CLJ Q&a

DIAGNOSTICS EXAMINATION
DIAGNOSTICS EXAMINATION
CRIMINAL JURISPRUDENCE, PROCEDURE AND d. Felony

EVIDENCE
1. The PHASE in the commission of the crime when the 8. Submitted by the accused to answer the complaint
person is from the point of beginning or within the against him.
point where he can still decide to desist or continue the a. Affidavit
commission of the crime is the ________ phase. b. Compliant affidavit
a. Objective c. Counter affidavit
b. Internal d. Reply
c. Subjective
d. External 9. When the search and seizure conducted by the
police is based on a search warrant, this presupposes
2. The declaration of an accused acknowledge his cullt that the search and seizure __________.
of the offense charged, or of any offense necessarily a. May be questionable
included there in is _______. b. Is without probable cause
a. Liability c. Violates the right of the person to privacy
b. Confession d. Is with legal ground.
c. Admission
d. Responsibility 10. The power or authority to hear and decide a case
is _____
3. Preliminary investigation is a matter of right when a. Judicial
the penalty for the crime committed is ________. b. Jurisdiction
a. Not exceeding six years of imprisonment. c. Venue
b. Imprisonment at least 4 years, 2months and d. Mandate
1 day regardless of fine.
c. Imprisonment is 4 years, 2 months and 1 day 11. In arbitrary detention it is required that the
regardless of fine offender must be a ___________.
d. Less than 4 years of imprisonment a. A person in authority or agent
b. Any person
4. House of representatives is under what branch of c. A public officer or employee
the government? d. Private individual
A. Judiciary the law
B. Legislative 12. In order for a Court to have authority to a particular
C. Executive case, it must have jurisdiction of the following, except
D. Congress a. the person of the accused
b. the territory where the offense was committed
5. What is the purpose why independent relevant c. the subject matter
evidence is admitted by courts? d. None of these
a. To show that a certain fact occurred, whether
true or not 13. When a Filipino kills a Chinese on board a vessel
b. To prove to the court the allegations. bearing the flag of Mexico while the vessel is in the
c. To prove that the fact is true Philippine water, may the criminal law of the Philippines
d. To prove that a fact is not true apply?
a. Yes, the Philippine criminal law is applicable
6. He is an arbiter in court who ensues that the defense b. Yes, since the offender is a filipino
and the prosecution adhere to the legal requirements c. No. it is the Mexico criminal law that applies
of introducing evidences. d. No, the Philippine criminal law is not applicable
a. Clerk of court
b. judge 14. Which of the following is considered as the second
c. sheriff line of defense on crime fighting?
d. jury a. crime suppression
b. crime prevention
7. If a person commits an act or omission which is c. proactive measures
provided by revised penal code as amended or d. crime investigation
modified, the crime committed or omitted is ________.
a. Crime 15. The police officer testifying in court can refer to
b. Ordinance his/her notes or memorandum ________
c. Offense
a. As a codigo and his record
b. As it is his right as a police officer
Amici Review Center Page 1

c. In order to refresh his memory A. Testify on his own behalf
d. To help him in the persecution B. Secure the presence of his witnesses in court
C. Has the testimony of the witnesses against him
16. What do you call a court covering two (2) or more D. Cross examine and confront the witnesses
municipalities? against him
a. MTC
b. MeTC 24. Means that the state has the supreme authority
c. MCTC within their borders. Hence there are no higher
d. MTC’s authorities and no entities with the authority to take
coercive action inside the territorial limit of the state.
17. The new and independent act which is the A. Internal Sovereignty
immediate cause of the injury which breaks the B. External Sovereignty
connection between the original wrong and the injury C. State Sovereignty
is referred to as the _____. D. Sovereign Powers
a. Effective intervening
b. Causal connecting 25. Which of the following is not correct about
c. Efficient intervening confession?
d. Efficient connecting A. if made by third persons, in certain cases, are
admissible against party.
18. Which of the following illustration BEST B. it must always be express, never implied.
exemplifies the concept of complex crimes? C. it is a categorical acknowledgment of guilt.
a. ERIC wanted to kill ANDREW. ERIC set the house of D. if made by the party himself, in some
ANDREW resulting to the death of ANDREW. instances, is admissible against his co-accused.
b. ERIC steal the chicken of ANDREW, while at it, took
the chicken of MARK and that of CEDRIC 26.Is that which in a case the resolution of which is a
c. ERIC killed ANDREW, after a week, raped SASA and logical antecedent of the issue involved therein, and
later steal the CHICKEN of CEDRIC the cognizance of which pertains to another tribunal.
d. ERIC wanted to kill ANDREW. He threw a a. Prejudicial question
grenade against ANDREW. It killed ANDREW b. inquest proceeding
and injured CEDRIC. c. preliminary investigation
d. custodial investigation
19. The following are the sources of criminal law
EXCEPT _______. 27. How many articles are part of the 'Universal
a. Special law Declaration of Human Rights?'
b. Ordinance A. 30
c. Special penal laws B. 33
d. Revised penal code c. 32
d. 34
20. A person asked you for advice on how to file a case
of adultery against his wife? Which of the following are 28. A Foreign vessel registered in the country of
allowed by the RULES in order to initiate the filing a Australia anchored at Manila Bay wherein an Australian
concubinage case? national was caught in possession of Cocaine. What
A. The case of the adultery is a public offense, it can rule provides that a crime committed while on board of
be initiated by the police the vessel?
B. The case of the adultery can only be initiated a. French rule
by the complaint of the offended spouse b. American Rule
C. The case of adultery can be initiated even without c. Spanish Rule
the complaint of the offended spouse d. English Rule
D. None of these
29. One, who at the time of his trial for one crime shall
21. What is the crime committed by a person who shall have been previously convicted by final judgment of
have carnal knowledge with a woman without the another crime embraced in the same title of the
consent of the latter? Revised Penal Code.
A. Sexual harassment a.Recidivism
B. Rape b.habitual delinquency
C. Sexual assault c. reiteracion
D. Abduction d.quasi-recidivism
22. This involves the use of punitive and disciplinary 30. The Rule applies on registered vessel on foreign
measures such as solitary confinement to modify or territorial jurisdiction which generally follows the
reform criminal behavior whose conduct and Nationality Principle and not the Domiciliary Principle
deportment is not totally responding to rehabilitation except when the crime committed on board vessels
programs affects the national security of the Country where such
a. Isolation vessel is located.
b. Rehabilitation a. French Rule
c. Reformation b. English Rule
d. Reintegration c. Spanish Rule
23. In order to determine the veracity of the testimony d. Greek Rule
of the witness against him. The accused has the right
to______

31. To be eligible for the grant of conditional pardon, lang siya,walang karapatang mabuhay ang asawang
what portion of the sentence must have been served ganyan’’ Lenie killed her husband.
by a petitioner-prisoner? a. Grace is liable as principal by inducement.
a. At least one half of the minimum of his indeterminate b. Grace is not liable because a thoughtless
sentence expression is not an inducement to commit a
b. At least one half of the maximum of his crime.
indeterminate sentence c. Grace is liable as principal for inducement includes
c. At least one fourth of the maximum of his suggestion to commit a crime.
indeterminate sentence d. Grace is not liable as principal but as an accessory.
d. At least one third of the minimum of his
indeterminate sentence 39. BBM was born on July 5, 2001. In July 5, 2016, he
commited a crime of theft. Is BBM liable?
32. The official document that grants human rights to a. Yes, for he has committed a crime
all is called the _____. b. Yes, for he knows what he is doing
a. World Human Rights c. No because he is still a minor
b. Universal Declaration of Human Rights d. No because he acted without discernment
c. Human Rights for All
d. Indian Declaration of Human Rights 40. BBM raped Sara in the presence of her husband,
forcing her, using the dog style position in the sexual
33. Charlie and Lea had been married for more than 6 act. Rape is committed aggravated by what
months. They live together with the children of Lea circumstance?
from her first husband. Charlie had sexual relation with a. Ignominy
Jane, the 14-year-old daughter of Lea. Jane loves b. Passion
Charlie very much. What was the crime committed by c. Cruelty
Charlie? d. Craft
a. Simple Seduction
b. Qualified Seduction 41. Digong induces Bong Go to kill BBM. Bong Go killed
c. Consented Abduction BBM by means of treachery. Should treachery be
d. Rape appreciated also against Digong, the principal by
inducement?
34. Article 1 of the 'Universal Declaration of Human a. Yes, if he has knowledge that X killed Y by
Rights' states 'All human beings are born free and equal means of treachery.
in dignity and rights?' b. Yes, because there was conspiracy
a. true c. Yes, because when there is conspiracy, the act of
b. false one is an act of all.
c. partially true d. Yes because he is principal by inducement, so he is
partially false liable for all the acts of the principal by direct
participation.
35. Pacquiao with intent to kill, fired his gun towards
BBM but hitting & killing Digong. What crime did 42. Panelo killed Roque by stabbing him from behind.
Pacquiao commit? Panelo called his brother-in-law Harry, and told the
a. Consummated Homicide latter that he killed Roque. Panelo asked Harry to bury
b. Attempted homicide as regards BBM with the cadaver of Roque to prevent discovery which he
consummated homicide as regards Digong did.
c. Consummated homicide committed by mistake in the a. Harry is an accessory but is exempt from
blow liability
d. Attempted homicide as regards BBM with b. Harry is an accessory and is liable
consummated murder as regards Digong c. Harry is an accessory but excused from liability
pursuant to art 22 of the Revised Penal Code
36. Which of the following is ‘Violation of Human d. Harry is an accomplice
Rights’?
a. a woman getting less salary than a man, for same 43. BBM was charged before the court. During the
amount of work pendency of his trial, he died. What would be the effect
b. a child working in a toy-factory of his death on the case involved and in his criminal
c. bad-mouthing about someone's looks liability?
d. all of these a. The criminal case will be dismissed and his
criminal liability is extinguished.
37. A big fire razed a row of houses in a thickly b. The criminal case will proceed and his criminal
populated neighborhood. To prevent the spread of fire, liability is not extinguished.
some of the residents demolished several houses. c. The criminal case will be archived to wait for his
These persons are: resurrection.
a. Civilly liable but not criminally liable d. There will be no effect at all because his relatives
b. Criminally and civilly liable will be the one to face trial and be punished in case of
c. Civilly and criminally not liable his conviction.
d. Criminally liable but not civilly liable
44. The Philippines is at war with China. The President
38. Lenie complained to her bestfriend Grace that she issued an order prohibiting the sending of letters to
had been seriously battered by her husband for so China nor flight to the said enemy country. BBM, a
long, Grace remarked ‘’kung ako sayo patayin ko na Filipino, despite such order rented a private plane going
to China. While BBM was about to board the plane, he

was arrested by members of the aviation security 52. Is that portion of the acts constituting the crime,
group. Is BBM liable for a crime of flight to enemy starting from the point where the offender begins the
country. commission of the crime to that point where he has still
a. No, because he was just about to board when he control over his acts including their (acts) natural
was arrested. course.
b. No, because he did not successfully reach Japan. A. Act of execution
c. Yes, because mere attempt to flight is B. Internal act
punishable C. Objective phase
d. Yes, because mere intent to flight is punishable D. Subjective phase
under the law.
53. Ace Navarro was charged with theft, during the
45. Patrolman Harry without legal grounds arrested trial, the prosecution was able to prove estafa. Ace
and detained Chel Diokno and deprived said person of Navarro was acquitted of theft. Can Ace Navarro be
his liberty. Patrolman Harry is liable for: prosecuted for estafa later without placing him in
a. Illegal detention double jeopardy?
b. Arbitrary detention A. Yes, for jeopardy to attach, the basis is the
c. Unlawful arrest crime charged in the complaint or information,
d. Kidnapping and the one proved at the trial
B. No, the first jeopardy didn’t attach because the first
46. Digong was arrested for illegal possession of information was not valid
firearms which is considered a low power gun. C. Yes, the first jeopardy didn’t attach because the first
Considering that such is punishable by correctional information was not valid
penalty, within how many hours should a case be filed D. No, for jeopardy to attach, the basis is the crime
to the proper judicial authority? charged in the complaint or information, and the one
a. 12 hours proved at the trial
b. 18 hours
c. 24 hours 54. How many days are given to the prosecution to
d. 36 hours oppose the demurrer to evidence?
A. 10 days, from receipt of the demurrer
47. BBM was convicted for a crime of robbery before B. 5 days, from receipt of the demurrer
serving his sentence or while serving the same, he C. 15 days, from receipt of the demurrer
commited a crime of murder, what condition is said to D. No time limit, until the prosecution properly
have occurred? prepared
a. Recidivism
b. Reiteracion 55. Ivan and Mafe were married in the Philippines. Ivan
c. Quasi-Recidivism took graduate studies in New York and met his former
d. Habitual delinquency girlfriend Ynie. They renewed their friendship and
finally decided to get married. The first wife, Mafe,
48. BBM upon entry to the house of Lenie took the heard about the marriage and secures a copy of the
jewelry in the cabinet using the key of the latter to marriage contract in New York. What crime was
unlock said cabinet. BBM is liable for: committed by Ivan, if any?
a. Theft A. Concubinage
b. Robbery B. Bigamy
c. Possession of false key C. Psychological violence under R.A. 9262
d. Qualified theft D. No crime
49. Pedro was able to have carnal knowledge with his 56. To constitute a band under Art. 296 of the Revised
17 year-old girlfriend by promising the latter with Penal Code, there must be how many armed persons
marriage, What crime was commited? taking part in a robbery?
a. Qualified Seduction A. Three
b. Acts of lasciviousness B. More than three
c. Simple seduction C. Less than three
d. None of the foregoing D. Three or more
50. What is the meaning of quash? 57. After raping the complainant in her house, the
A. Overthrow accused struck a match to smoke a cigarette before
B. Vacate departing from the scene. The brief light from the
C. Annul match allowed him to notice a watch in her wrist. He
D. All of the above demanded that she hand over the watch. When she
refused, he forcibly grabbed it from her. What crime/s
51. A vessel is sailing within the internal waters of the did the accused commit?
Philippines. Suddenly Jerald, an outsider, boarded the A. Qualified rape
vessel and took a part of it. While Jerald is on flee, he B. Rape and theft
fired upon one of the passengers of the said vessel. C. Rape and robbery
What crime is committed by Jerald? D. Robbery with rape
A. Piracy
B. Murder 58. Ernesto , a tricycle driver, plied his usual route
C. Mutiny using a Suzuki motorcycle with a sidecar. One evening,
D. Qualified Piracy Eduardo rode on the sidecar, poked a knife at Ernesto
and instructed him to go near the bridge. Upon

reaching the bridge, Eduardo alighted from the A. Opinion of an expert
motorcycle and suddenly stabbed Ernesto several B. Fact recorded by his superior
times until he was dead. Eduardo fled from the scene C. Question of law
taking the motorcycle with him. What crime/s did D. Fact he recorded a long time ago
Eduardo commit?
A. Carnapping with Homicide 66. The difference between mistakes of fact from
B. Carnapping and Murder mistake of identity is that ____________.
C. Carnapping and Homicide A. In both there is a lawful mistake
D. Homicide B. In both the offender are related
C. Mistake of fact is without criminal liability
59. The Revised Penal Code serves as the primary D. Mistake in identity is without criminal liability
source of criminal laws in the Philippines. It took effect
on? 67. Francisco is the immediate superior of Cabral. The
A. January 1, 1930 latter arrested Manuel for being a suspect in the series
B. January 1, 1932 of high profile robberies in the City of Manila. Cabral
C. December 8, 1930 employed the torture technique to obtain confession
D. December 8, 1932 from Manuel. Is Francisco criminally liable?
A. Yes, for command responsibility
60. The crime committed is a victimless crime. Upon B. No, he is not aware of the torture
service of the warrant of arrest to the accused, the C. No, because he did not induce or instructed Cabral
latter requested that you defer the service of the same, D. Yes, for violation of Anti-Torture Law Act
after all the crime committed without a complainant
and he giving you something in return. How would you 68. The person was arrested without a warrant. His
best deal the situation? request for preliminary investigation was granted.
A. I will enforce the warrant but accommodate the However, the conduct of preliminary investigation was
request for the first time not terminated and it already exceeded the period
B. I will enforce the warrant regardless of the allowed by the Rules. What should the Police Officer in
fact that the crime is victimless custody of the detained person do?
C. I will not enforce the warrant since there is a victim, A. The police should release from detention even
this case will only help in clogging the court dockets without the order from the prosecution
D. I will enforce the warrant but accommodate the B. The police should not release the person, otherwise
request as it is just between me and the offender he will be administratively liable
C. The police should release the person subject
61. For a person to be held criminally liable, his to the receipt of the order of the court
unlawful act must be the ____________ of the injury D. None of these
inflicted.
A. Intervening cause 69. The extra-judicial confession of an accused is
B. Causal connection sufficient for conviction _________.
C. Proximate cause A. Provided that it is freely, intelligently and voluntarily
D. Probable cause given
B. Even if it is not corroborated by evidence of corpus
62. A complaint or information must be charged but delicti
one offense, except only in those cases in which C. Whether or not corroborated by evidence of corpus
existing laws prescribe a single punishment for various delicti
offenses. Of the following crimes, which one is the D. When it is corroborated by evidence of corpus
exception? delicti
A. Impossible crime
B. Piracy 70. Venue in criminal cases refers to the
C. Complex crime place______________.
D. Continuing crime A. That acquired jurisdiction over the case
B. Where the trial courts designates
63. The phase in the commission of the crime when the C. Where the crime was committed
person is from the point of beginning or within the D. Of trial where the parties agree
point where he can still decide to desist or continue the
commission of the crime is referred to as the 71. Complaint and Information can be amended in
A. Internal _______ after plea and during the trial with leave of
B. External court and without causing prejudice to the rights of the
C. Subjective accused.
D. Objective A. form
B. substance and form
64. The crime of rape through carnal knowledge can C. substance
only be committed against ___________________. D. none of these
A. A woman
B. A man 72. Alma and Baldo are college sweethearts. Alma
C. Bisexual became pregnant. They decided to abort the baby.
D. Both A and B Baldo went to Quiapo and bought abortives and
administered the same to Alma and the fetus died.
65. A police officer testifying before the court is allowed What crime/s is/are committed?
to refer to his/her memorandum respecting a matter of
_________.

