BK 305 (REVISION) 2-1-10-Pertanyaan2 Basic Yg Perlu Dijawab
BK 305 (REVISION) 2-1-10-Pertanyaan2 Basic Yg Perlu Dijawab
BK 305 (REVISION) 2-1-10-Pertanyaan2 Basic Yg Perlu Dijawab
A new Sales Engineer’s technical training is one of the most important responsibilities of a
District Manager, Primary Trainer and the new Sales Engineer. The following technical lessons
represent the traditional PAC lessons that must be completed by a new Sales Engineer before he
is tested for competency and acknowledged as a trained Nalco Sales Engineer. In general, the
questions reflect current technology in the market place. These lessons cover “CORE” material,
which is fundamental to water chemistry technology, which each sales person must possess.
In addition to these technical lessons, the district manager or primary trainer may order one
NIFTI Training Course or an Industry 100 level course (as they become available) on
Form ADV-060. The integration of Industry training with technical training recognizes the
important shift in focus that has occurred at Nalco as a result of industry-focused marketing.
(SBU’s). It reflects our customer’s request that our Sales Engineers understand their industry as
well as water treatment when they address water treatment concerns in their plants.
A test will be administered at the end of the technical training. A Sales Engineer should expect
that a passing grade on this test is necessary for him or her to be acknowledged as trained.
In addition to hard copy, Nalco’s written textbooks are on-line and available through our
electronic resources in the Knowledge Management System.
To access the Nalco Water Handbook, Cooling Water Failure Analysis or Boiler Water Failure
Analysis go to the Knowledge Management home page to find the link to the Nalco
Global Library
Pick
the
book
Pick
Here if Pick
you here if
want to you
The following is a screen print showing you where to find Nalco’s Confidential
Product selection information. Go to Lotus notes and click on the Lotus Notes database
labeled “ KM CPP II&S Div North America “.
As a further reference, while learning about Ion Exchange, you can go to the Dow Internet Home
Site and obtain information on Dowex Resin Engineering. This information is only
available electronically. Below you will find a screen print of that home site.
From there, look for other links that will take you to specifications for any Dowex Resin
available:
The following screen prints show you where the Resin Spec Link is found.
Use these lessons as initial technical training for each topic, refresher training, or further
education on specific topics. Select a lesson and begin by reading the assigned material.
Then proceed to work on the lesson.
Use the glossary in the Technical Manuals for any terms you are unfamiliar with.
Use the indexes to help find specific topics of additional interest.
Check the answers with your primary trainer or district manager.
To fine-tune your development against any specific question that you are having difficulty with,
use the reading reference on the lesson guide and your trainer or district manager input as
to additional study material.
1. What are the two types of water supplies? Why is water treated?
2. What is the difference between water clarification and water softening?
3. What is the difference between coagulation and flocculation?
4. Why is Industrial Wastewater treatment practiced?
5. What is BOD?
6. What is the purpose of primary wastewater treatment?
7. What is secondary wastewater treatment?
8. What is tertiary wastewater treatment?
9. What are the two classifications of oily emulsions
10. What is foam? What steps are used to develop an antifoam application?
16. What are the formula weights of NaCl and CaCO3? What are the equivalent weights of
NaCl and CaCO3? What is the purpose of reporting analytical results in calcium
carbonate equivalents?
1. Calculate the clarifier Detention Time (DT) for a circular clarifier of 60 feet (18.3 m) in
diameter, 15 feet (4.6 m) deep, with an average influent flow of 4.0 million gallons
(15,142 m3) per day.
2. What is the weir overflow rate (WOR) of a circular clarifier, 75 feet (22.9 m) in diameter,
20 feet (6.1 m) deep, with a weir diameter of 70 feet (21.34 m), and a flowrate of 3000
gpm (681.6 m3/hr)?
3. Calculate the solids loading (SL) of a rectangular DAF with a length of 85 feet (25.9 m), a
width of 45 feet (13.7 m), and a depth of 12 feet (3.66 m) and a solids loading of 85 tons
(77.2 tonnes) per day.
4. What is the sludge volume index (SVI) of a sample of secondary wastewater containing
3500 mg/L mixed liquor suspended solids (MLSS) that settled to a volume of 460 mL/L?
5. Calculate the food to microorganism (F/M) ratio for a secondary system with an aeration
basin volume of 800,000 ft3 (22,720 m3), MLSS of 6500 mg/L, a BOD influent average
of 3500 mg/L, and flow of 1000 gpm (227 m3/hr). Actual units on this calculation are
day-1, but the number is usually reported without this unit.
6. Calculate the solids capture (SC) efficiency of a press where 6.5% sludge solids in
influent flow are dewatered to 25% cake solids and lost solids are 800 mg/L in a
300 gpm (1.13m 3/min) flow.
3. What is the “double layer” theory? Briefly describe zeta potential, and streaming current.
4. List the factors that affect the flocculation rate. Briefly describe their effect on flocculation.
5. List the common inorganic coagulants. List two major advantages of polymeric coagulants.
7. Discuss Mixing Intensity and how the Velocity Gradient (G Factor) and Retention Time
are related.
Lesson 5 PRETREATMENT
2. List the four main operations in Pretreatment. Briefly describe what each operation is
designed to accomplish.
1. Briefly list the common contaminants in natural water sources that might need to be removed
in raw water clarification.
2. List the two main water clarification treatment plant designs. What is the advantage of the
one design over the other?
4. What are the two main contaminants removed in clarification? Describe briefly where each
originates. What is removed in cold lime softening?
5. List the two main units of turbidity. Describe briefly how the three main instruments for
measuring turbidity function, and contrast their operation.
6. Iron and manganese in raw water can cause deposition and corrosion problems
downstream. Describe briefly how greensand removes iron and manganese, and
outline the CR and IR processes.
7. In addition to the main contaminants listed in question 4, what other substances may be
removed by raw water treatment? Why may be removal of these necessary?
8. Contrast produced sludge characteristics when using an iron or aluminum coagulant, versus
a polymeric coagulant. How may produced sludge be handled?
9. Briefly describe the differences between a conventional clarification plant, and a direct
filtration clarification plant. When may one design be used rather than the other? What is
the main advantage of a membrane filtration clarification operation, compared to
conventional or direct filtration clarification?
2. Compare a sludge blanket clarifier and an upflow sludge recirculating clarifier. How do they
function similarly? Differently?
4. What is the purpose of the rapid mix area for coagulant dosing?
6. Diagram a rectangular sedimentation tank labeling the various zones basic to the system.
Illustrate the projected trajectory of a particle entering the system at the 2/3-inlet height.
Briefly discuss the various zones.
8. Describe the effect of increasing the agitator speed on the sludge blanket concentration of a
sludge blanket clarifier.
Lesson 8 FILTRATION
1. Describe how a floc particle, exiting a clarifier, that is either too large or too small can cause
problems for a filter.
2. What advantages does a pressure filter have compared to other types of filtration equipment?
3. What benefits could you offer your customer with the use of a filter aid program?
5. List, and briefly discuss the interrelated filter components, especially of a conventional
rapid sand filter design.
7. Draw a schematic diagram of a vertical pressure filter, showing the major components.
8. Describe the granular media bed classification; including media composition & arrangement,
media size distribution, and depth for single media, dual media, and multi-media (mixed
media) filters. Draw a schematic of each type (single, dual, mixed media).
9. Discuss the four main types of backwashing systems used for granular media filter beds.
10. What is the formula for filtration rate? What is a typical rate range for conventional rapid
sand filters?
1. Describe the four types of settling that can occur. Where does each of these typically occur
in a waste treatment process?
3. What are the most critical parameters to prevent short-circuiting in a primary clarifier?
4. What principle is behind the concept of "inclined tube settlers"? Where would you
recommend against their use?
5. A primary clarifier is designed for a load of 800-1200 gpd/ft2 (32.6- 48.9 m3/day/m2).
What happens if the flow is lower? Higher?
6. What can happen if the detention time in a primary clarifier exceeds 2 hours?
8. What is the essential difference between a DAF and an Induced Air Flotation unit?
Where would one preferentially use an IAF unit?
1. The dissolved oxygen meter is used to monitor the performance of an activated sludge
system.
What is a normal oxygen uptake for a healthy activated sludge system?
If the oxygen uptake is flat (zero uptake), what does this mean?
If the oxygen uptake were lower than normal, what problems would you expect
downstream?
What are possible causes of low oxygen uptake?
4. List and discuss the microorganisms that are important in biological oxidation processes.
Which are the most important, and why?
5. Discuss sludge production in terms of the two biological treatment processes common in
secondary wastewater treatment. Discuss how organic carbon is removed. Draw a
schematic of how organic carbon is used by microorganisms.
1. Why is tertiary wastewater treatment often required? What are the six most common goals
of tertiary wastewater treatment?
2. Why may chlorination and dechlorination be needed? If ammonia removal is needed, and
gaseous chlorine is used, why may pH control be required? What chemical might be
needed to accomplish this?
3. Briefly discuss breakpoint chlorination. Why is it not generally used? What has taken
its place?
4. What are the three main ways to remove phosphate? Write down the formula involved for
the first two (ignore calcium).
1. Why must heavy metals be removed from a wastewater stream? What are the two main
specifications for heavy metal discharge limits? Identify six sources or industries where
heavy metals may originate. List six common metal pollutants.
3. What is the solubility product constant? What does it mean in a non-chemical sense?
Write its formula down. Referring to Table 1.13.1, list the two most soluble and
the two least soluble compounds that appear here?
4. What is “ionic strength”? Why is it important in heavy metal removal? Why is the
increasing use of recycled water streams in plant a negative for heavy metal removal?
5. What are chelating agents? Why are they important in heavy metal removal? What is the
formation constant? How is it used in heavy metal removal?
6. List and discuss five membrane filtration methods of heavy metal removal. Discuss
electrolytic recovery of heavy metals.
7. Discuss chemical methods (precipitation) of heavy metal removal. Why is this the
preferred method? Outline two concerns with the use of chemical methods. List the
common precipitants used, and outline advantages and disadvantages of each.
10. Briefly outline chromate reduction, and cyanide destruction. What are the two processes
used for cyanide removal?
1. Briefly discuss ED and EDR. Why are these not considered economical, compared to
RO or NF?
1. Why is sludge stabilization necessary? Where do you normally find it used? List the three
primary methods of sludge stabilization.
5. Outline why chemical treatment (i.e. polymeric flocculants or chemical coagulants) may be
useful in both anaerobic and aerobic digesters.
1. What does sludge thickening do? Why is it necessary in some situations? List the
equipment generally used in sludge thickening operations.
3. Discuss the four classifications of the gravity sedimentation process. Draw a schematic.
1. Draw a diagram of a Twin Belt Press. Label the filter belts, polyelectrolyte feed, and sludge
conditioning area. What are the four dewatering zones in the unit?
3. What mechanical changes can easily be made on a twin belt filter press?
4. What criteria are normally used to evaluate twin belt press performance?
5. Describe how a centrifuge dewaters solids? How is this different from belt filter
or chamber presses?
8. Considering the inorganic chemicals normally used (ferric chloride, lime, etc.) in a plate
and frame filter press, what benefits would a polymer program provide?
1. There are three mechanisms that stabilize emulsions - ionization, adsorption and frictional
contact. Explain how each one stabilizes oil-in-water emulsions.
2. Describe the Hemholtz Double Layer theory. How is this double layer treated?
3. How are API Separators and CPI Separators similar? How are they different?
4. You recently learned that Dissolved Air Flotation (DAF) is used to thicken waste sludge, yet
it is also used to remove oil from oily wastes. Explain how DAF is used with oily
wastewater.
5. A DAF is 12' (3.66 m) in diameter. Flow is 150 gpm (34.08 m3/hr) and the recycle rate is
50%. What is the Hydraulic Loading Rate (HLR) for this unit? This DAF is 15' (4.57 m)
deep. What is the hydraulic retention time?
6. A process upset occurs to the customer in question #5. The plant begins running the DAF at
200 gpm (45.4 m3/hr) now. How will this change affect the performance of the DAF
unit? What changes in the amounts of air and polymer required might you expect?
7. Discuss in detail the three methods for treating water-in-oil (waste oil) emulsions.
3. After completing the antifoam test kit phase, what step is next in product testing?
5. Why would the cloud point be important in the selection of antifoam that is to be stored in
bulk?
1. What is “odor”, in the sense outlined in Section 1.20? Where might offensive odors
originate?
2. What are the three main objectives of odor control? Which is the most important?
4. List the eight methods of odor control commonly practiced today, and outline advantages
and disadvantages of each.
