
o m
222. What is TestNG ? .c
te
A. testnextgener ation a
B. testnewgenerl ization
q M
c
C. testnewgener ation
D. testnextgener ations
M
Answer: A
223. Select the tab that shows which command Selenium IDE is currently
executing
A. variable
B. data
C. information
D. info
Answer: D
224. Which is a faster component between the Selenium Web driver and
Selenium RC
A. selenium web driver
B. selenium web driver
Answer: B

225. select the variation which locates elements by the value of their "id"
attribute in Web Driver Selenium
A. by.id
B. by.idno
C. by.id_no
D. by.tag_id
Answer: A
o m
.c
te
a
q M
c
M

Software Testing and Quality Assurance (STQA) MCQs [set-
10]
226. Select the method which clears all selected entries in Web Driver
Selenium
A. dselectall()
B. deselect_al()
o m
C. dselect_al()
.c
D. deselectall()
te
a
Answer: D
q M
coption which displays the text matching the
parameter passed to it M
227. Method which selects the
A. selectvisiblete xt()
B. selectbyvisible text()
C. select_visiblet ext()
D. select_byvisibl etext()
Answer: B
228. Out of the following which is not a wait comand
A. waitfortitle
B. waitfortextpre sent
C. waitforactive
D. waitforalert
Answer: C

229. Select the command which retrieves the alert message and stores it in
a variable that you will specify
A. storealert
B. storedalert
C. store_alert
D. storesalert
Answer: A
o m
.c
230. Select the method which performs a context-click at the curent mouse
location
te
a
A. click_context()
q M
B. context.click() c
C. contextclick() M
D. context_click()
Answer: C
231. A tool is piece of software that enables people to de?ne software

testing tasks.
A. a.test automation
B. b.selenium
C. c.hpe
D. d.ranorex
Answer: A
232. Test automation tool can be expensive and usually employed in

cambination with____.
A. a.system testing
B. b.software tesating

C. c.manual testin
D. d.beta testing
Answer: C
233. The behavior observed when a or system is tested
A. a.component
B. b.test case
C. c.code
o m
D. d.data
.c
te
Answer: A
a
q M
234. Which skill does not require for automation engineer
c
A. a.troubleshoot ing M
B. b.coding
C. c.certi?cation
D. d.designing
Answer: D
235. which test are important to exercise code functiojnality without

touching any dependency
A. a.system test
B. b.code test
C. c.unit test
D. d.manual test
Answer: C
236. Which automation testing is a key area in testing processes.
A. a.performance testing

B. b.functional testing
C. d.load testing
D. d.stress testing
Answer: B
237. ____testing is the process of evaluating the application performance.
A. a.load testing
B. b.stress testing
o m
C. c.performanc e testing
.c
te
D. d.functional testing
a
Answer: C
q M
c
M
238. Identifying the Current business practices with respect to automation
in the target organisation involves in which test
A. a.current state
B. b.future state
C. c.gap analysis
D. d.business case
Answer: A
239. Which automation framework step is based on the input provided by

the gap analysis.
A. a.work plan
B. b.business case
C. c.requiremen t anlysiss
D. risk management
Answer: C
240. In which step automation framework is identi?ed as an "ideal world"

scenario.
A. a.future state
B. b.current state
C. c.business case
D. d.work plan
Answer: A
241. In which layer the system being tested

o m
A. a.domain layer
.c
te
B. b.system under test layer
a
C. c.test cases layer
q M
D. d.none of this
c
Answer: B M
242. which cruteria must satisfy in order to be accepted by the
user,customer.
A. a.acceptance criteria
B. b.testing
C. c.result
D. d.adaptability
Answer: A
243. ____testing is often employed as a form of intrernal acceptance

testing
A. a.alpha testing
B. b.agile testing
C. c.beta testing
D. anamoly
Answer: A

244. What allows to implement application speci?c test automation
solution by adding so,e extra code
A. a.test automation framework
B. b.test complexity
C. c.reporting
D. d.maintainan ce cost
Answer: A
o m
.c
e
245. What does automated software testing improves
t
a
A. a.complexity
q M
B. b.design
c
C. c.code
D. d.software quality
M
Answer: D
246. What is the unit of measurement that is used to measure the size of a
user story for an Agile project?
A. a. function points
B. b. story points
C. c. work breakdown points
D. d. velocity points
Answer: B
247. Agility is nothing more than the ability of project team to respond
rapidly to change.
A. a.false
B. b.true

C. c.
D. d.
Answer: A
248. Which of the following is a characteristic of an Agile leader?
A. a.task focused
B. b.supportive
C. c.process oriented
o m
D. d.disintereste d
.c
te
Answer: B
a
249. Which is a Procedure? q M
c
A. a.exit M
B. b.waitforpro perty
C. c.wait
D. d.none of these.
Answer: C
250. Which of the following is not a valid reason for automating a test
case?
A. a.the test will need to be executed once, but with a large set of data.
B. b.the test will help in saving time for doing exploratory testing.
C. c.the test is important for the business and typical use case for testing.
D. d.the test gives intermittent results and impossible to test manually.
Answer: D

11]
251. The main goal of Automation Testing is to the number of test cases to
be run manually
A. a.increase
B. b.reduce
o m
C. c.enlarge
.c
D. d.multiply
te
a
Answer: B
q M
c testing?
M
252. Why will you do automation
A. a.it increases defect detection ratio.
B. b.it improves the quality of production code.
C. c.it improves the e?ciency of testing.
D. d.it reduces the cost of testing.
Answer: C
253. Which of the following is not a BDD automation framework?
A. a.cucumber
B. b.jbehave
C. c.watir
D. d.concordion
Answer: C
254. What type of test cases should you not automate?
A. a.tests that don\t require re-execution

B. b.tests that demand continuous testing
C. c.tests that fall under the acceptance test criteria
D. d.tests that require cross-platfor m testing
Answer: A
255. Iterative development is NOT a good idea for?
A. a.back end development
B. b. front end development

o m
C. c. middleware development
.c
te
D. d.software development
a
Answer: B
q M
c
M
256. Which of the following is not a characteristic of the good automation
tool?
A. a.robust object identi?cation.
B. b.support of cross-platfor m testing.
C. c.easy integration with ci tools
D. d.good debugging ability.
Answer: C
257. Which of the following is the best approach for automation in the long
term?
A. a. build a team with members having development skills
B. b.outsource automation tasks to external vendors
C. c.associate with the developers to start automation
D. d.train manual testers and start automation
Answer: A

258. JMeter is for performance testing, whereas Selenium is mainly for _.
A. a.performance testing
B. b.automation testing
C. c.sanity testing
D. d.regression testing
Answer: B
259. JUnit is a testing tool o m

.c
A. a.unit
te
a
B. b.load
q M
C. c.block
c
D. d. agile
M
Answer: A
260. Apache is an open source Java application designed to load test

functional behavior and gauge software performance.
A. a.junit
B. b.selenium
C. c.jmeter
D. d.loader
Answer: C
261. Who performs manual testing
A. a.designer
B. b.tester
C. c.machine
D. d.user
Answer: D

262. Which tool is used for test managing scheduling,tracking and
analysis
A. a.test management tool
B. b.test comparator tool
C. c.test execution tool
D. d.performanc e testing tool
Answer: A
o m
.c
263. Who does static testing
te
a
A. a.tester
q M
B. b.developer
c
C. c.team members
D. d.user
M
Answer: B
264. Which is not a challenge for framework design
A. a.time
B. b.resources
C. c.quality
D. d.debugging
Answer: D
265. The power of machines to control the executiion of testd,compare

their outcomes is called_____
A. a.testing software
B. b.automation testing
C. c.system testing

D. d.manual testing
Answer: B
266. When forming an Agile project team it is BEST to use_____
A. a.generalized specialists
B. b.top management o?cials
C. c.highly specialized developers
D. d.all of the above

o m
Answer: A
.c
te
a
267. What is NOT an Agile methodology?
q M
c
A. a.extreme programming (xp)
B. b.scrum M
C. c.crystal clear
D. d.pmbok?? 3
Answer: D
268. The ' // ' tells the query that _.
A. a.it needs to stop at the ?rst element that it ?nds
B. b.this is comment
C. c.the path of the ?le or folder
D. d. all of these
Answer: A
269. Which of the following tools would be involved in the automation for
regression test
A. a. data tester
B. b.output comparator

