Peterson Practice Test 2 Sat

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Practice Test 2 581

SECTION 1: READING TEST


65 Minutes • 52 Questions

TURN TO SECTION 1 OF YOUR ANSWER SHEET TO ANSWER THE QUESTIONS IN THIS


SECTION.

Directions: Each passage or pair of passages below is followed by a number of questions. After
reading each passage or pair of passages, choose the best answer to each question based on what
is stated or implied in the passage or passages and in any accompanying graphics (such as a
table, chart, or graph).

QUESTIONS 1–11 ARE BASED ON getting the average American to become


THE FOLLOWING PASSAGE AND more physically active. “We knew that
there were approximately 250,000 people
SUPPLEMENTARY CHART.
30 in the United States each year dying of
“A Menace to U.S. Public Health” was authored inactivity-related diseases, but the phrase
by Rob Wilkins, a member of the National inactivity-related disease lacks pizzazz,”
Federation of Professional Trainers (NFPT). Booth said. Without a catchy name, the
The NFPT certifies personal fitness trainers to condition wasn’t getting enough attention,
understand the fundamental exercise science 35 he said. “One day while I was out
principles in order to provide safe and effective jogging, it hit me: Why not call it SeDS?”
fitness programs to individuals or small groups. Approximately two-thirds of American
The following article is taken from the NFPT’s adults are currently overweight or obese
website, http://www.nfpt.com. according to the Center for Science in the
“In the United States, even the Grim 40 Public Interest (CSPI). Due to the fact
Reaper is flabby.” – Dr. Frank W. Booth, that more than one-fourth of Americans
University of Missouri-Columbia are not physically active in their leisure
Line Being fat and physically inactive now time, obesity has doubled, and Type
5 has a name—Sedentary Death Syndrome 2 diabetes (also known as adult-onset
or “SeDS.” Approximately 2.5 million 45 diabetes) has increased tenfold. Type 2
Americans will die prematurely in the diabetes is a devastating disease that may
next ten years due to SeDS, a number lead to complications such as blindness,
greater than all alcohol, guns, motor kidney failure, heart disease, circulatory
10 vehicles, illicit drug use, and sexual problems that can result in amputation,
behavior related deaths combined. 50 and premature death.
Research has identified SeDS as the Between 1982–1994, one third of all
second largest threat to public health new cases of Type 2 diabetes were among
(heart disease remains the number one people ages 10–19. The then-Surgeon
15 cause of death for Americans) and is General of the United States recently
expected to add as much as $3 trillion to 55 observed that, “We are raising the most
healthcare costs over ten years, more than overweight youngsters in American
twice the tax cut recently passed by the history.” In 2011–2012, 8.4% of 2- to
U.S. Senate. Frank W. Booth, a professor 5-year-olds had obesity compared with
20 at the University of Missouri-Columbia, 17.7% of 6- to 11-year-olds, and 20.5% of
stated that he invented the term SeDS 60 12- to 19-year-olds.
to emphasis his point that, in the United Studies indicate that currently about
States, even the Grim Reaper is flabby. 17% of the nation’s children are obese.
Professor Booth’s goal is to make the This is not surprising, considering that
25 public and the federal government pay the average American child spends 900
more attention and spend more money on 65 hours per year in school but 1,200 hours
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582 PART VII: Five Practice Tests

watching television, according to the middle-aged and older population will


TV-Turnoff Network. now affect our children and will serve
The problem is made worse by the 95 to drastically decrease their quality of
fact that fewer than 3 in 10 high school life,” said researcher Ron Gomes of the
70 students get at least 60 minutes of University of Delaware.
physical activity every day. Less than All Americans may incur a severe
half (48%) of all adults meet the 2008 decline in their health due to consistent
Physical Activity Guidelines. 100 physical inactivity. Thirty-five known
“Our bodies were designed to be conditions are exacerbated by physical
75 physically active,” said Scott Gordon of inactivity; they include arthritis pain,
East Carolina University. The trouble arrhythmias, breast cancer, colon cancer,
is that hard work, from farming to congestive heart failure, depression,
simply doing household chores without 105 gallstone disease, heart attack,
appliances, is no longer part of ordinary hypertension, obesity, osteoporosis,
80 life for most people, he said. Gordon peripheral vascular disease, respiratory
called for activity to be put back in. problems, Type 2 diabetes, sleep apnea,
“In adults, this may mean planning and stroke.
exercise into your daily routine,” he 110 Providing enjoyable experiences is
said. “However, it may be as simple as a potent strategy for increasing activity
85 taking the stairs instead of the elevator levels in youth, their attitude about
a couple of times a day.” Booth and his the value of exercise, and ultimately
supporters said a special effort must be long-term health outcome. Introducing
made to reach children, so they won’t 115 and making exercise fun for young
turn fat and weak like their parents and, children may help them develop
90 also like their parents, get sick and die commitment and a positive attitude
early. “Perhaps the greatest tragedy is that toward physical activity as they go
ailments previously associated with the through adolescence and adulthood.
Number in Thousands of New Cases of Diagnosed Diabetes Among Adults
Aged 18–79 Years, U.S. 1980–2011

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Practice Test 2 583

1 The idea the author presents in lines 16–23 4 Based on the passage, which choice best
that the cost of SeDS is twice that of a recent describes the relationship between the de-
tax cut is analogous to an automaker that sign of our bodies and the fact that obesity
has doubled?
(A) investigates a faulty brake system in
one of its models and issues a recall. (A) Humans are naturally prone to
(B) apologizes to its customers for a obesity.
faulty brake system in one of its (B) Weight gain is passed from parents to
models and assures them that next children.
year’s model has already been (C) People eat more in order to perform
redesigned. modern activities.
(C) compensates all the customers whose (D) Hard work is no longer part of most
brakes have failed by offering them a
people’s lives.
free paint job for their car.
(D) gives classes to teach its customers
5 As used in line 5, “sedentary” most nearly
how to install a fix for a faulty brake
means
system in one of its models.
(A) inactive.
2 The structure of the article is designed to (B) robust.
(C) sudden.
(A) present opinions backed up by factual
detail. (D) obese.
(B) frighten readers who are ignoring
their weight issues. 6 In lines 12–15 (“Research has … for
(C) offer testimonials from those who are Americans.”), what is the most likely rea-
most affected. son the author compares SeDS with heart
(D) focus on statistical data and how it is disease?
being interpreted. (A) To compare the symptoms of obesity
with those of heart disease
3 What effect on meaning and tone does the (B) To make readers think of the many
mention of the Grim Reaper add to the warnings against heart disease
article? (C) To demonstrate how heart disease
often leads to issues with obesity
(A) It encourages weight loss by alluding
to the Grim Reaper’s gaunt form. (D) To emphasize that poor health is not
the issue, but a fatal outcome is
(B) It links preventable health issues with
a symbol of mortality.
7 Which choice provides the best evidence
(C) It uses a symbolic figure to make a
humorous point. for the answer to the previous question?
(D) It relies on valid scientific (A) Lines 6–11 (“Approximately …
conclusions from past studies. combined”)
(B) Lines 35–36 (“One day … SeDS”)
(C) Lines 53–57 (“The then-Surgeon …
history”)
(D) Lines 115–119 (“Introducing …
adulthood”)

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584 PART VII: Five Practice Tests

8 It can reasonably be inferred from the pas- Line Indians, exclusive of those in Alaska. The
sage and the chart that steady increases in 5 names of the different tribes and bands
new cases of Type 2 diabetes began around as entered in the statistical table, so the
Indian Office Reports, number nearly
(A) 1980. three hundred.
(B) 1988. There is not among these three
10 hundred bands of Indians one which has
(C) 1998.
not suffered cruelly at the hands either of
(D) 2009. the Government or of white settlers. The
poorer, the more insignificant, the more
9 helpless the band, the more certain the
As used in line 32 , “pizzazz” most nearly
15 cruelty and outrage to which they have
means
been subjected. This is especially true
(A) research. of the bands on the Pacific slope. These
Indians found themselves all of a sudden
(B) oomph.
surrounded by and caught up in the great
(C) seriousness. 20 influx of gold-seeking settlers, as helpless
(D) action. creatures on a shore are caught up in a
tidal wave. There was not time for the
10 The passage most strongly suggests which Government to make treaties; not even
time for communities to make laws. The
of the following? 25 tale of the wrongs, the oppressions, the
(A) A catchy name will motivate people murders of the Pacific-slope Indians in
to lose weight. the last thirty years would be a volume by
itself, and is too monstrous to be believed.
(B) Moving the body is essential to It makes little difference, however,
health. 30 where one opens the record of the history
(C) Type 2 diabetes is another form of of the Indians; every page and every year
obesity. has its dark stain. The story of one tribe is
(D) Children can have good habits the story of all, varied only by differences
despite poor role models. of time and place; but neither time nor
35 place makes any difference in the main
facts. Colorado is as greedy and unjust in
11 Which choice provides the best evidence
1880 as was Georgia in 1830, and Ohio in
for the answer to the previous question? 1795; and the United States Government
breaks promises now as deftly as then,
(A) Lines 24–28 (“Professor … active”)
40 and with an added ingenuity from long
(B) Lines 40–45 (“Due to … tenfold”) practice.
(C) Lines 45–50 (“Type 2 … death”) One of its strongest supports in so
(D) Lines 91–97 (“Perhaps … Delaware”) doing is the wide-spread sentiment
among the people of dislike to the Indian,
45 of impatience with his presence as a
QUESTIONS 12–22 ARE BASED ON THE
“barrier to civilization” and distrust of
FOLLOWING PASSAGE. it as a possible danger. The old tales
This passage is excerpted from Helen Hunt Jack- of the frontier life, with its horrors of
son’s A Century of Dishonor, published in 1881. Indian warfare, have gradually, by two
In 1879, Jackson became a Native American 50 or three generations’ telling, produced
rights activist after witnessing a speech by Ponca in the average mind something like an
chief Standing Bear. hereditary instinct of questioning and
There are within the limits of the unreasoning aversion which it is almost
United States between two hundred impossible to dislodge or soften.
and fifty and three hundred thousand

