Soal TOEFL Tentang Structure and Written Expression

Time: 25 minutes
This section tests your ability to recognize grammar and usage suitable for standard
written English. This section is divided into two parts, each with its own directions.

Structure
Directions: Items in this part are incomplete sentences. Following each of these
sentences, there are four words or phrases. You should select the one word or phrase-
(A), (B), (C), or (D)-that best completes the sentence. Then fill in the space on your
answer sheet that matches the letter of the answer that you have selected.

Example 1
Pepsin __ an enzyme used in digestion.
(A) that
(B) is
(C) of
(D) being
This sentence should properly read “Pepsin is an enzyme used in digestion.” You should
fill in (B) on your answer sheet.
Example II
__ large natural lakes are found in the state of South Carolina.
(A) There are no
(B) Not the
(C) It is not
(D) No
This sentence should properly read “No large natural lakes are found in the state of
South Carolina.” You should fill in (D) on your answer sheet.
As soon as you understand the directions, begin work on this part.

1. _ team sports require cooperation.

(A) Of all
(B) They are all
(C) All
(D) Why are all
2. Anyone who has ever pulled weeds from a garden _ roots firmly anchor plants to the soil.
(A) is well aware of
(B) is well aware that
(C) well aware
(D) well aware that
3. Centuries of erosion have exposed __ rock surfaces in the Painted Desert of northern Arizona.
(A) in colors of the rainbow
(B) colored like a rainbow
(C) rainbow-colored
(D) a rainbow’s coloring
4. The higher the temperature of a molecule, _
(A) the more energy it has
(B) than it has more energy
(C) more energy has it
(D) it has more energy
5. Frontier surgeon Ephraim MacDonald had to perform operations _ anesthesia.
(A) no
(B) not having
(C) without
(D) there wasn’t
6. __ young, chimpanzees are easily trained.
(A) When are
(B) When
(C) They are
(D) When they
7. A person of __ age may suffer from defects of vision.
(A) every
(B) some
(C) certain
(D) any
8. __ have settled, one of their first concerns has been to locate an adequate water supply.
(A) Wherever people
(B) There are people who
(C) Whether people
(D) People
9. If a bar magnet is _, the two pieces form two complete magnets, each with a north and south pole.
(A) broken
(B) broke
(C) breaking
(D) break
10. The type of plant and animal life living in and around a pond depends on the soil of the pond, _ , and the
pond’s location.
(A) what the quality of the water is
(B) how is the water quality
(C) the quality of the water
(D) what is the water quality
11. Clifford Holland, _ civil engineer, was in charge of the construction of the first tunnel under the Hudson
River.
(A) he was a
(B) a
(C) being a
(D) who, as a
12. _ parrots are native to tropical regions is untrue.
(A) That all
(B) All
(C) Why all
(D) Since all
13. A major concern among archaeologists today is the preservation of archaeological sites, _ are threatened
by development.
(A) of which many
(B) many of them
(C) which many
(D) many of which
14. In 1775 Daniel Boone opened the Wilderness Trail and made the first settlements _ in Kentucky.
(A) possibly it was
(B) as possible
(C) possible
(D) it possible
 15. Rarely _ seen far from water.
(A) spotted turtles
(B) spotted turtles are
(C) have spotted turtles
(D) are spotted turtles
Written Expression
Directions: The items in this part have four underlined words or phrases, (A), (B), (C),
and (D). You must identify the one underlined expression that must be changed for the
sentence to be correct. Then find the number of the question on your answer sheet and
fill in the space corresponding to the letter.

Example 1
Lenses may to have either concave or convex shapes.
(A) to have
(B) concave
(C) or
(D) shapes
This sentence should read “Lenses may have either concave or convex shapes.” You
should therefore select answer (A).
Example II
When painting a fresco, an artist is applied paint directly to the damp plaster of a wall.
(A) When
(B) is applied
(C) directly
(D) of a wall
This sentence should read “When painting a fresco, an artist applies paint directly to the
damp plaster of a wall.” You should therefore select answer (B).
As soon as you understand the directions, begin work on this section.