A. Alma and Baldo are liable for Intentional C. Circumstantial evidence
Abortion. In addition, Alma is liable also for D. Prima Facie Evidence
abortion practiced by woman herself
B. Alma and Baldo are liable for Intentional Abortion 80. What do you call that procedure where hearings of
C. Alma is liable for abortion practiced by woman testimonies are dispensed with instead only affidavits
herself while Baldo is liable for Intentional Abortion or counter affidavits of the parties and their witnesses
D. Alma and Baldo are liable for Intentional Abortion are made in lieu of the former, subject however to
with abortion practiced by woman herself cross examination.
A. special procedure
73.Husband's illicit relationship does not absolve but B. summary procedure
may mitigate wife's liability for adultery. C. trial
A. Retreat D. regular procedure
B. Recrimination
C. Exculpation 81. Macoy stabbed Vincent. Luckily, Vincent was able
D. Exaltation to identify his assailant. Upon being rushed to the
hospital, SPO4 Lorenzo got the statement of Vincent,
74. What crime is committed by a public officer or Vincent believing at that time that he was at the point
employee who shall arrest or search any member of of death, confided to SPO4 Lorenzo that Macoy was his
Congress while Congress is in regular or special assailant. Vincent died a few after hours thereafter.
session, except when such member has committed a What would be your basis to establish the identity of
crime punishable by a penalty higher than 6 years? the assailant and bring him to justice?
A. unlawful arrest A. Res gestae
B. arbitrary detention B. Dying declaration of Vincent
C. violation of parliamentary immunity C. Direct testimony of Vincent
D. illegal detention D. Dying declaration of Macoy
75. The following are the drugs used in the Three Drug 82. Assume that when Macoy stabbed Vincent, the
Rule, which of them stops the heart beat? latter was in a no way to identify Macoy as his assailant.
A. Sodium Thiopentotal But Vincent nevertheless in his dying state had a strong
B. Pancurium Bromide hunch that it was Macoy alone could have possibly
C. Potassium Chloride done the stabbing, hence in his declaration to SPO4
D. All of them Lorenzo, he pointed to Macoy as his aggressor. Vincent
died. What will happen to his declaration to SPO4
76. Which of the following is not an element of Lorenzo?
malicious mischief? A. It will not be admitted as dying declaration
A. The damage was caused inadvertently B. It will not be admitted as dying declaration but will
B. The damage caused does not fall with the provisions be admitted as part of res gestae
of arson C. Vincent will be subjected to rigid examination by the
C. The offender has caused damage to the property of defense counsel
another D. It will be considered as declaration against pedigree
D. The damage was caused deliberately or common reputation
77. Which of the following is true about doubts in 83. The Parol Evidence Rule applies to:
criminal cases? A. judgment on a compromise agreement
A. all doubts should be removed because conviction B. will and testaments
must be beyond shadow of a doubt C. written agreements or contractual documents
B. all doubts should be resolved in favor of the state D. subsequent agreements placed on issue
C. all doubts should be resolved in favor of the
accused 84. Z as husband, dies before he could institute the
D. all doubts should be resolved in favor of the criminal action for adultery against his wife and the
prosecution paramour. The case may:
A. Be prosecuted by the State
78. In Factum Probans: B. Still be prosecuted
A. it is offered as such for the consideration of the C. No longer be prosecuted
tribunal; D. Be prosecuted by the husband’s parents
B. it is conceived of for practical purposes as existent;
C. A only 85. W was arrested in the act of committing a crime on
D. A and B October 1, 2011. After an inquest hearing, an
information was filed against W and his lawyer learned
79. A woman was charged with the murder of a seven of the same on October 5, 2011. W wants to file a
years old girl near village Nala. Here no one has seen motion for preliminary investigation and therefore he
her killed the girl but the following facts came out after has only up to _____ to file the same.
taking evidence such as; 1. That about an hour before A. November 15, 2011
the sunset the accused was seen going with the B. October 20, 2011
deceased in the direction of the scene of occurrence; C. October 10, 2011
2. She returned home alone; and 3. That the cloth she D. October 16, 2011
was wearing was found to be stained with human
blood. These facts best illustrate_______. 86. A and B had a quarrel. A boxed B. A told B, “I will
A. Competent Evidence kill you this week”. A bought a firearm. On Friday, he
B. Direct evidence

waited for B and shot him but killed C instead. In so far D. alarm and scandal
as B is concerned, the crime committed by A is:
A. illegal discharge of firearm 94. The Revised Rules on Evidence took effect on
B. Attempted murder ______.
C. frustrated murder A. March 1, 2019
D. All of these B. March 1, 2020
C. May 1, 2020
87. What is the proper charge against a lawyer who D. May 1, 2019
reveals the secrets of his client learned by him in his
professional capacity? 95. It is the quality by which an act may be ascribed to
A. The lawyer should be charged with betrayal a person as its author or owner. It implies that the act
of trust committed has been freely and consciously done and
B. The lawyer should be charged with unauthorized may therefore be put down to the doer as his very own.
revelation of classified materials A. Responsibility
C. The proper charge against the lawyer should be B. Imputability
revealing secrets with abuse of office C. Guilt
D. The lawyer should be charged with revelation of D. Liability
secrets of private individual
96. A person lends Juan the bolo which was used in the
88. Husband punched and kicked his pregnant wife murder of another person is liable as:
causing the death of their unborn child is guilty of: A. accessory
a. parricide B. principal
b. abortion C. conspirator
c. intentional abortion D. accomplice
d. unintentional abortion
97. The moving power which impels one to action for
89. Charlie and Lea had been married for more than 6 a definite result.
months they live together with the children of Lea from A. deceit
her first husband. Charlie had sexual relation with Jane, B. Motive
the 14 year old daughter of Lea. Jane loves Charlie very C. Fault
much. What was the crime committed by Charlie? D. Intent
A. Qualified Seduction
B. Consented Abduction 98. That cause, which, in the natural and continuous
C. Rape sequence, unbroken by any efficient intervening cause,
D. Simple Seduction produces the injury without which the result would not
have occurred.
90. A warrant of arrest was issued against Fred for the A. Probable cause
killing of his parents. When PO2 Tapang tried to arrest B. Immediate cause
him,Fred gave him 1 million pesos to set him free. PO2 C. Intervening cause
Tapang refrained in arresting Fred. What was the crime D. Proximate cause
committed by PO2 Tapang?
A. Corruption of Public Officials 99. When a motion to quash is denied, the defense
B. Direct Bribery should_____.
C. Qualified Bribery A. proceed with the trial
D. Indirect Bribery B. file a petition for certiorari
C. file an appeal
91. The killing of one victim and the wounding of D. avail any of the above
another arising from the accused’s single act of hacking
the first victim is an example of: 100. A intended to kill B. One night, A shouted at the
A. delito complejo person whom he thought to be B. An altercation
B. delito compuesto ensued. In the process, A fired his gun at the person
C. continuous crime who died as a consequence. It turned out that the
D. transitory crime person whom he shot and killed was not B but his own
father, C. This best illustrates:
92. What crime is committed by a public officer who, A. impossible crime
before the acceptance of his resignation, shall abandon B. prater intentionem
his office to the detriment of the public service in order C. error in personae
to evade the discharge of the duties of preventing, D. aberratio ictus
prosecuting or punishing the crime of treason?
A. negligence in the prosecution of offense
B. qualified abandonment of office
C. misprision of treason
D. abandonment of office or position
LAW ENFORCEMENT ADMINISTRATION
93. A, in a public place, fired his gun at B with the
intention of killing B, but the gun did not fire because 1. The INTERPOL is focused in investigating what
the bullet is a dud. The crime is: classification of crime?
A. grave threat A. Cross-border crime
B. Attempted homicide B. Private crime
C. impossible crime C. Public crime

D. Sensational crime 10. It is the CIDG Strategic Plan against Organized
Crime Groups.
2. A special force of guards used by Roman Emperors A. Oplan Banat
as the Emperors personal guards. B. Oplan Jumbo
A. Praetorian Guards C. Oplan Hokage
B. Vigilles of Rome D. Oplan Salikop
C. Hermandades
D. Medjays 11. What is the next planning step after the need to
plan is recognized?
3. The color of folder of PNP Personnel File (PPF) for A. Evaluate alternatives
Non-Commissioned Officers B. Formulate the objectives
A. Violet C. Execute the plan
B. Blue D. Gather and analyze data
C. Green
D. Yellow 12. Includes surveillance Operation, Counter
Intelligence, Intelligence Research, Intelligence
4. The PNP performance evaluation is conducted: Assessment and similar police intelligence Operation
A. Once a year conducted to gather information related to security,
B. Twice a year public safety and order.
C. Quarterly A. Intelligence operation
D. Every 2 years B. Investigation Operation
C. Crime Scene Operation
5. This is otherwise known as traditional or classical D. Public Safety Operation
system of management which entails control by
superior and obedience by subordinates: 13. A step in planning, that states that no attempt shall
A. Scientific management be made to develop a plan until all facts relating to it
B. Bureaucratic model have been gathered.
C. Administrative principle A. collecting all pertinent facts
D. Behavioral theory B. developing alternative plans
C. Analyzing the facts
6. What is that approach that concludes a long range D. Selecting the most appropriate alternative
and comprehensive planning are not only too difficult,
but inherently bad? 14. It is responsible for the procurement, distribution
A. incremental planning and management of all supplies and other requirement
B. transactive planning of PNP including firearms and ammunition.
C. synoptic planning A. Finance
D. radical planning B. Planning
C. Logistics
7. Acts of simple misdemeanor thefts or may consists D. Communication
of robbery of breaking and entering. Take the suspects
into custody by whatever means are necessary. 15. Which of the following is a characteristics of
a. Arsonists effective plan?
b. looters A. Give police department a clear direction
c. snipers B. Increase personnel involvement
d. Loser C. Clearly define objectives and goals
D. Contain a degree of flexibility for the unforeseen.
8. A leader that takes a hands-off passive approach in
dealing with the subordinates. 16. The task of providing competent men to do the job
A. autocratic and choosing the right men for the right job. It involves
B. democratic good selection and processing of reliable and well-
C. free-rein trained personnel.
D. charismatic A. Directing
B. Staffing
9. A category of Police operations which includes C. Planning
Checkpoint Operation, Roadblock Operation, Civil D. Directing
Disturbance Management Operation, Police Assistance
in the enforcement of Demolition Eviction Injunction 17. Theories X and Y were introduced by:
and Similar Order, Police Assistance in the A. Frederick Taylor
Implementation of Final Court Order, and Order from B. Henry Fayol
Quasi-Judicial Bodies, Hostage Situation, Visit Board C. Douglas McGregor
Search and Seizure Onboard Marine Vessels and similar D. Max Weber
Police operations that are conducted by police units 18. The first step a first responder must take in case of
with specialized training on the peculiarity of the actual bomb explosion upon arrival at the scene.
mission or purpose. a. Maintain order and control crowd
A. Intelligence operation b. Direct occupants of the establishment to evacuate
B. Special Police Operation c. Cause immediate evacuation of the injured
C. Public Safety Operation d. Notify Higher Headquarters of the situation;
D. Internal Security operation
19. Which is not part of the group?
A. education for police officers

B. procurement of modern police equipment of appeal upon receipt of decision by the respondent is
C. police professionalization _____.
D. specialized trainings for special units A. Ten
B. Twenty
20. It is designed to predict or prevent the probability C. Thirty
of occurrence of crises at the same time prepare to D. Sixty
handle them when such occur.
A. Proactive Phase 29. The PNP shall enforce the law, prevent and control
B. Active Phase crimes, maintain peace and order, and ensure public
C. Predict safety and internal security with the active support of
D. Prevent the community. This is the PNP:
A. Vision
21. What is the new concept, police strategy which B. Mission
integrates the police and the community interests into C. Goal
a working relationship so as to produce the desired D. Objective
organizational objectives of peacemaking?
A. Preventive Patrol 30. The feeling of a would-be criminals that policemen
B. Community Relation are everywhere is known as___________________.
C. Team Policing A. Psychology of omnipresence
D. Directed Patrol B. Police omnipotent
C. Police visibility
22. Serves as the conduit for information to internal D. Police presence
and external stakeholders, including the other
organizations seeking information directly from the 31. A careful inspection of place to determine its
incident or event. suitability for a particular operational purpose?
A. Public Information Officer A. Shadowing
B. Liason Officer B. Casing
C.Negotiation Team C. Stake out
D. The safety Officer D. Tailing
23. It is a general statement of intention and typically 32. They are considered as the first to utilize dogs for
with a time horizon of a year or more. What is referred patrolling:
to this statement? A. Chinese
A. objective B. Egyptians
B. vision C. American
C. goal D. English
D. mission
33. Complaints against personnel of the PNP IAS shall
24. The process of making police officers to adjust and be brought to the NAPOLCOM or to the office of the:
be knowledgeable in a new job and/or working A. Ombudsman
environment. B. DILG Secretary
A. Police Screening C. PNP Chief
B. Police Placement D. Inspector General
C. Police Compensation
D. Police Appraisal 34. Dogs are important in police patrol because dogs
are capable recognizing an odor of______ times better
25. Essential in administering personnel matters and than human beings.
designed to aid in assignment, promotion, and A. 10 thousand
disciplinary action of personnel. B. 10 million
A. Miscellaneous Records C. 100 thousand
B. Identification Records D. 1 million
C. Arrest and Booking Records
D. Administrative Records 35. An Act Transferring the PNPA and NPTI from PPSC
to PNP.
26. A principle of efficient management wherein the A. R.A. 11279
objective is to pursue the optimum utilization of the B. R.A. 11200
capabilities of personnel. C. R.A. 5487
A. Stability of personnel tenure D. R.A. 9346
B. Centralization 36. Technical Sergeant in Military rank is equivalent to
C. Stability PNP rank which is:
D. Scalar Chain A. SPO3
27. Waiver of the age requirement may be granted B. SPO2
provided that the applicant shall not be; C. SPO1
A. More than 20 nor over 35 D. PO3
B. More than 21 nor over 35
C. Less than 21 nor below 35 37. It is a type of Operational Plan which includes the
D. Less than 20 nor over 35 framework for the operation of the major functional
unit in the organization such as patrol and
28. The decision of dismissal by the PLEB is final and investigation.
executory but subject to appeal to the RAB. The period A. Standing Plan