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Practice Test 2 585

55 President after president has appointed 12 The author’s description of government


commission after commission to inquire inquiries into the handling of Native
into and report upon Indian affairs, and to American affairs in lines 55–69 suggests
make suggestions as to the best methods that the author
of managing them. The reports are filled
60 with eloquent statements of wrongs (A) believes the government recognizes
done to the Indians, of perfidies on the the need to be fairer in its dealings
part of the Government; they counsel, with the Native Americans.
as earnestly as words can, a trial of the (B) is doubtful that the government
simple and unperplexing expedients of is inquiring into Native American
65 telling truth, keeping promises, making affairs with the intention of making
fair bargains, dealing justly in all ways substantive changes.
and all things. These reports are bound up
(C) supposes that presidents have been
with the Government’s Annual Reports,
more critical of the government’s
and that is the end of them.
dealings with the Native Americans
70 The history of the Government
than the commissions.
connections with the Indians is a
shameful record of broken treaties and (D) acknowledges that the government
unfulfilled promises. The history of the understands the problem but is not
border white man’s connection with the equipped to determine a viable
75 Indians is a sickening record of murder, solution.
outrage, robbery, and wrongs committed
by the former, as the rule, and occasional 13 The author refers to different states and
savage outbreaks and unspeakably different times (lines 29–41) as a way of
barbarous deeds of retaliation by the
80 latter, as the exception. (A) citing specific abuses that were
Taught by the Government that they spread over a century.
had rights entitled to respect, when those (B) pointing out which states had the
rights have been assailed by the rapacity worst records of abuse.
of the white man, the arm which should
(C) showing that these abuses no longer
85 have been raised to protect them has ever
occur in America.
been ready to sustain the aggressor.
The testimony of some of the highest (D) defining where abuses in the Pacific
military officers of the United States is slope area occurred.
on record to the effect that, in our Indian
90 wars, almost without exception, the first 14 Which choice provides the best evidence
aggressions have been made by the white for the answer to the previous question?
man …. Every crime committed by a
white man against an Indian is concealed (A) Lines 9–12 (“There is not … white
and palliated. Every offense committed settlers.”)
95 by an Indian against a white man is borne (B) Lines 24–28 (“The tale … believed”)
on the wings of the post or the telegraph
(C) Lines 29–32 (“It … stain”)
to the remotest corner of the land, clothed
with all the horrors which the reality or (D) Lines 70–73 (“The history …
imagination can throw around it. Against promises”)
100 such influences as these are the people of
the United States need to be warned.

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586 PART VII: Five Practice Tests

15 What explanation does the author give 19 Which of the following summaries of the
for the abuse of Native Americans as de- last paragraph is the most accurate?
scribed in lines 22–28?
(A) The generals of the U.S. Army
(A) The author blames old tales of Native suggest that they had to be aggressive
Americans attacks on the frontier. to keep Native Americans from
(B) The author cites a record of broken defeating them and that sometimes
treaties and abuse of the laws. there were crimes committed against
Native Americans. Both sides spread
(C) The author says that the settlers
their interpretation of events across
surrounded Native Americans.
the nation.
(D) The author describes the Pacific-
(B) In court hearings, soldiers discussed
slope area as lawless and chaotic. how the white man often took the
fight to Native Americans in order to
16 In what year did serious abuses of Native move them off the land and that there
Americans occur in Georgia? were occasions when this resulted in
savage behavior by both parties.
(A) 1795 (C) Proof that the white man was the
(B) 1830 aggressor in almost every conflict
(C) 1855 comes from the U.S. Army itself
and the offenses of white men are
(D) 1880 disguised while the few offenses
of Native Americans are widely
17 The author chose a text structure exaggerated.
designed to (D) The history of the conflicts between
Native Americans and white men is
(A) follow the historical chronology of one of gross injustice and extreme
how settlers in the United States dealt crimes against the tribes most of the
with Native Americans over time. time, while horrible crimes against
(B) dispel some of the common white people are generally few and
misconceptions of the dealings far between.
between the United States and Native
Americans.
20 The central theme of the passage is that
(C) categorize causes and effects in
explaining the US government’s (A) Native Americans have been
treatment of Native Americans. victimized by the U.S. government.
(D) present opposing viewpoints as (B) what happened to one tribe happened
to why the United States has had to all the tribes eventually.
conflicts with Native Americans. (C) the U.S. government has done little
to help Native Americans.
18 As used in line 94, “palliated” most nearly (D) Native Americans and white settlers
means had conflicts with each other in the
past.
(A) intensified.
(B) confused.
(C) eased.
(D) excused.

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Practice Test 2 587

21 Which choice provides the best evidence separated from their families at a
for the answer to the previous question? moment’s notice.
20 In 1802, the first slaves to inhabit
(A) Lines 12–16 (“The poorer … Arlington arrived with their owner,
subjected”) George Washington Parke Custis. The
(B) Lines 29–32 (“It makes … stain”) grandson of Martha Washington and
adopted grandson of George Washington,
(C) Lines 32–36 (“The story … facts”)
25 Custis had grown up at Mount Vernon,
(D) Lines 73–80 (“The history … as had many of his slaves. Upon Martha
exception”) Washington’s death, Custis inherited
her slaves and purchased others who
22 As used in line 79, “barbarous” most belonged to his mother. In all, Custis
30 owned nearly 200 slaves and as many
nearly means with
as 63 lived and worked at Arlington.
(A) silent determination. The others worked on his other two
plantations near Richmond, Virginia.
(B) steadfast revenge.
Once at Arlington, the slaves
(C) calculated antagonism. 35 constructed log cabins for their homes
(D) wild brutality. and began work on the main house.
Using the red clay soil from the property
QUESTIONS 23–32 ARE BASED ON and shells from the Potomac river, they
made the bricks and stucco for the walls
THE FOLLOWING PASSAGE AND
40 and exterior of the house. The slaves
SUPPLEMENTARY MATERIAL. also harvested timber from the Arlington
Robert E. Lee and his family lived on a plantation forest, which was used for the interior
estate in Arlington, Virginia, up until 1861. When flooring and supports. The slaves were
Civil War broke out, he and his family departed responsible for keeping up the house and
for safer quarters. Lee became the commander of 45 laboring on the plantation, working to
the Rebel field forces in 1862. His former home is harvest corn and wheat, which was sold at
now a National Park site. The full-length text of market in Washington.
the following passage, provided by the National Custis saw his daughter marry Lt.
Park Service, can be found at http://www.nps. Robert E. Lee at Arlington in 1831.
gov/arho/learn/historyculture/slavery.htm. 50 Robert and Mary Anna came to call
Arlington home and Custis was a
Slavery at Arlington prominent figure in the lives of the seven
From its earliest days, Arlington House Lee children. In his later years, Custis did
was home not only to the Custis and Lee not stray far from Arlington. He made his
families who occupied the mansion, but 55 will in 1855, and he increasingly relied
Line to dozens of slaves who lived and labored
on his son-in-law, Col. Lee, to handle his
5 on the estate.
tangled business affairs. Until his death,
For nearly sixty years, Arlington Custis retained his old bedchamber in the
functioned as a complex society made north wing of the mansion, where he died
up of owners and slaves, whites and 60 after a short illness on October 10, 1857.
blacks. To some observers, on the surface, Some slaves had very close
10 Arlington appeared as a harmonious
relationships with the family members,
community in which owner and slave though these relationships were governed
often lived and worked side by side. Yet by the racial hierarchy that existed
an invisible gulf separated the two, as 65 between slaves and slaveholders. Mr.
slaves were the legal property of their Custis relied heavily on his carriage
15 owners. The enslaved possessed no
driver, Daniel Dotson, and Mrs. Lee had
rights, could not enter into legally binding a personal relationship with the head
contracts, and could be permanently housekeeper, Selina Gray. As Mary’s
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588 PART VII: Five Practice Tests

70 arthritis increasingly restricted her to her by the Custises at the time of her
activities through the years, she depended emancipation around 1826.
on Selina for assistance. As evidence While such allowances may have
of their close bond, Mrs. Lee entrusted 95 improved the quality of life for the
Selina with the keys to the plantation at Arlington slaves, most black men and
75 the time of the Lees’ evacuation in May women on the estate remained legally in
1861. bondage until the Civil War. In his will,
There is evidence that some slaves at Custis stipulated that all the Arlington
Arlington had opportunities not widely 100 slaves should be freed upon his death
afforded to slaves elsewhere. Mrs. Custis, if the estate was found to be in good
80 a devout Episcopalian, tutored slaves in financial standing or within five years
basic reading and writing so that they otherwise. When Custis died in 1857,
could read the Bible. Mrs. Lee and her Robert E. Lee—the executor of the
daughters continued this practice even 105 estate—determined that the slave labor
though Virginia law had prohibited the was necessary to improve Arlington’s
85 education of slaves by the 1840s. Mrs. financial status. The Arlington slaves
Custis also persuaded her husband to free found Lee to be a more stringent
several women and children. taskmaster than his predecessor. Eleven
Some of these emancipated slaves 110 slaves were “hired out” while others were
settled on the Arlington estate, including sent to the other estates. In accordance
90 Maria Carter Syphax who lived with her with Custis’s instructions, Lee officially
husband on a seventeen-acre plot given freed the slaves on December 29, 1862.

