BCI-OCT-21 AIBE-XVI ENGLISH-SET-A

1. How many kinds of presumptions are there period of one year or upwards after passing
as classified by the Supreme Court? of the decree.
a) Permissive presumptions or a) Does not permit any party to that
presumptions of facts b) Does not permit the party against whom

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b) Compelling presumptions or the
presumptions of law (rebuttable c) Does permit any party to that
presumptions) d) Does permit any person related to either
c) Irrebuttable presumptions of law or party to that
conclusive presumptions. 8. The offences under the Prohibition of Child
d) All of them Marriage Act, 2006 are ______.
2. What is the leading decision in the case of a) Cognizable and bailable
Menaka Gandhi Vs Union of India? b) Non cognizable and non-bailable
a) Right of hearing c) Cognizable and non-bailable
b) Separation of powers d) Non cognizable and bailable
c) Delegated legislation 9. In case of land acquisition by the Central
d) Rule of evidence Government for public-private partnership
3. Advocate's act 1961 came into force on: projects, consent of how many affected
a) 19th May, 1961 families is mandated by the LARR Act?
b) 19th April, 1961 a) 60%
c) 1st May, 1961 b) 70%
d) 19th January, 1961 c) 80%
4. Harbouring an offender who has escaped d) 90%
from custody, or whose apprehension has 10. A company which is not a domestic
been ordered, if the offence be capital is company will pay income tax at
dealt under the rate of:-
a) Section 215 of IPC a) 25 %
b) Section 216 of IPC b) 30%
c) Section 217 of IPC c) 40%
d) Section 218 of IPC d) 20%
5. The maxim ‘actus not facit reum nisi mens sit 11. As per section 53 of IPC, the word “injury”
rea’ means denotes any harm whatever illegally caused
a) There can be no crime without a guilty to any person’s
mind a) Body
b) Crime has to be coupled with guilty mind b) Mind
c) Crime is the result of guilty mind c) Reputation
d) In crime intention is relevant, motive is d) All above
irrelevant 12. Which of the following cases can be cured
6. Law laid down under section -73 of Indian under section 465 of the code of criminal
Contract Act 1872 is related to which of the procedure, 1973?
following cases: a) Entertaining of complaint without
a) Hothester Vs De-la-tur complying with section 195 and 340 of
b) Rabinson Vs Devison the Cr.P.C
c) Hedley Vs Baxendal b) The reading and recording of the
d) Dikinson Vs Dads evidence taken in one case into another
7. The Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 ________ companion case
petition in which a decree of restitution of c) The examination of witness in absence of
conjugal rights has been passed to apply to the accused
the court for a decree for divorce by showing d) Non Compliance with 235(2)
that there has been no restitution of conjugal 13. Which of the following statements hold true
rights as between parties of marriage for a for de nova trials?

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BCI-OCT-21 AIBE-XVI ENGLISH-SET-A

a) Omission or illegality in the procedure 20. Frustration of contract is provided by which

even if it does not affect the core of the section of the India contract Act?
case can become a ground for calling de a) Sec. 73
nova trials b) Sec. 70
b) A de nova trial should be the last resort c) Sec. 2(d)
c) the court originally trying the case can d) Sec. 56
order de nova trial 21. Schedule II of the Employees Compensation
d) None of these Act 1923 deals with
14. Protection against arrest and detention in a) Age factor for calculating the amount of
certain cases is mentioned in which of the compensation
following Articles of Indian Constitution? b) List of persons who are included in the
a) Article 21 definition of ‘Employee’
b) Article 21A c) List of occupational diseases
c) Article 22 d) List of injuries Deemed to Result in
d) Article 22A Permanent Total Disablement
15. Article 300A of Indian Constitution i.e. Right 22. Reference to the Arbitration is provided in
to property has been inserted in the which section of the Arbitration and
Constitution by ______ Conciliation Act, 1996
a) 44th Amendment Act a) Section 7
b) 42nd Amendment Act b) Section 8
c) 40th Amendment Act c) Section 9
d) 51st Amendment Act d) Section 10
16. Which of the following sections of the 23. Under the head subsequent conduct, which
Muslim Personal Law (Shariat) Application of the following type of conduct would be
Act, 1937 have been repealed/ amended by material?
section 6 of the Dissolution of Muslim a) Change of life
Marriage Act, 1939? b) Evasion of justice
a) Section 4 c) Fear, trembling
b) Section 5 d) All of them
c) Section 6 24. A plaint has to be presented to the Court
d) Section 7 under Order IV, Rule 1 in
17. A Railway servant was killed in a bus a) Single copy
accident during the course of employment. b) Duplicate
His family members may claim compensation c) Triplicate
under d) No fixed rule
a) The Motor Vehicle Act 25. Omission to give notice under Order XXI. Rule
b) The Employees Compensation Act, 1923 22 will
c) Both (a) and (b) a) Render the execution null and void
d) Either under (a) OR under (b) b) Render the execution irregular
18. “Casting Couch” in Bollywood, the Indian c) Render the execution voidable
film industry, is an example of- d) Not affect the execution
a) sexual assault 26. Where a decree is passed against the Union
b) sexual harassment of India or State for the Act done in the
c) both (a) and (b) official capacity of the person concerned,
d) None of the above under section 82 CPC, execution, shall not be
19. Promissory estoppel against Government issued on any such decree unless the decree
agencies is decided in: remains unsatisfied for a period of
a) Tweedle Vs Atkinson a) 3 months from the date of decree
b) Dutton Vs Poole b) 6 months from the date of the decree
c) Pournami all Mills Vs State of Kerala c) 1 year from the date of the decree
d) Kedar Nath Vs Gauri Mohamad d) 2 years from the date of decree