1. Most acid cleaners are used to clean what type of deposit? What are most alkaline cleaners
used for?
2. Although most alkaline cleaners are less expensive than emulsifiable solvent cleaners, under
what conditions should the latter be considered?
3. List the seven types of cleaners. Briefly discuss each type in terms of advantages,
disadvantages, and what types of deposits can be removed.
3. List the three water systems that support the boiler system.
4. What are the two basic concepts the sales person must understand?
6. Poor performance of the makeup water pretreatment system can lead to (circle all that apply):
a. Boiler scale and corrosion
b. Increased condensate return
c. Increase condensate corrosion
d. Increase chemical consumption
e. Increase water usage
8. Which of the following represents an “Operational Stress” (circle all that apply)?
a. A supervisor who yells at his people in the presence of other co-workers
b. A zeolite softener that runs beyond the break-point
c. Large variations in pressure on a deaerator
d. You have had a flat tire on the way to present a quarterly review to a customer
10. You know that energy saving projects are an important aspect of a good service plan and, one day as
you walked through the plant, you spot a large amount of condensate being dumped to the sewer.
You should:
a. Evaluate the cost to the plant for this lost condensate
b. Question the supervisor or superintendent as to why this condensate is being dumped
c. Test the condensate for conductivity
d. Ask the operator to return the condensate to the system
11. During a plant survey, you have collected a great deal of MOC information. Much of the time during
the survey, you were by yourself because the supervisor was not available. Your next step in the
survey is (circle correct answer)
a. Use the plant manuals to confirm the accuracy of the information
b. Write up your survey and place it in a file
c. Meet with the supervisor or superintendent to confirm the accuracy of the information
d. Measure the feed rates of the chemicals to the system
6. Given: The feed water flow is 150 000 lb/hr (68 040 kg/hr) and the blowdown flow is
1500 lb/hr (680 kg/hr), what is the percent blowdown?
8. Given: the flow of steam is 100 000 lb/hr (45 360 kg/hr) and the COC is 30, what is the feed
water flow?
10. Given: The steam flow is 80 000 lb/hr (36 287 kg/hr), the total dissolved solids (TDS) of the
condensate is 10 ppm (mg/L), the TDS of the feed water is 90 ppm (mg/L), the TDS of
the boiler water is 2000 ppm (mg/L), and the TDS of the makeup is 200 ppm (mg/L).
a. What is the percent makeup flow?
b. What are the cycles of concentration?
c. What is the feed water flow?
d. What is the makeup flow?
12. What is the molecular weight and equivalent weight of BaCO3 given that the atomic weights are:
Ba = 137.4
O = 16.0
C = 12.0
13. A water source contains 100 ppm calcium bicarbonate [expressed as Ca(HCO3)2]. What concentration
of lime [Ca(OH)2] would be required to react with the calcium bicarbonate, assuming the lime is
100% active.
14. What is the difference between the terms ‘ppm’ and ‘mg/L’?
15. A sample of water has been sent to the labs for analysis and the analytical report shows that
the sample contains 100 ppm chloride as Cl-. What is the concentration as:
a) NaCl?
b) CaCO3?
c) K2SO4?
16. You have sent a sample of water to the laboratory for analysis in order to calculate the results of a
treatment. What is the first thing you must do before proceeding with the calculations?
17. When the cations and anions do not balance in a water analysis what should be done before
proceeding with any calculations based on the analysis?
18. You are going to make up a 50 gallon (189 L) day tank solution of sulfite by adding 1 gallon
(3.8 L) of a product having a density of 10.4 lb/gal (1.25 kg/L) to water. The
concentration of sulfite in the product is 21.9% active. What is the concentration of active
sulfite in the day tank.
19. You have a customer that is going to lay-up a boiler using sulfite as the oxygen scavenger. The
product factor is 4.56 ppm product per ppm as sulfite (SO3) and the target residual is 100 ppm as
SO3. The holding capacity of the boiler when totally filled is 5000 gallons (18.9 m3). How much
product should be added to the boiler?
20. You wish determine the flow rate of water through a pipe using TRASAR that has a density of 9.3
lb/gal (1.11 kg/L). You set the TRASAR feed rate to 10 ml/min and measure the TRASAR down
stream at 20 ppm. What is the water flow through the pipe?
21. During an elution study of a zeolite softener, you measure the brine draw at 8 gpm (1.8 m3/hr). The
salt concentration in the brine tank reads 94.7 % saturation (25% NaCl) and the salt concentration
in the diluted brine reads 38 % saturation (10% NaCl). What is the dilution water flow?
22. During a plant survey, you have found a source of lost condensate having a temperature of
150°F (65.6°C) and the flow of the condensate is 50 gpm (11.36 m3/hr). Calculate the
ROI for the return of this lost condensate given the following information:
The cost to install the required piping = $50 000 (inclusive of man-power, piping, etc.)
The boiler steam flow = 100 000 lb/hr (45359 kg/hr)
The enthalpy of the boiler water = 307 Btu/lb (714 kJ/kg)
The enthalpy of the condensate = 118 Btu/lb (274 kJ/kg)
The enthalpy of the makeup water = 28 Btu/lb (65 kJ/kg)
The energy cost for the plant = $2.86/MM Btu ($2.71/MM kJ)
The cost of water = $1.00/1000 gal ($0.264/m3)
The present feedwater conductivity = 200 µS/cm
The boiler maximum conductivity = 3000 µS/cm
Makeup water TDS = 390 ppm
Condensate TDS = 10 ppm
There is no blowdown heat recovery in the system
23. What is the maximum cycle of concentration that is permitted given the information below?
(You will need the ASME guidelines table 2.13.1 - from Book 2)
24. For this question, you will need a copy of the steam tables (Table 2.2.2 or Table 2.2.3 - from
Book 2).
Given:
Boiler pressure = 600 psig (4.14 MPag or 41.4 Bar)
Boiler steam flow = 100 000 lb/hr (45 359 kg/hr)
The condensate temperature = 150°F (65°C)
The makeup temperature = 60°F (15°C)
Cycles of concentration = 20
The makeup rate is 50%
3. List the types of pretreatment that will remove total dissolved solids?
5. Write the balanced equations for the reaction of lime with Ca(HCO3)2, Mg+2 and CO2
8. For this question, you will require a copy of Figure 2.3.13 - from Book 2
The raw water analysis is as follows:
Calculate the ppm (mg/L) HCO3-, CO3= and OH- for the raw water. Then, using partial cold lime
softening, calculate the results of the finished water and calculate the total ppm (mg/L) lime
required assuming that the lime is 100% Ca (OH)2.
9. From question 8, if the water flow to the softener is 150 gpm (34 m3/hr), how much lime
should be fed per day?
10. What source(s) of water would be expected to give poorer cold lime softening results and why?
11. What must be present in the water when magnesium removal is desired and why?
12. Aside from temperature, what are the main differences between cold lime softening and hot
lime softening?
13. Name the two basic types of hot process lime softeners
14. What are the differences between the two types of softeners in question 13 above? For this
question, you will need a copy of Figures 2.3.13 from Book 2, and 2.3.30 and Table 2.3.3
from Book 2
15. Given the following information, calculate the expected finished water analysis and the
amount of lime and soda ash required to soften the water for optimum alkalinity removal.
Water component Raw Water ppm (mg/L) Finished Water ppm (mg/L) as
as CaCO3 CaCO3
Calcium 175
Magnesium 85
Sodium 60
“P” Alkalinity 0
“M” Alkalinity 120
PH 7.3
CO2 12
HCO3- ?
CO3= ?
OH- ?
16. An up-flow hot lime softener is being treated for maximum magnesium removal. The
finished water has a “P” alkalinity of 19 ppm (mg/L), an “M:” alkalinity of 38 ppm
(mg/L) and a magnesium concentration of 10 ppm (mg/L).
17. What are the three distinct functions of a hot process softener?
18. What are the two basic types of hot process softeners?
19. What is the minimum detention time for a hot process softener?
a) 15 minutes
b) 30 minutes
c) 60 minutes
d) 120 minutes
20. You have an account that has a hot process softener. The plant has been experiencing
carryover from the HPS to the filters ever since they installed the new boiler and they are
blaming Nalco for feeding sodium aluminate to the HPS. From the given, determine the
root cause of the carry over.
Given:
The raw water hardness is 250 ppm
The raw water bicarbonate alkalinity is 150 ppm
The raw water flow is 690 gpm (157 m3/hr)
The raw water silica is 20 ppm
Volume of the softener is 2748 ft3 (77.8 m3)
22. The customer has an upflow HPS and the third sludge tap on the side of the unit shows 60%
solids in the five minute settling test. What should the operator do?
a) Increase the sludge blowdown
b) Do nothing
c) Decrease the sludge blowdown
d) Feed more aluminate
2. Which type of ion exchange process is generally found if the purpose is to remove only
hardness such as following a hot lime softener?
6. In a softening process using a SAC (Na+), which ion is expected to leak first at the break
point?
7. In a demineralization system using a SAC (H+), which ion is expected to leak first at the
break point?
8. A split stream dealkalizer system is in use with the water total cations equal to 200 ppm
(mg/L) and the total alkalinity equal to 150 ppm (mg/L). The resins in use are a SAC
(H+) and a SAC (Na+). What percent of the water flow should be through the SAC (H+) if
you wish the effluent alkalinity to be 10 ppm (mg/L)?
9. What equipment should be installed following a SAC (H+) in a split stream dealkalizer, and
why?
10. In a demineralizer system using a SAC (H+) and a SBA (OH-), what water parameters should
be monitored on the effluent of the cation unit?
11. In a demineralization system using a SAC (H+) and a SBA (OH-), what will happen to the
finished water if the cation resin is over run?
14. What is the potential danger in using split stream dealkalization with a SAC (H+) unit and a
SAC (Na+) unit?
15. In many cases when sulfuric acid is used to regenerate a SAC (H+) unit, a two or three step
regeneration is used. Why?
16. What is thoroughfare regeneration, why can this be done and what is the advantage of using
this technique?
17. What is the main purpose of backwashing a mixed bed unit prior to regeneration?
18. List the parameters one must normally record or investigate at the start of an ion exchange
performance review.
19. How can you determine if resin has been lost from an ion exchange unit during service? How can you
determine the actual amount of resin in a unit?
20. For SBA (OH-) resin, outline the differences between Type 1 and Type 2.
21. List the parameters and data that should appear on operator logs for any ion exchange operation.
22. List the reasons that might cause a reduction in service throughput in an ion exchange operation.
24. When is a full backwash, at lower than normal rates, and over an extended period of time a good idea
to recommend? Why?
25. Given:
Backwash water temperature = 54 oF (12oC).
2 3 2
Recommended backwash flowrate at 77 oF = 6 gpm/ft (14.7 m /hr/m )
Ion exchange tank diameter = 4 ft (1.219 m)
3 2 3 2
What should the backwash flow be, in gpm (m /hr), and the backwash flow rate, in gpm/ft (m /hr/m ) at
54 oF (12oC).?
26. List the typical regenerant dosages, and resin exchange capacities for SAC (Na+), SAC (H+), SBA
(OH-)
27. What is the purpose of the fast rinse step in ion exchange regeneration?
Questions:
Calculate the number of regenerations /year, the regeneration efficiency, and the cost of salt /year
Determine if the cross sectional and volumetric flow rates at peak flow and average flows that are
acceptable.
31. For a salometer reading of 87.1 % saturation, list the salt concentration in wt-percent, in lbs salt per
US gallon of solution, in gms salt per Liter of solution, and the specific gravity of the brine.
32. In an SBA (Cl-) process, also called chloride anion or chloride dealkalization, what can be added
beside salt during regeneration? Why? At what level, in proportion to the salt, is it normally
added? What water quality and salt quality should be used?
33. When using sulfuric acid to regenerate a SAC (H+) resin, why must acid addition be done in more
than one step? What about when using hydrochloric acid?
34. For a WAC (H+) process, what is the major difference in its acid requirement during regeneration,
compared to the same amount of SAC (H+) resin?
36. Are there potential problems with WAC (H+) resins when using cationic polymers upstream? Explain
your answer.
37. List two major differences between SBA (OH-) and WBA (OH-) resin.
38. When is the major problem when WBA resin ages? How might this be mitigated?
1. What is osmosis?
3. What are the two basic membrane materials used in reverse osmosis?
11. If the silt density index of the feed water to an RO system with a PA membrane is very low
but fouling is occurring, what could be the causes?
