E E N T POST TEST

PREPARED BY: PROF BORNIE BAGUIO

1. The vision cycle in the eye requires vitamin a. Here the vitamin function as:
A. An integral part of the retina’s pigment called melanin
B. A part of the rods and cones that controls color blindness
C. The material in the cornea that prevents cataract formation
D. A necessary component of rhodopsin which controls light-dark adaptations

2. The nurse is aware that the optic chiasm:

A. Forms a cavity in which the eyeball is fixed
B. Receives nerve impulses from the optic tracts
C. Is a crossing of some optic nerves in the cranial cavity
D. Is the space posterior to the lens with the consistency of jelly

3. When the ciliary muscles contract they:

A. Close the eyelids
B. Cause the pupils to dilate
C. Focus the lens on near objects
D. Bring about convergence of both eyes

4. If the client develops an inflammatory reaction in the eye, the drug that will probably be
prescribed is:

A. Cortisone C. Nitrofurazone (furacin)

B. Neomycin D. Acetazolamide (diamox)

5. The nurse should recognize that further teaching is needed when a client with glaucoma states, “it would
be dangerous for me to:
A. Use any sedatives.”
B. Become constipated.”
C. Use atropine in any form.”
D. Release my emotions by crying.”

6. The first symptom a client with open-angle glaucoma is most likely to exhibit is:
A. Constant blurred vision
B. Sudden attacks of acute pain
C. Impairment of peripheral vision
D. A sudden, complete loss of vision
7. When a client with detached retina asks about the condition, the nurse should explain that retinal
detachement is a:
A. Consequence of optic-retinal atrophy
B. Degeneration of the choroid and optic chiasm
C. Division between the photoreceptor and neural layers of the retina
D. Separation between the sensory portion of the retina & the pigment layer

8. The part of the ear that contains the receptors for hearing is the:

A. Utricle C. Middle ear

B. Cochlea D. Tympanic cavity

9. The ear bones that transmit vibrations to the oval window of the cochlea are found in the:

A. Inner ear B. Outer ear

 D. Eustachean tube
C. Middle ear

10. Nerve deafness would most likely result from an injury or infection that damages the:

A. Vagus nerve C. Vestibular nerve

B. Cochlear nerve D. Trigeminal nerve

11. A labyrinthectomy can be performed to treat meniere’s syndrome. This procedure results in:
A. Anosmia
B. Absence of pain
C. Reduction of cerumen
D. Permanent irreversible deafness

12. Otosclerosis is a common cause of conductive hearing loss. With such a partial hearing loss:
A. Stapedectomy is the procedure of choice
B. Hearing aids usually restore some hearing
C. The client is usually unable to hear bass tones
D. Air conduction is more effective than bone conduction

13. A client who complains of tinnitus is describing a symptom that is:

A. Objective C. Prodromal
B. Functional D. Subjective

14. Physiologically, the middle ear serves primarily to:

A. Maintain balance
B. Translate sound waves into nerve impulses
C. Amplify the energy of sound waves entering the ear
D. Communicate with the throat via the eustachian tube

15. A client is admitted to outpatient surgery for a cataract extraction on the right eye. The client asks the
nurse, “what causes cataracts in old people?” Which of the following statements should form the basis for
the nurse’s response? Cataracts most commonly:
A. Are a result of chronic systemic disease
B. Are a result of aging
C. Are a result of eye injuries sustained in early life
D. Are a result of prolonged use of toxic substances

16. An adult who has detached retina asks the nurse what may have contributed to the development of his
detached retina. The nurse explains that the client at greatest risk for development of a retinal tear
usually has:

A. Hypertension C. Cranial tumors

B. Near-sightedness D. Sinusitis

17. The nurse should explain that the major purpose of cryotherapy in the treatment of detached retina is to:
A. Create a scar that promotes healing
B. Disintegrate debris in the eye
C. Freeze small blood vessels
D. Halt secretions of the lacrimal duct

18. An adult client has undergone a stapedectomy. Which of the following is most important for the nurse to
include in the post-op care plan?