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BCI-OCT-21 AIBE-XVI ENGLISH-SET-A

27. Freedom of Residence under Article 19 of 34. Under which Section of IPC, Professional
that Indian Constitution is available in which Negligence is often invoked against medical
of the following clauses? professionals in cases alleging professional
a) Clause (1) (E) negligence?
b) Clause (1) (D) a) 303A
c) Clause (1) (B) b) 304A
d) Clause (1) (C) c) 302
28. Under which section of the Evidence Act, d) 305
admissions are defined? 35. A offers a bribe to B, a public servant, as a
a) 17 reward for showing A some favour in the
b) 16 exercise of B’s official functions. B accepts
c) 15 the bribe
d) 18 a) A has abetted the offence define in
29. In which of the following cases the Supreme Section 160, IPC
Court has held that the investigating officer b) A has abetted the offence define in
should be allowed to refer to the records of Section 161, IPC
investigation c) A has abetted the offence define in
a) State of Karnataka Vs Yarappa Reddi Section 162, IPC
b) Mohammed Khalid Vs State of West d) A has abetted the offence define in
Bengal Section 163, IPC
c) Baburam Vs State of U.P. 36. When Perpetual Injunction may be granted-
d) State of Rajasthan Vs Om prakash a) Where the defendant is trustee of the
30. Recovery of Specific Immovable Property Property for the plaintiff.
may be obtained by C.P.C within what period- b) Where there is no standard for
a) Within 7 months ascertaining the actual damage.
b) Within 6 months c) Compensation in money would not afford
c) Within 8 months adequate relief.
d) Within 10 months d) All of the above.
31. Who appoints the Commissioner for 37. A company wishes to ensure that no one else
rehabilitation and resettlement under the can use their logo.
LARR Act? a) Copy rights
a) LARR Authority b) Trade mark
b) Minister of Environment and Forests c) Patent
c) Central Government d) Industrial designs
d) State Government 38. The Section of the Arbitration and
32. If a party who obtained an order for leave to Conciliation Act, dealing with the time of
amend pleading does not amend the same commencement of arbitral proceeding is
within how many days, he shall not be a) Section 20
permitted to do that without the leave of the b) Section 21
Court c) Section 22
a) Fifteen days d) None of the above
b) Fourteen days 39. Amount of deduction under section 24 of The
c) Twenty days Income Tax Act from annual value is —
d) Thirty days a) ½ of Annual Value
33. Punishment of advocates for misconduct has b) 1/3 of Annual Value
been given under section of the Advocate's c) 3/10 of Annual Value
Act - 1961 d) 17/10 of Annual Value
a) 30 40. The test of reasonableness is not wholly
b) 32 _______ test and its contours are Fairley
c) 35 indicated by constitution.
d) None a) Subjective

