NEET 2018

PHYSICS 5. Current sensitivity of a moving coil galvanometer

is 5 div/mA and its voltage sensitivity (angular
1. A tuning fork is used to produce resonance in a deflection per unit voltage applied) is 20 div/V.
glass tube. The length of the air column in this The resistance of the galvanometer is
tube can be adjusted by a variable piston. At (1) 40 (2) 25
room temperature of 27°C two successive (3) 500 (4) 250
resonances are produced at 20 cm and 73 cm of 6. A thin diamagnetic rod is placed vertically
column length. If the frequency of the tuning between the poles of an electromagnet. When
fork is 320 Hz, the velocity of sound in air at the current in the electromagnet is switched on,
27°C is then the diamagnetic rod is pushed up, out of
(1) 330 m/s (2) 339 m/s the horizontal magnetic field. Hence the rod gains
gravitational potential energy. The work required
(3) 300 m/s (4) 350 m/s
to do this comes from
2. An electron falls from rest through a vertical
(1) the current source
distance h in a uniform and vertically upward
(2) the magnetic field
directed electric field E. The direction of electric
(3) the induced electric field due to the
field is now reversed, keeping its magnitude the
changing magnetic field
same. A proton is allowed to fall from rest in it (4) the lattice structure of the material of the
through the same vertical distance h. The time rod
of fall of the electron, in comparison to the time 7. An inductor 20 mH, a capacitor 100 F and a
of fall of the proton is resistor 50 are connected in series across a
(1) smaller (2) 5 times greater source of emf, V = 10 sin 314 t. The power loss in
(3) equal (4) 10 times greater the circuit is
3. A pendulum is hung from the roof of a sufficiently (1) 0.79 W (2) 0.43 W
high building and is moving freely to and fro like (3) 1.13 W (4) 2.74 W
a simple harmonic oscillator. The acceleration of 8. A metallic rod of mass per unit length 0.5 kg m–1
the bob of the pendulum is 20 m/s2 at a distance is lying horizontally on a smooth inclined plane
of 5 m from the mean position. The time period which makes an angle of 30°with the horizontal.
of oscillation is The rod is not allowed to slide down by flowing
(1) 2 s (2) s a current through it when a magnetic field of
(3) 1 s (4) 2 s induction 0.25 T is acting on it in the vertical
4. The electrostatic force between the metal plates direction. The current flowing in the rod to keep
of an isolated parallel plate capacitor C having a it stationary is
charge Q and area A, is (1) 7.14 A (2) 5.98 A
(1) independent of the distance between the (3) 11.32 A (4) 14.76 A
plates 9. A carbon resistor of (47 ± 4.7) k is to be marked
(2) linearly proportional to the distance with rin gs of differen t colours for its
between the plates identification. The colour code sequence will be
(3) inversely proportional to the distance (1) Violet – Yellow – Orange – Silver
between the plates (2) Yellow – Violet – Orange – Silver
(4) proportional to the square root of the (3) Green – Orange – Violet – Gold
(4) Yellow – Green – Violet – Gold
distance between the plates
2018-2 NEET - 2018 Solved Paper
10. A set of 'n' equal resistors, of value 'R' each,are (2) Reflected light is polarised with its electric
connected in series to a battery of emf 'E' and vector perpendicular to the plane of
internal resistance 'R'. The current drawn is I. incidence
Now, the 'n' resistors are connected in parallel to
the same battery. Then the current drawn from 1
(3) i tan –1
battery becomes 10 I. The value of'n' is
(1) 10 (2) 11
(3) 9 (4) 20 1
(4) i sin –1
11. A battery consists of a variable number 'n' of
identical cells (having internal resistance 'r' each)
15. An em wave is propagating in a medium with a
which are connected in series. The terminals of
the battery are short-circuited and the current I velocity V Viˆ . The instantaneous oscillating
is measured. Which of the graphs shows the electric field of this em wave is along +y axis.
correct relationship between I and n? Then the direction of oscillating magnetic field
of the em wave will be along
(1) –z direction (2) +z direction
I I (3) –x direction (4) –y direction
16. The refractive index of the material of a prism is
(1) (2)
2 and the angle of the prism is 30°.One of the
O O
n n two refracting surfaces of the prism is made a
mirror inwards, by silver coating. A beam of
monochromatic light entering the prism from the
I I other face will retrace its path (after reflection
(3) (4) from the silvered surface) if its angle of incidence
on the prism is
O O
n n (1) 60° (2) 45°
12. In Young's double slit experiment the separation (3) Zero (4) 30°
d between the slits is 2 mm, the wavelength of 17. An object is placed at a distance of 40 cm from a
the light used is 5896 Å and distance D between concave mirror of focal length 15 cm.If the object
the screen and slits is100 cm. It is found that the is displaced through a distance of 20 cm towards
angular width of the fringes is 0.20°. To increase the mirror, the displacement of the image will be
the fringe angular width to 0.21° (with same (1) 30 cm away from the mirror
and D) the separation between the slits needs to (2) 36 cm away from the mirror
be changed to (3) 36 cm towards the mirror
(1) 1.8 mm (2) 1.9 mm (4) 30 cm towards the mirror
(3) 1.7 mm (4) 2.1 mm 18. The magnetic potential energy stored in a certain
13. An astronomical refracting telescope will have inductor is 25 mJ, when the current in the
large angular magnification and high angular inductor is 60 mA. This inductor is of inductance
resolution, when it has an objective lens of (1) 0.138 H (2) 138.88 H
(1) small focal length and large diameter (3) 13.89 H (4) 1.389 H
(2) large focal length and small diameter 19. For a radioactive material, half-life is 10 minutes.