A. Checking the gag reflex C. Instructing not to blow his nose

B. Encouraging independence D. Position on operative side
19. The client who has been treated for chronic open angle glaucoma (coag) for 5 years asks the clinic nurse,
“how does glaucoma damage my eyesight?” The nurse’s reply should be based on the knowledge that
coag:

A. Results from chronic eye inflammation

B. Causes increase iop
C. Leads to the detachment of the retina
D. Is caused by decreased blood to the retina

20. The classic triad symptoms associated with meniere’s disease is vertigo, tinnitus, and:

A. Headache C. Fluctuating hearing loss

B. Otitis media D. Vomiting

21. The client with meniere’s disease is instructed to modify his diet. The nurse would explain that the most
frequently recommended diet modification for meniere’s disease is:

a. Low na c. Low cho

b. High chon d. Low fat

22. A client is admitted after sustaining burns to the chest, abdomen, right arm and right leg. Using the “rule
of 9’s”, the nurse would determine that about what percentage of client’s body surface has been burned?

A. 18% C. 45%
B. 27% D. 64%

23. The nurse assess client for fluid shifting. Fluid shifts that occur during emergent phase of a burn injury are
caused by fluid moving:
A. From vascular to interstitial space
B. From extracellular to intracellular space
C. From intracellular to extracellular space
D. From interstitial to vascular space

24. A client asks, “what does the lens of my eye do?” The nurse should explain that the lens of the eye:

A. Produces aqueous humor

B. Holds the rods & cones
C. Focuses light rays onto the retina
D. Regulates the amount of light entering the eye

25. The nurse is to instill drops of phenylephrine hcl (neo-synephrine) into a client’s right eye (od) before
cataract removal surgery. This prep acts to produce:

A. Dilation of pupil and blood vessels

B. Dilation of pupil and constriction of blood vessels
C. Pupil constriction and blood vessel constriction
D. Pupil constriction and blood vessel dilation

26. A client is admitted thru the emergency department with a diagnosis of detached retina in the od. As the
nurse completes the admission history, client reports that before the physician patched his eye, he saw
many spots, or “floaters”. The nurse should explain to the client that these spots were caused by:
A. Pieces of retina floating in the eye
B. Blood cells released into the eye by detachement
C. Contamination of aqueous humor
D. Spasms of retired blood vessel traumatized by the detachment

27. Which of the following goals would be a priority for a client who has undergone surgery for retinal
detachment?
A. Control pain
 B. Prevent an increase in iop
C. Promote a low-na diet
D. Maintained a darkened environment

28. Which of the following activities should be avoided to achieve the goal of decreasing IOP after eye
surgery?

A. Lying supine C. Deep breathing

B. Coughing D. Ambulation

29. After cataract removal surgery, the client is instructed to report any complaints of a sharp pain in the
operative eye because this could indicate which of the following post-op complications?

A. Detached retina C. Extracapsular erosion

B. Prolapse of the iris D. Intraocular hemorrhage

30. Miotics are frequently used in the treatment of glaucoma. The nurse should understand that miotics work
by:

A. Paralyzing ciliary muscles C. Constricting the pupil

B. Constricting intraocular vessels D. Relaxing ciliary muscles

31. The potential for injury during an attack of Meniere’s disease is great. The nurse should instruct the client
to take which immediate action when experiencing vertigo?

A. Place your head between your knees

B. Concentrate on rhythmic deep breathing
C. Close your eyes tightly
D. Assume a reclining/flat position

32. The nurse would anticipate that all of the following drugs may be used in the attempt to control the
symptoms of Meniere’s disease except:

A. Antihistamines C. Diuretics
B. Antiemetics D. Glucocorticoids

33. A priority nursing diagnosis category for a client with burns during the emergent period would be:
A. Excess fluid volume
B. Imbalanced nutrition: less than body requirements
C. Risk for injury (falling)
D. Risk for infection

34. The client with a major burn injury receivestotal parenteral nutrition (TPN). The primary reason for this
therapy is to help:
A. Correct water and electrolyte imbalance
B. Allow the GIT to rest
C. Provide supplemental vit. & minerals
D. Ensure adequate caloric & protein intake
35. The nurse has just completed teaching about postoperative activity to a client who is going to have
cataract surgery. The nurse knows the teaching has been effective if the client:
A. Coughs and deep breathes postoperatively.
B. Ties his own shoes.
C. Asks his wife to pick up his shirt from the floor after he drops it.
D. States that he doesn’t need to wear an eye patch or guard to bed.

