Sri Chaitanya: IIT Academy.,India
Sri Chaitanya: IIT Academy.,India
Sri Chaitanya: IIT Academy.,India
A.P T.S KARNATAKA TAMILNADU MAHARASTRA DELHI RANCHI
A right Choice for the Real Aspirant
ICON Central Office - Madhapur - Hyderabad
SEC: Sr.Super60_NUCLEUS & ALL_BT JEE-MAIN Date: 03-01-2023
Time: 09.00Am to 12.00Pm GTM-01 Max. Marks: 300
IMPORTANT INSTRUCTION:
1. Immediately fill in the Admission number on this page of the Test Booklet with Blue/Black Ball Point Pen
only.
2. The candidates should not write their Admission Number anywhere (except in the specified space) on the
Test Booklet/ Answer Sheet.
3. The test is of 3 hours duration.
4. The Test Booklet consists of 90 questions. The maximum marks are 300.
5. There are three parts in the question paper 1,2,3 consisting of Physics, Chemistry and Mathematics having
30 questions in each subject and subject having two sections.
(I) Section –I contains 20 multiple choice questions with only one correct option.
Marking scheme: +4 for correct answer, 0 if not attempt and ‐1 in all other cases.
(II) Section‐II contains 10 Numerical Value Type questions. Attempt any 5 questions only, if more than 5
questions attempted, First 5 attempted questions will be considered.
∎ The Answer should be within 0 to 9999. If the Answer is in Decimal then round off to the nearest Integer
value (Example i,e. If answer is above 10 and less than 10.5 round off is 10 and If answer is from 10.5 and
less than 11 round off is 11).
To cancel any attempted question bubble on the question number box.
For example: To cancel attempted question 21. Bubble on 21 as shown below
.
Question Answered for Marking Question Cancelled for Marking
Marking scheme: +4 for correct answer, 0 if not attempt and ‐1 in all other cases.
6. Use Blue / Black Point Pen only for writing particulars / marking responses on the Answer Sheet. Use of pencil is
strictly prohibited.
7. No candidate is allowed to carry any textual material, printed or written, bits of papers, mobile phone any electron
device etc, except the Identity Card inside the examination hall.
8. Rough work is to be done on the space provided for this purpose in the Test Booklet only.
9. On completion of the test, the candidate must hand over the Answer Sheet to the invigilator on duty in the Hall.
However, the candidate are allowed to take away this Test Booklet with them.
10. Do not fold of make any stray marks on the Answer Sheet
Name of the Candidate (in Capital): ________________________________________________
Admission Number:
Candidate’s Signature:________________ Invigilator’s Signature: ________________
03‐01‐23_ Sr.Super60_NUCLEUS & ALL_BT_ Jee‐Main_GTM‐01_Test Syllabus
PHYSICS : 2nd YEAR SYLLABUS
CHEMISTRY : 2nd YEAR SYLLABUS
MATHEMATICS : 2nd YEAR SYLLABUS
SRI CHAITANYA IIT ACADEMY, INDIA 03‐01‐2023_ Sr.Super60_NUCLEUS & ALL_BT _ Jee‐Main_GTM‐01_Q.P
PHYSICS Max Marks: 100
(SINGLE CORRECT ANSWER TYPE)
This section contains 20 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 options (1), (2), (3) and (4) for its answer, out of which ONLY ONE option can be
correct.
Marking scheme: +4 for correct answer, 0 if not attempted and –1 in all other cases.