B. Operational Plan B. Capt. Henry Allen
C. Functional Plan C. Brig. General Rafael Crame
D. Time Specific Plan D. Col. Antonio Torres
38. As a Patrol Officer, when checking suspicious 45. In times of war or other national emergency
persons, places, buildings/ establishments and vehicles declared by the Congress the President may extend
especially during night-time, be prepared to use your such term of office from ______________ depending
service firearm and flashlight should be- on the gravity of the situation.
A. Nearby the body, to have an easy searching of a A. One to six months
possible target. B. Six months to one year
B. Tightly away from the body to avoid making C. Five months to one year
you a possible target. D. One year to two years
C. Close at hand to your firearm to threaten possible
adversary. 46. This are functions that are designed to support the
D. None of these. line functions and assist in the performance of the line
functions examples of the staff functions of the police
39. This patrol tactic is designed to increase the are planning, research, budgeting and legal advice.
number of apprehension of law violator to engage in A. Line functions
certain types of crimes: B. Auxiliary functions
A. Preventive Patrol C. Administrative Functions
B. Proactive Patrol D. Primary functions
C. High -Visibility Patrol
D. Low- Visibility Patrol 47. Under the police reform and reorganization law, a
Field Training Program for all PNP uniformed members
40. Which of the following is classified if a person steals is required for permanency of their appointment
primarily of irresistible urge in an unexpected consisting of 12 months. Basic areas of actual
opportunity? experience and assignment during this period shall be
A. Ordinary pilferer on:
B. Casual pilferer A. Patrol, Investigation and Intelligence
C. Systematic pilferer B. Traffic, Investigation, Patrol
D. Extra-ordinary pilferer C. Traffic, Intelligence, Patrol
D. Patrol, Public Relations, Auxiliary Services
41. “ Mobility and Stealth” is an advantage of
A. Air patrol 48. The act renamed the Insular Constabulary into
B. Bicycle patrol Philippine Constabulary, enacted on October 3, 1901.
C. Motorcycle patrol A. PD 765
D. Mobile patrol B. ACT 175
C. ACT 255
42. You are the station commander or the chief of D. RA 6975
police of a semi-urban town whose area is quite large.
You have a limited number of police personnel. The 49. An act or condition, which results in a situation
mayor told you that he can provide you with funds but conducive to a breach of the protection system, or that,
he desired that the maximum police presence be made could result to loss.
in the whole town. What is the best action that you can A. Natural Hazards
do? B. Security Hazards
A. With the same number of personnel you will C. Human Hazards
increase the number of mobile patrol with two- D. Hazards
way radios.
B. Increase your foot patrol personnel as the town 50. These are wide beam units, used to extend the
council can provide more funds. illumination in long, horizontal strips to protect the
C. Organize a horse patrol as horses is cheaper than approaches to the perimeter barrier; it projected a
motor vehicles narrow 180 degree horizontal and from 15 to 30
D. Saturate the area with foot patrol accompanied with degrees in the vertical plane
trained police dogs a. Fresnel Lights
b. Street Lights
43. 1st Statement: The Regional Appellate Board shall c. Floodlights
decide cases on appeal from the decisions rendered by d. Search lights
the DILG Secretary.2nd Statement: The National 51. A written order issued by a superior officer
Appellate Board shall decide cases on appeal from the assigning the performance of private security/detective
decisions rendered by the Chief, PNP services duties.
A. Both statements are correct a. Mission Order
B. Both statements are incorrect b. Duty Detailed Mission
C. The 1st statement is correct and the 2nd statement c. Duty Detail Order
is incorrect d. All of the above
D. The 1st statement is incorrect and the 2nd
statement is correct 52. Is a visual or audible signaling device, which
initiates conditions of associated circuits.
44. The first Chief of Police of the Manila Police a. Alarm
Department in 1901. b. Barrier
A. Capt. George Curry c. Protective Alarm

d. Annunciator 62. What is the approach appropriate for police
agencies as it is based on a problem-oriented approach
53. Where can you appeal the decisions of Chief PNP to planning?
wherein the penalty imposed is dismissal or demotion? A. transactive planning
A. RAB B. radical planning
B. PLEB C. synoptic planning
C. NAB D. incremental planning
D. DILG
63. As a member of an organization, you are strictly
54. A state or quality of being secure, freedom from observing a protocol. What is referred to this?
fear or danger, assurance, certainty. A. delegation of authority
a. Hazard B. chain of command
b. Security Management C. unity of command
c. Security D. span of control
d. Physical Security
64. A doctrine that provides guidance for specialized
55. What is the rank of Police Staff Sergeant in the activities of the PNP in the broad field of interest such
Military? as personnel, intelligence operation, logistics, planning
A. Sergeant etc.
B. Corporal A. Fundamental
C. Technical Sergeant B. Functional
D. Private C. Operational
D. Ethical
56. What is needed to accomplish, refers to what?
A. Implementing group 65. The beneficial aspect of this approach includes a
B. goal greater sensitivity to the unintended and negative side
C. Resources needed effects of the plan. Which is referred to this statement?
D. Course of action A. transactive planning
B. advocacy planning
57. The following are the element of Planning, Except? C. radical planning
A. Implementing Group D. incremental planning
B. Objectives
C. Course of Action 66. The actions of the patrol officers killing the person
D. A goal that run amok were in accordance to principles of:
A. discretion
58. Early police force that utilized dogs as protectors or B. maintaining peace and order
guards? C. self defense
A. Medjays D. self-preservation
B. Prefects
C. Praetorian Guards 67. This is considered as a powerful tool of mass
D. Vigilles of Rome communication and cornerstone for civilization.
A. Written language
59. The PNP performance evaluation result from B. Spoken language
January to June shall be submitted on the first week of C. Sign Language
July, then the PNP performance evaluation result from D. Speech
July to December shall be submitted on:
A. Third week of December of the same year 68. A communication that which occur within the
B. Same schedule as the first evaluation framework of the informal organization.
C. Last week of December of the same year A. Informal
D. First week of January of the succeeding year B. Formal
C. Verbal
60. This represents the formal relationship among D. Non-verbal
supervisors and subordinates in any given
organization. This can be visualized as a ladder, with 69. Refers to the grant of access to classified matter
each rank representing a higher or lower level of only to properly cleared persons when such classified
authority, and is depicted in a pyramidal structure. information is required in the performance of their
A. Hierarchy of authority official duties.
B. Scalar principle A. Access
C. Authority level principle B. Compartmentation
D. Ranking C. Security Clearance
D. Document Security
61. Monthly retirement pay in the PNP shall be how
many percent of the base pay? 70.Decisions rendered by the national IAS shall be
A. 10 appealed to the__________:
B. 50 A. National Appellate Board
C. 60 B. People’s Law Enforcement Board
D. 80 C. Regional Appellate Board
D. National Police Commission

71. It is done with employees about to abscond the D. C-5
company in order to help identify problems
contributing to employee turnover. 80. Perimeter fence/barrier or Guard at the gate is a
A. Farewell interview ________________.
B. Exit interview A. 1st line of defense
C. Interview B. 2nd line of defense
D. None of the above C. 3rd line of defense
D. Self defense
72. The oldest police department in the US?
A. Boston Police Department 81. It is the ideal distribution of police activities in an
B. Philadelphia Police Department ordinary police station: on patrol functions, criminal
C. Los Angeles Police Department investigation, traffic, vice and juvenile-related
D. New York Police Department functions, administrative and auxiliary functions.
A. 50%, 15%, 10%, 10%,10%, 5%
73. The following has a term of office of 4 years B. 50%, 10%, 15%, 10%, 10%, 5%
EXCEPT? C. 50%, 15%, 15%, 10%, 5%, 5%
A. Director of Staff Services D. 50%, 10%, 10%, 10%, 10%, 10%
B. Regional Director
C. Deputy Chief 82. A waiver of the age requirement may be granted
D. Chief to an applicant who shall be _______________.
A. Less than 30 not more than 35 years of age
74. It is a law amending the provisions of RA 6975 and B. Less than 21 not more than 36 years of age
RA 8551 on the minimum educational qualification for C. Less than 20 not more than 36 years of age
appointment to the PNP? D. Less than 20 not more than 30 years of age
A. RA 9780
B. RA 9807 83. What do you call that from PO1 non-commissioned
C. RA 9708 officer promoted step by step up to rank of a
D. RA 9078 commission officer Chief Inspector when retired?
A. Spot promotion
75. If the offense is punishable for a period of not B. Rise from the rank
exceeding 30 days but not less than 16 days, the C. Meritorious promotion
citizen’s complaint against erring PNP member shall be D. Lateral entry
filed at the
A. PLEB 84. Conceptualizes in the 1920’s, this organization was
B. Mayor’s Office established to promote international criminal police
C. Office of the chief of police cooperation.
D. any of them A. Internal Organization of the Chief of Police
B. ASEAN National Police
76. The parcel of the constitution which provided that C. International Criminal Police Organization
the PNP shall by nature be national in scope and civilian D. International Police
in character is:
A. Article VI, Section XVI 85. Kim is a snatcher who is eyeing on the handbag of
B. Article VI, XIV an old woman, while SPO2 Dumagat is a few meters
C. Article XVI, Section VI away from the old woman, Kim’s desire to snatch is not
D. Article XIV, Section VI diminished by the presence of a police officer. What is
needed in order for Kim to succeed in his plan?
77. The minimum police-to-population ratio in the PNP A. Opportunity
is: B. Intention
A. 1:100 C. Possible
B. 1:500 D. Interest
C. 1:1000
D. 1:800 86. After compliance with the procedural requirement,
PNP uniformed personnel may be dropped from the
78. Mayor Pina Asa needs to appoint COP for his rolls after he has been absent without leave (AWOL)
Municipality. How many eligibles shall the Provincial for ______.
Director recommend? A. Less than 30 days
A. 5 B. More than 6 months
B. 4 C. More than 30 days
C. 3 D. More than 3 months
D. 2
87. Who among the following is the third man in
79. Intelligence officer X received a report from an command of the PNP?
employee of a government office that a certain A. Chief, Director Staff
department head is involved in drug trafficking. The B. Deputy Chief for operations
information is unreliable but his report is probably true. C. Deputy Chief for administration
The evaluation of information given by the informant is D. Regional Director
_______________.
A. 5-B 88. What refers to the disciplining authority vested to
B. E-2 Local Chief Executives like Mayors?
C. 5-C a. Internal Disciplinary Mechanism

b. External Disciplinary Mechanism 97. Going east while on foot patrol and turning right
c. Concurrent Disciplinary Mechanism after reaching the end of your beat and turning right
d. Summary Disciplinary Proceeding again until you complete the cycle and you reach the
starting point of patrolling, you just applied what
89. Which of the following kinds of intelligence whose pattern of patrolling?
objectives is to protect information against espionage, A. Straight patrol
material and installations against sabotage and B. Counter clockwise
personnel against subversion? C. Clockwise
A. National Intelligence D. Free-Wheeling
B. Strategic Intelligence
C. Counter Intelligence 98. Special agent Conan is gathering information from
D. Military Intelligence Chinese drug dealers, after 3 days, he has been “burnt-
out”, meaning what?
90. Former Pres. Ferdinand Marcos proclaimed martial A. He was taken by the suspects
law in accordance to proclamation 1081 to maintain B. Agent Conan’s identity is revealed and
peace and order of the country which was at risk of the discovered by the suspect
presence of lawless elements. When was the C. The suspects burned him
enactment of RA 6975? D. He surrendered to the suspects
A. January 1, 1991
B. January 1, 1990 99. What is the formal administrative disciplinary
C. December 13, 1990 appellate machinery of the National Police Commission
D. December 13, 1991 tasked to hear cases on appeal from decisions rendered
by the Internal Affairs Service (IAS) and the Chief,
91. PNP members who are already in the service upon PNP?
the effectivity of the implementing rules and a. National Appellate Board
regulations shall obtain the minimum educational b. Regional Appellate Board
qualification for a period of ______________. c. PNP Appellate Board
A. 3 years d. NAPOLCOM Appellate Board
B. 5 years
C. 2 years 100. Local Chief Executives are given certain powers in
D. 10 years the administration of PNP personnel in their respective
jurisdiction. An example of this power is the USE of PNP
92. What is the principle of describing explicitly in the personnel to protect the lives and properties under his
flow of authority? dominion as well as the use of the same in the
A. Principle of unity enforcement of laws and maintenance of peace and
B. Unity of command order in his community.
C. Scalar principle a. Recruitment
D. Principle of Balance b. Deployment
c. Engagement
93. Police services in this concept are that they are just d. Employment
suppressive machinery. This statement refers to this
___________. FORENSIC SCIENCE
A. Old concept 1. Who among the following invented the hologram in
B. Modern concept 1948 which is the creation of unique photographic
C. Home rule theory image without the use of a lens?
D. Continental concept A. Nicephore Niepce
B. Alfred Steichen
94. A geographical subdivision of a city for patrol C. Theodore Jude
purposes usually with its own station is known as D. Dennis Gabor
_______________.
A. Beat 2. What part of a camera with a central aperture which
B. Area is adjustable for its size in order to regulate the amount
C. District of light to enter the lens or optical system?
D. Sector A. Diaphragm
B. Shutter
95.The beneficial aspect of this approach includes a C. Shutter speed dial
greater sensitivity to the negative side effects of the D. Shutter release
plan: this is referred to as_____________.
A. Incremental planning 3. What refers to the small rectangular opening found
B. Advocacy planning on top of the camera which allows the photographer to
C. Transactive planning compose and frame the shot?
D. Radical planning A. Aperture
B. View finder
96. Every PNP personnel receives this recognition after C. Shutter
completing 20 years of honorable and faithful service. D. Image sensor
A. Medalya ng Papuri
B. Medalya ng Katapatan 4. . What must be included photographing the evidence
C. Medalya ng Paglilingkod in order to determine the exact size?
D. Medalya ng Katapangan A. Wires
B. Illustration

C. Scale D. infra-red film
D. Drawing
14. What photo paper is ideal to be used in a normal
5. A police investigator must know that he can freeze exposed film?
a moving object to help him visualize its position at any A. # 1
given moment, what kind of shutter will produce the B. # 3
image? C. # 2
A. Fast D. # 4
B. Normal
C. Slow 15. A lens defect which enables the lens to focus both
D. General horizontal and vertical lines in a plane at the same time
A. Coma
6. Which of these refers to the art of determining the B. Astigmatism
character or disposition of person by analyzing his C. Distortion
handwriting? D. Chromatic aberration
A. QD Examination
B. Graphology 16. The determining factor of the size of an image as
C. Haplography well as the area of coverage of a given camera lens is
D. Calligraphy the?
A. focal length
7. The process of making clear or making out what is B. hyper-focal distance
illegible or what has been effaced. C. Diaphragm opening
A. Decipherment D. Depth of field
B. Collation
C. Obliteration 17. A type of a lens that would make an object to be
D. Comparison exaggeratedly closes to the photographer and is ideal
in stake out surveillance photography.
8. What was done, when one retouches or goes back A. short focus lens
over a defective portion of a writing stroke? B. normal focus lens
A. retracing C. telephoto lens
B. shading D. wide angle lens
C. pressuring
D. patching 18. The reducers or the developing agents.
A. Elon, Hydroquinone
9. A self-incriminating statement falling short of an B. sodium carbonate
acknowledgement of guilt? C. sodium sulfate
A. Admission D. potassium bromide
B. Confession
C. Interview 19. The need for long and continuous washing in water
D. Interrogation of a negative or finished print is to remove the
presence of___________ because its presence will
10. Which is not a process of developing using the result to the early fading.
ninhydrin method? A. Sodium sulfite
A. immersion B. Potassium alum
B. spraying C. Acetic acid
C. dusting D. Hypo
D. brushing
20. Error in the processing step like overdevelopment
11. The first man noted for the used of the word could be remedied by the sued of a:
“Polygraph”
A. Thomas Jefferson A. reducer
B. Francis Galton B. intensifier
C. G. Gallilleo C. dye-toning
D. Sir James Mackenzie D. stain remover
12. An artificial light source which contains in its tube 21. The rearward reaction of the firearm in relation to
certain powders capable of illuminating with some the forward movement of the bullet upon firing?
support from small amount of electricity. It is A. Misfire
commonly used in the house or commercial B. recoil
establishment. C. Hangfire
A. Incandescent lamp D. ricochet
B. fluorescence lamp
C. photo flood lamp 22. The stillness or the steadiness of the bullet in flight?
D. flash bulb A. key hole shot
B. ricochet
13. What type of a film has the longest range of C. yaw
sensitivity in the electromagnetic spectrum called? D. gyroscopic action
A. orthochromatic film
B. blue-sensitive film 23. The actual pattern or curve path of the bullet in
C. panchromatic film flight.

