PEPERIKSAAN PERTENGAHAN TAHUN

TINGKATAN 5 2022
1119/1
BAHASA INGGERIS
Kertas 1
Reading and Use of English
September 2022
1 ½ jam Satu jam tiga puluh minit

JANGAN BUKA KERTAS PEPERIKSAAN INI SEHINGGA DIBERITAHU

Arahan
1. Tulis nama dan tingkatan anda pada ruang yang disediakan. For examiner’s use
2. Kertas peperiksaan ini mengandungi lima bahagian : Bahagian 1, Part Marks
Bahagian 2, Bahagian 3, Bahagian 4 dan Bahagian 5. 1 8
3. Jawab semua bahagian dalam kertas peperiksaan ini. 2 10
4. Jawab setiap soalan dengan menulis dan menghitamkan ruang 3 8
yang betul di halaman 15. 4 6
5 8
INSTRUCTION Total 40
1. Write your name and form in the space provided.
2. This question paper consists of four sections : Section A, Section
B, Section C, Section D and Section E.
3. Answer all sections in this question paper.
4. Answer each question by writing and blackening the correct space
on page 20.

Nama / Name

Tingkatan / Form

Kertas peperiksaan ini mengandungi 18 halaman bercetak.

1
 Part 1 (8 marks)

Question 1 to 8

Read the text carefully in each question. Choose the best answer A, B or C.

The National Science Challenge - registration now open!

Calling all Form Four students!

The National Science Challenge is a fantastic chance to show your science skills.

The four teams which make it to the final stage will compete in activities that will
challenge them to solve problems. The champions will get the chance to go to the
prestigious Nobel Prize Awards ceremony in Stockholm!

The second-placed team will go on a short study tour in Tokyo.

1. Which statement is true about the National Science Challenge?

a. The final four teams will go against each other.

b. It is an individual event involving various activities.

c. Winners will get an award at the Nobel Prize Awards ceremony.

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 "Tea is a work of art and requires
a master to draw out its best
qualities," claims Okakura in his
famous Book of Tea.

We at The Good Morning Tea

Company follow that same
tradition, allowing tea drinkers
to appreciate the art of tea in its
purest form. With characteristics
of the finest highland teas,
our latest tea has been perfected.

2. The purpose of the advertisement is

a. to introduce a new tea product.
b. to tell consumers how to identify good tea.
c. to improve the sales of tea from the highlands.

3
 GAMESGO MAGNETIC DART BOARD

Was: RM88
Deal: RM63 + RM5 shipping
Description: Easily hung magnetic board with
12 darts.

• Magnetic darts are made of high

quality materials and do not fall off
when they hit the dart board.
• A great and safe game up to adults
• Safety is very important; darts are
without needles and will not hurt
people or pets, or damage your walls.

3. Based on the advertisement, the dart board

a. is being sold at original price
b. comes with 12 well-made darts with sharp points.
c. is a suitable game for people of all ages.

TEENS HELPING TEENS

Please read by Adila

Last year, I went on a strict diet. I lost seven

kilograms in a month. My parents took me to the
hospital. The doctors told me that I needed to
eat a lot more. I needed to recover since I had
lost so much weight so quickly.

I know what I did was unhealthy, but I still dislike

my body. My parents are forcing me to eat more
rice and bread. Help me! I just want to have a fit
body.

4. The purpose of the writing is

a. to complaint about strict parents.
b. to get advice about getting a healthy body.
c. to explain the difficulties faced after dieting.

4
 To: suzana@kmail.com

Subject: Road Trip

Hey, guess where I am. I’m writing from the back of

a van! I am surprisingly enjoying myself a lot. I
thought I would hate riding in a vehicle for long
stretches, but it’s actually fine. The only tiresome
thing is my younger siblings’ constant talking. I wish
they would just nap when we are on the road.
Thank goodness I have my own room at the
guesthouse at every stop.

5. Which of the following is true about the email?

a. The writer’s siblings make a lot of noise.
b. The family shares a room at the guesthouse.
c. The road trip is uncomfortable for the writer.

ANNUAL ESPORT TOURNAMENT

Basketball All Stars

No registration required! Just show up at Bukit Sina Expo Centre on Friday, 14 December.
Teens 15 to 18 years old of all talent levels are welcome to join. If you are interested,
please be there an hour prior.

1st place: RM200 + one-year PC game subscription on Play On

2nd place: RM100 + gaming mouse

3rd place: RM50 + pen drive

Starts at 8 p.m. ; Free entry to all

For more information, contact 0179985442

6. Which of the following is true about the contest?

a. Participants must arrive at the venue at 7 p.m.

b. Players without experience cannot join the contest.

c. To sign up, teenagers must give their names through phone.