1. Flux Passing through the shaded surface of a sphere when a point charge q is placed at the
center is (radius of the sphere is R)
1) q / 0 2) q / 2 0 3) q / 4 0 4) Zero
2 T 8 0T
1) R 2) R 8 0 3) R 4) R
8 0T 2 8 0T
3. In a photo–emissive cell, with exciting wavelength , the maximum kinetic energy of the
electron is K. If the exciting wavelength is changed to 3 / 4, the kinetic energy of the
fastest emitted electron will be
3K 4K 4K 4K
1) 2) 3) Less than 4) More than
4 3 3 3
4. In Young’s double–slit experiment, the slits are 0.5 mm apart and the interference is
observed on a screen at a distance of 100 cm from the slits. It is found that the ninth bright
fringe is at a distance of 7.5 mm from the second dark fringe from the center of the fringe
pattern. The wavelength of the light used is
o 5000 o o 2500 o
1) 5000 A 2) A 3) 2500 A 4) A
7 7
9. In the circuit shown in the figure, the ac source gives a voltage V 20 cos 2000t
2 2
1 0 Iv b Iv a 1
1) ln 2) 0 ln
vR 2
a 2 b vR
2 2
Iv b v v Iv a
3) 0 ln 4) 0 ln
2 a R R 2 b
35 25
1) F 2) F 3) 15 F 4) None of these
6 6
3 2
1) LC 2) LC 3) LC 4) LC
4 4 3 3
18. The ratio of radii of nuclei 13 Al 27 & 52 X A is 3 : 5. The number of neutrons in the nuclei of
X will be
1) 52 2) 73 3) 125 4) 13
19. A luminous object is placed at a distance of 30 cm from the convex lens of focal length 20
cm. On the other side of the lens, at what distance from the lens a convex mirror of radius of
curvature 10 cm be placed in order to have an upright image of the object coincident with it
1) 12 cm 2) 30 cm 3) 50 cm 4) 60 cm
20. If in the circuit shown below, the internal resistance of the battery is 1.5 and VP and VQ
are the potentials at P and Q respectively, what is the potential difference between the points
P and Q
1) Zero
2) 4 volt VP VQ
3) 4 volt VQ VP
4) 2.5 volt VQ VP
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SRI CHAITANYA IIT ACADEMY, INDIA 03‐01‐2023_ Sr.Super60_NUCLEUS & ALL_BT _ Jee‐Main_GTM‐01_Q.P
(NUMERICAL VALUE TYPE)
Section-II contains 10 Numerical Value Type questions. Attempt any 5 questions only. First 5 attempted questions will be considered if more than 5
questions attempted. The Answer should be within 0 to 9999. If the Answer is in Decimal then round off to the nearest Integer value (Example i,e. If answer
is above 10 and less than 10.5 round off is 10 and If answer is from 10.5 and less than 11 round off is 11).
Marking scheme: +4 for correct answer, 0 if not attempt and -1 in all other cases.
21. Equipotential surfaces are shown in figure. Then the electric field strength will be 4 n Vm 1.
The value of n is
22. What is the power output of 92U 235 reactor if it takes 30 days to use up 2 kg of fuel and if
each fission gives 142 MeV of usable energy? Avogadro’s number 6.2 1026 per
kilomole. ( In megawatt)
23. In figure, two equal positive point charges q1 q2 2.0 C interact with a third point charge
Q 4.0C. The magnitude, as well as direction, of the net force on Q is 46 10 n N . The
value of n is
24. An ammeter is obtained by shunting a 30 galvanometer with a 30 resistance. What
additional shunt should be connected across it to double the range (in )?
to an extension of 4.9 104 m. The lowest frequency of transverse vibration in the wire is
28. Find the ratio between total acceleration of the electron in singly ionized helium atom and
hydrogen atom (both in ground state).
29. On sounding tuning fork A with another tuning fork B of frequency 384 Hz, 6 beats are
produced per second. After loading the prongs of A with wax and then sounding it again
with B, 4 beats are produced per second. The frequency of the tuning fork A is 5 n Hz .
The value of n is
30. Two long current carrying conductors are placed parallel to each other at a distance of 8 cm
between them. The magnitude of magnetic field produced at mid–point between the two
conductors due to current flowing in them is 300T . The equal current flowing in the two
conductors is in (A)
32. In a reaction A products, when start is made from 8.0 102 M of A, half-life is found to
be 120 minutes. For the initial concentration 4.0 102 M , the half-life of the reaction
becomes 240 minutes. The order of the reaction is:
1) Zero 2) One 3) Two 4) 0.5
33. Assertion: The enthalpy of physisorption is greater than chemisorption.
Reason: Molecule of adsorbate and adsorbent are held by vander Waal’s forces in
physisorption and by chemical bonds in chemisorption.
1) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are the true and Reason (R) is a correct explanation of
Assertion (A).
2) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are the true but Reason (R) is not a correct
explanation of Assertion (A).
3) Assertion (A) is true and Reason (R) is false.
4) Assertion (A) is false and Reason (R) is true.
0
34. Potassium has a bcc structure with nearest neighbour distance 4.52A . Its atomic weight is
39. Its density in kg m 3 will be
1) 454 2) 804 3) 852 4) 910
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SRI CHAITANYA IIT ACADEMY, INDIA 03‐01‐2023_ Sr.Super60_NUCLEUS & ALL_BT _ Jee‐Main_GTM‐01_Q.P
35. The e.m.f of a Daniell cell at 298K is E1 .
ZnSO4 CuSO4
Zn Cu
0.01 M 1.0 M
When the concentration of ZnSO4 is 1.0 M and that of CuSO4 is 0.01 M, the e.m.f. changed
to E2 . What is the relationship between E1 & E2 ?
1) E2 0 E1 2) E1 E2 3) E1 E2 4) E1 E2
36. A colloidal solution is subjected to an electric field. The particles move towards anode. The
coagulation of same sol is studied using NaCl , BaCl2 & AlCl3 solutions. The order of their
coagulation power should be
1) NaCl BaCl2 AlCl3 2) BaCl2 AlCl3 NaCl
3) AlCl3 BaCl2 NaCl 4) BaCl2 NaCl AlCl3
37. Most acidic oxide among the following is
1) N 2O5 2) P2O5 3) N 2O4 4) As2O3
38. Which of the following on thermal decomposition gives oxygen gas?
1) Ag 2O 2) Pb3O4 3) PbO2 4) All of these
39. Which of the following order is/are incorrect regarding the property indicated against it?
(i) HF >HCl > HBr > HI : Dissociation energy
(ii) Cl2O7 Cl2O6 ClO 2 Cl2O : Acidic character
(iii) SbCl3 SbCl5 : Covalent character
(iv) MCl > MBr : Ionic character
1) (iii) only 2) (ii) only 3) (i) and (iii) 4) (ii) and (iv)
40. Which is a planar molecule?
1) XeO4 2) XeF4 3) XeOF4 4) XeO2 F2
41. In the form of dichromate, Cr (VI) is a strong oxidizing agent in acidic medium but Mo (VI)
is MoO3 and W (VI) in WO3 are not because ___________
(i) Cr (VI) is more stable than Mo (VI) and W (VI)
(ii) Mo (VI) and W (VI) are more stable than Cr (VI)
(iii) Higher oxidation states of heavier members of group-6 of transition series are more
stable.
(iv) Lower oxidation states of heavier members of group-6 of transition series are more
stable.
1) (i) and (ii) 2) (ii) and (iii) 3) (i) and (iv) 4) (ii) and (iv)
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SRI CHAITANYA IIT ACADEMY, INDIA 03‐01‐2023_ Sr.Super60_NUCLEUS & ALL_BT _ Jee‐Main_GTM‐01_Q.P
42.
Assertion: Cuprous ion Cu has unpaired electrons while cupric Cu does not.
Reason: Cuprous ion Cu is colourless whereas cupric ion Cu is blue in the aqueous
solution.
1) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are the true and Reason (R) is a correct explanation of
Assertion (A).
2) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are the true but Reason (R) is not a correct
explanation of Assertion (A).
3) Assertion (A) is true and Reason (R) is false.
4) Assertion (A) is false and Reason (R) is true.
3 3
43. Assertion: Ti H 2O 6 is coloured while Sc H 2O 6 is colourless.
3
Reason: d – d transition is not possible in Sc H 2O 6 .
1) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are the true and Reason (R) is a correct explanation of
Assertion (A).
2) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are the true but Reason (R) is not a correct
explanation of Assertion (A).
3) Assertion (A) is true and Reason (R) is false.
4) Assertion (A) is false and Reason (R) is true.
44. Match the columns
Column – I Column – II
A) C 2 H 6
Cl 2 / UV light
C 2 H 5Cl p) Finkelstein reaction
NaNO 2 HCl/Cu 2Cl2
B) C6 H 5 NH 2
273 278 K
C6 H 5Cl q) Free radical substitution
COOH COOH
1) 2)
OH
COOH COOH
3) OH 4)
47. Ethanoic acid can’t be obtained by which of the following reaction?
i KCN
(i) C2 H5Cl
ii H O
3
i AgCN
(ii) CH3Cl
ii H3O
(iii) CH 3CH CH 2
KMnO 4 /H
heat
i Mg
(iv) CH3Br
ii CO2
iii H3O
1) (iii) and (iv) 2) (i) and (ii) 3) (ii) and (iii) 4) (i) and (iv)
48. Which of the following amines can be prepared by Gabriel method?
(i) CH 3CH 2 NH 2 (ii) CH 3 2 CHNH 2
Specific conductance Sm 1
Conductance S
56. The total number of possible coordination isomers for the complex compound
Cu II NH3 4 Pt IICl4
57. Vapour pressure of benzene at 30C is 121.8 mm Hg. When 15g of a non volatile solute is
dissolved in 250 g of benzene its vapour pressure decreased to 120.2 mm Hg. The molecular
weight of the solute (Considered as a dilute solution) [Nearest Integer]
(Mo. Wt. of solvent = 78)
58. Find out number of alcohols that can give positive iodoform test
NH2 , NH2
,H C ,
3
N2O
NH2
NH NH
Cl
NH2
NH2
, NH2,
OCH3
O H
0
integer
1) 9 2) 18 3) 0 4) 12
2) tan 1 sin x c
2
1) tan 1 sin x c
c
1 2 1 2
tan sin x 1 tan sin x
3) c 4)
2 2
63.
The solution of differential equation 2 x3 ydy 1 y 2 x 2 y 2 y 2 1 dx 0 is:
1) x 2 y 2 cx 1 1 y 2
2) x 2 y 2 cx 1 1 y 2
3) x 2 y 2 cx 1 1 y 2 4) x 2 y 2 cx 1 1 y 2
5 1 7 1 9 1 11 1
64. The sum of n terms of the series . . . . .... is:
1.2 3 2.3 32 3.4 33 4.5 34
1 1 1 1 1 1
1) 1 . 2) 1 . 3) 1 . 4) 1
n 1 3n n 1 3n n 1 3n 1
65. The differential equation for all family of lines which are at a unit distance from the origin
is:
2 2 2 2
dy dy dy dy
1) y x 1 2) y x 1
dx dx dx dx
2 2 2 2
dy dy dy dy
3) y x 1 4) y x 1
dx dx dx dx
66. In the given figure, the equation of the large circle is x 2 y 2 4 y 5 0 and the distance
between centres is 4. Then the equation of smaller circle is:
y 12 1
2 2 2
1) x 7 y 1 1 2) x 7
4) x 7 y 1 1
2 2
3) x 2 y 2 2 7 x 2 y
67. The value of the parameter ‘a’ such that the area bounded by y a 2 x 2 ax 1 , coordinate
axes and the line x = 1 attains its least value, is equal to
1 1 3
1) 2) 3) 4) 1
4 2 4
16
68. If the area included between the two parabolas y 2 4a x a and y 2 4b b x is ,
3
then a, b 0
1) AM and GM of a and b are equal a, b 0
2) AM and GM of a and b are reciprocals of each other a, b 0
a 2 b2
3) ab
2
4) a b ab
2x x3 dx is equal to:
2
ex
69.
