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Engineering Sciences and Allied Subjects

This document contains 35 multiple choice questions testing knowledge of engineering sciences and allied subjects. The questions cover topics such as mechanics, materials science, thermodynamics, fluid mechanics, and chemistry. Correct answers are requested for each question regarding concepts like train deceleration distance, maximum vertical throw height, material properties, fluid flow, heat engines, and metallurgy.

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Nathanael Tayor
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0% found this document useful (0 votes)
593 views10 pages

Engineering Sciences and Allied Subjects

This document contains 35 multiple choice questions testing knowledge of engineering sciences and allied subjects. The questions cover topics such as mechanics, materials science, thermodynamics, fluid mechanics, and chemistry. Correct answers are requested for each question regarding concepts like train deceleration distance, maximum vertical throw height, material properties, fluid flow, heat engines, and metallurgy.

Uploaded by

Nathanael Tayor
Copyright
© © All Rights Reserved
We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.
Available Formats
Download as DOCX, PDF, TXT or read online on Scribd
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ENGINEERING SCIENCES AND ALLIED SUBJECTS

INSTRUCTIONS: Select the correct answer for each of the following questions. Mark only one answer for
each item by shading the box corresponding to the letter of your choice on the answer sheet provided.
STRICTLY NO ERASURES ALLOWED. Use pencil no.02 only. Please do not mark or write anything in this
questionnaire.

MULTIPLE CHOICE:

1. A train running at 60 kph decelerates at 2.5 m/mins² for 12 mins. How far in km did the train
travel during that time?
A. 11.82 C. 18.11
B. 22.82 D. 12.18
2. If a baseball player can throw a ball maximum distance of 200ft over the ground. What is the
maximum vertical height to which he can throw it? Assume the ball to have the same initial
speed in each case.
A. 50ft C. 60ft
B. 25ft D. 40ft
3. A lead hammer weighs 10 lbf, In one swing of the hammer, the nail is driven 0.6 inches into a
wood block. The velocity of the hammer’s head at impact is 18ft/sec. What is the average
resistance of the wood block?
A. 1010lbf C. 3600 lbf
B. 2020lbf D. 1800 lbf
4. A phonograph turntable rotates at a constant rate of 78 rpm it is found that a small object
placed on a record will remain at rest relative to the record if the distance from the center is less
than 3 inches, but will slip if the distance is any greater. What is the coefficient of static friction
between object and record?
A. 0.42 C. 0.62
B. 0.52 D. 0.32
5. “Modulus of Resilience” is ___________
A. The same as modulus of elasticity
B. A measure of materials ability to store stain energy
C. The reciprocal of modulus of elasticity
D. A measure of the deflection of a member
6. Poisson’s ratio is the ratio of the ________
A. Unit lateral deformation to the unit longitudinal deformation