(3) small focal length and small diameter If initially there are 600 number of nuclei, the
(4) large focal length and large diameter time taken (in minutes) for the disintegration of
14. Unpolarised light is incident from air on a plane 450 nuclei is
surface of a material of refractive index ' '. At a (1) 20 (2) 10
particular angle of incidence 'i', it is found that (3) 15 (4) 30
the reflected and refracted rays are perpendicular 20. The ratio of kinetic energy to the total energy of
to each other. Which of the following options is an electron in a Bohr orbit of the hydrogen atom,
correct for this situation? is
(1) Reflected light is polarised with its electric (1) 1 : 1 (2) 1 : –1
vector parallel to the plane of incidence (3) 1 : –2 (4) 2 : –1
NEET- 2018 Solved Paper 2018-3

21. An electron of mass m with an initial velocity 25. In a p-n junction diode, change in temperature
due to heating
V V0iˆ (V 0 > 0) enters an electric field (1) Affects only reverse resistance
(2) Affects only forward resistance
E – E0iˆ (E0 = constant > 0) at t = 0. If 0 is its
(3) Affects the overall V-I characteristics of
de-Broglie wavelength initially, then its de- p-n junction
Broglie wavelength at time t is (4) Does not affect resistance of p-n junction
26. A solid sphere is rotating freely about its
0 eE0 symmetry axis in free space. The radius of the
(1) (2) 0 1 t
eE0 mV0 sphere is increased keeping its mass
1 t
mV0 same.Which of the following physical quantities
would remain constant for the sphere?
(3) 0 (4) 0t (1) Angular velocity
22. When the light of frequency 2 0 (where 0 is (2) Moment of inertia
threshold frequency), is incident on a metalplate, (3) Angular momentum
the maximum velocity of electronsemitted is v1. (4) Rotational kinetic energy
When the frequency of the incident radiation is 27. The kinetic energies of a planet in an elliptical
increased to 5 0, the maximum velocity of orbit about the Sun, at positions A, B and C are
electrons emitted from the same plate is v2. The KA, KB and KC, respectively. AC is the major
ratio of v1 to v2 is axis and SB is perpendicular to AC at the position
of the Sun S as shown in the figure. Then
(1) 1 : 2 (2) 1 : 4
(3) 2 : 1 (4) 4 : 1 B
23. In the combination of the following gates the
output Y can be written in terms of inputs A and A C
S
B as
A
(1) KA < KB < KC (2) KA > KB > KC
B (3) KB > KA > KC (4) KB < KA < KC
Y 28. If the mass of the Sun were ten times smaller
and the universal gravitational constant were
ten times larger in magnitude, which of the
following is not correct?
(1) A B (2) A B A B
(1) Raindrops will fall faster
(3) A B (4) A B A B (2) Walking on the ground would become more
24. In the circuit shown in the figure, the input difficult
voltage Vi is 20 V, VBE = 0 and VCE = 0. The (3) ‘g’ on the Earth will not change
values of IB, IC and are given by (4) Time period of a simple pendulum on the
20 V Earth would decrease
29. A solid sphere is in rolling motion. In rolling
Rc 4 k motion a body possesses translational kinetic
energy (Kt) as well as rotational kinetic energy
C (Kr) simultaneously. The ratio Kt : (Kt + Kr) for
RB the sphere is
Vi B (1) 7 : 10 (2) 5 : 7
500 k
E (3) 2 : 5 (4) 10 : 7
30. A small sphere of radius ‘r’ falls from rest in a
viscous liquid. As a result, heat is produced
due to viscous force. The rate of production of
(1) IB = 40 A, IC = 10 mA, = 250 heat when the sphere attains its terminal
(2) IB = 25 A, IC = 5 mA, = 200 velocity, is proportional to
(3) IB = 40 A, IC = 5 mA, = 125 (1) r3 (2) r2
(3) r 4 (4) r5
(4) IB = 20 A, IC = 5 mA, = 250
2018-4 NEET - 2018 Solved Paper
31. A sample of 0.1 g of water at 100°C and normal 36. The fundamental frequency in an open organ
pressure (1.013 × 105 Nm–2) requires 54 cal of pipe is equal to the third harmonic of a closed
heat energy to convert to steam at 100°C. If the organ pipe. If the length of the closed organ
volume of the steam produced is 167.1 cc, the pipe is 20 cm, the length of the open organ pipe
change in internal energy of the sample, is is
(1) 104.3 J (2) 208.7 J (1) 13.2 cm (2) 8 cm
(3) 84.5 J (4) 42.2 J (3) 16 cm (4) 12.5 cm
32. Two wires are made of the same material and 37. The efficiency of an ideal heat engine working
have the same volume. The first wire has cross- between the freezing point and boiling point of
sectional area A and the second wire has cross- water, is
sectional area 3A. If the length of the first wire (1) 26.8% (2) 20%
is increased by on applying a force F, how (3) 12.5% (4) 6.25%
much force is needed to stretch the second wire 38. A body initially at rest and sliding along a
by the same amount? frictionless track from a height h (as shown in
(1) 9 F (2) 6 F the figure) just completes a vertical circle of
(3) F (4) 4 F diameter AB = D. The height h is equal to
33. The power radiated by a black body is P and it
radiates maximum energy at wavelength, 0. If
the temperature of the black body is now
changed so that it radiates maximum energy at h B
3
wavelength 0 , the power radiated by it vL
4
becomes nP. The value of n is A

3 4 3
(1) (2) (1) D (2) D
4 3 2
81 256 5 7
(3) D (4) D
(3) (4) 4 5
256 81
34. At what temperature will the rms speed of 39. Three objects, A : (a solid sphere), B : (a thin
oxygen molecules become just sufficient for circular disk) and C : (a circular ring), each have
escaping from the Earth’s atmosphere? the same mass M and radius R. They all spin
(Given : with the same angular speed about their own
Mass of oxygen molecule (m) = 2.76 × 10–26 kg symmetry axes. The amounts of work (W)
Boltzmann’s constant kB = 1.38 × 10–23 JK–1) required to bring them to rest, would satisfy the
(1) 2.508 × 104 K (2) 8.360 × 104 K relation
(3) 1.254 × 104 K (4) 5.016 × 104 K (1) WC > WB > WA (2) WA > WB > WC
35. The volume (V) of a monatomic gas varies with (3) WA > WC > WB (4) WB > WA > WC
its temperature (T), as shown in the graph. The 40. Which one of the following statements is
ratio of work done by the gas, to the heat incorrect?
absorbed by it, when it undergoes a change (1) Rolling friction is smaller than sliding
from state A to state B, is friction.