16. Ceramics can be harder, light, and more resistant to heat than metals.
A = light
B = resistant
C = heat
D = metals
17. Not everyone realizes that the most largest organ of the human body is the skin.
A = Not everyone
B = that
C = most largest
D = human
18. Mold is extremely destruction to books in a library.
A = extremely
B = destruction
C = to books
D = a library.
19. Sidney Lanier achieved fame both as a poet or as a symphony musician.
A = achieved
B = as a
C = or
D = musician.
20. The horses used play polo are not of any special breed or of any definite size.
A = The horses
 B = play
C = special
D = definite
21. A tapestry consists of a foundation weave, called the warp, which across are passed different colored
threads, called the weft, forming decorative patterns.
A = consists of
B = which
C = colored
D = patterns.
22. The works of early American woodcarvers had many artistic qualities, but these craftsmen probably did
not think of them as artists.
A = works
B = had many
C = did not
D = them
23. Perhaps mankind’s first important musical influence were the songs of birds.
A = first
B = musical
C = were
D = birds
24. The techniques of science and magic are quite different, but their basic aims-to understand and control
nature-they are very similar.
A = magic
B = different
C = to understand
D = they are
25. It was in a cave near Magdalena, New Mexico, when the oldest known ears of cultivated corn were
discovered.
A = when
B = oldest
C = known
D = discovered.
26. The fossil remains of much extinct mammals have been found in the tar pits at Rancho La Brea in Los
Angeles.
A = much
B = mammals
C = found
D = in
27. Sharks can detect minute electrical discharges coming from its prey.
A = can detect
B = electrical
C = coming
D = its
28. A dark nebula consists of a cloud of interstellar dust enough dense to obscure the stars beyond it.
A = a cloud of
B = enough dense
C = to obscure
D = beyond
29. Commercially honey is heated and filtered in order to stabilize and clarify it.
A = Commercially
B = filtered
C = stabilize
D = it
30. The various parts of the body require so different surgical skills that many surgical specialties have
developed.
A = various
B = so
C = surgical
D = many
31. One reason birds have been so successful is because of their able to escape from danger quickly.
A = have been
B = because of
C = able
D = able
32. The wood of the rosewood tree is used to do fine musical instruments.
A = wood
B = is used
C = do
D = musical
33. Chemical engineering is based on the principles of physics, chemists, and mathematics.
A = on
B = principles
C = chemists
D = mathematics.
34. Ballet performers must be believable actors and actresses as well as experts dancers.
A = must be
B = actors
C = as well
D = experts
35. Venus, the second planet from the Sun, is exactly almost the same size as the Earth.
A = the second
B = from
C = exactly almost
D = same size as
36. P T. Barnum opened his own circus in 1871 and become the most famous showman of his time.
A = his own
B = become
C = most famous
D = time
37. The way a child plays with other children reveals a lots about the child’s emotional development.
A = plays with
B = a lots
C = the child’s
D = development.
38. Sheep have been domesticated for over 5,000 years ago.
A = have been
B = domesticated
C = over
D = years ago.
39. Chemical compounds with barium, cobalt, and strontium are responsible to many of the vivid colors in
fireworks.
A = with
B = are
C = to
D = colors
 40. Duke University in North Carolina has an outstanding collecting of documents concerning Southern
history.
A = has
B = collecting
C = concerning
D = history.
THIS IS THE END OF SECTION 2.
IF YOU FINISH BEFORE TIME IS CALLED, CHECK YOUR WORK ON SECTION 2 ONLY. DO
NOT READ jOR WORK ON ANY OTHER SECTION OF THE TEST.

Soal TOEFL Tentang Reading Comprehension

Reading Comprehension Time: 55 minutes
This section of the test measures your ability to comprehend written materials.

Directions: This section contains several passages, each followed by a number of

questions. Read the passages and, for each question, choose the one best answer-(A),
(B), (C), or (D)-based on what is stated in the passage or on what can be inferred from
the passage. Then fill in the space on your answer sheet that matches the letter of the
answer that you have selected.
Read the following passage:

Like mammals, birds claim their own territories. A

bird’s territory may be small or large. Some birds
claim only their nest and the area right around it,
while others claim far larger territories that include
their feeding areas. Gulls, penguins, and other waterfowl (line (5)
nest in huge colonies, but even in the biggest colonies,
each male and his mate have small territories of their

Male birds defend their territory chiefly against other

 males of the same species. In some cases, a warning call (line 10)
or threatening pose may be all the defense needed, but in
other cases, intruders may refuse to leave peacefully.

