ĐỀ ÔN THI TNPT -ĐỀ 1 -5 (NGA)

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ĐỀ SỐ 1

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined
part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. permitted B. wanted C. stopped D. needed
Question 2: A. effect B. enter C. restore D. engage
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the
other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. effort B. actor C. perform D. area
Question 4: A. disappear B. recommend C. entertain D.
fortunate
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of
the following questions.
Question 5: Lady Gaga is an American singer, songwriter and actress, ______?
A. doesn’t B. is she C. isn’t Lady Gaga D. isn’t she
Question 6: Many graffiti without the permission of the owner of the wall.
A. are writing B. are written C. is writing D. is
written
Question 7: She likes reading books ______ the library.
A. on B. at C. in D. from
Question 8: The more cigarettes you smoke, you will die.
A. the soon B. soon C. the sooner D. sooner
Question 9: It’s silly of him to spend a lot of money buying ______ table.
A. a thick wooden old B. a thick old wooden C. an old wooden thick D. a
wooden thick old
Question 10: When he came, I _______ in the kitchen.
A. cooked B. am cooking C. has cooked D. was
cooking
Question 11: ________ he was the most prominent candidate, he was not chosen.
A. Though B. Because C. As D. Since
Question 12: ________ to the destination, he will have been walking for about three hours.
A. When John will get B. By the time John gets C. After John has got D. Until
John is getting
Question 13: _______ the news of her parents, he jumped for joy.
A. hear B. having heard C. being heard D. heard
Question 14: His ______ of the generator is very famous.
A. invent B. inventive C. invention D. inventor
Question 15: The local government hopes to ______ its plans for introducing cable TV.
A. turn out B. carry out C. carry on D. keep on
Question 16: The jury ______ her compliments on her excellent knowledge of the subject.
A. paid B. gave C. made D. said
Question 17: Nobody took any ______ of the warning and they went swimming in the
contaminated water.
A. information B. attention C. sight D. notice
Question 18: I had a ______ chat with my manager and gave him an update on the project.
A. brief B. short C. quick D. lull
Question 19: There has been a hot debate among the scientists relating to the ______ of using
robotic probes to study distant objects in space.
A. problems and solutions B. pros and cons C. solutions and limitations D.
causes and effects
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in
meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 20: The new air conditioner was installed yesterday.
A. inspected thoroughly B. put in position
C. well repaired D. delivered to the customer
Question 21: We were pretty disappointed with the quality of the food.
A. highly B. rather C. extremely D. very
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in
meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 22: Many women prefer to use cosmetics to enhance their beauty and make them
look younger.
A. improve B. maximize C. worsen D. enrich
Question 23: I think we cannot purchase this device this time as it costs an arm and a leg.
A. is cheap B. is painful C. is confusing D. is
expensive
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best completes
each of the following exchanges.
Question 24: Nam and Mai are having a party at Nam’s house.
- Nam: “Would you like to have some more dessert, Mai?” - Mai: “______. I’m full.”
A. That would be great B. Yes, I like your party C. Yes, please D. No,
thanks
Question 25: Tim and Peter had a quarrel last week and now Tom is giving Tim advice.
- Tom: “I think the best way to solve that problem is to keep silent.”
- Tim: “______. Silence may kill our friendship.”
A. That’s a great idea B. That’s not a good idea C. I’m not wrong D. Yes, I
think much
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 26 to
30.
Have you ever had the feeling that people older than you are hard to understand? Or, have you
felt like people from younger generations just don’t get it? Maybe you find it easier to connect
with people (26)______ are closer to your age than those who are older or younger than you.
You can probably thank the generation gap for these feelings.
There are currently six generations living in the United States: the Greatest Generation, Silent
Generation, Baby Boomers, Generation X, Millennials, and Generation Z. (27)______
generation has its own unique set of characteristics and norms. For (28)______ , the Greatest
Generation (born 1901-1924)is known for its patriotism, hard workers, and loyalty to
institutions. The Millennials (born 1980-2000)are characterized by their dependence on
technology, detachment from traditional institutions, optimism, and open-mindedness. It is no
(29)______ that many people from different generations have a hard time understanding each
other.
Generation gap refers to differences in actions, beliefs, interests, and opinions that (30)______
between individuals from different generations. So, what causes these differences?
(Adapted from https://study.com/)
Question 26: A. who B. which C. when D. what
Question 27: A. Another B. Very C. All D. Each
Question 28: A. answer B. process C. example D. study
Question 29: A. wonder B. picture C. business D. training
Question 30: A. trade B. exist C. credit D. target
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 31 to 35.
Stars have been significant features in the design of many United States coins and their
number has varied from one to forty-eight stars. Most of the coins issued from about 1799 to
the early years of the twentieth century bore thirteen stars representing the thirteen original
colonies.
Curiously enough, the first American silver coins, issued in 1794, had fifteen stars because
by that time Vermont and Kentucky have joined the Union. At that time it was apparently the
intention of mint officials to add a star for each new state. Following the admission of
Tennessee in 1796, for example, some varieties of half dimes, dimes, and half dollars were
produced with sixteen stars.
As more states were admitted to the Union, however, it quickly became apparent that this
scheme would not prove practical and the coins from 1798 were issued with only thirteen
Stars - one for each of the original colonies. Due to an error at the mint, one variety of the
1828 half-cent was issued with only twelve stars. There is also a variety of the large cent with
only 12 stars, but this is the result of a die break and is not a true error.
Question 31: What is the main topic of the passage?
A. Stars on American coins B. The teaching of astronomy in state
universities
C. Colonial stamps and coins D. The star as national symbol of the
United States
Question 32: The expression “Curiously enough” is used because the author finds it strange
that ______.
A. Tennessee was the first state to use half dimes
B. Vermont and Kentucky joined the Union in 1794
C. silver coins with fifteen stars appeared before coins with thirteen
D. no silver coins were issued until 1794
Question 33: Why was a coin produced in 1828 with only twelve stars?
A. Tennessee had left the Union. B. The mint made a mistake.
C. There were twelve states at the time. D. There is a change in design policy.
Question 34: Which of the following is NOT mentioned as the denomination of an American
coin?
A. Half nickel B. Half-dollar C. Hall cent D. Half
dime
Question 35: The word “their” in line 1 refers to ________.
A. features B. coins C. stars D. colonies
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 36 to 42.
Do you feel like your teenager is spending most of the day glued to a phone screen? You’re
not too far off. A new survey from the Pew Research Center reveals the surprising ways that
technology intersects with teen friendships – and the results show that 57 percent of teens
have made at least one new friend online. Even more surprisingly, only 20 percent of those
digital friends ever meet in person.
While teens do connect with their friends face-to-face outside of school, they spend 55
percent of their day texting with friends, and only 25 percent of teens are spending actual time
with their friends on a daily basis (outside of school hallways). These new forms of
communication are key in maintaining friendships day-to-day – 27 percent of teens instant
message their friends every day, 23 percent connect through social media every day, and 7
percent even video chat daily. Text messaging remains the main form of communication –
almost half of survey respondents say it’s their chosen method of communication with their
closest friend.
While girls are more likely to text with their close friends, boys are meeting new friends (and
maintaining friendships) in the gaming world – 89 percent play with friends they know, and
54 percent play with online-only friends. Whether they’re close with their teammates or not,
online garners say that playing makes them feel “more connected” to friends they know, or
garners they’ve never met.
When making new friends, social media has also become a major part of the teenage identity
– 62 percent of teens are quick to share their social media usernames when connecting with a
new friend (although 80 percent still consider their phone number the best method of contact).
Despite the negative consequences-21 percent of teenage users feel worse about their lives
because of posts they see on social media – teens also have found support and connection
through various platforms. In fact, 68 percent of teens received support during a challenging
time in their lives via social media platforms.
Just as technology has become a gateway for new friendships, or a channel to stay connected
with current friends, it can also make a friendship breakup more public. The study reveals
that girls are more likely to block or unfriend former allies, and 68 percent of all teenage users
report experiencing “drama among their friends on social media. “
(Source: https://www. realsimple.com)
Question 36: The word “digital” in the first paragraph is closest in meaning to _____.
A. analogue B. numeracy C. numerous D. online
Question 37: The word “they” in paragraph 3 refers to _____.
A. friends B. online-only friends C. online gamers D. their
teammates
Question 38: According to the passage, what percentage of teens spend actual time with their
friends?
A. 23% B. 25% C. 27% D. 55%
Question 39: The following sentences are true, EXCEPT _____.
A. Most teenagers use video chat to maintain relationship with friends
B. New forms of communication play an important role in keeping friendships
C. According to the survey, more than half of teens have ever made new friends online
D. Teens only meet face-to-face one fifth of online friends they have made
Question 40: What can be inferred from the passage?
A. The majority of teenage users agree that social media has negative consequences in
their lives.
B. Thanks to social media, more than two thirds of teens are supported when they face
with challenges in their lives.
C. Boys are more likely to meet new friends than girls.
D. Most teens are not easy to give others their usernames when making new friends.
Question 41: What is the synonym of the word “breakup” in the last paragraph?
A. commencing B. popularity C. termination D. divorce
Question 42: What is the main idea of the passage?
A. The difference of making new friends between girls and boys.
B. Social media connects friendship.
C. Social media affects friendship too much.
D. Teenagers are making and keeping friends in a surprising way.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that
needs correction in each of the following questions.
Question 43: What I tell her a few days ago was not the solution to most of her problems.
A B
C D
Question 44: Tom’s jokes are inappropriate but we have to put up with it just because he’s
the boss.
A B C
D
Question 45: Modern office buildings have false floors under which computer and phone
wires
A B
C
can be lain.
D
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in
meaning to each of the following questions.
Question 46: The last time I saw her was three years ago.
A. I have not seen her for three years. B. About three years ago, I used to
meet her.
C. I have often seen her for the last three years. D. I saw her three years ago and will
never meet her.
Question 47: She said, “John, I’ll show you round my city when you’re here. “
A. She made a trip round her city with John. B. She planned to show John round
her city.
C. She promised to show John round her city. D. She organized a trip round her city
for John.
Question 48: It is unnecessary for you to finish the report until tomorrow afternoon.
A. You needn’t finish the report until tomorrow afternoon.
B. You have to finish the report until tomorrow afternoon.
C. You may finish the report after tomorrow afternoon.
D. You should finish the report until tomorrow afternoon.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best
combines each pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 49: Susan didn’t apply for the summer job in the cafe. She now regrets it.
A. Susan wishes that she applied for the summer job in the cafe.
B. Susan feels regret because she didn’t apply for the summer job in the cafe.
C. If only Susan didn’t apply for the summer job in the cafe.
D. Susan wishes that she had applied for the summer job in the cafe.
Question 50: She had only just put the telephone down when the boss rang.
A. She put the telephone down and the boss rang.
B. Hardly had she put the telephone down when the boss rang.
C. The boss rang back, but she put the telephone down.
D. She had put the telephone down, so she let it ring when the boss rang.
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ĐỀ SỐ 2
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined
part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1. A. divided B. borrowed C. arrived D.
maintained
Question 2. A. dream B. mean C. peace D. bear
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the
other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3. A. protect B. begin C. cancel D. require
Question 4. A. discussion B. assistant C. character D.
accountant
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of
the following questions.
Question 5. You were driving home when you saw Lan, ______?
A. didn’t you B. weren’t you C. wouldn’t you D. hadn’t
you
Question 6. I still can’t believe it. My bicycle ______ some minutes ago.
A. was stolen B. was stealing C. stolen D. stole
Question 7. We had to wait ______ him at the school gate for a few minutes.
A. for B. in C. to D. of
Question 8. The more electricity you use, ______ your bill will be.
A. higher B. the higher C. highest D. the
highest
Question 9. We bought some ______ glasses.
A. German lovely old B. German old lovely
C. lovely old German D. old lovely German
Question 10. John ______ the latest novel of a famous writer when I saw him.
A. is reading B. read C. was reading D. reading
Question 11. She didn’t walk home by herself ______ she knew that it was dangerous.
A. because of B. because C. despite D. although
Question 12. He will go out with his friends ______.
A. as soon as he has completed his homework B. when he was completing his
homework
C. until he completed his homework D. before he will have completed
Question 13. ______ it over, I decided to laugh at myself and just join anyway.
A. Having thought B. Thought C. To think D. Being
thought
Question 14. Jet lag causes problems with our ______ clock.
A. biological B. biology C. biologist D.
biologically
Question 15. When I got to 16, some of my friends left school to get a job, but most ______.
A. dropped out B. moved back C. got in D. stayed
on
Question 16. I hate it when people ______ assumptions about me based on my skin color.
A. make B. do C. give D. take
Question 17. The ______ for this position starts at thirty thousand Euros per year.
A. wage B. pension C. salary D. income
Question 18. Since he started his own business he has been making money hand over ______.
A. fist B. heel C. head D. palm
Question 19. The sight of his pale face brought ______ to me how ill he really was.
A. place B. house C. life D. home
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSES T in
meaning to the underlined word (s)in each of the following questions.
Question 20. The new laws to conserve wildlife in the area will come into force next month.
A. destroy B. pollute C. protect D.
eliminate
Question 21. The boy was let off lightly this morning due to not having done his homework.
A. punished B. promised C.commended D.
persuaded
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in
meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 22. Until 1986 most companies would not even allow women to take the exams, but
such gender discrimination is now disappearing.
A. unfairness B. injustice C. partiality D. equality
Question 23. We spent the whole weekend at the five-star hotel and it cost an arm and a leg.
A. was low-cost B. was dear C. was lovely D. was
expensive
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best
completes each of the following exchanges.
Question 24. Nam is talking to Lan about the environmental problem today.
Nam: “What are the main threats to the environment today?”
Lan: “______.”
A. Threats are possible dangers to the environment
B. Probably deforestation and global warming.
C. Environmental pollution is a big issue for our planet
D. We need a clean environment to live in.
Question 25. Two friends are talking about the benefits of swimming.
Daisy: “As far as I know, swimming is a really helpful thing for everyone to improve their
health.”
Mark: “Mark: “______. Swimming can help people keep fit”
A. That sounds great. B. I couldn’t agree with you more.
C. Take part in this summer. D. That’s fine for me.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 26 to
30.
GLOBAL WARMING
Few people now question the reality of global warming and its effects on the world’s climate.
Many scientists (26)______ the blame for recent natural disasters on the increase in the
world’s temperatures and are convinced that, more than ever before, the Earth is at risk from
the forces of the wind, rain and sun. According to them, global warming is making extreme
weather events, such as hurricanes and droughts, even more (27)______ and causing sea
levels all around the world to rise.