(2) Limiting value of static friction is directly
V proportional to normal reaction.
B (3) Coefficient of sliding friction has
A dimensions of length.
(4) Frictional force opposes the relative motion.
O T 41. A moving block having mass m, collides with
another stationary block having mass 4m. The
2 2 lighter block comes to rest after collision. When
(1) (2)
5 3 the initial velocity of the lighter block is v, then
the value of coefficient of restitution (e) will be
2 1
(3) (4) (1) 0.5 (2) 0.25
7 3 (3) 0.4 (4) 0.8
NEET- 2018 Solved Paper 2018-5

42. A block of mass m is placed on a smooth inclined 47. The correct order of atomic radii in group 13
wedge ABC of inclination as shown in the elements is
figure. The wedge is given an acceleration ‘a’ (1) B < Al < In < Ga < Tl
towards the right. The relation between a and (2) B < Al < Ga < In < Tl
for the block to remain stationary on the wedge
(3) B < Ga < Al < In < Tl
is
(4) B < Ga < Al < Tl < In
A 48. Considering Ellingham diagram, which of the
m following metals can be used to reduce alumina?
(1) Fe (2) Zn
(3) Cu (4) Mg
a 49. Which one of the following elements is unable
to form MF63– ion?
C B (1) Ga (2) Al
(3) In (4) B
g g 50. Which of the following statements is not true
(1) a (2) a
cosec sin for halogens?
(3) a = g tan (4) a = g cos (1) All form monobasic oxyacids
43. A toy car with charge q moves on a frictionless (2) All are oxidizing agents
horizontal plane surface under the influence of (3) Chlorine has the highest electron-gain
a uniform electric field E . Due to the force q enthalpy
E , its velocity increases from 0 to 6 m/s in one (4) All but fluorine shows positive oxidation
second duration. At that instant the direction states
of the field is reversed. The car continues to 51. In the structure of ClF3, the number of lone pair
move for two more seconds under the influence of electrons on central atom ‘Cl’ is
of this field. The average velocity and the (1) One (2) Two
average speed of the toy car between 0 to 3 (3) Three (4) Four
seconds are respectively 52. The difference between amylose and
(1) 2 m/s, 4 m/s (2) 1 m/s, 3 m/s amylopectin is
(3) 1.5 m/s, 3 m/s (4) 1 m/s, 3.5 m/s (1) Amylopectin has 1 4 -linkage and
44. The moment of the force, F 4iˆ 5 ˆj – 6kˆ at 1 6 -linkage
(2) Amylose has 1 4 -linkage and 1 6
(2, 0, –3), about the point (2, –2, –2), is given by
-linkage
(1) –8iˆ – 4 ˆj – 7kˆ (2) –4iˆ – ˆj – 8kˆ (3) Amylose is made up of glucose and
galactose
(3) –7iˆ – 4 ˆj – 8kˆ (4) –7iˆ – 8 ˆj – 4kˆ (4) Amylopectin has 1 4 -linkage and
45. A student measured the diameter of a small steel 1 6 -linkage
ball using a screw gauge of least count 0.001 53. Regarding cross-linked or network polymers,
cm. The main scale reading is 5 mm and zero of which of the following statements is incorrect?
circular scale division coincides with 25 (1) They contain covalent bonds between
divisions above the reference level. If screw various linear polymer chains.
gauge has a zero error of –0.004 cm, the correct (2) They are formed from bi- and tri-functional
diameter of the ball is monomers.
(1) 0.521 cm (2) 0.525 cm (3) They contain strong covalents bonds in
(3) 0.529 cm (4) 0.053 cm their polymer chains.
CHEMISTRY (4) Examples are bakelite and melamine.
54. A mixture of 2.3 g formic acid and 4.5 g oxalic
46. The correct order of N-compounds in its acid is treated with conc. H2SO4. The evolved
decreasing order of oxidation states is gaseous mixture is passed through KOH pellets.
(1) HNO3, NO, N2, NH4Cl Weight (in g) of the remaining product at STP
(2) HNO3, NO, NH4Cl, N2 will be
(3) NH4Cl, N2, NO, HNO3 (1) 1.4 (2) 3.0
(4) HNO3, NH4Cl, NO, N2 (3) 4.4 (4) 2.8
2018-6 NEET - 2018 Solved Paper
55. Which of the following oxides is most acidic in NO2 NO2
nature?
(1) MgO (2) BeO
(3) CaO (4) BaO (1) (2)
56. Nitration of aniline in strong acidic medium also
gives m-nitroaniline because Y H Y H
(1) Inspite of substituents nitro group always NO2
NO2
goes to only m-position.
(2) In electrophilic substitution reactions, H
(3) Y (4) H
amino group is meta directive.