C. c.boundary testing
D. d.capture/ playback
Answer: D
270. Defects are less costly if detected in which of the following phases
A. coding
B. design
C. requirements gathering
o m
D. implementation
.c
te
Answer: C
a
271. User Acceptance testing is q M
c
A. white box testing M
C. gray box testing
Answer: B
272. Error guessing is a
A. test verification techniques
B. test execution techniques
C. test control management techniques
D. test data management technique
Answer: D
273. Histogram refers to
A. bar chart

B. run chart
C. pareto diagram
D. correlation diagram
Answer: A
274. Pareto principle advocates
A. 20-80 rule
B. 80-20 rule
o m
C. 40-60 rule
.c
te
D. 60-40 rule
a
Answer: B
q M
c
M
275. Which one is not Structural Testing?
A. regression
B. parallel
C. acceptance
D. stress
Answer: C

12]
276. Testing comes under which category of cost of quality?
A. preventive
B. appraisal
C. failure
o m
D. none of the above .c
te
Answer: B
a
q M
c
277. Which of the following is not true about Incremental testing?
A. top-down approach can be usedM

B. use of stubs or drivers are required
C. all modules need to be completed prior to testing
D. bottom – up approach is also possible
Answer: C
278. Which of the following is not a part of test plan?
A. scope
B. mission
C. objective
D. risk
Answer: B
279. Which one is not Statistical Tool?
A. cause and effect graphing

B. stratification
C. run chart
D. regression analysis
Answer: A
280. The ‘v’ represent the following term:
A. verification and validation
B. static testing and dynamic testing

o m
C. black box testing and white box testing
.c
te
a
D. software development process and software testing process
Answer: D
q M
c
281. Function point is a measure of
M
A. effort
B. complexity
C. usability
D. size
Answer: D
282. You are told to prepare a report on the most commonly occurring
product defects. You review the software defect reports, which categories
the defects of coding errors, requirement errors, documentation errors,
etc. The best tool to report this information is
A. a histogram
B. a pareto diagram
C. a cause and effect diagram
D. a scatter plot
Answer: A

283. A statistical technique to assess, monitor and maintain the stability of
a process is
A. pareto chart
B. control chart
C. run chart
D. histogram
Answer: B
o m
.c
284. The two types of incremental testing approaches are top down and
bottom up approach.
te
a
A. true
q M
B. false c
Answer: A M
285. If the measurement taken by the two people are same refers to the
terms as
A. reliability
B. validity
C. calibration
D. ease of use and simplicity
Answer: A
286. Test Readiness review is conducted by the
A. project manager
B. test manager
C. quality assurance personnel
D. user/customer
Answer: B

287. To which phase will training cost fall?
A. failure
B. prevention
C. build
D. appraisal
Answer: B
o m
288. You are performing a test to see that it complies with the user
.c
requirement that a certain field be populated by using a drop down box
te
containing a list of values. What kind of testing are you doing?
a
q M
B. black box testing c
C. load testing M
Answer: B
289. Which is the reputed testing standard?
A. m bridge awards
B. qai
C. iso
D. microsoft
Answer: C
290. Which of the following is not a major task of Exit criteria?
A. checking test logs against the exit criteria specified in test planning.
B. logging the outcome of test execution.
C. assessing if more tests are needed.

D. writing a test summary report for stakeholders.
Answer: B
291. Testing where in we subject the target of the test , to varying

workloads to measure and evaluate the performance behaviors and ability
of the target and of the test to continue to function properly under these
different workloads.
A. load testing
o m
C. system testing
.c
te
D. usability testing
a
Answer: A
q M
c
M
292. Testing activity which is performed to expose defects in the interfaces
and in the interaction between integrated components is :-
A. system level testing
B. integration level testing
C. unit level testing
D. component testing
Answer: B
293. Static analysis is best described as:
A. the analysis of batch programs.
B. the reviewing of test plans.
C. the analysis of program code.
D. the use of black box testing.
Answer: C
294. One of the fields on a form contains a text box which accepts alpha

numeric values. Identify the Valid Equivalence class
A. book
B. book
C. boo01k
D. book
Answer: C
295. Reviewing the test Basis is a part of which phase

o m
A. test analysis and design
.c
te
B. test implementation and execution
a
C. test closure activities
q M
c
D. evaluating exit criteria and reporting
Answer: A M
296. Reporting Discrepancies as incidents is a part of which phase :-
B. test implementation and execution
Answer: B
297. Which of the following items would not come under Configuration
Management?
A. operating systems
B. test documentation
C. live data
D. user requirement document
Answer: C

298. Handover of Test-ware is a part of which Phase
B. test planning and control
Answer: C
o m
299. The Switch is switched off once the temperature falls below 18 and
.c
then it is turned on when the temperature is more than 21. Identify the
Equivalence values which belong to the same class.
te
a
A. 12,16,22
q M
B. 24,27,17 c
C. 22,23,24 M
D. 14,15,19
Answer: C
300. The approach/document used to make sure all the requirements are
covered when writing test cases
A. test matrix
B. checklist
C. test bed
D. traceability matrix
Answer: D

13]
301. Executing the same test case by giving the number of inputs on same
build called as
B. retesting
o m
C. ad hoc testing
.c
D. sanity testing
te
a
Answer: B
q M
c technique to assess, monitor, and
maintain the stability of a M
302. Control Charts is a statistical
process.
A. true
B. false
Answer: A
303. To check whether we are developing the right product according to

the customer requirements are not. It is a static process
A. validation
B. verification
D. quality control
Answer: B
304. To check whether we have developed the product according to the

customer requirements r not. It is a Dynamic process.

A. validation
B. verification
D. quality control
Answer: A
305. Staff development plan describes how the skills and experience of the
project team members will be developed.
o m
A. true
.c
B. false
te
a
Answer: A
q M
c a testing maturity hierarchy
306. It is a set of levels that defines
M
A. tim (testing improving model)
B. tmm (testing maturity model)
C. tqm(total quality management)
Answer: B
307. A Non-Functional Software testing done to check if the user interface

is easy to use and understand
A. usability testing
B. security testing
C. unit testing
D. block box testing
Answer: A
308. The review and approved document (i.e. Test plan, System
Requirement Specification’s) is called as

A. delivery document
B. baseline document
C. checklist
Answer: B
309. What are the Testing Levels?
A. unit testing
o m
C. system testing and acceptance testing.
.c
te
D. all the above
a
Answer: D
q M
c
M
310. Cost of quality = Prevention Cost + Appraisal cost + Failure cost
A. true
B. false
Answer: A
311. A useful tool to visualize, clarify, link, identify, and classify possible
cause of a problem. This is also called as “fishbone diagram” what is this?
A. pareto analysis
B. cause-and-effect diagram
Answer: B
312. It measures the quality of processes used to create a quality product.

It is a system of management activities, It is a preventive process, It
applies for entire life cycle & Deals with Process.
A. validation
B. verification

D. quality control
Answer: C
313. Variance from product specifications is called?
A. report
B. requirement
C. defect
o m
Answer: C
.c
te
314. Verification is a
q M
A. process based
c
B. product based M
Answer: A
315. White box testing is not called as___________
A. glass box testing
B. closed box testing
C. open box testing
D. clear box testing
Answer: B
316. Name the events that will be analyzed, Count the named incidents,
Rank the count by frequency using a bar chart & Validate reasonableness
of the analysis is called as
A. pareto analysis
B. cause and effect diagram
C. swot analysis

D. pie charts
Answer: A
317. Retesting of a single program or component after a change has been

made?
A. full regression testing
B. unit regression
C. regional regression
o m
D. retesting
.c
Answer: B
te
a
q M
318. Requirement and Analysis, Design, Development or Coding, Testing
c
and Maintenance is called as Software Development Life Cycle (SDLC)
A. true
M
B. false
Answer: A
319. The testing which is done by going thro' the code is known as,
A. unit testing
B. blackbox testing
C. white box testing
Answer: C
320. Configuration Management Plan describes the Configuration

Management procedures and structures to be used.
A. true
B. false
Answer: A

321. This type of testing method attempts to find incorrect or missing
functions, errors in data structures or external database access, interface
errors, Performance errors and initialization and Termination errors. It is
called as
B. grey box testing
C. black box testing
D. open box testing

o m
Answer: C
.c
te
a
322. Phase Definition. It will come under
q M
A. cmm level 1
c
B. cmm level 2 M
C. none
Answer: B
323. Software testing which is done without planning and Documentation

is known as
A. adhoc testing
B. unit testing
C. regression testing
D. functional testing.
Answer: A
324. Acceptance testing is known as
A. beta testing
B. greybox testing
C. test automation