Example 1
What is the main topic of this passage?
(A) Birds that live in colonies
(B) Birds’mating habits (C)
The behavior of birds
(D) Territoriality in birds

The passage mainly concerns the territories of birds. You should fill in (D) on your
answer sheet.

Example II
According to the passage, male birds defend their territory primarily against ___
(A) female birds
(B) birds of other species
(C) males of their own species
(D) mammals

The passage states that “Male birds defend their territory chiefly against other males of
the same species.” You should fill in (C) on your answer sheet. As soon as you
understand the directions, begin work on this section.

Questions 1-11
The Sun today is a yellow dwarf star. It is fueled by
thermonuclear reactions near its center that convert hydrogen to
 helium. The Sun has existed in its present state for about 4
billion, 600 million years and is thousands of times larger than (line 5)
the Earth.

By studying other stars, astronomers can predict what the rest

of the Sun’s life will be like. About 5 billion years from now,
the core of the Sun will shrink and become hotter. The surface
temperature will fall. The higher temperature of the center will
increase the rate of thermonuclear reactions. The outer regions of (line 10)
the Sun will expand approximately 35 million miles, about the
distance to Mercury, which is the closest planet to the Sun. The
Sun will then be a red giant star. Temperatures on the Earth will
become too hot for life to exist.

Once the Sun has used up its thermonuclear energy as a red giant, (line 15)
it will begin to shrink. After it shrinks to the size of the Earth,
it will become a white dwarf star. The Sun may throw off huge
amounts of gases in violent eruptions called nova explosions as it
changes from a red giant to a white dwarf.

After billions of years as a white dwarf, the Sun will have used (line 20)
up all its fuel and will have lost its heat. Such a star is called
a black dwarf. After the Sun has become a black dwarf, the Earth
 will be dark and cold. If any atmosphere remains there, it will
have frozen onto the Earth’s surface.

1. What is the primary purpose of this passage?

(A) To alert people to the dangers posed by the Sun
(B) To discuss conditions on Earth in the far future
(C) To present a theory about red giant stars
 (D) To describe changes that the Sun will go through

2. The word “fueled” in line 1 is closest in meaning to ___

(A) powered
(B) bombarded
(C) created
 (D) propelled

3. The word “state” in line 3 is closest in meaning to ___

(A) shape
(B) condition
(C) location
(D) size

4. It can be inferred from the passage that the Sun ___

(A) is approximately halfway through its life as a yellow dwarf
(B) has been in existence for 10 billion years
(C) is rapidly changing in size and brightness
(D) will continue as a yellow dwarf for another 10 billion years

5. What will probably be the first stage of change as the Sun becomes a red giant? ___
(A) Its core will cool off and use less fuel.
(B) Its surface will become hotter and shrink.
(C) It will throw off huge amounts of gases.
(D) Its center will grow smaller and hotter.

6. When the Sun becomes a red giant, what will conditions be like on Earth? ___
(A) Its atmosphere will freeze and become solid.
(B) It will be enveloped in the expanding surface of the Sun.
(C) It will become too hot for life to exist.
(D) It will be nearly destroyed by nova explosions.

7. As a white dwarf, the Sun will be ___

(A) the same size as the planet Mercury
(B) thousands of times smaller than it is today
(C) around 35 million miles in diameter
(D) cold and dark

8. According to the passage, which of the following best describes the sequence of
stages that the Sun will probably pass through? ___
(A) Yellow dwarf, white dwarf, red giant, black giant
(B) Red giant, white dwarf, red dwarf, nova explosion
(C) Yellow dwarf, red giant, white dwarf, black dwarf
(D) White dwarf, red giant, black dwarf, yellow dwarf

9. The phrase “throw off” in line 17 is closest in meaning to ___

(A) eject
(B) burn up
(C) convert
(D) let in
10. The word “there” in line 23 refers to ___
 (A) our own planet
(B) the outer surface of the Sun
(C) the core of a black dwarf
(D) the planet Mercury

11. Which of the following best describes the tone of the passage?
(A) Alarmed
(B) Pessimistic
(C) Comic
 (D) Objective

Questions 12-23
It is said that George Washington was one of the first to realize
how important the building of canals would be to the nation’s
development. In fact, before he became President, he headed the
 first company in the United States to build a canal which was to
connect the Ohio and Potomac rivers. It was never completed, but it (line 5)
showed the nation the feasibility of canals. As the country
 expanded westward, settlers in western New York, Pennsylvania, and
 Ohio needed a means to ship goods. Canals linking natural waterways
 seemed to offer an effective solution.