Environmental groups are putting pressure on governments to take action to reduce the
amount of carbon dioxide which is given off by factories and power plants, thus attacking the
problem at its source. They are in favor of more money being spent on research into solar,
wind and wave energy devices, (28)______ could then replace existing power station.
Some scientists, (29)______, believe that even if we stopped releasing carbon dioxide and
(30)______ gases into the atmosphere tomorrow, we would have to wait several hundred
years to notice the results. Global warming, it seems, is to stay.
Question 26. A. give B. put C. take D. have
Question 27. A. strict B. severe C. strong D. healthy
Question 28. A. that B. which C. what D. who
Question 29. A. but B. although C. despite D. however
Question 30. A. other B. one C. every D. another
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 31 to 35.
The increase in urbanization causes different problems. Air and water pollution are amongst
the major issue we have to tackle.
In the first place, cars, factories and burning waste emit dangerous gases that change the air
quality in our cities and pose threats to our health. Dangerous gases such as carbon dioxide
and nitrogen oxides cause respiratory diseases, for instant, bronchitis and asthma. Those are
also proved to have long-term effects on the environment.
Furthermore, with the increased population, it becomes difficult to manage the waste
generated in cities. Most of the waste is discharged or dumped into rivers or onto streets. The
waste pollutes water and makes it unfit for human consumption. Subsequently, it becomes
more and more difficult for city dwellers to get clean water. Some cities in Africa are unable
to provide adequate water supply because most of the water is lost in pipe leakages. In fact,
most city dwellers in developing countries are forced to boil their water or to buy bottled
water, which is very expensive.
There are several actions that could be taken to eradicate the problems described above.
Firstly, a simple solution would be joining community efforts to address problems affecting
your city. Ask your parents, friends and relatives to join in as well. These efforts might
include clean-up campaigns, recycling projects and a signature campaign to ask the
government to do something about the situation. A second measure would be encouraging
your teacher to talk about these problems and to discuss how young people can help to solve
them. Finally, writing to local organizations working on these issues for ideas on how you can
contribute to solve them.
Question 31. The word tackle in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. deal with B. make up C. try on D. turn
down
Question 32. The word those in paragraph 2 refers to ______.
A. bronchitis and asthma B. carbon dioxide and nitrogen oxides
C. dangerous gases D. respiratory diseases
Question 33. According to the passage, in some cities in Africa ______.
A. people are allowed to dump waste into rivers and on streets
B. people aren’t provided enough water due to leaking pipes
C. people have found some solutions to the problems
D. people would rather use boiling water and bottled water
Question 34. Which of the following is NOT true according to the passage?
A. City problems should be taught and be topic for students to discuss at school.
B. C. hildren must ask for their parent’s permission before joining community efforts.
C. Participators might take part in different kinds of projects and campaigns.
D. People can contribute in solving the problems by writing to local organizations working
on these issues.
Question 35. Which of the following would serve as the best title for the passage?
A. Environment degradation: Air and water pollution
B. Environmental pollution: Problems and actions
C. Increasing urbanization: Causes and effects
D. Increasing urbanization: Effects and solutions
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 36 to 42.
Most parents want their sons and daughters to have equal chances of success when they grow
up. Today, equality of the sexes is largely mandated by public policy and law. However, old-
fashioned ideas and a lot of prejudice are still part of our culture and present challenging
questions for parents.
Gender stereotypes are rigid ideas about how boys and girls should behave. We all know what
these stereotypes are: A “feminine” girls should be insecure, accommodating and a little
illogical in her thinking. A “masculine” boy should be strong, unemotional, aggressive, and
competitive. How are children exposed to these stereotypes? According to the researchers
David and Myra Sadker of the American University of Washington, D. C. , boys and girls are
often treated differently in the classroom. They found out that when boys speak, teachers
usually offer constructive comments, when girls speech, teachers tend to focus on the
behavior. It’s more important how the girls act rather than what they say.
The emphasis on differences begins at birth and continues throughout childhood. For
example, few people would give pink baby’s clothes to a boy or a blue blanket to a girl. Later,
many of us give girls dolls and miniature kitchenware, while boys receive action figures and
construction sets. There’s nothing wrong with that. The problem arises when certain activities
are deemed appropriate for one sex but not the other. According to Heather J. Nicholson, Ph.
D. , director of the National Resource Center for Girls, Inc. , this kind of practice prevents
boys and girls from acquiring important skills for their future lives.
“The fact is, “ says Nicholson, “that society functions as a kind of sorting machine regarding
gender. In a recent survey, fifty-eight percent of eighth-grade girls but only six percent of
boys earned money caring for younger children. On the other hand, twenty-seven percent of
boys but only three percent of girls earned money doing lawn work”. If we are serious about
educating a generation to be good workers and parents, we need to eliminate such stereotypes
as those mentioned previously.
Gender stereotypes inevitably are passed to our children. However, by becoming aware of the
messages our children receive, we can help them develop ways to overcome these incorrect
ideas. To counteract these ideas, parents can look for ways to challenge and support their
children, and to encourage confidence in ways that go beyond what society’s fixed ideas
about differences of sexes are.
(Source: https://en. isicollective.com)
Question 36. Which of the following could be the main idea of the passage?
A. D. eep-seated stereotypes about genders and their effects.
B. Different prejudice about how girls and boys should behave and be treated.
C. The role of culture in the behavior of different genders.
D. The influence of education and society on gender stereotypes.
Question 37. According to the second passage, David and Myra Sadker of the American
University of Washington, D. 0 found that _______.
A. schoolboys and schoolgirls are treated equally in the classroom.
B. teachers often concentrate on boys’ behavior and girls’ manners.
C. boys are commented usefully whereas girls are paid attention to behavior.
D. girls are taught to be insecure, accommodating and illogical while boys are strong,
unemotional, aggressive, and competitive.
Question 38. What does the word “that” in paragraph 3 refer to?
A. The differences between boys and girls begin at birth and continue throughout
childhood.
B. People often give pink clothes to a boy and a blue blanket to a girl.
C. Many people give girls dolls and miniature kitchen and boys receive action figures and
construction sets when they were born.
D. People give different genders of children distinct kinds of presents or clothes.
Question 39. The word “deemed” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to _______.
A. celebrated B. supposed C. designed D.
established
Question 40. According to the passage, which of the following is UNTRUE about gender
stereotypes?
A. Male and female children are expected to behave the same as what adults think they
should.
B. The distinctions in treatment to boys and girls commence when they were given birth.
C. Its beneficial for children to practice fundamental skills if they are treated unequally
quite early.
D. Children are differently treated not only at homes but also at schools.
Question 41. The result of a recent survey showed that the number of girls at the age of eight
paid for babysitting was ______.
A. 58% B. 27% C. 6% D. 3%
Question 42. The word “counteract” in the last paragraph could be best replaced by
_______.
A. promote B. frustrate C. encourage D. inspire
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that
needs correction in each of the following questions.
Question 43. Every member of the class is invited to the party by the form teacher last week.
A. member B. is invited C. to D. the form
teacher
Question 44. She had so much luggage that there was not enough room in the car for them.
A. them B. so much C. that D. was
Question 45. In Italy public opinion as a whole was favourite to the visit, especially as it was
considered an obstacle to the protected increase of the army and navy
A. as a whole B. especially as C. favourite D.
protected increase
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in
meaning to each of the following questions.
Question 46. Mary has been working in this company for five years.
A. Mary began to work in this company for five years.
B. Mary began working in this company for five years ago.
C. Mary began to work in this company five years ago.
D. Mary has begun to work in this company five years ago.
Question 47. The secretary said, “Sorry, I will never work on Sunday.”
A. The secretary promised not to work on Sunday.
B. The secretary refused not to work on Sunday.
C. The secretary reminded her boss to work on Sunday.
D. The secretary refused to work on Sunday.
Question 48. I am not sure that she will arrive at the party on time
A. She may not arrive at the party on time. B. She mustn’t arrive at the party on
time.
C. She should arrive at the party on time. D. She doesn’t have to arrive at the
party on time.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best
combines each pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 49. She is away on her business. I really need her help now.
A. As long as she is at the office, she will be able to help me.
B. I wish she were at the office and could help now.
C. If she is at the office, she can help me now.
D. If only she had been at the office and could have helped me now.
Question 50. She had a pain that she couldn’t go on working.
A. So painful was she that she couldn’t go on working.
B. Only when she had a pain could she not go on working
C. Without her pain, she couldn’t go on working.
D. Only if the pain she has could she go on working.
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ĐỀ SỐ 3
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined
part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1. A. borrowed B. conserved C. approached
D.complained
Question 2. A. hike B. wind C. child D. tide
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the
other three in the position of the primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3. A. garbage B. muscle C. disease D. bottle
Question 4. A.completion B. understand C. material D. behavior
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of
the following questions.
Question 5. Her parents are really strict. They rarely let her stay out late, _______?
A. do they B. don’t they C. does she D. doesn’t
she
Question 6. Every day, Peter’s mother drives him to school. However, today, he _______ to
school by his father.
A. was taken B. is being taken C. is taking D. took
Question 7. Students are _______ less pressure as a result of changes in testing procedures.
A. under B. above C. upon D. out of
Question 8. The more you practice speaking in public, _______.
A. the more you become confident B. the more you become confidently
C. the greater confidence you become D. the more confident you become
Question 9. The report form is available on the two _______ discs in my drawer.
A. small green round B. round small green C. green small round D. small
round green
Question 10. She came into the room while they ______ television.
A. watched B. have watched C. are watching D. were
watching
Question 11. Fast food is very popular. _______, a diet of hamburgers, pizzas and fried
chicken is not very healthy.
A. Consequently B. Moreover C. Unfortunately D. In
contrast
Question 12. He will take the dog out for a walk dinner.
A. as soon as he finishes B. as soon as he finished
C. while he will finish D. before he shall have finished
Question 13. _______ the Nobel Prize, he retired from politics.
A. Received B. Having received C. Being received D. Receive
Question 14. In the past, the _______ and engagement ceremonies took place one or two
years before the wedding.
A. propose B. proposing C. proposal D.
proposed
Question 15. My father is very talented and kind-hearted. I always _______ him.
A. look for B. look like C. look after D. look up
to
Question 16. I don’t like networking events - spending hours trying to _______ small talk
with strangers just isn’t my cup of tea,
A. make B. take C. have D. do
Question 17. He may be shy now, but he will soon come out of his _______ when he meets
the right girl.
A. shoe B. hole C. shed D. shell
Question 18. The hospital had _______ given her up for dead, but she eventually recovered.
A. virtually B. merely C. totally D.
intensively
Question 19. I had all the information at my _______ before attending the meeting.
A. fingertips B. thumbs C. hands D. fingers
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in
meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 20. A. I. algorithms can also help to detect faces and other features in photos sent to
social networking sites and automatically organize them.
A. categorize B. connect C. recognize D. remind
Question 21. Scientists warn of the impending extinction of many species of plants and
animals.
A. irrefutable B. imminent C. formidable D. absolute
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in
meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 22. There are several different kinds of faults in reading which are usually more
exaggerated with foreign learners.
A. overestimated B. understated C. overemphasized D.
undertaken
Question 23. His performance stood head and shoulders above the rest.
A. was better than B. was worse than C. became higher than D. became
cheaper than
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best
completes each of the following exchanges.
Question 24. Tung and Tu are talking about time management skills.
- Tung: “What do you think about time management skill?”
- Tu : “_______”
A. It’s time to go. B. I quite agree with you.
C. It is an important life skill. D. I can’t help thinking about it.
Question 25. Two friends are talking about the coming Christmas holiday.
-Tony : “Are you going to your family reunion this Christmas holiday?”
- Mark: “_______”
A. As a matter of fact, I don’t mind it at all. B. I do. I’ve been excited about it
now.
C. However, My parents and I are going to take a trip abroad
D. You bet. All my uncles and aunts will take their children along, too.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks.
The idea of going overseas to study can be daunting, with visions of baffling languages or
nights spent in isolation while you are gradually forgotten by your friends and family.
(26)_______, the benefits of studying abroad - such as broadening your mind, improving your
career prospects and making friends from all over the world - can make digging out your
passport really rewarding.
“Studying abroad is an eye-opening experience, “ says Anna Boyd, event manager at The
Student World. “Being immersed in (27)_______ culture, understanding differences and
spotting similarities, living on a beach or in the mountains, (28)_______ will have an impact
on every student.”
Overseas study comes in many shapes and sizes. It might be a single semester abroad via an
Erasmus programme, for example. Or you might elect to follow a full three-or four-year
degree programme. Whatever your ambition, the key is starting early. Some countries require
specific combinations of A-levels from UK students, Germany looks for four A-levels
including maths or science and one modern foreign language, for instance, while others, such
as the US, value extracurricular activities. Starting our research well (29)_______ of time can
help you make the right choices. “Getting involved in sports, arts and music is also worth
considering, as well as gaining experience through volunteering and work placements, “ says
Boyd. In fact, applying to study abroad could even work to your advantage, for example, you
might encounter lower (30)_______ requirements.
(Adapted from https://wwwindependent. caukistudent/study-abroad)
Question 26. A. But B. However C. Therefore D. Thereby
Question 27. A. another B. other C. others D. the
other
Question 28. A. where B. why C. which D. that
Question 29. A. right B. straight C. head D. ahead
Question 30. A. entry B. entrance C. enter D. entered
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the answer to each of the questions.
Bali, the fabled “Island of the Gods”, has been enchanting visitors for centuries with its rich
cultural traditions and spectacular panoramas. From lofty, mist enshrouded volcanoes and
cool mountain lakes down through terraced rice fields to a golden strand lapped by azure
waters, every square inch of Bali offers a fresh and unforgettable image.
No less enchanting are its people, some 2. 7 million souls whose artistry and piety are
recognized throughout the world Balinese Hinduism, a complex fusion of Indian cosmology.
Tantric Buddhism and homegrown mythology, is the primary faith of Bali’s inhabitants, and
so deeply woven into the fabric of their daily lives that the line between the spiritual and the
material is blurry at best.
Those of you keen on delving into the island’s fascinating culture will have plenty of
opportunities, as colorful ceremonies and traditional performances occur with the regularity of
sunrise. Most hotels offer nightly dance shows of one form or another, tailored to tourist
audiences but none the less exquisite. The hill town of Ubud, the island’s premier arts center,
also has a full schedule of performance, and the nearby stone-cutter’s village of Batubulan is
famed for its Barong lion dances. The shoppers among you will find Bali a treasure house of
handicrafts and fine works of art. The Balinese are incredibly gifted artists and craftsmen, and
their material creations are imbued with the same sense of wonderment with which they
regard their universe. Stone and wood carvings, traditional and modern paintings and
intricately designed jewelry in gold and silver are readily in shops and galleries throughout
the island.