B. Unit stress to unit strain


C. Elastic limit to proportional limit
D. Shear strain to compressive strain
7. A steel pipe 1.25 m in diameter is required to carry an internal pressure at 760 kPa. If the
allowable tensile stress of steel is 140 MPa, determine the required pipe thickness.
A. 3.4 mm C. 1.7 mm
B. 4.3 mm D. 2.7 mm
8. A surveyor’s 100-ft steel tape is 99.990 ft long at 69°F and 99.999 ft long at 80°F. What distance
would have to be measured with the tape to establish a true length of 350 ft at 95°F?
A. 349.61 ft C. 349.94 ft
B. 349.93 ft D. 349.96 ft
9. Cavitation is the result of _____________
A. Static pressure in a fluid becoming less than fluid vapor pressure
B. Rivets under impact load
C. Exposure of concrete to salt water
D. Heat treatment of a low carbon steel
10. A test specimen with a circular cross section has an initial gage length of 500 mm and an initial
diameter of 60 mm. The specimen is placed in a tensile test apparatus. When the instantaneous
tensile force in the specimen is 60 kN, the specimen has a longitudinal elongation of 0.16 mm
and lateral decrease in diameter of 0.0151 mm. What is the modulus of elasticity?
A. 66.3 GPa C. 76.3 GPa
B. 56.3 GPa D. 86.3 GPa
11. Which of the following must be satisfied by the flow of any fluid, real or ideal?
I. Newton’s second law of motion IV. Newton’s Law of Viscocity
II. The continuity equation V. the principle of conservation of energy
III. The requirement of a uniform velocity distribution
A. I, II and III C. I, II and V
B. I, II and IV D. I, II, IV and V
12. At or below critical velocity in small pipes or at very low velocities, the loss of head due to
friction.
A. Varies directly as velocity C. Is infinitely large
B. Can be ignored D. varies as the velocity squared
13. A circular access port 2 ft in diameter seals an environment test chamber that is pressurized to
15 psi above external pressure. What force in lbs does the port exert upon its retaining
structure?
A. 1700 C. 2300
B. 6800 D. 3700
14. A bubble at the bottom of the sea has four times the volume as it reaches the surface. How deep
is the sea? Take sp. gr. of sea water 1.03.
A. 26.06 m C. 30.08 m
B. 10.03 m D. 12.03m
15. A pressure gauge 7 m above the bottom of the tank containing liquid reads 92 kPa, another
gauge height 5 m reads 105 kPa. Determine the specific weight of the liquid.
A. 4.6 kN/M³ C. 6.5 kN/M³
B. 5.6 kN/M³ D. 7.5 kN/M³
16. Water flows through a long ½ inch hose at 3 gallons per minute. Water velocity in ft/sec is
nearest to:
A. 5 C. 10
B. 1 D. 20
17. Which of the following is NOT a thermodynamic property?
A. Pressure C. Volume
B. Temperature D. Phase
18. A compression ignition cycle is modeled by which ideal cycle?
A. Otto cycle C. Rankine cycle
B. Diesel cycle D. Brayton Cycle
19. Which of the following statement about Mach number (M) is FALSE:
A. Mach 1 is the maximum attainable velocity in a nozzle throat
B. Mach No. is the ratio of velocity to sonic velocity
C. Mach No. has the dimensions of velocity
D. Supersonic velocities (M>1) are achievable in the diffuser section of a rocket nozzle if
expansion ratio is great enough
20. If the specific volume of a gas is 0.72m³/kg. what is its specific weight?
A. 13.63 N/m³ C. 15.36 N/m³
B. 14.63 N/m³ D. 12.36 N/m³
21. In an adiabatic, isentropic process, p1= 200 psi, p2= 300 psi, and T1= 700°R. Find T2 using k= 1.4.
A. 576°R C.786°R
B. 680°R D. 800°R
22. Work of a polytropic (n=1.21) compression of air (Cƿ/Cν = 1.40) in a system with moving
boundary from P1 = 15 psia, V1 = 1.0ft³ to P2 = 150 psia, V2 = 0.15ft³ is:
A. 324 ft-lb C.5150 ft-lb
B. 35.5 ft-lb D. 1080 ft-lb
23. A Camot cycle heat engine operates between 1540°F and 40°F and rejects 250 BTU/lb to the low
temperature reservoir or heat sink. Maximum entropy change in BTU/lb-°R of the working fluid
for any process in the cycle is:
A. 0 C. 0.50
B. 0.25 D. 1.0
24. In manufacturing process 1000 kW of waste heat at temperature 327°c is available for utilization
purpose. If ambient temperature is 27°C, the designed heat engine producing 510 Kw of net
power output will be ___________
A. irreversible C. Adiabatic
B. Reversible D. Impossible
25. What is true about the polytropic exponent, n, for a perfect gas undergoing isobaric process?
A. n > 0 C. n ͢10
B. n < 0 D. n = 0
26. Which of the following metals has the highest specific heat capacity?
A. Aluminum C. Copper
B. Bismuth D. Iron
27. A pressure cooker reduces cooking time because of the ______.
A. Boiling point of water inside is elevated C. higher pressure softens often
B. Heat is distributed evenly D. bigger flame is applied
28. In the periodic table of elements, which ONE of the following is light metal?
A. Mercury C. Gold
B. Silver D. Potassium
29. A type of reaction has two compounds as reactants and two compounds as products:
A. Direct combination (synthesis) C. Single displacement
B. Decomposition (analysis) D. Double displacement
30. The electronic configuration, Is²2s²2p⁶3s²3p⁵, is that of:
A. An alkali metal C. A halogen
B. An inert gas D. A transition metal
31. Given 50 deg. C convert to deg. F is
A. 132 C. 122
B. 59.78 D. 32.4
32. How many moles are represented by 6.38 gm of CuSO4?
A. 0.04 C. 0.06
B. 1018 D. 711
33. What is the PH value for H+ concentration 5.4 x 10 -⁶ mol/L?
A. 6.27 C. 4.72
B. 5.27 D. 3.72
34. The purpose of nickel in steel alloying is to increase _________
A. Brittleness
B. Toughness, hardness, corrosion resistance, and reduce thermal expansion