A. curve
B. trajectory 33. Paper, which has been treated in such a way as to
C. gyroscopic action minimize the change of a successful forgery by erasure,
D. drop of bullet whether mechanical or chemical, being carried out on
any document of which it forms the basis called.
24. The person accredited as successful inventor of gun A. Papyrus
powder B. Tested paper
A. Horace smith C. Safety paper
B. Alexander John Forsyth D. Parchment or Vellum
C. Berthhold Schwartz
D. Col Calvin H. Goddard 34. What is that indelible ink whose marking substance
is composed of mixture of aniline ink and graphite?
25. It is the distance at which the gunner has the A. Carbon ink -oldest ink
control of shot. Where the bullet travel straight. B. Stamp pad ink “Vegetable char and gum”
A. Maximum range C. Indelible ink
B. Accurate range D. copy pencil
C. Maximum effective range
D. Effective range 35. A document becomes a QD when _______,
alteration, this usually affects the original content or
26. The size of the bullet grouping on the target? meaning of the document.
A. Terminal penetration a. Forged
B. Terminal energy b. Signature
C. Terminal accuracy c. Fraudulent
D. Muzzle velocity d. Changes
27. What type of a firearm propels a projectile with 36. The word Polygraph was derived from what word?
more than one inch diameter? A. Poly and Graph
A. small arms B. Many writings chart
B. machine gun C. Greek
C. artillery D. Latin
D. Cannon
37. The scientific basis of the polygraph test which
28. f 20 gauge is to .615”, 28 gauge is to .550” then states that the polygraph machine is an instrument
for a 12-gauge shotgun has an equivalent diameter of: capable of making records of various human
a. 775” or 10 Gauge functioning simultaneously in a chart paper?
b. 729” A. mechanical leg basic premise
c. 670” or 16 Gauge B. psychological leg basic premise
d. 410” or .410 Gauge C. physiological leg basic premise
D. psycho motor leg basic premise
29. European made firearm are usually referred in
millimeter in determining calibers, when you talk of 38. A Hindu book of science and health which is
9mm you are referring to? considered one of the earliest references on detecting
a. .38 caliber deception.
b. .22 caliber or .559 mm A. Ayur Vida
c. .45 caliber or 1.143 mm B. Dharmasatra of Gautama
d. .30 caliber or 7.63 mm C. Vasistra of Dharmasastra
30. In document examination when referring to D. Legendary red book by Chaps
contemporary documents this refers to______?
A. Document which is more than 5 years before and 39. The Raid polygraph differs from the Keeler’s in the
after. following respect except:
B. Document which are not more than 5 years A. An adjustable and portable chair is employed
before and after wherein metal bellows are inserted in the chair arm
C. Document which are more than 30 years rests.
D. Document which are not more than 20 years B. The chair seat is directly attached to recording
bellows in the machine to form closed pneumatic
31. It refers to the group of muscles which is systems.
responsible for the formation of the upward strokes. C. Three additional recordings are made by this method
A. Flexor D. There is no need of using corrugated rubber
B. Cortex tubing.
C. Lumbrical
D. Extensor 40. He devised a quantitative analysis on a polygraph
chart and the test called Backster Zone Comparison
32. Stroke where the motion of the pen precedes the Technique.
beginning and continues beyond the end of a vanishing A. Cleve Backster
point and are found on free natural writing and as a B. Richard D. Arthur
rule are important indication of genuineness. C. C.D. Lee
A. Hiatus D. Ruckmick “Electro dermal response”
B. Stem, Shank or Staff -downward stroke
C. Flying start and finish 41. The Raid polygraph differs from the Keeler’s in the
D. Buckle knot following respect except:

A. An adjustable and portable chair is employed C. Reaction “Action in mental attitude”
wherein metal bellows are inserted in the chair arm D. Emotion
rests.
B. The chair seat is directly attached to recording 50. An irrelevant question added before and after a
bellows in the machine to form closed pneumatic relevant question?
systems. A. Padding question
C. Three additional recordings are made by this method B. Relevant Question
D. There is no need of using corrugated rubber C. Control or Comparison Question
tubing. D. None of the above
42. Which of the following is true about Polygraph 51. An irrelevant question added before and after a
machine? relevant question?
A. It is a machine that can diagnose subject A. Padding question
B. It is a lie detector machine B. Relevant Question
C. It is capable of interpreting and drawing conclusion. C. Control or Comparison Question
D. It is a machine that detects physiological D. None of the above
responses.
52. A type of questions given to determine information
43. The polygraph machine should be _________ in known or the subject possess regarding the crime or
relation to the credibility and competence of the the criminal or his whereabouts?
examiner? A. evidence connecting question
A. Indirectly proportion B. sacrifice questions “DYAT Question”
B. Substitute to investigation C. Knowledge question
C. Supplementary to investigation D. control or comparison questions
D. Directly proportion
53. The normal amount of semen per ejaculation of a
44. The sum total of the dissimulation which the child normal built person?
acquires from his surrounding once he learns to go out A. 1.5 to 3.5 cc
and socialized with his neighborhood. B. 2.5 to 3.5 cc
A. Personality C. 3.5 to 5.5 cc
B. Environment D. 3.5 to 4.5 cc
C. Heredity
D. Education 54. What is known as the reproduction of an impression
made on soft surface by utilizing casting materials?
45. The best way to conduct a thorough interview is A. dry fusion
for the investigator to: B. metallic aides
A. allow himself sufficient time for adjustment C. moulage
B. permit the interviewee to give narrative statement D. plaster of Paris
C. be guided by a pre-arranged checklist
D. Devote adequate time for an interviewee’s 55. What will be the possible child of a man with Group
evaluation. A and Type M blood with woman of Group B, type N
46. What usually set the tone or condition and creates blood?
the atmosphere during the interrogation? A. AB, N
A. interrogator’s behavior B. B, N
B. questioning style of the interrogator C. O, M
C. the type of crime involved D. AB, MN
D. the subject’s personal history
56. What kind of a solution is used in the restoration of
47. What usually set the tone or condition and creates serial numbers?
the atmosphere during the interrogation? A. saturated solution of sodium bicarbonate
A. interrogator’s behavior B. colloidal magnesium
B. questioning style of the interrogator C. etching solution
C. the type of crime involved D. borax solution
D. the subject’s personal history
57. What is the last stage in the toxicological
48. The stage in the conduct of the polygraph test, examination?
which is designed to prepare or condition the subject A. qualification
for the actual test. (Bonus) B. multiplication
A. interrogator’s behavior C. quantification
B. questioning style of the interrogator D. division
C. the type of crime involved
D. the subject’s personal history 58. Person who is qualified to conduct toxicological
examination?
Correct Answer: Pre-Test Interview A. Physician
B. medico-legal
49. It refers to any outside force coming from the C. forensic examiner
environment, which could excite a receptor or any of D. forensic pathologist
his organs.
A. Stimulus
B. Response “Reaction to stimulus”

59. It is a change of the color of the body after death A. cessation of respiration
when blood accumulates in the dependent portion of B. cessation of heart function and circulation
the body. C. cooling of the body
A. Rigor mortis D. heating of the body
B. livor mortis
C. algor mortis 69. A muscular change characterized by the softness of
D. none of the above the muscles and no longer responds to mechanical or
electrical stimulus due to dissolution of protein.
60. Molecular death is a kind of death where: A. Primary flaccidity
a. there is loss of life of the individual cells of the B. stage of secondary flaccidity
body C. Post mortem rigidity
b. It is usually pronounced by the physician D. Putrefaction
c. It occurs immediately after death E. Decomposition
d. There is a transient loss of vital functions of the body
70. Maggots are seen in dead bodies particularly in
61. The elements of violent death are the following warm countries within how many days from death.
EXCEPT one. A. l day
A. That the victim at the time the injuries were inflicted B. 2 days
was in normal health C. 3 days
B. That death may be expected from physical injuries D. 4 days
C. That death ensued within a reasonable time
D. That death ensued from a lingering illness 71. Stages in blood changes where blood goes to the
dependent portion of the body but not yet solidify.
62. The cuticle of the animal hair is: A. livor mortis
A. Rounded B. hypostatic lividity
B. serrated C. diffusion lividity
C. oblong D. cadaveric spasm
D. circular
72. An adult has only ____bones
63. The breaking down of the complex proteins into A. 200
simpler component associated with the evolution of B. 202
foul-smelling gases and accompanied by the change of C. 204
color of the body. D. 206
A. putrefaction
B. auto digestion 73. Dissolution of the natural continuity of any tissue
C. maceration of the living body is called
D. saponification A. fracture
B. wound
64. What is a waxy substance derived from the body C. dislocation
fat and is caused by hydrolysis and hydrogenation of D. contusion
adipose tissue?
A. adipocere 74. The science of projectiles and firearm.
B. lipo A. Ballistics
C. saponification B. Forensic Ballistics
D. none of these C. Modified Ballistics
D. Applied Ballistics
65. Deaths due to injuries inflicted in the body by some
forms of outside force. 75. It is the measurement of the bore diameter from
A. violent death land to land.
B. Euthanasia A. Mean diameter
C. sudden death B. Gauge
D. Post-mortem caloricity C. Rifling
D. Calibre
66. The following judicial executions were exercised in
the Philippines except. 76. It refers to the measure of the twisting of the lands
A. judicial hanging and grooves or one complete turn.
B. electrocution A. lands and grooves
C. musketry B. Bullet twisting
D. lethal injection C. Bore diameter
D. Pitch of rifling
67. It is a complete and persistent cessation of vital
reactions such as respiration, circulation and almost all 77. In gunshot wounds, when there is evident burning
brain functions. of tissues and blackening of the skin, it may be
A. death ascertained that it is a near contact fire meaning that
B. somatic death the distance of the body to the gun is approximately.
C. apparent death A. 6 inches
D. molecular death B. 12 inches
C. 18 inches
68. Which of the following is a more conclusive sign of D. 24 inches
death–

78. A form of ligature strangulation in which the force 86. Post-mortem lividity maybe due to any of the
applied to the neck is derived from the gravitational following, except:
drag of the weight of the body? a. hypostasis
A. hanging b. autolysis
B. strangulation by ligature c. diffusion
C. smothering d. suggillation
D. none of these
87. The following statements are important in death
79. A person who is considered dead if no rate of fall determination. Which is not valid?
of body temperature is about a. Civil personality of a natural person is
A. 10 to 15°F extinguished by death
B. 20 to 25° F b. Civil property of a person is transmitted to the heirs,
C. 15 to 20°F if not, to the government
D. 25 to 30° F c. The death of the partner is one of the causes of
dissolution of partnership agreement
80. Period of time wherein the body would be d. The criminal liability of a person is extinguished by
completely skeletonized under normal conditions in death
tropical countries
A. 1 month 88. He pioneered in the making of a breech loading
B. 3 months firearms and founded the great firm Smith and
C. 6 months Wesson.
D. 12 months A. Horace Smith
B. Samuel Colt
81. He stated in his book (anatomische kupfertafein C. Daniel Wesson
nebst dazu geharigen) that although the arrangement D. John Browning
of the skin ridges is never duplicated in two persons,
nevertheless, the similarities are closer among some 89. It is the system used in the Philippines at present
individuals. Hence, the birth of the principle of which is handled by a medico-legal officer who is a
permanency of fingerprint patterns. registered physician duly qualified to practice medicine
a. Marcello malpighi in the Philippines.
b. Francis galton a. medical jurisprudence
c. Johannes purkinje b. medico- legal system
d. JCA Mayer c. medical evidence
d. physical evidence
82. A person who commits a crime would always leave
traces such as hairs, prints and other minute pieces of 90. A fixed point on a primer against which the priming
evidentiary materials which may be considered as an mixture is compressed and thereby detonated by
integral part in the identification of the suspect. In case action of the firing pin.
he leaves "latent prints", he can also be traced. These A. Vent/Flash hole
prints are made through the; B. Paper disc
a. ridges of the skin C. Anvil
b. furrows of the skin D. Primer
c. perspiration on the opposite side of the volar skin
d. perspiration on top of the finger 91. A type of asphyxia death associated with the failure
of the arterial blood to become normally saturated with
83. The different test to determine peripheral oxygen.
circulation are the following, except a. anoxic death
a. Magnus test b. anemic anoxic death
b. Diaphanous test c. stagnant anoxic death
c. Icard’s test d. histotoxic anoxic death
d. Winslow’s test
92. It is any unusual pattern of sexual behavior
84. The following officials of the Philippine Government including habitual, preference and completing need for
are authorized to conduct death investigation, except sexual gratification by any means except sexual
a. Provincial and City Prosecutors intercourse which results to bodily excitement
b. Judges of the RTC, MTC a. virginity
c. Director of NBI b. sexual intercourse
d. Public Prosecutors c. prostitution
d. sexual deviation
85. The following statements are important in death
determination. Which is not valid? 93. Mr. Barton was caught stealing the personal
a. Civil personality of a natural person is belongings of Mr. Rogers particularly a pale of paint.
extinguished by death When Mr. Barton fled together with the stolen item, he
b. Civil property of a person is transmitted to the heirs, did not noticed that there was a hole in the pale that
if not, to the government cause a continues dropping of the paint. These drops
c. The death of the partner is one of the causes of of paint are example of physical evidence which can be
dissolution of partnership agreement considered as…
d. The criminal liability of a person is extinguished by a. corpus delicti evidence
death b. associative evidence
c. tracing evidence