As for recreation, there is no shortage of options. Nature walks, horseback riding, diving,
surfing, even bungy jumping, and white water rafting await the adventurous here.
(Source: https://books. google.com. vn/books)
Question 31. The topic of the given passage is _______.
A. Balinese life B. Scenery in Bali C. Tourism in Bali D. Bali for
recreation
Question 32. The second paragraph of the passage mainly discusses _______.
A. Population of Bali B. artistry and piety of B. ali
C. Balinese religion D. daily lives of Balinese
Question 33. The word “their” in the second paragraph refers to _______.
A. 2. 7 million souls B. B. ali’s inhabitants
C. daily lives D. the spiritual and the material
Question 34. Which of the following might be a synonym of the word “exquisite” in the third
paragraph?
A. skillful B. clever C. spiritual D. material
Question 35. You can find all these recreational activities in Bali EXCEPT _______.
A. horseback riding B. nature walks C. water rafting D.
parachute jumping
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the answer to each of the questions.
Many people see large urban cities as a wonder of human imagination and creativity. They
represent how far the human population has come in terms of community development. Many
positive things come from urbanization, but there are also negatives. This article will discuss
and present data on the implications of urbanization on the physical health of humans living in
these large urban areas.
As it would be expected, developing countries tend to see more negative physical health
effects than modern countries in regard to urbanization. One example of a developing country
experiencing these problems is China. China is a country that in the past 30–40 years went
from being an agrarian based society to a significant industrialized country. This
industrialization has in effect caused the need for more centralized cities, centralized meaning
having lots of jobs and living spaces within a close proximity. This is what is known as
urbanization. In most recent decades, since China’s change to being more of an industrial
based economy, the country has experienced record high numbers of people migrating within
its borders. In effect, the number of cities with over 500, 000 people has more than doubled.
These migrations are typically of people from rural areas of China moving to the new urban
areas. Due to this large influx in the urban population, there are many possibilities for health
challenges among these people.
One very common and fairly obvious negative aspect of highly congested urban areas is air
pollution. Air pollution is defined as any harmful substance being suspended in the air. This
could include particulate matter, most commonly attributed to industrial plants and refineries
waste, or chemicals like CO2 or Methane (which are also products of plants and refineries as
well as cars and other modes of transportation). Due to a vast number of people in these
urbanized cities, the air pollution is known to be very extreme. These conditions can lead to
many different health problems such as: Asthma, cardiovascular problems or disease, and
different types of cancer (most commonly lung cancer). When exposed to these conditions for
a prolonged period of time, one can experience even more detrimental health effects like: the
acceleration of aging, loss of lung capacity and health, being more susceptible to respiratory
diseases, and a shortened life span.
Another way that urbanization affects the populations’ health is people’s change in diet. For
instance, urban cities tend to have lots of accessible, quick, and easy to get food. This food is
also more than likely not as high quality as well as contains a large amount of sodium and
sugar. Because this food is so accessible, people tend to eat it more. This increase in
consumption of low quality food can then lead to diabetes, hypertension, heart disease,
obesity, or many other health conditions.
(Adapted from https://medium.com)
Question 36. Which of the following could be served as the best title for the passage?
A. Urbanization – Pros and cons
B. Urbanization – How people’s health is impacted?
C. Urban cities – The new opportunity for community development
D. Developing countries – The fastest urbanization
Question 37. What does the phrase “these problems” in paragraph 2 refer to?
A. industrialized countries B. lots of jobs and living spaces
C. immigrants D. negative physical health effects
Question 38. The word “congested” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to _______.
A. overcrowded B. sparse C. contaminated D. fresh
Question 39. The word “detrimental” in paragraph 3 mostly means _______.
A. beneficial B. positive C. harmful D.
dangerous
Question 40. The following are the air pollution sources mentioned in paragraph 3, EXCEPT
_______.
A. industrial factories B. refineries waste C. chemicals D. sewage
Question 41. Why are urban populations easy to get diseases from food, according to the last
paragraph?
A. B. ecause of the low quality and the high proportion of sodium and sugar in this food.
B. Because the way people get this food is rather accessible, quick and easy.
C. Because this food is so delicious that people have a tendency to eat more than normal.
D. Because of the change in people’s diet.
Question 42. What can be inferred from the passage?
A. Living in urban areas for a long time will make the life expectancy of inhabitants
shorten.
B. One of the negative health effects comes from the overpopulation in industrialized
countries.
C. People in developed countries suffer less harmful health effects from urbanization than
those in developing nations.
D. The bad health effects from urbanization are not greater than the benefits it brings to
people in urban cities.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs
correction in each of the following questions.
Question 43. Jane spent a lot of money yesterday. She had bought a dress which cost $100.
A. spent B. yesterday C. had bought D. cost
Question 44. If anyone drops by while I am away, please take a message from him.
A. drops B. while C. take D. him
Question 45. We have conducted exhausting research into the effects of smartphones on
students’ behaviour and their academic performance.
A. exhausting research B. into C. behaviour D. academic
performance
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in
meaning to each of the following questions.
Question 46. I haven’t gone to the cinema for ten years.
A. It was ten years ago I went to the cinema. B. The last time I went to the cinema
was ten years.
C. I last went to the cinema ten years ago. D. It’s ten years I haven’t gone to the
cinema.
Question 47. “You’re always making terrible mistakes.” said the teacher.
A. The teacher asked his students why they always made terrible mistakes.
B. The teacher realized that his students always made terrible mistakes.
C. The teacher complained about his student making terrible mistakes.
D. The teacher made his students not always make terrible mistakes.
Question 48. It isn’t necessary for us to discuss this matter in great detail.
A. We should discuss this matter in great detail. B. We might discuss this matter in
great detail
C. We needn’t discuss this matter in great detail. D. We mustn’t discuss this matter in
great detail.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best
combines each pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 49. Marie didn’t turn up at John’s birthday party. I feel so sorry for that.
A. If only Marie turns up at John’s birthday party.
B. I wish Marie had turned up at John’s birthday party.
C. I wished Marie wouldn’t turn up at John’s birthday party.
D. It’s a shame Marie had turned up at John’s birthday party.
Question 50. Alice registered for the course. She then received the scholarship.
A. Hardly had Alice registered for the course when she received the scholarship.
B. Only after Alice registered for the course, she received the scholarship.
C. Having received the scholarship, Alice registered for the course.
D. Registering for the course helped Alice receive the scholarship.
------------oOo------------
ĐỀ SỐ 4
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined
part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. believed B. prepared C. involved D. invited
Question 2: A. smile B. life C. beautiful D. like
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the
other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. borrow B. allow C. agree D. prepare
Question 4: A. contrary B. document C. heritage D.
employee
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of
the following questions.
Question 5: She’s beautiful, _______?
A. won’t she B. didn’t she C. doesn’t she D. isn’t she
Question 6: The old chicken coop _______ by a windstorm last year.
A. destroyed B. was destroyed C. was destroying D. destroy
Question 7: As an adult, I am independent ________ my parents financially.
A. of B. with C. out D. on
Question 8: ________ we finish, the sooner we can leave.
A. Faster B. The faster C. Fastest D. The
fastest
Question 9: This is a picture of a ________ bus.
A. red London bright B. bright red London C. London bright red D. London
red bright
Question 10: He had a bad fall while he _______ the roof.
A. was repairing B. is repairing C. repaired D. repairs
Question 11: We all wore shorts _______ the cold weather.
A. because of B. because C. though D. in spite
of
Question 12: Jonas will have already retired _______.
A. by the time his daughter graduates B. when his daughter graduated
C. as soon as his daughter had graduated D. after his daughter had graduated
Question 13: _______ green technologies with low-carbon emissions, the country intends to
get rid of coal.
A. Having developed B. Developed C. To develop D. Being
developed
Question 14: Are there any ________ between Vietnamese and American culture?
A. differently B. different C. differences D.
differentiate
Question 15: The bus only stops here to ________ passengers.
A. put down B. get on C. get off D. pick up
Question 16: Population explosion seems to surpass the ability of the earth to _______ the
demand for food.
A. make B. need C. have D. meet
Question 17: The party leader travelled the length and ________ of the country in an attempt
to spread his message.
A. width B. breadth C. diameter D. distance
Question 18: Hearing about people who mistreat animals makes me go hot under the
________.
A. chin B. collar C. sleeves D. vest
Question 19: For a public campaign to succeed, it is important to make ________ of existing
social organizations as well as other relations.
A. fun B. advantage C. benefit D. use
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in
meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 20: You may find that jogging is detrimental to your health rather than beneficial
A. helpful B. facile C. depressing D. harmful
Question 21: People in the mountainous areas are still in the habit of destroying forests for
cultivation.
A. planting B. farming C. industry D. wood
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in
meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 22: Ships crossing the oceans can receive signals from satellites that enable them to
calculate their position accurately.
A. carelessly B. imprecisely C. uneasily D.
untruthfully
Question 23: What we have to remember is that we have to give people a leg up to succeed
in this society and that’s not something we ought to be embarrassed about.
A. give people a helping hand B. assist people
C. hinder people D. give people a boost
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best completes
each of the following exchanges.
Question 24: Mrs. Linda is talking to her student, Brian, about his final results in the
classroom.
- Mrs. Linda: “You’ve been making very good progress. I’m proud of you!”
- Brian: “_______”
A. No problem. B. Don’t worry about it!
C. Everything’s alright. Thank you. D. I really appreciate you saying that.
Question 25: Ann and Peter are talking about homework.
- Ann: “I think students should do their homework before going to school. “
- Peter: “________. They can understand the lessons better.”
A. I don’t think so. B. That’s what you think.
C. You’re wrong. D. There’s no doubt about it.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 26 to
30.
Not everybody recognises the benefits of new developments in communications technology.
Indeed, some people fear that text messaging may actually be having a negative (26)_______
on young people’s communication and language skills, especially when we hear that primary
school children may be at risk of becoming addicted to the habit. So widespread has texting
become, however, that even pigeons have started doing it. (27)_______ , in this case, it’s
difficult to view the results as anything but positive. Twenty of the birds are about to take to
the skies with the task of measuring air pollution, each (28)_______ with sensor equipment
and a mobile phone. The readings made by the sensors will be automatically converted into
text messages and beamed to the Internet where they will appear on a dedicated ‘pigeon blog’.
The birds will also each have a GPS receiver and a camera to capture aerial photos, and
researchers are building a tiny ‘pigeon kit’ containing all these gadgets (29)_______ bird will
carry these in a miniature backpack, apart , that is, from the camera, which will hang around
its neck. The data the pigeons text will be displayed in the form of an interactive map,
(30)_______ will provide local residents with up-to-the-minute information on their local air
quality.
Question 26: A. result B. outcome C. effect D.
conclusion
Question 27: A. Although B. Therefore C. Because D.
However
Question 28: A. armed B. loaded C. granted D. stocked
Question 29: A. each B. another C. much D. many
Question 30: A. who B. which C. whom D. whose
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 31 to 35.
Dinosaurs were reptiles that lived during a period of earth’s history called the Mesozoic Era,
which is known as the Age of Reptiles. The first dinosaurs appeared more than 200 million
years ago. For many millions of years, they dominated the land with their huge size and
strength. Then about 65 million years ago, they died out rather suddenly, never to reemerge.
The word dinosaur comes from two Greek words meaning “terrible lizard”. Dinosaurs were
not lizards, but their appearance could be truly terrifying. The biggest ones weighed more
than ten times as much as a mature elephant and nearly equaled the size of most modern-day
whales. The famous kinds of dinosaurs, including the brontosaurus and tyrannosaurus,
reached 80 to 90 feet in length. Not all dinosaurs were giants, however, some were actually no
larger than a chicken.
Scientists still do not know what caused dinosaur to disappear. One theory involves a change
in the earth’s climate. It is believed that temperature dropped significantly towards the end of
the Cretaceous Period. Too large to hibernate and not having fur or feathers for protection, it
is possible that the climate became too chilly for dinosaurs. In contrast, other species having
protection, such as the mammals and birds, were able to survive.
Question 31. What is the best title for this passage?
A. The Domination of the Land B. Dinosaurs and their extinction
C. Earth’s Largest Reptiles D. The History of Earth
Question 32. The word “ones” in the passage refers to __________
A. dinosaurs B. millions C. lizards D. whales
Question 33. It can be inferred from the passage that the Age of Reptiles lasted about
_______
A. 200 million years B. 135 million years C. 80 million years D. 65
million years
Question 34. The word “chilly” in the passage refers to _________
A. very hot B. extremely dry C. very cold D. very
humid
Question 35. According to the passage, what is TRUE about the size of dinosaurs?
A. It made them the largest creatures ever on earth. B. It varied quite greatly.
C. It guaranteed their survival. D. It was rather uniform.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 36 to 42.
The roles of higher education in sustainable economic and social development increase year
by year, and this will continue over the next decades. Higher education can be seen as a focal
point of knowledge and its application, an institution which makes a great contribution to the
economic growth and development through fostering innovation and increasing higher skills.
It is looked as a way to improve the quality of life and address major social and global
challenges. Higher education is broadly defined as one of key drivers of growth performance,
prosperity and competitiveness.
Business has changed over the last decade. There are a lot of jobs today that failed to exist
several decades ago. The 2017 McKinsey report estimated that 49 percent of time spent on
recurrent work activities worldwide could be automated using existing technologies. The
requirements on employee’s skills have also changed. Modern universities provide their
students with various programmes aimed at preparing them for different economic sectors,
helping them to stay and progress in the labour market for long, programmes that make a
difference for labour market outcomes and keep pace with changes in the global economy and
changes in the innovation process. Universities promote lifelong learning; they offer
opportunities to engage and attract professionals into training and professional development.
Investing in knowledge creation and enabling its diffusion is the key to creating high-wage
employment and enhancing productivity growth.
One of the missions of the modern universities is finding solutions to big challenges and
conducting research within global priority areas, contributing to social outcomes such as
health and social engagement. Often it is aimed at designing technologies that result in new
products and supplying advanced technology for use. Knowledge is the true basis of higher
education: its production via research, its transmission via teaching, its acquisition and use by
students. Hence, excellence must remain the prime objective of any institution of higher
education, including universities in any country. Countries are putting knowledge at the
service of their societies to create a better world. This can be achieved through the training of
first-class minds, through major advances in science and technology and by encouraging an
interest in learning.
Now, to realize its full potential, higher education is to maintain a pro-active stance,
strengthen its position as a bedrock upon which countries are and build a new road to growth.
(Source: https://qswownews.com/)
Question 36. Which best serves as the title for the passage?
