Practice Paper Test for UG (B Pharmacy)

c) Integrative approach

d) None of these

Answer: Integrative

SEM-IV

Subject: BP401T Pharmaceutical Organic Chemistry III

Stereo isomerism

1) Cis-trans isomers are:

a. Diastereomers.
b. Enantiomers.
c. Geometric isomers.
d. Constitutional isomers.
Ans. c
2) Which statement is not true for a meso compound?
a. The specific rotation is 0º.
b. There are one or more planes of symmetry.
c. More than one stereogenic center must be present.
d. The stereo chemical labels, (R) and (S), must be identical for each stereogenic centre.
Ans. d
3) Which of these is a comparatively insignificant factor affecting the magnitude of
Specific optical rotation?
a. Concentration of the substance of interest
b. Purity of the sample
c. Temperature of the measurement
d. Length of the sample tube
Ans. c
4) Which of the following is true of any (S)-enantiomer?
a. It rotates plane-polarized light to the right.
b. It rotates plane-polarized light to the left.
c. It is a racemic form.
d. It is the mirror image of the corresponding (R)-enantiomer.
Ans. d
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5) Enantiomers are:
a. Molecules that have a mirror image.
b. Molecules that have at least one stereogenic center.
c. Non-superposable molecules.
d. Non-superposable molecules that are mirror images of each other.
Ans. d

6) Which of the following is NOT true of enantiomers? They have the same:
a. Boiling point.
b. Melting point.
c. Specific rotation.
d. Density.
Ans. c
7) Which of the statements below correctly describes an achiral molecule?
a. The molecule has a nonsuperimposable mirror image.
b. The molecule exhibits optical activity when it interacts with plane-polarized light.
c. The molecule has an enantiomer.
d. The molecule might be a meso form.
Ans. d
8) A mixture of equal amounts of two enantiomers .
a. is called a racemic mixture
b. is optically inactive
c. implies that the enantiomers are meso forms
d. both A and B
Ans. d
9) an optically active reagent or catalyst to convert an
optically inactive starting material into an optically active product.
a. Asymmetric induction
b. Racemization
c. Optical reduction
d. Meso effection
Ans. a

10) Which of the following statements is (are) true for the compound cis-1,2-
dichlorocyclopropane?
a. This compound is chiral.
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b. The enantiomer of this compound is trans-1,2-dichlorocyclopropane.

c. This compound contains no asymmetric carbons.
d. none of the above
Ans. d

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11) Compounds which have different arrangements of atoms in space while

having same atoms bonded to each other are said to have
a. position isomerism
b. functional group isomerism
c. chain isomerism
d. stereoisomerism
Ans. d
12) Which of the following can make difference in optical isomers?
a. heat
b. temperature
c. polarized light
d. pressure
Ans. c
13) Which of the following terms best describes the following pair of molecules?
a. Isomers
b. Constitutional isomers
c. Configurational isomers
d. Geometrical isomers
Ans. d
14) Which of these is a comparatively insignificant factor affecting the magnitudeof
specific optical rotation.
a. Concentration of substance of interest
b. Temperature of measurement
c. Length of the sample tube
d. All of the above
Ans. d
15) Which of the following is NOT true of enantiomers? They have the same:
a. boiling point.
b. melting point.
c. specific rotation.
d. chemical reactivity toward achiral reagents.
Ans. d
16) Those stereoisomers which can be interconverted only by breaking and

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remaking of covalent bonds are called as

a. Chain isomers
b. Positional isomers
c. Configurational isomers
d. Conformational isomers
Ans. c
17) Those stereoisomers which can be interconverted by simple rotation about
sigma bonds are called as
a. Conformational isomers
b. Functional isomers
c. Geometric isomers
d. Tautomers
Ans. a
18) A beam of light having a particular wavelength and having vibrations only in
one plane is
a. Ordinary light
b. Plane polarized light
c. Monochromatic light
d. None of above
Ans. b
19) Optically active compound can rotate
a. Ordinary light
b. Plane polarized light
c. Monochromatic light
d. None of above
Ans. b
20) Which instrument is used to measure angle of rotation?
a. Polarimeter
b. UV spectrometer
c. pH meter
d. Conductometer
Ans. a
21) Relative configuration of stereoisomer is denoted by
a. R and S isomers

