3.

0 Hour Review Test - 1 | Four Year Course – 2025

Date: 5th December, 2021 Timing: 04:00 PM to 09:00 PM Maximum Marks: 320

General Instructions
1. The test is of 3 hours duration.
2. The test consists of 80 questions.
3. This paper consists of two sections, Section - A (NCERT) and Section – B (FOUNDATION). There are four
subjects in each section, Subject I, II, III and IV consisting of Physics, Chemistry, Biology and
Mathematics respectively.
4. Each question is allotted 4 (four) marks for correct response.
5. Candidate will be awarded marks as stated above in instruction No. 4 for correct response of each
question. 1/4 (one-fourth) marks of the total marks allotted to the questions (i.e. 1 mark) will be
deducted for indicating incorrect response of each question. No deduction from the total score will be
made if no response is indicated.
6. There is only one correct response for each question. Filling up more than one response in any question
will be treated as wrong response and marks for wrong response will be deducted accordingly as per
instruction 5 above.
7. No candidate is allowed to carry any textual material, printed or written, bits of papers, pager, mobile
phone, any electronic device, etc. inside the examination room/hall.
8. Rough work is to be done on the space provided for this purpose in the Test Booklet only.
9. On completion of the test, the candidate must hand over the Answer Sheet (OMR) to the Invigilator on
duty in the Room/Hall. However, the candidates are allowed to take away this Test Booklet with them.
10. Do not fold or make any stray mark on the Answer Sheet (OMR).

SYLLABUS:
Physics: Motion
Chemistry: Matter In Our Surroundings
Biology: Cell - The Fundamental Unit of Life
Maths: Number System, Polynomials, Coordinate Geometry, Euclid's Geometry
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SECTION -A (NCERT)
SUBJECT I : PHYSICS 32 MARKS
This Subject contains 8 Multiple Choice Questions. Each Question has 4 choices 1, 2, 3 & 4, out of which Only
One is Correct:
1. A particle is moving in a circular path of radius r. The displacement after half a circle would be :
(1) Zero (2) r (3) 2r (4) 2 r

2. The numerical ratio of displacement to distance for a moving object is :

(1) Always less than 1 (2) Always equal to 1
(3) Always more than 1 (4) Equal or less than 1

3. From the given velocity - time graph, it can be inferred that the object is :

(1) In uniform motion (2) At rest

(3) In non-uniform motion (4) Moving with uniform acceleration

4. Which of the following statement is correct regarding velocity and speed of a moving body?
(1) Velocity of a moving body is always higher than its speed
(2) Speed of a moving body is always higher than its velocity
(3) Speed of a moving body is its velocity in a given direction
(4) Velocity of a moving body is its speed in a given direction

5. When a car driver travelling at a speed of 40 m/s applies brakes and brings the car to rest in 20 s, then the
retardation will be :
(1) 2 m/s 2 (2)  2 m/s2 (3)  0.5 m/s2 (4) 0.5 m/s2

6. A car is travelling at a speed of 90 km/h. Brakes are applied so as to produce a uniform acceleration of
0.5 m/s2. Find how far the car will go before it comes to rest.
(1) 8100 m (2) 900 m (3) 625 m (4) 620 m

7. A boy goes from A to B with a velocity of 20 m/min and comes back from B to A with a velocity of 30
m/min. The average velocity of the boy during the whole journey is :
(1) 25 m/min (2) 25 m/s (3) Zero (4) 20 m/min

8. What is the SI unit of acceleration ?

(1) Metre (2) Metre/(second)2
(3) Metre/second (4) Second

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SUBJECT II: CHEMISTRY 32 MARKS

This Subject contains 8 Multiple Choice Questions. Each Question has 4 choices 1, 2, 3 & 4, out of which Only
One is Correct:

9. In which form, do the water molecules have less kinetic energy?

(1) Ice (2) Water
(3) Steam (4) All of them have equal kinetic energy

10. The inter-particle forces are the strongest in :

(1) Nitrogen (2) Ethyl alcohol
(3) Water (4) Sodium chloride

11. A gas can be best liquefied :

(1) By increasing the temperature
(2) By lowering the pressure
(3) By increasing the pressure and reducing the temperature
(4) By decreasing the pressure and increasing the temperature