(3) In acidic (strong) medium aniline is present Y
as anilinium ion. 63. Which of the following is correct with respect
(4) In absence of substituents, nitro group to – I effect of the substituents? (R = alkyl)
always goes to m-position. (1) – NH2 < – OR < – F
57. The compound A on treatment with Na gives B, (2) – NR2 < – OR < – F
and with PCl5 gives C. B and C react together to (3) – NR2 > – OR > – F
give diethyl ether. A, B and C are in the order (4) – NH2 > – OR > – F
(1) C2H5OH, C2H6, C2H5Cl 64. In the reaction
(2) C2H5OH, C2H5Cl, C2H5ONa
(3) C2H5OH, C2H5ONa, C2H5Cl OH O– Na+
(4) C2H5Cl, C2H6, C2H5OH CHO
58. Hydrocarbon (A) reacts with bromine by + CHCl3+ NaOH
substitution to form an alkyl bromide which by
Wurtz reaction is converted to gaseous The electrophile involved is
hydrocarbon containing less than four carbon
atoms. (A) is (1) Dichloromethyl cation C HCl2
(1) CH CH (2) CH2 = CH2
(3) CH4 (4) CH3 – CH3 (2) Formyl cation C HO
59. The compound C7H8 undergoes the following
reactions: (3) Dichlorocarbene (: CCl 2 )
3Cl /
2 2Br /Fe Zn /HCl
C 7 H8 A B C (4) Dichloromethyl anion CHCl 2
The product 'C' is 65. Carboxylic acids have higher boiling points than
(1) m-bromotoluene aldehydes, ketones and even alcohols of
(2) o-bromotoluene comparable molecular mass. It is due to their
(3) p-bromotoluene (1) Formation of intramolecular H-bonding
(4) 3-bromo-2,4,6-trichlorotoluene (2) Formation of carboxylate ion
60. Which oxide of nitrogen is not a common (3) Formation of intermolecular H-bonding
pollutant introduced into the atmosphere both (4) More extensive association of carboxylic
due to natural and human activity? acid via van der Waals force of attraction
(1) N2O5 (2) NO2 66. Compound A, C8H10O, is found to react with
(3) NO (4) N2O NaOI (produced by reacting Y with NaOH) and
61. Which of the following molecules represents yields a yellow precipitate with characteristic
the order of hybridisation sp2, sp2, sp, sp from smell.
left to right atoms?
A and Y are respectively
(1) HC C – C CH
(2) CH2 = CH – C CH
(3) CH3 – CH = CH – CH3 (1) H3C CH2 – OH and I2
(4) CH2 = CH – CH = CH2
62. Which of the following carbocations is expected
(2) CH2 – CH2 – OH and I2
to be most stable?
NEET- 2018 Solved Paper 2018-7

CH3 maximum formation of the product in the reaction,

A 2 (g) B2 (g) X 2 (g) r H –X kJ :
(3) CH3 OH and I2 (1) Low temperature and high pressure
(2) Low temperature and low pressure
(3) High temperature and low pressure
(4) CH – CH3 and I2
(4) High temperature and high pressure
OH 71. When initial concentration of the reactant is
doubled, the half-life period of a zero order
67. Identify the major products P, Q and R in the
following sequence of reactions: reaction
(1) is halved
Anhydrous (2) is doubled
AlCl3
+ CH3CH2CH2Cl (3) remains unchanged
(i) O2 (4) is tripled
P Q+R 72. The correction factor ‘a’ to the ideal gas equation
(ii) H3O+/
corresponds to
P Q R (1) Density of the gas molecules
CH2CH2CH3 CHO (2) Volume of the gas molecules
(3) Forces of attraction between the gas
(1) , , CH3CH2 – OH molecules
(4) Electric field present between the gas
molecules
CH2CH2CH3 CHO COOH 73. The bond dissociation energies of X2, Y2 and
XY are in the ratio of 1 : 0.5 : 1. H for the
(2) , , formation of XY is –200 kJ mol–1. The bond
dissociation energy of X2 will be
(1) 200 kJ mol–1 (2) 100 kJ mol–1
OH (3) 400 kJ mol –1 (4) 800 kJ mol–1
CH(CH3)2
74. Magnesium reacts with an element (X) to form
(3) , , CH3 – CO – CH3 an ionic compound. If the ground state
electronic configuration of (X) is 1s2 2s2 2p3, the
CH(CH3)2 OH simplest formula for this compound is
(1) Mg2X3 (2) MgX2
(4) , ,CH3CH(OH)CH3
(3) Mg3X2 (4) Mg2X
68. Which of the following compounds can form a 75. Iron exhibits bcc structure at room temperature.
zwitterion? Above 900°C, it transforms to fcc structure. The
(1) Aniline (2) Acetanilide ratio of density of iron at room temperature to
that at 900°C (assuming molar mass and atomic
(3) Glycine (4) Benzoic acid
radii of iron remains constant with temperature)
69. For the redox reaction is
MnO 4– C2 O 42– H
3 4 3
Mn 2 CO2 H 2 O (1) (2)
2 3 2
The correct coefficients of the reactants for the
balanced equation are 1 3 3
(3) (4)
MnO4– C2 O2–
4 H+ 2 4 2
(1) 16 5 2 76. Consider the following species :
(2) 2 5 16 CN+, CN–, NO and CN
(3) 5 16 2 Which one of these will have the highest bond
(4) 2 16 5 order?
(1) NO (2) CN–
70. Which one of the following conditions will favour
(3) CN (4) CN+
2018-8 NEET - 2018 Solved Paper
77. Which one is a wrong statement? solubility product (Ksp) will be
(1) Total orbital angular momentum of electron (Given molar mass of BaSO4 = 233 g mol–1)
in 's' orbital is equal to zero (1) 1.08 × 10–10 mol2L–2
(2) An orbital is designated by three quantum (2) 1.08 × 10–12 mol2L–2
numbers while an electron in an atom is (3) 1.08 × 10–8 mol2L–2
designated by four quantum numbers (4) 1.08 × 10–14 mol2L–2
(3) The value of m for dz2 is zero 83. Following solutions were prepared by mixing
(4) The electronic configuration of N atom is different volumes of NaOH and HCl of different
2p1x 2p1y 2p1z concentrations :
1s2 2s2
M M
a. 60 mL HCl + 40 mL NaOH
10 10
78. The correct difference between first and second M M
order reactions is that b. 55 mL HCl + 45 mL NaOH
10 10
(1) The rate of a first-order reaction does not
depend on reactant concentrations, the M M
c. 75 mL HCl + 25 mL NaOH
rate of a second-order reaction does 5 5
depend on reactant concentrations M M
(2) The half-life of a first-order reaction does d. 100 mL HCl + 100 mL NaOH
10 10
not depend on [A]0, the half-life of a pH of which one of them will be equal to 1?