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b. D and L isomers
c. d and l isomers
d. cis and trans isomers
Ans. b
22) The necessary conditions for geometric isomers are
a. Presence of at least one double bond.
b. Each carbon atom of the double bond should be linked to two different atoms or
groups.
c. Both (a) and (b)
d. None of the above.
Ans. c
23) The process of separation of a racemic mixture into optically active d and l
isomers is
a. Racemization
b. Resolution
c. Both (a) and (b)
d. None of the above
Ans. b
24) Absolute configuration of stereoisomer is denoted by
a. R and S isomers
b. D and L isomers
c. d and l isomers
d. cis and trans isomers
Ans. a
25) Ratio of dextro and levo isomers (d:l) of compound present in raceme mixture

a. 50:50

b. 40:60

c. 30:70

d. 20:80

Ans. a

Heterocyclic compounds

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26) Which is the most reactive five membered heterocyclic compound?

a. Pyrrole
b. Furan
c. Thiophene
d. Pyridine
Ans. a
27) What is the product when thiophene reacts with Br2 in benzene?
a. 2-bromothiophene
b. 3-bromothiophene
c. 2,5-dibromothiophene
d. 3,4-dibromothiophene
Ans. c
28) What is the product when pyrrole reacts with Br2 in ethanol?
a. 2,3-dibromopyrrole
b. 2,3,4,5-tetrabromopyrrole
c. 2,5-dibromopyrrole
d. 3,4-dibromopyrrole
Ans. b
29) Which heteroatom present in pyrrole?
a. Oxygen
b. Nitrogen
c. Silicon
d. Sulphur
Ans. b
30) Which heteroatom present in Furan?
a. Oxygen
b. Nitrogen
c. Silicon
d. Sulphur
Ans. a
31) Which heteroatom present in thiophene?
a. Nitrogen
b. Silicon

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c. Oxygen
d. Sulphur
Ans. d
32) Which compound is most basic?
a. Pyridine
b. Pyrrole
c. Imidazole
d. Pyrrolidine
Ans. c
33) Which is least basic compound?
a. Pyridine
b. Pyrrole
c. Imidazole
d. Pyrrolidine
Ans. b
34) Which of the following solvents is a heterocyclic compound?
a. DMSO
b. DMF
c. THF
d. None of the above
Ans. c
35) Which of the followings statements is correct?
a. Pyrrole has less aromatic character than furan
b. Pyridine is isoelectronic with benzene
c. Pyridine is tertiary amine
d. Pyrrole is strong base
Ans. c
36) What is the correct order of reactivity (most reactive first) of pyrrole, furan
and thiophene towards electrophiles?
a. Furan > Pyrrole > Thiophene
b. Pyrrole > Furan > Thiophene
c. Furan > Thiophene > Pyrrole
d. Thiophene > Pyrrole > Furan
Ans. b

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37) Nitration of pyrrole is best carried out using:

a. Acetyl nitrate
b. Ammonium nitrate
c. Concentrated nitric and sulphuric acid
d. Nitric acid
Ans. a

38) Which statement about thiophene is incorrect?

a. The S atom contributes two electrons to the n-system
b. Thiophene is polar
c. Thiophene is less reactive than pyrrole
d. Thiophene is more reactive than furan
Ans. d
39) Pyrrole undergoes sulfonation in presence of to produce pyrrole 2
sulfonic acid.
a. Conc. Sulphuric acid
b. SO3 and pyridine
c. Dilute sulphuric acid/pyridine
d. SO3 and ethanol
Ans. b
40) Pyrrole undergoes iodination in presence of Iodine and potassium iodide to
produce .
a. 2 iodo pyrrole
b. 3 iodo pyrrole
c. Tetra iodo pyrrole
d. Tri iodo pyrrole
Ans. c
41) Oxidation of pyrrole in presence of chromium oxide (Cr2O3) and acetic acid
produce .
a. Maleinimide
b. Maleic acid
c. Pyrrole N-oxide
d. None of the above
Ans. a