d. none of these
CRIME DETECTION AND INVESTIGATION
94. A bullet covered with thick coating of a copper alloy 1. It is the system used in the Philippines which is
to prevent leading is known as: handled by a medical jurist who is a registered
A. Plated bullet physician and duly qualified to practice medicine in the
B. Jacketed bullet Philippines
C. Metal cased bullet A. Coroner System
D. Metal point bullet B. Medico-Legal System
C. Medical Examiner System
95. If the number of gunshot wounds of entrance and D. None of these
exit found in the body of the victim is even, the
presumption is that no bullet is lodged in the body, but 2. Circumstantial Evidence may produce conviction if
if the number of gunshot wounds entrance and exit is the following requisites are present. Which of the
odd, the presumption is that one or more bullets might following is not included?
have been lodged in the body. What principle is this? A. When there are more than one circumstance present
a. presumption of similarity B. When the combination of all circumstances is such
b. odd-even rule produce a conviction beyond reasonable doubt
c. principle of infallibility C. When the facts from which the inference are derived
d. numbering principle are proven
D. When the quantum of substantiality of
96. A victim of homicide was found lying on the floor evidence are proven
at his own apartment. On the deductive process of the
investigation, the cause of the victim’s death is 3. A promise of hope, reward, favor and use of force
asphyxia by applying pressure to the latter’s neck while or intimidation, threat or fear, and other analogous acts
the assailant using his arms was on the back of the make confession or admission _______,
victim. The statement best describes: therefore_______.
a. strangulation A. Voluntary, not admissible in court
b. burking B. Involuntary, Inadmissible in court
c. throttling C. Involuntary, not admissible in court
d. mugging D. Voluntary, admissible in court
97. What is the principle which states that when the 4. What is the penalty imposed for possession of
court has once laid down a principle of law as applied Dangerous Drug Paraphernalia?
to a certain state of facts, it will adhere to and apply to
all future cases where the facts are substantially the A. 6 months rehabilitation
same? B. 6 months and 1 day to 4 years and a fine of 50
a. jurisprudence thousand pesos
b. stare decisis C. 4 months and 1 day and a fine of 10 thousand pesos
c. criminalistics D. 6 years and 1 day to 12 years and a fine of 50 to
d. forensic 200 thousand pesos
98. Classification of physical injury wherein the victim 5. The heat energy derived from nuclear energy by the
Boss Watha is incapacitated for work or requires splitting of atoms is known as:
medical attendance for more than thirty (30) days. A. Radiation
a. grave physical injury B. Ignition
b. serious physical injury C. Fusion
c. less serious physical injury D. Fission
d. slight physical injury
6. Several tests could be administered to the victims
99. What is the process of dissolution of tissues by the body in order to ascertain if there is still sign of life.
digestive action of its enzymes and bacteria that result What is that test in which a ligature will be applied
to softening and liquefaction of tissues are usually around the victim's finger?
accompanied by the liberation of foul odor smelling A. Icard's test
gases and change of color of tissues? B. Finger web test
a. putrefaction C. Winslow's test
b. decomposition D. Magnus test
c. mummification
d. maceration 7. Prohibitive signs and restricted signs shall
have_______________.
100. The following are the methods of approximating A. Green background with white and black symbols
the height of an individual except: B. Red background with white symbol and black border
a. The distance between tips of the middle finger of C. White background with black symbol and red
both hands with the arms extended laterally and it will border
approximately equal to the height D. Blue background and white symbol
b. 2x the length of 1 arm + 12 inches from the clavicle
and 1.5 inches from sternum is the height 8. Elements of corpus delicti are? I. Cadaver of the
c. Approximately 8 times the size of the head equals dead victim or evidence of the stolen property II.
the height of the person Additional evidence of a different character the same
d. 5x the length of the pelvic bone is the point III. Proof of occurrence of a certain event IV.
approximate height of the person Person’s criminal responsibility of the acts

A. I and II 17. The appropriate term used to describe the vitiation
B. III and IV of freewill by threats and other methods of instilling
C. I and III fear.
D. I, III and IV A. Coercion
B. Threats
9. What do you call an act which removes or C. Intimidation
neutralizes a fire hazard? D. Duress
A. Distillation
B. Allotment 18. It is known as an illegal smuggling of alcoholic
C. Ventilation beverages:
D. Abatement A. Political graft
B. Alcohol legging
10. The test to determine whether blood is of human C. Butt legging
origin or not. D. Boot legging
A. Blood typing
B. Precipitin test 19. What is generally used in media, business and
C. Confirmatory test professional correspondence, private and government
D. Preliminary test agencies including academic institutions?
a. Standard English
11. When marking the specific evidence such as a b. plain English
revolver, the same must marked on the; c. English language
A. Separately on the frame, butt, cylinder, barrel d. Spanish
and stock
B. The chamber facing the firing pin as soon as it is 20. If combustion gates propagated at supersonic
opened for examination speed, a shock front develops ahead of it to produce
C. A and B is correct what?
D. Either A and B is correct A. Explosion
B. Conflagration
12. The court which has jurisdiction to hear and try C. Big Fire
drug cases. D. Detonation
A. Special Court designated by the SC among the
existing RTC 21. Criminal investigation is a responsibility of the first
B. Heinous Crimes Court designated by the SC among pillar of the criminal justice system. Which among the
the existing RTC following is not considered a function of criminal
C. Sandiganbayan investigation?
D. Special Court designated by the SC A. Identify, collect and preserve evidence
B. Identify, locate and arrest the person who commits
13. Medical jurisprudence is that branch of ______ the crime
which deals with the regulation and organization of C. Prosecute and convict the criminal
medical profession. D. Bring the offender to justice
A. law
B. justice 22. __________ the beginning of every sentence.
C. jurisprudence a. capitalization
D. medicine b. capitalize
c. capitalizing
14. The cuticle of animal hair is d. all of the above
A. circular
B. serrated 23. The type of search may be used when the area to
C. oblong be searched is approximately circular or oval. In this
D. rounded search, the searchers gather at the center and
simultaneously proceed toward along a radii or spoke.
15. Within what period should a police officer who has A. Grid method
arrested a person liable for the crime of murder by B. Pie method
virtue of a warrant arrest turn over the arrested person C. Spiral method
to the judicial authority? D. Zone search
A. 12 hours
B. 18 hours 24. Which of the following is NOT a form of relevant
C. 36 hours and material information taken from regular, cultivated
D. None or grapevine sources?
A. Physical forms
16. What is a regular part of an officer’s job and just B. Written
like any other skill in police work, writing it effectively C. Sensory
is a skill that must be learned and practiced? D. Material forms
a. Writing
b. Police Report Writing 25. It is a brief notation concerning specific events
c. Report Writing while fresh in one’s mind and used to prepare a report
d. effective writing a. note taking
b. opinion
c. narrative
d. coherence

26. Suppose you are investigating a crime with so 34. It is the smoke which indicates lack of air but if
many suspects, which of the following can help you in accompanied by large flames it indicates petroleum
identifying the specific suspect to the crime? products or rubber?
A. Confession A. Fire smoke
B. Associative evidence B. Black smoke
C. Motive C. White smoke
D. Circumstantial evidence D. Biting smoke
27. Which of the following are purpose of written 35. In terms of organizational structure, what is the
reports. I. To Preserve Knowledge II. To Provide similarity of organized crimes from the police or the
Accurate Details III. To Aid the Personnel and Other military?
Agencies IV. To Coordinate the Activities within the A. Autocratic
Organization B. Democratic
A. I,II III C. Bureaucratic
B. I, II and IV D. Patrimonial
C. I, II, III and IV
D. I and II 36. The term “Ecstasy” is used for a group of “designer
drugs” closely related in chemical form to the
28. All of the following statements are false, except: amphetamine family of illicit drugs. What is its scientific
A. R.A. 9165 did not remove the distinction between name?
regulated and prohibited drugs A. Methamphetamine Hydrochloride
B. R.A. 9165 defined regulated drugs as dangerous B. Cannabis sativa
drugs C. Papaver somniferum
C. R.A. 9165 differs dangerous drugs from prohibited D. Methylenedioxymethamphetamine
drugs
D. R.A. 9165 gives a single definition of 37. It is a kind of search method wherein the crime
dangerous drugs scene is subdivided into areas, a building into rooms or
29. In case there are two (2) vehicles which approach floors then each of the fire officer or offices are then
an intersection at approximately the same time, the assigned accordingly?
vehicle_________ should give the right of way. A. Double strip search
A. coming from the right B. Sector search
B. one which arrives first C. Strip search
C. coming from the left D. Concentric search
D. coming from the center
38. Also known as Hacking. Involves gaining access
30. ____________ is the taking of a person into illegally to a computer system or network and in some
custody in order that he may be bound to answer for cases making unauthorized use of this access. Hacking
the commission of an offense. is also the act by which other forms of cyber-crime
a. Apprehend (e.g.,fraud, terrorism) are committed.
b. Restraint A. IP Crimes
c. Arrest B. Email Spoofing
d. Exploitation C. Unauthorized access
D. Salami Attacks
31. Known as the major transshipment point for
international drug traffickers in Europe and known to 39. Refers to any accident occurring on a traffic way
be the “Paradise of Drug Users in the said continent. involving persons using the traffic way or travel or
A. Portugal transportation, but not involving a motor vehicle in
B. Turkey motion.
C. Spain A. Non-motor vehicle traffic accident
D. Germany B. Motor vehicle non-traffic accident
C. Motor vehicle traffic accident
32. A machine or device that performs processes, D. Non- motor vehicle Non-traffic accident
calculations and operations based on instructions
provided by a software or hardware program. It is 40. It is the same level of underboss or the one who
designed to execute applications and provides a variety considered as council or adviser.
of solutions by combining integrated hardware and A. Capo de tuti capi
software components. B. Consigliere
a. computer C. Caporogime
b. computer hardware D. Boss
c. USB flashdrive
d. CD and DVD 41. It is a program which pretends to do one thing
while actually doing something completely different:
33. It is the enclosed space of passage that extends A. Worm
from floor to floor as well as from the base to the top B. Trojan horse
of the building. C. Either of the above
A. Standpipe D. Neither of the above
B. Sprinkler system
C. Vertical shaft 42. Which of the following does not carry a capital
D. Flash point punishment?

A. possession of 60 grams of shabu C. Both A & B
B. possession of 15 grams of MDMA D. No
C. possession of 100 grams of marijuana
D. possession of 20 grams morphine 52. Drug addicts when under the influence of drugs are
menace to the community because they:
43. Means sanctioned by the rules, of ascertaining in a A. Feel no restraint in committing crimes.
judicial proceeding the truth respecting a matter of B. Ruin their life/health
fact. C. Flagrantly immoral
A. Evidence D. Are violently insane
B. Corpus Delicti
C. Document 53. Terrorist group led by Abu Bakr al-Baghdadi, whose
D. Testimony aim is to establish an Islamic state in the world.
A. Abu Sayyaf
44. The burnt pattern in woods indicating the B. ISIS
spontaneous and intensive burning has occurred. C. Jemaah Islamiyah
A. Collapse D. Al Qaeda
B. Alligatoring
C. Discoloration 54. Injection, inhalation, ingestion or other means of
D. Charring dangerous drugs to the body by one person to another
is __________.
45. The crime of Parricide shall have the penalty of A. Administer
Reclusion Perpetua to Death. B. Drug use
A. True C. Taking
B. False D. Addict
C. No
D. Yes 55. The person who provides the investigation with
confidential information concerning a past crime or a
46. The first to be observed in ascertaining the cause projected/planned crime and does not wish to be
of fire. known.
A. The color of smoke and flame A. Surveillant
B. The room of origin B. Confidential
C. The burnt pattern of ceiling C. Informer
D. The point of origin D. Confederates
47. Most arson cases are proved 56. When an accused directly acknowledges his guilt
by__________________ evidence rather than that before a court of law, it is referred to as?
direct evidence. A. Extrajudicial Confession
A. Testimonial B. Judicial Confession
B. Physical C. Admission
C. Circumstantial D. Confession
D. Documentary
57. What drugs are synthetic that stimulate the central
48. Is any dishonest misrepresentation of fact intended nervous system and are commonly referred to as
to let another to do or refrain from doing something “uppers”?
which causes loss. A. Amphetamines
A. Internet Fraud B. barbiturates
B. Computer Fraud C. Naptha
C. Financial Fraud D. Diazepam
D. Bank fraud
58. What enforcement action consists of taking a
49. He who kills an illegitimate grandfather or an person into custody for purpose of holding or detaining
illegitimate grandson is not guilty of parricide, but of him to answer a charge of violation before a court?
homicide or murder. A. Traffic enforcement
A. The above statement is inadmissible B. Traffic investigation
B. The above statement is partly correct C. Traffic patrol
C. The above statement is true D. Traffic arrest
D. The above statement is erroneous
59. B is less than three days old. He is a child of X by
50. Physical evidence which may identify the criminal his paramour Y. B is killed by X to prevent his discovery
by means of clues or personal properties is known as: by X’s legitimate wife, Z. The crime committed by X is:
A. Real evidence A. homicide
B. Associative Evidence B. infanticide
C. Tracing Evidence C. parricide
D. Circumstantial Evidence D. murder
51. Mr./Ms. Future Police Officer, as a general rule, can 60. It means "The Base', is a global militant Islamist
you arrest a person without a warrant? organization founded by Osama bin Laden and Other
A. Yes, if the person arrested has escaped from prison militants.
B. Yes, by means of in flagrante delicto/caught in the A. Taliban
act B. Al-Qaeda

C. Buko Haram 69. Under the Eight Stage Negotiation Process if the
D. Jemaah Islamiah hostage negotiator tries to understand the hostage-
taker and the negotiator also seek to hear and listen to
61. What drugs produce sensations such as distortions the captor, what is the process practiced by the
of time, space, sound, color and other bizarre effects? hostage negotiator?
A. opiates a. Preparing and Opening
B. narcotics b. Opening and Arguing
C. heroine c. Signaling and Exploring
D. hallucinogens d. Packaging and Sustaining
62. The primary reason a finished sketch is made from 70. The Dangerous Drug Board shall be composed of
a rough sketch is for _____________. how many members?
A. scale and proportion A. twelve
B. accuracy and clarity B. seventeen
C. future use C. ten
D. courtroom presentation D. four
63. A yellow or white line with a dotted white line do 71. What is the state arising from the repeated
not mean EXCEPT administration of a drug on a periodic or on a
A. overtaking is extremely dangerous continuing basis?
B. that you cannot overtake if the solid line is on A. Habituation
your side B. Drug addiction
C. absolutely no overtaking C. Drug dependence
D. overtaking is possible when other lane is clear of D. Physical dependence
oncoming vehicle
72. What is street name for morphine?
64. These are motor vehicles owned by government A. dust
offices and are used for official purposes only B. monkey
A. private C. lahar
B. public utility vehicles D. bata
C. government
D. diplomat 73. Considered to be one of the prime suppliers of
Heroin in Asia is the so called Golden Triangle where
65. Free flowing travel, stop time and acceleration or 80% of illicit drugs of the world originate. This lies on
deceleration are the elements of what we call? the borders of?
A. time of travel a. Thailand-Laos-Burma
B. vehicle travel time b. Thailand-Laos-Myanmar
C. speed c. Iran-Afghanistan-Pakistan
D. transportation d. Peru-Colombia-Bolivia
66. It literally mean Islamic Congregation, It is a 74. Also known as Papaver Somniferum and considered
Southeast Asian militant Islamist terrorist organization as the mother drugs of other narcotics substance:
dedicated to the establishment of a Daulah Islamiyah a. Codaine
(regional Islamic caliphate) in Southeast Asia founded b. Heroine
by: c. Opium Poppy
A. Abu Bakar Bashir d. Morphine
B. Abu Sayyaf
C. Buko Haram 75. The form of physical dependence, severe craving
D. Jemaah Islamiah for the drug event to the point of interfering w/ the
person’s ability to function normally:
67. Under the concept of three (3) stage negotiation, a. Tolerance
negotiation must be performed through opening, b. Addiction
bargaining, and ____. c. Habituation
a. Negotiating d. Psychological Dependence
b. Closing
c. Goodbye Joe 76. Marijuana has been one of the most abuse
d. Containing hallucinogens in the Philippines and its control
becomes difficult according to some authorities due to
68. This is a type of hostage-taker which is viewed as the fact that:
a group of psychopaths with a cause, all under the A. It is easy to smoke it secretly
leadership of one of the group. When caught in a B. It is sellable in the market
criminal act, many of them rationalize their behavior by C. It is easy to cultivate
claiming to be revolutionaries who are merely seeking D. It is in demand
social justice. This hostage-taker is known as ___.
a. Criminal Hostage-taker 77. Drugs that is commonly used by athletes having
b. Fanatic Hostage-taker the properties of increasing stamina and/or energy.
c. Psychotic Hostage-taker A. Ecstasy
d. Terrorist Hostage-Taker B. Shabu
C. MDMA
D. Anabolic Steroid