5
 This Room Fair is a reward for members only.
Mansion Hotel invites new membership by logging
in to the website and it is for a limited time only. A
massive discount of more than 70% will be offered.
Don’t miss it!

7. The Room Fair Promotion is

a. providing a discount of 70% as a reward to parliamentary members only.

b. offered via its official website only.

c. for all who want to try this new hotel.

COVID 19 PANDEMIC

A health officer wearing mask and protection suit

giving out leaflets about Covid-19 to passengers at
the Boustead Cruise Centre, Port Klang. - Feb 13,
2020.

8. What do you understand about the word “pandemic”?

a. A widespread of infectious disease in a community at a particular time.
b. A widespread disease over a whole country or the world.
c. A widespread disease within a place of population of people.

6
 Part 2 (10 marks)
Questions 9 to 18
9. Read the text below and choose the best word for each space. For each question, mark the correct
letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet.

7
0. a And b Despite c Although d However

10. a who b whom c whose d which

11. a told b reported c complained d questioned

12. a talk b lecture c word d lesson

13. a that b when c where d which

14. a meet b meeting c to meet d have met

15. a early b earlier c late d latest

16. a must b ought c might d should

17. a as b for c like d than

18. a if b when c if only d unless

19. a for b at c from d since

8
 Part 3 (8 marks)

Question 19 to 26

You are going to read an extract from a magazine. Choose the correct answer

9
19 In paragraph 1, which British people are most likely to believe in ghosts?

A Old people from all over Britain

B English scientists who study ghosts

C People who live in the south of England

D People in Scotland and the north of England

20 In paragraph 2, what causes visitors to find a place scary?

A They hear loud sounds.

B They have heard that it is haunted.

C They have never visited it before.

D They have studied ancient history.

21 The word “haunted” in paragraph 3 means

A possessed

B anguished

C protracted

D ghost-ridden

22 The phrase odd feeling in paragraph 4 refers to

A emotions that never happened before

B emotions that odd people cause

C emotions that are not common

D emotions that are unusual

10
23 What happened to the volunteers in the experiments?

A They all saw ghosts.

B They started believing in ghosts.

C They became afraid of the dark.

D They found the same areas spooky.

24 Why are magnetic fields mentioned?

A They change when a ghost is near.

B They only occur in haunted places.

C They are weaker in ancient places.

D They may explain people’s odd experiences.

25 According to the writer, the ‘ghosts’ that people see are probably

A Imaginations of people who believe in ghosts

B Faces of people they recognise in their dreams

C Visions people see when they are half awake from their dreams

D People who haunt the comfort of their homes when they are sleeping

26 What is the main point of the text?

A Scientists can show that ghosts exist.

B Imagination causes strange experiences.

C People see ghosts when they are half asleep.

D There is not just one theory to explain ghosts.

11
 Part 4 (6 marks)

Question 27 to 32

You are going to read an article about a camp on wildlife protection. Six sentences have been removed
from the article. Choose from the sentences A to H the one which fits each gap (27 to 32). There are two
extra sentences which you do not need to use.

Write your answers on the separate answer sheet.

______________________________________________________________________

Technology

Technology is developing at a very fast pace and people from different fields of the world
are making many additions to it. It is impossible to ignore the impact of technology on our daily
lives.

Everything has its pros and cons; similarly, there are both the positive and negative
effects of technology. 27 We need to understand how technology developed in the past
few decades and how it brought benefits for us and how it made our lives harder.

Most of the time we ignore the level of its importance and take technology for granted.
28 Although in the present, people are facing a lot of problems related to the economy,
inflations, unemployment, poverty, illiteracy, etc. but they are living in much better situations with
comfortable communications.

It has become difficult to figure out whether technology is good or bad for us due to such
remarkable benefits, which we are enjoying nowadays due to the development in technology.
29 Technology has brought revolution in all the basic aspects of our lives like
communication, health, religion, language, entertainment, earning and eating habits.

Technology is enabling us to make communication with our relatives and our loved ones.
It also strengthens our relations with our friends, workmates, etc. 30 Technology has
done miracles in bringing much ease and comfort for students all around the world. They can
study online while remaining at home in any part of the world.

12
 Better health facilities are being provided now to patients. 31 By sitting at home,
we can get medical treatment by consulting the doctor, just by a video call.

