300+ TOP ANESTHESIOLOGY Objective Questions and Answers

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40.

Which of the following local anesthetic is more safe in surface and infiltrating anesthesia

a) Procaine

b) Cocaine

c) Lidocaine

d) Amethocaine

Ans:c

41.Side effects of lignocaine are all except

a) Sedation

b) Vomiting

c) Convulsion

d) Tinnitus

Ans:a

42.All are pierced in Lumbar Puncture except

a) Post longitudinal ligament

b) Ligamentum Flavum

c) Interspinous Ligament

d) Supraspinous ligament

Ans:a

43.The most common complication in spinal anesthesia is

a) Post spinal headache

b) Hypotension

c) Meningitis

d) Arrhythmia

Ans:b

44.An increased dose of spinal anesthetic is indicated in a patient who has

a) Ascites

b) Increased height of the patient

c) Is pregnant

d) Obese

Ans:b

45.All are surface anesthetics except

a) Lignocaine

b) Bupivacaine

c) Procaine

d) Cinchocaine

Ans:b

46.aximum dose of xylocaine for local anaesthesia

a)200mg

b)250mg

c)300mg

d)650mg

e)700mg

Ans:a

47.Epidural space lies between

a) Pia and arachnoid

b) Dura and arachnoid

c) Dura and vertebral column

d) Pia mater and grey mater

Ans:c

48.Commonest Cranial nerve affected in spinal anaesthesia

a) 2nd

b) 3rd

c) 4th

d) 6th

e) 10th

Ans:d

49.Cauda Equina syndrome can be caused by *

a) Spinal anaesthesia

b) Epidural anaesthesia

c) Both

d) None

Ans:a

50.Index of potency of general anesthesia

a) Minimum alveolar concentration

b) Diffusion coefficient

c) Deed space concentration

d) Alveolar blood concentration + blood concentration

Ans:a

ANESTHESIALOGY Objective Questions with Answers


51.Thiopentone if injected accidentally into an artery, the first symptom is:

a) Analgesia

b) Pain

c) Paralysis

d) Skin ulceration

Ans:b

52.Loss of pharyngeal reflex is more with which anaesthetic?

a) Isoflurane

b) Ketamine

c) N20/02/Narcotic

d) None of the above

Ans:a

55.Highest analgesic effect is a feature of

a) Ketamine

b) Thiopentone

c) Propofur

d) Ethomidate

Ans:a

56.Treatment of inadvertent injection of pentothal intra arterially

a) Injection of procaine into the artery

b) Papavarine intra arterially

c) Heparin IV

d) Stellate ganglion block

e) All of the above

Ans:e

57.Succinyl choline is short acting due to

a) Rapid excretion

b) Poor absorption
c) Rapid hydrolysis

d) None

Ans:c

58.All are true regarding Halothane except

a) Non-inflammable

b) Boils at 50 C

c) It is stable when exposed to light

d) Heavy, colorless with characteristic sweet odour

Ans:c

59.Best Uterine relaxation is seen with

a) Chloroform

b) Nitrous Oxide

c)Ether

d)Halothne

Ans:d

60.The d-tubocurarine acts at

a) Myoneural junction

b) Pre-synoptic of parasympathetic nerves

c) Post-synoptic of parasympathetic nerves

d) Post-synoptic of sympathetic nerves

Ans:a

62.Which of the following is eliminated by Hoffmann elimination

a) Althesin

b) D-tubocurarine

c) Pancuronium

d) Atracurium

Ans:d

63.Mechanism of action of D-tubocurarine is


a) Depolarizing

b) Non-depolarizing

c) Blockage of sodium channels

d) Blockage of potassium influx

Ans:b

64.Which of the following anesthetic agent sensitizes the heart to adrenaline

a) Halothane

b) Enflurane

c) Isotherane

d) Nitrous oxide

Ans:a

65.Definitive sign of plane 1 of anaesthesia is

a) Fixation of eyeball

b) Papillary dilatation

c) Blurring of vision

d) Intercostal paralysis

Ans:a

66.Which of the following anaesthetic agents has been superseded because of cardiotoxicity

a) cyclopropane

b) Halothane

c) Chloroform

d) Diethyl ether

Ans:c

67.The following is a steroidal anesthetic agent

a) Althesin

b) Propanidid

c) Methohexitone

d) Di-isoprophyl

Ans:a

68.Ketamine causes all except:

a) Potent analgesic effect

b) Muscle relaxation

c) Completely excreted by liver

d) Used in hypotension

Ans:b

69.Intubation dose of pancuronium is

a)0.02mg/kg

b)0.06mg/kg

c)0.08mg/kg

d)1.2mg/kg

Ans:c

70.Which of the following anesthetics can be self-administered by the patient during labor

a) Trichloroethylene

b) Ethyl chloride

c) Halothane

d) Enflurane

Ans:a

71.Not an intravenous anaesthetic

a) Etomidate

b) Thiopentone

c) Ketamine

d) Cyclopropane

Ans:d

72.One of the following causes delirium during recovery phase:

a)Ketamine

b) Thipentone sodium

c) Halothane

d) Cyclopropane

Ans:a

73.Best analgesic is

a) Ether

b) Halothane

c) Trilene

d) Chloroform

Ans:a

74.The most common cause of death of mother undergoing emergency caesarean section when general
anaesthesia is being administered is

a) Over dose of inhalational anaesthetic agent

b) Circulatory failure

c) Acid aspiration of stomach contents into the lungs

d) Renal failure

Ans:c

75.The activity of muscles of eyeball during ether anaesthesia is well marked

a) Stage I

b) Stage II

c) Stage III

d) Stage IV

Ans:a

76.Regarding halothane, the correct statement is

a) Large range of safety

b) Maintenance of anaesthesia

c) Does not cause arrhythmias


d) Can be given in hepatitis patients

Ans:b

77.Anesthetic agent that predisposes to maximum arrhythmias

a)Isoflurane

b) Enflurane

c) Halothane

d) Ether

Ans:c

78.The following has the most potent analgesic action

a) Chloroform

b)Halothane

c) Diethyl ether

d) Trichloroethylene

Ans:d

80.In which of the following is thiopentone contra indicated


a) Head injury

b) Retinal Surgery

c) Diabetes

d) Porphyri

Ans:d

81.Color of Halothane cylinder is

a) Red

b) Purple

c) White

d) green

Ans:a

82.Shortest acting muscle relaxant

a) Pancuronium

b) Atraurium

c) Mivacuriun

d) vecuonium

Ans:c

83.Phase II blocker is

a) Suxamethonium

b) Atracuronium

c) DTC

d) Pancuronium

Ans:a

84.Dose of ketamine by IV Route is

a) 0.5 mg/kg

b) 1 mg/kg

c) 2 mg/kg

d) 5mg/kg

Ans:c

85.The following are muscle relaxants except

a) Decamethonium

b) Suxamethonium

c) Hexamethonium

d) Pancuronium

Ans:c

86.The reversal of neuromuscular blockade with d-TC is done with

a) Scoline

b) Neostigmine

c) Atropine

d) Dantrolene

Ans:b

87.Reversal of muscle relaxation is needed for the following

a) Pancuronium and curare


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