B. Circumstantial evidence
78. It is the removal of toxic substances from the body C. Tracing evidence
as a result of abusing drugs: D. Corpus delicti
A. Cleansing process
B. Aversion treatment 88. The process of identification by witness of the
C. Abstinence unknown suspect mixed with innocent persons lined
D. Detoxification before the witness.
A. Verbal description
79. What is the material which produces and liberates B. Physical show- up
its own oxygen when heated? C. Physical line- up
A. radiation D. General Photographs
B. oxidizing agent
C. conductor 89. These are information provided by the underworld
D. vapor characters such as prisoners or ex- convicts.
A. Regular
80. The lowest section of an extension ladder is known B. Grapevines
as: C. Cultivated
A. heel D. Special
B. bed ladder
C. butt 90. The use of one or more electrical appliances or
D. fly ladder devices which draw or consumes electrical current
81. Which of the following occur when a room is heated beyond the designed capacity of the existing electrical
enough that flame sweep over the entire surface? system.
A. oxidation A. self- closing door
B. back draft B. overloading
C. flash over C. jumper
D. combustion D. oxidizing material
82. The term describes the transfer of heat through a 91. There are three tools of the police investigator:
gas or vacuum in a similar way to that of light. Information, interrogation and instrumentation. Of
A. ignition these three, information is deemed the most important
B. convection simply because it answers the question_______.
C. radiation A. “what is malicious”
D. conduction B. “why did it happen”
C. was a weapon used”
83. Most malicious fires are set by individuals secretly, D. “who did it”
it is either set for revenge or self aggrandizing; or set
by psychotic fire setter, or for sexual gratification. 92. What is best applied to a clumsy and nervous
A. group fire setter person, where the investigators choosing propitious
B. arson for profit moments shout out a pertinent question and appears
C .fire starter as though they themselves are in rage?
D. solitary fire setter A. Pretense
B. Bolt
84. The primary course of action in case of a fire. C. Bluff
A. pack up and flee D. Jolt
B. run for your life
C. call an ambulance 93. During a conflagration, the smoke emitted is
D. raise the alarm grayish, what does it indicate?
A. presence of nitrate
85. What are the “right questions” to ask in arson B. indicate humid substance
investigator interviewee in any fire investigation? C. loosely packed substance such as straw and
A. Ask hypothetical questions that would put hay
interviewee at ease D. presence of phosphorus
B. Ask open- ended questions that would make
him relate in his own words what he saw 94. Marijuana often called grass, Indian hemp or weed
C. Check at all times whether questions are easy to is a crude drug made from cannabis sativa, a plant that
comprehend contains a mind-altering ingredient. Which one is NOT
D. Ask close- ended questions, as they are simple, an immediate effect of marijuana?
direct and answerable by yes or no A. acute panic anxiety reaction- external fear of losing
control
86. Except, How can identification be made on a B. altered sense of time/ distortion
decomposed cadaver and/or charred corpse? C. impaired reflexes coordination and concentration
A. study his bones D. moderate heart beat and pulse rate
B. study his skull
C. study his dentures 95. You are an investigator, investigating a suspected
D. study hair DNA strands rape-slaying case which was allegedly witnessed by a
certain person who volunteered to identify and testify
87. What is that physical evidence which linked the against the perpetrator. What are the factors that you
suspect to the crime scene or offense? should not consider to determine the accuracy of his
A. Associative evidence identification of the suspect?

a. His ability to observe and remember the distinct d) Physical anthropology
appearance of the suspect
b. The prevailing conditions of visibility and observation 3. It is the process by which individual reduce the
when the crime was committed frequency of their offending behavior as the age
c. His state of mind when he witnessed the increases.
commission of the crime a. doing gender
d. The lapse of time between the criminal event and b. aging out
when identification was made c. criminal reduction
d. active precipitation
96. Person who by social or professional position
possesses or has access to information of continuing 4. This refers to the act of killing a large number of
interest, and who willingly provides information to the people in a single violent outburst
police either in response to a specific request or his a. Road rage
own initiative. b. serial killing
a. Incidental informant c. Mass murder
b. Casual informant d. mass destruction
c. Automatic informant
d. Recruited informant 5. These are violent acts directed toward a particular
97. Under Republic Act 7438, when does the police’ person or members of group merely because the
custody of suspect to a crime commence, hence the targets share discernible racial, ethnic, religious or
latter is entitled to be informed of his rights under the gender characteristics.
Miranda doctrine which cannot be waived? a. Violent crimes
a. At the time of custodial investigation b. hate crimes
b. During the actual questioning c. Copy-cat crimes
c. During the announcement that he is under arrest d. victimless crimes
d. At the moment that he is invited for
questioning 6. Dispute Resolution originated in what country?
A. USA
98. Application of all procedures for the search of B. ENGLAND
missing persons. C. ITALY
a. Rogues gallery D. None of these
b. Tracing
c. manhunt 7. The chinese form of dispute resolution is based on
d. order of battle the ethics made by?
A. Mao Tse Dong
99. Principles in homicide investigation that should be B. Hu wei dong
borne in mind are, mistakes of the homicide C. Xi Jin Ping
investigator cannot be corrected and the homicide D. None of these
investigator should not cross the three bridges which
he burns behind him. Which of the following is not one 8. This theory argues that intelligence is largely
of this so called “Burned bridge”? determined genetically; that ancestry determines IQ;
a. When the dead person has been moved and, that low intelligence as demonstrated by low IQ is
b. When the dead body has been embalmed linked to behavior including criminal behavior:
c. When the dead body has been contaminated a. Nature Theory
and the chain of custody was not properly b) Psychological theory
accounted c) Strain Theory
d. When the body is burned or cremated d) Labeling theory
100. Which of the following is not an element of corpus 9. The theory which states that attachment, connection
delicti? and link to society will determine whether a person
a. Proof of the occurrence of certain event shall commit a crime or not:
b. Person’s criminal responsibility for the acts a. social control
c. Additional evidence of a different character to b) social disorganization
the same point c) social bond
d. Proper chain of custody d) social learning
CRIMINOLOGY 10. A police officer’s frustration in the realization of his

1. Person who will involve both parties in a proceeding ambition and goals in life both as an officer of the law,
of ADR. It is usually in the first stage of the and as a private citizen, can push him to a life of crime,
proceedings? as pointed out in this particular theory.
A. Mediator a. Disorganization Theory
B. Arbitrator b. Culture Conflict Theory vs Lower Class Culture”
C. Concillator C. Differential Association Theory
D. None of these d. Strain Theory
2. It is the scientific study of human behavior or man’s 11. Based on greek mythology dispute resolution was
external manifestation in relation to criminality. being conducted thru?
a) Epidiomology A. Lottery
b) Criminal Psychiatry B. Combat
c) Criminal psychology C. Mediation

D. None of these c. neglected child
d. dependent child
12. According to him, people with criminal behavior,
should be prohibited from having children. 22. Being an orphan, Pedro Basurero, roams the street
a. Robert Dugdale 24 hours a day with no place to go, surviving on foods
b. Henry Goddard given by kind-hearted people with no one to supervise
c. Charles Goring him at his young age of six (6). How do you categorize
d. George Wilker Pedro as a child?
a. neglected child
13. Refers to the circumstances which attendant in the b. independent child
commission of a crime serve to increase the penalty, c. Abandoned child
without however exceeding the maximum of the d. dependent child
penalty provided by law for the offense.
a. Justifying 23. The CICL shall be entitled to the automatic
b. Exempting suspension of sentence until the maximum age of __:
c. Mitigating a) twenty-three
d. Aggravating b) eighteen
14. Who dominates the proceeding in Litigation? c) twenty-one
A. Lawyers d) twenty
B. Arbitrators
C. Parties 24. From the moment a child is taken into custody, the
D. None of these law enforcement officer shall immediately but not later
than ____ hours after apprehension, turnover custody
15. It refers to the study of the various agency of our of the child to the Social Welfare and Development
government in charge of processing law violators to Office.
ensure the protection of the society and maintenance A. Nine
of peace and order. B. Eight
a. Criminology C. Seven
b. Criminal Justice D. Six
c. Victimology
d. Sociology 25. If the offender is over nine years of age but under
18 years of age at the time of the commission of the
16. How the judge is selected in the litigation process? crime, he is often referred to as?
A. Thru Lottery A. Socialized delinquent
B. Thru Raffle B. Truant
C. Selected by either Parties C. Criminal
D. None of these D. Youth offender
17. The venue for the Binding Resolution Stage? 26. Their degree of success or accomplishment
A. Good Office depends upon the quality and type of education they
B. ADR office receive as well as on the treatment at home and in the
C. Court community, their I.Q range from about 50 to 75.
D. None of these A. Educable
B. Custodial
18. The ability to go on despite obstacles or C. Borderline
oppositions. D. Trainable
a. patience
b. perseverance 27. The parents or guardian of a working child is
c. Endurance obligated by law to set up a trust fund for the child
d. Prudence which shall constitute at least ____ percent of the
earning of the child.
19. It the ability to moderate or to avoid something. A. 20
a. prudence B. 40
b. fortitude C. 30
c. temperance D. 50
d. justice
28. Nami, frustrated on her boyfriend when she saw
20. The authority to make decisions without reference the latter kissing another girl, cries. This is an example
to the specific rules or facts, using instead one’s own of what defense mechanism?
judgment. a. Regression
a. Discretion b. suppression
b. prudence c. Repression
c. Negotiation d. Displacement
d. conviction
29. The science of classifying the physical
21. A child left by himself without provisions for his characteristics.
needs/or without proper supervision falls under what a. free will
special category of a child? b. positivism
a. abandoned child c. atavism
b. abused child d. somatology

38. This refers to any word or deed which debases,
30. Group of urban sociologists who studies the degrades or demeans the intrinsic worth and dignity of
relationship between environmental conditions and the child as human being.
crime. a. Neglect
a. classical school b. psychological abuse
b. chicago school c. sexual abuse
c. neo-classical school d. cruelty
d. positive school
39. This refers to the use, hiring, employment and
31. It conceded that certain factors such as insanity coercing of children as actors or models in printed
might inhibit the exercise of free will. pornographic materials:
a. Classical theory a. indecent shows
b. neo-classical b. child prostitution
c. Sociological c. obscene publication
d. positivist d. child exploitation
32. It is the breakdown of social order as a result of
the loss of order in a society. 40. Can the police act as neutral third person in the
a. synomie process of AMICABLE SETTLEMENT?
b) anarchy A. No
c) anomie B. Yes
d) chaos C. Maybe
D. None of these
33. “Manie sans delire” (madness without confusion)
This was the term used by Philippe Pinel describing the 41. The body search of the child in conflict with the law
personality that is characterized by an inability to learn must be done only by a law enforcement officer:
from experience, lack of warmth, and no sense of guilt a) who has initial contact
better known as: b) assigned to the case
a. psychotic personality c) of the opposite sex
b. psychopathic personality d) of the same gender
c. neurotic behavior
d. dementia praecox 42. Established usage or social practices carried by
tradition that has obtained the force of law.
34. The legal principle by which the decision or holding a. customs
in an earlier case becomes the standard by which b. ceremony
subsequent similar cases are judged. It literally means c. courtesy
“to stand by decided cases”. d. social decorum
a. jus desert
b. stare decisis 43. According to M. Haralambos; a value is a belief that
c. story decisis something is good and desirable.
d. just stare a. True
b. False
35. It states that individuals are deviant mainly c. Partially True
because they have been labeled as deviant by social d. Partially False
agencies and others. The notion of deviance is not
inherent in the act itself, but rather in the reaction and 44. A type of defense mechanism whereby a person
stigma attached to the actor. concentrates in area where he can excel.
a. Containment Theory a. Displacement
b. Theory of Imitation b. compensation
c. Social Process Theory c. Rationalization
d. Social Reaction theory d. fantasy
36. In case of a child in conflict with the law his age 45. Human actions in relation to events taking place
shall be determine. In the absence of proof what inside the body such as the brain and the nervous
principle shall be observed? system is known as:
a. He is presumed to be minor a. Neurological
b. He should prove his age b. psychological
c. The Birth certificate should be produced pending c. Cognitive
such issuance he should be hold. d. Humanistic
d. The testimony of the child should be enough to
prove his age. 46. Mathematical ability and English communication
skills are examples of what type of human behavior?
37. The crime of human trafficking shall be qualified a. Learned
when: b. inborn
a) the person trafficked is an elderly c. Operant
b) the person trafficked is a woman d. both a and c
c) the person trafficked is a special child
d) the person trafficked is a child 47. In hostage situation, non-verbal communication
which indicates openness and willingness to listen can
be shown by:
a. a posture of folded arms in a dominant position

b. calmly repeating words of comfort and assurance A. Intelligence
c. by not attempting to trick or lie B. Freedom
d. keeping arms open and with a gesture that C. Intent
you are willing to negotiate D. Dolo
48. When the disorder is characterized by chronic 57. Andrew, was a second year high school, is afraid of
mental and physical fatigue and by various aches and being enclosed in a small space, room or closed places.
pains, it is considered as: This phobia is refers to____________.
A. Anxiety Disorder A. Claustrophobia
B. Somatoform Disorder B. Hematophobia
C. Dissociative Disorder C. Agoraphobia
D. Amnesia D. Acrophobia
49. It exists when the children are maltreated, raped 58. The people seeks pleasure and avoids pain is refers
or seduced; when children are exploited, over worried to?
or made to beg in the streets or public places, or when
children are in moral danger, or exposed to gambling, A. Classical Theory
prostitution, or other vices. B. Hedonism
A. Physically Neglected Child C. Utilitarianism
B. Emotionally Neglected Child D. None of these
C. Psychologically Neglected Child
D. Sexually Neglected Child 59. Marie submits herself to humiliation, beatings, and
other forms of physical abuse, for sexual excitement.
50. The ideology of nationalism encompass a diverse What type of paraphilia does she possess?
range of forms, political cultural and ethic. A. Masochism
a. true B. Martyr
b. false C. Sadism
c. maybe D. None of these
d. it depends
60. It refers to unnecessary and unreasonable use of
51. A place of residence whose primary function is to force in effecting arrest or abuse in the manner of
give shelter and care to pregnant women and their conducting search and seizure.
infants A. Brutality
A. Maternity home B. Negligence
B. Hospital C. Imprudence
C. Rehabilitation center D. Omission
D. Foster homes
61. What institution is being termed as the “cradle of
52. When the target is free to the commission of crime. human personality”?
A. alone A. House
B. Vulnerable B. Community
C. Freedom C. Home
D. none of the above D. Church
53. Brief summary of a research article, thesis or any 62. It means a child Incapable of committing an
in depth analysis of a particular subject and it is often offense or crime_____.
used to help the reader quickly ascertain the paper’s A. Doli Incapox
purpose? B. Doli Incopax
A. Dedication C. Doli Incapax
B. Introduction D. Doli Inca Pas
C. Abstract
D. Acknowledgement 63. The usual greeting rendered by uniform service
upon meeting and recognizing person entitled to do it.
54. It is a gift of God that should be respected at all The most common form of courtesy in the PNP and
times by everybody including the government. Military?
A. Privilege A. Bow
B. Incentive B. Shake-hands
C. Benefit C. Salute
D. Right D. Greetings
55. A statue enacted by Congress, penal in character, 64. PNP Chief Kakarot did not make his promise to
which is not amendment to the Revised Penal Code prevent crimes within 6 months.
such as Republic Acts, Presidential Decrees and A. Humility
Memorandum Circulars. B. Word of Honor
A. Common Law C. Humble
B. Special Penal Law D. Boastful
C. Revised Penal code
D. Constitution 65. Children who are vulnerable to and at the risk of
committing criminal offenses because of personal,
56. The ability to do whatever one wishes. family and social circumstances are considered-