The room at the east end on the lower level housed the summer kitchen, with cooks’ quarters above. The center room
at the lower level was a washroom, with the washerwoman’s quarters above. The rooms at the west end housed various
domestic slaves, including the coachmen, gardener, and housekeeper.

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Practice Test 2 589

23 What is the most likely purpose of the 27 Which of the following statements is true
passage? based on the graphic and the passage.

(A) To inform people about the evils of (A) The slaves lived in one enormous
slavery house built just for slaves.
(B) To persuade people that slavery was (B) The slaves’ quarters were adequate
not so terrible for the needs of the slaves.
(C) To describe the history of Arlington (C) The slaves lived in very tight
House quarters.
(D) To illustrate how slaves lived before (D) The slave quarters were located next
the Civil War to the main house of the plantation.

24 Why did Mrs. Custis teach her slaves to 28 How was Robert E. Lee related to George
read? Washington?

(A) So they could teach other slaves and (A) Lee married the daughter of
become self-sufficient Washington’s grandson.
(B) So they could read their contracts (B) Lee married George Washington’s
with their owners granddaughter.
(C) So they could teach her children to (C) Lee’s son married Martha
read Washington’s granddaughter.
(D) So they could read the Bible (D) Lee’s father was Martha
Washington’s nephew.
25 What did George Washington Parke Cus-
tis inherit from his grandmother Martha 29 What evidence in the passage suggests that
Washington? Lee was more of a practical man than an
idealist?
(A) Land and slaves
(B) Slaves (A) Lines 53–57 (“Custis did not …
(C) A house with land and slaves business affairs”)
(D) Three plantations (B) Lines 79–85 (“Mrs. Custis … by the
1840’s”)
26 How was the life of Selina Gray different (C) Lines 103–107 (“When Custis …
financial status”)
from that of other slaves?
(D) Lines 112–113 (“Lee officially …
(A) She didn’t have to work as hard. December 29, 1862”)
(B) She was trusted by Mrs. Lee.
(C) She took care of the Lee children.
(D) She ran the whole plantation.

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590 PART VII: Five Practice Tests

30 Which of the following best illustrates that over the past century and is projected
slaves were considered property in the era Line to rise another 2 to 11.5°F over the
described in the passage? 5 next hundred years. Small changes in
the average temperature of the planet
(A) Lines 6–9 (“Arlington functioned … can translate to large and potentially
and blacks”) dangerous shifts in climate and weather.
(B) Lines 27–29 (“Custis inherited … his The evidence is clear. Rising global
mother”) 10 temperatures have been accompanied by
changes in weather and climate. Many
(C) Lines 82–85 (“Mrs. Lee … the
places have seen changes in rainfall,
1840s”)
resulting in more floods, droughts, or
(D) Lines 85–87 (“Mrs. Custis … and intense rain, as well as more frequent and
children”) 15 severe heat waves. The planet’s oceans
and glaciers have also experienced some
31 How does the author use the phrase “invis- big changes—oceans are warming and
ible gulf” (line 13)? becoming more acidic, ice caps are
melting, and sea levels are rising. As
(A) As a figure of speech—related to 20 these and other changes become more
differences in stature pronounced in the coming decades, they
(B) As a martime definition—related to a will likely present challenges to our
hidden body of water society and our environment.
Humans are largely responsible for
(C) As a geographical reference—related
25 recent climate change. Over the past
to a ravine or abyss
century, human activities have released
(D) As an architectural description— large amounts of carbon dioxide and other
related to building placement greenhouse gases into the atmosphere.
The majority of greenhouse gases come
32 In the context of the passage, what is the 30 from burning fossil fuels to produce
energy, although deforestation, industrial
best definition of the word “afforded” (line
processes, and some agricultural practices
79)?
also emit gases into the atmosphere.
(A) Spared or given up without risk Greenhouse gases act like a blanket
35 around Earth, trapping energy in the
(B) Had sufficient money to pay for
atmosphere and causing it to warm. This
(C) Provided or supplied phenomenon is called the greenhouse
(D) Purchased in exchange for effect and is natural and necessary to
support life on Earth. However, the
QUESTIONS 33–42 ARE BASED ON THE 40 buildup of greenhouse gases can change
Earth’s climate and result in dangerous
FOLLOWING PASSAGES.
effects to human health and welfare and
Passage 1 is excerpted from the U.S. Environ- to ecosystems.
mental Protection Agency website. Passage 2 is Our lives are connected to the
excerpted from the article “Science Has Spoken: 45 climate. Human societies have adapted
Global Warming Is a Myth” by Oregon Institute to the relatively stable climate we have
of Science and Medicine chemists, Arthur B. enjoyed since the last ice age, which
Robinson and Zachary W. Robinson. This article ended several thousand years ago. A
was published in the Wall Street Journal in 1997. warming climate will bring changes that
50 can affect our water supplies, agriculture,
Passage 1
power and transportation systems, the
Climate change is happening natural environment, and even our own
Our Earth is warming. Earth’s health and safety.
average temperature has risen by 1.4°F

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Practice Test 2 591

Some changes to the climate are useful, for now computer climate models
55 unavoidable. Carbon dioxide can stay in 105 are very unreliable.
the atmosphere for nearly a century, so So we needn’t worry about human use
Earth will continue to warm in the coming of hydrocarbons warming the Earth. We
decades. The warmer it gets, the greater also needn’t worry about environmental
the risk for more severe changes to the calamities, even if the current, natural
60 climate and Earth’s system. Although it’s 110 warming trend continues: After all the
difficult to predict the exact impacts of Earth has been much warmer during the
climate change, what’s clear is that the past 3,000 years without ill effects.
climate we are accustomed to is no longer But we should worry about the effects
a reliable guide for what to expect in the of the hydrocarbon rationing being
65 future. 115 proposed at Kyoto. Hydrocarbon use has
We can reduce the risks we will face major environmental benefits. A great
from climate change. By making choices deal of research has shown that increases
that reduce greenhouse gas pollution in atmospheric carbon dioxide accelerate
and preparing for the changes that are the growth rates of plants and also permit
70 already underway, we can reduce risks 120 plants to grow in drier regions. Animal
from climate change. Our decisions today life, which depends upon plants, also
will shape the world our children and increases.
grandchildren will live in.
Passage 2 33 Upon which concepts do both passages
[The global warming] hypothesis fully agree?
75 predicts that global temperatures will
rise significantly, indeed catastrophically, (A) That global warming has been proven
if atmospheric carbon dioxide rises. by evidence
Most of the increase in atmospheric (B) That an increase in overall
carbon dioxide has occurred during temperature is manageable
80 the past 50 years, and the increase has (C) That levels of atmospheric carbon
continued during the past 20 years. Yet dioxide have increased
there has been no significant increase
(D) That usual weather patterns have
in atmospheric temperature during
those 50 years, and during the 20 years been affected
85 with the highest carbon dioxide levels,
temperatures have decreased. 34 Which choice provides the best evidence
In science, the ultimate test is the for the answer to the previous question?
process of experiment. If a hypothesis
fails the experimental test, it must be (A) Lines 5–8 (“Small changes … and
90 discarded. Therefore, the scientific weather.”)
method requires that the global warming (B) Lines 39–43 (“However, the … to
hypothesis be rejected. ecosystems.”)
Why, then, is there continuing
(C) Lines 78–81 (“Most of the … 20
scientific interest in “global warming”?
years.”)
95 There is a field of inquiry in which
scientists are using computers to try (D) Lines 113–115 (“But we should … at
to predict the weather—even global Kyoto.”)
weather over very long periods. But
global weather is so complicated that
100 current data and computer methods are
insufficient to make such predictions.
Although it is reasonable to hope that
these methods will eventually become

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592 PART VII: Five Practice Tests

35 Which point of view characterizes both 39 In both passages, the authors present in-
passages? formation by

(A) One of scientists taking neutral (A) listing a sequence of events that
positions begins in the past and continues into
(B) One of fanatics defending a cause the future.
(C) One of humans concerned for global (B) discussing the causes of a situation
well-being and the resulting effects or lack of
effects.
(D) One of debaters directly addressing
readers as “you” (C) comparing two different approaches
to a problem and determining which
will be most effective.
36 In making their arguments, the authors of
(D) defining the problems the world faces
both passages fail to
and then offering solutions to them.
(A) provide sources of proof for their
claims. 40 The essential difference between the argu-
(B) account for recent advances in the ments the two sets of authors present is
field. whether or not
(C) acknowledge dissenting opinions.
(A) atmospheric hydrogen should be
(D) provide definitions for their controlled.
terminology.
(B) climate and weather can be modified
by humans.
37 The word choice of the first passage (po-
(C) atmospheric hydrogen poses a threat
tentially dangerous, severe, challenges, to human life.
dangerous effects) and the second passage
(D) the production of hydrocarbons is a
(no significant, rejected, insufficient, un-
natural result of human activity.
reliable) differ in that

(A) the first is employing colorful 41 Which choice provides the best evidence
language to describe, and the second for the answer to the previous question?
is relying on simpler language to
define. (A) Lines 29–30 (“The majority … into
(B) Passage 1 uses scientific terms and the atmosphere.”)
Passage 2 uses layperson’s terms. (B) Lines 55–58 (“Carbon dioxide …
(C) the first passage attempts to reassure coming decades”)
readers, and the second passage tries (C) Lines 74–77 (“The global … dioxide
to motivate them. rises”)
(D) Passage 1 is sounding a warning, and (D) Lines 116–120 (“A great … drier
Passage 2 is negating any cause for regions”)
alarm.
42 As used in line 7, “translate” most nearly
38 As used in line 21, “pronounced” most means
nearly means
(A) comprehend.
(A) articulated. (B) expand.
(B) announced. (C) transform.
(C) inconspicuous. (D) explain.
(D) noticeable.