In 1791 engineers commissioned by the state of New York (line 10)

investigated the possibility of a canal between Albany on the
Hudson River and Buffalo on Lake Erie, which would link the Great
 Lakes area with the Atlantic seacoast. It would avoid the
mountains that served as a barrier to canals from the Delaware
and Potomac rivers. (line 15)

 The first attempt to dig the canal, to be called the Erie Canal,
was made by private companies, but only a comparatively small
portion was built before the project was halted for lack of funds.
The cost of the project was an estimated five million dollars, an
enormous amount for those days. There was some on-again-off again (line 20)
 Federal funding, but the War of 1812 put an end to this. In 1817
DeWitt Clinton was elected Governor of New York and persuaded the
 state to finance and build the canal. It was completed in 1825,
costing two million dollars more than expected.

The canal rapidly lived up to its sponsors’ faith, quickly paying (line 25)
for itself through tolls. It was far more economical than any other
 form of transportation at the time. It permitted trade between the
Great Lake region and East Coast, robbing the Mississippi River of
 much of its traffic. It allowed New York to supplant Boston,
Philadelphia, and other Eastern cities as the chief center of both (line 30)
domestic and foreign commerce. Cities sprang up along the canal. It also contributed in
a number of ways to the North’s victory over the South in the Civil War.
An expansion of the canal was planned in 1849. Increased traffic
would undoubtedly have warranted its construction had it not been
for the development of the railroads.

12. Why does the author most likely mention George Washington in the first
paragraph?
 (A) He was President at the time the Erie Canal was built.
 (B) He was involved in pioneering efforts to build canals.
(C) He successfully opened the first canal in the United States.
 (D) He commissioned engineers to study the possibility of building the Erie Canal.

13. The word “feasibility” in line 6 is closest in meaning to ___

(A) profitability
(B) difficulty
(C) possibility
(D) capability

14. According to the passage, the Erie Canal connected the ___
(A) Potomac and Ohio rivers
(B) Hudson River and Lake Erie
(C) Delaware and Potomac rivers
(D) Atlantic Ocean and the Hudson River

15. Which of the following is closest in meaning to the word “comparatively” in line 17?
(A) Relatively
(B) Contrarily
(C) Incredibly
 (D) Considerably

16. The phrase “on-again-off-again” in line 20 could be replaced by which of the

 following with the least change in meaning?
(A) Intermittent
(B) Unsolicited
(C) Ineffectual
(D) Gradual

17. The completion of the Erie Canal was financed by ___

(A) the state of New York
 (B) private companies
(C) the federal government
(D) DeWitt Clinton

18. The actual cost of building the Erie Canal was ___
(A) five million dollars
(B) less than had been estimated
(C) seven million dollars
(D) more than could be repaid
19. The word “tolls” in line 26 is closest in meaning to which of the following?
 (A) Jobs
(B) Grants
(C) Links
(D) Fees

20. Which of the following is NOT given in the fourth paragraph as an effect of the
building of the Erie Canal?
(A) It allowed the East Coast to trade with the Great Lakes area.
(B) It took water traffic away from the Mississippi River.
(C) It helped determine the outcome of the Civil War.
 (D) It established Boston and Philadelphia as the most important centers of trade.

21. What can be inferred about railroads in 1849 from the information in the last
paragraph?
 (A) They were being planned but had not yet been built.
 (B) They were seriously underdeveloped.
(C) They had begun to compete with the Erie Canal for traffic.
(D) They were weakened by the expansion of the canal.