12. Large volume of Compressed Natural Gas (CNG) is available in small cylinders to us due to its property
of :
(1) High inflammability (2) Easy availability
(3) High compressibility (4) Low density

13. In an experiment oxygen was added to hydrogen and heated. On heating, a new substance containing oxygen
and hydrogen is formed. What is this substance?
(1) Element (2) Compound (3) Solution (4) Mixture

14. Evaporation is directly proportional to

1. Humidity 2. Surface area
3. Temperature 4. Wind speed
(1) 1 and 4 (2) 2 and 3 (3) 3 and 4 (4) 2, 3 and 4

15. 450 K temperature may be written in Celsius scale as :

(1) 278°C (2) 723°C (3) 0°C (4) 177°C

16. Dry ice is :

(1) Water in solid state (2) CO 2 in solid state
(3) Nitrogen in solid state (4) Oxygen in solid state

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

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SUBJECT III : BIOLOGY 32 MARKS

This Subject contains 8 Multiple Choice Questions. Each Question has 4 choices 1, 2, 3 & 4, out of which Only
One is Correct:
17. Identify the picture correctly :

(1) Unicellular,prokaryotes (2) Multicellular prokaryotes

(3) Unicellular eukaryotes (4) Multicellular eukaryotes

18. Below is the power house of the cell .Select the incorrect statement from the following :

(1) It stores adenosine triphosphate(ATP) (2) It is similar to the prokaryotic cell

(3) It does not contain its own DNA (4) It is found both in plant and animal cell

19. ASSERTION : Robert Brown discovered Nuclues.

REASON : Nucleoplasm and cytoplasm of a living cell together makes protoplasm.
(1) A and R both are true R is the correct explanation of A.
(2) A and R both are true R is not the correct explanation of A
(3) A is true and R is False
(4) A is false and R is true

20. Plasma membrane is semipermeable membrane .Select which of the following statement is correct.
(1) Plasmamembrane is only present in the animal cells
(2) It does not allows the movement of the water through it
(3) Substance like C02 and 02 can cross through the membrane by diffusion
(4) Plasma membrame is also called the cell wall.

21. Which of the following statement(s) is (are) true about vacuole?

(i) Vacuole is large size in the animal cells
(ii) The central vacuole occupies 50% to 90 % in the plant cells
(iii) The food is taken inside the amoeba in its stomach
(iv) In plant cell the vacuole is full of cell sap that makes the plant turgid
(1) (i) and (iv) (2) (ii) and (iii) (3) (i) and (iii) (4) (ii) and (iv)

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22. When the Rheo leaves are kept in the boiling water and put it in the sugar solution then will it will not
absorb water by osmosis .Which of the following statement is correct.
(1) In the boiling water the cells are dead.
(2) In contact with the sugar solution the cells become dead
(3) The cell present in the Rheo leaves are prokaryotes
(4) The leaves have the dead cells

The peels of Rheo leaf in water is examine under the microscope. the small green granules are called chroroplast
this is also called the kitchen of the plant.

23. Four students made the following observations marked as I, II, III and IV
I. The chloroplast contain the green colour pigment called stroma.
II. The chromoplast contain the storage of starch and oils.
III. The leucoplast are also present in the potato and it is colorless plastids
IV. The chloroplast is present in the roots.
Which one of the above is the correct observation?
(1) I (2) II (3) III (4) IV

24. Which of the following is correct regarding the plastid.

(1) Chromoplast containg the pigment chlorophyll called the leucoplast.
(2) Plastids are only present in the plant cell.
(3) Plastids are dependent bodies inside the cell.
(4) Plastids are similar to the eukaryotic cells.