C. High-temperature strength
D. Strength
35. The maximum hardenability of any steel depends on _________.
A. The carbon content C. the chemical composition
B. The grain content D. the alloying elements present
36. The technique widely used in determining the inter-atomic distances in ionic crystals is:
A. Electron microscopy C. chemical analysis
B. Nuclear magnetic resonance D. x-ray diffraction
37. Which of the following is not a type of crystalline lattice imperfection?
A. Point C. Diffusion
B. Line D. Surface
38. What term is used to describe a polymer that has rubberlike properties?
A. Vulcanizer C. Polychloropene
B. Plasticizer D. Elastomer
39. What does BIOS means?
A. Basic Input/Output System C. Basic interface Operating source
B. Bytes Input/Output Storage D. Buffer input Operating System
40. The simplex method is extremely efficient in solving which of the following classic problems?
A. The “transportation problem” C. The “transshipment problem”
B. The “assignment problem” D. The “allocation problem”
41. The binary coding scheme most common used in microcomputers is called _______
A. kbps C. bits per second
B. ASCII D. hexadecimal
42. What is the 7’s compliment of (1234) base 8?
A. 6554 C. 6455
B. 6543 D. 6544
43. What value would be computer assign to the variable D8=1.0E8 – 1.5E6?
A. -0.5x 10² C. 1.5x 10²
B. 9.85x10⁷ D. 11.1x10⁷
44. A Mars rover communicates with the earth over a 128 kbps full-duplex channel. The distance
between Mars and Earth is approximately 60x10⁹m. Neglecting control, parity, and other error-
checking bits. How much time elapses between when the rover begins transmitting an 8 MB
photograph back to the earth and when it receives confirmation receipt signal?
A. 60 sec C. 520 sec
B. 120 sec D. 920 sec
45. What is the factor name of the formula (1 + I) n?
A. Single Payment compound amount factor C. Uniform gradient future worth factor
B. Single Payment present worth factor D. Capital recovery factor
46. Which of the following does not affect owner’s equity?
A. Dividends paid C. invested capital
B. License to start business D. revenue
47. It is a financial action that does not promise safety of the initial investment along with the return
on the principal sum.
A. Real capital C. speculative capital
B. Capital stock D. relational capital
48. Which of the following situations has a conventional cash flow so that an internal rate of return
can safely be calculated and use?
A. You purchase a house and pay the bank in monthly installments
B. Your company undertakes a mining project in which the land must be reclaimed at the end
of the project
C. You lease a car and pay by the month
D. You invest in a safe dividend stock and receive a dividend each year
49. Measure of effectiveness of investment of capital?
A. Present worth method C. rate of return
B. Effective interest rate D. Annual worth method
50. Given a nominal interest rate per year of 10% and two compounding subperiods per year, what
is the effective rate per compounding subperiod?
A. 0.1% C. 2.5%
B. 20% D. 5%
51. Determine the ordinary simple interest on P25,000 for 9 months and 15 days if the rate of
interest is 12%?
A. P2,735.00 C. P3,275.00
B. P3,725.00 D. P2,375.00
52. Money borrowed today to be paid in 8 equal payments at the end of 24 months. If the interest
rate is 12% compounded quarterly, how much was initially borrowed if quarterly payments is
P2,500.00?
A. P15,794.23 C. P17,549.23
B. P17,954.32 D. P15,479.32
53. In Article I, Section 3 states that an Electrical Engineer shall strive to upgrade his skills and
knowledge in Electrical Engineering in order to give the best possible _______ to the public.
A. Workers C. engineers
B. Service D. interest
54. The qualification of application for registration as PEE who were Asst./Asso. EE under 184 is rule
_____ of R.A 7920?
A. 13 C. 12
B. 14 D. 15
55. The disconnecting means for motor circuits shall have an ampere rating of at least 115% of the
full load current rating of the motor is ______ rules.
A. Wiring design C. manufacturing
B. Installation D. lighting design
56. What is the minimum size copper bonding jumper for a service raceway containing 100mm²
THHN aluminum conductors?
A. 50 mm² C. 20 mm²
B. 14 mm² D. 30 mm²
57. For service drop conductors not exceeding 600 volts. Its minimum clearance over commercial