D. white box testing
Answer: A
325. Retesting the entire application after a change has been made called
as?
B. unit regression
o m
D. retesting
.c
Answer: A
te
a
q M
c
M

14]
326. Boundary value analysis belongs to which testing method?
Answer: A
o m
. c
327. It measures the quality of a producte
procedure, It is a corrective process,a
t It is a specific part of the QA
It applies for particular product &
Deals with the product.
q M
c
A. validation
B. verification
M
D. quality control
Answer: D
328. What are the Types of Integration Testing?
A. big bang testing
B. bottom up testing
C. top down testing
D. all the above
Answer: D
329. Product Risk affects The quality or performance of the software.
A. true
B. false
Answer: A

330. A metric used to measure the characteristic of documentation and
code called as
A. process metric
B. product metric
C. test metrics
Answer: B
o
331. Which is non-functional software testing?
m
.c
A. unit testing
te
a
B. block box testing
q M
C. performance testing
c
Answer: C
M
332. The process that deals with the technical and management issues of
software development called as?
A. delivery process
B. testing process
C. software process
Answer: C
333. Executing the same test case on a modified build called as
B. retesting
C. ad hoc testing
D. sanity testing
Answer: A

334. Which is Black-Box Testing method?
A. equivalence partitioning
B. code coverage
C. fault injection
Answer: A
335. Business Risk affects The Organization developing or Procuring the

software.
o m
.c
A. true
te
B. false a
Answer: A
q M
c
M
336. Stratification is a Technique used to analyze/divide a universe of data
into homogeneous groups(stratA..
A. true
B. false
Answer: A
337. Informing to the developer which bug to be fix first is called as
A. severity
B. priority
C. fix ability
D. traceability
Answer: B
338. Software Testing is a process of evaluating a system by manual or

automatic means and verify that it satisfies specified requirements or
identity differences between expected and actual results.

A. true
B. false
Answer: A
339. Retesting modules connected to the program or component after a

change has been made?
B. unit regression
o m
.c
D. retesting.
te
a
Answer: C
q M
c number of defects found in internal testing
340. An Important metric is the
M in customer tests, Status of test activities
compared to the defects found
against the plan, Test coverage achieved so far, comes under
A. process metric
B. product metric
C. test metric
Answer: C
341. Alpha testing will be done at,
A. user\s site
B. developers\ site
Answer: B
342. SPICE Means
A. software process improvement and capability determination
B. software process improvement and compatibility determination.

C. software process invention and compatibility determination.
D. software process improvement and control determination
Answer: A
343. It provides a set of levels and an assessment model, and presents a

set of recommended practices that allow organizations to improve their
testing processes.
A. tim (testing improving model)
B. tmm (testing maturity model)

o m
.c
C. tqm(total quality management)
te
Answer: A a
q M
c
344. Standards and procedures for managing changes in an evolving
M
software product is called?
A. confirmation management
B. confederation mangement
C. configuration management
D. compartability management
Answer: C
345. Path Tested = Number of Path Tested / Total Number of Paths
A. true
B. false
Answer: A
346. This Testing Technique examines the basic program structure and it
derives the test data from the program logic; Ensuring that all statements
and conditions executed at least once. It is called as
A. block box testing

C. grey box testing
D. closed box testing
Answer: B
347. This type of test include, how well the user will be able to understand
and interact with the system?
A. usability testing
o m
B. user acceptance testing
.c
C. alpha testing
te
a
D. beta testing.
q M
Answer: A
c
M
348. Defects generally fall into the following categories?
A. wrong
B. missing
C. extra
D. all the above
Answer: D
349. What is correct Software Process Cycle?
A. plan(p)------>check(c)------>act(a)----->do(d)
B. plan(p)------>do(d)------>check(c)----->act(a)
C. plan(p)------>do(d)------>act(a)----->check(c)
Answer: B
350. Conducted to validate that the application, database, and network

they may be running on can handle projected volumes of users and data
effectively. The test is conducted jointly by developers, testers, DBA’s and

network associates after the system Testing called as
A. functional testing
B. stress/load testing
C. recovery testing
D. integration testing
Answer: B
o m
.c
te
a
q M
c
M

15]
351. Maintenance Plan predicts the maintenance requirements of the

system, maintenance costs and effort required
A. true
B. false
o m
Answer: A
.c
te
352. Beta testing will be done by a
q M
A. developer
c
B. user M
C. tester
Answer: B
353. Validation plan describes the approach ,resources and schedule used
for system validation
A. true
B. false
Answer: A
354. Integration, It will come under
A. cmm level 1
B. cmm level 3
C. cmm level 2
D. none
Answer: B

355. Types of quality tools are Problem Identification Tools and Problem
Analysis Tools.
A. true
B. false
Answer: A
356. Which Software Development Life cycle model will require to start
m
Testing Activities when starting development activities itself
o
A. water falls model
.c
te
B. spiral model
a
C. v-model
q M
D. linear model c
Answer: C M
357. A metric used to measure the characteristic of the methods,
Techniques and tools employed in developing, implementing and
maintaining the software system called as
A. process metric
B. product metric
C. test metrics
Answer: A
358. Check Sheet(Checklist. is considered a simple , but powerful

statistical tool because it differentiates between two extremes.
A. true
B. false
Answer: A
359. Application should be stable. Clear Design and Flow of the

application is needed for Automation testing.
A. false
B. true
Answer: B
360. Quality plan describes the quality procedures and standards that will
be used in a project.
A. false
o m
B. true
.c
Answer: B
te
a
q M
361. How severely the bug is effecting the application is called as
c
A. severity
B. priority
M
C. fix ability
D. traceability
Answer: A
362. Project Risk affects The Schedule or Resources.
A. true
B. false
Answer: A
363. The name of the testing which is done to make sure the existing
features are not affected by new changes
A. recursive testing
B. whitebox testing
C. unit testing

Answer: D
364. Management and Measurement, It will come under
A. cmm level 1
B. cmm level 3
C. cmm level 4
D. cmm level 2
o m
Answer: C
.c
te
365. AdHoc testing is a part of a
q M
A. unit testing
c
B. regression tesing M
C. exploratory testing
D. performance testing
Answer: C
366. Cost of Production = Right The First time cost(RTF. + Cost of Quality.
A. true
B. false
Answer: A
367. ------------- means under what test environment(Hardware, software set

up. the application will run smoothly
A. test bed
B. checkpoint
C. code walk through
D. checklist
Answer: A

368. TQM represents
A. tool quality management
B. test quality manager
C. total quality management
D. total quality manager
Answer: C
m
o Control. Its come under
c
369. Optimization, Defect Prevention, and Quality
.
the
e
at
A. cmm level 2
q M
B. cmm level 3
c
C. cmm level 4
D. cmm level5
M
Answer: D
370. Unit Testing will be done by
A. testers
B. end users
C. customer
D. developers
Answer: D
371. Beta testing will be done at
A. user place
B. developers place
Answer: A

372. A Plan to overcome the risk called as
A. migration plan
B. master plan
C. maintenance plan
D. mitigation plan
Answer: D
o m
373. Which of the following is not included in failure costs?
.c
A. rework
te
a
B. repair
q M
C. failure mode analysis
c
M
Answer: D
374. Which requirements are the foundation from which quality is

measured?
A. hardware
B. software
C. programmers
Answer: B
375. Which of the following is not a SQA plan for a project?
A. evaluations to be performed
B. amount of technical work
C. audits and reviews to be performed
D. documents to be produced by the sqa group
Answer: B

16]
376. Degree to which design specifications are followed in manufacturing

the product is called
A. quality control
B. quality of conformance
o m
.c
te
a
Answer: B
q M
377. Which of the following iscnot an appraisal cost in SQA?
M
A. inter-process inspection
B. maintenance
C. quality planning
D. testing
Answer: C
378. Who identifies, documents, and verifies that corrections have been
made to the software?
A. project manager
B. project team
C. sqa group
Answer: C
379. What is not included in prevention costs?