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

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SUBJECT IV: MATHEMATICS 64 MARKS

This Subject contains 16 Multiple Choice Questions. Each Question has 4 choices 1, 2, 3 & 4, out of which
Only One is Correct:

25. The product of abscissa and ordinate of a point P is negative then point P must lie in :
(1) first quadrant only (2) third quadrant only
(3) second or first quadrant (4) second or fourth quadrant

26. There are exactly `k  number of points on x-axis at a distance of five units from origin then `k  is equal
to:
(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 5 (4) 7

27. Select the odd one out :

(1) The whole is greater than the part
(2) A terminated line can be produced indefinitely
(3) A circle can be drawn with any centre and any radius
(4) A straight line may be drawn from any one point to any other point

28. Consider the following statements :

P : Euclid is known as father of geometry
Q : An axiom is valid only for geometry and not other fields of mathematics
R : From a point not on a line, only one line can be drawn parallel to given line
S : A straight line is a line which lies evenly with the point on itself
Then true statements are :
(1) P and R only (2) P, Q and R only
(3) P, Q, R and S (4) P, R and S only

29. Which of the following statements is false for rational numbers :

(1) Rational numbers may be terminating or recurring decimals
p
(2) Rational number is of the form where p and q are any integers
q
(3) There are infinite rational numbers between two different rational numbers
(4) All rational numbers are real numbers

30. Which of the following numbers is rational ?

22 3
(1)  (2) 2 (3) (4) 3
7
2 4
31.   a  b 3 where a and b are natural numbers then ( a 2  b 2 ) is equal to :
3 1 3 1
(1) 40 (2) 10 (3) 4 (4) 8

32. Select a polynomial of degree 3 :

(1) ( x  1)3  ( x  1)3 (2) ( x 2  x  1) ( x 2  x  1)
(3) x (( x 2  1)2  ( x 2  1) 2 ) (4) x 2 ( x 2  1)  x 2 ( x 2  1)

33. If a, b, and c are positive numbers such that x3  6 x 2  37 x  30  ( x  a ) ( x  b) ( x  c) then the value of
a  b  c is equal to :
(1) 14 (2) 6 (3) 14 (4) 6

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1
34. The value of when 10 =3.162 is:
10
(1) 0.3162 (2) 31.62 (3) 0.03162 (4) 316.2

35. 0.018 can be expressed in rational form as:

18 18 18 18
(1) (2) (3) (4)
1000 990 9900 999

3
1
36. (64) 2/3    is equal to:
 4
1
(1) 4 (2) (3) 1 (4) 16
4

2
37. If x  2 is a factor of 5x  kx  18, then find value of k .
(1) –1 (2) 1 (3) 0 (4) 5

3 2
38. What is the remainder when x  2x  x 1 is divided by x  1 ?
(1) 0 (2) –1 (3) 1 (4) 2

3 2
39. The degree of 4x 13x 11x  5 is:
(1) 0 (2) 1 (3) 2 (4) 3

40. The value of p( x)  5 x  4 x 2  3 when x  1 , is:

(1) 3 (2) –12 (3) –6 (4) 6
SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

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SECTION - B (FOUNDATION)
SUBJECT I : PHYSICS 32 MARKS
This Subject contains 8 Multiple Choice Questions. Each Question has 4 choices 1, 2, 3 & 4, out of which Only
One is Correct:
41. A body is thrown vertically upwards with a velocity u. Select the correct statements from the following.
I. Both velocity and acceleration are zero at its highest point.
II. Velocity is maximum and acceleration is zero at the highest point.
III. Velocity is zero and acceleration is g downwards at its highest point.
(1) I, II and III (2) Only II and III (3) Only I and II (4) Only III

42. The ball is projected up from ground with speed 30 m/sec. What is the average velocity for time 0 to 4
sec? [ g  10 m/s2 ]
(1) 10 m/sec (2) 15 m/sec (3) 20 m/sec (4) zero

43. Suppose a boy is enjoying a ride on a merry-go-round which is moving with a constant speed of
10 ms 1 , it implies that the boy is :
(1) At rest (2) Moving with no acceleration
(3) In accelerated motion (4) Moving with uniform velocity

44. A ball is dropped from a high rise platform at t  0 starting from rest. After 6 seconds another ball is
thrown downwards from the same platform with a speed v. The two balls meet at t  18 s. What is the
value of v? (Take g  10 m/s 2 )
(1) 75 m/s (2) 55 m/s (3) 40 m/s (4) 60 m/s