areas, parking lots subjected to truck traffics is:
A. 3600 mm C. 5500 mm
B. 4500 mm D.3000 mm
58. Electric Power Industry Reform Act of 2001 (EPIRA) is _________.
A. R.A 7832 C. R.A. 9136
B. R.A 7920 D. R.A 8495
59. Is the component of system loss that refers to the energy used in the proper operation of the
distribution system and any unbilled energy that is used for community-related activities?
A. Technical loss C. Administrative loss
B. Non-technical loss D. Conductor loss
60. In R.A 9136, what does TSC mean?
A. Transition Supply Contract C. Transition Supply Commission
B. Transmission Supply Corporation D. Transmission Supply Commission
61. A car starts from rest and has a constant acceleration of 3 ft/sec². What is the average velocity
during the first 10 sec of motion?
A. 12 ft/sec C. 15ft /sec
B. 13 ft/sec D. 16ft/sec
62. A marble with a speed of 20 cm/sec rolls off the edge of a table 80 cm high. How far horizontally
from the table edge does the marble strike the floor?
A. 8.08 cm C. 7.07 cm
B. 8.80 cm D. 7.70 cm
63. A power of 6 KW is applied to the motor of the crane. The motor has an efficiency of 90%. With
what constant speed does the crane lift an 600 lbᶠ weight?
A. 0.32 cm/s C. 1.52 cm/s
B. 2.10 cm/s D. 0.98 cm/s
64. A 10-kg, 1-meter long cylinder having 50 cm diameter was placed on a level floor, find
approximate pressure exerted on the floor?
A. 500 Pa C. 1000 Pa
B. 250 Pa D. 750 Pa
65. During a stress-strain test, the unit deformation of 167x10⁻⁶ m/m at a stress of 35 MPa was
observed and it was 667x10⁻⁶ m/m at a stress of 140 MPa. What is the Modulus of elasticity?
A. 210,000 MPa C. 200,000 MPa
B. 83,000 MPa D. 73,000 MPa
66. It is the point where the buoyant force and the centerline intersect each other?
A. Metacenter C. centroid
B. Orthocenter D. circumcenter
67. Absolute viscocity of a fluid varies with pressure and temperature and is defined as a function of
________.
A. Shear stress and angular deformation rate
B. Density, shear stress and angular deformation rate
C. Density and angular deformation rate
D. Density and shear stress
68. In a system of pipes in series, which is TRUE?
A. Flow are equal C. velocities are equal
B. Head losses are equal D. friction coefficients are equal
69. Kinematic viscocity may be expressed as:
A. slug-sec²/ft C. ft²/sec
B. sec²/ft D. slugs/sec²
70. A drum contains 0.10 m layer of oil floating on water that is 0.45 m deep. If the density of the oil
is 600kg/m³. what is the gage pressure at the oil-water interface?
A. 588.6 Pa C. 388.6 Pa
B. 688.9 Pa D. 468.8 Pa
71. For fully developed laminar flow of fluids through pipes, the average velocity is what fraction of
the maximum velocity in the pipe?
A. 1/8 C. 3/4
B. ¼ D. ½
72. In 1993, a certain country consumption energy (in MegaBTU) from various sources was as
follows: coal, 16.1; oil, 32.1; natural gas, 20.2; hydro, 2.9; and nuclear, 2.9. Calculate in MWh the
total electric energy that could be produced from these sources, assuming an average power-
plant conversion efficiency of 0.25.
A. 5.44 C. 3.44
B. 4.55 D. 21.7
73. Shaft work of -15 BTU/lb and heat transfer of -10 BTU/lb, the change of enthalpy of a system by
_____
A. -25 C. -5
B. +15 D. +5
74. The pressure in a car tire is 28 psi at 0°C. As the car runs on the road, the temperature of the tire
increases. What is the temperature of the tire when the tire gauge reads 35 psi? Assume that
the volume of the tire remains constant and that of the atmospheric pressure is 14.7 psi.
A. 63.25°C C. 54.75°C
B. 68.25°C D. 44.75°C
75. A steam engine operates between 150°C and 550°C. What is its theoretical maximum thermal
efficiency?
A. 27% C. 73%
B. 49% D. 95%
76. In forgings, what type of carbon steel should used?
A. Low C. High
B. Medium D. Low or medium
77. What is the softest structure found in the iron-carbon alloy system?
A. Ferrite C. Martensite
B. Cementite D. Austenite
78. If 1080 steel (0.80 wt.%C) is annealed by very slow cooling from 1000°c (1832°F) to ambient
temperature, its microstructure will consist almost solely of:
A. Bainite C. Cementite
B. Austenite D. Pearlite
79. A light ray is incident at an angle of 45 deg. On one side of a glass plate of index of refraction
1.75. Find the angle at which the ray emerges from the other side of the plate.