A. quality planning
B. formal technical reviews
C. test equipment
D. equipment calibration and maintenance
Answer: D
380. Quality Management in software engineering is also known as
A. sqa
o m
B. sqm
.c
te
C. sqi
a
D. sqa and sqm
q M
Answer: A
c
M
381. Which of the following is not a core step of Six Sigma?
A. define
B. control
C. measure
D. analyse
Answer: B
A. software availability
C. software failure
Answer: C
383. What kind of quality cost is incurred when an error is detected in a

product prior to shipment?
A. prevention
B. internal failure
C. external failure
D. appraisal
Answer: B
manufacturing is known as o m
384. The degree to which the design specifications are followed during
.c
A. quality of design
te
B. quality of conformance a
C. quality of testing q M
c
Answer: B
M
A. developer?s end
B. user?s end
C. developer?s & user?s end
Answer: A
A. always possible
B. practically possible
C. impractical but possible
D. impractical and impossible
Answer: C

387. White Box techniques are also classified as
A. design based testing
B. structural testing
C. error guessing technique
Answer: B
388. Which of the following term describes testing? o m

.c
te
a
B. evaluating deliverable to find errors
q M
c
M
Answer: B
389. The testing in which code is checked
C. red box testing
D. green box testing
Answer: B
390. Acceptance testing is also known as
A. grey box testing
C. alpha testing
D. beta testing
Answer: D

391. Which of the following is non-functional testing?
C. unit testing
Answer: B
392. Beta testing is done at o m

.c
A. user?s end
te
a
B. developer?s end
q M
C. user?s & developer?s end
c
M
Answer: A
393. Unit testing is done by
A. users
B. developers
C. customers
Answer: B
C. grey box testing
Answer: B

395. Which of the following is black box testing
A. basic path testing
B. boundary value analysis
C. code path analysis
Answer: B
o m
.c
A. alpha testing
te
a
B. beta testing
q M
C. validation testing
c
D. both alpha and beta
M
Answer: D
397. What is normally considered as an adjunct to the coding step
B. unit testing
C. completion of testing
Answer: B
398. What is the main purpose of integration testing?
A. design errors
B. interface errors
C. procedure errors
Answer: B

399. Testing of individual components by the developers are comes under
which type of testing?
B. validation testing
C. unit testing
Answer: C
o m
.c
400. When the Testing Principles are useful while building the Software
Product?
te
a
A. during testing
q M
B. during execution c
C. during review M
D. throughout life-cycle
Answer: D

17]
401. Which of the following is not a part of Performance Testing?
A. measuring transaction rate.
B. measuring response time.
C. measuring the loc.

o m
D. none of the above .c
te
Answer: C
a
q M
c
402. Which of the following is the form of Alpha and Beta Testing?
A. acceptance testing M
B. system testing
C. unit testing
D. integration testing
Answer: A
A. tester can find bugs
B. any user can test software
C. missed defects are not due to testers
D. complete testing is not possible
Answer: B
404. SDLC stands for ________
A. software development life cycle

B. system development life cycle
C. software design life cycle
D. system design life cycle
Answer: A
405. Which of the following divides the input domain into classes
containing data?
A. equivalent partitioning
o m
B. environment partitioning
.c
C. procedure division
te
a
D. compilation division
q M
Answer: A
c
406. -------- is not a Test Document.
M
A. test policy
B. test case
C. pin ( project initiation note)
D. rtm (requirement traceability matrix)
Answer: C
407. In TQM , the contributions of quality Guru W. Edward Deming
A. deming’s 14 points
B. deming’s cycle
C. system of profound knowledge
D. all the above
Answer: D
408. TQM culture of quality requirements focuses on

A. product oriented
B. process oriented
C. customer oriented
D. supplier oriented
Answer: B
409. Maslow says that Human beings are full of needs & wants. And these
needs will lead to their?
o m
A. job
.c
B. behavior
te
a
C. attitude
q M
D. motivation
c
Answer: B
M
410. While setting Quality objective, which need is to be considered.
A. organization need
B. customer need
C. employees need
D. all of the above
Answer: B
411. Kaizen is a – process the purpose of which goes beyond simple

productivity improvement.
A. weekly
B. daily
C. monthly
D. annual
Answer: B

412. Which of the following are responsible for Quality objective?
A. top level management
B. middle level management
C. frontline management
D. all of the above
Answer: A
o m
413. Which quality management program is related to the maintenance of
plants and equipments? .c
te
A. environmental management systems a
B. fault tree analysis
q M
c
C. failure mode effect analysis
D. total productive maintenance

M
Answer: D
414. ISO 9001 is not concerned with of quality records
A. collection
B. maintenance
C. verification
D. dis-positioning
Answer: C
415. The benefits realized by implementing an ISO 14000 quality system

are
A. resource benefits, party benefits
B. global benefits, organizational benefits
C. public benefits ,private benefits

D. management benefits, employee benefits
Answer: B
416. ISO 14000 standards divided into two area they are
A. organization ,product evaluation standards
B. global , environmental standards
C. management, assessment standards
D. customer, public standards

o m
Answer: A
.c
te
a in QMS?
417. What is the purpose of ISO 9001:2008
q M
A. requirement
c
B. planning M
C. documentation
D. verification
Answer: A
418. The two generic ISO standards are
A. iso 9001 & iso 14001
B. iso 8402 & iso 13999
C. qs 9000 &ts 16949
Answer: A
419. How can quality be quantified? (Q=Quality, P=Performance,

E=Expectations)
A. q=p/e
B. q=p+e

C. q=p-e
D. q=p*e
Answer: A
420. Quality control approach focuses on
A. finding and fixing defects
B. creation of of process framework
C. managing quality
o m
D. all of these
.c
te
Answer: A
a
q M
421. Quality planning at organisational level must be done by
c
M
A. people responsible for managing the unit
B. senior management
C. supplier
D. customer
Answer: B
422. Cost required for developing the right product by right method at the
first time is called as:
A. cost of manufacturing
B. cost of quality
C. cost of prevention
D. cost of failure
Answer: A
423. In ------------ changes in environment is followed by stabilisation
A. continuous improvement

B. continual improvemnet
C. quality control
D. none of these
Answer: A
424. 'Big Bang' approach involve testing software system
A. after development work
B. before development work

o m
C. during development work
.c
te
D. all of these
a
Answer: A
q M
c
M
425. Cost of appraisal represents
A. green money
B. blue money
C. red money
D. none of these
Answer: B

18]
426. Test scenarios are written by
A. developers
B. testers
C. suppliers
o m
D. customers .c
te
Answer: B
a
q M
c
427. Due to existence of a certain defect few more defects are introduced
or seen is normally termed as
M
A. camouflage effect
B. coverage effect
C. cascading effect
D. redundant effect
Answer: C
428. Which of the following risk does NOT include product risks in
software testing?
A. failure-prone software delivered
B. software that does not perform its intended functions
C. low quality of the design and coding
D. poor data integrity and quality
Answer: C
429. Exit criteria is determined during ______.

A. test closure activity
B. implementation and execution
C. evaluating exit criteria and reporting
D. planning and control
Answer: D
430. Which of the following is a static test?
A. coverage analysis
o m
B. code inspection
.c
te
C. usability assessment
a
D. installation test
q M
Answer: B
c
M
431. Which of the following is not the integration strategy?
A. design based
B. bottom-up
C. big-bang
D. top-down
Answer: A
432. 6. Which of the following uses Impact Analysis most?
A. non-functional system testing
B. component testing
C. user acceptance testing
D. maintenance testing
Answer: D
433. What type of review requires formal entry and exit criteria, including

metrics?
A. management review
B. inspection
C. walkthrough
D. post project review
Answer: B
end-users is called: o m
434. A deviation from the specified or expected behavior that is visible to
.c
A. an error
te
B. a fault a
C. a failure q M
c
D. a defect
Answer: C
M
435. Unit Tests can detect ________________
A. regressions
B. quality check
C. database errors
D. enforced error
Answer: A
436. … execute test objects using the automated test scripts.
A. test data preparation tools
B. monitoring tools
C. dynamic analysis tools
D. test execution tools
Answer: D

437. … store and manage defects, failure, change requests, or perceived
problems and anomalies.
A. requirements management tools
B. test management tools
C. incident management tools
D. configuration management tools
Answer: C
o m
.c
438. … helps with identifying inconsistent or missing requirements.
te
A. requirements management tools a
q M
c
M
Answer: A
439. … are necessary for storage and version management of testware and
related software.
A. requirements management tools
Answer: D
440. … are used to validate software models by enumerating

inconsistencies and finding defects.
A. review tools
B. static analysis tools
C. modeling tools