Master the New SAT®


Practice Test 2 593

QUESTIONS 43–52 ARE BASED ON THE Their faces were interesting—of the
FOLLOWING PASSAGE. dry, shrewd, quick-witted New England
45 type, and thin hair twisted neatly back
The following is an excerpt from a short story, out of the way. Mrs. Crowe could look
“Miss Tempy’s Watchers,” by Sarah Orne Jewett, vague and benignant, and Miss Binson
a novelist and short-story writer who lived from was, to quote her neighbors, a little too
1849–1909. In the story, two women watch over sharp-set, but the world knew that she
their deceased friend on the evening before her 50 had need to be, with the load she must
funeral and share their memories of her. carry supporting an inefficient widowed
The time of year was April; the sister and six unpromising and unwilling
place was a small farming town in New nieces and nephews. The eldest boy was
Hampshire, remote from any railroad. at last placed with a good man to learn
Line One by one the lights had been blown out 55 the mason’s trade. Sarah Ann Binson,
5 in the scattered houses near Miss Tempy for all her sharp, anxious aspect never
Dent’s, but as her neighbors took a last defended herself, when her sister whined
look out of doors, their eyes turned with and fretted.
instinctive curiosity toward the old house She was told every week of her life
where a lamp burned steadily. They gave 60 that the poor children would never have
10 a little sigh. “Poor Miss Tempy!” said had to lift a finger if their father had lived,
more than one bereft acquaintance; for and yet she had kept her steadfast way
the good woman lay dead in her north with the little farm, and patiently taught
chamber, and the lamp was a watcher’s the young people many useful things for
light. The funeral was set for the next day 65 which, as everybody said, they would
15 at one o’clock. live to thank her. However pleasureless
The watchers were two of her oldest her life appeared to outward view, it was
friends. Mrs. Crowe and Sarah Ann brimful of pleasure to herself.
Binson. They were sitting in the kitchen Mrs. Crowe, on the contrary, was
because it seemed less awesome than 70 well-to-do, her husband being a rich
20 the unused best room, and they beguiled farmer and an easy-going man. She
the long hours by steady conversation. was a stingy woman, but for all of that
One would think that neither topics nor she looked kindly; and when she gave
opinions would hold out, at that rate, all away anything, or lifted a finger to help
through the long spring night, but there 75 anybody, it was thought a great piece of
25 was a certain degree of excitement just beneficence, and a compliment, indeed,
then, and the two women had risen to which the recipient accepted with twice
an unusual level of expressiveness and as much gratitude as double the gift that
confidence. Each had already told the came from a poorer and more generous
other more than one fact that she had 80 acquaintance. Everybody liked to be on
30 determined to keep secret; they were good terms with Mrs. Crowe. Socially,
again and again tempted into statements she stood much higher than Sarah Ann
that either would have found impossible Binson.
by daylight. Mrs. Crowe was knitting a
blue yarn stocking for her husband; the
35 foot was already so long that it seemed as
if she must have forgotten to narrow it at
the proper time. Mrs. Crowe knew exactly
what she was about, however; she was
of a much cooler disposition than Sister
40 Binson, who made futile attempts at some
sewing, only to drop her work into her lap
whenever the talk was most engaging.

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594 PART VII: Five Practice Tests

43 The two women are in Miss Tempy Dent’s 46 Even though these two women are very
house because they are different, the author shows that they are
getting closer by
(A) waiting to tell other friends and
family that she has died. (A) having them sit in the kitchen instead
(B) staying with the body so it isn’t alone of the best room.
until it is buried. (B) having Mrs. Crowe give Sarah Ann
(C) conducting a funeral service something nice.
following Miss Tempy’s requests. (C) explaining that Sarah Ann was
(D) visiting Miss Tempy Dent, but she actually very happy.
has died. (D) explaining they were telling each
other secrets.
44 The theme of this excerpt can best be
described as 47 Which choice provides the best evidence
for the answer to the previous question?
(A) old friends often grow closer when
they lose a friend. (A) Lines 22–28 (“One would … and
(B) the bonds of friendship remain strong confidence.”)
even in death. (B) Lines 46–53 (“Mrs. Crowe … nieces
(C) trying to stay awake all night isn’t and nephews.”)
hard for dear friends. (C) Lines 59–66 (“She was … thank her.”)
(D) the living carry on the traditions of (D) Lines 69–71 (“Mrs. Crowe … easy-
the dead. going man.”)

45 In lines 33–42, the author uses the activi- 48 Which choice provides the best summary
ties of knitting and sewing to show that of what happened between Mrs. Crowe
and Sarah Ann Binson in Miss Tempy’s
(A) the two women are so lost in
kitchen?
conversation that they neglect their
work. (A) Both women found it hard to fill up
(B) there are a lot of things that need to the long hours.
be done by morning. (B) Both women had become excited by
(C) the women are so upset by the death the intimacy they shared.
that they find it hard to work. (C) Mrs. Crowe did not reveal as much
(D) the two elderly women are getting as Sarah Ann Binson.
absent-minded and weak. (D) Sarah Ann Binson revealed her love
of pleasure and freedom.

Master the New SAT®


Practice Test 2 595

49 Although they were both friends to Miss 51 As used in line 49, “sharp-set” most nearly
Tempy Dent, the relationship between means
Mrs. Crowe and Sarah Ann Binson could
be described as not (A) hungry.
(B) restless.
(A) all that close, but enjoying the same
(C) willy-nilly.
pleasures.
(B) the same age, but close enough to (D) close-fisted.
understand.
(C) united in purpose, but learning to 52 As used in line 76, “beneficence” most
work together. nearly means
(D) from the same social status, but
(A) furniture.
intimate.
(B) succor.
(C) magnanimity.
50 Which choice provides the best evidence
for the answer to the previous question? (D) scrupulousness.

(A) Lines 1–3 (“The time of … any


railroad.”)
(B) Lines 28–33 (“Each had … by
daylight.”)
(C) Lines 37–42 (“Mrs. Crowe … most
engaging.”)
(D) Lines 81–83 (“Socially … Sarah Ann
Binson.”)

STOP
If you finish before time is called, you may check your work on this section only.
Do not turn to any other section.

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Practice Test 2 597

SECTION 2: WRITING AND LANGUAGE TEST


35 MINUTES • 44 QUESTIONS

TURN TO SECTION 2 OF YOUR ANSWER SHEET TO ANSWER THE QUESTIONS IN THIS


SECTION.

Directions: Each passage below is accompanied by a number of multiple-choice questions.


For some questions, you will need to consider how the passage might be revised to improve the
expression of ideas. Other questions will ask you to consider how the passage might be edited
to correct errors in sentence structure, usage, or punctuation. A passage may be accompanied by
one or more graphics—such as a chart, table, or graph—that you will need to refer to in order to
best answer the question(s).

Some questions will direct you to an underlined portion of a passage—it could be one word, a
portion of a sentence, or the full sentence itself. Other questions will direct you to a particular
paragraph or to certain sentences within a paragraph, or you’ll be asked to think about the passage
as a whole. Each question number refers to the corresponding number in the passage.

After reading each passage, select the answer to each question that most effectively improves the
quality of writing in the passage or that makes the passage follow the conventions of Standard
Written English. Many questions include a “NO CHANGE” option. Select that option if you
think the best choice is to leave that specific portion of the passage as it is.

QUESTIONS 1–11 ARE BASED ON THE 1


FOLLOWING PASSAGE.
(A) NO CHANGE
Code Talking
(B) Having consisted of
In September of 1992, a group of American (C) A group which were made of
(D) It consisted of
heroes who had gone unrecognized for many
years was honored by the United States 2
Pentagon. 1 Consisted of thirty-five Navajo
(A) NO CHANGE
code talkers.
(B) code for communicating
During World War II, the United States (C) code, for communicating,
(D) code for communicating,
Marines needed to develop a 2 code,
for communicating top-secret information.