A. Importance of higher education. B. What is higher education?
C. Ensuring continuity for learning. D. Transforming tertiary education.
Question 37. The word “address” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to _______.
A. label B. tackle C. convey D. face
Question 38. According to paragraph 2, what is NOT mentioned about the current situation
around the role of higher education?
A. Technology is changing the nature of work.
B. Higher education can create a quality workforce.
C. Global economy is the only reason tertiary education exists.
D. Higher education adapts workforce to the changing economy.
Question 39. The word “they” in paragraph 2 refers to _____.
A. universities B. changes C. students D.
programmes
Question 40. According to paragraph 3, what can be suggested about tertiary education?
A. It can support business and industry.
B. It is a technology and innovation driver.
C. Higher education students are guaranteed higher living standards.
D. Many countries choose to retain the universities’ traditional role.
Question 41. The word “bedrock” in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to _______.
A. essence B. root C. heart D.
foundation
Question 42. The following statements are true, EXCEPT __________.
A. The modern workplace is in a constant state of evolution.
B. Automation is able to remove part of the repetitive tasks.
C. Research can directly impact the wealth of an economy.
D. A skilled workforce will potentially increase productivity.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that
needs correction in each of the following questions.
Question 43: Last summer, Jack travels to the United States for the first time.
A B C
D
Question 44: Teenagers nowadays often have her own idols who they really love and try to
imitate.
A B
C D
Question 45: His career in the elicited drug trade ended with the police raid this morning.
A B C D
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in
meaning to each of the following questions.
Question 46: They last met each other two years ago.
A. They haven’t met each other for two years. B. They didn’t meet each other two
years ago.
C. They have met each other for two years. D. They hung out with each other for
two years.
Question 47: “Remember to switch off when you have finished”, he said.
A. He reminded me to switch off when I had finished. B. He offered to switch off when I
had finished.
C. He suggested switching off when I had finished. D. He promised to switch off when I
had finished.
Question 48: It is mandatory to submit your assignment today.
A. You must submit your assignment today. B. You need submit your assignment
today.
C You should submit your assignment today. D. You may submit your assignment
today.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best
combines each pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 49: She doesn’t have any money with her. She can’t take the bus home now.
A. As long as she has money, she will be able to take the bus home.
B. She wishes she had some money and could take the bus home now.
C. If she has money, she can take the bus home now.
D. If only she had had money and could have taken the bus home.
Question 50: I checked that the burglars had left. I called the police only then.
A. But for my calling the police, I could have checked that the burglars had left.
B. Hardly had I called the police when I checked that the burglars had left.
C. Not until I called the police had I checked that the burglars had left.
D. Only after I had checked that the burglars had left did I call the police.
ĐỀ SỐ 5
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined
part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. believed B. prepared C. involved D.
suggested
Question 2: A. grade B. table C. bank D. same
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined
part differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following
questions.
Question 3: A. enter B. repeat C. prepare D. provide
Question 4: A. opponent B. gravity C. experience D. material
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of
the following questions.
Question 5: You have a book about dinosaurs, ________?
A. do you B. don’t you C. have you D. haven’t
you
Question 6: The injured ________ to the hospital in an ambulance.
A. were taking B. take C. were taken D. have
taken
Question 7: They finally arrived in Paris ________ schedule.
A. on B. in C. by D. of
Question 8: The more English vocabulary we know, ________ we speak.
A. better B. best C. the best D. the
better
Question 9: Lara goes to a ________ temple every week.
A. great big ancient Buddhist B. Buddhist great big ancient
C. ancient great big Buddhist D. big great ancient Buddhist
Question 10: The children were playing football when their mother ________ back home.
A. came B.comes C. had come D. will
come
Question 11: He decided to quit the job ________ he got high salary.
A. despite B. because C. although D. because
of
Question 12: They will have finished building a new bridge ________ to the town next year.
A. after we had returned B. before we returned
C. while we were returning D. when we return.
Question 13: ________classical dance for five years, Akiko finally felt ready to perform in
public.
A. Being studied B. Having studied C. Studied D. To
study
Question 14: The local authority asked for a __________contribution from the community to
repair roads and bridges.
A. volunteer B. voluntary C. voluntarily D.
voluntariness
Question 15: Such approaches should be supported and mainstreamed in health interventions
in order to ________ positive behavior change.
A. put off B. set off C. bring about D. hold up
Question 16: The principal will ______ a speech at the meeting.
A. make B. think C. speak D. take
Question 17: It’s wise to think about choosing a ______ before leaving school.
A. business B. career C. living D.
profession
Question 18: After congratulating his team, the coach left, allowing the players to let their
______ down for a while.
A. hearts B. hair C. souls D. heads
Question 19: Your store needs a bold sign that will catch the ________ of anyone walking
down the street. That may help to sell more products.
A. eye B. peek C. flash D. glimpse
Mark the letter A, B, Cor D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in
meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 20: Her courage not only inspired her followers but moved her rivals as well.
A. depressed B. motivated C. overlooked D. rejected
Question 21: The African rhino is an endangered species and needs protecting.
A. unstable B. dangerous C. insecure D.
indefensible
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in
meaning to the underlinded word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 22: ‘If we continue to deplete our planets natural resources, we will damage the
environment significantly.
A. use up B. add to C. reduce D. exhaust
Question 23: Sorry, I can’t come to your party. I am snowed under with work at the
moment.
A. relaxed about B. busy with C. interested in D. free
from
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best
completes each of the following exchanges.
Question 24: Albert and Bill are having dinner in Bill’s house.
- Albert: “This dish is really nice!”
- Bill: “________. It’s called yakitori, and it’s made with chicken livers.”
A. It’s my pleasure. B. Sure, I’ll be glad to. C. I’m glad you like it. D. I guess
you’re right.
Question 25: Paul and Daisy are discussing about life in the future.
Paul: “I believe space travel will become more affordable for many people in the future.”
Daisy: “______”
A. It doesn’t matter at all. B. I am sorry to hear that.
C. It is very kind of you to say so. D. There’s no doubt about that.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks.
Pets can improve your life.
The role of animals in helping people recover from a range of health and emotional problem
has long been widely recognized. Now a survey (26)_______is reported in the Journal of
Personality and Social Psychology appears to show that owning a pet can benefit healthy
individuals, too. A number of experiments, (27)_______ by two universities in the United
States, indicate that pet owners are generally happier, healthier, fitter, more confident and
better able to cope with everyday issues than non – owners.
The researchers discovered that individuals have just as close a relationship with the key
people in their lives in other words family and friends, (28)_______ they have with their pets.
And although they found no (29)_______that people choose emotional relationship with pets
over relationships with (30)_______ people, a study of universities showed that owning a pet
helped them get over the break-up of a relationship with a partner.
(Source: www. the first trainer.com/)
Question 26. A. which B. who C. where D. when
Question 27. A. carried B. conducted C. governed D. operated
Question 28. A. because B. because of C. as D. although
Question 29. A. testimony B. support C. evidence D. indication
Question 30. A. other B. a lot of C. another D. every
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct answer to each of the questions
The generation gap that was so in evidence during the 60s has resurfaced, but it is not the
disruptive force that it was during the Vietnam era, a 2009 study suggests. The Pew Research
Center study found that 79% of Americans see major differences between younger and older
adults in the way they look at the world. In 1969, a Gallup Poll found that a smaller
percentage, 74%, perceived major differences.
Today, however, although more Americans see generational differences, most do not see them
as divisive. That is partly because of the areas of difference. The top areas of disagreement
between young and old, according to the Pew Research Study, are the use of technology and
taste in music. Grandparents are likely to have observed these differences in their
grandchildren who are tweens, teens, and young adults.
If large differences between the generations exist, why don’t they spawn conflict? The answer
is twofold.
First, the two largest areas of difference—technology and music—are less emotionally
charged than political issues. The older generation is likely to be proud of the younger
generation’s prowess in technology rather than to view it as a problem. As for the musical
differences, each generation wants its own style of music, and the older generation generally
can relate to that desire.
Second, in the other areas of difference, the younger generation tends to regard the older
generation as superior to their own generation—clearly a difference from the 1960s with its
rallying cry of “Don’t trust anyone over thirty. “ According to the Pew study, all generations
regard older Americans as superior in moral values, work ethic and respect for others.
(Adapted from www. verywellfamily.com)
Question 31: Which of the following could be the main idea of the passage?
A. Generation gap doesn’t cause a big problem in American families.
B. Different points of view are the main problem between generations in America.
C. The generation gap in the past was different from that in modern time.
D. The areas of differences in generation gap have changed over the years.
Question 32: The word “divisive” in the second paragraph is closest in meaning to
_________.
A. agreeing B. positive C. serious D.
discordant
Question 33: What are the two reasons why large differences between generations don’t
cause disagreement?
A. The generosity of the elder generation and the attitude of the younger generation.
B. The different styles of music and the knowledge of the elder generation.
C. The major aspects of differences between generations and the respect to the elder
generation.
D. The pride of the elder generation and the obedience of the younger one
Question 34: The word “their” in the last paragraph refers to __________.
A. the older generation’s B. the younger generation’s
C. supervisor’s D. over-thirty people’s
Question 35: According to the passage, which is NOT true?
A. The majority of Americans agree generations’ viewpoint to be the major differences.
B. Technology is one of the two biggest areas creating the gap between the old and the
young.
C. Grandparents feel uncomfortable with their grandchildren because of their better
technology skills.
D. The elderly in America are admired in moral values, work ethic and respect for others.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer
to each of the questions.
People are living longer and, in some parts of the world, healthier lives. This represents one of
the crowning achievements of the last century, but also a significant challenge. Longer lives
must be planned for. Societal aging may affect economic growth and lead to many other
issues, including the sustainability of families, the ability of states and communities to provide
resources for older citizens, and international relations. The Global Burden of Disease, a study
conducted by the World Health Organization, predicts a very large increase in age-related
chronic disease in all regions of the world. Dealing with this will be a significant challenge for
all countries’ health services.
Population aging is driven by declines in fertility and improvements in health and longevity.
In more developed countries, falling fertility beginning in the early 1900’s has resulted in
current levels being below the population replacement rate of two live births per woman.
Perhaps the most surprising demographic development of the past 20 years has been the pace
of fertility decline in many less developed countries. In 2006, for example, the total fertility
rate was at or below the replacement rate in 44 less developed countries.
One central issue for policymakers in regard to pension funds is the relationship between the
official retirement age and actual retirement age. Over several decades in the latter part of the
20th century, many of the more developed nations lowered the official age at which people
become fully entitled to public pension benefits. This was propelled by general economic
conditions, changes in welfare philosophy, and private pension trends. Despite the recent
trend toward increased workforce participation at older ages, a significant gap between
official and actual ages of retirement persists. This trend is emerging in rapidly aging
developing countries as well. Many countries already have taken steps towards much-needed
reform of their old-age social insurance programs. One common reform has been to raise the
age at which workers are eligible for full public pension benefits. Another strategy for
bolstering economic security for older people has been to increase the contributions by
workers. Other measures to enhance income for older people include new financial
instruments for private savings, tax incentives for individual retirement savings, and
supplemental occupational pension plans.
As life expectancy increases in most nations, so do the odds of different generations within a
family coexisting. In more developed countries, this has manifested itself as the ‘beanpole
family, ‘ a vertical extension of family structure characterized by an increase in the number of
living generations within a lineage and a decrease in the number of people within each
generation. As mortality rates continue to improve, more people in their 50’s and 60’s will
have surviving parents, aunts, and uncles. Consequently, more children will know their
grandparents and even their great-grandparents, especially their great-grandmothers. There is
no historical precedent for a majority of middle-aged and older adults having living parents.
(Adapted from https://www. ielts-mentor.com)
Question 36. Which of the following best describes the main purpose of the author in the
passage?
A. To present a synopsis of the causes and effects of the aging population.
B. To provide an overview of the drawbacks of the world’s aging population.
C. To suggest some effective solutions to deal with the rapid increase of the aging
population.
D. To prove the significant contribution of the aging population to the world economy.
Question 37: As mentioned in the first paragraph, the following aspects will be influenced by
the aging in the society, EXCEPT ______.
A. the stable progress of families B. social welfare
C. medical care D. technology achievements
Question 38: What does the word “this” in paragraph 3 refer to?
A. public pension benefits
B. the reduction of the official age entirely pensioned
C. the relationship between the official retirement age and actual retirement age
D. central issue
Question 39: The word “eligible” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to ________.
A. entitled B. unqualified C. mature D. devoted
Question 40: According to paragraph 3, which of the following is the measure of old-age
social insurance programs?
A. The decrease in the age the elderly can receive pension.
B. The encouragement the elderly to contribute more in economy.
C. Enacting many policies to increase their income before retirement.
D. Widening the gap between official and actual ages of retirement.
Question 41: The word “manifested” in the last paragraph could be best replaced by
________.
A. illustrated B. demonstrated C. proved D.
recognized
Question 42: What is the benefit of aging mentioned in the last paragraph?
A. The mortality rates are decreasing.
B. People will have the chance to live with their parents longer.
C. Children are likely to live in an extended family with more brothers and sisters.
D. The life expectancy is being improved.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs
correction in each of the following questions.
Question 43: He didn’t meet her even one time since they said goodbye together.
A B C D
Question 44: I bought an interesting book last week, but I cannot find them now.
A B C D
Question 45: He’s such a bored guy because he only ever talks about himself.
A B C D
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in
meaning to each of the following questions.
Question 46: She began to play the piano three years ago.
A. She has played the piano since three years. B. She has played the piano for three
years.
C. She doesn’t play the piano now. D. She stops playing the piano now.
Question 47: “I’ll help you repair this washing machine, Jenny”, he said.
A. He admitted helping Jenny repair that washing machine.
B. He denied helping Jenny repair that washing machine.
C. He promised to help Jenny repair that washing machine.
D. He refused to help Jenny repair that washing machine.
Question 48: : It isn’t necessary for you to finish the report by Sunday.
A. You don’t have to finish the report by Sunday. B. You might finish the report by
Sunday.
C. You must finish the report by Sunday. D. You can’t finish the report by
Sunday.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best
combines each pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 49: You didn’t help me. I couldn’t overcome the problem.
A. As long as you helped me, I could overcome the problem.
B. If you didn’t help me, I couldn’t overcome the problem.
C. If only you helped me to overcome the problem.
D. I wish you had helped me to overcome the problem.
Question 50: I posted the letter. I realized that I had forgotten to put on a stamp.
A. Only after posting the letter did I realize that I had forgotten to put on a stamp.
B. Hardly had I realized that I had forgotten to put on a stamp when I posted the letter.
C. Not only did I realize that I had forgotten to put a stamp on the letter but I posted it as
well.