12. How do Electrodialysis (ED), Electrodeionization (EDI) and Electrodialysis Reversal differ
from Reverse Osmosis (RO)?
13. With all other factors being constant, if an RO system using PA membranes is showing a
decrease in rejection and an increase in permeate flow; what could be causing this
situation?
14. If the condition in question 11 is occurring, what can be done to restore the membrane?
15. An RO system with a PA membrane is preceded by a clarifier that uses polymer and
chlorine, a gravel filter and a micron filter. What should be added to the water to protect
the membranes?
17. What can be done to reduce the amount of carbon dioxide in the permeate from a water
source that has a high concentration of bicarbonate alkalinity?
18. List all common design parameters associated with an RO unit, and discuss each.
19. List the six common RO problems. Which ones are associated with deficiencies in the pretreatment
equipment or processes used ahead of the RO system?
20. What problems can silica in the feedwater to an RO unit cause. Iron and manganese? Organic matter?
Microbial matter? How are each controlled?
21. What is the free chlorine level tolerated by a PA (polyamide) TFC RO membrane? By a cellulose
acetate (CA) membrane? How does one typically ensure that chlorine is removed, if needed,
before an RO unit?
23. List four ways to affect scale control in an RO unit. List two advantages and two disadvantages of
each.
24. List the factors that impact membrane degradation. List normal limits for each for the two common
types of membranes.
25. What is the SDI test? What are Nalco Best practice limits for turbidity and SDI?
26. List when it may be advisable to recommend RO membrane cleaning. List when it may not be
advisable to recommend cleaning. Why might cleaning not be an option? What do you
recommend if cleaning is not advisable?
27. Outline what products you would recommend for cleaning an RO membrane fouled with:
a. Organic deposits
b. Mineral scale
28. List, and briefly discuss the various tests that can be conducted on a failed RO membrane
(“Membrane Autopsy”).
2. What are the three basic methods used for condensate polishers?
3. How can weakly magnetic hematite be removed with a magnetic condensate polisher?
4. What is the major difference between using a SAC (Na+) for raw water softening and
condensate polishing?
5. With a highly variable condensate flow, how can the minimum flow be maintained?
6. What is the difference in backwash of a SAC (Na+) type polisher as compared to a water
softener and why?
7. A boiler system is being treated with a coordinated or congruent phosphate/pH program and
there is a fairly high concentration of ions in the condensate. The sodium release from
the SAC (Na+) polisher has been causing difficulties in the control of the sodium:
phosphate ratio in the boiler water. What can be done to obtain better control of the
boiler water?
8. If a condensate polisher is to be regenerated with morpholine, what must first be done before
the amine regenerant is added, and why?
9. If total organic carbon (TOC) is a problem in the condensate of a utility plant that uses resin-
type condensate polishers, what should be done to decrease the TOC?
10. Your customer is an automotive plant. In their process, reciprocating engines release a rather
large amount of oil into the condensate and even after the decanters; the oil in the
condensate is rather high at 15 ppm (mg/L). What can be done to protect the boilers from
the deposition of oily deposits?
11. What is the major aspect of condensate polishing using resin-filled vessels?
12. List the ion exchange processes used in condensate polishing, identify the resin types and regenerants.
13. Why or where must one use the SAC (NH+) or SAC (NH3+) process in place of SAC (Na+) in
condensate polishing operations?
15. Why is the service cross section flow rate in SAC process polishing in lower pressure boiler
applications maintained at higher levels than in high pressure boiler applications?
16. What should the maximum pressure differential (∆P) across the resin and internals be? Why?
17. List the minimum recommended parameters to appear on operator daily logs or test sheets for
a polisher operation.
18. Why is it important during regeneration not to suddenly contact hot polishing resin with cold
water? What should the flow be to minimize damage? At what temperature can this flow
restriction be relaxed?
Given….three polisher units 7 ft (2.133 m) in diameter, 4 ft. (1.219 m) resin depth, and normal service
3 3
flow rates between 1800 gpm (408 m /hr) and 3500 gpm (794 m /hr) in an industrial lower
pressure (< 1000 psi [69 bar]) boiler plant.
Calculate the resin volume, and determine what recirculating flow rates should be used to maintain the
minimum recommended cross sectional flow when all three units are in service; and when two
units are in service.
2. Approximately, how much faster will the corrosion rate from oxygen be if a water supply,
containing dissolved oxygen, is heated from 70°F (21°C) to 214°F (101°C)?
6. What is the expected concentration of dissolved oxygen in the boiler feed water exiting a
pressure deaerator?
7. Name the basic principle used in pressure deaeration and explain it?
10. When a tray type deaerator is used in a plant that returns high-pressure condensate at a
saturation temperature greater than the saturation temperature of the deaerator, where
should the condensate be added, and why?
11. If the returned condensate to the boiler feed water system is more than 80F° (44C°) higher
than the makeup water, where should the condensate be added, and why?
12. What is one of the most common causes of poor deaerator performance?
13. Typically, what is the maximum amount of steam required for venting a tray or spray type
deaerator as a percent of the feed water flow?
15. If a deaerator is producing water containing only 7 ppb dissolved oxygen, is an oxygen
scavenger really necessary, and why?
16. Where should an oxygen scavenger be added to the boiler feed water system?
17. Your customer has a tray type deaerator and you find that the dissolved oxygen concentration
is 50 ppb. What should you look for?
18. List the two primary reasons why a deaerator fails to reduce oxygen content down to the 7-40
ppb level guaranteed by manufacturers, in the absence of a chemical oxygen scavenger.
19. List what you must do to evaluate the current on-line deaerator performance.
20. For all but dissolved oxygen, list what value(s), or what observations one would expect to
find in a properly functioning deaerator, that is being operated to original design specs,
and has not suffered mechanical failure. For each parameter, list possible reasons for
deviation from expected values or expected observations.
21. What is the typical maximum venting rate (as a % of the FW) for a properly operated
deaerator?
22. Given the following parameters, calculate the amount of steam required to be added to the
deaerator. NOTE: assume the venting rate is 0.2% of the FW flow, and the COC are 25.
23. Outline the recommended chemical injection point for a chemical oxygen scavenger to a
deaerator. If it cannot be fed to the preferred location because of the deaerator design,
outline the accepted alternate injection point(s).
24. Should an oxygen scavenger be mixed with other products? If not, why not. What water
source is suggested for mixing the oxygen scavenger for feeding? What should the pH of
the FW be (for optimal chemical oxygen scavenging purposes)?
25. What is the essential difference between a FW tank and a deaerator? What is the end result of
this difference concerning oxygen removal efficiencies, and chemical oxygen scavenger
usage?
3. What are the differences between open and closed feed water heaters?
6. What should be the main concern during start-up of a boiler with an economizer?
9. What is an economizer? What does it do? How much energy might it recover?
10. Describe economizer construction or design characteristics and some of the typical water
treatment or fireside problems seen in this equipment that result from the design.
11. What is a feedwater heater? What does it do? What is the difference between a low and high
pressure FW heater?
13. For mixed metallurgy feedwater heaters (i.e., copper alloyed construction), what was the
recommended feedwater pH? What does recent work by EPRI now suggest the pH
should be, and what better way to control copper corrosion has now been identified?
14. List the five design parameters, operating conditions, or chemical environments that can lead
to Flow Assisted Corrosion (FAC).
4. How can one determine if a firetube boiler has an even or odd number of passes?
5. What is the type of boiler that uses heat from a process to generate steam?
8. What is a once through boiler and what are the special requirements for treating these units?
11. What is the efficiency of a gas fired boiler that is operating under the following conditions
12. What is the efficiency of an oil fired boiler that is operating under the following conditions:
Steaming rate = 150 000 lb/hr (68 039 kg/hr)
Heat content of the steam = 1204 Btu/lb (2800 kJ/kg)
Feedwater heat content = 193 Btu/lb (449 kJ/kg)
Oil firing rate = 1265 gal/hr (4788 L/hr)
Density of the oil = 7.9 lb/gal (0.946 kg/L)
Heat value of the oil = 18 500 Btu/lb (43 030 kJ/kg)
15. What is the significance in a boiler operating with a low circulation ratio?
16. When planning to inspect a boiler, what are the first things one must do?
17. Having met ALL safety guidelines, what should one do next, before beginning a boiler
inspection?
18. The operating history of the boiler since its last inspection may have a definite influence on
its tendency for scaling, deposition, or corrosion. What operating parameters should one
investigate?
19. When inspecting the waterside of a water-tube boiler, outline in some detail what to look for,
and what operational issues one might be able to identify
20. Outline in some detail what areas of the boiler FIRESIDE should be inspected, and what one
should look for.
22. Calculation of reasonably accurate boiler water COC is relatively simple in low pressure
boilers, with simple softening for the FW. Explain why accurate COC calculation
becomes difficult or impossible with high purity FW (DI, RO, all condensate).
Under these latter conditions, how can one best calculate COC?
23. Using Figure 2.9.11, estimate the silica steam:boiler water ratio under the following
conditions:
a). Boiler Pressure = 2250 psig (15.5 MPag), boiler water pH = 11.3
b). Boiler Pressure = 875 psig (6.0 MPag), boiler water pH = 12.1
c). Boiler Pressure = 2500 psig (17.2 MPag), boiler water pH = 11.7
24. For the following feedwater chemical treatment programs, what chemical tests should be
routinely performed by boiler operators?
a) Phosphate residual program?
b) Chelate program?
c) All polymer program?
d) Phosphate-pH program?
e) AVT program?
26. What is the maximum oil level permitted in boiler FW by the ASME for boilers operating at
less than 300 psig (2.1 MPag)? How does oil most commonly get into the FW? Where
does oil commonly come from? Why is oil problematic for boilers? How can oil be
detected in boiler water (6 ways)?
27. List four reasons why coil boilers have become popular. Outline the two main design
differences of coil boilers. Discuss treatment difficulties, including chemical oxygen
control, and internal treatment control.
29. In terms of function, what is the difference between a superheater and a reheater?
6. During a boiler start-up, what are the two main concerns for the superheaters?
8. How can it be determined if all of the water has been removed from non-drainable
superheaters during start-up?
9. Since steam is pure water vapor, how does deposition occur on the waterside of superheater
tubes?
10. What methods can be used to control the temperature of the steam?
1. What are the two basic types of turbine stages and what are the difference(s)?
2. For best economy, at what speed velocity should be moving element travel with respect
to the incoming steam velocity?
4. If the main purpose of a turbine is the generation of electrical power, what type of turbine
is generally used?
7. How can the effects of solid particle erosion be differentiated from moisture erosion?
8. If copper deposits are found in a turbine where the boiler is operating at more than psig
(16.5 MPag), how do these deposits get to the turbine?
9. Where in the turbine would one expect to find sodium salt deposits?
11. A sample of turbine deposit is sent to the laboratory for analysis and sodium carbonate is
found at a high concentration. The boiler is operating on demineralized makeup water
and the boiler water is treated with phosphate and some free hydroxide. The boiler water
contains no carbonate. What is the source of the carbonate?
12. Where are the largest diameter wheels found in a turbine and why?
14. Discuss what safety issues one must address before beginning the inspection of any
turbine.
15. If the strainer of throttle valves of a turbine are white, what does this tell you? If red or
black with iron deposition?
16. Explain how to collect a sample of turbine deposit from areas where extremely small
amounts of deposits have formed.
17. Discuss the impact of 100 ppb sodium in the steam going to a turbine? What are the
proper recommendations? 40 ppb sodium in the steam? Recommendations? Why is good
steam purity going to a turbine so critical?
18. Does silica in a turbine deposit generally imply selective silica or vaporous silica
carryover has occurred? Explain your answer.
19. Explain what the presence of significant amounts of sodium carbonate in a turbine
deposit imply
3. Since steam condensers operate at very low vacuums, how can non-condensable gasses be
removed from these systems?
4. How is corrosion from carbon dioxide and ammonia controlled in the air ejector?
6. What are the problems that result from steam-side corrosion in a wet condenser?
10. What methods are commonly used to locate a tube leak in a condenser on a condenser with
divided water boxes?
2. What are the two forms of blowdown that can be applied to a boiler?
5. How often should a Nalco representative operate the boiler bottom blowdown valve?
7. What is the proper orientation of the holes in the continuous blowdown line in the steam
drum?
a. Facing down
b. Facing the feedwater line
c. Facing away from the feedwater line
d. Facing up
8. A boiler is generating 100 000 lb/hr (45 359 kg/hr) of steam. The ppm (mg/L) TRASAR® in
the feedwater is 1 ppm (mg/L) and the ppm (mg/L) TRASAR in the blowdown is 20 ppm
(mg/L). What is the percent blowdown flow based on the feedwater flow?