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598 PART VII: Five Practice Tests

3 It being the case that they would then 3

have access to information about United (A) NO CHANGE


States Marines tactics and troop movements, (B) It was crucial to the United States,
that enemy forces not be able to
it was crucial that enemy forces not be able to
decipher the code, having access to
decipher the code. information about Marines tactics
and troop movements.
The military recruited a small group of (C) It was crucial that enemy forces be
Navajos to create a code based on their unable to decipher the code because,
if they did, they would have access
language. 4 The Navajo language was to information about the Marines’
chosen because many of the top military tactics and troop movements.
(D) Crucially, the enemy forces were
officials at the time were Navajo. First, it
unable to decipher the code, which
was extremely difficult to learn and virtually would have access to the Marines’
tactics and troop movements.
unknown outside the Navajo community in
the American Southwest. 5 However, the 4 Which choice most effectively sets up the
Navajo language does not have a written form; information that follows?
it uses no alphabet. Its complexity and 6 (A) NO CHANGE
obscurity made it the perfect basis for a code. (B) The Navajo language was chosen
because the Navajo people were
The first group of Navajo recruits attended famous for their military history.
boot camp in 1942. Afterward, they set to (C) The Navajo people had often been
called on to help the American
work developing a vast dictionary of code government in the past.
words for military terms based on the Navajo (D) The Navajo language made an
excellent code for several essential
language. Each code talker had to memorize
reasons.
the dictionary before being sent to a Marine
unit. Once they were stationed with a unit, 5

the code talkers used telephones and radios to (A) NO CHANGE


transmit encoded orders and information. (B) Furthermore
(C) Likewise
(D) As a result

(A) NO CHANGE
(B) uncertainty
(C) intricacy
(D) clarity

Master the New SAT®


Practice Test 2 599

While the Navajo language was complicated, 7 Which choice most effectively joins the
the code was even more complex. A code two sentences?

talker receiving a message heard a stream (A) The receiver had to translate the
words into English, and then the
of Navajo words. 7 The receiver had to
receiver had to use the first letter of
translate the words into English. Then the each English equivalent to spell out a
word.
receiver had to use the first letter of each
(B) The receiver had to translate the
English equivalent to spell out a word. Adding words into English and then use the
to the difficulty of breaking the code was the first letter of each English equivalent
to spell out a word.
fact that most letters could be indicated by the
(C) The receiver had to translate the
code talkers with more than one Navajo word. words into English even though the
receiver had to then use the first letter
Though able to crack the codes of other of each English equivalent to spell
out a word.
military branches, enemy forces never
(D) The receiver had to translate the
managed to 8 perceive what the Marines’ words into English because the
Navajo code talkers said. The code talkers receiver had to use the first letter of
each English equivalent to spell out a
were renowned for the 9 speed, and word.
accuracy, with which they 10 worked.
8

(A) NO CHANGE
(B) fathom
(C) elucidate
(D) decipher

(A) NO CHANGE
(B) speed, and accuracy
(C) speed and accuracy
(D) speed and accuracy,

10

(A) NO CHANGE
(B) will work.
(C) are working.
(D) have been working.

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600 PART VII: Five Practice Tests

11 Because the Navajo language was 11 Which choice provides information that best
supports the claim made by the sentence?
common only in the American Southwest,
the work of the code talkers remained (A) NO CHANGE
(B) had to be translated into English
unacknowledged until quite recently. Half
words and letters
a century later, in 1992, thirty-five former (C) took a long time to decode by people
code talkers and their families attended the who didn’t speak English
(D) remained part of a classified code for
dedication of the Navajo Code Talker Exhibit
many years
at the United States Pentagon, and officially
took their place in military history.

QUESTIONS 12–22 ARE BASED ON THE 12


FOLLOWING PASSAGE.
(A) NO CHANGE
Who was Dian 12 Fossey. Dian Fossey was (B) Dian Fossey?
a researcher, a visionary, and a pioneer in the (C) Dian Fossey,

field of animal conservation. More specifically, (D) Dian Fossey!

Fossey dedicated her life to preserving Africa’s


13 The writer is considering deleting the un-
endangered mountain gorilla. derlined portion of the sentence. Should
the writer make this deletion?
Fossey 13 was born in San Francisco and
(A) Yes, because this information should
made her first trip to Africa in 1963. At the be provided earlier in the passage.
time, she was 31 years old. In the course of (B) Yes, because this information
her trip, she met Dr. Louis Leakey, a 14 doesn’t support the main idea of the
paragraph.
prominent archaeologist and anthropologist. (C) No, because this information supports
the main idea of the paragraph.
(D) No, because this information is
important to the organization of the
passage.

14

(A) NO CHANGE
(B) imminent
(C) infamous
(D) egregious

Master the New SAT®


Practice Test 2 601

Dr. Leakey believed in the importance of 15


research on large apes and encouraged Fossey
(A) NO CHANGE
to undertake such a study. 15 After accepting (B) After accepting the research
the research challenge from Dr. Leakey, challenge from Dr. Leakey, Fossey
chose mountain gorillas as the topic
mountain gorillas became a research topic. of her research.
(C) Mountain gorillas, after accepting
Fossey began her work in the African
the research challenge from Dr.
country of Zaire, but was forced to leave Leakey, became the topic of Fossey’s
research.
because of political unrest. She moved to
(D) Fossey chose mountain gorillas after
another African country, Rwanda, where she accepting the research challenge from
established a research camp in a national Dr. Leakey, as her research topic.
park. 16 They’re, she spent thousands of
16
hours observing the behavior of gorillas. Her
steadfast patience won the trust of the animals, (A) NO CHANGE
(B) Their
and they began to 17 except her presence
(C) There
among them. As a result, she was able to
(D) Where
observe behaviors that had never been seen by
humans before. 17

Spending so much time observing the gorillas, (A) NO CHANGE


(B) undertake
Fossey naturally distinguished among them
(C) assume
and had particular favorites. One of these
(D) accept
favorites was a young male gorilla named
Digit. Digit was later killed by a poacher, 18
an illegal hunter of protected animals. 18 (A) NO CHANGE
Fossey was really, really sad. She began a (B) Fossey was crushed.
public campaign to raise awareness about the (C) Fossey was super-duper sad.
problem of gorilla poaching, a practice that (D) Fossey was stunned and saddened.

threatened their continued existence. 19 19 Which sentence most effectively fits with
The rhinoceros, too, has faced grave danger the main idea of the paragraph?
from poaching. Fossey’s campaign earned (A) NO CHANGE
worldwide attention and support, and she (B) Organizations like the African
continued to live and work in Africa for many Wildlife Foundation help to prevent
poaching, too.
years thereafter. (C) Mountain gorillas, after all, have a life
expectancy of 35 years in the wild.
(D) In 1989, it was predicted that there
were only 620 mountain gorillas left.
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602 PART VII: Five Practice Tests

20 In 1980, Fossey took a teaching position 20 At this point, the writer is considering
adding the following sentence:
at Cornell University and wrote a book,
She had always been interested in
Gorillas in the Mist, that brought further
teaching and decided to seek employ-
attention to the 21 deteriorating numbers of ment at the university level.
mountain gorillas. Afterward, Fossey returned Should the writer make this addition here?
to Rwanda, and spent the rest of her life (A) Yes, because this information
working to protect the mountain gorilla. Even provides information necessary to
understand the paragraph.
after her mysterious death, Fossey’s work
(B) Yes, because this information makes
continued make an impact. a good transition from the previous
paragraph.
Today, 22 the population of mountain (C) No, because this information is not
gorillas in Rwanda is rising thanks to the necessary and doesn’t support the
main idea of the paragraph.
legacy of Dian Fossey.
(D) No, because this information should
be placed at the end of the passage.

21

(A) NO CHANGE
(B) declining
(C) demeaning
(D) degrading

22

(A) NO CHANGE
(B) the population of mountain gorillas in
Rwanda are rising.
(C) the population of mountain gorillas in
Rwanda were rising.
(D) the population of mountain gorillas in
Rwanda rises.

Master the New SAT®


Practice Test 2 603

QUESTIONS 23–33 ARE BASED ON THE 23


FOLLOWING PASSAGE.
(A) NO CHANGE
Tamarin Families
(B) encircles
Deep in the rainforests of Brazil, tiny creatures (C) covers
(D) marks
known as “kings of the jungle” inhabit the
trees. These creatures, similar in size to 24 The writer is considering deleting the
squirrels, have bright, reddish-orange coats underlined sentence. Should the writer do
this?
and hairless faces; their fur 23 obscures their
faces like the mane of a lion. Accordingly, (A) No, because it provides information
necessary to understand the next
these highly endangered monkeys are called sentence.
golden lion tamarins. (B) No, because it explains why family
units are relatively small.
Tamarins live in small family units of up to (C) Yes, because it should be placed
nine individuals. 24 Offspring are generally earlier in the paragraph.
(D) Yes, because this information
born in pairs, and all members of the group
interrupts the flow of the paragraph.
will pitch in to help care for them. Tamarins
that participate in caring for their newborn 25

siblings tend to become 25 better parents. (A) NO CHANGE


(B) better parents than tamarins that do
not.
(C) better parents than other tamarins.
(D) better parents than older tamarins.

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604 PART VII: Five Practice Tests

[1] Tamarins are diurnal, meaning 26 they 26

are active during the daytime. [2] At night, (A) NO CHANGE


they seek shelter in tree hollows. [3] They (B) it is
are omnivorous, eating fruits, insects, and (C) he is
(D) it will be
occasionally small lizards and snakes, which
are 27 one in the same to them. [4] Tamarins 27
spend their time in trees, using their fingers
(A) NO CHANGE
to grip the branches. 28 [5] However, they
(B) one with the same
dislike direct sunlight, and so are well-suited (C) one and the same
to the dense foliage of the forest. (D) one the same

Golden lion tamarins inhabit a distinct 28 To make this paragraph the most logical,
ecological 29 niche, they are found only in sentence 5 should be placed
the eastern rainforests of Brazil. As farmers (A) where it is now.
clear the rainforest to grow cash crops, (B) before sentence 1.
the habitat of the tamarins has decreased (C) before sentence 2.
(D) before sentence 4.
drastically; as a result, the survival of the
species is in extreme danger. Ecologists 29 Which choice most effectively combines
estimate that there are only one thousand the two sentences at the underlined portion?
tamarins remaining in the wild. (A) NO CHANGE
(B) niche they,
(C) niche they
(D) niche; they

Master the New SAT®


Practice Test 2 605

30 In the 1970s, a conservation campaign 30 Which choice most effectively establishes


the main topic of paragraph 5?
was initiated to save the tamarins. The
movement began as a collaboration between (A) A collaborative effort to save the
tamarins was established in 1970
the National Zoological Park in Washington, and over time has developed a multi-
the Smithsonian Institute, and the Rio de faceted approach to solving the
problem of tamarin endangerment.
Janeiro Primate Center. 31 It has grown
(B) The effort to save the tamarins
to address the problem from several angles, includes managing and restoring the
disappearing habitat of the tamarins,
including managing and restoring the
breeding tamarins in captivity and in
disappearing habitat of the tamarins, breeding the wild, and reintroducing tamarins
into their natural environment.
tamarins in captivity and in the wild, and
(C) The collaborative effort to save
reintroducing tamarins into their natural tamarins includes the National
environment. As part of this effort, a number Zoological Park in Washington, the
Smithsonian Institute, and the Rio de
of zoos around the world have participated in Janeiro Primate Center.
helping to breed tamarins in captivity. 32 (D) The continued effort of zoos to breed
the tamarin in captivity has saved the
tamarin from extinction.