D. No sooner had I posted the letter than I forgot to put on a stamp.
------------oOo------------

ĐỀ SỐ 1

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined
part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. permitted B. wanted C. stopped D. needed
Question 2: A. effect B. enter C. restore D. engage
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the
other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. effort B. actor C. perform D. area
Question 4: A. disappear B. recommend C. entertain D.
fortunate
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of
the following questions.
Question 5: Lady Gaga is an American singer, songwriter and actress, ______?
A. doesn’t B. is she C. isn’t Lady Gaga D. isn’t she
Question 6: Many graffiti ______ without the permission of the owner of the wall.
A. are writing B. are written C. is writing D. is
written
Question 7: She likes reading books ______ the library.
A. on B. at C. in D. from
Question 8: The more cigarettes you smoke, you will die.
A. the soon B. soon C. the sooner D. sooner
Question 9: It’s silly of him to spend a lot of money buying ______ table.
A. a thick wooden old B. a thick old wooden C. an old wooden thick D. a
wooden thick old
Question 10: When he came, I _______ in the kitchen.
A. cooked B. am cooking C. has cooked D. was
cooking
Question 11: ________ he was the most prominent candidate, he was not chosen.
A. Though B. Because C. As D. Since
Question 12: ________ to the destination, he will have been walking for about three hours.
A. When John will get B. By the time John gets C. After John has got D. Until
John is getting
Question 13: _______ the news of her parents, he jumped for joy.
A. hear B. having heard C. being heard D. heard
Question 14: His ______ of the generator is very famous.
A. invent B. inventive C. invention D. inventor
Question 15: The local government hopes to ______ its plans for introducing cable TV.
A. turn out B. carry out C. carry on D. keep on
Question 16: The jury ______ her compliments on her excellent knowledge of the subject.
A. paid B. gave C. made D. said
Question 17: Nobody took any ______ of the warning and they went swimming in the
contaminated water.
A. information B. attention C. sight D. notice
Question 18: I had a ______ chat with my manager and gave him an update on the project.
A. brief B. short C. quick D. lull
Question 19: There has been a hot debate among the scientists relating to the ______ of using
robotic probes to study distant objects in space.
A. problems and solutions B. pros and cons C. solutions and limitations D.
causes and effects
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in
meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 20: The new air conditioner was installed yesterday.
A. inspected thoroughly B. put in position
C. well repaired D. delivered to the customer
Question 21: We were pretty disappointed with the quality of the food.
A. highly B. rather C. extremely D. very
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in
meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 22: Many women prefer to use cosmetics to enhance their beauty and make them
look younger.
A. improve B. maximize C. worsen D. enrich
Question 23: I think we cannot purchase this device this time as it costs an arm and a leg.
A. is cheap B. is painful C. is confusing D. is
expensive
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best completes
each of the following exchanges.
Question 24: Nam and Mai are having a party at Nam’s house.
- Nam: “Would you like to have some more dessert, Mai?” - Mai: “______. I’m full.”
A. That would be great B. Yes, I like your party C. Yes, please D. No,
thanks
Question 25: Tim and Peter had a quarrel last week and now Tom is giving Tim advice.
- Tom: “I think the best way to solve that problem is to keep silent.”
- Tim: “______. Silence may kill our friendship.”
A. That’s a great idea B. That’s not a good idea C. I’m not wrong D. Yes, I
think much
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 26 to
30.
Have you ever had the feeling that people older than you are hard to understand? Or, have you
felt like people from younger generations just don’t get it? Maybe you find it easier to connect
with people (26)______ are closer to your age than those who are older or younger than you.
You can probably thank the generation gap for these feelings.
There are currently six generations living in the United States: the Greatest Generation, Silent
Generation, Baby Boomers, Generation X, Millennials, and Generation Z. (27)______
generation has its own unique set of characteristics and norms. For (28)______ , the Greatest
Generation (born 1901-1924)is known for its patriotism, hard workers, and loyalty to
institutions. The Millennials (born 1980-2000)are characterized by their dependence on
technology, detachment from traditional institutions, optimism, and open-mindedness. It is no
(29)______ that many people from different generations have a hard time understanding each
other.
Generation gap refers to differences in actions, beliefs, interests, and opinions that (30)______
between individuals from different generations. So, what causes these differences?
(Adapted from https://study.com/)
Question 26: A. who B. which C. when D. what
Question 27: A. Another B. Very C. All D. Each
Question 28: A. answer B. process C. example D. study
Question 29: A. wonder B. picture C. business D. training
Question 30: A. trade B. exist C. credit D. target
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 31 to 35.
Stars have been significant features in the design of many United States coins and their
number has varied from one to forty-eight stars. Most of the coins issued from about 1799 to
the early years of the twentieth century bore thirteen stars representing the thirteen original
colonies.
Curiously enough, the first American silver coins, issued in 1794, had fifteen stars because
by that time Vermont and Kentucky have joined the Union. At that time it was apparently the
intention of mint officials to add a star for each new state. Following the admission of
Tennessee in 1796, for example, some varieties of half dimes, dimes, and half dollars were
produced with sixteen stars.
As more states were admitted to the Union, however, it quickly became apparent that this
scheme would not prove practical and the coins from 1798 were issued with only thirteen
Stars - one for each of the original colonies. Due to an error at the mint, one variety of the
1828 half-cent was issued with only twelve stars. There is also a variety of the large cent with
only 12 stars, but this is the result of a die break and is not a true error.
Question 31: What is the main topic of the passage?
A. Stars on American coins B. The teaching of astronomy in state
universities
C. Colonial stamps and coins D. The star as national symbol of the
United States
Question 32: The expression “Curiously enough” is used because the author finds it strange
that ______.
A. Tennessee was the first state to use half dimes
B. Vermont and Kentucky joined the Union in 1794
C. silver coins with fifteen stars appeared before coins with thirteen
D. no silver coins were issued until 1794
Question 33: Why was a coin produced in 1828 with only twelve stars?
A. Tennessee had left the Union. B. The mint made a mistake.
C. There were twelve states at the time. D. There is a change in design policy.
Question 34: Which of the following is NOT mentioned as the denomination of an American
coin?
A. Half nickel B. Half-dollar C. Hall cent D. Half
dime
Question 35: The word “their” in line 1 refers to ________.
A. features B. coins C. stars D. colonies
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 36 to 42.
Do you feel like your teenager is spending most of the day glued to a phone screen? You’re
not too far off. A new survey from the Pew Research Center reveals the surprising ways that
technology intersects with teen friendships – and the results show that 57 percent of teens
have made at least one new friend online. Even more surprisingly, only 20 percent of those
digital friends ever meet in person.
While teens do connect with their friends face-to-face outside of school, they spend 55
percent of their day texting with friends, and only 25 percent of teens are spending actual time
with their friends on a daily basis (outside of school hallways). These new forms of
communication are key in maintaining friendships day-to-day – 27 percent of teens instant
message their friends every day, 23 percent connect through social media every day, and 7
percent even video chat daily. Text messaging remains the main form of communication –
almost half of survey respondents say it’s their chosen method of communication with their
closest friend.
While girls are more likely to text with their close friends, boys are meeting new friends (and
maintaining friendships) in the gaming world – 89 percent play with friends they know, and
54 percent play with online-only friends. Whether they’re close with their teammates or not,
online garners say that playing makes them feel “more connected” to friends they know, or
garners they’ve never met.
When making new friends, social media has also become a major part of the teenage identity
– 62 percent of teens are quick to share their social media usernames when connecting with a
new friend (although 80 percent still consider their phone number the best method of contact).
Despite the negative consequences-21 percent of teenage users feel worse about their lives
because of posts they see on social media – teens also have found support and connection
through various platforms. In fact, 68 percent of teens received support during a challenging
time in their lives via social media platforms.
Just as technology has become a gateway for new friendships, or a channel to stay connected
with current friends, it can also make a friendship breakup more public. The study reveals
that girls are more likely to block or unfriend former allies, and 68 percent of all teenage users
report experiencing “drama among their friends on social media. “
(Source: https://www. realsimple.com)
Question 36: The word “digital” in the first paragraph is closest in meaning to _____.
A. analogue B. numeracy C. numerous D. online
Question 37: The word “they” in paragraph 3 refers to _____.
A. friends B. online-only friends C. online gamers D. their
teammates
Question 38: According to the passage, what percentage of teens spend actual time with their
friends?
A. 23% B. 25% C. 27% D. 55%
Question 39: The following sentences are true, EXCEPT _____.
A. Most teenagers use video chat to maintain relationship with friends
B. New forms of communication play an important role in keeping friendships
C. According to the survey, more than half of teens have ever made new friends online
D. Teens only meet face-to-face one fifth of online friends they have made
Question 40: What can be inferred from the passage?
A. The majority of teenage users agree that social media has negative consequences in
their lives.
B. Thanks to social media, more than two thirds of teens are supported when they face
with challenges in their lives.
C. Boys are more likely to meet new friends than girls.
D. Most teens are not easy to give others their usernames when making new friends.
Question 41: What is the synonym of the word “breakup” in the last paragraph?
A.commencing B. popularity C. termination D. divorce
Question 42: What is the main idea of the passage?
A. The difference of making new friends between girls and boys.
B. Social media connects friendship.
C. Social media affects friendship too much.
D. Teenagers are making and keeping friends in a surprising way.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that
needs correction in each of the following questions.
Question 43: What I tell her a few days ago was not the solution to most of her problems.
A B
C D
Question 44: Tom’s jokes are inappropriate but we have to put up with it just because he’s
the boss.
A B C
D
Question 45: Modern office buildings have false floors under which computer and phone
wires
A B
C
can be lain.
D
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in
meaning to each of the following questions.
Question 46: The last time I saw her was three years ago.
A. I have not seen her for three years. B. About three years ago, I used to
meet her.
C. I have often seen her for the last three years. D. I saw her three years ago and will
never meet her.
Question 47: She said, “John, I’ll show you round my city when you’re here. “
A. She made a trip round her city with John. B. She planned to show John round
her city.
C. She promised to show John round her city. D. She organized a trip round her city
for John.
Question 48: It is unnecessary for you to finish the report until tomorrow afternoon.
A. You needn’t finish the report until tomorrow afternoon.
B. You have to finish the report until tomorrow afternoon.
C. You may finish the report after tomorrow afternoon.
D. You should finish the report until tomorrow afternoon.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best
combines each pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 49: Susan didn’t apply for the summer job in the cafe. She now regrets it.
A. Susan wishes that she applied for the summer job in the cafe.
B. Susan feels regret because she didn’t apply for the summer job in the cafe.
C. If only Susan didn’t apply for the summer job in the cafe.
D. Susan wishes that she had applied for the summer job in the cafe.
Question 50: She had only just put the telephone down when the boss rang.
A. She put the telephone down and the boss rang.
B. Hardly had she put the telephone down when the boss rang.
C. The boss rang back, but she put the telephone down.
D. She had put the telephone down, so she let it ring when the boss rang.
ĐỀ SỐ 2

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined
part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1. A. divided B. borrowed C. arrived D.
maintained
Question 2. A. dream B. mean C. peace D. bear
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the
other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3. A. protect B. begin C. cancel D. require
Question 4. A. discussion B. assistant C. character D.
accountant
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of
the following questions.
Question 5. You were driving home when you saw Lan, ______?
A. didn’t you B. weren’t you C. wouldn’t you D. hadn’t
you
Question 6. I still can’t believe it. My bicycle ______ some minutes ago.
A. was stolen B. was stealing C. stolen D. stole
Question 7. We had to wait ______ him at the school gate for a few minutes.
A. for B. in C. to D. of
Question 8. The more electricity you use, ______ your bill will be.
A. higher B. the higher C. highest D. the
highest
Question 9. We bought some ______ glasses.
A. German lovely old B. German old lovely
C. lovely old German D. old lovely German
Question 10. John ______ the latest novel of a famous writer when I saw him.
A. is reading B. read C. was reading D. reading
Question 11. She didn’t walk home by herself ______ she knew that it was dangerous.
A. because of B. because C. despite D. although
Question 12. He will go out with his friends ______.
A. as soon as he has completed his homework B. when he was completing his
homework
C. until he completed his homework D. before he will have completed
Question 13. ______ it over, I decided to laugh at myself and just join anyway.
A. Having thought B. Thought C. To think D. Being
thought
Question 14. Jet lag causes problems with our ______ clock.
A. biological B. biology C. biologist D.
biologically
Question 15. When I got to 16, some of my friends left school to get a job, but most ______.
A. dropped out B. moved back C. got in D. stayed
on
Question 16. I hate it when people ______ assumptions about me based on my skin color.
A. make B. do C. give D. take
Question 17. The ______ for this position starts at thirty thousand Euros per year.
A. wage B. pension C. salary D. income
Question 18. Since he started his own business he has been making money hand over ______.
A. fist B. heel C. head D. palm
Question 19. The sight of his pale face brought ______ to me how ill he really was.
A. place B. house C. life D. home
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSES T in
meaning to the underlined word (s)in each of the following questions.
Question 20. The new laws to conserve wildlife in the area will come into force next month.
A. destroy B. pollute C. protect D.
eliminate
Question 21. The boy was let off lightly this morning due to not having done his homework.
A. punished B. promised C.commended D.
persuaded
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in
meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 22. Until 1986 most companies would not even allow women to take the exams, but
such gender discrimination is now disappearing.
A. unfairness B. injustice C. partiality D. equality
Question 23. We spent the whole weekend at the five-star hotel and it cost an arm and a leg.
A. was low-cost B. was dear C. was lovely D. was
expensive
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best
completes each of the following exchanges.
Question 24. Nam is talking to Lan about the environmental problem today.
Nam: “What are the main threats to the environment today?”
Lan: “______.”
A. Threats are possible dangers to the environment
B. Probably deforestation and global warming.
C. Environmental pollution is a big issue for our planet
D. We need a clean environment to live in.
Question 25. Two friends are talking about the benefits of swimming.
Daisy: “As far as I know, swimming is a really helpful thing for everyone to improve their
health.”
Mark: “Mark: “______. Swimming can help people keep fit”
A. That sounds great. B. I couldn’t agree with you more.
C. Take part in this summer. D. That’s fine for me.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 26 to
30.
GLOBAL WARMING
Few people now question the reality of global warming and its effects on the world’s climate.
Many scientists (26)______ the blame for recent natural disasters on the increase in the
world’s temperatures and are convinced that, more than ever before, the Earth is at risk from
the forces of the wind, rain and sun. According to them, global warming is making extreme
weather events, such as hurricanes and droughts, even more (27)______ and causing sea
levels all around the world to rise.