36. A client underwent cataract removal with an intraocular lens implant. The nurse is giving the client
discharge instructions. These instructions should include which of the following?
A. Avoid lifting objects weighing more than 5 lb (2.2kg).
B. Lie on your abdomen when in bed
C. Keep rooms brightly lit.
 D. Avoid straining during bowel movements or bending at the waist.

37. In a comatose client, hearing is the last sense to be lost. Therefore, the nurse should always:
A. Talk loudly in case the client can hear.
B. Speak softly before gently touching the client.
C. Tell others in the room not to talk to the client.
D. Tell family members that the client probably can’t hear.

38. A client is admitted with a diagnosis of retinal detachment. Which of the following nursing diagnosis
would be on this client’s plan of care?
A. Imbalanced nutrition: Less than body requirements related to nausea and vomiting.
B. Risk for infection related to use of eyedrops.
C. Impaired skin integrity related to lying only on the affected side.
D. Risk for injury related to visual impairment.

39. The nurse is administering eyedrops to a client with glaucoma. To achieve maximum absorption, the
nurse should instill the eyedrop into the:

A. Conjunctival sac. C. Sclera.

B. Pupil. D. Vitreous humor.

40. Signs and symptoms of retinal detachement include:

A. Painless decrease in vision, a veil over the visual field and flashing lights.
B. A veil over the visual field, increased intraocular pressure, and yellow-green halos around visual images.
C. Photophobia, yellow-green halos around visual images, and blurred vision.
D. Unilateral eye inflammation, cloudy cornea, and a moderately dilated pupil.

41. An eight-year-old girl suffered a partial thickness scald burn over most of her anterior thigh and lower leg.
What admission assessment would give the nurse the most data about the probability of shock occurring?
A. Edema, weeping blisters, high serum potassium, low serum sodium.
B. Tachycardia, hyperventilation, and a pale appearance.
C. Variations in hyperthermia and hypothermia, and decreased gastric motility.
D. Anemia from red blood cell loss through damaged capillaries.

42. An adult has undergone surgery for a detached retina. What is essential to include in the postoperative
care plan?
A. Up ad lib with assistance.
B. Notify physician of severe pain that does not respond to pain medication, and/or severe nausea and
vomiting.
C. Bed rest with bed flat.
D. Notify physician of any mucoid discharge.

43. An adult client is being treated in the burn unit for partial and full-thickness burns of the left foot, ankle,
and leg. Skin autografts are taken from the right thigh and a skin graft is performed. The nurse planning
care for the client on return from the operating room includes which of the following nursing
interventions?
A. Change dressing on graft sites every shift.
B. Cover donor site with fine mesh gauze and expose to air.
C. Lubricate donor site with skin cream every shift.
D. Hydrotherapy to graft sites daily.

44. An adult is admitted to the hospital to undergo a stapedectomy for the treatment of otosclerosis. Which
findings elicited during physical assessment are most indicative of otosclerosis?
A. Bone conduction is greater than air conduction.
B. Bone conduction is equal to air conduction.
C. Air conduction is greater than bone conduction.
D. Sound lateralizes to the unaffected ear.
45. A 68-year-old man is admitted to the emergency department with a medical diagnosis of closed-angle
glaucoma. He is placed on miotic therapy and receives 75% glycerin (Glycol). In planning care for the
client, which of the following should be a teaching priority during the acute phase of his illness?
A. Eyedrop administration.
B. Eye patch changes every hour.
C. Measuring intake and output.
D. Keeping bright lights on in the room.