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BCI-OCT-21 AIBE-XVI ENGLISH-SET-A

b) Objective a) Directory
c) Descriptive b) Mandatory
d) Summative c) None- Mandatory
41. The power to enact a law relating to the d) Discretionary
citizenship of India is left to ______ under the 48. Constructive res-judicata is contained in
provisions of Article 11 of the Indian which of the following?
Constitution. a) Explanation III to Section 11
a) President b) Explanation IV to Section 11
b) Council of ministers c) Explanation VI to Section 11
c) House of people d) Explanation VIII to Section 11
d) Parliament 49. The famous pronouncement of Delhi High
42. The payment of compensation to railway Court regarding constitutional validity of
employees by the railway administration for section 377 Indian Penal Code reversed by
injuryby accident is governed by: Supreme Court in:
a) The Employees Compensation Act, 1923 a) NALSA Vs Union of India
b) The payment of Wages Act, 1936 b) Naz Foundation Vs Government of NCT of
c) Rights of Persons with Disabilities Act, Delhi
2016 c) Shabnam Hasmi Vs Union of India
d) The Workmen Compensation Act, 1986 d) Suresh Kaushal Vs Naz Foundation.
43. The minimum amount of compensation 50. Under Criminal procedure Code 1973, who
payable under Employees Compensation shall record the information of rape being
Act, 1923 in case of total permanent given by a rape victim?
disablement of a railway servant due to a) Officer in-charge of the police station
accident is Rs . b) Deputy Superintendent of police
c) Officer not below the rank of Sub
a) Rs 80,000/-
Inspector
b) Rs 90,000/-
d) Woman police officer or any Woman
c) Rs 1,40,000/-
officer
d) Rs 1,20,000/- 51. Under the provision of the code of criminal
44. The Bond under section 109 Cr.P.C as security
procedure, 1973
for good behaviour from suspected person
a) Summons can be oral
can be executed for a period not exceeding:
b) Summons cannot be served on corporate
a) Six months
entities
b) Two years
c) Summons are either for appearance or for
c) One year
producing a document/thing
d) Three months d) Summons can be served to servants in
45. The maximum limit of Rs. 500 that could be case the person on whose name summons
paid to the wife as maintenance under are made cannot be found
Section 125 of the Cr.P.C 1973 was removed 52. Every person who is a member or a defence
in: service or hold a any civil post under the
a) 1973
Union, holds office during the pleasure of the
b) 1989
_______
c) 2001
a) Prime Minister
d) 2007
b) President
46. The term ‘WIPO” stands for:
c) Council of Minister
a) World Investment policy organization d) Both (A) and (B)
b) World intellectual property organization 53. An arbitration proceeding is a:
c) Wildlife Investigation and Policing a) Judicial proceeding
organization b) Quasi-judicial proceeding
d) World institute for Prevention of c) Administrative proceeding
organized crime
d) None of the above
47. Provisions of Section 10 of CPC are:

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BCI-OCT-21 AIBE-XVI ENGLISH-SET-A

54. What is ad hoc arbitration? d) Shamsher singh bedi Vs High court of

a) It is a proceeding administered by the Punjab & Haryana, (1996) 7 SCC 99.
parties themselves, with rules created 59. Section 8 of the companies act, 2013 contains
solely, for that specific case provision relating to
b) Parties make their own arrangement with a) incorporation of company
respect to all aspects of the arbitration, b) formation of companies with charitable
including the laws and rules objects, etc
c) The seal of arbitration, the language, and c) effect of registration
the scope and issues to be resolved by d) Effect of memorandum and articles.
means of arbitration. 60. The verification of the registered office shall
d) (a) (b) (c) be furnished to the registrar within a period
55. Which of the following Sections of the Civil of incorporation
Procedure Code define the ‘ Mesne Profit’ ? a) 30 days
a) Section 2(4) b) 60 days
b) Section 2(14) c) 90 days
c) Section 2(6) d) 120 days
d) Section 2(12) 61. Cyber law deals with
56. On which of the following dates did Hindu a) All activities concerning the internet
Marriage Act, 1955 come into operation? b) IPR
a) May, 1955 c) E-commerce
b) June, 1955 d) All of the above
c) May, 1955 62. According to section 2 of motor vehicles Act,
d) June, 1955 1988 the term motor cab means any motor
57. Which of the following properties will section vehicle constructed or adapted to carry not
30 of the Hindu Succession Act, 1956, more than
govern? a) 5 passengers or including the driver
I. Tarwad b) 6 passengers or including the driver
II. Tavazhi c) 5 passengers or excluding the driver
III. Kutumba d) 6 passengers or excluding the driver
IV. Kavaru 63. The National Commission of Consumer
V. Illom Protection is composed of-
a) I, III, and V a) 7 members ;
b) II, IV and V b) 5 members ;
c) I and II c) 8 members ;
d) All of the above d) 6 members ;
58. An advocate is under an obligation to uphold 64. Which of the following statement/
the rule of law and ensure that the pubic statements is/are false for the purpose of the
justice system is enabled to function at its full Hindu Marriage Act, 1955?
potential. Any violation of the principle of I. It is assumed that a person who is not
professional ethic by an advocate is Muslim, Santhal, Christian, Jew or Parsi
unfortunate and unacceptable. Ignoring even by religion is Hindu
a minor violation/misconduct militates II. A person who belongs to Lingayat sub
against the fundamental foundation of the sect is assumed to be Hindu
public justice system. It was said in- III. A person converted who converted to
a) Hikmant ali khan Vs Ishwar prasad Arya, another religion needs to follow local
1997 3 SCC 131 ritual/ custom for converting back to
b) O.P. Sharma Vs high court of Punjab & Hinduism
Haryana, (2011) 6 SCC 86 a) I only
c) L.D. Jaikwal Vs state of Uttar Pradesh, b) I and II
(1984) 3 SCC 405 c) III only
d) I and III