Environmental groups are putting pressure on governments to take action to reduce the
amount of carbon dioxide which is given off by factories and power plants, thus attacking the
problem at its source. They are in favor of more money being spent on research into solar,
wind and wave energy devices, (28)______ could then replace existing power station.
Some scientists, (29)______, believe that even if we stopped releasing carbon dioxide and
(30)______ gases into the atmosphere tomorrow, we would have to wait several hundred
years to notice the results. Global warming, it seems, is to stay.
Question 26. A. give B. put C. take D. have
Question 27. A. strict B. severe C. strong D. healthy
Question 28. A. that B. which C. what D. who
Question 29. A. but B. although C. despite D. however
Question 30. A. other B. one C. every D. another
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 31 to 35.
The increase in urbanization causes different problems. Air and water pollution are amongst
the major issue we have to tackle.
In the first place, cars, factories and burning waste emit dangerous gases that change the air
quality in our cities and pose threats to our health. Dangerous gases such as carbon dioxide
and nitrogen oxides cause respiratory diseases, for instant, bronchitis and asthma. Those are
also proved to have long-term effects on the environment.
Furthermore, with the increased population, it becomes difficult to manage the waste
generated in cities. Most of the waste is discharged or dumped into rivers or onto streets. The
waste pollutes water and makes it unfit for human consumption. Subsequently, it becomes
more and more difficult for city dwellers to get clean water. Some cities in Africa are unable
to provide adequate water supply because most of the water is lost in pipe leakages. In fact,
most city dwellers in developing countries are forced to boil their water or to buy bottled
water, which is very expensive.
There are several actions that could be taken to eradicate the problems described above.
Firstly, a simple solution would be joining community efforts to address problems affecting
your city. Ask your parents, friends and relatives to join in as well. These efforts might
include clean-up campaigns, recycling projects and a signature campaign to ask the
government to do something about the situation. A second measure would be encouraging
your teacher to talk about these problems and to discuss how young people can help to solve
them. Finally, writing to local organizations working on these issues for ideas on how you can
contribute to solve them.
Question 31. The word tackle in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. deal with B. make up C. try on D. turn
down
Question 32. The word those in paragraph 2 refers to ______.
A. bronchitis and asthma B. carbon dioxide and nitrogen oxides
C. dangerous gases D. respiratory diseases
Question 33. According to the passage, in some cities in Africa ______.
A. people are allowed to dump waste into rivers and on streets
B. people aren’t provided enough water due to leaking pipes
C. people have found some solutions to the problems
D. people would rather use boiling water and bottled water
Question 34. Which of the following is NOT true according to the passage?
A. City problems should be taught and be topic for students to discuss at school.
B. C. hildren must ask for their parent’s permission before joining community efforts.
C. Participators might take part in different kinds of projects and campaigns.
D. People can contribute in solving the problems by writing to local organizations working
on these issues.
Question 35. Which of the following would serve as the best title for the passage?
A. Environment degradation: Air and water pollution
B. Environmental pollution: Problems and actions
C. Increasing urbanization: Causes and effects
D. Increasing urbanization: Effects and solutions
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 36 to 42.
Most parents want their sons and daughters to have equal chances of success when they grow
up. Today, equality of the sexes is largely mandated by public policy and law. However, old-
fashioned ideas and a lot of prejudice are still part of our culture and present challenging
questions for parents.
Gender stereotypes are rigid ideas about how boys and girls should behave. We all know what
these stereotypes are: A “feminine” girls should be insecure, accommodating and a little
illogical in her thinking. A “masculine” boy should be strong, unemotional, aggressive, and
competitive. How are children exposed to these stereotypes? According to the researchers
David and Myra Sadker of the American University of Washington, D. C. , boys and girls are
often treated differently in the classroom. They found out that when boys speak, teachers
usually offer constructive comments, when girls speech, teachers tend to focus on the
behavior. It’s more important how the girls act rather than what they say.
The emphasis on differences begins at birth and continues throughout childhood. For
example, few people would give pink baby’s clothes to a boy or a blue blanket to a girl. Later,
many of us give girls dolls and miniature kitchenware, while boys receive action figures and
construction sets. There’s nothing wrong with that. The problem arises when certain activities
are deemed appropriate for one sex but not the other. According to Heather J. Nicholson, Ph.
D. , director of the National Resource Center for Girls, Inc. , this kind of practice prevents
boys and girls from acquiring important skills for their future lives.
“The fact is, “ says Nicholson, “that society functions as a kind of sorting machine regarding
gender. In a recent survey, fifty-eight percent of eighth-grade girls but only six percent of
boys earned money caring for younger children. On the other hand, twenty-seven percent of
boys but only three percent of girls earned money doing lawn work”. If we are serious about
educating a generation to be good workers and parents, we need to eliminate such stereotypes
as those mentioned previously.
Gender stereotypes inevitably are passed to our children. However, by becoming aware of the
messages our children receive, we can help them develop ways to overcome these incorrect
ideas. To counteract these ideas, parents can look for ways to challenge and support their
children, and to encourage confidence in ways that go beyond what society’s fixed ideas
about differences of sexes are.
(Source: https://en. isicollective.com)
Question 36. Which of the following could be the main idea of the passage?
A. D. eep-seated stereotypes about genders and their effects.
B. Different prejudice about how girls and boys should behave and be treated.
C. The role of culture in the behavior of different genders.
D. The influence of education and society on gender stereotypes.
Question 37. According to the second passage, David and Myra Sadker of the American
University of Washington, D. 0 found that _______.
A. schoolboys and schoolgirls are treated equally in the classroom.
B. teachers often concentrate on boys’ behavior and girls’ manners.
C. boys are commented usefully whereas girls are paid attention to behavior.
D. girls are taught to be insecure, accommodating and illogical while boys are strong,
unemotional, aggressive, and competitive.
Question 38. What does the word “that” in paragraph 3 refer to?
A. The differences between boys and girls begin at birth and continue throughout
childhood.
B. People often give pink clothes to a boy and a blue blanket to a girl.
C. Many people give girls dolls and miniature kitchen and boys receive action figures and
construction sets when they were born.
D. People give different genders of children distinct kinds of presents or clothes.
Question 39. The word “deemed” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to _______.
A. celebrated B. supposed C. designed D.
established
Question 40. According to the passage, which of the following is UNTRUE about gender
stereotypes?
A. Male and female children are expected to behave the same as what adults think they
should.
B. The distinctions in treatment to boys and girls commence when they were given birth.
C. Its beneficial for children to practice fundamental skills if they are treated unequally
quite early.
D. Children are differently treated not only at homes but also at schools.
Question 41. The result of a recent survey showed that the number of girls at the age of eight
paid for babysitting was ______.
A. 58% B. 27% C. 6% D. 3%
Question 42. The word “counteract” in the last paragraph could be best replaced by
_______.
A. promote B. frustrate C. encourage D. inspire
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that
needs correction in each of the following questions.
Question 43. Every member of the class is invited to the party by the form teacher last week.
A. member B. is invited C. to D. the form
teacher
Question 44. She had so much luggage that there was not enough room in the car for them.
A. them B. so much C. that D. was
Question 45. In Italy public opinion as a whole was favourite to the visit, especially as it was
considered an obstacle to the protected increase of the army and navy
A. as a whole B. especially as C. favourite D.
protected increase
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in
meaning to each of the following questions.
Question 46. Mary has been working in this company for five years.
A. Mary began to work in this company for five years.
B. Mary began working in this company for five years ago.
C. Mary began to work in this company five years ago.
D. Mary has begun to work in this company five years ago.
Question 47. The secretary said, “Sorry, I will never work on Sunday.”
A. The secretary promised not to work on Sunday.
B. The secretary refused not to work on Sunday.
C. The secretary reminded her boss to work on Sunday.
D. The secretary refused to work on Sunday.
Question 48. I am not sure that she will arrive at the party on time
A. She may not arrive at the party on time. B. She mustn’t arrive at the party on
time.
C. She should arrive at the party on time. D. She doesn’t have to arrive at the
party on time.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best
combines each pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 49. She is away on her business. I really need her help now.
A. As long as she is at the office, she will be able to help me.
B. I wish she were at the office and could help now.
C. If she is at the office, she can help me now.
D. If only she had been at the office and could have helped me now.
Question 50. She had a pain that she couldn’t go on working.
A. So painful was she that she couldn’t go on working.
B. Only when she had a pain could she not go on working
C. Without her pain, she couldn’t go on working.
D. Only if the pain she has could she go on working.
ĐỀ SỐ 3

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined
part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1. A. borrowed B. conserved C. approached
D.complained
Question 2. A. hike B. wind C. child D. tide
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the
other three in the position of the primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3. A. garbage B. muscle C. disease D. bottle
Question 4. A.completion B. understand C. material D. behavior
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of
the following questions.
Question 5. Her parents are really strict. They rarely let her stay out late, _______?
A. do they B. don’t they C. does she D. doesn’t
she
Question 6. Every day, Peter’s mother drives him to school. However, today, he _______ to
school by his father.
A. was taken B. is being taken C. is taking D. took
Question 7. Students are _______ less pressure as a result of changes in testing procedures.
A. under B. above C. upon D. out of
Question 8. The more you practice speaking in public, _______.
A. the more you become confident B. the more you become confidently
C. the greater confidence you become D. the more confident you become
Question 9. The report form is available on the two _______ discs in my drawer.
A. small green round B. round small green C. green small round D. small
round green
Question 10. She came into the room while they ______ television.
A. watched B. have watched C. are watching D. were
watching
Question 11. Fast food is very popular. _______, a diet of hamburgers, pizzas and fried
chicken is not very healthy.
A. Consequently B. Moreover C. Unfortunately D. In
contrast
Question 12. He will take the dog out for a walk dinner.
A. as soon as he finishes B. as soon as he finished
C. while he will finish D. before he shall have finished
Question 13. _______ the Nobel Prize, he retired from politics.
A. Received B. Having received C. Being received D. Receive
Question 14. In the past, the _______ and engagement ceremonies took place one or two
years before the wedding.
A. propose B. proposing C. proposal D.
proposed
Question 15. My father is very talented and kind-hearted. I always _______ him.
A. look for B. look like C. look after D. look up
to
Question 16. I don’t like networking events - spending hours trying to _______ small talk
with strangers just isn’t my cup of tea,
A. make B. take C. have D. do
Question 17. He may be shy now, but he will soon come out of his _______ when he meets
the right girl.
A. shoe B. hole C. shed D. shell
Question 18. The hospital had _______ given her up for dead, but she eventually recovered.
A. virtually B. merely C. totally D.
intensively
Question 19. I had all the information at my _______ before attending the meeting.
A. fingertips B. thumbs C. hands D. fingers
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in
meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 20. A. I. algorithms can also help to detect faces and other features in photos sent to
social networking sites and automatically organize them.
A. categorize B. connect C. recognize D. remind
Question 21. Scientists warn of the impending extinction of many species of plants and
animals.
A. irrefutable B. imminent C. formidable D. absolute
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in
meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 22. There are several different kinds of faults in reading which are usually more
exaggerated with foreign learners.
A. overestimated B. understated C. overemphasized D.
undertaken
Question 23. His performance stood head and shoulders above the rest.
A. was better than B. was worse than C. became higher than D. became
cheaper than
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best
completes each of the following exchanges.
Question 24. Tung and Tu are talking about time management skills.
- Tung: “What do you think about time management skill?”
- Tu : “_______”
A. It’s time to go. B. I quite agree with you.
C. It is an important life skill. D. I can’t help thinking about it.
Question 25. Two friends are talking about the coming Christmas holiday.
-Tony : “Are you going to your family reunion this Christmas holiday?”
- Mark: “_______”
A. As a matter of fact, I don’t mind it at all. B. I do. I’ve been excited about it
now.
C. However, My parents and I are going to take a trip abroad
D. You bet. All my uncles and aunts will take their children along, too.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks.
The idea of going overseas to study can be daunting, with visions of baffling languages or
nights spent in isolation while you are gradually forgotten by your friends and family.
(26)_______, the benefits of studying abroad - such as broadening your mind, improving your
career prospects and making friends from all over the world - can make digging out your
passport really rewarding.
“Studying abroad is an eye-opening experience, “ says Anna Boyd, event manager at The
Student World. “Being immersed in (27)_______ culture, understanding differences and
spotting similarities, living on a beach or in the mountains, (28)_______ will have an impact
on every student.”
Overseas study comes in many shapes and sizes. It might be a single semester abroad via an
Erasmus programme, for example. Or you might elect to follow a full three-or four-year
degree programme. Whatever your ambition, the key is starting early. Some countries require
specific combinations of A-levels from UK students, Germany looks for four A-levels
including maths or science and one modern foreign language, for instance, while others, such
as the US, value extracurricular activities. Starting our research well (29)_______ of time can
help you make the right choices. “Getting involved in sports, arts and music is also worth
considering, as well as gaining experience through volunteering and work placements, “ says
Boyd. In fact, applying to study abroad could even work to your advantage, for example, you
might encounter lower (30)_______ requirements.
(Adapted from https://wwwindependent. caukistudent/study-abroad)
Question 26. A. But B. However C. Therefore D. Thereby
Question 27. A. another B. other C. others D. the
other
Question 28. A. where B. why C. which D. that
Question 29. A. right B. straight C. head D. ahead
Question 30. A. entry B. entrance C. enter D. entered
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the answer to each of the questions.
Bali, the fabled “Island of the Gods”, has been enchanting visitors for centuries with its rich
cultural traditions and spectacular panoramas. From lofty, mist enshrouded volcanoes and
cool mountain lakes down through terraced rice fields to a golden strand lapped by azure
waters, every square inch of Bali offers a fresh and unforgettable image.
No less enchanting are its people, some 2. 7 million souls whose artistry and piety are
recognized throughout the world Balinese Hinduism, a complex fusion of Indian cosmology.
Tantric Buddhism and homegrown mythology, is the primary faith of Bali’s inhabitants, and
so deeply woven into the fabric of their daily lives that the line between the spiritual and the
material is blurry at best.
Those of you keen on delving into the island’s fascinating culture will have plenty of
opportunities, as colorful ceremonies and traditional performances occur with the regularity of
sunrise. Most hotels offer nightly dance shows of one form or another, tailored to tourist
audiences but none the less exquisite. The hill town of Ubud, the island’s premier arts center,
also has a full schedule of performance, and the nearby stone-cutter’s village of Batubulan is
famed for its Barong lion dances. The shoppers among you will find Bali a treasure house of
handicrafts and fine works of art. The Balinese are incredibly gifted artists and craftsmen, and
their material creations are imbued with the same sense of wonderment with which they
regard their universe. Stone and wood carvings, traditional and modern paintings and
intricately designed jewelry in gold and silver are readily in shops and galleries throughout
the island.