D. test design tools
Answer: C
441. … are used in component and component integration testing and

when testing middleware.
A. test data preparation tools
B. monitoring tools
C. dynamic analysis tools
o m
D. test execution tools
.c
Answer: C
te
a
q M
442. Which is the assertion tests where each server response was
c
received within a given amount of time?
A. duration
M
B. size
C. xml
D. response
Answer: A

Software Testing and Quality Assurance MCQ with Answers
1. When there are disagreements between the phase project manager and overall project manager, the matter
should be escalated to the ____.
a. Top-level Managers
b. Upper Management
c. Change Control Board
d. CEO
2. Which of the following is a snapshot of the project that gives a concise summary of the current condition of a
project?
a. Six Sigma
b. Earned Value Analysis
c. Software Metric
d. Project Status Report
3. The objective of ____ is to find problems and fix them to improve quality of a project.
a. Software bug
b. Software complexity
c. Software testing
d. Software development
4. Which type of testing process will create test scripts that will run automatically, repetitively and through
much iteration?
a. White Box Testing
b. Black Box Testing
c. Manual Testing
d. Automated Testing
5. Unit testing is to test the ____ of the units.

a. Performance
b. System issues
c. Functionality
d. Hardware failure
6. At the integration level, achieving the desired goal may be prevented in ____ testing if the test cases and
results are not recorded properly.
a. Bottom-Up
b. Big Bang
c. Top-Down
d. System
7. Which is an example of an indicator?

a. Number of tests
b. Number of staff-hours
c. Actual versus planned task completions
d. Defects per thousand lines of code
8. Which of the following is used to collect direct measures of software engineering output and also its quality?
a. Indirect measure
b. Direct measure
c. Function-oriented metrics
d. Size-oriented metrics
1
9. In ____, there are three characteristics that serve as a guide for the evaluation of a good design.
a. Design and software quality
b. Design concept
c. Software design
d. Modular design
10. Which of the following defines the relationship between major structural elements of the software?
a. Data design
b. Linked list
c. Cohesion
d. Architectural design
11. Cleanroom software engineering is an approach that emphasises the need to build ____ into software as it is
being developed.
a. Defects
b. Debugging
c. Correctness
d. Unit testing
12. The projected usage of the software is analysed and a suite of test cases that exercise____ of usage are
planned and designed.
a. An error record
b. A statistical quality control
c. Certification
d. Probability distribution
13. Which of the following is a non-profit organisation and is also the world's leading professional association
for the advancement of technology?
a. IEEE
b. ANSI
c. CMMI
d. NDIA
14. In which level of organisational maturity, conditions are not stable for the development of quality software?
a. Optimising
b. Defined
c. Initial
d. Repeatable
15. ____ products are capable of being used to generate entire applications from design specifications.
a. CASE
b. I-CASE
c. Rapid Prototyping
d. Repository
16. The primary objective for tools in this category is to represent business data objects flow between different
business areas within a company. Which category is this?
a. Process Modeling & Management Tools
b. Project Planning Tools
c. Business Process Engineering Tools
d. Risk Analysis Tools
2
17. A ____ is a collection of objects or elements and is used as a cornerstone of formal methods.
a. Set Operators
b. Signature
c. Set
d. Union operator
18. Which formal specification language can be used to describe the syntax of the programming language?
a. Formal grammar
b. Semantic domain
c. Syntactic domain
d. Sequence
19. Software re-engineering can be defined as ____.

a. The top level process of engineering and a system to meet overall requirements.
b. The examination and alteration of an existing subject system to reconstitute it in a new form.
c. The engineering process of understanding, analysing, and abstracting the system to a new form at a higher
abstraction level.
d. The set of engineering activities that consumes the products and artifacts derived from legacy software and
new requirements to produce a new target system.
20. A maintenance organisation's short term goal is to clear the growing backlog of maintenance demands and
the long term goal is to support change at ____.
a. Higher level
b. Low level
c. Requirements level
d. Code-level
21. Consider the below mentioned statements:

1. A phase project manager monitors the overall project and is responsible to monitor the work of a project
manager.
2. Phase project managers and overall project managers are together responsible for the contingency plans.
State True or False:
a. 1-False, 2-False
b. 1-True, 2-True
c. 1-False, 2-True
d. 1-True, 2-False

1. White box testing technique guarantees that all independent paths within a module has been exercised at least
once.
2. White box testing technique executes only one loop at their boundaries and within their operational bounds.
a. 1-True, 2-False
b. 1-False, 2-True
c. 1-True, 2-True
d. 1-False, 2-False
23. Cutting out unnecessary requirements is called ____.

A) Requirements Scrubbing
B) Requirements Planning
C) Requirements Scheduling
D) Requirements Engineering
3
1. Metrics do not establish a baseline from which improvements can be measured.
2. Metrics allow an organisation to identify the causes of defects which have the greatest effect on software
development.
a. 1-False, 2-False
b. 1-True, 2-True
c. 1-False, 2-True
d. 1-True, 2-False

1. Control hierarchy, also called program structure, represents the organisation of program components
(modules) and implies a hierarchy of control.
2. Control hierarchy represents procedural aspects of software such as sequence of processes, occurrence or
order of decisions or repetition of operations.
a. 1-False, 2-False
b. 1-True, 2-True
c. 1-False, 2-True
d. 1-True, 2-False

1. In Cleanroom software engineering, the serious hazards can be related to human safety, economic loss or
effective operation of business and societal infrastructure.
2. The Cleanroom approach makes use of an outdated version of the incremental software model.
a. 1-False, 2-False
b. 1-True, 2-True
c. 1-True, 2-False
d. 1-False, 2-True
27. Consider the following statements:

1. there is a strong correlation between ISO 9001 and the CMMI.
2. ISO 9001 addresses the minimum criteria for an acceptable quality system.
State True or False.
a. 1- True, 2- False
b. 1- False, 2- True
c. 1- True, 2- True
d. 1- False, 2- False
28. An integrated CASE environment should provide the following:

1. Provide a mechanism for sharing software engineering information among all tools contained in the
environment.
2. Enable a change to one item of information to be tracked to other related information items.
State True or False.
a. 1- True, 2- False
b. 1- True, 2- True
c. 1- False, 2- False
d. 1- False, 2- True
4
29. Consider the following statements:
1. Thou shall not compromise thy quality standards: Expert training and ongoing consulting is essential for
success when formal methods are used for the first time.
2. Thou shall document sufficiently: Formal methods provide a concise, unambiguous and consistent method for
documenting system requirements.
a. 1- True, 2- True
b. 1- True, 2- False
c. 1- False, 2- False
d. 1- False, 2 - True
30. Which of the following statements hold true:

1. Tools that support BPR include process modelers that allow organisations to run what-if scenarios on their
key business processes.
2. BPR tools enables an organisation to set goals and gather information about defined and developed processes.
a. 1-True, 2-True
b. 1-False, 2- False
c. 1- False, 2- True
d. 1-True, 2-False
31. Identify the correct statements regarding project metrics.

1. Project metrics and the indicators derived from them are used by a project manager and a software team to
adapt project work flow and technical activities.
2. The first application of project metrics on most software projects occurs during the testing of the developed
product.
3. Metrics collected from past projects are used as a basis from which effort and time estimates are made for
current software work
4. Results of metrics can be used to provide an indication of the usefulness of work products as they flow from
one frame work activity to the next.
a. 1, 2 & 3
b. 1, 2 & 4
c. 2, 3 & 4
d. 1, 3 & 4
32. For every software organization, the key element is ____.

A) People
B) Project
C) Process
D) Product
33. SEI stands for ____.

A) System Engineering Institute
B) Software Engineering Institute
C) Software Engineers Institute
D) System Engineers Institute
34. PM-CMM stands for ____.

A) Process Management Capability Maturity Model
B) Product Management Capability Maturity Model
C) People Management Capability Maturity Model
D) Project Management Capability Maturity Model
5
35. PM-CMM was developed by ____.
A) IBM
B) IEEE
C) Microsoft
D) SEI
36. ____ is responsible for total project management.

A) Project Manager
B) Project Developer
C) Programmer
D) System Manager
37. PMI stands for ____.