46. Which nursing action represents unsafe nursing care for a client with closed-angle glaucoma?
A. Administering morphine sulfate 8 mg IM prn for pain.
B. Allowing him to ambulate to the bathroom with assistance.
C. Occluding the puncta during the administration of eyedrops.
D. Wearing unsterile gloves when examining the eye.

47. The primary purpose of medications such as pilocarpine (Pilocar) used in the treatment of glaucoma is
A. Control of increased intraocular pressure.
B. Improvement of vision.
C. Relief of pain.
D. Restoration of peripheral vision.

48. An 80-year-old man has closed-angle glaucoma. He tells the nurse that he has heard that glaucoma may
be hereditary. He is concerned about his children, a son age 45 and a daughter age 38. The most
appropriate response by the nurse is to ask,
A. Are your children complaining of eye problems?
B. There is no need for concern because glaucoma is not a hereditary disorder.''
C. There may be a genetic factor with glaucoma and your children should be screened.
D. Your son should be evaluated because he is over 40.

49. Ms. J. is a client in the burn unit three days following second- and third-degree burns of both legs. The
nurse plans to assess Ms. J. for indications of the complication that is the major cause of death in this
period and includes which of the following?
A. Monitor arterial blood gases daily.
B. Monitor intake and output every shift.
C. Monitor results of wound cultures daily.
D. Monitor daily caloric intake his time.

50. An adult suffered a detached retina of the right eye while playing racquetball. He presents in the
emergency department with which of the following symptoms?
A. Sharp pain OD.
B. Redness OU.
C. Increase in intraocular pressure OD.
D. Blank areas in the field of vision.

51. A nurse is instilling an otic solution into an adult client’s left ear. The nurse avoids doing which of the
following as part of this procedure?
A. Warming the solution to room temperature
B. Placing the client in a side lying position with the ear facing up
C. Pulling the auricle backward and upward
D. Placing the tip of the dropper on the edge of the ear canal

52. 40 y/o Toni who works as a bank executive has undergone surgery for glaucoma. The nurse provides
which discharge instructions to the clients?
A. Wound healing usually takes 12 weeks
B. Expected the vision will be permanently impaired
C. A shield or eye patch should be worn to protect the eye
D. The sutures are removed after 1 week

53. Which assessment findings provide the best evidence that a client with acute angle-closure glaucoma is
responding to drug therapy?
A. Swelling of the eyelids decreases
 B. Redness of the sclera is reduced
C. Eye pain is reduced or eliminated
D. Peripheral vision is diminished

54. At the time of retinal detachment, a client most likely describes which symptoms?

A. A seeing flashes of light C. Feeling discomfort in light

B. Being unable to see light D. Seeing poorly in daylight

55. The most important health teaching nurse John can provide to the client with conjunctivitis is to:
A. Eat a well balanced, nutritious diet
B. Wear sunglasses in bright light
C. Cease sharing towels and washcloths
D. Avoid products containing aspirin

56. A nurse is reviewing the record of the client with a disorder involving the inner ear. Which of the following
would the nurse expect to see documented as an assessment finding in this client?
A. severe hearing loss
B. complaints of severe pain in the affected ear
C. complaints of burning in the ear
D. complaints of tinnitus

57. A client with a conduction hearing loss asks the nurse how a hearing aid improves hearing. The nurse most
accurately informs the client that a hearing aid:
A. Amplifies sound heard
B. Makes sounds sharper and clearer
C. Produces more distinct, crisp, speech
D. Eliminates garbled background sounds

58. The nurse is at the community center speaking with retired people. To which comment by one of the
retirees during a discussion about glaucoma would the nurse give a supportive comment to reinforce
correct information?
A. "I usually avoid driving at night since lights sometimes seem to make things blur."
B. "I take half of the usual dose for my sinuses to maintain my blood pressure."
C. “I have to sit at the side of the pool with the grandchildren since I can't swim with this eye problem."
D. "I take extra fiber and drink lots of water to avoid getting constipated."