45. The displacement - time graph of 3 particles are as shown in figure. If v A , vB and vC represent
velocities of particle A, B and C, then:

(1) vA  vB  vC (2) vA  vB  vC (3) vC  vB  vA (4) vB  vC  v A

46. The adjoining curve represents the velocity-time graph of a particle, its acceleration values along OA, AB
2
and BC in m/sec are respectively:

(1) 1, 0, –0.5 (2) 2, 0, 0.5 (3) 1, 1, 0.5 (4) 2, 0, –0.5

47. A body thrown up with a velocity reaches a maximum height of 200 metres. Another body with double
the mass thrown up, with the same initial velocity will reach a maximum height of:
(1) 100 metres (2) 200 metres (3) 10 metres (4) 400 metres
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48. The v-t graph of a linear motion is shown in adjoining figure. Find displacement of the particle in 3
seconds if it was at origin at time t  0.

(1) 6m (2) 8m (3) 10 m (4) 12 m

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

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SUBJECT II: CHEMISTRY 32 MARKS

This Subject contains 8 Multiple Choice Questions. Each Question has 4 choices 1, 2, 3 & 4, out of which Only
One is Correct:
49. The state of matter which consists of super energetic particles in the form of ionized gases is called :
(1) Gaseous state (2) Liquid state
(3) Bose-Einstein condensate (4) Plasma state

50. When liquid starts boiling, further heat energy is supplied, which:
(1) Is lost to the surroundings
(2) Increases the temperature of the liquid
(3) Is absorbed as latent heat of fusion by the liquid.
(4) Is absorbed as latent heat of vaporization by the liquid.

51. Which of the following statements about evaporation is incorrect?

1. It is bulk phenomena. 2. It is a fast process.
3. It takes place at all temperatures below boiling point.
(1) 2 and 3 (2) 1 and 2 (3) 1 and 3 (4) Only 3

52. Which of the following process(es) release(s) heat?

1. Condensation 2. Vaporization
3. Freezing 4. Sublimation
(1) Only 1 (2) Only 4 (3) 1 and 3 (4) 2 and 4

53. Bose-Einstein condensate has:

(1) Very low kinetic energy (2) Medium kinetic energy
(3) High kinetic energy (4) Highest kinetic energy

54. Which of the following is most suitable clothing for summer?

(1) Nylon (2) Polyester (3) Silk (4) Cotton

55. If a substance is gas at room temperature, then :

I. Its boiling point is above room temperature
II. Its boiling point is below room temperature
III. Its melting point is above room temperature
IV. Its melting point is below room temperature
Which of the above statements are true?
(1) I, III (2) II, IV (3) I, IV (4) II, III

56. Which substance undergoes sublimation :

(1) Ice (2) Nitrogen (3) Chlorine (4) Ammonium Chloride

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

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SUBJECT III : BIOLOGY 32 MARKS

This Subject contains 8 Multiple Choice Questions. Each Question has 4 choices 1, 2, 3 & 4, out of which Only
One is Correct:
57. Which of the following cell organelle work as a garbage disposal system :
(1) Nucleolus (2) Mitochondria
(3) Endoplasmic reticulum (4) Lysosomes.

58. A cell swells up if :

(1) The concentration of water molecules in the cell is higher than the concentration of the water in
the surrounding medium
(2) The concentration of water molecules in the surrounding medium is higher than the concentration
of the water in the cell
(3) The concentration of the water molecule is the same
(4) Concentration of the water molecule does not matter.

59. Cell was discovered by :

(1) Robert hooke (2) Robert Brown (3) Purkinje (4) Darwin

60. Centriole in the cell is associated with :

(1) Spindle formation in the plants cell (2) Spindle formation in the animal cell
(3) Storage of ATP (4) Help in Protein Synthesis

61. Assertion: In unicellular organisms, no specific organs are required for taking in food, exchange of gases
or removal of wastes.
Reason: The entire surface of unicellular organisms is in contact with environment.
(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(2) Both A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation of A
(3) A is true but R is false
(4) A is false but R is true