As for recreation, there is no shortage of options. Nature walks, horseback riding, diving,
surfing, even bungy jumping, and white water rafting await the adventurous here.
(Source: https://books. google.com. vn/books)
Question 31. The topic of the given passage is _______.
A. Balinese life B. Scenery in Bali C. Tourism in Bali D. Bali for
recreation
Question 32. The second paragraph of the passage mainly discusses _______.
A. Population of Bali B. artistry and piety of B. ali
C. Balinese religion D. daily lives of Balinese
Question 33. The word “their” in the second paragraph refers to _______.
A. 2. 7 million souls B. B. ali’s inhabitants
C. daily lives D. the spiritual and the material
Question 34. Which of the following might be a synonym of the word “exquisite” in the third
paragraph?
A. skillful B. clever C. spiritual D. material
Question 35. You can find all these recreational activities in Bali EXCEPT _______.
A. horseback riding B. nature walks C. water rafting D.
parachute jumping
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the answer to each of the questions.
Many people see large urban cities as a wonder of human imagination and creativity. They
represent how far the human population has come in terms of community development. Many
positive things come from urbanization, but there are also negatives. This article will discuss
and present data on the implications of urbanization on the physical health of humans living in
these large urban areas.
As it would be expected, developing countries tend to see more negative physical health
effects than modern countries in regard to urbanization. One example of a developing country
experiencing these problems is China. China is a country that in the past 30–40 years went
from being an agrarian based society to a significant industrialized country. This
industrialization has in effect caused the need for more centralized cities, centralized meaning
having lots of jobs and living spaces within a close proximity. This is what is known as
urbanization. In most recent decades, since China’s change to being more of an industrial
based economy, the country has experienced record high numbers of people migrating within
its borders. In effect, the number of cities with over 500, 000 people has more than doubled.
These migrations are typically of people from rural areas of China moving to the new urban
areas. Due to this large influx in the urban population, there are many possibilities for health
challenges among these people.
One very common and fairly obvious negative aspect of highly congested urban areas is air
pollution. Air pollution is defined as any harmful substance being suspended in the air. This
could include particulate matter, most commonly attributed to industrial plants and refineries
waste, or chemicals like CO2 or Methane (which are also products of plants and refineries as
well as cars and other modes of transportation). Due to a vast number of people in these
urbanized cities, the air pollution is known to be very extreme. These conditions can lead to
many different health problems such as: Asthma, cardiovascular problems or disease, and
different types of cancer (most commonly lung cancer). When exposed to these conditions for
a prolonged period of time, one can experience even more detrimental health effects like: the
acceleration of aging, loss of lung capacity and health, being more susceptible to respiratory
diseases, and a shortened life span.
Another way that urbanization affects the populations’ health is people’s change in diet. For
instance, urban cities tend to have lots of accessible, quick, and easy to get food. This food is
also more than likely not as high quality as well as contains a large amount of sodium and
sugar. Because this food is so accessible, people tend to eat it more. This increase in
consumption of low quality food can then lead to diabetes, hypertension, heart disease,
obesity, or many other health conditions.
(Adapted from https://medium.com)
Question 36. Which of the following could be served as the best title for the passage?
A. Urbanization – Pros and cons
B. Urbanization – How people’s health is impacted?
C. Urban cities – The new opportunity for community development
D. Developing countries – The fastest urbanization
Question 37. What does the phrase “these problems” in paragraph 2 refer to?
A. industrialized countries B. lots of jobs and living spaces
C. immigrants D. negative physical health effects
Question 38. The word “congested” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to _______.
A. overcrowded B. sparse C. contaminated D. fresh
Question 39. The word “detrimental” in paragraph 3 mostly means _______.
A. beneficial B. positive C. harmful D.
dangerous
Question 40. The following are the air pollution sources mentioned in paragraph 3, EXCEPT
_______.
A. industrial factories B. refineries waste C. chemicals D. sewage
Question 41. Why are urban populations easy to get diseases from food, according to the last
paragraph?
A. B. ecause of the low quality and the high proportion of sodium and sugar in this food.
B. Because the way people get this food is rather accessible, quick and easy.
C. Because this food is so delicious that people have a tendency to eat more than normal.
D. Because of the change in people’s diet.
Question 42. What can be inferred from the passage?
A. Living in urban areas for a long time will make the life expectancy of inhabitants
shorten.
B. One of the negative health effects comes from the overpopulation in industrialized
countries.
C. People in developed countries suffer less harmful health effects from urbanization than
those in developing nations.
D. The bad health effects from urbanization are not greater than the benefits it brings to
people in urban cities.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs
correction in each of the following questions.
Question 43. Jane spent a lot of money yesterday. She had bought a dress which cost $100.
A. spent B. yesterday C. had bought D. cost
Question 44. If anyone drops by while I am away, please take a message from him.
A. drops B. while C. take D. him
Question 45. We have conducted exhausting research into the effects of smartphones on
students’ behaviour and their academic performance.
A. exhausting research B. into C. behaviour D. academic
performance
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in
meaning to each of the following questions.
Question 46. I haven’t gone to the cinema for ten years.
A. It was ten years ago I went to the cinema. B. The last time I went to the cinema
was ten years.
C. I last went to the cinema ten years ago. D. It’s ten years I haven’t gone to the
cinema.
Question 47. “You’re always making terrible mistakes.” said the teacher.
A. The teacher asked his students why they always made terrible mistakes.
B. The teacher realized that his students always made terrible mistakes.
C. The teacher complained about his student making terrible mistakes.
D. The teacher made his students not always make terrible mistakes.
Question 48. It isn’t necessary for us to discuss this matter in great detail.
A. We should discuss this matter in great detail. B. We might discuss this matter in
great detail
C. We needn’t discuss this matter in great detail. D. We mustn’t discuss this matter in
great detail.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best
combines each pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 49. Marie didn’t turn up at John’s birthday party. I feel so sorry for that.
A. If only Marie turns up at John’s birthday party.
B. I wish Marie had turned up at John’s birthday party.
C. I wished Marie wouldn’t turn up at John’s birthday party.
D. It’s a shame Marie had turned up at John’s birthday party.
Question 50. Alice registered for the course. She then received the scholarship.
A. Hardly had Alice registered for the course when she received the scholarship.
B. Only after Alice registered for the course, she received the scholarship.
C. Having received the scholarship, Alice registered for the course.
D. Registering for the course helped Alice receive the scholarship.
ĐỀ SỐ 4

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined
part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. believed B. prepared C. involved D. invited
Question 2: A. smile B. life C. beautiful D. like
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the
other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. borrow B. allow C. agree D. prepare
Question 4: A. contrary B. document C. heritage D.
employee
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of
the following questions.
Question 5: She’s beautiful, _______?
A. won’t she B. didn’t she C. doesn’t she D. isn’t she
Question 6: The old chicken coop _______ by a windstorm last year.
A. destroyed B. was destroyed C. was destroying D. destroy
Question 7: As an adult, I am independent ________ my parents financially.
A. of B. with C. out D. on
Question 8: ________ we finish, the sooner we can leave.
A. Faster B. The faster C. Fastest D. The
fastest
Question 9: This is a picture of a ________ bus.
A. red London bright B. bright red London C. London bright red D. London
red bright
Question 10: He had a bad fall while he _______ the roof.
A. was repairing B. is repairing C. repaired D. repairs
Question 11: We all wore shorts _______ the cold weather.
A. because of B. because C. though D. in spite
of
Question 12: Jonas will have already retired _______.
A. by the time his daughter graduates B. when his daughter graduated
C. as soon as his daughter had graduated D. after his daughter had graduated
Question 13: _______ green technologies with low-carbon emissions, the country intends to
get rid of coal.
A. Having developed B. Developed C. To develop D. Being
developed
Question 14: Are there any ________ between Vietnamese and American culture?
A. differently B. different C. differences D.
differentiate
Question 15: The bus only stops here to ________ passengers.
A. put down B. get on C. get off D. pick up
Question 16: Population explosion seems to surpass the ability of the earth to _______ the
demand for food.
A. make B. need C. have D. meet
Question 17: The party leader travelled the length and ________ of the country in an attempt
to spread his message.
A. width B. breadth C. diameter D. distance
Question 18: Hearing about people who mistreat animals makes me go hot under the
________.
A. chin B. collar C. sleeves D. vest
Question 19: For a public campaign to succeed, it is important to make ________ of existing
social organizations as well as other relations.
A. fun B. advantage C. benefit D. use
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in
meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 20: You may find that jogging is detrimental to your health rather than beneficial
A. helpful B. facile C. depressing D. harmful
Question 21: People in the mountainous areas are still in the habit of destroying forests for
cultivation.
A. planting B. farming C. industry D. wood
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in
meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 22: Ships crossing the oceans can receive signals from satellites that enable them to
calculate their position accurately.
A. carelessly B. imprecisely C. uneasily D.
untruthfully
Question 23: What we have to remember is that we have to give people a leg up to succeed
in this society and that’s not something we ought to be embarrassed about.
A. give people a helping hand B. assist people
C. hinder people D. give people a boost
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best completes
each of the following exchanges.
Question 24: Mrs. Linda is talking to her student, Brian, about his final results in the
classroom.
- Mrs. Linda: “You’ve been making very good progress. I’m proud of you!”
- Brian: “_______”
A. No problem. B. Don’t worry about it!
C. Everything’s alright. Thank you. D. I really appreciate you saying that.
Question 25: Ann and Peter are talking about homework.
- Ann: “I think students should do their homework before going to school. “
- Peter: “________. They can understand the lessons better.”
A. I don’t think so. B. That’s what you think.
C. You’re wrong. D. There’s no doubt about it.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 26 to
30.
Not everybody recognises the benefits of new developments in communications technology.
Indeed, some people fear that text messaging may actually be having a negative (26)_______
on young people’s communication and language skills, especially when we hear that primary
school children may be at risk of becoming addicted to the habit. So widespread has texting
become, however, that even pigeons have started doing it. (27)_______ , in this case, it’s
difficult to view the results as anything but positive. Twenty of the birds are about to take to
the skies with the task of measuring air pollution, each (28)_______ with sensor equipment
and a mobile phone. The readings made by the sensors will be automatically converted into
text messages and beamed to the Internet where they will appear on a dedicated ‘pigeon blog’.
The birds will also each have a GPS receiver and a camera to capture aerial photos, and
researchers are building a tiny ‘pigeon kit’ containing all these gadgets (29)_______ bird will
carry these in a miniature backpack, apart , that is, from the camera, which will hang around
its neck. The data the pigeons text will be displayed in the form of an interactive map,
(30)_______ will provide local residents with up-to-the-minute information on their local air
quality.
Question 26: A. result B. outcome C. effect D.
conclusion
Question 27: A. Although B. Therefore C. Because D.
However
Question 28: A. armed B. loaded C. granted D. stocked
Question 29: A. each B. another C. much D. many
Question 30: A. who B. which C. whom D. whose
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 31 to 35.
Dinosaurs were reptiles that lived during a period of earth’s history called the Mesozoic Era,
which is known as the Age of Reptiles. The first dinosaurs appeared more than 200 million
years ago. For many millions of years, they dominated the land with their huge size and
strength. Then about 65 million years ago, they died out rather suddenly, never to reemerge.
The word dinosaur comes from two Greek words meaning “terrible lizard”. Dinosaurs were
not lizards, but their appearance could be truly terrifying. The biggest ones weighed more
than ten times as much as a mature elephant and nearly equaled the size of most modern-day
whales. The famous kinds of dinosaurs, including the brontosaurus and tyrannosaurus,
reached 80 to 90 feet in length. Not all dinosaurs were giants, however, some were actually no
larger than a chicken.
Scientists still do not know what caused dinosaur to disappear. One theory involves a change
in the earth’s climate. It is believed that temperature dropped significantly towards the end of
the Cretaceous Period. Too large to hibernate and not having fur or feathers for protection, it
is possible that the climate became too chilly for dinosaurs. In contrast, other species having
protection, such as the mammals and birds, were able to survive.
Question 31. What is the best title for this passage?
A. The Domination of the Land B. Dinosaurs and their extinction
C. Earth’s Largest Reptiles D. The History of Earth
Question 32. The word “ones” in the passage refers to __________
A. dinosaurs B. millions C. lizards D. whales
Question 33. It can be inferred from the passage that the Age of Reptiles lasted about
_______
A. 200 million years B. 135 million years C. 80 million years D. 65
million years
Question 34. The word “chilly” in the passage refers to _________
A. very hot B. extremely dry C. very cold D. very
humid
Question 35. According to the passage, what is TRUE about the size of dinosaurs?
A. It made them the largest creatures ever on earth. B. It varied quite greatly.
C. It guaranteed their survival. D. It was rather uniform.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 36 to 42.
The roles of higher education in sustainable economic and social development increase year
by year, and this will continue over the next decades. Higher education can be seen as a focal
point of knowledge and its application, an institution which makes a great contribution to the
economic growth and development through fostering innovation and increasing higher skills.
It is looked as a way to improve the quality of life and address major social and global
challenges. Higher education is broadly defined as one of key drivers of growth performance,
prosperity and competitiveness.
Business has changed over the last decade. There are a lot of jobs today that failed to exist
several decades ago. The 2017 McKinsey report estimated that 49 percent of time spent on
recurrent work activities worldwide could be automated using existing technologies. The
requirements on employee’s skills have also changed. Modern universities provide their
students with various programmes aimed at preparing them for different economic sectors,
helping them to stay and progress in the labour market for long, programmes that make a
difference for labour market outcomes and keep pace with changes in the global economy and
changes in the innovation process. Universities promote lifelong learning; they offer
opportunities to engage and attract professionals into training and professional development.
Investing in knowledge creation and enabling its diffusion is the key to creating high-wage
employment and enhancing productivity growth.
One of the missions of the modern universities is finding solutions to big challenges and
conducting research within global priority areas, contributing to social outcomes such as
health and social engagement. Often it is aimed at designing technologies that result in new
products and supplying advanced technology for use. Knowledge is the true basis of higher
education: its production via research, its transmission via teaching, its acquisition and use by
students. Hence, excellence must remain the prime objective of any institution of higher
education, including universities in any country. Countries are putting knowledge at the
service of their societies to create a better world. This can be achieved through the training of
first-class minds, through major advances in science and technology and by encouraging an
interest in learning.
Now, to realize its full potential, higher education is to maintain a pro-active stance,
strengthen its position as a bedrock upon which countries are and build a new road to growth.
(Source: https://qswownews.com/)
Question 36. Which best serves as the title for the passage?
A. Importance of higher education. B. What is higher education?
C. Ensuring continuity for learning. D. Transforming tertiary education.
Question 37. The word “address” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to _______.