11. To what does the term ‘Holding Time Index’ or HTI refer?
12. A boiler generates 100 000 lb/hr (45 359 kg/hr) steam at 50 cycles of concentration. The
holding capacity of the boiler is 80000 lb (36287 kg). What is the HTI?
13. The boiler in question 12 above has received some contamination that measures 100 ppm
(mg/L) in the boiler water. If the blowdown remains unchanged, how long will it take for
the concentration to be reduced to 5 ppm (mg/L)?
14. What can be done to recover heat from the continuous blowdown exiting a boiler?
15. If there is a need for low pressure steam and a combination of a flash tank and a heat
exchanger is going to be used, where should the heat exchanger be installed in
relationship to the flash tank and why?
16. You need to look up a value in a table to convert 15.5 zipos to quadros. However, your table
shows the following:
ZIPOS QUADROS
12 130
16 175
Interpolate the table to find how many quadros is equivalent to 15.5 zipos.
17. [For this question, you will need a copy of Table 2.13.4 from Book 2]
Your customer has a boiler generating 100 000 lb/hr (45 359 kg/hr) of 600 psig (4.14 MPag)
steam as 30 cycles of concentration. How much steam could be recovered from a 10 psig
(0.069 MPag) flash tank and how much heat would be recovered per hour?
18. In question 17 above, how much additional heat can be recovered per hour with the use of a
heat exchanger if the makeup water temperature is 70°F (21°C), assuming a clean heat
exchanger and if the feedwater is 50% makeup?
19. A boiler system is generating 80 000 lb/hr (36 287 kg/hr) steam and operating on soft water
makeup having a temperature of 60°F (15.6°C). The boiler water conductivity is limited
to 2100 µS/cm, the makeup conductivity of the makeup water is 200 µS/cm, the
conductivity of the condensate is 10 µS/cm, and the conductivity of the feedwater is 105
µS/cm. The boiler cycles, controlled at 20 cycles, are limited by TDS. The makeup
water rate is 50% of the feedwater. When the system is surveyed, you find a source of
clean condensate having a conductivity of 10 µS/cm that is currently being lost but could
be returned to the system at a cost of $20 000 US to install the piping required. The
plant’s energy cost for heat is $2.86/MM Btu ($2.71/MM kJ). The temperature of this
condensate is 150°F (65.6°C), and the estimated flow of this condensate is 20 000 lb/hr
(9072 kg/hr). How much heat could be recovered from this condensate?
20. From the heat recovered from the condensate alone in question 19 above, would it be cost
effective to install the piping to return the condensate?
21. In question 19 above, if the 20 000 lb/hr (9072 kg/hr) condensate were to be returned to the
boiler feedwater, how would this affect the cycles of concentration and what does this
mean to the plant?
22. [This question will require the use of Table 2.13.4 from Book 2]
A boiler is generating 100 000 lb/hr (45 359 kg/hr) saturated steam at 250 psig (1.72 MPag).
The fuel is natural gas having a higher heating value (HHV) of 1000 Btu/ft3 (37 259
kJ/m3). The fuel consumption is 150 375 ft3/hr (4258 m3/hr). What is the thermal
efficiency of the boiler?
23. Your prospect has a 1250 psig (8.6 MPag) boiler that uses demineralized makeup water and
polished condensate. He has been treating his boiler with a congruent phosphate/pH
program and controlling the blowdown based on boiler water conductivity. Your survey
of the system has shown the following:
24. List the three main designs of a blowdown (BD) flash tank.
25. To prevent boiler water carryover, or entrainment, in the flashed steam from a flash tank,
what must one control?
28. List the factors that affect the maximum attainable boiler efficiency.
30. For the Heat loss or indirect method of calculating boiler efficiency, list the losses that are
normally used in this calculation.
31. For question 30, which of these losses are the largest?
32. Given:
Natural Gas is the fuel, the excess O2 in the stack gas is 5%, and the stack gas
temperature minus the ambient air temperature (combustion air temperature) is 410 deg.
F (228 deg. C), what is the energy loss of the stack gases?
3. What is the single largest category of problems seen in waste heat boilers?
4. List four of the six major factors that are known to lead to the answer in question 3 above.
11. A black liquor recovery boiler burns concentrated black liquor. In this respect, this is a fired
boiler. Why is it also considered a waste heat boiler?
12. What is the single most important concern in the operation of a black liquor recovery boiler
and why?
13. Select which of the following best describe a waste heat boiler
a) May have separately fired superheaters
b) Look like water tube fired boilers
c) Look like fire tube boilers
d) May be vertical
e) May be horizontal
f) May have several generators with one common steam drum
g) None of the above
h) All of the above
14. What is a Land Acid Dew Point Meter (LADM) and when should it be used?
15. To what does the term “Transport” refer to and how can it be used?
16. Given the information in the following table, calculate the percent transport and explain the
significance of the percent transport.
17. A refinery CO boiler has been redesigned by adding finned economizer tubes in order to
improve the efficiency of the economizer. What is the potential problem in doing this?
18. Explain the importance of this type of boiler to the Kraft Paper mill.
19. Outline the importance difference between this recovery boiler and a fossil-fueled boiler, in
terms of how airflow is managed.
20. List one of the major issues with these boilers that affects their reliability.
21. What does ESP stand for? Why are most Black Liquor Recovery Boilers equipped with such
a procedure.
3. What is a supercritical pressure boiler and what is unique about these units?
9. What is the usual type of water pre-treatment that is used for the feedwater for
high-pressure boilers?
11. What is the preferred pH range for feedwater systems with mixed metallurgy (Fe-Cu)?
12. What is the preferred pH range for feedwater systems with all-ferrous metallurgy?
13. What is the Nalco recommended pressure limit for the use of sulfite as an oxygen
scavenger and why?
14. If sulfite is used as an oxygen scavenger, where should it be fed and why?
15. For high-pressure systems, what is the best method of measuring the cycles of
concentration?
16. A 1500 psig (10.3 MPag) boiler is limited to 50 cycles of concentration in order to
prevent iron deposition. The Steam generation rate is 1.5 MM lb/hr (0.68 MM kg/hr),
and only the steam rate is monitored. The makeup water is demineralized and polished.
5 lbs (2.27 kg) of a tracer is added in one slug and measured at 25 ppm (mg/L) in the
boiler water. After 24 hours, the concentration of the tracer is measured at 2 ppm (mg/L).
Calculate the blowdown rate, the feedwater rate, and the cycles of concentration.
Comment on the calculation result of the cycles of concentration
17. What makeup pretreatment equipment does one normally find in HP boiler systems?
Why? What equipment does one generally find in a condensate return system in HP
boiler systems? Why?
19. List the three ways that can be used to calculate HP boiler COC. List the equations,
where appropriate.
20. What is the FW hardness requirement for a phosphate residual program in a HP boiler
system? When might such a program be a good idea to use in a HP boiler operation?
What is the major drawback to the use of such a program?
21. Are All-Polymer programs used to any great extent in HP boiler systems? Explain.
22. What is the most widely used internal chemical program used in HP boiler systems?
Why?
23. What are the FW purity requirements when an AVT program is used? What products
make up an AVT program?
24. What should you recommend if a HP boiler’s pH suddenly falls to 2.0. What should you
NOT do?
25. For power boilers, and HRSG units, what is the main focus for applied feedwater
chemistry? Applied Boiler Water Chemistry?
26. Why is cation conductivity of condensed steam the primary measure of steam purity in
most plants?
27. What are the newly established limits (by EPRI) for MU water conductivity, silica, and
TOC, and steam cation conductivity for an AVT program? For a CT program?
28. List the three ways that steam purity can be affected negatively.
29. Although very rare in high pressure, high purity steam operations, carryover can occur.
When (list three reasons or occasions)?
30. How does cation conductivity work? What does one have to do to measure cation
conductivity. Why is it used?
32. When elevated oxygen levels are present in the FW of Power Boiler or HRSG Units, the
tendency is to compensate by feeding increased levels of oxygen scavengers. Why is this
to be discouraged?
33. If both CO2 and oxygen are present in FW, are corrosion rates increased above the sum
of the individual corrosion rates? If so, why, and by how much?
34. List the risk factors for FAC. How does one combat this problem?
35. For a triple pressure design HRSG, what internal treatment program must be used, and
why?
36. Why must one be very careful when using manual blowdown in these units?
37. For Na:PO4 molar ratios greater than 3.0, what is the main problem?
a. For a ratio of less than 3.0?
38. There are some benefits to free caustic in these boilers. List them.
41. Why do some plants not use organic amines for condensate treatment? What do they use
instead?
42. For preboiler equipment constructed of both steel and copper alloys, what problems are
seen?
43. What is the limit for DO at the condensate pump discharge in a condenser?
44. In the usual internal chemical treatment programs used in these types of boilers, what can
cause a boiler water pH increase? A decrease?
1. What is the most important thing that must be done to prevent serious boiler scale?
5. Write the three equations that represent the formation of magnesium silicate?
6. In which type of boiler systems would one expect to find silica-based deposits or mineral
scale?
8. Since the boiler is made of steel, why are iron deposits a concern?
9. What are the sources of iron that form deposits on boiler heat transfer surfaces?
10. Do polymers, added to the boiler feedwater, assist in the control of iron deposition
and if so how?
11. A boiler is being treated with a polymer and the total iron concentration is monitored in the
boiler blowdown. It is noted that as the polymer dosage is increased, the total iron
concentration in the blowdown increases.
True or False: The monitoring is good and polymer dosage should be left at a high
dosage to clean up the boiler.
12. What are the steps that should be taken to control iron deposition in a boiler?
13. What are the four common internal chemical treatment programs used for the
prevention of scale?
14. What is the basis behind a phosphate residual program and when is this type of treatment
considered?
15. What are the control parameters for a phosphate residual program?
16. If a boiler system is treated with a phosphate residual and there is a constant, low-level
source of oil in the condensate or if the Mg: silica ratio in the feedwater is less than 3:1,
what sludge conditioner should be used?
18. What are the two common chelating agents used in boiler water treatment?
19. What are the differences between the two chelating agents?
21. What is the difference in oil contamination between a chelate treated boiler and a phosphate
residual treated boiler and why?
22. What is the normal control range for chelate residual in boiler water?
23. You have a prospect that has a dirty boiler from a competitor’s phosphate residual program
and he wishes to convert to a chelate or an all-polymer program. He states that he will go
with you, but only if you will clean his boiler on-line because he can’t afford the time and
cost to acid clean his unit. If you don’t do this, he will go with the competitor’s soluble
program. What do you do?
24. You have a boiler operating at 1250 psig (8.6 MPag) with demineralized makeup water.
Would you consider a chelate residual program?
25. What is an all-polymer program and how does this differ from a chelate program?
28. A customer wishes to determine the amount of iron transport through his boiler.
How do you respond?
29. For a low pressure boiler operating with a high FW hardness coagulation program, what is
the expected boiler deposit? What would one conclude if the extractables are 3.2%,
calcium sulfate is 15.2%, and iron is 9.6%?
30. For a low pressure boiler operating with a phosphate precipitation program, using soft water
MU, what is the expected deposit(s)? What would one conclude if there is detectable calcium
sulfate, and sodium salts found in a boiler deposit.
31. For a high-pressure boiler operating with DI MU, and a phosphate pH program, what is the
expected boiler deposit? What would one conclude if there are hardness deposits and some
carbonate found in boiler deposit?
32. When a weight gain is seen after a deposit is heated to 925 deg. C. to a constant weight, what
does this mean? What components of a typical boiler deposit are lost during this test?
33. List the tests routinely done in a DEP code analysis. List the optional tests available.
34. If a carbonate deposit is found in a boiler operating well above 600 psig (4.1 MPag), what
does this tell you about the deposit? The presence of carbonate in a turbine deposit? In a
cooling system deposit?
1. Where is the most common place for corrosion to occur within a boiler system?
7. Why is oxygen corrosion such a serious situation and where is this type of corrosion
normally seen in a boiler system?
8. What are the two basic mechanisms by which Hydrazine and ELIMIN-OX® react with
oxygen and describe them? Which is the slower reaction?
10. Since many boilers operate at an elevated pH with free caustic in the water, why is caustic
corrosion a concern?