3 x 2 2
2 2 2 2
ex 1 ex 1 ex 1 ex
1) c 2) c 3) c 4) c
3 x 2
8 3 x2
4 3 x2
2 3 x2
70. The point 2m, m 1 is an interior point of the smaller region bounded by circle
x 2 y 2 4 and the parabola y 2 4 x then:
3
1) 1 m 5 2 6 2) 1 m
5
3) 0 < m < 4 4) 5 2 6 m 1
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SRI CHAITANYA IIT ACADEMY, INDIA 03‐01‐2023_ Sr.Super60_NUCLEUS & ALL_BT _ Jee‐Main_GTM‐01_Q.P
71. A five-digit number (having all different digits) is formed using the digits 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8
and 9. The probability that the formed number either begins or ends with an odd digit, is
equal to:
5 1 1 2
1) 2) 3) 4)
6 6 3 3
3
72. The complex number z = 1 + i is rotated through an angle in anticlockwise direction
2
about the origin and stretched by additional 2 unit , then the new complex number is:
1) 2 2i 2) 2 2i 3) 2 2i 4) 2 1 i
3
4 when z z 2
73. Locus of z if arg z 1 i is:
when z z 2
4
1) Straight lines passing through (2, 0)
2) Lines passing through (2, 0) and (1, 1)
3) A line segment
4) A set of two rays
74. Let P and Q are the two distinct points on a circle which has centre at C(4, 3) and which pass
through origin. If OC is perpendicular to both the line segment CP and CQ, then the set
(P, Q) is:
1) 1,7 , 7,1 2) 1,7 , 7, 1 3) 7,1 , 1, 7 4) 7,1 , 7, 1
One book of each subject can be taken in 3 C1 ways balance 2 books from remaining 6 books
can be taken in 6 C 2 ways hence total no.of ways using fundamental principle of counting
3C1. 3C1. 3C1. 6C2 .
Padmini’s Solutions:
Number of ways in which atleast one Physics book can be selected 23 1 perpendicularly
one chemistry in 23 1 ways and one mathematics in 23 1 ways.
Total ways 23 1 23 1 23 1
Which one of the following options is correct?
1) Priya is correct and Padmini is wrong.
2) Padmini is correct and Priya is wrong.
3) Both Priya and Padmini are wrong and their answers are higher than the actual answer.
4) Both Priya and Padmini are wrong and their answers are lower than the actual answer.
81. If
dx
x3x
a x b 3 x c 6 x d ln 6 x 1 e, e being an arbitrary constant, then
the value of a b c d is
82. Let f(x) is a continuous function for all real values of x and satisfies
1
x16 x6
x
f t dt t . f t dt
2
a then the value of -840a is equal to:
8 3
0 x
83. Let C1 be the graph of xy = 1 and the reflection of C1 in the line y = 2x is C2 . If the
equation of C2 is expressed as 12 x 2 bxy cy 2 d 0 , then bc =
r 4n
n
84. The value of lim = K. Then 50K =_______
n 2
r 1 r 3 r 4 n
p
85. If the area bounded by y x 2 4 x 3 and the x-axis from x = 1 to x = 3 is (where, p &
q
q are coprime), then the value of p + q is
n
86. For n N , in the expansion of 4
x 3 a 4 x 5 , the sum of all the binomial coefficients lies
between 200 and 400. Also, the term independent of x is 448, then the value of a is
n
If 1 x C0 C1x C2 x ..... Cn x , r 1 Cr 2n 2 f n and if the roots of the
n 2 n 2
87.
r 0
equation f(x) = 0 are & , then the value of 2 2 is equal to (where C r denotes n C r )
2 2 2 2
88. Digit at the unit place of the sum of 1! 2! 3! .......... 2023! is
1
89. The probability of India winning a test match against Australia is . Assuming the matches
4
to be independent events, the probability that in a 7 match series India’s second win occurs
90. Tangents are drawn from the point , to the hyperbola 3 x 2 2 y 2 6 and are inclined at