A) Process Management Institute
B) Project Management Institute
C) Project Mapping Institute
D) Process Mapping Institute
38. DIN (Deutsches Institute for Normung) is a ____ organization.

A) Process Management
B) Product Management
C) Standardization
D) Software Development
39. ____ consists of measuring and correcting activities to ensure that the goals are achieved.
A) Staffing
B) Quality Management
C) Reporting Progress
D) Controlling
40. Analyzing progress compared to the baseline is known as ____ value management.
A) Earned
B) Spent
C) Cost
D) Time
41. Creating a ____ is the first thing you need to do when undertaking any kind of project.
A) Cost Estimation
B) Project Plan
C) Time Estimation
D) Resources Estimation
42. PERT stands for ____.

A) Program Extraction and Review Technique
B) Process Evaluation and Review Technique
C) Program Evaluation and Reversing Technique
D) Program Evaluation and Review Technique
43. The bulk of the cost of software development is due to the ____ needed.
A) Human Resources
B) Software Resources
C) Hardware Resources
D) Machinery Resources
6
44. Software Project Management begins with a set of activities that are collectively called ____.
A) Cost Estimation
B) Project Planning
C) Time Estimation
D) Resources Estimation
45. The statement „Estimating is as much art as it is science‟ is quoted by ____.

A) Charles Babbage
B) Pascal
C) Frederick Brooks
D) Von Neumann
46. ____ model produce a software cost estimate as a function of a number of variables which relate to some
software metric and cost drivers.
A) Expert Judgment
B) Analogy Estimation
C) Top-Down Estimation
D) Algorithmic
47. A ____ consists of a list of a project’s terminal elements with intended start and finish dates.
A) Schedule
B) Plan
C) Prototype
D) Estimation
48. ____ can provide a graphical representation of a project schedule.

A) Pie chart
B) Gantt chart
C) XY chart
D) Bar chart
49. The purpose of ____ is to plan how the activities in part or all of a project will be performed over a period of
time.
A) Analyzing
B) Budgeting
C) Scheduling
D) Prototyping
50. While scheduling, the activities to be performed are defined in ____.

A) Project Plan
B) Cost Plan
C) Activity Plan
D) Work Breakdown Structure
51. ____ is an attempt to minimize the chances of failure caused by unplanned events.
A) Risk Management
B) Project Management
C) Cost Management
D) Quality Management
7
52. Risk is the possibility of ____.
A) Gain
B) Loss
C) Profit
D) Credit
53. There are ____ stages in the process of project risk management.
A) Three
B) Four
C) Two
D) Five
54. ____ risks threaten the quality and timeliness of the software to be produced.
A) Project
B) Business
C) System
D) Technical
55. ____ is an umbrella activity that is applied throughout the software process.
A) Configuration Management
B) Requirements Planning
C) Requirements Scheduling
D) Requirements Engineering
56. ____ is a set of software engineering activities that occur after software has been delivered to the customer.
A) Analysis
B) Support
C) Implementation
D) Testing
57. ____ is a methodology to control and manage a software development project.

A) Version Control
B) Change Control
C) SCM
D) Configuration Audit
58. WBS stands for ____.

A) Work Breakdown System
B) Work By Standard
C) Work Breakdown Structure
D) Work By System

1. While conducting unit testing, the local data structure is examined to ensure that the temporarily stored data
maintains its integrity during all the steps in an algorithm's execution.
2. Black box testing is an effective technique for uncovering a broad array of path errors.
a. 1-False, 2-False
b. 1-True, 2-True
c. 1-True, 2-False
d. 1-False, 2-True
8
60. ____ principle must be followed throughout the software development.
A) Re-allotment
B) Incrementality
C) Decrementality
D) Reworking
61. The aim of an organizational structure is to facilitate cooperation towards a common ____.
A) Philosophy
B) Business
C) Goal
D) Requirement
62. The task of organizing can be viewed as building a ____.

A) Project
B) Business
C) Process
D) Team
63. ____ is an umbrella activity that is applied throughout the software process.
A) Software Quality Assurance
B) Software Quality Management
C) Software Quality Testing
D) Software Quality Engineering
64. The goal of software assurance is to reduce ____.

A) Cost
B) Risks
C) Time
D) Quality
65. FTR stands for ____.

A) File Transfer
B) Formal Telephonic Review
C) Formal Technical Review
D) Formal Telegraphic Review
66. ____ is a method used to identify defects in an artifact before progressing to the next stage of development.
A) Testing
B) Debugging
C) Process
D) Formal Technical Review
67. ____ analysis is a golden opportunity for process improvement that should not be missed.
A) Project Closure
B) Project Estimation
C) Project Cost
D) Project Schedule
68. The data obtained during the closure analysis are used to populate the ____.
A) Project Database
B) Process Database (PDB)
C) Database
D) Records
9
69. Many projects use the ____ method for estimation.
A) Top-down
B) Incremental
C) Bottom-up
D) Spiral
70. The productivity of a project is measured in terms of ____ per person-month.

A) Testing
B) Debugging
C) Codes Produced
D) Function Points
71. ____ provides a framework, from which, a comprehensive plan for software development can be
established.
A) Product
B) Process
C) People
D) Project
72. ____ is a collection of tasks handled in a planned and systematic order.

A) Plan
B) Product
C) Process
D) Project
73. The factors influencing project management is/are ____.

A) Time
B) Cost
C) Scope
D) All of the above
74. ____ stage determines the nature and scope of the development.
A) Planning
B) Design
C) Implementation
D) Initiation
75. The items that comprise all information produced as part of the software process are collectively called a
____.
A) Software Process
B) Software Project
C) System Specification
D) Software Configuration
10
Software Quality Assurance MCQ
1 .Which of the following is not included in failure costs?

a) rework
b) repair
c) failure mode analysis
d) none of the mentioned
Ans: d
2 . Which requirements are the foundation from which quality is measured?

a) Hardware
b) Software
c) Programmers
d) None of the mentioned
Ans: b
3. Which of the following is not a SQA plan for a project?

a) evaluations to be performed
b) amount of technical work
c) audits and reviews to be performed
d) documents to be produced by the SQA group
Ans :b
4. Degree to which design specifications are followed in manufacturing the product is called
a) Quality Control
b) Quality of conformance
c) Quality Assurance
Ans: b
5. Which of the following is not included in External failure costs?

a) testing
b) help line support
c) warranty work
d) complaint resolution
Ans : a
6. Which of the following is not an appraisal cost in SQA?

a) inter-process inspection
b) maintenance
c) quality planning
d) testing
Ans: c
7. Who identifies, documents, and verifies that corrections have been made to the software?
a) Project manager
b) Project team
c) SQA group
d) All of the mentioned
Ans: c
8. The primary objective of formal technical reviews is to find _________ during the process so that
they do not become defects after release of the software.
a) errors
b) equivalent faults
c) failure cause
d) none of the mentioned
Ans: a
9. What is not included in prevention costs?

a) quality planning
b) formal technical reviews
c) test equipment
d) equipment calibration and maintenance
Ans: d
10. Software quality assurance consists of the auditing and reporting functions of management.
a) True
b) False
Ans : a
11. Quality Management in software engineering is also known as

a) SQA
b) SQM
c) SQI
d) SQA and SQM
Ans: a
12. Quality also can be looked at in terms of user satisfaction which includes
a) A compliant product
b) Good quality output
c) Delivery within budget and schedule
Ans : d
13. Inspections and testing are what kinds of Quality Costs?

a) Prevention
b) Internal Failure
c) External Failure
d) Appraisal
Ans: a
14. What is Six Sigma?

a) It is the most widely used strategy for statistical quality assurance
b) The “Six Sigma” refers to six standard deviations
c) It is the most widely used strategy for statistical quality assurance AND The “Six Sigma” refers to
six standard deviations
d) A Formal Technical Review(FTR) guideline for quality walkthrough or inspection
Ans: c
15. Which of the following is not a core step of Six Sigma?

a) Define
b) Control
c) Measure
d) Analyse
Ans: b

a) Software availability
b) Software reliability
c) Software failure
Ans : c
17. Software safety is equivalent to software reliability.

a) True
b) False
Ans: b
18. Misinterpretation of customer communication is a sample of possible cause defects.