second-order reaction does depend on (1) b (2) a
[A]0 (3) c (4) d
(3) The rate of a first-order reaction does 84. On which of the following properties does the
depend on reactant concentrations, the coagulating power of an ion depend?
rate of a second-order reaction does not
(1) The magnitude of the charge on the ion
depend on reactant concentrations
alone
(4) A first-order reaction can be catalyzed, a
(2) Size of the ion alone
second-order reaction cannot be catalyzed
(3) The sign of charge on the ion alone
79. In which case is number of molecules of water
(4) Both magnitude and sign of the charge
maximum?
on the ion
(1) 18 mL of water (2) 0.18 g of water
(3) 10–3 mol of water 85. Given van der Waals constants for NH3, H2, O2
(4) 0.00224 L of water vapours at 1 atm and and CO2 are respectively 4.17, 0.244, 1.36 and
273 K 3.59, which one of the following gases is most
80. Among CaH2, BeH2, BaH2, the order of ionic easily liquefied?
character is (1) NH3 (2) H2
(1) BeH2 < CaH2 < BaH2 (3) CO2 (4) O2
(2) CaH2 < BeH2 < BaH2 86. Iron carbonyl, Fe(CO)5 is
(3) BaH2 < BeH2 < CaH2 (1) Tetranuclear (2) Mononuclear
(4) BeH2 < BaH2 < CaH2 (3) Dinuclear (4) Trinuclear
81. Consider the change in oxidation state of 87. The type of isomerism shown by the complex
bromine corresponding to different emf values [CoCl2(en)2] is
as shown in the diagram below : (1) Geometrical isomerism
1.82 V 1.5 V
(2) Coordination isomerism
BrO4– BrO3– HBrO (3) Linkage isomerism
(4) Ionization isomerism
Br – Br2 88. Which one of the following ions exhibits d-d
1.0652 V 1.595 V
transition and paramagnetism as well?
Then the species undergoing disproportion- (1) CrO2– (2) Cr2 O72–
ation is 4
–
(1) BrO3– (2) BrO 4– (3) MnO 2–4 (4) MnO4
(3) HBrO (4) Br2 89. The geometry and magnetic behaviour of the
82. The solubility of BaSO4 in water is complex [Ni(CO)4] are
2.42 × 10–3 gL–1 at 298 K. The value of its (1) Square planar geometry and diamagnetic
NEET- 2018 Solved Paper 2018-9

(2) Tetrahedral geometry and diamagnetic (2) hCG, hPL, estrogens, relaxin, oxytocin
(3) Tetrahedral geometry and paramagnetic (3) hCG, progestogen s, estr ogens,
(4) Square planar geometry and paramagnetic glucocorticoids
90. Match the metal ions given in Column I with the (4) hCG, hPL, progestogens, estrogens
spin magnetic moments of the ions given in 95. Match the items given in Column I with those in
Column II and assign the correct code : Column II and select the correct option given
Column I Column II below :
a. Co3+ i. 8 BM Column I Column II
b. Cr3+ ii. A. Proliferative Phase i. Breakdown of
35 BM
endometrial
c. Fe3+ iii. 3 BM lining
d. Ni2+ iv. 24 BM B. Secretory Phase ii. Follicular Phase
C. Menstruation iii. Luteal Phase
v. 15 BM A B C
a b c d (1) iii ii i
(1) iv v ii i (2) i iii ii
(2) i ii iii iv (3) iii i ii
(3) iii v i ii (4) ii iii i
(4) iv i ii iii 96. All of the following are part of an operon except
BIOL OGY (1) an operator
(3) a promoter
(2) structural genes
(4) an enhancer
91. The difference between spermiogenesis and 97. A woman has an X-linked condition on one of
spermiation is her X chromosomes. This chromosome can be
(1) In spermiogenesis spermatids are formed, while inherited by
in spermiation spermatozoa are formed. (1) Only daughters
(2) In spermiogenesis spermatozoa are formed, (2) Only sons
while in spermiation spermatids are formed. (3) Both sons and daughters
(4) Only grandchildren
(3) In spermiogenesis spermatozoa are formed,
98. According to Hugo de Vries, the mechanism of
while in spermiation spermatozoa are
evolution is
released from sertoli cells into the cavity of
(1) Multiple step mutations
seminiferous tubules. (2) Saltation
(4) In spermiogenesis spermatozoa from sertoli (3) Minor mutations
cells are released into the cavity of (4) Phenotypic variations
seminiferous tubules, while in spermiation 99. AGGTATCGCAT is a sequence from the coding