11. What treatment approaches can be used to protect a boiler system against caustic corrosion?
12. You have a customer that is using a congruent pH phosphate program. The customer is
complaining that he is having serious difficulties in controlling the pH and the
concentration of phosphate in the boiler water. He indicates that when his steam load
increases, the pH of the boiler water increases and the phosphate decreases and when the
load is reduced, the pH decreases and the phosphate increases. You find that the
pretreatment system is well controlled. What is happening and what would you
recommend?
13. When should a sulfite oxygen scavenger NOT be recommended and why?
14. What are the prerequisites for an all-volatile (AVT) treatment program?
15. True or False. You inspect a boiler and find the internals of the unit are black with a thick
layer of magnetite. This boiler is well passivated.
18. Boiler water is found to contain 20 ppm (mg/L) sodium, 10 ppm (mg/L) phosphate and has a
pH of 9.8. What is the sodium-to-phosphate ratio of the boiler water?
a. 2.0
b. 8.3
c. About 2.7 (need a graph for the determination)
d. Insufficient information to determine.
19. What is considered a “safe” sodium-to-phosphate ratio for a congruent phosphate control
program?
20. What is an equilibrium phosphate or phosphate continuum control program and when is it
used?
23. What is the cause of boiler cold-end corrosion and where does it occur in a boiler?
24. What is the cause of hot end corrosion in a boiler fired with oil and where is it most
commonly seen?
25. Outline the internal chemical steps required in the event of a major FW hardness
contamination event that cannot be corrected quickly.
26. Outline the end result of an boiler water alkalinity upset (alkalinity too high)
28. Outline the steps you need to take if the boiler water pH falls to 4.0; 6.0; 8.0; 8.5; 9.0; 12.0;
12.5
29. What is a block and bleed valve system? Why/when is it used. Draw a free hand schematic of
such a system.
30. Why is colloidal silica in the makeup problematic in higher pressure boilers?
31. Explain why black liquor contamination in boiler water may cause an increase or a decrease
in pH.
32. Outline causes for routine FW oxygen excursions. List the reasons why this is not desirable.
33. List seven typical questions you should ask yourself in order to determine the proper Boiler
Operator training level, and if additional training is required.
15. With respect to a steam sample nozzle, what is meant by isokinetic flow?
16. What must be ensured when sampling superheated steam for a steam purity study and why?
17. What is the difference between measuring the sodium concentration using a sodium analyzer
and using an Analex cartridge?
18. A customer has a boiler system containing a condensing turbine. What level of sodium in the
steam is a concern?
19. List the preferred sample point for any water sample.
20. Where is the preferred sample point for steam purity sampling? How should it be collected?
What is the preferred sampling point for a condensate sample?
21. Boiler water samples should generally be taken from two locations. Where, and why?
25. What is an isokinetic sampling nozzle, and why is it important to use one in certain
conditions?
26. What is the preferred metallurgy for use in any sampling system. Why? Should copper lines
or valves ever be used? Why?
27. What temperatures should sample coolers be capable of cooling hot samples down to? Why?
29. Why do most plants with a history of condensate contamination generally install a redundant
condensate dump system? Where is it normally installed?
30. What precautions involving the pH meter should you take when measuring condensate pH?
31. In a hydrogen study to determine the extent of boiler waterside corrosion, how much
hydrogen is created per lb (kg) of iron corroded (oxidized)?
32. In a hydrogen study, should one take the absolute hydrogen content in the steam, or the
relative change in hydrogen content when the boiler steam load is increased? Explain your
answer.
33. The consultant running a hydrogen study will normally determine how much time is required
to conduct the test? How much time is normally required to do this study, and a steam purity
study?
34. What does one do to test for FAC? Why, instead of using the hydrogen test?
35. Where is the best sample point for a steam purity study (sodium study) located? Why?
36. For a steam purity test, outline the sample line construction and dimensions?
4. What are the two major areas from where oxygen can enter a condensate system?
8. Your customer is complaining about the cost to chemically treat his condensate system. He
states that his makeup water is demineralized so he should not have to treat the
condensate. What is your response?
9. In high-pressure boiler systems, what is the major source of hydrogen sulfide and sulfur
dioxide that can depress the condensate pH and how can this be prevented?
10. What means are available to prevent carbonic acid corrosion in condensate systems?
13. What are the five most important characteristics of neutralizing amines that determine which
amine (or combination of amines) is the best for a specific system?
16. What are steam traps and what are the consequences of steam trap failures?
17. True or False: A condensate sample taken from a vented condensate receiver is a good
point to monitor the condensate pH.
18. You are starting up a filming amine program on a system that has been improperly treated in
the past. How should you control the amine dosage?
19. True or False: Filming amines and Nalco ACT help protect the condensate system against
oxygen corrosion.
21. You have a prospect that has a boiler system operating at 250 psig (1.7 MPag) and the
condensate system is an all-ferrous system. The makeup water has high alkalinity and
the feedwater is 50% makeup. The condensate pH averages about 6.1. What would you
recommend as the first step in a treatment approach to protect the condensate system?
22. Your prospect has a boiler system generating 600 psig (4.1 MPag) steam. The makeup water
is softened and dealkalized and the feedwater is 40% makeup. Some of the steam
supplies a partial condensing turbine with an exhaust steam pressure of 150 psig (1.03
MPag). The condenser is admiralty brass while the remainder of the system is carbon
steel. The remainder of the steam is let down to 150 psig (1.03 Mpag) for use in the
process. Some of the condensate that is formed in the process is flashed in flash tanks to
10 psig (0.069 Mpag) for use in some other areas for heating purposes. All of the
returned condensate enters an atmospherically vented receiver that returns the condensate
to the deaerator. A neutralizing amine is to be used. Is a single feed point of amine
sufficient to treat this system and why? [Hint: It will be helpful to sketch this system.]
23. Your customer is a paper mill that has a black liquor system. There is the possibility of the
condensate being contaminated with black liquor. What should be done to protect the
boiler from contaminated condensate?
24. Outline the two equations that show how alkalinity in the boiler feedwater can generate
carbon dioxide in the steam and condensate. For a 60 psig (414 kPag) boiler, how much
carbonate is likely to decompose to carbon dioxide?
25. Explain why the presence of certain organic matter in the feedwater may be a problem for
the condensate system, and neutralizing amine consumption.
26. List the pH value at which the following filming treatments lose their ability to form a
protective film on steam and condensate piping and equipment.
Octadecylamine
Ethoduomeen
Nalco ACT
27. List the four common components or reasons for water hammer
28. Outline why it is important, during a steam and condensate system MOC survey, to
understand how the steam load varies during a 24 hour period.
29. For pure water, how much CO2 is needed to yield a pH of about 5.6 at 176 oF (80 oC). A
pH of 6.0 at 32 oF (0 oC)?
30. Approximately at how many foot interval should steam traps be present along a
horizontal run of steam piping? At what slope should properly horizontal steam line be
constructed?
32. Explain briefly why a cascading steam system is more difficult to treat than a non-
cascading system. What is the preferred neutralizing amine product for such a system.
33. Describe why steam jacketed reactors that cycle between steam heating and cooling water
cooling are difficult to properly treat.
34. Explain how reboilers might suffer very serious corrosion from CO2 accumulation.
Outline how best to deal with these.
36. List the equations (US and metric units) that allow one to calculate how much steam is
lost through a failed open steam trap.
2. What are the three major modes of metal deterioration of boiler tube metals?
3. When a boiler needs chemical cleaning, what should Nalco’s role involve?
5. What is a boil-out procedure, what is its purpose and when should this be done?
8. A boiler is going to be out of service for six months to a year. Where can you find the
information for the proper lay-up procedure?
9. In most installations, what is the time required to prepare a boiler for service?
10. A boiler with rolled tube joints is going to be put on line following an inspection. What
thermal precautions should be followed?
12. When a boiler is to be brought on line, what reference should be consulted for the proper and
specific procedure?
13. Why is chemical cleaning of a boiler the preferred method? Does Nalco get involved in
chemical cleaning?
15. What pressure should be used when hydroblasting – cleaning a boiler? What are the
limitations to hydroblasting a boiler?
18. What is a critical issue and procedure that must be followed when draining a boiler after an
alkaline boil-out?
19. For boiler lay-up, what is the target relative humidity for air in contact with steel, to ensure
negligible corrosion?
20. What factors should be considered if you are trying to decide between a wet and dry lay-up?
22. List the accepted chemical recipes used for a Nalco wet lay-up, using sulfite, and Elimin-Ox.
23. List the common desirable properties of an oxygen scavenger used during lay-up.
24. List the applications where TRASAR might be very useful to use.
25. What are the measured COC if FW TRASAR is determined to be 2.33 ppm, and the average
boiler water TRASAR, after allowing for product cycling, is 99.5 ppm.
The following lessons are designed to pull the key concepts from both the:
There are 16 self-contained lessons in this guide, one for each major topic of the PAC-3 Cooling
Water Technical Manual and the Cooling Water Application and Best Practices Guide.
These lessons cover the following topics:
Training
Le Book 3 Sections Book 313 Sections
Training Topic
sso Covered Covered
n
1. What is the basic difference between once-through, closed recirculating, and open
recirculating systems?
2. What are key components of a cooling tower that provide the ability to cool the water?
3. What are the four basic problems in cooling water systems, and how do they affect the
system?
4. What causes these problems to be more severe in open recirculating cooling systems than in
either once-through or closed recirculating systems?
5. Give some examples of how the four problems in cooling systems are interdependent.
7. How are the various system stresses interrelated to the four problems in cooling systems?
8. How does the concept of stress management provide value to a cooling system treatment
program?
2. Why is it valuable to understand the source of water used in cooling systems as part of the
Chemical portion of an MOC survey?
3. Unlike most salts, many magnesium and calcium salts are inversely soluble with temperature.
Why is this important in cooling water systems?
5. What is the basic difference between compounds with an ionic bond vs. a covalent bond?
6. Substances with covalent bonds can be either polar like water or non-polar like benzene.
What does it mean to be a polar compound, and what is the significance of the polar
character of water?
9. Why is the solubility of some gases like carbon dioxide higher than others like oxygen?
11. Why is it necessary to measure the residual of treatment chemical in a system and compare
the residual concentration to the amount of product fed to a system?
12. What are problems that suspended solids can cause in a cooling system?
13. Why are equivalent weights used for chemical reactions and what is the significance in
cooling water?
14. How does the variation of the dissociation constant of water impact the measurement of pH?
15. How does the addition of CO2 impact cooling water alkalinity and pH?
16. Give a general description of how to determine the balance of alkalinity species (bicarbonate,
carbonate, and hydroxide) in a cooling water sample.
18. The alkalinity of water is 150 mg/L as CaCO3. How much H2SO4 (as both CaCO3 and
H2SO4) will it take to lower the alkalinity 60 mg/L?
19. In a cooling water system, which of the following is more likely to corrode, scale, or foul:
mild steel, stainless steel, or admiralty brass? Why?
21. How can the redox status of a water system be easily determined?
22. Describe the general process of removal of soluble iron or manganese from a water source.
23. What factors complicate removal of hydrogen sulfide with oxidizing agents?
24. What is the difference between laminar and turbulent flow and why is this important in
cooling systems?
26. A new cooling water system is supposed to remove about 10 million Btu per hour (2.9 MW).
If the recirculation rate is 2,000 gpm (450 m3/h), what is the temperature differential?
27. A heat exchanger cools liquid toluene (assume specific heat is 0.42 Btu/lb•oF
[1.75 kJ/kg•oC]) from 190oF (88oC) to 100oF (38oC). The toluene flow is 60,000 lb/hour
(27200 kg/h). What is the heat load (Q) on the exchanger? If the cooling water
temperature climbs from 76oF (24oC) to 98oF (37oC), what is the cooling water flow?
28. The cooling water exiting one exchanger combines with the outlet water from a second. The
combined flow is unknown. The flow of the first is 160 gpm (36 m3/h) at 82oF (28oC).
The flow of the second is 245 gpm (56 m3/h) with a temperature of 120oF (49oC).
Calculate the flow and the temperature of the combined water.
2. What is the value of a thorough cooling tower survey using the MOC process?
5. What is the difference between a typical cooling tower and an evaporative condenser?
7. What are three pieces of equipment commonly used to remove suspended solids from a
cooling water system?
9. What are the key differences between acid vs. caustic for pH control?
10. What are recommended feed points and any special considerations for:
a. Chlorine or bleach
b. Treatment products
c. Non-oxidizing biocide
d. Acid
e. Caustic
11. If a cooling tower recirculates 10000 gpm (2270 m3/h) with a 15oF (8.3oC) temperature
differential, determine the following:
12. A cooling tower has a metered makeup that averages 695520 gal/day (2633 m3/d). The
concentration ratio averages 5.3.