A. Vulnerable Child 74. Under Social Control Theory stated that when
B. Abandoned children really supervise by their parents, a child might
C. Child-In-Conflict with The Law not be able to influenced bad behavior.
D. Child-at-Risk A. Belief
B. Involvement
66. What is referring to an act, which is considered C. Attachment
undesirable due to behavioral maladjustment of the D. Commitment
offender?
A. felony 75. This theory focuses more on the individual and not
B. Crime on the crime and this theory believes that punishment
C. law should fit the criminal and the crime committed.
D. act
A. Strain theory
67. Some criminology theorists have linked physical B. Positivist theory
characteristics with personality. Among these theories C. Culture Conflict theory
is William Sheldon’s Somatotyping theory. He classified D. Classical theory
body physique into three categories as the
endomorphic, the mesomorphic and the ectomorphic 76. Kathryn and Daniel right after their marriage
body. Of the following statements, which appropriately decided to move to their own house refers to what
describes the mesomorphic? residence?
A. the twin and fragile with withdrawn behaviour A. Neolocal
B. the muscular and hard physique B. Bilocal
C. the attractive and beautifully shaped C. Matrilocal
D. the fat and soft body type D. Patrilocal
68. A personality disorder characterized by an inability 77. A student watches TV instead of studying, saying
to form social relationships and can be classified as that additional study wouldn’t do any good anyway.
“loners”. A. Rationalization
A. Paranoid Personality B. Sublimation
B. Schizoid Personality C. Reaction Formation
C. Dependent Personality D. Denial of Reality
D. Borderline Personality
78. What does it mean by “oblivion”?
69. This refers to the inability to maintain achieve an A. Forgiveness
erection B. Remember
a. frigidity C. Obey
b. prostitution D. Forgetfulness
c. exhibitionism
d. impotence 79. Garry, a doctor, who because of frustrations forgets
all of his past and takes an unexpected trip to other
70. It deals primarily with the study of crime causation. country. He then, assumes a new identity. His name
a. Criminology was then changed to John and become fisherman.
b. Criminal Etiology What do you call this Dissociative Disorder?
c. Victimology A. Dissociative Amnesia
d. Criminal Sociology B. Dissociative Dementia
C. Dissociative Fugue
71. Human being learned that it was good for the D. Both A and C
welfare of the group that the privilege to determine
what is right and what is wrong was not left to each 80. Andie was imprisoned for committing a crime of
member of the group. theft. She experienced adversities of having been
A. Natural law imprisoned. Upon her release, she never did it again
B. Divine law because of fear of experiencing again the hardships
C. Moral law inside the prison. What kind of deterrence is this?
D. Physical law A. Specific Deterrence
B. Individual Deterrence
72. The view that crime is a function of a decision- C. General Deterrence
making process in which the would be offender weighs D. Both A and B
the potential costs and benefits of an illegal act.
A. Liberal Feminist Theory 81. Among the following theorists, who claimed that
B. Rational Choice Theory Criminality is the result of emotional immaturity?
C. Relative Deprivation Theory A. Abrahamsen
D. Felicific Calculus B. Healy
C. Emile Durkheim
73. Intoxication when considered under the law is D. Bromberg
considered
A. Alternative Circumstance 82. Dingdong Dantes is a thief who sees himself in the
B. Maladaptive Behavior person of Robin Hood. He imitates the acts of Robin
C. Delinquent act Hood like stealing goods and money then gives it to the
D. Anti-social Behavior poor. This situation is explained by:
A. Differential Imitation Theory

B. Differential Association Theory 91. Republic Act 9344 made it clear that status offense
C. Differential Social Organization Theory is no longer treated as criminal and shall not be
D. Differential Identification Theory penalized. We call this process as:
A. Decriminalization
83. It is concentrated in the scientific analysis of the B. Suspension of sentence
causes of crimes. C. Criminalization
A. The reaction towards the breaking of laws D. Diversion
B. The breaking of laws
C. The making of laws 92. Which of the following does not belong to the
D. All of them group?
84. Larry, a certified businessman and a bachelor at A. Starvation
the age of 32 is qualified to adopt a child, what should B. Immurement
the age of the child that he can adopt? C. Dehydration
A. 17 D. Maiming
B. 19
C. 16 93. This is a term applied for a specialist in the study
D. 18 of disorders, sometimes interchangeably used with
psychiatrist.
85. Crisis came from Greek word crisis, which means A. Physical appearance
______. As defined by Funk and Wagnalls, crisis is a B. Psychologist
turning point in the progress of an affair or a series of C. Psychiatrist
events. D. Sociologist
A. Separate
B. Sudden 94. Arnold has been bullied all through his early years
C. Dipping because he is an introvert person, but smart and
D. Plunge intelligent wherein he excels in his academic grades
and skinny. This is the manifestation of.
86. Something offered or given to a person in the hope A. Endomorphic
of influencing that individual’s views or conduct. Police B. Dysplastic
bribes can include monetary payoffs to protect illegal C. Mesomorphic
activity, sell information on criminal investigations, D. Ectomorphic
remove criminal files, or alter testimony in court.
A. Gift 95. Are those crimes committed against individuals,
B. Bribe particularly against their chastity, but which do not
C. Grease money produce danger or prejudice common to other
D. Favor members of society.
A. Public crimes
87. This theory argues that intelligence is largely B. Felony
determined genetically; that ancestry determines I. Q.; C. Private crimes
and, that low intelligence as demonstrated by low I. Q. D. Infractions
is linked to behavior including criminal behavior.
A. Nurture theory 96. The theory in which reformation is based upon, on
B. Nature theory the ground that the criminal is a sick person.
C. Psychological theory A. Classical Theory
D. Biological Theory B. Neo Classical School
C. Sociological Theory
88. Cesare Lombroso, together with his two students D. Positivist Theory
_____ and _______ advocated the Positive/Italian
School of Criminology. 97. Criminology changes as social condition changes.
A. Edwin Sutherland; Donald Cressey This means the progress of criminology is concordant
B. Cesare Beccaria; Jeremy Bentham with the advancement of other sciences that has been
C. Enrico Ferri; Rafaelle Garofalo applied to it. This means that criminology is _____.
D. W.A. Bonger; R. H. Goddard A. Excellent
B. Dynamic
89. The modern day serial killer who was jilted and C. Progressive
later developed hatred for woman. D. Applied Science
A. Mananabas
B. Jack The Ripper 98. Creating an ideal impression of a person, place or
C. Ted Bundy object by emphasizing their positive qualities and
D. John Wayne Gacy neglecting those that are negative.
A. Idealization
90. According to this theory Patriarchy/male B. Fantasy
domination as the main cause of crime. C. Altruism
A. Labeling Theory D. Reaction Formation
B. Postmodern Theory
C. Feminist Theory 99. Sexual gratification and excitement by wearing
D. Peacemaking Theory clothes and acting the role of opposite sex.
A. Frottage
B. Transvertism
C. Hypoxyphilia

D. Mysophilia education and information to enhance respect for the
primacy of human rights.
100. This is where both parties need to present by a a. Commission on Human Rights
lawyer similar to the Pre Trial in the rules of Criminal b. United Nations Department of Human Rights
Procedures? c. Office of the President
A. Early Neutral Evaluation d. Supreme Court
B. Concillation
C. Mini Trial 9. The least punishment in jail for prisoners who
D. None of these violated rules and regulations.
a. Extra fatigue
c. Close confinement
CORRECTIONAL ADMINISTRATION b. Cancellation of visiting privileges
1.This is a characteristic of human rights where in it is d. Reprimand
not capable of being divided.
a. Inherent 10. According to this person, the Bill of Rights is to
b. Fundamental declare some forbidden zones in the private sphere
c. Inalienable inaccessible to any power holder.
d. Indivisible a. Father Jake Bernas, SJ
b. Father Joaquin Bernas, SJ
2. Human rights apply to anyone. Whatever origin, c. Father Julius Bernas, SJ
status, condition, or place where one lives. It is d. Father Pius Bernas, SJ
_______.
a. Inherent 11. Prisoner shall remain in the RDC for a period not
b. Fundamental exceeding.
c. Universal a. 60 days
d. Interdependent b. 30 days
c. 55 days
3. This is a warrant issued by a court bearing its seal d. 45 days
and the signature of the judge directing the jail or
prison authorities to receive an inmates for custody or 12. Custodial Rights of Person can be found on
service of sentence imposed therein. ________ of The 1987 Constitution.
a. Warrant of arrest a. Sec 3, Art 12
b. Mittimus b. Sec 12, Art 3
c. Search Warrant c. Sec 13, Art 2
d. Commitment Order d. Sec 2, Art 13
4. These rights are conferred and protected by the 13. Any waiver by a person arrested or detained under
constitution and cannot be modified or taken away by provisions of Article 125 of the Revised Penal Code, or
the law-making body. under custodial investigation, _______________;
a. Natural rights otherwise the waiver shall be null and void and of no
b. Constitutional rights effect.
c. Statutory rights a. shall be in writing and signed by such person
d. Human rights in the presence of his counsel
b. in the presence of any of any of the parents, elder
5. The following are considered Command Groups of brothers and sisters, his spouse, the municipal mayor,
BJMP, except. the municipal judge, district school supervisor, or priest
a. Chief BJMP or minister of the gospel as chosen by him
b. Operations Division c. shall be allowed visits by or conferences with any
c. Deputy Chief BJMP member of his immediate family, or any medical doctor
d. Chief of Staff or priest or religious minister chosen by him or by any
member of his immediate family or by his counsel, or
6. This refers to assigning or grouping of inmates by any national non-governmental organization duly
according to their sentence, gender, age, nationality, accredited by the Commission on Human rights of by
health, criminal records, etc. any international non-governmental organization duly
a. Commitment accredited by the Office of the President
b. Classification d. is signed, or thumb marked if the person arrested or
c. Rehabilitation detained does not know how to read and write, it shall
d. Reformation be read and adequately explained to him by his counsel
or by the assisting counsel provided by the
7. Stage in human rights wherein the support for the investigating officer in the language or dialect known
ideas become strong, and thus incorporate it into legal to such arrested or detained person, otherwise, such
instruments. investigation report shall be null and void and of no
a. Idealization effect whatsoever.
b. Positivist
c. Realization 14. Prisoner file management systems shall be used to
d. Positivism generate reliable data about trends relating to and
characteristics of the prison population, including
8. It is an independent commission which investigates occupancy rates, in order to create a basis for
on human rights violations and establishes programs of evidence-based decision making.
a. True

b. False a. True. The offender will be in prison anyway so
c. Partially true she/he would not be able to hurt the victim.
d. Partially false b. True. The meeting of the victim and the
offender will be in a secured and structured
15. A state commits human rights violations setting so the safety of the victim will not be
__________. compromised.
a. Directly c. False. The meeting of the offender and the victim
b. Indirectly should be discouraged as the safety of the victim is the
c. Either directly or indirectly paramount concern.
d. Indefinitely d. False. The victim or his family members might
16. Restorative Justice program is a part of the endanger the life of the offender.
rehabilitation of the client which is incorporated in the
clients _________. 23. Prisoners who are incarcerated with a fine of more
a. Conditions than five hundred pesos or those sentenced for
b. Treatment plan violation of custom law, immigration law and election
c. Supervision Treatment plan law.
d. Supervision a. city prisoner
b. municipal prisoner
17. It is an environment that helps people get c. district prisoner
help while helping others. It is a treatment d. national prisoner
environment: the interactions of its members are
designed to be therapeutic within the context of the 24. A shoplifter is ordered to repay a store owner for
norms that require for each to play the dual role of the cost of a stolen item, and an assailant must pay for
client-therapist. their victim’s medical expenses after a violent assault.
a. Restorative Justice These are examples of __________, an intervention
b. Institutional Correction which can be agreed upon during the restorative
c. Non-Institutional Correction justice process.
d. Therapeutic Community a. Community work service
b. Written or oral apology
18. In TC, work assignments, called _________ are c. Marital enhancement program
arranged in a hierarchy, according to seniority, d. Restitution
individual progress and productivity.
a. Work functions 25. Amnesty is being given by the President and there
b. Assignments is no other requirement to complete the process.
c. Job functions a. Yes, because it is the sole prerogative of the
d. Job assignments President
b. No, there should be action by the Legislative
19. It is an outpatient program that requires clients to c. No, because it is being given by the BPP
report twice a week to an outreach center. They are d. No, because there is no Post Sentence Investigation
required to attend group sessions to ensure their Report
adjustment to life outside the jail to reduce recidivism.
a. Re-entry 26. What agency has the authority to recommend to
b. Pre re-entry the President for the release of qualified prisoners for
c. Aftercare pardon and other form of executive clemency.
d. Primary Treatment a. Department of Justice
b. Probation and Parole Administration
20. As provided for under The Nelson Mandela Rules, c. Bureau of Jail Management and Penology
the education of illiterate prisoners and of young d. Boards of Pardon and Parole
prisoners shall be ___________ and special attention
shall be paid to it by the prison administration. 27. If the applicant whose application for probation has
a. unnecessary been given due course by the proper court has failed
b. compulsory to present himself to the proper office within seventy
c. involuntary two hours from receipt of the probation order the
d. all of the above probation office shall first exert best effort to inquire of
search or locate his whereabouts before he will be
21. Mr. Jacinto, a known drug pusher, witnessed the reported and he is considered as what kind of
suffering of his colleague, Mr. Ramirez, when the latter applicant?
was imprisoned due to violation of RA 9165. Because a. Missing
of such, Mr. Jacinto stopped selling drugs, cut his b. Confidential
connections to other drug-related personalities, and c. Collateral
decided to live a life out of trouble. The type of d. Absconding
deterrence illustrated in this case is:
a. Specific deterrence 28. Below are the salient features of Therapeutic
b. General deterrence Community. Which one is not among them?
c. Both a and c a. The primary “therapist” and teacher are the
d. None of the above community itself.
b. TC adheres to precepts of right living such as truth,
22. In restorative justice process, the victim is allowed personal responsibility, social responsibility, moral
and has the opportunity to meet his or her offender code, work ethics and self-reliance
face-to-face. c. It believes that TC is a place where one can change.

d. None of the above 37. Which of the following is not considered as a
function of the Jail Bureau?
29. The existing policy on the grant of absolute pardon a. Implement strong jail security measures
under this scheme is that ten years after the released b. Conduct activities for the development of inmates
from prison must pass before an ex-convict applying c. Improve jail facilities and conditions
for said pardon will be granted. But eventually this was d. Engage in political partisanship for a better
shortened to __________ years. jail service
a. Five years 38. It is awarded to a BJMP member who must
b. Six years perform, in action, a deed of personal bravery and self
c. Seven years sacrifice above and beyond the call of duty, so
d. Eight years conspicuously done as to distinguish himself above the
others in the performance of more than ordinary
30. The following are the Therapeutic Community hazardous service.
process, there are categories of activity that help a. Medalya ng Kagitingan/Medal of Valor
promote the change, except: b. Medalya ng Natatanging Gawa/Outstanding
a. Relational/ behavioral Achievement Medal
b. psychosexual/ sexual c. Medalya ng Kabayanihan/Distinguised Conduct
c. cognitive/ intellectual Medal
d. affective/ emotional d. Medalya ng Katapatan sa Paglilingkod/Distinguished
Service Medal
31. Who may apply for release on recognizance?
a. Person charged with murder 39. It is a well established rule that before an inmate
b. Person charged with robbery can be entrusted for confinement, there must be a
c. Person charged with light felony commitment order by a competent court or authority
d. Person charged with kidnapping for the purpose of investigation, trial and/or service of
sentence. The following are recognized authorities to
32. When shall one can apply for bail? issue commitment order except:
a. Before conviction by MTC of an offense not a. Supreme Court
punishable by death b. Court of Appeals
b. Before conviction by RTC of an offense not c. Regional Trial Court
punishable by death d. Government Prosecutor
c. After conviction by RTC of an offense not punishable
by death 40. The primary goal of this program is to foster
d. After conviction by MTC of an offense not punishable personal growth. This is accomplished by re-shaping an
by death individual’s behavior and attitudes through the inmate’s
community working together to help themselves and
33. From among the following, who may apply for each other, restoring self-confidence, and preparing
preventive imprisonment? them for their re-integration into their families and
a. He files his petition for probation friends as productive members of the community.
b. Have served minimum of imprisonment a. Probation Program
c. His probation is granted b. Therapeutic Community Program
d. Detention prisoner who is not a recidivist c. Parole Program
d. None of the above
34. How does the Jail Bureau contribute to public
safety? 41.The act of methodically beating or whipping the
a. By fostering economic development through jail human body. This kind of punishment is practiced to
income-generating projects give harmony to Family, School and Prisoner.
b. By providing for incarceration and retribution of a. Mutilation
inmates b. Ostracism
c. By safekeeping and developing inmates into c. Destierro
law-abiding citizens d. Flogging or Flagellation
d. By advocating safety measures to enhance public
safety awareness 42.In the history of capital punishment, what do they
call this frame, typically wooden, used for execution by
35. Positions in the jail service have the following hanging?
characteristics, except one: a. Wolves
a. Entrance based on merit and fitness b. Gallows (Scaffold)
b. Placement based on meritorious external c. Punks
intervention d. Jail
c. Opportunity for advancement to higher career
positions 43. Which is called the finest penal farm in the world?
d. Security of tenure a. Davao penal farm
b. Sablayan penal colony
36. Which of the following schemes is not part of the c. San Ramon prison and penal farm
career progression and development program? d. Iwahig penal colony
a.Progressive rotation of duty and area assignments
b. Education and Training 44. In 1936, the City of Manila exchanges its
c. Merit Censure and Preferential Plan Muntinlupa property with the Bureau of Prisons
d. Counseling and Mentoring originally intended as a site for boys’ training school.