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42) Which reagent is used for the nitration of furan?

a. Conc. Nitric acid and sulphuric acid
b. Acetyl nitrate
c. Nitrobenzene
d. Dilute nitric acid with benzene
Ans. b

43) Friedel craft acetylation of furan by using acetic anhydride is carried out in
the presence
a. AlCl3
b. FeCl3
c. BF3
d. LIAlH4
Ans. c
44) Bromination of furan by using Br2 will
a. 2 bromo furan
b. 3 bromo furan
c. 2,5 dibromo furan
d. None of the above
Ans. d
45) Oxidation of furan
a. Furan oxide
b. Furfural
c. Furfuric acid
d. Succinaldehyde
Ans. d
46) Catalytic reduction of furan
a. 2,3 dihydro furan
b. 2,5 dihydro furan
c. Tetra hydro furan
d. 3,4 dihydro furan
Ans. c
47) Which is the true statement from followings?
a. Thiophene is more stable than pyrrole

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b. Thiophene is more stable than furan

c. Both (a) & (b)
d. None of the above
Ans. c
48) Which condition is appropriate for the nitration of thiophene?
a. Acetyl nitrate
b. Nitric acid +acetic anhydride
c. Concentrated nitric acid
d. Sodium nitrate
Ans. b
49) Sulfonation of thiophene can be carried out by
a. SO3 +Conc. HCl
b. Dilute Sulphuric acid
c. Concentrated Sulphuric acid
d. SO3 + HNO3
Ans. c
50) Bromination of thiophene by using Bromine in benzene will
a. 5 bromo thiophene
b. 3- bromo thiophene
c. 2 bromo thiophene
d. 2,5 di bromo thiophene
Ans. d
51) Bromination of thiophene by using Bromine in benzene will produce
e. 5 bromo thiophene
f. 3- bromo thiophene
g. 2 bromo thiophene
h. 2,5 di bromo thiophene
Ans. d
52) Pyrrole probably undergoes
a. Electrophilic substitution
b. Nucleophilic substitution
c. Electrophilic addition
d. Nucleophilic addition
Ans. a

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Subject: BP402T Medicinal Chemistry I

1) Which vitamin molecules will bind to alpha 2 globulin?

a) Vitamin b complexes b) Vitamin a and vitamin b c) Vitamin A, D, E, K
d) Steroids bind to alpha 2 globulin, not vitamin.
2) What is the molecular weight of human serum albumin?
a) 5000 Dalton b) 69,000 Dalton c) 60,000 Dalton d) 75,000 Dalton
3) Substances that apparently do not interact with plasma-protein except:
a) streptomycin, b) nitrous oxide, c) thiamine d) phenytoin.
4) Chelation is a type of bonding of ions and molecules to metal ions. These ligands are
called
a) chelants, b) chelators, c) chelating agents, d) all above.
5) Trans DET is active but Cis DET inactive due to
a) geometrical isomers b) optical isomers c) isomerism d) none of above
6) Which one of the following bonds is not generally a bond through which a drug will
bind in our body?
a) Hydrogen bond b) Hydrophobic bond c) Ionic bond d) Covalent bond
7) These are hydrophobic aggregation forces:
a) partition coefficient, b) surface activity, c) Rf value d) all above
8) Write pH in terms of concentration of hydrogen ion?
a) [H+] = 1-pH b) [H+] = 10-pH c) [H+] = 10pH d) [H] = 10-pH
9) Adrenaline and nor-adrenaline are hormones and act as ________
a) Neurotransmitters b) Energy storing substance c) Food storage material
d) Energy producing agents.
10) Which of the following hormone is known as flight and fight hormone?
a) Thyroxin b) Adrenaline c) ADH d) Oxytocin.
11) Which of the following is an example of salicylates?
a) Ibuprofen b) ASA [C] Indomethacin [D] Phenylbutazone

12) Select a false statement given below with respect to the Lipinski's Rule of five.