59. The nurse is caring for a client with Meniere's disease. When teaching the client about the disease, the
nurse should explain that the client should avoid foods high in

A. Calcium C. Sodium
B. Fiber D. Carbohydrate

60. The mother of a burned child asks the nurse to clarify what is meant by a third degree burn. The best
response by the nurse is
A. "The top layer of the skin is destroyed."
B. "The skin layers are swollen and reddened."
C. "All layers of the skin were destroyed in the burn."
D. "Muscle, tissue and bone have been injured."

61. An 82 year-old client is prescribed eye drops for treatment of glaucoma. What assessment is needed
before the nurse begins teaching proper administration of the medication?
A. Determine third party payment plan for this treatment
B. The client’s manual dexterity
C. Proximity to health care services
D. Ability to use visual assistive devices

62. During the admission assessment on a client with chronic bilateral glaucoma, which statement by the
client would the nurse anticipate since it is associated with this problem?
A. "I have constant blurred vision."
 B. "I can't see on my left side."
C. "I have to turn my head to see my room."
D. "I have specks floating in my eyes."

63. Normal visual acuity as measured with a Snellen eye chart is 20/20. What does a visual acuity of 20/30
indicate?
A. A at 20 feet, an individual can only read letters large enough to be read at 30 feet
B. At 30 feet, an individual can read letters large enough to be read at 20 feet
C. An individual can read 20 out of 30 total letters on the chart
D. An individual can read 30 out of 50 total letters on the chart at 20 feet

64. Damage to the visual area of the occipital lobe of cerebrum, on the left side, would produce what type of
visual loss?
A. Left eye only
B. Right eye only
C. Medial half of the right eye and lateral half of the left eye
D. Medial half of the left eye and lateral half of the right eye

65. An anterior chamber of the eye refers to all the space in what area?
A. Anterior to the retina
B. Between the iris and the cornea
C. Between the lens and the cornea
D. Between the lens and the iris

66. What condition results when rays of light are focused in front of the retina?

A. Myopia C. Presbyopia
B. Hyperopia D. Emmetropia

67. As the person grows older, the lens losses its elasticity, causing which kind of farsightedness?

A. Emmetropia C. Diplopia
B. Presbyopia D. Myopia

68. If a person has a foreign object of unknown material that is not readily seen in one eye, what would the
first action be?
A. Irrigate the eye with a boric acid solution
B. Examine the lower eyelid and then the upper eyelid
C. Irrigate the eye with opious amounts of water
D. Shield the eye from pressure, and seek medical help

69. A sudden loss of an area of vision, as if a curtain were being drawn, is a principal symptom of?

A. Retinal detachment C. Cataracts

B. Glaucoma D. Keratitis

70. Postoperative care following stapedectomy would not include which of the following

A. Out of bed as desired C. Avoid sneezing

B. No moisture in the affected ear D. No bending over or lifting

71. Dimenhydrinate (Dramamine) is given after a stapedectomy

A. To accelerate the auditory process
B. To dull the pain experienced with the semicircular canal is disturbed
C. To minimize the sensations of equilibrium disturbances and imbalance
D. To prevent an increase tendency toward nausea

72. A client with Meniere’s syndrome is extremely uncomfortable because of which of these?
 A. Severe earache C. Vertigo and resultant nausea
B. Many perceptual difficulties D. Facial paralysis

73. What is the cataract of the eyes?

A. Opacity of the cornea C. Opacity of the lens

B. Clouding of the aqueous humor D. Papilledema

74. Treating a cataract primarily involves which of the following?

A. Instillation of miotics C. Removal of the lens

B. Installation of mydriatics D. Enucleation

75. Preoperative instruction will not need to include

A. Type of surgery
B. How to use the call bell
C. How to prevent paralytic illeus
D. How to prevent respiratory infections

76. In preparing to teach patient about adjustment to cataract lenses, the nurse needs to know that the
lenses will.
A. Magnify objects by one-third- with central vision
B. Magnify objects by one-third with peripheral vision
C. Reduce objects by one-third with central vision
D. Reduce objects by one-third with peripheral vision