22. The word “warranted” in line 35 is closest in meaning to ___

(A) guaranteed
(B) justified
(C) hastened
(D) prevented

23. At what point in the passage does the author focus on the beginning of construction
of the Erie Canal? ___
(A) Lines 3-5
(B) Lines 10-13
(C) Lines 16-18
(D) Lines 25-26

Questions 24-33          

It’s a sound you will probably never hear, a sickened tree
sending out a distress signal. But a group of scientists has heard
the cries, and they think some insects also hear the trees and are
drawn to them like vultures to a dying animal.

Researchers with the u.s. Department of Agriculture’s Forest (line 5)

 Service fastened sensors to the bark of parched trees and
 clearly heard distress calls. According to one of the scientists,
most drought-stricken trees transmit their plight in the 50- to 500
kilohertz range. (The unaided human ear can detect no more than
20 kilohertz.) Red oak, maple, white pine, and birch all make (line 10)
 slightly different sounds in the form of vibrations at the surface of the wood.
            The scientists think that the vibrations are created when
the water columns inside tubes that run the length of the tree break,
a result of too little water flowing through them. These fractured (line 15)
columns send out distinctive vibration patterns. Because some
insects communicate at ultrasonic frequencies, they may pick up the
 trees’ vibrations and attack the weakened trees. Researchers are
 now running tests with potted trees that have been deprived of
water to see if the sound is what attracts the insects. “Water (line 20)
stressed trees also smell differently from other trees, and they
 experience thermal changes, so insects could be responding to
something other than sound,” one scientist said.

24. Which of the following is the main topic of the passage?

(A) The vibrations produced by insects
(B) The mission of the U.S. Forest Service
(C) The effect of insects on trees
(D) The sounds made by distressed trees

25. The word “them” in line 4 refers to ___

(A) trees
(B) scientists
(C) insects
(D) cries

26. The word “parched” in line 6 is closest in meaning to which of the following?
(A) Burned (B) Dehydrated CC) Recovered (D) Fallen

27, The word “plight” in line 8 is closest in meaning to ___

(A) signal
(B) condition
(C) need
(D) agony

28. It can be inferred from the passage that the sounds produced by the trees ___
(A) serve as a form of communication with other trees
(B) are the same no matter what type of tree produces them
(C) cannot be heard by the unaided human ear
(D) fall into the 1-20 kilohertz range

29, The word “fractured” in line 15 is closest in meaning to ___

(A) long
(B) blocked
(C) hollow
(D) broken

30. Which of the following could be considered a cause of the trees’ distress signals?
(A) Torn roots
(B) Attacks by insects
 (C) Experiments by scientists
(D) Lack of water

31. In line 17, the phrase “pick up” could best be replaced by which of the following?
(A) Perceive
(B) Lift
(C) Transmit
(D) Attack

32. All of the following are mentioned as possible factors in drawing insects to
weakened trees EXCEPT ___
(A) thermal changes
(B) smells
(C) sounds
 (D) changes in color

33. It can be inferred that, at the time the passage was written, research concerning
the distress signals of trees ___
(A) had been conducted many years earlier
(B) had been unproductive up to then
(C) was continuing
(D) was no longer sponsored by the government

Questions 34–41  
The concepts of analogy and homology are probably easier to
exemplify than to define. When different species are structurally
compared, certain features can be described as either analogous or
homologous. For example, flight requires certain rigid aeronautical
 principles of design, yet birds, bats, and insects have all (line 5)
conquered the air. The wings of all three types of animals derive
from different embryological structures, but they perform the same
functions. In this case, the flight organs of these creatures can
 be said to be analogous. In contrast, features that arise from the
same structures in the embryo but are used in different functions are said to be
homologous. The pectoral fins of a fish, the wings of a bird, and the forelimbs of a
mammal are all homologous structures. They are genetically related in the sense that
both the forelimb and the wing evolved from the fin.

34. Which of the following best describes the organization of the passage?
(A) A contrast is drawn between two concepts by means of examples.
(B) A general concept is introduced, examples are given, and a conclusion is offered.
(C) Two definitions of the same concept are compared.
(D) Two proposals are suggested and support for both is offered.