[A] Number of H-bond acceptor must be less than 5

[B] Molecular weight of drug must be less than 500

[C] Number of H-bond donor must be less than 5

[D] Log P must be less than 5

13) What are opioid analgesics?

[A] Render a specific CNS of the body insensitive to pain

[B] Render insensitive to pain by binding to opioid receptors

[C] Render the full body of the patient insensitive to pain

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[D] Render a specific portion of the body insensitive to pain

14) The term for replacement of hydrogen with a fluorine atom is known as

[A] Isobar [B] Isotope [C] Isomer [D] Isostere

15) How does NSAIDs work?

[A] Inhibit cyclooxygenase [B] Inhibit Prostaglandin and thromboxane synthesis

[C] Inhibit Endoperoxide intermediate [D] Inhibit arachidonic acid

16) Despite prior beliefs, patients with epilepsy do not have an increased risk of sudden death
compared with the general population.

[A] True [B] false

17) What mixture of gases are used in anesthesia?

[A] O2 and CO2 [B] O2 and N2O [C] CO2 and N2O [D] O2 , CO2 and
N2 O

18) Which is the major process of absorption for more than 90% of drugs?

[A] Passive diffusion [B] Facilitated diffusion

[C] Endocytosis [D] Active transport

19) The peripheral nervous system includes the

`[A] Brain [B] Somatic nervous system [C] Nuclei [D] Spinal cord

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Subject: BP403T Physical Pharmaceutics II

1. The size of colloidal particles are

a) Less than 1 nm b) Greater than 0.5 um c) 1 nm to 0.5 um d) None of these

2. lyophilic colloids are thermodynamically

a) stable b) unstable c) flocculated d) None

3.Zig-zag movement of colloidal particle called.

a) diffusion b) Brownian movement c) tyndall effect d) molecular scattaring

4. stability of colloids due to the

a) surface charge b) Brownian movement c) solvent sheath d) all the above

5. Fluid whose viscosity does not change with shear rate / agitation called

a) Plastic b) Newtonian fluids c) Pseudoplastic d) Dilatant

6. The materials that exhibit plastic flow, such materials are known as

a) Newtonian fluids b) yield value c) Bingham bodies d) None of these

7. pseudo plastic substance also called

a) shear thinning system b) shear-thickening systems c) Bingham bodies d) all the above

8. Polymeric solution or solutions of gum shows

a) pseudoplastic b) Dilatant Flow c) Plastic flow d) all the above

9. Reciprocal of viscosity called

a) Fluidity b) Kinematic viscosity c) Shear stress d) Shear rate

10. Liquid pass through filter paper but not pass through semipermeable membrane called

a) molecular dispersion b) colloidal c) coarse diseprsion d) all the above

11. Fundamental properties of powder are

a) Particle shape
b) Particle weight

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c) Particle number
d) all above
12. Andreasen pipette method used for

a) determination of surface area

b) determination of particle size
c) determination of solubility
d) none of them

13. Coulter counter method used for determination of

a) absorption
b) surface tension
c) particle size
d) partition coefficient

14. In sedimentation method the particle size is determined in terms of

a)
b) viscosity
c) particle volume
d) none of them

15. Methods used for purification of colloids are

a) Dialysis
b) Ultrafiltration
c) Electrodialysis
d) all above

16. Dry gum method is used for preparation of

a) suspension
b) solution
c) emulsion
d) gel

17. Surfactants in pharmaceutical suspensions for oral administration

a) Surfactants decrease the water contact angle of dispersed drug particles.
b) Surfactants with low HLB are used to stabilize oral suspensions designed for
oral administrations.
c) Surfactants increase the viscosity of the continuous phase of pharmaceutical
suspensions.
d) Surfactant does not promote flocculation.

18. Regarding emulsions, which of the following statement is true?

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a) Dispersed globules of the internal phase do not possess a zeta potential

b) Oil in water emulsions are stable following dilution with water
c) Multiple emulsions are more stable than primary emulsions
d) Water in oil emulsions are commonly administered orally.