31

(A) NO CHANGE
(B) The campaign
(C) The problem
(D) They

32 Which choice adds accurate data to the


paragraph based on the graph (next page)?

(A) Unfortunately, the participation rate


among zoos has fallen dramatically
while the tamarin population has
climbed.
(B) While the population of tamarins in
captivity has fluctuated since 2000,
the number of participating zoos has
remained relatively steady.
(C) Although the population of
tamarins has fallen since 2000, the
participation rate of zoos has risen
substantially in recent years.
(D) Sadly, both the number of
participating zoos and the population
of tamarins has fallen significantly
since 2000.
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606 PART VII: Five Practice Tests

So far, efforts to return these animals back into 33


their natural habitat have been 33 fruitful,
(A) NO CHANGE
making the golden lion tamarin one of very (B) problematic
few species to be successfully reintroduced (C) lucrative
into the wild. (D) delayed

Used with permission. Ballou, J. D., J. Mickelberg, D. Field, and N. Lindsey. 2009. Population
Management Recommendations for the International Ex-situ Population of Golden Lion Tamarins
(Leontopithecus rosalia). National Zoological Park, Washington, D.C.

Master the New SAT®


Practice Test 2 607

QUESTIONS 34–44 ARE BASED ON THE 34


FOLLOWING PASSAGE.
(A) NO CHANGE
Classical architecture, the origins of which can (B) inclement
be traced to ancient Rome, is characterized by (C) rigorous
(D) contentious
a strict and 34 terminable adherence to the
principles of coherence, exactness, and detail. 35 At this point, the writer is considering
35 The basis of the classical style was adding the following sentence:
Over time, the classical tripartite plan
the manner in which a building’s space was
spilled over from architecture to other
divided so as to create a coherent whole. arts—music, poetry, and dance—and it
is not uncommon to have a three-part
An example of a plan for the division of
hierarchy within those artistic areas
a building’s space was 36 the tripartite as well.
plan. This plan would divide the space in a Should the writer make this addition here?
particular building into three equal parts. Such (A) Yes, because it adds interesting detail
a plan would be followed no matter what the to the paragraph.
(B) Yes, because it provides an accurate
purpose of the building—churches, homes,
introduction to the paragraph.
or public government buildings could all be (C) No, because this information should
designed with such a plan. Even gardens, be added at the end of the paragraph.
(D) No, because this information does
designed in the classical style, might have a
not support the main idea of the
three-part plan. paragraph.

36 Which choice most effectively combines


the sentences at the underlined portion?

(A) the tripartite plan, and this plan


would
(B) the tripartite plan would
(C) the tripartite plan, it would
(D) the tripartite plan, which would

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608 PART VII: Five Practice Tests

Once the framework of a building designed 37


in the classical style was established,
(A) NO CHANGE
architectural elements were added. While (B) columns are fairly typical
37 columns are fairly typical architectural architectural elements
(C) column is a fairly typical
element, there are five types in particular
architectural elements
that are the most 38 common: the Doric, (D) columns is fairly typical architectural
Ionic, Corinthian, Tuscan, and Composite. elements

Each column was distinctive and of a certain


38
specified proportion, base to top. Just as
(A) NO CHANGE
the building follows a tripartite plan, so
(B) common: the Doric and Ionic,
the columns themselves have a three-part Corinthian, and Tuscan, and
organization. Above the column is a horizontal Composite.
(C) common: the Doric; Ionic;
piece, called the entablature; then comes the
Corinthian; Tuscan; and Composite.
column itself, which is tall and cylindrical; (D) common: the Doric and Ionic;
and finally comes the platform, or crepidoma, Corinthian, Tuscan, and Composite.

upon which the column rests.


39
Each of these elements also maintains a
(A) NO CHANGE
three-part organization. The entablature is (B) cornice, frieze, and the architrave.
divided into three parts— 39 cornice, the (C) the cornice, the frieze, and the
architrave.
frieze, and the architrave. The column includes
(D) the cornice, the frieze, and architrave.
the capital, the shaft, and the base. 40
40 Which of the following choices supports
the topic of the paragraph with relevant
information?

(A) The crepidoma was a single solid


mass of steps that supported the rest
of the column.
(B) The crepidoma sometimes included
a sloping ramp, particularly in large
temples.
(C) The crepidoma maintains the three-
part division with its three steps.
(D) The crepidoma, though, was not
often used in Doric columns.

Master the New SAT®


Practice Test 2 609

Classical architecture is filled with 41


conventions that while not obvious to most
(A) NO CHANGE
viewers, become apparent upon closer (B) a classical building must stand free;
analysis. For example, 41 classical buildings we cannot touch
(C) classical buildings must stand free;
must stand free; it cannot touch the sides of
you cannot touch
other buildings because, in the view of the (D) classical buildings must stand free;
classicist, each building is a world within they cannot touch

a world of 42 his own. Consequently,


42
organizing groups of buildings became
(A) NO CHANGE
problematic for rule-following, classical
(B) their
architects because of 43 differentiated
(C) its
violations of spatial conventions. The classical (D) the buildings
mode required adherence to formal rules that
43
were sometimes impossible to impose on
groups of buildings. 44 (A) NO CHANGE
(B) perceived
(C) comprehended
(D) extricated

44 Which choice most effectively establishes


the main topic of the final paragraph?

(A) The rules of classical architecture,


which become apparent on close
examination, often organize a
building and its features into tripartite
groups of three.
(B) Classical architects often had trouble
following the rules and building
groups of buildings.
(C) A classical building must stand free
and be a world unto itself, which is
why no classical buildings connect to
each other.
(D) The numerous and strict conventions
of classical architecture, such as the
idea that a building must stand on
its own, were not always easy for
classical builders to abide by.

STOP
If you finish before time is called, you may check your work on this section only.
Do not turn to any other section.
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610 PART VII: Five Practice Tests

SECTION 3: MATH TEST—NO CALCULATOR


20 Questions • 25 minutes

TURN TO SECTION 3 OF YOUR ANSWER SHEET TO ANSWER THE QUESTIONS IN THIS


SECTION.

Directions: For Questions 1–15, solve each problem, select the best answer from the choices
provided, and fill in the corresponding oval on your answer sheet. For Questions 16–20, solve the
problem and enter your answer in the grid on the answer sheet. The directions before Question
16 will provide information on how to enter your answers in the grid.

ADDITIONAL INFORMATION:
• The use of a calculator in this section is not permitted.
• All variables and expressions used represent real numbers unless otherwise indicated.
• Figures provided in this test are drawn to scale unless otherwise indicated.
• All figures lie in a plane unless otherwise indicated.
• Unless otherwise specified, the domain of a given function f is the set of all real numbers
x for which f(x) is a real number.
Reference Information

Sphere: Cone: Rectangular Based


Pyramid:

l
w
V = 4 πr 3 V = 1 πr 2 h
3 3 V = 1 lwh
3

1 Simplify the expression 2 Which expression is equivalent to


(4x2 – 5x + 8) – (3x2 – 5 – 2x). 2 −4
x3 i x 3 ?
(A) x2 – 3x + 13
(B) x2 – 3x + 3 (A) − 3 x 8
(C) x2 – 7x + 13
(B) − 3 x 2
(D) x2 – 7x + 3
(C) 3
x2

1
(D) 3
x2

Master the New SAT®


Practice Test 2 611

3 Which expression is equivalent to 6 S = 2πr2 + 2πrh


3 (3x − 4 y ) + 2 (−3y + 5x ) The formula above gives the suface area
?
4 3 S of a cylinder with a radius r and height
67 x − 5 y h. Which of the following gives h in terms
(A) of S and r?
12
(A) h = S − r
x y 2πr
(B) +
4 3
(B) h = S + r
19 x − 5 2πr
(C)
12
2
(C) h = 2πr − S
17 x + 19 y 2πr
(D)
4 3
2
4 (D) h = S + 2πr
8x – 9 = x2 – y 2πr
Which of the following equations is equiv- 7 A group of economists performed a study
alent to the equation above and in a form
on the decreasing population in a small
that includes the vertex of the parabola as
town for a time period of 10 years. They
coefficients?
determined that as a result of factors such
(A) y = (x + 1)(x – 9) as loss of jobs and a poor economy, the
population of the town decreased by about
3.5% each year. Write an equation for the
(B) y = (x – 4)2 – 7 population of the town, P, in terms of its
initial population, P0, and n, the number of
(C) y = x2 – 8x + 9 years of the study.

(A) P = P0(0.965)n
(D) x = y+7 +4 (B) P = P0(0.965)n
(C) P = P0(1.035)n
5 If a + 4b = 16, what is the value of (D) P = P0(1.035)n
3(a + 4b)?
8 If f is a linear function and if f(4) = 2 and
(A) 48
f(6) = 10, which of the following could be
(B) 24 the function f?
(C) 16 (A) f(x) = x – 2
(D) 5 1 (B) f(x) = 2x – 2
3 (C) f(x) = 2x – 6
(D) f(x) = 4x – 14

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612 PART VII: Five Practice Tests

9 11
y A
q
(4,6)

p
D E
2

x
B C
4
Figure not drawn to scale. Figure not drawn to scale.