A. label B. tackle C. convey D. face
Question 38. According to paragraph 2, what is NOT mentioned about the current situation
around the role of higher education?
A. Technology is changing the nature of work.
B. Higher education can create a quality workforce.
C. Global economy is the only reason tertiary education exists.
D. Higher education adapts workforce to the changing economy.
Question 39. The word “they” in paragraph 2 refers to _____.
A. universities B. changes C. students D.
programmes
Question 40. According to paragraph 3, what can be suggested about tertiary education?
A. It can support business and industry.
B. It is a technology and innovation driver.
C. Higher education students are guaranteed higher living standards.
D. Many countries choose to retain the universities’ traditional role.
Question 41. The word “bedrock” in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to _______.
A. essence B. root C. heart D.
foundation
Question 42. The following statements are true, EXCEPT __________.
A. The modern workplace is in a constant state of evolution.
B. Automation is able to remove part of the repetitive tasks.
C. Research can directly impact the wealth of an economy.
D. A skilled workforce will potentially increase productivity.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that
needs correction in each of the following questions.
Question 43: Last summer, Jack travels to the United States for the first time.
A B C
D
Question 44: Teenagers nowadays often have her own idols who they really love and try to
imitate.
A B
C D
Question 45: His career in the elicited drug trade ended with the police raid this morning.
A B C D
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in
meaning to each of the following questions.
Question 46: They last met each other two years ago.
A. They haven’t met each other for two years. B. They didn’t meet each other two
years ago.
C. They have met each other for two years. D. They hung out with each other for
two years.
Question 47: “Remember to switch off when you have finished”, he said.
A. He reminded me to switch off when I had finished. B. He offered to switch off when I
had finished.
C. He suggested switching off when I had finished. D. He promised to switch off when I
had finished.
Question 48: It is mandatory to submit your assignment today.
A. You must submit your assignment today. B. You need submit your assignment
today.
C You should submit your assignment today. D. You may submit your assignment
today.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best
combines each pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 49: She doesn’t have any money with her. She can’t take the bus home now.
A. As long as she has money, she will be able to take the bus home.
B. She wishes she had some money and could take the bus home now.
C. If she has money, she can take the bus home now.
D. If only she had had money and could have taken the bus home.
Question 50: I checked that the burglars had left. I called the police only then.
A. But for my calling the police, I could have checked that the burglars had left.
B. Hardly had I called the police when I checked that the burglars had left.
C. Not until I called the police had I checked that the burglars had left.
D. Only after I had checked that the burglars had left did I call the police.
ĐỀ SỐ 5

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined
part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. believed B. prepared C. involved D.
suggested
Question 2: A. grade B. table C. bank D. same
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined
part differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following
questions.
Question 3: A. enter B. repeat C. prepare D. provide
Question 4: A. opponent B. gravity C. experience D. material
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of
the following questions.
Question 5: You have a book about dinosaurs, ________?
A. do you B. don’t you C. have you D. haven’t
you
Question 6: The injured ________ to the hospital in an ambulance.
A. were taking B. take C. were taken D. have
taken
Question 7: They finally arrived in Paris ________ schedule.
A. on B. in C. by D. of
Question 8: The more English vocabulary we know, ________ we speak.
A. better B. best C. the best D. the
better
Question 9: Lara goes to a ________ temple every week.
A. great big ancient Buddhist B. Buddhist great big ancient
C. ancient great big Buddhist D. big great ancient Buddhist
Question 10: The children were playing football when their mother ________ back home.
A. came B.comes C. had come D. will
come
Question 11: He decided to quit the job ________ he got high salary.
A. despite B. because C. although D. because
of
Question 12: They will have finished building a new bridge ________ to the town next year.
A. after we had returned B. before we returned
C. while we were returning D. when we return.
Question 13: ________classical dance for five years, Akiko finally felt ready to perform in
public.
A. Being studied B. Having studied C. Studied D. To
study
Question 14: The local authority asked for a __________contribution from the community to
repair roads and bridges.
A. volunteer B. voluntary C. voluntarily D.
voluntariness
Question 15: Such approaches should be supported and mainstreamed in health interventions
in order to ________ positive behavior change.
A. put off B. set off C. bring about D. hold up
Question 16: The principal will ______ a speech at the meeting.
A. make B. think C. speak D. take
Question 17: It’s wise to think about choosing a ______ before leaving school.
A. business B. career C. living D.
profession
Question 18: After congratulating his team, the coach left, allowing the players to let their
______ down for a while.
A. hearts B. hair C. souls D. heads
Question 19: Your store needs a bold sign that will catch the ________ of anyone walking
down the street. That may help to sell more products.
A. eye B. peek C. flash D. glimpse
Mark the letter A, B, Cor D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in
meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 20: Her courage not only inspired her followers but moved her rivals as well.
A. depressed B. motivated C. overlooked D. rejected
Question 21: The African rhino is an endangered species and needs protecting.
A. unstable B. dangerous C. insecure D.
indefensible
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in
meaning to the underlinded word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 22: ‘If we continue to deplete our planets natural resources, we will damage the
environment significantly.
A. use up B. add to C. reduce D. exhaust
Question 23: Sorry, I can’t come to your party. I am snowed under with work at the
moment.
A. relaxed about B. busy with C. interested in D. free
from
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best
completes each of the following exchanges.
Question 24: Albert and Bill are having dinner in Bill’s house.
- Albert: “This dish is really nice!”
- Bill: “________. It’s called yakitori, and it’s made with chicken livers.”
A. It’s my pleasure. B. Sure, I’ll be glad to. C. I’m glad you like it. D. I guess
you’re right.
Question 25: Paul and Daisy are discussing about life in the future.
Paul: “I believe space travel will become more affordable for many people in the future.”
Daisy: “______”
A. It doesn’t matter at all. B. I am sorry to hear that.
C. It is very kind of you to say so. D. There’s no doubt about that.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks.
Pets can improve your life.
The role of animals in helping people recover from a range of health and emotional problem
has long been widely recognized. Now a survey (26)_______is reported in the Journal of
Personality and Social Psychology appears to show that owning a pet can benefit healthy
individuals, too. A number of experiments, (27)_______ by two universities in the United
States, indicate that pet owners are generally happier, healthier, fitter, more confident and
better able to cope with everyday issues than non – owners.
The researchers discovered that individuals have just as close a relationship with the key
people in their lives in other words family and friends, (28)_______ they have with their pets.
And although they found no (29)_______that people choose emotional relationship with pets
over relationships with (30)_______ people, a study of universities showed that owning a pet
helped them get over the break-up of a relationship with a partner.
(Source: www. the first trainer.com/)
Question 26. A. which B. who C. where D. when
Question 27. A. carried B. conducted C. governed D. operated
Question 28. A. because B. because of C. as D. although
Question 29. A. testimony B. support C. evidence D. indication
Question 30. A. other B. a lot of C. another D. every
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct answer to each of the questions
The generation gap that was so in evidence during the 60s has resurfaced, but it is not the
disruptive force that it was during the Vietnam era, a 2009 study suggests. The Pew Research
Center study found that 79% of Americans see major differences between younger and older
adults in the way they look at the world. In 1969, a Gallup Poll found that a smaller
percentage, 74%, perceived major differences.
Today, however, although more Americans see generational differences, most do not see them
as divisive. That is partly because of the areas of difference. The top areas of disagreement
between young and old, according to the Pew Research Study, are the use of technology and
taste in music. Grandparents are likely to have observed these differences in their
grandchildren who are tweens, teens, and young adults.
If large differences between the generations exist, why don’t they spawn conflict? The answer
is twofold.
First, the two largest areas of difference—technology and music—are less emotionally
charged than political issues. The older generation is likely to be proud of the younger
generation’s prowess in technology rather than to view it as a problem. As for the musical
differences, each generation wants its own style of music, and the older generation generally
can relate to that desire.
Second, in the other areas of difference, the younger generation tends to regard the older
generation as superior to their own generation—clearly a difference from the 1960s with its
rallying cry of “Don’t trust anyone over thirty. “ According to the Pew study, all generations
regard older Americans as superior in moral values, work ethic and respect for others.
(Adapted from www. verywellfamily.com)
Question 31: Which of the following could be the main idea of the passage?
A. Generation gap doesn’t cause a big problem in American families.
B. Different points of view are the main problem between generations in America.
C. The generation gap in the past was different from that in modern time.
D. The areas of differences in generation gap have changed over the years.
Question 32: The word “divisive” in the second paragraph is closest in meaning to
_________.
A. agreeing B. positive C. serious D.
discordant
Question 33: What are the two reasons why large differences between generations don’t
cause disagreement?
A. The generosity of the elder generation and the attitude of the younger generation.
B. The different styles of music and the knowledge of the elder generation.
C. The major aspects of differences between generations and the respect to the elder
generation.
D. The pride of the elder generation and the obedience of the younger one
Question 34: The word “their” in the last paragraph refers to __________.
A. the older generation’s B. the younger generation’s
C. supervisor’s D. over-thirty people’s
Question 35: According to the passage, which is NOT true?
A. The majority of Americans agree generations’ viewpoint to be the major differences.
B. Technology is one of the two biggest areas creating the gap between the old and the
young.
C. Grandparents feel uncomfortable with their grandchildren because of their better
technology skills.
D. The elderly in America are admired in moral values, work ethic and respect for others.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer
to each of the questions.
People are living longer and, in some parts of the world, healthier lives. This represents one of
the crowning achievements of the last century, but also a significant challenge. Longer lives
must be planned for. Societal aging may affect economic growth and lead to many other
issues, including the sustainability of families, the ability of states and communities to provide
resources for older citizens, and international relations. The Global Burden of Disease, a study
conducted by the World Health Organization, predicts a very large increase in age-related
chronic disease in all regions of the world. Dealing with this will be a significant challenge for
all countries’ health services.
Population aging is driven by declines in fertility and improvements in health and longevity.
In more developed countries, falling fertility beginning in the early 1900’s has resulted in
current levels being below the population replacement rate of two live births per woman.
Perhaps the most surprising demographic development of the past 20 years has been the pace
of fertility decline in many less developed countries. In 2006, for example, the total fertility
rate was at or below the replacement rate in 44 less developed countries.
One central issue for policymakers in regard to pension funds is the relationship between the
official retirement age and actual retirement age. Over several decades in the latter part of the
20th century, many of the more developed nations lowered the official age at which people
become fully entitled to public pension benefits. This was propelled by general economic
conditions, changes in welfare philosophy, and private pension trends. Despite the recent
trend toward increased workforce participation at older ages, a significant gap between
official and actual ages of retirement persists. This trend is emerging in rapidly aging
developing countries as well. Many countries already have taken steps towards much-needed
reform of their old-age social insurance programs. One common reform has been to raise the
age at which workers are eligible for full public pension benefits. Another strategy for
bolstering economic security for older people has been to increase the contributions by
workers. Other measures to enhance income for older people include new financial
instruments for private savings, tax incentives for individual retirement savings, and
supplemental occupational pension plans.
As life expectancy increases in most nations, so do the odds of different generations within a
family coexisting. In more developed countries, this has manifested itself as the ‘beanpole
family, ‘ a vertical extension of family structure characterized by an increase in the number of
living generations within a lineage and a decrease in the number of people within each
generation. As mortality rates continue to improve, more people in their 50’s and 60’s will
have surviving parents, aunts, and uncles. Consequently, more children will know their
grandparents and even their great-grandparents, especially their great-grandmothers. There is
no historical precedent for a majority of middle-aged and older adults having living parents.
(Adapted from https://www. ielts-mentor.com)
Question 36. Which of the following best describes the main purpose of the author in the
passage?
A. To present a synopsis of the causes and effects of the aging population.
B. To provide an overview of the drawbacks of the world’s aging population.
C. To suggest some effective solutions to deal with the rapid increase of the aging
population.
D. To prove the significant contribution of the aging population to the world economy.
Question 37: As mentioned in the first paragraph, the following aspects will be influenced by
the aging in the society, EXCEPT ______.
A. the stable progress of families B. social welfare
C. medical care D. technology achievements
Question 38: What does the word “this” in paragraph 3 refer to?
A. public pension benefits
B. the reduction of the official age entirely pensioned
C. the relationship between the official retirement age and actual retirement age
D. central issue
Question 39: The word “eligible” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to ________.
A. entitled B. unqualified C. mature D. devoted
Question 40: According to paragraph 3, which of the following is the measure of old-age
social insurance programs?
A. The decrease in the age the elderly can receive pension.
B. The encouragement the elderly to contribute more in economy.
C. Enacting many policies to increase their income before retirement.
D. Widening the gap between official and actual ages of retirement.
Question 41: The word “manifested” in the last paragraph could be best replaced by
________.
A. illustrated B. demonstrated C. proved D.
recognized
Question 42: What is the benefit of aging mentioned in the last paragraph?
A. The mortality rates are decreasing.
B. People will have the chance to live with their parents longer.
C. Children are likely to live in an extended family with more brothers and sisters.
D. The life expectancy is being improved.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs
correction in each of the following questions.
Question 43: He didn’t meet her even one time since they said goodbye together.
A B C D
Question 44: I bought an interesting book last week, but I cannot find them now.
A B C D
Question 45: He’s such a bored guy because he only ever talks about himself.
A B C D
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in
meaning to each of the following questions.
Question 46: She began to play the piano three years ago.
A. She has played the piano since three years. B. She has played the piano for three
years.
C. She doesn’t play the piano now. D. She stops playing the piano now.
Question 47: “I’ll help you repair this washing machine, Jenny”, he said.
A. He admitted helping Jenny repair that washing machine.
B. He denied helping Jenny repair that washing machine.
C. He promised to help Jenny repair that washing machine.
D. He refused to help Jenny repair that washing machine.
Question 48: : It isn’t necessary for you to finish the report by Sunday.
A. You don’t have to finish the report by Sunday. B. You might finish the report by
Sunday.
C. You must finish the report by Sunday. D. You can’t finish the report by
Sunday.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best
combines each pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 49: You didn’t help me. I couldn’t overcome the problem.
A. As long as you helped me, I could overcome the problem.
B. If you didn’t help me, I couldn’t overcome the problem.
C. If only you helped me to overcome the problem.
D. I wish you had helped me to overcome the problem.
Question 50: I posted the letter. I realized that I had forgotten to put on a stamp.
A. Only after posting the letter did I realize that I had forgotten to put on a stamp.
B. Hardly had I realized that I had forgotten to put on a stamp when I posted the letter.
C. Not only did I realize that I had forgotten to put a stamp on the letter but I posted it as
well.
D. No sooner had I posted the letter than I forgot to put on a stamp.

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