19. HLB values of w/o emulsifier is

a) 5-10
b) 3-6
c) 8-18
d) 1-3

20. Suspension emulsion are

a) Heterogeneous
b) Homogenous
c) Both
d) Solutions

a) First
b) Second
c) Zero
d) Both a and b
22. Rate of reaction is depend on conc. of one reactant
a) First
b) Second
c) Zero
d) Both a and b
23. The reactions in which two molecules are invlolved called
a) Unimolecular
b) Bimolecular
c) Termolecular
d) Pseudo molecular

a) 50
b) 40
c) 90
d) 95
25. Graphical substitution method used for determination of
a) Solubility
b) Particle size
c) Order of reaction

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d) polarity
Subject: BP404T Pharmacology I

1. 100% bioavailability shown by route of drug administration ______

A. Oral

B. IP

C. IV

D.IM

Ans: (C)

2. Antagonist do not possess_________

A. Affinity

B. Therapeutic activity

C. Intrinsic activity

D. both A&B

Ans: (C)

3. Drugs are excreted from body through_____

A. kidney

B. Saliva

C. Breast milk

D. Allof the above

Ans: (D)

4. Enzyme induction by the drug leads to_______

A. Decrease the activity of drug

B. Increase the drug excretion

C. Increase the activity of drug

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D. Both A&B

Ans: (D)

5. The majority of drugs cross biological membranes primarily by

A. Passive diffusion

B. Active transport

C. Facilitated diffusion

D. Both A&B

Ans: (A)

6. The action of the drug on the body is known as

A. Pharmacology

B. Pharmacotherapeutics

C. Pharmacodynamics

D. Pharmacokinetics

Ans: (B)

7. Bizarre type of ADR denoted by

A. Type A

B. Type C

C. Type B

D. Type E

Ans: (C)

8. GPCR family of receptors includes

A. Rhodopsin

B. Glutamate

C. Secretin

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D. All of the above

Ans: (D)

9. In phase I clinical trial the number of healthy volunteers required

A. 1

B. 1000

C. 100

D. 5000

Ans: (C)

10. Pharmacovigilance deals with

A. Therapeutic activity

B. ADR

C. Mechanism of drug action

D. Dose

Ans: (B)

11. Pseudocholinesterase differs from true cholinesterase in

A. It does not hydrolyze acetylcholine

B. It hydrolyses acetylcholine at a slower rate

C. It is more susceptible to inhibition by physostigmine

D. It is the only form of circulating cholinesterase

Ans: (B)

12. Indicate the location of M2 cholinoreceptor type

A. Heart

B. Glands

C. Smooth muscles

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D. Endothelium

Ans: (A)

13. Atropine blocks the activity of acetylcholine at

A. Nicotinic receptor

B. Muscarinic activity

C. Alpha receptor

D. Beta receptor

Ans: (B)

14. Mydriasis is produced by the drug except

A. Adrenaline

B. Noradrenaline

C. Ephedrine

D. Physostigmine

Ans: (D)

15. Following are anesthetics except

A. Lidocaine

B. Procaine

C. Lignocaine

D. Neostigmine

Ans: (D)

16.

A. Glycine
B. Acetylcholine
C. Aspartate
D. Glutamate

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Answer: D

17. What part of a neuron is responsible for receiving information?

A. axon
B. terminal fibre
C. dendrite
D. myelin sheath

Answer: C

18. The effect of neurotransmitters may be:

A. chemical or electrical
B. excitatory or inhibitory
C. positive or negative
D. active or passive

Answer: B

to changes in which
neurotransmitter?
A. serotonin
B. glutamate
C. dopamine
D. acetylcholine

Answer: C

20. Which is the most common neurotransmitter in the brain?

A. serotonin
B. glutamate
C. dopamine
D. GABA

Answer: B

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of the anaesthetic in pulmonary alveoli needed to produce

immobility in response to a painful stimulus (surgical incision) in 50% individuals.