spermatozoa are formed. strand of a gene. What will be the corresponding
92. The amnion of mammalian embryo is derived from sequence of the transcribed mRNA?
(1) ectoderm and mesoderm (1) AGGUAUCGCAU
(2) endoderm and mesoderm (2) UGGTUTCGCAT
(3) ectoderm and endoderm (3) UCCAUAGCGUA
(4) mesoderm and trophoblast (4) ACCUAUGCGAU
93. The contraceptive ‘SAHELI’ 100. Among the following sets of examples for
(1) blocks estrogen receptors in the uterus, divergent evolution, select the incorrect option :
preventing eggs from getting implanted. (1) Forelimbs of man, bat and cheetah
(2) increases the concentration of estrogen and (2) Heart of bat, man and cheetah
prevents ovulation in females. (3) Eye of octopus, bat and man
(3) is a post-coital contraceptive. (4) Brain of bat, man and cheetah
(4) is an IUD. 101. Conversion of milk to curd improves its
94. Hormones secreted by the placenta to maintain nutritional value by increasing the amount of
pregnancy are (1) Vitamin D (2) Vitamin A
(1) hCG, hPL, progestogens, prolactin (3) Vitamin E (4) Vitamin B12
2018-10 NEET - 2018 Solved Paper
102. Which of the following is not an autoimmune D. Jhum cultivation iv. Waste disposal
disease? A B C D
(1) Psoriasis (1) ii i iii iv
(2) Rheumatoid arthritis (2) i iii iv ii
(3) Vitiligo (3) i ii iv iii
(4) Alzheimer’s disease (4) iii iv i ii
103. The similarity of bone structure in the forelimbs 111. Which of the following options correctly
of many vertebrates is an example of represents the lung conditions in asthma and
(1) Homology (2) Analogy emphysema, respectively?
(3) Adaptive radiation (1) Inflammation of bronchioles; Decreased
(4) Convergent evolution respiratory surface
104. Which of the following characteristics represent (2) Increased number of bronchioles;
‘Inheritance of blood groups’ in humans? Increased respiratory surface
A. Dominance B. Co-dominance (3) Decreased respiratory surface;
C. Multiple allele Inflammation of bronchioles
D. Incomplete dominance (4) Increased respiratory surface; Inflammation
E. Polygenic inheritance of bronchioles
(1) B, C and E (2) A, B and C 112. Match the items given in Column I with those in
(3) A, C and E (4) B, D and E Column II and select the correct option given
105. In which disease does mosquito transmitted below :
pathogen cause chronic inflammation of Column I Column II
lymphatic vessels? A. Tricuspid valve i. Between left
(1) Elephantiasis (2) Ascariasis atrium and left
(3) Amoebiasis (4) Ringworm disease ventricle
106. All of the following are included in ‘ex-situ B. Bicuspid valve ii. Between right
conservation’ except ventricle and
(1) Wildlife safari parks (2) Sacred groves pulmonary artery
(3) Seed banks (4) Botanical gardens C. Semilunar valve iii. Between right
107. Which part of poppy plant is used to obtain the atrium and right
drug “Smack”? ventricle
(1) Flowers (2) Latex A B C
(3) Leaves (4) Roots (1) iii i ii
108. In a growing population of a country, (2) i iii ii
(1) pre-reproductive individuals are more than (3) ii i iii
the reproductive individuals. (4) i ii iii
(2) reproductive individuals are less than the 113. Match the items given in Column I with those in
post-reproductive individuals. Column II and select the correct option given
(3) pre-reproductive individuals are less than below:
the reproductive individuals. Column I Column II
(4) reproductive and pre-reproductive A. Tidal volume i. 2500 – 3000 mL
individuals are equal in number. B. Inspiratory ii. 1100 – 1200 mL
109. Which one of the following population Reserve volume
interactions is widely used in medical science C. Expiratory iii. 500 – 550 mL
for the production of antibiotics? Reserve volume
(1) Commensalism (2) Mutualism D. Residual volume iv. 1000 – 1100 mL
(3) Amensalism (4) Parasitism A B C D
110. Match the items given in Column I with those in (1) iii ii i iv
Column II and select the correct option given (2) iii i iv ii
below : (3) iv iii ii i
Column-I Column-II (4) i iv ii iii
A. Eutrophication i. UV-B radiation 114. Which of the following is an amino acid derived
B. Sanitary landfill ii. Deforestation hormone?
C. Snow blindness iii. Nutrient (1) Epinephrine (2) Ecdysone
enrichment (3) Estriol (4) Estradiol
NEET- 2018 Solved Paper 2018-11

115. Which of the following structures or regions is (4) Detaches the myosin head from the actin
incorrectly paired with its functions? filament.
(1) Medulla oblongata : controls respiration 122. Select the incorrect match :
and cardiovascular reflexes. (1) Lampbrush – Diplotene bivalents
(2) Limbic system : consists of fibre tracts that chromosomes
interconnect different regions of brain; (2) Allosomes – Sex chromosomes
controls movement. (3) Polytene – Oocytes of amphibians
(3) Corpus callosum : band of fibers connecting chromosomes
left and right cerebral hemispheres. (4) Submetacentric – L-shaped chromosomes
(4) Hypothalamus : production of releasing chromosomes
hormones and regulation of temperature, 123. Nissl bodies are mainly composed of
hunger and thirst. (1) Proteins and lipids
116. The transparent lens in the human eye is held in (2) DNA and RNA
its place by (3) Free ribosomes and RER
(1) ligaments attached to the ciliary body (4) Nucleic acids and SER
(2) ligaments attached to the iris 124. Which of these statements is incorrect?
(3) smooth muscles attached to the ciliary body (1) Enzymes of TCA cycle are present in
(4) smooth muscles attached to the iris mitochondrial matrix
117. Which of the following hormones can play a (2) Glycolysis occurs in cytosol
significant role in osteoporosis? (3) Oxidative phosphorylation takes place in
(1) Aldosterone and Prolactin outer mitochondrial membrane
(2) Progesterone and Aldosterone (4) Glycolysis operates as long as it is supplied
(3) Parathyroid hormone and Prolactin with NAD that can pick up hydrogen atoms
(4) Estrogen and Parathyroid hormone 125. Which of the following events does not occur
118. Which of the following gastric cells indirectly in rough endoplasmic reticulum?
help in erythropoiesis? (1) Protein folding
(1) Chief cells (2) Mucous cells (2) Protein glycosylation
(3) Parietal cells (4) Goblet cells (3) Phospholipid synthesis
119. Match the items given in Column I with those in (4) Cleavage of signal peptide
Column II and select the correct option given 126. Many ribosomes may associate with a single
below : mRNA to form multiple copies of a polypeptide
Column I Column II
simultaneously. Such strings of ribosomes are
A. Fibrinogen (i) Osmotic balance
termed as
B. Globulin (ii) Blood clotting (1) Polysome (2) Polyhedral bodies
C. Albumin (iii) Defence (3) Nucleosome (4) Plastidome
mechanism 127. Which of the following terms describe human
A B C dentition?