a) True
b) False
Ans: a
19. What kind of quality cost is incurred when an error is detected in a product prior to shipment?
a) Prevention
b) Internal Failure
c) External Failure
d) Appraisal
Ans: b
20. The degree to which the design specifications are followed during manufacturing is known as
a) Quality of design
b) Quality of conformance
c) Quality of testing
Ans: b
21. Quality of design encompasses requirements and specifications of the system.

a) True
b) False
Ans : a
22. According to ISO 9001, inspection and testing comes under which management responsibility?
a) Process control
b) Document control
c) Control of nonconforming products
d) Servicing
Ans : a

a) Developer‟s end
b) User‟s end
c) Developer‟s & User‟s end
Ans: a
24. Boundary value analysis belong to?

a) White Box Testing
b) Black Box Testing
c) White Box & Black Box Testing
Ans: b
25. What are the various Testing Levels?

a) Unit Testing
b) System Testing
c) Integration Testing
Ans: d
26. Which of the following is/are White box technique?

a) Statement Testing
b) Decision Testing
c) Condition Coverage
Ans: d

a) always possible
b) practically possible
c) impractical but possible
d) impractical and impossible
Ans :c
28. White Box techniques are also classified as

a) Design based testing
b) Structural testing
c) Error guessing technique
Ans : b

a) Finding broken code
b) Evaluating deliverable to find errors
c) A stage of all projects
Ans: b
30. The testing in which code is checked

a) Black box testing
b) White box testing
c) Red box testing
d) Green box testing
Ans :b
31. Acceptance testing is also known as

a) Grey box testing
b) White box testing
c) Alpha Testing
d) Beta testing
Ans : d
32. Which of the following is non-functional testing?

a) Black box testing
b) Performance testing
c) Unit testing
Ans : b
33. Beta testing is done at

a) User‟s end
b) Developer‟s end
c) User‟s & Developer‟s end
Ans : a
34. Unit testing is done by

a) Users
b) Developers
c) Customers
Ans : b

a) White box testing
b) Black box testing
c) Grey box testing
Ans : b
36. Which of the following is black box testing

a) Basic path testing
b) Boundary value analysis
c) Code path analysis
Ans : b
37. Validation refers to the set of tasks that ensure that software correctly implements a specific
function.
a) True
b) False
Ans : b

a) Alpha Testing
b) Beta Testing
c) Validation Testing
d) Both Alpha and Beta
Ans : d
39. Which testing is an integration testing approach that is commonly used when “shrink-wrapped”
software products are being developed?
a) Regression Testing
b) Integration testing
c) Smoke testing
d) Validation testing
Ans : c
40. What is normally considered as an adjunct to the coding step

a) Integration testing
b) Unit testing
c) Completion of Testing
d) Regression Testing
Ans : b
41. What is the main purpose of integration testing?

a) Design errors
b) Interface errors
c) Procedure errors
d) None of the above
Ans : b
42. Testing of individual components by the developers are comes under which type of testing?
a) Integration testing
b) Validation testing
c) Unit testing
Ans : c
43. _____ is a white-box testing technique first proposed by Tom McCabe.

a) Equivalence Partitioning
b) Basis Path Testing
c.) Boundary Value Analysis
d) None of the above.
Ans : b.
44. When the Testing Principles are useful while building the Software Product?
a) During testing
b) During execution
c) During review
d) Throughout life-cycle
Ans : d
45. When different combination of input requires different combination of actions,Which of the
following technique is used in such situation?
a) Boundary Value Analysis
b) Equivalence Partition
c) Decision Table
d) Decision Coverage
Ans : c
46. Which of the following is not a part of Performance Testing?

a) Measuring Transaction Rate.
b) Measuring Response Time.
c) Measuring the LOC.
Ans : c
47. Finding Defect is not a major goal of Acceptance Testing.

a) True
b) False
ANSWER: True
48. Which of the following is the form of Alpha and Beta Testing?
a) Acceptance Testing
b) System Testing
c) Unit Testing
d) Integration Testing
Ans : a

a) Tester can find bugs
b) Any user can test software
c) Missed defects are not due to testers
d) Complete testing is not possible
Ans : b
50. SDLC stands for ________

a) Software development life cycle
b) System development life cycle
c) Software design life cycle
d) System design life cycle
Ans : a
51. Which of the following divides the input domain into classes containing data?
a) Equivalent partitioning
b) Environment partitioning
c) Procedure division
d) Compilation division
Ans : a
52. -------- is not a Test Document.

a)Test Policy
b)Test Case
c) PIN ( Project Initiation Note)
d)RTM (requirement Traceability matrix)
Ans : c
53.Continual (Continuous) improvement cycle is based on systematic sequence of --------------

activities.
a) SDLC
b) PDCA
c) waterfall model
Ans : b.
54. ----------- is the application of quality principles to all facets and business process of an
organization.
a) TQM
b) Software Testing
c) Software tools
Ans : a
55. The cost incurred in first time reviews and testing is called ---------
a) Red money
b) Green money
c) Blue money
Ans : c
56.Innovation is the ---------------activity leading to changes.

a) Planned
b) Accidental
c) virtual
Ans : a.
57. Inventions may leads to major changes in technology , way of doing work.
a) true
b) false
Ans : true
58. „Q‟ organizations are less quality conscious organizations.

a) true
b) false
Ans: false
59. Quality management system of a organization based on which pillars

a) Test plans, Test conditions & decisions
b) Quality processes, Guidelines and standards & Formats and templates
c) Quality police, objectives and manuals
Ans : b
60. Requirement Traceability Matrix is a way of doing complete mapping of software