77. In the immediate postoperative period the one action that is contraindicated for patient compared with
clients after most other operations is which of the following?
A. Coughing
B. Turning on the unoperative side
C. Measures to control nausea and vomiting
D. Eating after nausea passes

78. Immediate nursing care following cataract extraction is directed primarily toward preventing

A. Atelectasis C. Hemorrhage
B. Infection of the cornea D. Prolapse of the iris

79. The patient is confused during her first night after eye surgery. What would the nurse do?
A. Tell her to stay in bed
B. Apply restraints to keep her in bed
C. Explain why she cannot get out of bed, keep side rails up, and check her frequently
D. Sedate her

80. Discharge teaching would probably not need to include

A. Staying in a darkened room as much as possible
B. Avoiding alcoholic drinks,; limiting the use of tea and coffee
C. Using no eye washes or drops unless they were prescribed by the physician
D. Avoiding being excessively sedentary

81. Patient also needs to be instructed to limit.

A. Sewing C. Walking
B. Watching tv D. Weeding her garden

Situation: Lea visit her ophthalmologist and receives a mydriatic drug in order to facilitate the
examination. After returning home, she experiences severe pain, nausea and vomiting, and blurred

vision. During a visit to the emergency room, a diagnosis of acute glaucoma is made.

82. Lea’s glaucoma has been caused by the dilation of the pupil.
A. Blockage of he outflow of aqueous humor by the dilation of the pupil
B. Blockage of the outflow of aqueous humor by the constriction of the pupil
C. Increase intraocular pressure resulting from the increased production of aqueous humor
D. Decrease intraocular pressure resulting from decrease production of aqueous humor

83. Intraocular pressure is measured clinically by tonometer. What tonometer reading would be indicative of
glaucoma?

A. Pressure of 10 mmhg C. Pressure of 20 mmhg

B. Pressure of 15 mmhg D. Pressure of 25 mmhg

84. Which cranial nerve transmits visual impulses?

A. I (olfactory) C. III (oculomotor)

B. II (optic) D. IV (abducens)

85. Untreated or uncontrolled glaucoma damages the optic nerve. Three of the following signs and symptoms
result from optic nerve atrophy; which one does not?

A. Colored halos around lights C. Dilated and fixed pupils

B. Severe pain in the eye D. Opacity of the lens

86. Glaucoma is conservatively managed with miotic eye drops. Mydriatic eye drops are contraindicated for
glaucoma. Which of the following drugs is a mydriatic?

A. Neostigmine C. Physostigmatine
B. Pilocarpine D. Atropine

87. Glaucoma may require surgical treatment. Preoperatively, the client would be taught to expect which of
the following postoperatively?
A. Cough and deep-breathing qh.
B. Turn only to the unaffected side
C. Medication for severe eye pain
D. Restriction of fluids for the first 24 hours

Situation: Roy, a 55-year-old man, is admitted to the hospital with wide-angle glaucoma

88. What was the symptom that probably brought Roy to the ophthalmologist initially?

A. Decreasing vision C. Redness and tearing of the eye

B. Extreme pain in eye D. Seeing colored flashes of light

89. The teaching plan for Roy would include which of the following?

A. Reduce fluid intake C. Wear dark glasses/during the day

B. Add extra lighting in the home D. Avoid exercise

90. Miotics are used in the treatment of glaucoma. What is an example of a commonly used miotic?

A. Atropine
B. Pilocarpine C. Acetazolamide (diamox)
 D. Scopolamine

91. What is the rationale for using miotics in the treatment of glaucoma?
A. They decrease the rate of aqueous humor production
B. Pupil constriction increases outflow of aqueous humor
C. Increased pupil size relaxes the ciliary muscles
D. The blood flow to the conjunctiva is increased

92. When instilling eye drops for a client with glaucoma, what procedure would the nurse follow?
A. Place the medication in the middle of the lower lid, and put pressure on the lacrimal duct after
instillation.
B. Instill the drug to the outer angle of the eye, have client tilt head back
C. Instill the drug at the innermost angle; wipe with cotton away from inner aspect
D. Instill medication in middle eye, have client blink for better absorption

93. Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors are sometimes used in the treatment of glaucoma because they:
A. Depress secretion of a aqueous humor
B. Dilate the pupil
C. Paralyze the power of accommodation
D. Increase the power of accommodation

94. Teaching a client with glaucoma will not include which of the following?
A. Vision can be restored only if the client remains under a physician’s care
B. Avoid stimulant (eg., caffeine)
C. Take all medications conscientiously
D. Prevent constipation and avid heavy lifting and emotional excitement

95. Glaucoma is a progressive disease that can lead to blindness. It can be managed if diagnosed early.
Preventive health teaching would best include which of the points?
A. Early surgical action may be necessary
B. All clients over 40 years of age should have an annual tonometry exam
C. The use of contract lances in older clients is not advisable
D. Clients should seek early treatment for eye infections

96. A client with progressive glaucoma may be experiencing sensory deprivation. Which of the following
actions would best minimize this problem?
A. Speak in a louder voice
B. Ensure that a sedative is ordered
C. Orient the client to time, place, and person
D. Use touch frequently when providing care

97. The nurse notices bleeding from the orifice of the ear. Which of the following actions by the nurse can be
safely used to determine if the drainage contains cerebrospinal fluid (CSF)? The nurse should
A. Swab the orifice of the ear with sterile applicator and send the specimen to the laboratory
B. Blot the drainage with a sterile gauze pad and look for a clear halo or ring around the spot of blood
C. Gently suction the ear an send the specimen to the laboratory
D. Test the csf with a tes-tape and get a negative reading for sugar

Situation: Irene P is being treated in the emergency room for an acute attack of Meniere’s syndrome

98. The nurse should recognize that the triad of symptoms associated with Meniere’s syndrome is
A. Nystagmus, arthralgia, and vertigo
B. Nausea, vomiting, and arthralgia
C. Syncope, headache, and hearing loss
D. Hearing loss, vertigo, and tinnitus

99. Patient teaching for Mrs. P includes helping her to recognize that
A. Meniere’s syndrome is psychogenic and is brought on by stress
B. Most patients can be successfully treated with a low-salt diet and diuretics
C. Acute infection can precipitate an attack
 D. A labyrinthectomy is the preferred treatment for relieving symptoms and restoring hearing

100. Nursing intervention during an acute attack includes

A. Encouraging the patient to walk
B. Placing the patient in a semi-fowler’s position
C. Having the patient lie flat
D. Placing the patient in trendelenburg’s position

101. The nurse is caring for a client who has patches on both eyes following eye surgery. When entering the
room the nurse should do which of the following?
A. Announce presence and name clearly before entering the room.
B. Speak in a louder tone than usual.
C. Enter the room quietly and touch the client before speaking.
D. Refrain from saying things like I see to the client.

102. An adult client with hemiplegia and right hemianopia expresses concern about how to operate the
vacuum cleaner and washing machine at home. Which of the following nursing diagnoses is appropriate
for this client?
A. High risk for injury related to right-sided weakness.
B. Impaired home maintenance management related to paralysis and visual impairment.
C. Altered health management related to altered mobility and sensory perception.
D. Hygiene and self-care deficit related to inability to keep house clean.

103. A nurse is reviewing the record of a client with a disorder involving the inner ear. Which of the following
would the nurse expect to see documented as an assessment finding in this client?
A. Severe hearing loss
B. Complaints of severe pain in the affected ear
C. Complaints of burning in the ear
D. Complaints of tinnitus

104. The nurse would expect an elderly client with a hearing loss caused by aging to have:
A. Copious, moist cerumen
B. Tears in the tympanic membrane
C. Difficulty hearing women’s voices
D. Over growth of the epithelial auditory lining

105. Two days ago, a client underwent an autograft for second-and third-degree burns on the arms. Now, the
nurse finds the client doing arm exercises. The nurse knows that exercise should be avoided because it
may:

A. Dislodge the autograft.

B. Increase edema in the arms.
C. Increase the amount of scarring.
D. Decrease circulation to the fingers.