In the figure above, lines p and q are par- In the figure above, DE is parallel to BC
allel. If y = x + 1 represents the equation and AD = 3. What is the length of seg-
of line p, what is the y-intercept of line q? ment AB?

(A) 2 (A) 2
(B) 3 (B) 3
(C) 4 (C) 4
(D) 5 (D) 6

10 A certain brand of yogurt is sold in either 12 A student opened a savings account that
large or small cups. If 3 small cups and 2 earns r% annual interest compounded
large cups hold 30 ounces of yogurt, and 4 monthly. The equation that shows the total
small cups and 1 large cup hold 25 ounces amount of money in the account at any
of yogurt, how much yogurt, in ounces, 12t
 
does a large cup of yogurt hold? time is A = P 1 + r  .
 1200 
(A) 2 ounces What does t represent in the equation?
(B) 4 ounces
(A) The initial investment in the savings
(C) 7 ounces account
(D) 9 ounces (B) The rate of interest
(C) The number of years the money has
been in the account
(D) The total amount of money in the
account

Master the New SAT®


Practice Test 2 613

13 If (x + 2)2 – (x – 3)2 = 0, which of the fol- 15 A line in the xy-plane with the slope
lowing are possible values of x?
− 4 passes through the point (3, 4). Which
5
(A) 1 only
2 of the following points lies on the line?

(B) ─2 and 3 (A) (–5, 12)


(B) (–2, 0)
(C) ─3 and 2 (C) (7, –1)
(D) (13, –4)
(D) ─2 and 1
2

14

B
y

(0,0) A (0,3) x

If AB is a diameter of the circle with center


O, and AB is parallel to the y-axis, which
equation represents the circle?

(A) (x – 3)2 + (y – 3)2 = 3


(B) (x – 3)2 + y2 = 3
(C) (x – 3)2 + (y – 3)2 = 9
(D) (x – 3)2 + y2 = 9

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NEXT PAGE
www.petersons.com
614 PART VII: Five Practice Tests

Directions: For Questions 16–20, solve the problem and enter your answer in the grid, as
described below, on the answer sheet.

1. Although not required, it is suggested that you write your answer in the boxes at the top
of the columns to help you fill in the circles accurately. You will receive credit only if the
circles are filled in correctly.
2. Mark no more than one circle in any column.
3. No question has a negative answer.
4. Some problems may have more than one correct answer. In such cases, grid only one answer.

7
5. Mixed numbers such as 3 1 must be gridded as 3.5 or .
2 2
1
If 3 is entered into the grid as , it will be interpreted as 31 , not 3 1 .
2 2 2
6. Decimal answers: If you obtain a decimal answer with more digits than the grid can
accommodate, it may be either rounded or truncated, but it must fill the entire grid.
7
Answer: Answer: 2.5
12
Write answer .
in boxes. Fraction
line Decimal
0 0 0 0 0 0 point
1 1 1 1 1 1
2 2 2 2 2 2
3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3
Grid in 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4
result. 5 5 5 5 5 5 5
6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6
7 7 7 7 7 7 7
8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8
9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9

Answer: 201
Either position is correct.

0 0 0 0
1 1 1 1 1 1
2 2 2 2 2 2
3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3
4 4 4 4

2
Acceptable ways to grid are:
3
. .

0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0
1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1
2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2
3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3
4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4
5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5
6 6 6 6 6 6 6

Master the New SAT®


Practice Test 2 615

16 Miguel is making a new garden. He is buy- 18 What is the value for b that will make the
ing a new wheelbarrow and bags of peat equation below true?
moss. Each bag weighs 32 pounds and the
wheelbarrow weighs 65 pounds. If his truck 5x + 2 = 5 + b
can carry a maximum of 1500 pounds in the x−4 x−4
bed, what is the greatest number of whole
bags of peat moss he can carry in the bed
of his truck, along with the wheelbarrow? 19 y = 3x − 4
y = 2x − 5
17 6 According to the system of equations
above, what is the value of xy?
8

20 6x − 5 y = 9
ax + by = −27

What value of b will make the system


of equations above have infinitely many
solutions?

A sign is made by cutting four identical


right triangles out of a square, as shown
above. What is the perimeter of the sign,
in inches?

STOP
If you finish before time is called, you may check your work on this section only.
Do not turn to any other section.

www.petersons.com
616 PART VII: Five Practice Tests

SECTION 4: MATH TEST—CALCULATOR


38 Questions • 55 minutes

TURN TO SECTION 4 OF YOUR ANSWER SHEET TO ANSWER THE QUESTIONS IN THIS


SECTION.

Directions: For Questions 1–30, solve each problem, select the best answer from the choices
provided, and fill in the corresponding oval on your answer sheet. For Questions 31–38, solve the
problem and enter your answer in the grid on the answer sheet. The directions before Question
31 will provide information on how to enter your answers in the grid.

ADDITIONAL INFORMATION:
• The use of a calculator is permitted.
• All variables and expressions used represent real numbers unless otherwise indicated.
• Figures provided in this test are drawn to scale unless otherwise indicated.
• All figures lie in a plane unless otherwise indicated.
• Unless otherwise specified, the domain of a given function f is the set of all real numbers x for
which f(x) is a real number.
Reference Information

Sphere: Cone: Rectangular Based


Pyramid:

l
w
V = 4 πr 3 V = 1 πr 2 h
3 3 V = 1 lwh
3

1 A large bottle of soda holds 3 times as 2 If 4(x + 10) – 3(x + 10) = 0, what is the
much as a small bottle of soda, which value of x?
holds 12 fluid ounces. How many large
bottles are completely filled by 120 fluid (A) –40
ounces of soda? (B) –10
(C) 2
(A) 2
(D) 20
(B) 3
(C) 4
(D) 5

Master the New SAT®


Practice Test 2 617

3 In the 1908 London Olympics, the 6 A local newspaper reported a poll of 100
400-meter race was introduced. Wyndham adults that found 80% of respondents were
Halswelle of Great Britain won with a time in favor of building a new school. The
of 50.0 seconds. In 1996, Michael Johnson poll was taken by asking random parents
of the United States ran the 400-meter race picking up their students after school.
with a time of 43.18 seconds, which is the Which of the following statements about
current record. If they had been racing the sampling method for this poll is NOT
together, approximately how many meters true?
would Halswelle still have had to run after
Johnson finished the race? (A) The sampling method was not
representative of the town as a whole
(A) 10 because some students take the bus
(B) 25 home.
(C) 55 (B) The sampling method was not
representative of the town as a whole
(D) 100
because not everyone has children
who go to school.
4 If 18 – 6x is 4 less than –8, what is the (C) The sampling method was not
value of –3x? representative of the town as a whole
because the population of the town is
(A) –15
much greater than 100.
(B) –5
(D) The sampling method was not
(C) 5 representative of the town as a whole
(D) 15 because people who do not have
students in school are less likely to
5 support a new school.
1000 milligrams = 1 gram
1000 grams = 1 kilogram QUESTIONS 7 AND 8 REFER TO THE
Ibuprofen is an over-the-counter drug used FOLLOWING INFORMATION.
to treat arthritis and relieve pain, fever, and
The graph below shows the population of a small
swelling. The dose contained in a standard
tablet is 200 mg. If ibuprofen is sold in car- town, from the years 2007 through 2015.
tons of 24 bottles with 250 standard tablets 1, 000
per bottle, how much pain medication is in 900
the carton in all?
800

(A) 0.12 kilograms 700


Population

(B) 1.2 kilograms 600

500
(C) 12 kilograms
400
(D) 120 kilograms
300

200

100

2007 2009 2011 2013 2015


Years

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618 PART VII: Five Practice Tests

7 Assuming that the population growth trend 10 Mount Asgard in Auyuittuq (pronounced:
continues, what is the best prediction for ow-you-eet-took) National Park, Baffin
the town’s population in 2016? Island, Nunavut, was used in the opening
scene for the James Bond movie The Spy
(A) 850 Who Loved Me. A stuntman skis off the
(B) 900 edge of the mountain, free-falls for several
(C) 950 seconds, and then opens a parachute. The
height, h, in meters, of the stuntman above
(D) 1,025
the ground t seconds after he opens the
parachute is represented by the equation
8 Which of the following best describes the h(t) = –10.5t + 980. What does the 980 in
relationship between the population of the the equation represent?
small town and the number of years?
(A) The speed of the stuntman
(A) The relation is an example of linear (B) The height of the mountain
growth, because a line can be drawn
(C) The height of the stuntman when he
between any two points on the grid
opens the parachute
that exactly shows the relation.
(D) The total length of time the stuntman
(B) The relation is an example of linear
is in the air
growth, because all of the points lie
on a single line.
11 According to Einstein’s theory of relativity,
(C) The relation is an example of
exponential growth, because the no object can travel faster than the speed
slope of the line between any two of light, which is approximately 180,000
points is increasing as the x-values miles per second. Which inequality repre-
increase. sents this information?
(D) The relation is an example of (A) x ≤ 180,000
exponential decay, because the
(B) x ≥ 180,000
vertical space between the points
gets greater as the number of days (C) x = 180,000
increases. (D) x > 180,000

9 The median salary at a large biotech 12


A
company is $45,000. The mean income
is $60,000. Which of the following state-
5z°
ments best explains the difference between
the mean and the median?