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BCI-OCT-21 AIBE-XVI ENGLISH-SET-A

65. Provision for settlement of dispute outside d) The control of transboundary

court has been provided under Section.......... movement of Hazardous waste and
of Civil Procedure Code. their disposal.
a) 91 71. Cyber crime is ________ in nature
b) 89 a) Tangible
c) 51 b) Intangible
d) 151 c) Of mental Violence
66. The Indian Evidence Act came into force on d) None of the above
a) 6th October, 1860 72. Health and education cess is applicable to
b) 1st March, 1974 —
c) 15th March, 1872 a) All assesses
d) 1st September, 1872 b) All assesses except company
67. According to the provisions of Article 315 of c) Individual / HUF
the Indian Constitution: d) Company only
I. There shall be a public service 73. Contractual Liability arises , where:
commission for the Union and a Public a) There is offer and acceptance only.
Service commission for each state. b) There is intention to create legal relation.
II. The public service commission for the c) There is loss to one party
Union, if requested to do by the governor d) The loss of one party is the gain of other
of a state may, with the approval of the party.
president, agree to serve all or any of the 74. The rule of Strict Liability is based on the
needs of the state. decision in :-
Which of the above statements is/are correct? a) Donoghue Vs Stevenson
a) Only I b) Homes Vs Ashford
b) Only II c) Rylands Vs Fletcher
c) I and II d) None of the above
d) None of them 75. The Rule of Last opportunity was Laid
68. Which of the following sections of the Hindu down in :-
Adoption and Maintenance Act, 1956 deals a) Davies Vs Manh
with “amount of maintenance”? b) State of A.P. Vs Ranganna
a) Section 21 c) Nugent Vs Smith.
b) Section 22 d) Kalawati Vs state of HP
c) Section 23 76. In which of the following cases was it held
d) Section 24 that “the rights conferred under section 25 of
69. In which of the following case the the Hindu Adoption and Maintenance Act,
Supreme Court First of all made an attempt 1956 supersedes any contract to the contrary.
to look into the question regarding the The fact that the date of decree makes no
extension of the right to life to the right difference”?
to Health and other Hygienic conditions — a) Surenderabal Vs Suppiah
a) The Rural Litigation and Entitlement b) Mukesh teli Vs Bharti Teli
Kendra Vs State of Uttar Pradesh. c) Sesi Ammal Vs Thaiyu Ammal
b) M.C Mehta Vs Union of India d) Laxmi Vs Krishna
c) V. Lakshmipathy Vs State of Karnataka 77. The phrase “file a PIL, ostensibly in public
d) F.K. Hussain Vs Union of India. interest but, in fact, to serve personal or
70. Basel Convention is associated with one of private interests” means -
the following — a) filing PIL for protection of only public
a) International Trade in Endangered interest
species of wild Fauna & flora b) filing PIL for protection of both public
b) Climate change and private interest
c) Protection of Ozone layer c) filing PIL for protection of only private
interest