a)true
b)false
Ans : true
61. V- model uses -------- test models

a) Component testing, integration testing, system testing and acceptance testing
b) alpha testing, beta testing , acceptance testing and user testing
c) black box testing, white box testing and gray box testing
Ans : a
T.Y B.Sc. I.T. Sem. VI Question Bank
SQA MCQs
1. Quality can be defined as Conformance to _________.
a) Specification b) Market c) Developer d) Company
Option a
2. Quality can be recognized but not defined. This is called as the _________ view
of quality
a) Transcendental b) User c) Product d) Manufacturing
Option a
3. "Quality is fitness for purpose". This is called as the ______ view of quality.
a) Product b) User c) Transcendental d) Manufacturing
Option b
4. When Quality depends on the amount which the customer is willing to pay, it
is called as _____.
a) User b) Manufacturing c) Value d) Product
Option c
5. The cost which arises from the efforts to prevent defects is called as ________.
a) Appraisal cost b) Prevention cost c) Failure cost d) Miscellaneous cost
Option b
6. The cost which arises from defects like rework, repair etc. are called as
________.
a) Internal Failure Cost b) External Failure Cost c) Appraisal Cost d) Prevention
Cost
Option a
7. Cost of Quality = Cost of Control + _________
a) Cost of Failure of Control b) Appraisal Cost c) Cost of Internal Failure d)
Prevention Cost
Option a
8. ______ is the conformity of the software with the actual requirements and
specifications
a) Reliability b) Performance c) Security d) Functionality
Option d
9. ______ is the degree to which an application is protected against malicious
attacks.
a) Reliability b) Security c) Performance d) Functionality
Option b
10. ______ is the ability of the program to adapt to possible changes in its
requirements.
a) Flexibility b) Functionality c) Security d) Performance
Option a
11. ______ is the ability of an application to consistently perform the required
function on demand with failure.
a) Reliability b) Performance c) Usability d) Security
Option a
12. ______ principle of TQM (Total Quality Management) aims to create a culture
where employees feel involved with the organization.
a) Total Employee involvement b) Total Staff involvement c) Member
involvement d) Resource involvement
Option a
13. ______ principle of TQM (Total Quality Management) aims to create proper
functioning between units of the organization.
a) Integrated System b) Combined System c) Department System d) Staff
System
Option a
14. The cycle of Improvement Sequence is:
a) Define, Monitor, Measure, Control, Improve b) Define, Measure, Monitor,
Improve, Control c) Define, Monitor, Measure, Improve, Control d) Define,
Measure, Monitor, Control, Improve
Option d
15. Communication in TQM (Total Quality Management) can be based on which
of the following?
a) Strategies b) Methods c) Timelines d) All of the above
Option d
16. The most successful tool used for Statistical Process Control (SPC) is
_______.
a) Gantt Chart b) Control Chart c) Line Chart d) Bar Chart
Option b
17. Which among the following are included among the principles of TQM (Total
Quality Management)?
a) Process-cantered b) Customer-focused c) Integrated System d) All of the
above
Option d
18. Organizational ________ refers to the pattern of shared values, beliefs etc.
within an organization.
a) Setting b) Focus c) Culture d) Morals
Option c
19. The way to act and think within an organization is influenced by _________.
a) Organizational Setting b) Organizational Culture c) Organizational Focus d)
Organizational Morals
Option b
20. Organizational culture can include which of the following?
a) Written rules b) Unwritten rules c) Beliefs d) All of the above
Option d
21. PDCA concept is related to?
a) Process Improvement b) Process evaluation c) Process Selection d) None of
the above
Option a
22. PDCA stand for ___________.
a) Plan, Do, Change, Act b) Plan, Do, Check, Act c) Plan, Decide, Check, Act d)
Plan, Do, Check, Arrange
Option b
23. What is termed as “Red Money”?
a) Cost of Prevention b) Cost of Appraisal c) Cost of Failure d) Cost of Control
Option c
24. With respect to PDCA cycle- “If any deviations are observed in actual
outcomes with respect to planned results the organization may need to decide
the actions”. This will come under which phase?
a) Plan b) Do c) Change d) Act
Option d
25. Which of the following could be example of metrics for Software Quality?
a) Number of tests executed b) Number of tests passed c) Number of tests failed
d) All of the above
Option d
26. Which of these charts is used as a Problem-solving Software Tool?
a) Block diagram b) Flowchart c) Histogram d) Line chart
Option b
27. "Ishikawa diagram" is also known as ______.
a) Fishbone diagram b) Line chart diagram c) Block diagram d) Flow diagram
Option a
28. Which of these are the components of a Fishbone diagram?
a) Head b) Backbone c) Causes d) All of the above
Option d
29. Normally, Testing covers how much time of a Software Development
Lifecycle?
a) 0 - 10 % b) 30 - 40 % c) 5 - 15 % d) 60 - 70 %
Option b
30. How is the concept of Productivity described for working projects?
a) Output / Input b) Output x Input c) Output + Input d) Output - Input
Option a
31. Agile Software Development is based on
a) Incremental Development b) Iterative Development c) Linear Development d)
Both Incremental and Iterative Development
option d
a) Alpha Testing b) Beta Testing c) Validation Testing d) both alpha and beta
option d
33. What is the goal of the requirements analysis and specifications phase of
software development life cycle?
a) understanding the customer requirements and organize them in an informal
document b) Analysing the cost of development c) Determine scope of the
software d) designing model
option a
34. Following are fundamental test processes arranged randomly. What will be
the logical sequential flow of these activities?
1. Test Closure activity 2. Implementation and execution 3. Evaluating exit
criteria and Reporting 4. Analysis and Design 5. Planning and Control
a) 5,4,2,1,3 b) 5,2,3,4,1 c) 5,4,2,3,1 d) 5,2,4,3,1
option C
35. Find which of the following are the types of acceptance testing.
a) Alpha Testing b) Beta Testing c) Both Alpha and Beta Testing d) Unit testing
Option3
36. Mutation testing is __________ type of testing
a) Black box b) White Box c) yellow box d) Green box
option b
37. In the spiral model ‘risk analysis’ is performed
a) In the first loop b) In every loop c) Before using the spiral model d) in first
and second loop
option b
38. What will be the next-date value for mm-dd-yy format for 07-31-2020?
a) 08-31-2020 b) 08-01-2020 c) 07-32-2020 d) 07-08-2021
Option b
39. What are the four framework activities found in the Extreme Programming
(XP)process model
a) analysis, design coding, testing b) planning, analysis, design, coding c)
planning, analysis, coding, testing d) planning, design, coding, testing option d
40. COTS is the acronym for ______________
a) Commercial-Off-the-Shelf b) Commercial-Off-the-Shelt c) Commercial-Off-
the-Self d) Commerce-Off-the-Shelf
Option a
41. Boundary value analysis belong to?
a) White Box Testing b) Black Box Testing c) Grey Box Testing d) Red Box
Testing
Option b
42. A city field in software accepts 3 to 25 alpha characters only. Using
Boundary Value Analysis technique what will be the possible number of
combinations?
a) 2, 3, 25, 26 b) 1, 3, 25, 27 c) 2, 3, 25, 27 d) 1, 3, 25, 27
Option a
43. Which of the following is White box technique?
a) Statement Testing b) Boundary Value Analysis c) Error Guessing d)
Equivalence Partitioning
Option a
44. When different combination of input requires different combination of

actions, which of the following technique is used in such situation?
a) Decision Table b) Boundary Value Analysis c) Equivalence Partition d)
Decision Coverage
Option a
45. Cause and effect graphs deploy the following discrete components except
a) AND b) OR c) NOT d) NOR
Option d
46. Exit criteria is determined during
a) Planning and Control b) Implementation and execution c) Evaluating exit
criteria and Reporting d) Analysis and Design
option a
47. What is pesticide paradox?
a) If the same tests are repeated over and over again, eventually the same set of
test cases will no longer find any new bugs
b) A small number of modules contain most of the defects
c) Testing can show that defects are present, but cannot prove that there are
no defects
d) Finding and fixing defects does not help if the system built is unusable and
does not fulfil the users need and expectations.
option a
48. Testing principles are useful
a) During testing b) During execution c) During review d) Throughout life-cycle
option d
49. “One defect hides another defect” is termed as?
a) Camouflage Effect b) Cascading Effect c) Coverage Effect d) Redundant Code
Option a
50. Test cases are designed during which of the following stages?
a) Test recording b) Test configuration c) Test planning d) Test specification
option d
51. Identify the disadvantage of the Spiral Model.
a) Doesn’t work well for smaller projects b) High amount of risk analysis c)
Strong approval and documentation control d) Earlier involvement of developer
option a
Subject: ITSM
1. A customer-based Service Level Agreement structure includes:
A An SLA covering all Customer groups and all the services they use
B SLAs for each service that are Customer-focused and written in
business language
C An SLA for each service type, covering all those Customer groups that
use that Service
D An SLA with each individual Customer group, covering all of the
services they use
2. Which of the following would normally be included in a Capacity Plan?

1 Options
2 Management summary
3 Business workload forecasts
4 Backout plans
A 2, 3 and 4
B All of them
C 2 and 3 only
D 1, 2 and3
3. An IT department is seeking to set its prices to match those of external

suppliers selling the same services. Which one of the following is the best
description of this approach?
A The going rate that is agreed with Customers
B Market rate
C Cost-plus
D Profitable
4. Which of the following is not an element of Availability Management?

A. Verification

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Software Testing and Quality Assurance (STQA) MCQs [set-1]

1. Software project management comprises of a number of activities,

3. What are the signs that a software project is in trouble

A. the product scope is poorly de?ned.

B. deadlines are unrealistic.

C. changes are managed poorly.

D. all of the above

4. A Project can be characterized as _ .

A. every project may not have a unique and distinct goal.

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5. CMM model in Software Engineering is a technique of ______ .

A. develop the software.

B. improve the software process.

D. none of the above.

7. Effective software project management focuses on the four P’s. What

A. people, performance, payment, product

B. people, product, process, project

C. people, product, performance, project

8. What are the signs that a software project is in trouble?

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B. deadlines are unrealistic.

C. changes are managed poorly.

9. Software quality assurance is an umbrella activity.

11. Which one of the following is not an Evolutionary Process Model?

A. winwin spiral model

C. concurrent development model

D. all of the mentioned

12. The Incremental Model is a result of combination of elements of which

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B. linear model & rad model

C. linear model & prototyping model

D. waterfall model & rad model

13. The spiral model was originally proposed by

A. winwin spiral model

16. Which of the following is not a phase of SDLC?

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17. Selection of particular life cycle model is based on,

B. technical knowledge of development team

19. In a college,students are asked to develop a software. Which model

D. code nad ?x model

20. In waterfall model, output of one phase is input to next phase.

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21. The ?rst step in Software Development Life Cycle(SDLC) is

A. preliminary investigation and analysis

24. Prototyping aims at :

A. end user understanding and approval

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25. What is a prototype ?

A. mini-model of existing system

B. mini-model of the proposed system

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28. What is the ?nal outcome of the requirements analysis and

A. drawing the data ?ow diagram

B. the srs document

C. coding the project

D. the user manual

29. QFD stands for

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B. quality function development