62. Match the column:

I II
(a) hypertonic solution (i) Mitosis
(b) The process by which the old cells are replaces and (ii) Exosmosis
repair
(c) Plasmolysis (iii) Ribosome
(d) The formation of the gamete required for reproduction (iv) Concentrated sugar solution
(e) Protein synthesis in the cell (v) Meiosis
(1) (a-i), (b-iv), (c-iii), (d-v), (e-ii) (2) (a-iv), (b-i), (c-v), (d-ii), (e-iii)
(3) (a-iv), (b-i), (c-ii), (d-iii), (e-v) (4) (a-iv), (b-i), (c-ii), (d-v), (e-iii)

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63. Which of the following processes is taking place in the chloroplast shown in the diagram?

(1) Respiration (2) Photosynthesis

(3) Transpiration (4) Transporation

64. Mitochondria and chloroplast are similar as the :

(1) They have their cell wall
(2) They have their DNA and ribosomes
(3) They both are called the power house of the cell
(4) They both are called the kitchen of the plant

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

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SUBJECT IV: MATHEMATICS 64 MARKS

This Subject contains 16 Multiple Choice Questions. Each Question has 4 choices 1, 2, 3 & 4, out of which
Only One is Correct:

x
65. 2 x 3  2 x  112 then 3 is equal to :
(1) 81 (2) 9 (3) 27 (4) 3

1
66. x2  5x 1  0 then x 2  is equal to :
x2
(1) 25 (2) 23 (3) 26 (4) 27

67. If f ( x)  ( a  2) x3  (b  3) x 2  5 x  7 is a linear polynomial then (a  b)ab is equal to :

(1) 30 (2) 5 (3) 6 (4) Data is insufficient

68. Any quartic polynomial has :

(1) at most four real zeros (2) at least four real zeroes
(3) exactly four real zeroes (4) less than three real zeroes

1 1 1 2 2 2
69. a  b  c  2,    5 and 4abc  1 then a  b  c is equal to :
a b c
3 3
(1) (2) 3 (3) 6 (4)
2 4

70. If A  (1, 2), B  (0,  1) and C  (2, 5) then :

(1) triangle ABC is isosceles (2) triangle ABC is equilateral
(3) A, B and C are collinear (4) triangle ABC is scalene

71. If abscissae and ordinates of four distinct points are taken from the equations x 2  5 x  4  0 and
y 2  5 y  6  0 respectively then area of figure enclosed by four points is :
(1) 3 square units (2) 2 square units
(3) 4 square units (4) 6 square units

72. The value of 20  20  20  .... is equal to :

(1) 4 (2) 5 (3) 4 (4) 5

73. (5  2 6)3/2  (5  2 6)3/2 is equal to :

(1) 18 3 (2) 30 3 (3) 2 3 (4) 8 3

3x r
74. Suppose that y  and x y  y x . The quantity x  y can be expressed as a rational number , where r
4 s
and s are relatively prime positive integers. [ x , y are non-zero real numbers]
The value of (r  s ) is :
(1) 107
(2) 529
(3) 840
(4) cannot be determined from the given information

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 3 
75.   is equal to :
 5  2 1
3( 5  2  1) 3( 5  2  1)
(1) (2)
2( 2  1) 2(3  10)
( 30  3) ( 5  2  1)
(3) (4) None of these
2

76. The least common multiple of 0.3 and 0.5 is equal to :

(1) 0.15 (2) 0.15 (3) 0.6 (4) 1.6

77. On dividing (2 x3  7 x 2  5 x  10) by ( x 2  x  1) the remainder is Ax  B then :

(1) A  B  13 (2) AB  12 (3) A  B  11 (4) A2  B2  145

(5)0.25  (125) 0.25

78. The value of is:
(256) 0.10  (256) 0.15
5
(1) 1 (2) (3) 2 (4) none of these
4

1 2 1
79. If x   4, find value of x  2
x x
(1) 8 (2) 14 (3) 16 (4) 20

3 2
80. If both ( x  1) & ( x  1) are factors of ax  x  2x  b, then find 2a  b
(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 4

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

*** End of 3.0 Hour Review Test - 1 |Class - IX (2025) ***

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