A. Minimum Alveolar Concentration

B. Minimum Anaesthetic Concentration
C. Mnimum Drug Concentration
D. Minimun Anaethetic drug concentration

Answer: A

22. Which one of the following is an example of inhalational anaesthetics

A. Isofluran
B. Thiopental Sodium
C. Etomidate
D. Fentanyl

Answer: A

23. Cessation of breathing to failure of circulation and death is

A. Stages of analgesia
B. Medullary Paralysis
C. Stage of delirium
D. Surgical Anaesthesia

Answer: B

A. 10-15mg Oral
B. 10-25mg IV
C. 5-10mg IV
D. 5-10 mg Oral

Answer: D

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25. ease secretions and vagal stimulation that may be caused by the anaesthetics
A. Local Anaesthetics
B. General Anaesthetics
C. Opoid Analgesics
D. Preanaesthetics

26. Benzodiazepine pharmacology is most closely linked to which neurotransmitter system.

A. Noradrenergic
B. GABA
C. Cholinergic
D. Glycine System

Answer: B

27. Which one of the following belongs to long acting barbiturates

A. Phenobarbitone
B. Pentobarbital
C. Hexabutal
D.Thiopental

Answer: C

28. Drug that does not act on GABA receptor is

A. Diazepam
B. Meprobamate
C. Alprazolam
D. Buspirone

Answer: D

29. Which of the following drug increase the duration of open GABA channels
A. Barbiturates
B. Zolpidem
C. Benzodiazepine

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D. Busiprione
Answer: A

30. Which of the following sedative can be used clinically for seizures.
A. Pentobarbital
B. Lorazepam
C. Alcohol
D. Zolpidem

Answer: B

31.
A. Asthma
B. Anxiety
C. Seizures
D. Hypertension

Answer: C

32. Which of the following antiepilectic drug is metabolized by inducing P-450 enzyme.
A. Carbamazepine
B. Lamotrigine
C. Pregabalin
D. Ethosuxamide

Answer: A

33.
A. Tonic clonic
B. Partial
C. Absense
D. Generalized

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Answer:B

34. The choice of antiepileptic drug regimen depends on

A. Lifestyle aspects
B. Seizure Control
C. Seizure Type
D. All of Above

Answer: D

35. Phenytoin is contraindicated in which type of seizures

A. Generalized tonic clonic
B. Simple partial
C. Complex Partial
D. Absence

Answer: D

36. Drug used in management of withdrawal symptoms..

A. Disulfiram
B. Benzodiazepine
C. Acamprosate
D. Naltrexone

Answer: B

37.
A. Severe liver diseases patient
B. Pregnant women
C. Peptic ulcer
D. All of above

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Answer:D

38. Choose the correct example of Tricyclic antidepressant

A. Impramine
B. Moclobemide
C. Venlafaxine
D. Fluvoxamine

Answer: A

39. Tricyclic antidepressant a

A. Blocking reuptake of NE and serotonin
B. Inhibition of folic acid synthesis
C. Inhibition of calcium
D. None of above

Answer: A

40. contraindicated in patients with peptic ulcer disease, psychotic illness, or recent
myocardial infarction
A. Levodopa
B. Pramipexole
C. Imipramine
D. Carbidopa

Answer: B

41. Which neurotransmitters are affected by parkinsonism

A. Acetylcholine
B. Dopamine
C. Levodopa
D. Both A and B

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Answer: D

42. Symptoms of progressing parkinson's disease?

A. Tremor
B. Rigidity
C. Postural instability
D. All of above
Answer: D

43. All of the following are hallucinogens, except:

A. LSD
B. Phencyclidine
C. Mescaline
D. Methylphenidate

Answer: D

44. Which of the following is derived from the hemp plant

A. Opium
B. Marijuana
C. MDMA
D. Crack

Answer: B

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Subject: BP405T Pharmacognosy and Phytochemistry I