13. For the cooling tower in Problem 12, calculate the following:
14. A cooling tower water and makeup have the following analyses. What is the concentration
ratio of the cooling tower? Why could the CR for alkalinity, Cl, and SO4 be so different?
Recirculation
Makeup Water
Calcium 170 780
Magnesium 120 540
Alkalinity 160 50
Chlorides 80 500
Sulfates 50 700
SiO2 18 83
Conductivity 600 2900
16. A cooling tower has an estimated volume of 90000 gal (340 m3). To determine the volume
(capacity) of a cooling tower system, one 500 gram container of TRASAR #2 (Dosing
Reagent 299) was added to the system. (Remember, Nalco 23299 (Dosing Reagent 299)
has a product factor = 1.0.) After adding Dosing Reagent 299, the TRASAR technology
reading increases from zero to 1.67 mg/L after complete mixing. What is the system
volume?
17. Instead of using TRASAR technology as in Question 16, the volume study can only be done
using salt. You estimate the volume is 90000 gal (340 m3). (a) How much salt should
you add to perform a differential ion analysis? After the sodium chloride (NaCl) is
added, the chloride (as Cl) increases from 60 to 174 mg/L. (b) What is the volume of the
system?
18. If the TRASAR #2 in Question 16 drops from 1.67 mg/L to 0.45 mg/L in 47 hours, what is
the blowdown rate?
19. Given the following data, what is the recirculation rate and evaporation rate for the cooling
tower?
a. Concentration Ratio (CR) = 5
b. Temperature range (ΔT) = 12oF (6.7oC)
c. Relative humidity = 92%
d. Ambient temperature = 70oF (21oC)
e. Basin length = 40 ft (12 m)
f. Basin width = 20 ft (6 m)
g. Basin drawdown = 6 inches (15 cm) in 2 minutes (when makeup water valve is
completely off)
20. A tower has a liquid to gas ratio (L:G) of 1.0 and an approach to wet-bulb temperature
of 5oF (2.8oC). If the plant wants more cooling and increases the recirculating rate,
what happens to the L:G ratio?
What happens to cooling water performance and the approach temperature?
What should they have done instead, if possible?
1. What are some of the key characteristics that can impact treatment of closed systems and
some advantages of closed systems over open systems?
2. What are common sites of uncontrolled water loss from a closed cooling system and how
does design of a closed system affect leakage?
3. What are two reasons why galvanic corrosion is a problem in closed cooling systems and
how can it be minimized?
4. Why can closed systems be buffered up to pH 9-11 without scale problems and open systems
can’t?
5. When surveying a closed system, what are some of the reasons why sidestream filtration
would be needed on the system?
6. What are key non-chemical or operational methods that can minimize corrosion in closed
systems?
7. Why are scaling inhibitors often employed in closed system treatment products, even if
softened water is used in the system? In this case, what is valuable to know about the
makeup water source?
8. How would you determine if a closed system needs to be cleaned? How should a new or
recently cleaned closed system be pretreated for corrosion protection?
10. What are some of the ways nitrite can be consumed in closed systems?
11. What is one of the requirements when using molybdate by itself as a corrosion inhibitor in
closed system applications?
12. What are some of the unique concerns if glycol is used in a closed system, either just for
freeze protection in cold weather or continuously?
13. Describe the reasons why a staged filtration system is needed after cleaning a closed system
and two ways of staging a filtration system to sequentially remove smaller particle sizes
of suspended material from a closed system.
14. What are the key similarities and differences between a short term and long-term lay-up
(other than the time difference)?
15. Why is it important to ensure the maintenance of a proper dosage level with chromate or
nitrite?
16. Calculate the HTI for a closed system with 1200 gallon (4.5 m3) volume (capacity),
R = 800 gpm (180 m3/h), and a leakage of 2 mL/min. Compare to a normal HTI for
an open recirculating system? What types of corrosion inhibitors for open recirculating
and once-through systems would not be used in closed systems because of the HTI?
17. What dosages of nitrite and triazole would you recommend for a system with an HTI of
1.5 years at 192oF (90oC), with softened makeup water containing a combined chloride
and sulfate concentration of 150 mg/L? What dosages of PSO and triazole would you
recommend?
18. Why is microbiological control important in a closed system? For which inhibitor in
particular is microbiological control important? Why?
19. What is the upper temperature limit for a nitrite treatment product? What material can be
used in systems operating above this temperature?
20. List an advantage and disadvantage of molybdate compared to nitrite for closed system
corrosion control.
21. What are some of the general treatment concerns and requirements of high temperature
systems, high heat flux systems, and low temperature systems?
22. What are the unique aspects of a dispersible oil program for closed system treatment?
1. What common factors should be part of the Mechanical portion of an MOC survey of a once-
through system?
2. What are similarities and differences of the Operational portion of a once-through system
survey compared to a cooling tower system survey?
3. Considering makeup sources for a once-through system as well water, clarified river water,
or unclarified river water, from which source(s) would you expect the following
problems in a system?
4. What differences exist in well water vs. surface water? (Suggestion: create a table of the
differences.)
6. What methods of pretreatment are common for surface waters and what are potential
problems that may be caused by these methods?
7. The problems in once through systems are sometimes specific to a given industry or water
source. Give some examples of problems in once-through systems.
9. What are the three goals of treatment programs in once-through systems? What are the three
chemical families that are used as once-through corrosion inhibitors and what is the most
commonly used inhibitor? What inhibitors would be used if soluble iron or manganese
were present in the water?
10. Where can an organic phosphate like PSO be cost-effective in treating a once-through
system?
11. How can an azole be applied in a cost effective manner in a once-through system?
14. How are cooling lakes different from typical once-through systems?
15. Why does self-softening occur in cooling lakes and why can it be beneficial?
16. Why do some plants throttle cooling water flow to heat exchangers? How does throttling
affect exchanger performance?
18. Describe two approaches for controlling macrofouling in once-through systems and highlight
some of the differences between the two approaches.
19. How is the rationale for applying corrosion inhibitors different in a once-through system
compared to a cooling tower or a closed system?
20. A once-though system uses 9 million gal/d (34000 m3/d) of water. A polymeric dispersant
product is applied at 0.2 mg/L. How many gal/d of product is needed if the product
density is 8.85 lb/gal (1.06 kg/L)?
21. What special requirements exist for treatment of once-through systems that supply potable
water or in paper mills where the paper may contact food products?
22. Describe approaches to demonstrating value in once-through accounts and give some
examples.
1. What are the two primary mechanisms of heat transfer from the process fluid to the water in
process heat exchangers? Does the third mechanism exist also?
2. What is the difference between a condenser, a partial condenser, and a cooler? What is the
relative value contributed to the process by each type of exchanger?
3. What are the basic components of a tube-and-shell heat exchanger and the functions of each?
4. What types of special tubes are used in some heat exchange applications, and what problems
can they cause?
5. In what type of exchanger can the process outlet temperature be lower than the cooling water
outlet temperature?
6. What are some advantages of plate-and-frame exchangers and what is one of the unique
disadvantages of this type of exchanger?
7. The overall heat transfer coefficient (U) is used to lump several heat transfer factors together.
Why? How is U value used?
9. What calcium carbonate scale thickness will give a two inch (51 mm) change in back
pressure in a surface condenser? (See Figure 3.6.30 Book 3, Page 119.) What is the general
impact of a 2-inch (51 mm) increase in backpressure on fuel costs (heat rate) or capacity?
11. You open the channel end of a heat exchanger with water on the tube side and there are 4
compartments in the headspace. How many waterside passes does this exchanger have?
12. If there are 200 tubes in an exchanger with water on the shell-side that is 30 ft (9.1 m) long
with an external tube diameter (OD) of 0.75 inches (1.905 cm), what is the area of the
heat exchange surface? What is the heat flux on the exchanger if the heat duty
(Q) = 1250000 Btu/hour (366 kW)?
13. What is the water flow rate (gpm or m3/h) through a partial condenser where the process
temperature drop (ΔT) is 65oF (36.1oC) and only 45% of the gas is condensed? The
process flow rate is 20000 lb/h (9072 kg/h) The process gas has a specific heat (Cg)
of 0.251 Btu/lb•oF (1.05 kJ/kg•oC) and a heat of condensation (hv) of 170 Btu/lb
(395 kJ/kg). Finally, the temperature rise of the cooling water (Δt) is 18oF (10oC)
14. A heat exchanger contains 240 tubes that are 0.75 inches (19 mm) OD, 18 BWG, and
16 ft (4.9 m) in length. The cooling water is on the tube side and makes a single pass
through the exchanger. If the cooling water flow is 350 gpm (79.5 m3/h), what is the
water velocity in ft/s (m/s) and Reynolds number? If this is a four-pass exchanger (60
tubes/pass) what is the water velocity and Reynolds number? What comparison can be
made about the velocity and Reynolds numbers between the 1-pass and 4-pass
exchangers?
15. A heat exchanger with a 25-inch (63.5 cm) shell ID and ¾ inch (1.91 cm) OD tubes on
1-inch (2.54 cm) triangular pitch has water on the shell side. The baffle cut is 25% and
the baffles are 18 inches (45.7 cm) apart. The process makes 4 passes in the tubes. The
water flow is 650 gpm (148 m3/h). Calculate the water velocity in the shell-side. What is
a possible reason for calculating the velocity over the tubes at the centerline of the
exchanger?
16. For heat exchangers, define approach temperature, temperature difference, and terminal
temperature difference. When should you use each, and under what conditions should
you avoid using each?
17. A heat exchanger is used to cool air. It has the following process and water temperatures:
a. If the exchanger has co-current flow, what is the Log Mean Temperature Difference
(LMTD)?
b. If the exchanger has counter-current flow, what is the LMTD?
c. The exchanger cools 12000 lb/hr (5440 kg/h) of air, specific heat (Cp) = 0.25
Btu/lb•oF (1 kJ/kg•oC). The area of the exchanger is 70 ft2 (6.5 m2). What is the U
coefficient? Use counter-current flow.
d. What is the water flow through the exchanger?
18. You have been monitoring Approach Temperature in a customer system for three months.
Today you note a significant increase in the Approach Temperature. In what order
should the following actions be ranked, in terms of affect on the approach temperature or
value to the customer?
19. A single pass heat exchanger has cooling water on the tube side. The process flow has been
reduced because of a turnaround; therefore, the plant has “throttled back” the cooling
water flow. You have the following information
20. An exchanger with a heat load of 500000 Btu/h (2637000 kJ/h) has the 1-pass water on the
tube side. The exchanger has a 25-inch (63.5 cm) shell ID with 1-inch (2.54 cm) OD
tubes on 1.25-inch (3.18 cm) square pitch. The tubes are 16 BWG and the effective
length of the tubes is 20 ft (6.1m). The cooling water velocity is 3.3 ft/s (1.0 m/s), the
inlet temperature is 95oF (35oC) and the exit temperature is 115oF (46.1oC).
21. An exchanger that has just been cleaned is throttled during winter operation to maintain a
constant process temperature. The cooling water flow is 400 gpm (91 m3/h) and the ΔP is
5 psi (34.5 kPa). To maintain the process temperature when summer arrives, the flow is
increased to 600 gpm (136 m3/h), but the ΔP also increases to 15 psi (103.4 kPa).
22. Suppose that the backpressure on a surface condenser in a nuclear plant is 2 inches
(6.77 kPa) over bogey. What are the two possible impacts of this backpressure increase
that will increase operating costs for the utility? The surface condenser condenses 15000
lb/hour (6800 kg/h), and steam cost is $7.25/1000 lb ($15.95/1000 kg). How much more
does it cost the customer to operate at 2 inches Hg (6.77 kPa) over bogey?
23. What are the two key causes of lost condenser performance? What is the least likely cause?
24. Problems that may be localized in part of the condenser can often be found during inspection
of the water box. What are possible reasons for uneven deposits, deposits on only part of
the tube sheet, or deposits in the ends of only some of the tubes?
25. List tube inspection techniques and the relative frequency for using each technique.
26. Why is a detailed inspection report essential each time a condenser is inspected? What are
key components of a good inspection report?
27. Why is backpressure a valuable measure of performance? What other parameters must be
monitored along with backpressure and why?
28. What can cause inaccuracy in backpressure measurement and how can the data be checked
by an independent measure?
29. Why is it important to monitor air in-leakage rates? What are typical and desirable measures
for air in-leakage? What is a secondary method to validate changes in air in-leakage?