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BCI-OCT-21 AIBE-XVI ENGLISH-SET-A

d) filing PIL alleging it to be in public d) Commits offence in his presence or is a

interest but actually seeking protection proclaimed offender
of private interest 84. How long a warrant of arrest shall remain in
78. Filing of frivolous PILs results in- force?
a) increasing backlog of cases a) 6 years
b) wastage of resources b) 10 years
c) lesser availability of time for hearing c) 12 years
other genuine cases d) Until executed or cancelled
d) All of the above 85. Rate of additional Depreciation will be-----
79. Z, under the influence of madness, attempts under section 32- Indian Income Tax Act
to kill X. Is Z guilty of an offence. Has X the a) 10 %
same right of private defence which he would b) 20 %
have if Z were sane? c) 15 %
a) Z has not committed any offence as per d) 30 %
section 98 of IPC and same right of 86. The Committee which led to the passing of
private defence to X if Z is mad the Criminal Law (Amendment) Act, 2013 was
b) As per Section 98 of IPC, X has committed headed by
an offence and no right of private a) Justice Dalveer Bhandari
defence to X b) Justice Altamas Kabir
c) Z has committed an offence for not using c) Justice J.S. Verma
his mind d) Justice A.S. Anand
d) None above 87. Under the scheme of Criminal Procedure
80. Admission can be broadly categorised into: Code, non-cognizable offences are:
a) Judicial a) Public wrongs
b) Extra- judicial b) Private wrongs
c) Either A and B c) Both public and private wrongs
d) Both A and B d) None of the above
81. Section 66, Indian Evidence Act lays down: 88. A discrimination against a man or a woman,
a) A notice must be given before secondary only on grounds of _______ would be
evidence can be received under section violative of Article 15(1)
65 (a), Indian Evidence Act a) Sex
b) Notice to produce a document must be in b) Remuneration
writing c) Place of birth
c) Order XI, Rules 15, of Civil Procedure d) Religion
Code, prescribes the kind of notice to 89. The “Objective Resolution“ adopted by the
produce a document constituent assembly on January 22 , 1947
d) All of them was drafted by
82. Maxim "Res Ipsa Loquitur" means :- a) Jawaharlal Nehru
a) The thing speaks for itself b) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
b) Where there is right there is remedy c) Dr. Rajendra Prashad
c) Where there is remedy there is right d) B.N. Rao
d) Where there is no fault there is no 90. Right to the property was eliminated from
remedy the list of Fundamental Rights during the
83. Any private person may arrest any person tenure of
who: a) Indira Gandhi
a) Commits non-bailable offence in his b) Charan Singh
presence c) Rajiv Gandhi
b) Commits non- bailable offence and d) Morarji Desai
cognizable offence in his presence 91. When the accused states, "I will produce the
c) Commits compoundable offence in his share which I gave received in such and such
presence robbery" which of the following are not

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BCI-OCT-21 AIBE-XVI ENGLISH-SET-A

admissible with regard to Section 25, Indian 98. What is meant by procedural ultra-vires?
Evidence Act? a) It is the non-observance of the
I. An admission that there was a robbery procedural norms by the rule-making
II. An admission that the accused took part authority

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in it b) It may make the rule ultra vires due to
III. An admission that he got part of the non-observance of rule-making authority
property and hence become void
IV. A statement as to where the property is c) It means the lacuna in the procedure of
a) I, II and III law
b) III and IV d) (a) and (b)
c) II, III and IV 99. The ground of “error of law apparent on the
d) All of them face of the record” is connected with which
92. The maximum limit of the members of the of the writ?
state bar council: a) Quo-warranto
a) 15 b) Mandamus
b) 20 c) Habeas Corpus
c) 25 d) Certiorari
d) None. 100. Under Civil Procedure Code find the
93. Specific Relief Act 1963 contains- incorrect match:
a) 6 chapters and 40 Sections a) Section 5............ Revenue Court
b) 7 chapters and 42 Sections b) Section 7............ Provincial Small Causes
c) 8 chapters and 43 Sections Court
d) 8 chapters and 44 Sections c) Section 9............ Pecuniary Jurisdiction of
94. What is the Period of Limitation for Courts
expeditious disposal of Suit under Specific d) Section 8............ Presidency Small Cause
Relief Act 1963: Courts
a) 6 month
b) 10 month
c) 12 month
d) 18 month
95. A Chief Judicial Magistrate may pass a
sentence of imprisonment
a) Not exceeding seven years
b) Exceeding seven years
c) For life
d) None of the above
96. Under Civil Procedure Code, 1908 “Foreign
Court” means
a) A court situated outside India
b) A court situated outside India and not
established under the authority of
Government of India
c) A court situated in India, applying foreign
law
d) All of the above
97. Misuse of mechanism of PILs means-
a) filing PILs for protection of private
interest
b) filing PILs for oblique motive
c) filing PILs only for publicity
d) All of the above

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