A lot of changes have occurred in our lives due to technology. Most of the changes have
produced many beneficial effects in our lives. Take an example of the computer. 32 There
were risks of errors too. But with the advent of the modern era, doing the long calculations and
obtaining faster results is not a big problem now.

A Before its invention, it was too difficult to E Social media is helping us a lot in this
solve many numerical problems. regard.
B It has changed our lifestyles and largely F There are many advantages than
enhanced our living criteria. disadvantages.
C It solely depends on the way we use the G None of the fields remain untouched.
things.

D Research done by doctors has laid the H Life is no longer the same as before.
foundations for biological control
diseases.

13
 PART 5 (8 marks)

Question 33 to 40

We interviewed six teenagers about their environmental awareness activities for World Environment Day.
Read the texts below and answer the questions that follow.

Interactive Smartphone Applications

Most smartphones today have many interactive applications that can help you to keep your life
on track. Here are some applications that may be useful to you.

A – AGENTUS

Organise your life with AGENTUS. It integrates your calendar, contacts, tasks and memos in one place. A
time-saving application as you will be able to manage your schedule in less time.

B – I-ALLOWANCE

I-ALLOWANCE tracks your child’s chores and manages your child’s share of the housework. It alerts you
when tasks are completed and offers customised allowance accounts. You definitely save time settling
sibling disputes over who really did the dishes.

C – KILL-O-WATTS

On the money front, KILL-O-WATTS shows you how much energy your appliances are guzzling. You can
definitely save money when you realise you can cut fuel consumption and lower electricity expenses.

D – SHOPITTOME

SHOPITTOME will send you email alerts when your favourite brands go on sale. You can even specify
the clothing item and key in your size for customised updates. Now there is no excuse for not being able
to afford some quality branded items once in a while.

E – WEIGHT WATCHERS MOBILE

WEIGHT WATCHERS MOBILE will help you chart your weight loss by allowing you to enter those pesky
points for an on-the-spot tally wherever you are. If you are always on the go and eating out is a norm in
your busy schedule, this application will save inches off your waist.

14
F – POSITIVE QUOTES

POSITIVE QUOTES keeps thousands of positive quotes and messages at your fingertips no matter
where you are. Plan a feed schedule for quotes to be sent to you and you might save your sanity in the
midst of life’s craziness.

Question 33 to 36

Which paragraph (A – F) describes the following smartphone applications?

Mark your answer on the separate answer sheet.

Statements Paragraph

33 Sends email alerts when there are discounts on your favourite brands. ___________

34 Electricity expenses can be lowered with this application. ___________

35 Gives positive messages wherever you are. ___________

36 Saves your time by organising your schedule. ___________

15
Question 37 to 40

Complete the notes below using the information from the text. Choose no more than one word from the
passage for each answer.

Write your answer on the separate answer sheet.

Making Life Easier with Smartphone Applications

• Effectively managing children’s household chores, will settle any (37) ____________ and
conflicts among siblings.

• For busy career people, it is useful to have an appliance that helps them (38) ___________
their life in a short time.

• In order to save (39) ____________ on electric bills, you need to know how much energy your
electrical appliances are using.

• Those who are interested to buy (40) ____________ clothing will receive emails when these
items are on sale.

Disediakan oleh, Disemak oleh, Disahkan oleh,

________________ ___________________ ________________

HEE PUI YEE DAYMNA BINTI UKUN

16
 KERTAS JAWAPAN CALON
English 1119/1 (Reading and Use of English)

NAMA : _______________________________________________
TINGKATAN : _______________________________________________

Question Blacken your answer Part 1 [8 marks]

1 A B C
2 A B C
3 A B C
4 A B C
5 A B C
6 A B C
7 A B C
8 A B C
Question Blacken your answer Part 2 [10 marks]
9 A B C D
10 A B C D
11 A B C D
12 A B C D
13 A B C D
14 A B C D
15 A B C D
16 A B C D
17 A B C D
18 A B C D
Question Blacken your answer Part 3 [8 marks]
19 A B C D
20 A B C D
21 A B C D
22 A B C D
23 A B C D
24 A B C D
25 A B C D
26 A B C D

17
Question Blacken your answer Part 4 [6 marks]
27 A B C D E F G H
28 A B C D E F G H
29 A B C D E F G H
30 A B C D E F G H
31 A B C D E F G H
32 A B C D E F G H

Question Blacken your answer Part 5 [8 marks]

33 A B C D E F
34 A B C D E F
35 A B C D E F
36 A B C D E F
Question Write your answer
37
38
39
40

TOTAL
40

18