30. What would cause terminal temperature difference (TTD) to increase when load is constant?
What happens to TTD if load decreases?
32. Using the data for a generating station given in the table below, calculate each of the
following parameters and provide evaluation of the information as needed.
a. Determine condenser backpressure
b. Calculate terminal temperature difference
c. Calculate the heat of condensation for the given backpressure
d. Calculate the condenser heat load, based on the cooling water flow
e. Calculate the condenser heat load, based on the steam flow. Compare to the value
from the water flow and evaluate the reasons for any difference. Calculate the impact
of any difference between the two values.
f. Calculate the design U value and actual U value for the current operating conditions
g. Calculate the Cleanliness Factor for the condenser
h. As a final conclusion, discuss the calculated results
33. If an increase in backpressure occurs, summarize the things that should be checked to
determine the root of the problem?
34. Why are things like lake inversion or over stabilization problems in cooling lakes?
Reading Assignment: PAC-3 Technical Manual (Book 3), Section 3.7 – Special Systems
Cooling Water Application and Best Practices Guide (Book 313):
Section 3.7 – Special Systems and Section 3.8 – Refrigeration Systems
1. What types of problems could you expect with a reaction jacket in the cooling system?
3. What conventional closed system corrosion inhibitors should not be used in salt brines?
4. Why are the terms ppm and mg/L not equivalent in many brine systems?
5. What is the difference between a particulate removal and a mass transfer scrubber?
7. What are the four most common scrubbers used for mass transfer removal of gaseous
contaminants?
8. What are the main water-related problems found in scrubbers and give some specific
examples?
9. Compare and contrast high heat flux and regular cooling water systems with regards to skin
and water temperature, concentration ratio, and water velocity.
10. Describe the three primary cooling areas in a continuous steel caster system.
11. What are the three basic functions of an aluminum ingot or billet casting cooling water
system?
13. What are the two types of refrigeration machines (chillers), and how do they differ? What are
the materials used for refrigerants in each type of chiller?
14. What are the two distinct sides of a vapor compression chiller? What separates the two sides?
15. How does a steam absorption unit create a vacuum to promote the evaporation of the
refrigerant?
16. A 1000 ton three phase electric chiller is operating under the following conditions:
17. A survey of a chiller system shows that the cooling tower is not operating at optimum
performance. Both airflow across the tower and cooling water flow to the chiller
condenser could be increased. Which one should be increased, and what would the
impact on a
500 ton (1760 kWr) chiller be?
18. If a chiller system uses enhanced tubes in the condenser and evaporator, how should the
system be managed differently compared to a system with smooth tubes?
19. A chiller system survey indicates that free cooling is used periodically. What other
information about free cooling is needed?
20. Explain why Thermal Energy Storage systems are not intended as an energy conservation
method.
21. What conditions are needed for a facility to be a good candidate for Thermal Energy
Storage?
22. What are the three most common reasons Thermal Energy Storage systems experience
problems?
23. What is the preferred treatment program for Thermal Energy Storage systems?
24. What are the three primary functions of an air washer? What are key differences between the
function of air washers and air handling equipment?
25. Knowing that the dry-bulb temperature of air is 80oF (27oC), and the Relative Humidity is
30%, what are the wet-bulb temperature, the enthalpy, and the moisture content
(Absolute Humidity)? (See Figure 3.7.63 in the PAC-3 Technical Manual- from Book 3)
26. For an air washer, explain the difference between Performance Factor (PF) and Saturation
Efficiency (SE).
27. What are some of the key problems that occur in air washers?
29. An air washer cools the air in Question 25 to 70oF (21oC) and 50% relative humidity. Is
moisture removed from or added to the air?
30. If the airflow is 200000 CFM (340000 m3/h) for cooling the air from the conditions of
Question 25 to the conditions in Question 29, what quantity of heat is removed from the
air? (Assume the density of air is 0.07 lb/ft3 (1.12 kg/m3).
31. The air entering an air washer is at 75oF (23.9oC) and at 50% relative humidity. The air
leaving the air washer has a dry-bulb temperature of 65oF (18.3oC) and wet-bulb
temperature of 63oF (17.2oC).
32. The air entering an air washer is at 75oF (23.9oC) and at 80% relative humidity. The air
leaving the air washer has a dry-bulb temperature of 70oF (21.1oC) and wet-bulb
temperature of 60oF (15.6oC). The water changes temperature from 49oF (9.4oC) to 59oF
(15oC) across the air washer.
33. Describe how economy mode operation can benefit a facility and how the benefit can be
demonstrated.
34. After cleaning the coils in refrigeration cooler, the ΔT increases from 11oF (6.1oC) to 16oF
(8.9oC) and airflow increases by 10000 CFM (17000 m3/h) from the original value of
50000 CFM (85000 m3/h). What is the savings from cleaning if the chiller has an
efficiency of 0.75 kW/ton (0.059 kWh/MJ) with an energy cost of $0.08/kWh and
cooling is needed 4000 h/yr?
Reading Assignment: PAC-3 Technical Manual (Book 3), Section 3.8 and Section 3.9
1. How are scaling and fouling different and yet have a similar result?
7. How does temperature affect where scale forms in a cooling water system? Why?
8. How useful are the Ryznar and Langelier Stability Indices for predicting the scale-forming
tendency in a cooling tower system?
9. What is the benefit of using computer models to predict whether scale will form in a cooling
system?
10. What are the stages of nucleation and growth of mineral scale formation?
11. Why is it important to know about the growth of nucleated clusters of a mineral scale or that
the stages of growth may occur on terraces and steps of a growing crystal?
13. What is the affect of flow velocity or physical obstructions to the flowing water on scale
formation?
14. What materials are commonly considered fouling deposits in cooling water systems?
15. What do the mechanism of particle agglomeration and the fouling models tell us about
minimizing fouling in cooling water systems by operational factors?
16. What role does dissolved carbon dioxide in the cooling tower water play in calcium
carbonate scale formation?
17. When and where might the different forms of calcium sulfate scale be expected in a cooling
tower system?
18. What factors must be considered when balancing the potential for silica and magnesium
silicate scale control?
19. What factors must be known about calcium phosphate and a cooling water system to help
prevent this scale?
20. What is one factor that makes the combination of zinc and orthophosphate a good
combination for alkaline cooling water treatment?
21. What is reversion of a polyphosphate and why is it a problem in cooling water systems?
22. What is the most important factor in limiting the possibility of calcium pyrophosphate or
calcium phosphonate scale?
24. What must be known about a cooling system to determine whether silt is a potential fouling
problem?
26. What are the benefits of controlling pH for deposit control, and why does it normally only
have an indirect affect on fouling?
27. Why are control of concentration ratio important and what methods can be used to monitor
cycles of concentration?
28. What are the common methods of makeup water pretreatment, and what are the advantages
and disadvantages of them?
29. What are advantages and disadvantages of sidestream filtration of cooling tower water?
32. Why does throttling the cooling water increase fouling potential and what is the best option
for prevention.
33. Which locations in a cooling system will typically have the most deposit from suspended
material?
34. What are the similarities and differences of back flushing and air rumbling?
36. What can improve the efficacy of back flushing or air rumbling?
37. What are potential advantages and disadvantages of ball cleaning systems?
38. The heat exchangers in a cooling system you service have always had substantial amounts of
sludge deposits, plugging some of the tubes. What are possible causes that you could
provide to your customer? What possible recommendations could you make to alleviate
this problem?
39. Describe how scale inhibitors function as threshold inhibitors, crystal modifiers, sequestrants
(chelants), or by dispersion.
41. How do surfactants act upon solids, oils or grease in cooling water?
42. What problems can arise if polyphosphates are used as a calcium carbonate scale inhibitors?
43. What is a key difference between polyphosphates and organic phosphates? What is one
problem that some organic phosphates have that polyphosphates do not have?
44. Of the phosphonates, why are PBTC and PAPEMP generally better than HEDP or AMP for
calcium carbonate inhibition?
45. In what applications will phosphonates tend to precipitate as calcium phosphonate under
certain conditions? What are key conditions that cause this?
46. How are organic phosphate materials like HPA and PSO different from other phosphonates?
47. What are carboxylate polymers like polyacrylate or polymaleic anhydride used for, and what
is their mechanism as they function in these roles?
48. What structural and functionality differences exist between the polyacrylamide and
polyacrylate polymers?
50. What differentiates the current polymers used for calcium phosphate stabilization from the
original copolymers used for stabilizing phosphate?
51. What products make the best calcium carbonate and calcium sulfate inhibitors?
53. What types of surfactants are best for cooling water applications?
Reading Assignment: PAC-3 Technical Manual (Book 3), Section 3.10 and Section 3.11
2. Why is it impossible to use just one metal for all situations in cooling water systems?
3. What is white rust and what conditions increase the possibility of white rust occurrence?
5. What are some of the factors that influence corrosion in a cooling system and what is the
impact of each?
6. What are the four parts of the electrochemical process and why must they all occur for
corrosion to occur?
7. What is the value of the corrosion cell model and what is one drawback?
8. Describe the common anodic and cathodic reactions in typical cooling water applications.
10. What is a passive film on an iron containing metal, like steel, and how does it form?
11. What can the electrochemical or galvanic series tell us about metals in an aqueous
environment?
13. Explain polarization. How do pH changes and velocity changes increase or decrease
corrosion rates?
14. Describe the three states of a metal in relation to corrosion in an aqueous environment.
15. How does self-passivation occur on metals like titanium and stainless steel?
16. What does a passive film need to be effective, and what can cause passivity breakdown?
17. What does the area of the anode and cathode have to do with the type of corrosion that
occurs?
19. What are common forms of localized corrosion and what is their common mechanism of
operation?
21. What do the two types of concentration cell corrosion mechanisms suggest is important in a
cooling water treatment program?
23. What characterizes a tubercle and what can be done to prevent tuberculation?
25. How does manganese participate or aggravate underdeposit corrosion and what practice can
increase this problem?
28. What are the critical factors for stress corrosion cracking (SCC) of stainless steel to occur?
33. Suppose galvanic corrosion is occurring in a heat exchanger with brass tubes and a mild steel
tube sheet.
a. What type of corrosion inhibitor can you put into the recirculating water to minimize
the attack?
b. What metal should be used as a sacrificial anode in this system?
34. How can galvanic corrosion by copper ion redeposition be minimized in cooling systems?
42. What are the four basic classifications of chemical inhibitors for corrosion control in cooling
water systems?
43. What are four ways to interfere with the electrochemical corrosion process?
44. What is the basic way that anodic inhibitors reduce corrosion?
46. How do non-oxidizing anodic inhibitors work and what is one requirement for them to
function?
48. What is the difference between the pH driven mechanism and the thermally driven
mechanism for cathodic inhibitors?
49. Why do bipolar corrosion inhibitor films generally provide better inhibition? What key
problem of anodic inhibitors can this combination prevent?
50. What are film-forming inhibitors and list two examples of these inhibitors?
51. Currently, there is one key oxidizing anodic inhibitor in use. What is it and where is it
commonly used? Why?
53. How does molybdate function as an inhibitor and what are some of the benefits of
molybdate?
55. How does silicate function as a corrosion inhibitor and where is it most commonly used?
58. Of the phosphonates discussed as corrosion inhibitors, which phosphonates provide the best
calcium tolerance and resistance to chlorine?
60. How does zinc function as a corrosion inhibitor and what are some advantages and
disadvantages?
61. How does polyphosphate function as a corrosion inhibitor and what are some advantages and
disadvantages?
64. List all of the azoles for copper corrosion control, and their main application.
65. When are special azoles like butyl benzotriazole or halogen resistant azole necessary in
cooling tower treatment?
67. What are the functions of each component in a typical zinc/orthophosphate cooling tower
program?
72. What are some advantages of using PSO in an alkaline phosphate program?
73. How does an all-organic program function to provide corrosion protection on steel or iron
surfaces?
1. Why is pretreatment of metal surfaces that are new, or after cleaning, essential for effective
corrosion control?
4. What is typically done to transition from a high level phosphate or nitrite pretreatment
program to the normal, long-term program?
5. If a high level phosphate or nitrite program cannot be used, what pretreatment option
remains?
8. Where could a basic scale control program be successful for controlling corrosion in a
cooling water system?
9. What are the key components of a traditional stabilized phosphate program and what are the
typical operating ranges for the phosphate actives?
10. Which programs can best handle high cooling water temperature and which are the least
capable of handling high bulk water temperature?