1) This is the sample size used to determine foreign matter of roots, rhizomes and bark.
A) 500 gm B) 250 gm C) 50 gm D) 25 gm
2) ________ is the difference in weight between the total ash and the residue
after treatment of the total ash with water.
A) Total ash B) Acid-insoluble ash C) Sulphated ash D) Water-soluble ash
3) Bitterness value is determined by comparing the threshold bitter concentration of an
extract of the materials with that of a dilute solution of _______________.
A) ephedrine sulphate B) quinine hydrochloride
C) cinchonine sulphate D) andrographolide
4) Foaming ability of an aqueous decoction of herbal materials is measured in terms of
A) foaming value B) foaming capacity C) foaming index D) foaming behaviour
5) ___________ include crude plant materials such as leaves, flowers, fruits, seeds, stem
wood, bark, roots, rhizomes or other plant parts.
A) Herbs B) Herbal materials C) Herbal preparations D) Markers
6) Stomatal number is determined by using
A) Simple microscope B) Simple lense C) Camera lucida D) None of these
7) Quality assurance of herbal medicinal products is the responsibility of
A) Regulatory bodies B) Manufacturers C) Both A & B D) None of these
8) __________ drying is preferred to maintain or minimize loss of colour of leaves.
A) Shade B) Sun C) Microwave D) Hot air oven
9) Astringent property is determined by amount of ________ present in the drug.
A) flavonoids B) tannins C) saponins D) steroids
10) It works on the principle of harmonization of the manufacturing procedures globally with
a marked standard.
A) cGMP B) GMP C) GACP D) GLP

Subject: Pharmacognosy & Phytochemistry I (BP 405 T)

1) In this method, plants are raised from seeds.

A) Sexual method B) Asexual method C) Vegetative method D) Micropropagation
2) Particle size (diameter) of fine clay is ___________.
A) Less than 0.002 mm B) 0.002 to 0.02 mm C) 0.02 to 0.2 mm D) 0.2 to 2.0 mm
3) One of the following is natural growth inhibitor.
A) Indole acetic acid B) Gibberellins A1 C) Abscisic acid D) Zeatin
of crude drug caused due to microbial attack.
A) Spoilage B) Substitution C) Deterioration D) Inferiority
5) Classification of crude drugs according to therapeutic uses is ________ classification.
A) Morphological B) Chemical C) Taxonomical D) Pharmacological
6) Mutation caused due to some unknown reason from nature is called as __________.
A) Modifications B) Chromosomal mutation C) Point mutation D) Spontaneous
mutation
is average number of stomata per sq. mm of epidermis of leaf.
A) Stomatal number B) Stomatal index C) Palisade ratio D) Vein-islet number
8) Poor soil contains _________% of organic matter.
A) less than 0.5 B) 1.5 to 5 C) 0.5 to 1.5 D) more than 5
9) Preparation of crude drug for market after drying is __________.
A) Harvesting B) Storage C) Garbling D) Preservation
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 Practice Paper Test for UG (B Pharmacy)

10) One of the following is unorganized drug.

A) Liquorice roots B) Senna leaflets C) Ginger oleoresin D) Neem leaves
11) An excised piece of differentiated tissue or organ is called as
A) Explant B) Callus C) Culture D) Protoplast
12) Carbohydrates which
A) Monosaccharides B) Disaccharides C) Trisaccharides D) Polysaccharides
13) C6-C3-C6 is general skeleton for
A) Alkaloids B) Glycosides C) Flavonoids D) Terpenoids
14) Resin contains benzoic acid and/or cinnamic acid or esters of these acids are
A) Oleoresin B) Oleo gum resins C) Balsams D) All of the above
15) In Homeopathy, simple and single drug is prescribed at a time, called as
A) Law of similia B) Law of simplex C) Drug proving D) Vital force
16) As per Ayurveda, rasa, rakta, asthi, majja are some of the _____ of the body.
A) Malas B) Dhatus C) Doshas D) All of the above
17) In fixed oils and fats, ________ combines with long chain fatty acids.
A) glycerol B) monohydric alcohol C) fats D) cholesterol
18) Monoterpenes consist of _____isoprene units.
A) one B) two C) three D) four
19) _________is used as a source of nitrogen in case of nitrogen deficiency.
A) Alkaloids B) Glycosides C) Flavonoids D) Terpenoids

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