Today, the old Bilibid Prison is now being used as the 51. Prisoners are awarded ________ off from their
Manila City Jail, famous as the : minimum or maximum term for maintaining good
a. “May Halique Estate” behavior or participating in various types of vocational,
b. “Tandang Sora State” educational and treatment programs.
c. New Bilibid Jail a. Good time
d. Muntinlupa Jail b. Credits – reduction
45. Prisoners should not be given corporal punishment c. Days off
nor confined in dark cells or sweat boxes as these are: d. Vacation
a. Somewhat prohibited
b. Relatively prohibited 52. Mario is in prison for the past 48 months and has
c. Absolutely prohibited never been involved in any trouble, no matter how
d. Fairly prohibited minor. If you were the prison director, how many days
for each month would you approve as Mario’s good
46. Under the Mandella Rules (UN Standard Minimum conduct time allowance?
rules for the treatment of prisoners ), which of the A. 5 days
following are the two basic principles under rules of B. 8 days
general application to prisoners? C. 20 days
1. There shall be no discrimination on grounds D. 23 days
of race, color, sex, language, religion, political or other
opinion, national or social origin, birth or other status 53. It shall exercise supervision and control over all
2. It is necessary to respect the religious belief district, city and municipal jails to ensure “a secured,
and moral rule of the group to which the prisoner clean and sanitary and adequately equipped jail for the
belong custody and safekeeping of city, municipal prisoners,
3. The treatment of prisoner should emphasize any fugitive from justice or persons detained awaiting
not their exclusion from the community, but their for investigation or trial and/or transfer to the National
continuing part in it Penitentiary:
4. Unconvict prisoners are presumed to be a. Bureau of Corrections
innocent and shall be treated as such. b. DILG
a. 2 and 3 c. Bureau of Jail Management and Penology
b. 4 and 1 d. Provincial Jails
c. 1 and 2
d. 3 and 4 54. The Panopticon is a type of prison building
designed by English philosopher Jeremy Bentham in
47. Jonel Nuesca was convicted and ready to serve his 1785. The concept of the design was derived from the
sentence inside the prison. Why was he photographed word meaning of “pan” and “opticon”. “Opticon’
at the Directorate for Reception and Diagnostics? means:
a. He is an actor and photogenic a. to allow an observer to observe
b. It is rare opportunity to have his photograph b. without the prisoner
c. To have a souvenir photo of the actor c. avoid watching
d. Photographing the inmate is part of the d. To walk in military manner
reception procedure “Booking”
55. What is referred to as the concept of the “greatest
48. Kiko Matos was arrested by the police for theft in happiness of the greater number” espoused by Jeremy
the amount of P5,000.00. He was brought to the police Bentham?
station and an administrative record of the arrest was a. Utilitarianism
prepared. He was fingerprinted, photographed, b. Rehabilitation
interrogated and placed in a line-up for identification c. Reformation
by witnesses. What process did he undergo? d. Conformance
a. Preliminary hearing
b. Booking 56.He said the “crime must be considered an injury to
c. Trial society, and the only rational measure of crime is the
d. Indictment extent of injury.” “let the punishment fit the crime”
a. Jeremy Bentham
49. Which of the following is a minor offense in jail? b. Cesare Beccaria
a. Rendering personal services to fellow inmate c. James Wilson
b. Loitering or being in an unauthorized place – less d. John Howard
grave offense
c. Keeping or concealing keys or locks of places in the 57. A mode of securing the release of any person in
jail where it is off- limits to inmates – grave offense custody or detention for the commission of an offense
d. Making untruthful statements or lies in official who is unable to post bail due to abject poverty. A
communication, transaction or investigation – grave person accused will be released through reputable
offense person in the Community by order of the Judge is
known as?
50. Failure to assist in putting out fires inside the jail is a. Bail
a type of offense? b. Probation
a. Grave offense c. Parole
b. Less grave offense d. Release on recognizance
c. Not so grave offense
d. Minor offense

58. The Court may grant Probation after B. Probationer
conviction of the Trial Court. The Supreme Court grant C. Parole Officer
Probation in the impeachment case. D. Probation Officer
A. Both sentence are correct 67. What is the quantum of evidence required to
B. The first sentence is correct and the second prove a violation of probation’s conditions?
sentence is wrong A. Probable cause
C. Both sentence are wrong B. Preponderance of evidence
D. True and False C. Proof beyond reasonable doubt
D. Substantial evidence
59. An alternative to incarceration and allows
convicted persons to remain at large under varying 68. As one of the conditions of Probation, how
degrees of restriction and supervision and certain many times in a month shall the probationer report to
conditions. the probation officer?
A. Probation A. Once
B. Conditional Pardon B. At least twice
C. Parole C. More than twice
D. Absolute pardon D. Four times
60. What is a disposition under which a 69. Who investigates for the Court referral “Order
defendant, after conviction and sentence, is released to Investigate” as prescribed in Presidential Decree
subject to conditions imposed by the Court and under 968?
the supervision of a Probation officer? A. Jail Officer
A. Commutation of sentence B. Parole Officer
B. Parole C. Probation Officer
C. Probation D. Correction Officer
D. Reprieve
70. A document serves as a basis for Court’s
61. Which of the following should be a decision to grant or deny the application for probation.
Probationer not to be done? A. Pre-Sentence Investigation Report
A. Be a law abiding citizen B. Post-Sentence Investigation Report
B. Make a revenge C. Pre-Executive Clemency Investigation Report
C. Work regularly to support family D. Pre-Parole Investigation Report
D. Stay away from bad associates
71. As a General rule the Probation classified as?
62. In Probation, the Court may also require the person A. Penalty
placed under it to do the following except B. Privilege
A. Pursue vocational training program C. Punishment
B. Refrain from finding a means of living D. Right
C. Stop from visiting houses of ill repute
D. Undergo medical, psychological and psychiatric 72. If Mr. Aljur Abrenica violated sec. 29, of PD 968.
treatment Violation of Confidential Nature of Probation Records,
with a penalty of imprisonment ranging from six
63. Which of the following is an implied condition of months and one day to six years and a fine ranging
Probation? from hundred to six thousand pesos shall be imposed
A. Abstain from drinking liquor upon any person who violates Section 17 hereof. Is he
B. Meet family responsibility qualified for Probation?
C. Refrain from committing crime A. Yes
D. Report to the Probation officer B. No
C. Maybe
64. What is the effect of Probation to a sentence D. Partially true
imposed by the Court to a convicted individual?
A. Exempted from criminal liability 73. Which of the following records is considered
B. Justified the wrongful act confidential in nature?
C. Mitigated both criminal and civil liability A. Post-Sentence Investigation Report
D. Suspend the execution of sentence B. Pre-Parole Investigation Report
C. Pre-Executive Clemency Investigation Report
65. A person convicted by final judgment of a D. All of these
criminal offense and sentence to imprisonment of not
more thansix years who is allowed by the Court to 74. Who is responsible to conduct an immediate
remain in the community under the supervision of fact-finding investigation of any alleged violation of
Parole and Probation Officer and subject to conditions probation?
which the Court may imposed. A. Probation Administrator
A. Parole Probation Administrator B. Chief, Parole and Probation Officer
B. Probationer C. Probation and Parole Officer
C. City Probation Officer D. Supervising Probation Officer
D. Regional Probation Officer
75. Where may a convicted offender not disqualified by
66. He conducts PSI, FBCI, GCI and PCI and law apply for probation?
supervises a person placed under probation? A. Court of Appeals
A. Parole and Probation Administrator B. Municipal Trial Court

C. Sandiganbayan 84. He is tasked to administer the Parole and Probation
D. Supreme Court System and exercise general supervision overall
76. What was the occupation of the Father of Pardonees, Parolees and Probationers in the country.
Probation who interceded with the court to suspend the A. Parole and Probation Administrator
sentenceof youthful offenders and alcoholics and B. Chairman, Board of Pardons and Parole
placed them in his charge? C. President, Republic of the Philippines
A. Carpenter D. Senate President, Republic of the Philippines
B. Mason
C. Shoemaker 85. Which of the following is not an administrative
D. Tailor function exercised by the Executive Branch of the
government.
77. Who was the first probation officer employed on A. Probation
October 21, 1878 by the government of the United B. Pardon
States based on the passage of law in 1887 providing C. Reprieve
for the appointment of a Probation Officer for the City D. Amnesty
of Boston?
A. Edward H. Savage 86. An alternative granted after a convicted
B. Richard McSweeney person served a part of his sentence and is allowed to
C. Frederick Rainier complete asentence at large, subject to restrictions and
D. Renald Cabe supervision.
A. Probation
78. Mr. Malibog was convicted to the crime of Rape B. Shock imprisonment
then apply for Probation. As a Judge will you grant C. Parole
Probation? D. Split sentencing
A. Yes. Because having sexual force to other is natural,
and also under the theory of Abraham Maslow that sex 87. The probation order is read before the
is a vital need. petitioners and the probation officer.
B. No. Because the sec. 8 (c), PD 968. Probation A. In probation office
will depreciate the seriousness of the offense B. Inside the judge room
committed.” C. In confidence
C. Yes. Because Mr. Chaps has good faith to marry the D. In open court
rape victim.
D. No. as provided by the Probation officer 88. Mr. Gerald Anderson, was sentenced in 2003
to a minimum prison term of three years and one day.
79. In the Philippines may the Offended party He applied for probation and he was granted probation
grant Pardon as a general rule? in 2008. He was included in a robbery and with a prison
A. Yes term of less than three years. If he applied for
B. No probation is he qualified?
C. False A. Yes. His prison term is less than six years
D. True B. No. His prison term is less than three years
C. Yes. There is five years gap between his second
80. Who coined the word Probation in latin word offense and the first offense.
Probare? D. No. He is second time offender, and probation
A. John Augustus shall be given once.
B. Samuel Gridley Howe
C. Frederick Rainier 89. How many years is the term of office of a Probation
D. Alexander Maconochie Aide?
A. One year and non - reappointment
81. Which of the following court decisions led to B. Two years and renewable
the passing of the National Probation Act of 1925 C. Three years and not - renewable
A. Killets Decision D. Four years and with reappointment
B. People vs. Ducosin
C. Judge Balagot vs. Bernardo 90. How many Probationers be supervised by the
D. Abrenica vs. Contis Probation Aide on maximum caseload under the
OmnibusRules on Probation Methods and Procedures
82. An order granting or denying Probation of the of PD 968?
trial court - A. 3 Probationer on maximum caseload
A. Shall be appealable B. 10 Probation on Minimum caseload
B. Shall not be appealable C. 5 Maximum client
C. Cannot be revoked D. 50 caseloads
D. Shall be appealable by imposable penalty only
91. How many Probationers be supervised by the
83. The Probationer and his Probation program is Volunteer Probation Assistant on maximum caseload
under the control of - underthe Omnibus Rules on Probation Methods and
A. Probation officer Procedures of RA 10707?
B. Board of Pardons and Parole A. 3 Probationer on maximum caseload
C. Parole and Probation Administration B. 10vProbation on Minimum caseload
D. Trial Court C. 5 Maximum client
D. 50 caseloads

92. The Probation and Parole Week is celebrated A. No. Because it exceed the maximum
every when pursuant to Proclamation No. 405? impossible penalty
A. Every last week of October B. No. Because no probation will be granted if there is
B. Every first week of September no PSI
C. July 18 to 24 of every year C. Yes. He can appeal for the imposable penalty as a
D. Every August 14 of every year law provided
D. Yes. Because it is the job of the Judge or trial court
93. How many years is the maximum period of
probation if the offender was sentenced to an
indeterminatepenalty of prison correctional in its
minimum period as its minimum to prison correctional
in its maximum period as its maximum?
A. Two years
B. Four years
C. Six Years
D. Eight years
94. It refers to a suspension of sentence after

which the convicted of the law and subject to his good
behaviorand positive reaction to rehabilitation
program.
A. Parole
B. Act 4221
C. Pardon
D. Amnesty
95. Below are forms of Executive Clemency.

except
A. Amnesty
B. Commutation of sentence
C. Pardon
D. Probation
96. Which among the following is considered as a

Judicial Clemency?
A. Amnesty
B. Commutation of sentence
C. Parole
D. Probation
97. Who shall appoint the Parole and Probation

Administrator?
A. House Speaker
B. President of the Republic of the Philippine
C. Secretary of Justice
D. Senate President of the Republic of the Philippines
98. The following are the Person in Authority

pursuant to sec. 4, RA 10707. Except.
A. Regional Probation Officer
B. Provincial Probation Officer
C. City Probation Officer
D. Volunteer Probation Assistant
99. Who among the following convicted drug pushers

may place under probation?
A. John, who is a first time offender and 20 years old
B. Mathew, who is a first time offender and 25 years
old
C. Teodulo, who is a third time offender and 21 years
old
D. Ramon, who is a second time offender and 21 years
old.
E. None
100. Mr. Jayzam Manabat was convicted of a crime that

carries a penalty of eight years and one day. As a
Probation Officer will you recommend him for
Probation?

CLJ Q&a

Uploaded by

Copyright:

Available Formats

CLJ Q&a

Uploaded by

Document Information

Original Title

Copyright

Available Formats

Share this document

Share or Embed Document

Sharing Options

Did you find this document useful?

Is this content inappropriate?

Copyright:

Available Formats

CLJ Q&a

Uploaded by

Copyright:

Available Formats

DIAGNOSTICS EXAMINATION

CRIMINAL JURISPRUDENCE, PROCEDURE AND d. Felony

Amici Review Center Page 1

Amici Review Center Page 2

Amici Review Center Page 3

Amici Review Center Page 4

Amici Review Center Page 5

Amici Review Center Page 6

Amici Review Center Page 7

Amici Review Center Page 8

Amici Review Center Page 9

Amici Review Center Page 10

Amici Review Center Page 11

Amici Review Center Page 12

Amici Review Center Page 13

Amici Review Center Page 14

Amici Review Center Page 15

Amici Review Center Page 16

Amici Review Center Page 17

Amici Review Center Page 18

Amici Review Center Page 19

Amici Review Center Page 20

Amici Review Center Page 21

Amici Review Center Page 22

Amici Review Center Page 23

Amici Review Center Page 24

CRIMINOLOGY 10. A police officer’s frustration in the realization of his

Amici Review Center Page 25

Amici Review Center Page 26

Amici Review Center Page 27

Amici Review Center Page 28

Amici Review Center Page 29

Amici Review Center Page 30

Amici Review Center Page 31

Amici Review Center Page 32

Amici Review Center Page 33

Amici Review Center Page 34

Amici Review Center Page 35

Amici Review Center Page 36

94. It refers to a suspension of sentence after

95. Below are forms of Executive Clemency.

96. Which among the following is considered as a

97. Who shall appoint the Parole and Probation

98. The following are the Person in Authority

99. Who among the following convicted drug pushers

100. Mr. Jayzam Manabat was convicted of a crime that

Amici Review Center Page 37

You might also like