12. What provides corrosion inhibition for steel in all organic programs?
13. What are the important elements of system control for an all-organic program and why?
16. What are the possible corrosion mechanisms of alkaline zinc programs?
18. What are key aspects of zinc dosage control for alkaline zinc programs?
19. What are typical components of alkaline phosphate programs and what are their functions in
the program?
20. What is unique about the PSO/orthophosphate combination compared with typical alkaline
phosphate programs?
23. What are advantages and disadvantages of a molybdate program as a corrosion inhibitor?
24. What is one example of a non-phosphorous program and why would it be used?
25. How is it possible that a cooling system could operate successfully with only ozone
treatment, as has been observed in limited applications?
26. How can you counteract the claims of gadget vendors that the devices can provide total
treatment of a cooling system?
27. What are the first steps to proper program selection for a cooling tower system?
28. Give examples of one or two key items to survey in each of the MOC categories.
29. Why is it important to know the types of materials of construction in a cooling water system?
30. How can you address the desire of a customer to operate the concentration ratio as high as
possible?
31. Why are system mechanical characteristics like the cooling tower design, system capacity,
and the temperature drop (ΔT) across the tower needed?
33. Why is historical data about program dosage and system water chemistry valuable?
34. What value can a tool like the Optimizer or French Creek Software provide in program
selection, for any cooling water program?
Reading Assignment: Cooling Water Application and Best Practice Guide (Book 313),
Section 3.10
3. How can the example upsets in this section be used to develop a customized recovery plan
for any plant?
4. Why is it necessary to divide acid upsets into different categories based on the amount of pH
depression?
5. Why is liquid caustic not recommended for all acid upset recovery?
6. If cooling tower pH is depressed to 3.0 by an acid upset, how much soda ash should be added
initially, and what is the total amount needed to raise the pH back to 7.0? The system
volume is 100000 gal (380 m3).
7. What passivation techniques can be used after an acid upset, and when would the different
methods apply?
8. Why is an alkaline pH upset above 10.0 much more severe than one between pH 9
and pH 10?
9. What typical monitoring method can help show that a hydrocarbon leak is occurring?
10. Why is identification of the contaminant to the system necessary in a hydrocarbon leak?
11. What are the problems that may occur when continuing to operate a system with a
hydrocarbon leak?
13. What contingencies can be taken to improve microbial control during a hydrocarbon leak?
15. How should oxidant be applied when trying to control a hydrogen sulfide leak into a cooling
water system?
17. What microbial programs may provide better results when hydrogen sulfide is present?
Reading Assignment: Cooling Water Best Practice Guide (Book 313), Section 3.11
9. For a system volume study, how much TRASAR #2 should be added for an estimated system
volume of 300000 gal (1140 m3)? What is the maximum concentration that could be
added? Why should the concentration used be so much lower than the maximum?
10. Given the following data and the amount of TRASAR #2 added to the system from
question 9, calculate the system volume, blowdown rate, and HTI.
Select
a
m Fluorometer
/ Readin
p g
Step Description Date Time m (mg/L)
1 Sample #1 11/20 8:00 am 0.05
2 System Cycle Time 45 min
3 Shut off blowdown valve 11/20 8:15
Add entire amount of TRASAR
reagent calculated in
4 Question 8 11/20 8:15 am
5 Sample #2 11/20 9:00 am 7.23
6 Open blowdown valve 11/20 9:00 am
7 Sample #3 11/21 12:00 pm 4.90
8 Sample #4 11/22 3:00 pm 3.32
9 Sample #5 11/23 6:00 pm 2.25
11. When feeding 36 ml/min of TRASAR #2 (23299) into a cooling tower circulating water pipe,
the steady state TRASAR #2 concentration is 1.05 mg/L. Calculate the water flow rate.
12. To determine whether one recirculating system is leaking into another, a leak detection study
is done. The leak rate cannot be estimated. The background fluorescence of the host
system is 2% and for the receiving system it is 1%. The volume of the receiving system is
50000 gal (190 m3). A concentration of 6 mg/L TRASAR #2 (Product Factor = 1.0) is
added to the host system. Over a period of time, the steady state concentration of
TRASAR technology in the receiving system is 0.12 mg/L. What is the size of the leak?
Assume that it took 4 hours to reach the 0.12 mg/L TRASAR concentration. What is the
leak rate?
13. Describe how Diagnostic TRASAR technology can be used during an MOC system survey.
Reading Assignment: Cooling Water Best Practice Guide (Book313), Section 3.12
1. Why is proper sampling important for any analytical test that will be run on the water
sample?
2. How can a detailed water analysis help complete an MOC survey or in a troubleshooting
situation?
4. Describe some common errors that can occur when performing a titration on-site?
5. Why should some water chemistry parameters be measured more often than others in routine,
on-site monitoring programs for a cooling system?
6. What testing would you recommend for routine monitoring for a closed system program?
7. How can concentration ratio be used for indication of scale formation, and what are the
pitfalls of this?
8. If the result of a colorimetric test is above the top-end of the analytical range, describe the
method and calculation for correcting this problem.
10. Compare the methods that can be used for on-site organic phosphate analysis
11. How can the Nalco active polymer test be used in monitoring cooling water dispersants?
12. List the goals and methodology of a complete analytical program for a cooling system.
Reading Assignment: PAC-3 Technical Manual (Book 3), Section 3.13, Section 3.14
Cooling Water Best Practices Guide (Book 313), Section 3.13
2. What is the importance of ATP in cell growth? Why is ATP level an indicator of microbial
activity? How does an ATP monitor work?
3. What molecules are the basic monomers from which enzymes are built? Discuss the role
enzymes play in a cells life? Give an example of enzyme catalysis.
5. Why are Legionella bacteria a concern in man-made water systems? What role do protozoa
and biofilms play in the survival of Legionella?
9. How do green algae differ from cyanobacteria? Why does blocking sunlight control growth?
10. What are the most common macro-foulants found in cooling water systems? What problems
do they create?
12. If the most troublesome microorganisms in cooling water systems are on surfaces, why make
dip slide measurements?
13. Briefly discuss the four essential principles in the use of chemical agents for microbial
control.
14. List four oxidizing and four non-oxidizing biocides. Describe how glutaraldehyde and
isothiazoline disrupt cellular activity.
15. Compare and contrast the major chemical difference between chlorine and bromine. How
does this impact biocidal activity?
18. Describe two mechanical/physical and two chemical methods for mollusk control. Relate the
effectiveness of molluscicides to the life cycle of the blue mussel.
21. What mechanical and operational factors have an important impact on microbial growth and
control applications?
22. What are common methods for monitoring oxidizing biocides and how do they differ?
23. What is the estimated amount of industrial bleach that would be required to provide a 0.3
mg/L free chlorine residual for a system with a recirculating rate of 40000 gpm (9100
m3/h)?
24. Describe the concept of the minimum kill concentration and how can it be determined.
25. How will visual inspections of a cooling system aid in monitoring microbial contamination?
26. Why are trends of results from dip slides (or DMA) more valuable than the individual
results?
27. What are possible reasons for a difference between dip slides and DMA?
28. Why is the presence of even a small amount of anaerobic bacteria in a water sample
indicative of problems in the cooling system?
29. If protozoa are found by microscopic observation of a water sample, what does this indicate?
30. Why does interpretation of a microbial analysis for Legionella require an evaluation of risk in
addition to any decision to apply biocide? What are some of the key points of this
evaluation?
32. If microbial growth is out-of-control, what methods can be used to regain control?
1. What are key aspects of, and reasons for, the Operational component of an MOC survey?
2. What components of a monitoring program will cover the critical aspects of cooling system
management and why are they important?
3. What are the main items that can be tracked with a deposit monitor? What are the problems
that can be encountered with a deposit monitor?
6. If the mild steel corrosion rate in a cooling system is expected to be 1.5 mpy (37.5 μm/yr),
what is the minimum exposure period required for accurate corrosion rate determination?
7. How can galvanized coupons be properly used for monitoring corrosion on galvanized metal
and what should not be done with galvanized coupons?
8. When and why should pretreated coupons be used as part of a corrosion monitoring
program?
9. If a coupon has localized or pitting corrosion, the coupon report may not give a calculated
average corrosion rate. Why not?
10. What are some major differences between the Corrater and the LCM100?
12. Describe when an LPR monitor might be used by itself, without the use of corrosion coupons
to give complementary results. What is the difference between corrosion rates obtained
with coupons and those obtained with an on-line meter?
13. Describe the benefits and precautions for using analysis of iron and copper ions as a measure
of corrosion rate in a cooling system.
14. Describe the elements of a complete corrosion monitoring program for a cooling system.
15. How does fluorescence work and how is it different than typical absorbance analysis
methods?
16. How does TRASAR technology make product concentration monitoring better?
17. Why is a “background check” of the cooling tower water required before starting a TRASAR
technology program?
18. When using on-line TRASAR technology equipment, what steps are needed to ensure
successful operation?
20. Describe the general steps for using the 3D TRASAR Optimizer
21. What is the key to 3D TRASAR Corrosion Control? What will 3D TRASAR Corrosion
Control NOT do?
23. How does polymer consumption indicate scale formation and how sensitive is it as a
measure of scale formation? What types of deposition can be controlled by 3D TRASAR
Scale Control?
25. What is the Nalco Scale Index, how is it determined, and how is it used in a 3D TRASAR
Scale Control program?
27. State whether 3D TRASAR Scale Control is a good fit for each of the following situations
and give the reason.
a. The system is a cooling tower that has been using tagged polymer for some time in
preparation for using 3D TRASAR Scale Control.
b. The TRA value is 5% and the TAG value is 20% for this closed system.
c. Scale formation has been common in two critical exchangers in the system.
d. Scaling problems include calcium carbonate and magnesium silicate.
e. Scaling from calcium carbonate and calcium phosphate has been seen in many
exchangers, the HTI is 140 hours, and cycle time is 18 min.
30. When using 3D TRASAR Bio-Control, what parameters may be different than a standard
halogen-based microbial control program?
31. State whether 3D TRASAR Bio-Control is a good fit for each of the following situations and
give the reason.
a. The customer wants to have oxidant slug-fed to the system periodically
b. The customer wants to continue using chlorine dioxide
c. The system has used halogen successfully for years, has an HTI of 60 hours and a
cycle time of 15 minutes.
d. The customer only wants to monitor microbial growth with TRASAR technology and
continue using non-oxidizing biocides only
e. The system is heavily fouled with microbial growth
f. The makeup water increases the halogen level in the tower to 0.1 mg/L free residual
on regular basis.
32. Is 3D TRASAR Bio-Control more or less effective than other methods for control of
Legionella?
Reading Assignment: Cooling Water Best Practices Guide (Book 313), Section 3.15
1. What are examples of savings or costs that can be used to show the value of a water
treatment program?
2. What is the net result of multiphase electrical power and how is it provided?
3. What is the difference between a resistive electrical load and an inductive load and what
indicates the magnitude of that difference?
4. What is the difference between apparent power and real power in electrical loads?
5. A customer has 5 pumps in the cooling system; each has an induction motor rated at
450 hp (335 kW) that use 3-phase, 440 V power. The Power Factor of each motor is 90%.
The way the cooling system is currently operated, all 5 pumps are on for 4 hours per day
each afternoon and only 4 pumps are used the remainder of the day. Demand charges are
$3.00/kW/month for all consumption over 1500 kW. If the system could be operated
with only 4 pumps all day, what would the savings be?
6. A cooling tower has 5 pumps and 4 fans. The pumps move 10000 gpm (227 m3/h) each at 85
psig (586 kPag) of head. The pumps have a motor efficiency of 87% and a pump
efficiency of 89%. The fans move 550000 CFM (934000 m3/h) at 4 in, WG (10.16 cm)
each. The fans have a motor efficiency of 85% and a fan efficiency of 80%. What is the
power consumption of operating the tower?
8. A refinery condenser cannot condense the total product flow due to high cooling water
temperature. Product flow is reduced by 500 lb/h (227 kg/h). The profit on the product is
$0.15/lb at the current operating conditions. If another cooling tower fan could be turned
on to supply the needed cooling, would there still be any profit? The fan power output at
the shaft is 500 hp (373 kW). The motor efficiency is 83%. Power costs $0.08/kWh.
9. Fouling in a compressor intercooler has increased the gas temperature to the second
compression stage by 35oF (19.4oC). The second stage is a 2500 hp (1864 kW)
compressor with an energy cost of $0.08/kWh. What is the increased power cost per hour
due to the intercooler fouling?
10. A plant pumps raw water from a river and then clarifies the water before use in the plant.
What information is needed to determine the value of the water in the plant processes?