35. According to the passage, the concepts of analogy and homology are ___
(A) difficult to understand
(B) easier to understand through examples than through definitions
(C) impossible to explain
(D) simple to define but hard to apply

36. The word “rigid” in line 4 is closest in meaning to ___

(A) inflexible
(B) ideal
(C) unnatural
(D) steep

37. According to the information provided in the passage, which of the following would
most probably be considered analogous?
(A) A shark’s fin and a tiger’s claws
(B) A man’s arms and a bird’s wings
(C) A monkey’s tail and an elephant’s tail
(D) A spider’s legs and a horse’s legs

38. According to the passage, one way in which homologous organs differ from
analogous organs is that they ___
(A) are genetically related
(B) are only found in highly developed animals
(C) perform the same general functions
(D) come from different embryological structures

39. As used throughout the passage, the term “structures” most nearly means ___
(A) buildings
(B) features of an animal’s anatomy
(C) organizational principles
(D) units of grammar

40. The word “sense” in line 13 is closest in meaning to ___

(A) feeling
(B) logic
(C) meaning
(D) perception

41. Where in the passage does the author first focus his discussion on the concept of
homology? (A) Lines 2-4
(B) Lines 6-8
(C) Lines 9-1 1
(D) Lines 13-14

Questions 42-50
Probably the most famous film commenting on twentieth century
technology is Modern Times, made in 1936. Charlie Chaplin was
motivated to make the film by a reporter who, while interviewing
 him, happened to describe working conditions in industrial
 Detroit. Chaplin was told that healthy young farm boys were lured (line 5)
 to the city to work on automotive assembly lines. Within four or
 five years, these young men’s health was destroyed by the stress of
 work in the factories.

The film opens with a shot of a mass of sheep making their way
down a crowded ramp. Abruptly the scene shifts to a scene of (line 10)
factory workers jostling one another on their way to a factory.
However, the rather bitter note of criticism in the implied
comparison is not sustained. It is replaced by a gentler note of
satire. Chaplin prefers to entertain rather than lecture.

Scenes of factory interiors account for only about one-third of (line 15)
the footage of Modern Times, but they contain some of the most
pointed social commentary as well as the most comic situations. No
one who has seen the film can ever forget Chaplin vainly trying to
keep pace with the fast-moving conveyor belt, almost losing his
 mind in the process. Another popular scene involves an automatic (line (20)
 feeding machine brought to the assembly line so that workers need
not interrupt their labor to eat. The feeding machine malfunctions,
 hurling food at Chaplin, who is strapped into his position on the
assembly line and cannot escape. This serves to illustrate people’s
utter helplessness in the face of machines that are meant to serve (line 25)
their basic needs.
 Clearly, Modern Times has its faults, but it remains the best
 film treating technology within a social context. It does not
offer a radical social message, but it does accurately reflect the
sentiments of many who feel they are victims of an over-mechanized (line 30)
world.
42. The author’s main purpose in writing this passage is to ___
(A) criticize the factory system of the 1930’s
(B) analyze an important film
(C) explain Chaplin’s style of acting
(D) discuss how film reveals the benefits of technology

43. According to the passage, Chaplin got the idea for the film Modern Times from ___
(A) a newspaper article
(B) a scene in a movie
(C) a job he had once held
(D) a conversation with a reporter

44. The word “abruptly” in line 10 is closest in meaning to ___

(A) suddenly
(B) mysteriously
(C) finally
(D) predictably

45. It can be inferred from the passage that two-thirds of the film Modern Times ___
(A) is completely unforgettable
(B) takes place outside a factory
(C) is more critical than the other third
(D) entertains the audience more than the other third

46. Which of the following could best replace the phrase “losing his mind” in lines 19-
20? ___
(A) Getting fired
(B) Doing his job
(C) Going insane
(D) Falling behind

47. The word “This” in line 24 refers to which of the following? ___
(A) The machine
(B) The food
(C) The assembly line
(D) The scene

48. According to the passage, the purpose of the scene involving the feeding machine is
to show people’s ___
(A) ingenuity
(B) adaptability
(C) helplessness
(D) independence

49. The word “utter” in line 25 is closest in meaning to which of the following?
(A) Notable
(B) Complete
(C) Regrettable
 (D) Necessary

50. The author would probably be LEAST likely to use which of the following words to
describe the film Modern Times? ___
(A) Revolutionary
(B) Entertaining
(C) Memorable
(D) Satirical