(A) There are a few people at the biotech


company with very low salaries.
(B) There are a few people at the biotech z°
company with very high salaries. C B

(C) Most of the salaries at the biotech


What is the value of z in right triangle
company are between $45,000 and
ABC?
$60,000.
(D) All of the salaries at the biotech (A) 15
company are within a small range. (B) 18
(C) 30
(D) 36

Master the New SAT®


Practice Test 2 619

13 In 1992, the first AA lithium battery was 17 Alex is baking cupcakes and cookies. The
released. Suppose a pack of 4 AA lithium cupcake pan holds 15 cupcakes and the
batteries costs x dollars. At this rate, how cookie pan holds 18 cookies. Alex wants
much do 100 batteries cost? to make at least twice as many cookies as
cupcakes, but no more than 165 total cook-
(A) 5x ies and cupcakes. Which of the following
(B) 10x system of inequalities fits the situation?
(C) 25x
(A) 18x + 15 y ≤ 165
(D) 100x
x ≤ 2y

14 What is the value of y if (B) 18x + 15 y ≤ 165


7 + 6 = 1? x ≥ 2y
4 y
(C) 18x + 15 y < 165
(A) –24 x < 2y
(B) –8
(D) 18x + 15 y < 165
(C) –4
x > 2y
(D) 6

18 Which of the following equals x, if


15 A food truck sells sandwiches for $5.95
each and drinks in cans or bottles. Which 3 x + 8 = 20 ?
of the following statements is true about
the equation that represents the food truck (A) 4
revenue, 5.95x + 1.75y = z?
(B) 8
(A) x is the number of customers served (C) 12
(B) z is the number of customers served (D) 16
(C) y is the number of beverages sold
(D) y is the number of sandwiches sold 19 According to historians, Archimedes
proved that a crown made for his king was
16 not pure gold. Suppose the crown had a
2x + y ≥ a
density of 800 grams and a volume of 50
x + 2y ≥ b grams. The density of gold is about 19
grams per cc, and the density of silver is
In the xy-plane, if (–1, –1) is a solution to about 10.5 grams per cc. The system below
the system of inequalities above, which of models this relationship (G = volume of
the following relationships must be true gold, S = volume of silver).
about a and b?
G + S = 50
(A) a>b>0 19G + 10.5S = 800
(B) a<b<0
If the crown contained both silver and
(C) b<a<0
gold, about what percent of the crown is
(D) a < 0 and b < 0 silver?

(A) 19 percent
(B) 36 percent
(C) 62 percent
(D) 81 percent
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620 PART VII: Five Practice Tests

QUESTIONS 20 AND 21 REFER TO THE FOLLOWING INFORMATION.


1000

800
Revenue (dollars)

600

400

200

0
5 10 15 20 25 30 35

Temperature (degrees Celsius)

The graph above displays the total revenue R in dollars for an ice cream shop when the temperature
is T degrees Celsius.

20 Which of the following best describes the 22 Simplify (5 – 3i)(4 + 2i).


association between R and T?
(A) 20 – 2i
(A) Strong positive correlation (B) 20 – 6i
(B) Strong negative correlation (C) 26 – 2i
(C) Weak positive correlation (D) 26 – 6i
(D) Weak negative correlation

21 Which of the following is the best fit equa-


tion for the data in the graph?

(A) y = 500 + 1.2x


(B) y = 1.33x
(C) y = 20x + 250
(D) y = 725

Master the New SAT®


Practice Test 2 621

23 If (x – 1) and (x + 5) are factors of f(x), 24 The graph of a parabola has x-intercepts at


which of the following graphs shows a 4 and –2 and a y-intercept at 8. Which of
possible graph of the function f? the following could be the equation of the
graph?
4
(A) y = –(x – 1)2 + 9
(B) y = x2 – 2x + 8
2
(C) y = (x – 1)2 – 9
(D) y = x2 + 2x – 8
–6 –4 –2 0 2

25 A population of bacteria in a sample


–2
increases in number by 30% every hour.
Which best describes the relation between
the time h in hours and the number of
(A) –4
bacteria B in the sample?

(A) The relation between B and h is


4
linear, because the population
increases by the same percent each
2 hour.
(B) The relation between B and h is
–6 –4 –2 0 2
linear, because the population
increases by the same amount each
hour.
–2
(C) The relation between B and h is
exponential, because the population
(B) –4 increases by the same percent each
hour.
4
(D) The relation between B and h is
exponential, because the population
increases by the same amount each
2 hour.

–2 0 2 4

–2

(C) –4

0 2 4

–2

GO TO THE
(D) –4

NEXT PAGE
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622 PART VII: Five Practice Tests

26 If k is a negative constant less than –1, which of the following could be the graph of y = kx2 +
bx + c?

2
2

–8 –7 –6 –5 –4 –3 –2 –1 0 1 2
1

–1

–2 –2 –1 0 1 2 3 4

–3

–1
–4

–5 –2

–6

(A) –3

–4

2
–5
(C)
1

–5 –4 –3 –2 –1 0 1 2

–1

–2 3

–3
2

–4
1
–5

–6 –3 –2 –1 0 1 2 3

(B)
–1

–2

–3
(D)

Master the New SAT®


Practice Test 2 623

QUESTIONS 27 AND 28 REFER TO THE 29 A recent poll found that 11% of the re-
FOLLOWING INFORMATION. spondents approve of the job that the U.S.
Congress is doing. The margin of error for
An educational researcher chose 200 randomly the poll was ± 3% with 95% confidence
selected college students and asked them how interval. Which of the following state-
they would best categorize their political inclina- ments is a conclusion that can accurately
tions. The results are shown in the table below. be drawn from this poll?

(A) The true percentage of people who

Conservative
disapprove of the job that the U.S.
Moderate

Congress is doing is between 86%


Liberal

and 92%.
(B) The true percentage of people who
approve of the job that the U.S.
Seniors 6 18 34 Congress is doing is between 8% and
14%.
Juniors 20 42 30
(C) The pollsters are 95% confident
Sophomores 8 6 4 that the true percentage of people
who approve of the job that the U.S.
Freshmen 22 8 2
Congress is doing is between 86%
and 92%.
27 What is the probability that a junior of this (D) The pollsters are 95% confident
that the true percentage of people
group is a conservative?
who approve of the job that the U.S.
17 Congress is doing is between 8% and
(A)
29 14%.
9
(B) 30 Line m intersects the x-axis at (3, 0) and
15
the y-axis at (0, –2). Line n passes through
2 the origin and is perpendicular to line m.
(C)
9 Which of the following is an equation of
15 line n?
(D)
46
3
(A) y = x
28 If there were a total of 4,000 students 2
at the college, about how many of those 2
(B) y = x
students would categorize themselves as 3
moderates?
3
(C) y = − x
(A) About 74 2
(B) About 1,120 2
(D) y = − x
(C) About 1,400 3
(D) About 1,480

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624 PART VII: Five Practice Tests

Directions: For Questions 31–38, solve the problem and enter your answer in the grid, as
described below, on the answer sheet.

1. Although not required, it is suggested that you write your answer in the boxes at the top
of the columns to help you fill in the circles accurately. You will receive credit only if the
circles are filled in correctly.
2. Mark no more than one circle in any column.
3. No question has a negative answer.
4. Some problems may have more than one correct answer. In such cases, grid only one answer.

5. Mixed numbers such as 3 1 must be gridded as 3.5 or 7 .


2 2
1
If 3 is entered into the grid as , it will be interpreted as 31 , not 3 1 .
2 2 2
5. Decimal answers: If you obtain a decimal answer with more digits than the grid can
accommodate, it may be either rounded or truncated, but it must fill the entire grid.
7
Answer: Answer: 2.5
12
Write answer .
in boxes. Fraction
line Decimal
0 0 0 0 0 0 point
1 1 1 1 1 1
2 2 2 2 2 2
3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3
Grid in 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4
result. 5 5 5 5 5 5 5
6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6
7 7 7 7 7 7 7
8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8
9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9

Answer: 201
Either position is correct.

0 0 0 0
1 1 1 1 1 1
2 2 2 2 2 2
3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3
4 4 4 4

2
Acceptable ways to grid are:
3
. .

0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0
1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1
2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2
3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3
4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4
5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5
6 6 6 6 6 6 6

Master the New SAT®


Practice Test 2 625

31 A baboon troop has 60 members, 35% of 34 3(5 – 2x) = –4(cx + 4)


which are male. What is the ratio of males
What value for c in the equation above
to females in the baboon troop? (Grid your
will make the equation have no solutions?
answer as a fraction.)

32 During a recent baseball season, 2 hitters 35 If a cube with a surface area of 600 square
on a team had a total of 66 home runs. Bat- centimeters holds 1 liter, how many liters
ter B had 14 fewer home runs than batter are held in a cube with a surface area of
A. How many home runs did batter A hit? 5400 square centimeters?

33 A community radio station operates 24 36


f ( x ) = 3x 2 − 4 x + 8
hours per day, every day of the week. Each g ( x) = 2x − 5
radio show lasts 90 minutes. What is the
total number of shows that the radio station Use the functions above to find the value
will broadcast Monday through Friday? of g(f(–2)).

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626 PART VII: Five Practice Tests

37 38 The total rainfall in Plainville increased


y = 2x − 3
by 25% from 2012 to 2013. The rainfall
y = −3( x − 1)2 + 4 decreased by 30% from 2013 to 2014.
Then, it increased again by 40% from 2014
According to the system of equations to 2015. What was the percent of increase
above, what is one value of x? in rainfall from 2012 to 2015? Write your
answer as a percent, but do not write in the
percent symbol.

STOP
If you finish before time is called, you may check your work on this section only.
Do not turn to any other section.

Master the New SAT®

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