(1) (iii) (ii) (i)
(2) (i) (ii) (iii) (1) Thecodont, Diphyodont, Homodont
(3) (ii) (iii) (i) (2) Thecodont, Diphyodont, Heterodont
(4) (i) (iii) (ii) (3) Pleurodont, Diphyodont, Heterodont
120. Which of the following is an occupational (4) Pleurodont, Monophyodont, Homodont
respiratory disorder? 128. Identify the vertebrate group of animals
(1) Anthracis (2) Silicosis characterized by crop and gizzard in its digestive
(3) Emphysema (4) Botulism
121. Calcium is important in skeletal muscle system
contraction because it (1) Amphibia (2) Reptilia
(1) Binds to troponin to remove the masking (3) Osteichthyes (4) Aves
of active sites on actin for myosin. 129. Which one of these animals is not a
(2) Activates the myosin ATPase by binding homeotherm?
to it.
(3) Prevents the formation of bonds between (1) Macropus (2) Chelone
the myosin cross bridges and the actin (3) Psittacula (4) Camelus
filament.
2018-12 NEET - 2018 Solved Paper
130. Which of the following features is used to crystallised
identify a male cockroach from a female salts within the
cockroach? kidney
C. Renal calculi iii. Inflammation
(1) Presence of a boat shaped sternum on the
in glomeruli
9th abdominal segment D. Glomerular iv. Presence of in
(2) Presence of caudal styles nephritis glucose urine
(3) Presence of anal cerci A B C D
(4) Forewings with darker tegmina (1) iii ii iv i
131. Which of the following organisms are known as (2) i ii iii iv
chief producers in the oceans? (3) iv i ii iii
(1) Dinoflagellates (2) Diatoms (4) ii iii i iv
136. What is the role of NAD+ in cellular respiration?
(3) Euglenoids (4) Cyanobacteria
(1) It functions as an enzyme.
132. Ciliates differ from all other protozoans in (2) It functions as an electron carrier.
(1) using flagella for locomotion (3) It is the final electron acceptor for anaerobic
(2) having a contractile vacuole for removing respiration.
excess water (4) It is a nucleotide source for ATP synthesis.
(3) having two types of nuclei 137. Which one of the following plants shows a very
(4) using pseudopodia for capturing prey close relationship with a species of moth, where
133. Which of the following animals does not undergo none of the two can complete its life cycle without
metamorphosis? the other?
(1) Hydrilla (2) Yucca
(1) Earthworm (2) Tunicate
(3) Viola (4) Banana
(3) Starfish (4) Moth
138. Oxygen is not produced during photosynthesis
134. Match the items given in Column I with those in by
Column II and select the correct option given (1) Green sulphur bacteria
below: (2) Nostoc
Column I Column II (3) Chara (4) Cycas
(Function) (Part of Excretory 139. In which of the following forms is iron absorbed
system) by plants?
A. Ultrafiltration i. Henle’s loop (1) Ferric (2) Ferrous
B. Concentration ii. Ureter (3) Both ferric and ferrous
of urine (4) Free element
C. Transport of iii. Urinary bladder 140. Double fertilization is
urine (1) Fusion of two male gametes of a pollen tube
D. Storage of iv. Malpighian with two different eggs
urine corpuscle (2) Fusion of one male gamete with two polar
v. Proximal nuclei
convoluted tubule (3) Syngamy and triple fusion
A B C D (4) Fusion of two male gametes with one egg
(1) iv v ii iii 141. Which of the following elements is responsible
(2) iv i ii iii for maintaining turgor in cells?
(3) v iv i iii (1) Magnesium (2) Sodium
(4) v iv i ii (3) Calcium (4) Potassium
135. Match the items given in Column I with those in 142. Pollen grains can be stored for several years in
Column II and select the correct option given liquid nitrogen having a temperature of
below : (1) – 120°C (2) – 80°C
Column I Column II (3) – 160°C (4) – 196°C
A. Glycosuria i. Accumulation of 143. Which among the following is not a prokaryote?
uric acid in joints (1) Saccharomyces (2) Mycobacterium
B. Gout ii. Mass of (3) Oscillatoria (4) Nostoc
NEET- 2018 Solved Paper 2018-13

144. The two functional groups characteristic of (2) Annealing, Extension, Denaturation
sugars are (3) Denaturation, Annealing, Extension
(1) Hydroxyl and methyl (4) Denaturation, Extension, Annealing
(2) Carbonyl and methyl 155. Select the correct match
(3) Carbonyl and hydroxyl (1) Ribozyme - Nucleic acid
(4) Carbonyl and phosphate (2) F2 × Recessive parent - Dihybrid cross
145. Which of the following is not a product of light (3) G. Mendel - Transformation
reaction of photosynthesis? (4) T.H. Morgan - Transduction
(1) ATP (2) NADH 156. A ‘new’ variety of rice was patented by a foreign
(3) Oxygen (4) NADPH company, though such varieties have been
146. Stomatal movement is not affected by present in India for a long time. This is related to
(1) Temperature (2) Light (1) Co-667 (2) Sharbati Sonora
(3) CO2 concentration (4) O2 concentration (3) Basmati (4) Lerma Rojo
147. The Golgi complex participates in 157. Select the correct match
(1) Fatty acid breakdown (1) Alec Jeffreys - Streptococcus pneumoniae
(2) Formation of secretory vesicles (2) Alfred Hershey and - TMV
(3) Activation of amino acid Martha Chase
(4) Respiration in bacteria (3) Francois Jacob and - Lac operon
148. Which of the following is true for nucleolus? Jacques Monod
(1) Larger nucleoli are present in dividing cells (4) Matthew Meselson - Pisum sativum
(2) It is a membrane-bound structure and F. Stahl
(3) It is a site for active ribosomal RNA synthesis 158. Which of the following has proved helpful in
(4) It takes part in spindle formation preserving pollen as fossils?