A. 28.38 deg. C. 25.38 deg.
B. 23.83 deg. D. 26.83 deg.
80. What does “DCTL” means?
A. Direct Coupled Transistor Logic C. Direct Connected Transistor Logic
B. Diode Capacitor Transistorized Logic D. Diode Coupled Transistor Logi
81. A general-purpose computers used in large centralized applications in which several programs
are running simultaneously.
A. Supercomputers C. Minicomputers
B. Microcomputers D. Mainframe Computers
82. It is a programming language whose development was fostered by the US Department of
Defense.
A. COBOL C. BASIC
B. ABL D. PASCAL
83. Convert (DC.945) base 16 to base 2.
A. 101101. 1001 C. 101001.1001
B. 101101. 1011 D. 101001. 1100
84. When an input signal A = 10100 is applied to a NOT gate, its output signal will be _____.
A. 01011 C. 00111
B. 11011 D. 01010
85. The fastest method to transfer data wirelessly is _____.
A. GPRS C. 802.11
B. Infrared D. Bluetooth
86. An 8 GB RAM module uses 32-bit words. A bidirectional bus transmits data from the memory
module. Assuming whole words are read simultaneously on the same bus cycle, and
disregarding parity bits, what width bus is needed to transmit data between the CPU and the
memory module?
A. 8 C. 32
B. 16 D. 64
87. In financial accounting another term for Acid Test Ratio is _______.
A. Quick ratio C. Profit margin ratio
B. Current ratio D. Price earning ratio
88. Which of the following statements is NOT correct?
A. Compounding quarterly at a nominal rate of 12% per year is equivalent to compounding
annually at a rate of 12.55%
B. A nominal rate of 12% per annum compounded quarterly is the same as (12%)/4 = 3% per
quarter
C. 12.55% annual compounding is the effective rate for a situation in which the principal is
actually compounded quarterly at an annual rate of 12%
D. Effective rate of return in choices(A) through (C) is the difference between 12.55% and 12%
89. A credit card company compounds monthly and charges an interest of 1 1/2 % per month. What
is the effective interest rate per year?
A. 18% C. 4.35%
B. 19.56% D. 1.015%
90. ABC Corporations manufactures bookcases that it sells for P65.00 each. It costs ABC P35,000 per
year to operate its plant. This sum includes rent. Depreciation charges on equipment. And salary
payments. If the additional cost to produce one bookcase is P50.00, how many cases must be
sold each year for ABC to avoid taking a loss?
A. 540 cases C. 2334 cases
B. 2333 cases D. 539 cases
91. Suppose a man receives an initial annual salary of P60,000 increasing at the rate of P5,000 a
year. If money is worth at 10%. Determine his equivalent uniform salary for a period of 8 yrs.
A. P70,055.35 C. P75,022.39
B. P72,022.39 D. P72,220.35
92. In R.A 7920, Sec 4 Article II states that the board shall exercise quasi-judicial, which means?
A. Control C. Investigate
B. Rule-making D. Supervise
93. What is the Rule 11 in R.A. 7920?
A. Action on Communication C. Program of Examination
B. Places and Dates of Examinations D. Publication of Examination
94. For rigid metallic conduit, the minimum trade size is ______ mm.
A. 15 C. 32
B. 20 D. 25
95. Boxes and fittings shall be _____ in a Class III, division I location.
A. Sealed C. dustight
B. Dustproof D. not allowed
96. ______ switches shall be used for capacitor switching.
A. Isolation C. shunt
B. High-voltage D. group-operated
97. The connection between the grounded circuit conductor and the equipment grounding
conductor at the service.
A. Main Bonding Jumper C. Equipment Bonding Jumper
B. System bonding Jumper D. Grounding
98. A geographical area assigned or granted to a distributor for the distribution of electricity?
A. distribution network C. end user zone
B. generation end user area D. franchise area
99. The expected current , expressed in kAmp and MVA, that will flow into short circuit at a
specified point on the Grid, Distribution System, or any User Sytem?
A. Zero sequence current C. fault level
B. Energy level D. interrupting rating
100. The overall energy program formulated and updated yearly by the DOE and submitted
to congress pursuant to R.A. 7638 is known as PEP which means?
A. Philippine Energy Project C. Philippine Energy Plan
B. Philippine Electricity Plan D. Philippine Electrical Project

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