149. Stomata in grass leaf are (1) Pollenkitt (2) Cellulosic intine
(1) Dumb-bell shaped (2) Kidney shaped (3) Sporopollenin (4) Oil content
(3) Barrel shaped (4) Rectangular
159. The experimental proof for semiconservative
150. The stage during which separation of the paired
replication of DNA was first shown in a
homologous chromosomes begins is
(1) Fungus (2) Bacterium
(1) Pachytene (2) Diplotene
(3) Virus (4) Plant
(3) Zygotene (4) Diakinesis
160. Which of the following pairs is wrongly
151. Which of the following is commonly used as a
matched?
vector for introducing a DNA fragment in human
lymphocytes? (1) Starch synthesis in pea : Multiple alleles
(1) Retrovirus (2) Ti plasmid (2) ABO blood grouping : Co-dominance
(3) pBR 322 (4) phage (3) T.H. Morgan : Linkage
152. Use of bioresources by multinational companies (4) XO type sex : Grasshopper
and organisations without authorisation from the determination
concerned country and its people is called 161. Offsets are produced by
(1) Bio-infringement (2) Biopiracy (1) Meiotic divisions (2) Mitotic divisions
(3) Bioexploitation (4) Biodegradation (3) Parthenogenesis (4) Parthenocarpy
153. In India, the organisation responsible for 162. Select the correct statement
assessing the safety of introducing genetically (1) Franklin Stahl coined the term “linkage”
modified organisms for public use is (2) Punnett square was developed by a British
(1) Indian Council of Medical Research (ICMR) scientist
(2) Council for Scientific and Industrial (3) Transduction was discovered by S. Altman
Research (CSIR) (4) Spliceosomes take part in translation
(3) Genetic Engineering Appraisal Committee 163. Which of the following flowers only once in its
(GEAC) life-time?
(4) Research Committee on Genetic (1) Bamboo species (2) Jackfruit
Manipulation (RCGM) (3) Papaya (4) Mango
154. The correct order of steps in Polymerase Chain 164. Niche is
Reaction (PCR) is (1) all the biological factors in the organism’s
(1) Extension, Denaturation, Annealing environment
2018-14 NEET - 2018 Solved Paper
(2) the physical space where an organism lives A B C D
(3) the functional role played by the organism (1) (i) (iv) (iii) (ii)
where it lives (2) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
(4) the range of temperature that the organism (3) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
needs to live (4) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i)
165. In stratosphere, which of the following elements 171. Which one is wrongly matched?
acts as a catalyst in degradation of ozone and (1) Uniflagellate gametes – Polysiphonia
release of molecular oxygen? (2) Biflagellate zoospores – Brown algae
(1) Carbon (2) Cl (3) Unicellular organism – Chlorella
(3) Oxygen (4) Fe (4) Gemma cups – Marchantia
166. What type of ecological pyramid would be 172. After karyogamy followed by meiosis, spores
obtained with the following data? are produced exogenously in
(1) Neurospora (2) Alternaria
Secondary consumer : 120 g
(3) Saccharomyces (4) Agaricus
Primary consumer : 60 g
173. Winged pollen grains are present in
Primary producer : 10 g
(1) Mustard (2) Cycas
(1) Inverted pyramid of biomass
(3) Pinus (4) Mango
(2) Pyramid of energy 174. Pneumatophores occur in
(3) Upright pyramid of biomass (1) Halophytes
(4) Upright pyramid of numbers (2) Free-floating hydrophytes
167. Which of the following is a secondary pollutant? (3) Submerged hydrophytes
(1) CO (2) CO2 (4) Carnivorous plants
(3) O3 (4) SO2 175. Plants having little or no secondary growth are
168. World Ozone Day is celebrated on (1) Grasses
(1) 5th June (2) 21st April (2) Deciduous angiosperms
nd
(3) 22 April (4) 16th September (3) Cycads (4) Conifers
169. Natality refers to 176. Casparian strips occur in
(1) Death rate (2) Birth rate (1) Epidermis (2) Pericycle
(3) Number of individuals entering a habitat (3) Endodermis (4) Cortex
(4) Number of individuals leaving the habitat 177. Secondary xylem and phloem in dicot stem are
170. Match the items given in Column I with those in produced by
Column II and select the correct option given (1) Apical meristems (2) Vascular cambium
below: (3) Axillary meristems (4) Phellogen
Column I Column II 178. Select the wrong statement :
A. Herbarium (i) It is a place having a (1) Cell wall is present in members of Fungi
collection of preserved and Plantae
plants and animals (2) Mushrooms belong to Basidiomycetes
B. Key (ii) A list that enumerates (3) Mitochondria are the powerhouse of the
methodically all the cell in all kingdoms except Monera
species found in an area (4) Pseudopodia are locomotory and feeding
with brief description structures in Sporozoans
aiding identification 179. Which of the following statements is correct?
(1) Ovules are not enclosed by ovary wall in
C. Museum (iii) Is a place where dried
gymnosperms
and pressed plant
(2) Selaginella is heterosporous, while
specimens mounted on
Salvinia is homosporous
sheets are kept (3) Stems are usually unbranched in both
D. Catalogue (iv) A booklet containing Cycas and Cedrus
a list of characters and (4) Horsetails are gymnosperms
their alternates which are 180. Sweet potato is a modified
helpful in identification (1) Stem (2) Adventitious root
of various taxa. (3) Rhizome (4) Tap root