Gastrointestinal Bleeding Quiz: What Two Broad Categories Can Gastrointestinal Bleeding Be Categorized Under?
Gastrointestinal Bleeding Quiz: What Two Broad Categories Can Gastrointestinal Bleeding Be Categorized Under?
Gastrointestinal Bleeding Quiz: What Two Broad Categories Can Gastrointestinal Bleeding Be Categorized Under?
16. Hematochezia (the passage of gross blood from the rectum) usually indicates lower Gl
bleeding but may result from which of the following?
a) Bleeding from a source in the right colon
b) Ingestion of bismuth
c) Ingestion of supplemental iron
d) Upper Gl bleeding with rapid transit of blood through the intestines
ANSWER: D. UPPER GL BLEEDING WITH RAPID TRANSIT OF BLOOD THROUGH
THE INTESTINES.
RATIONALE: Upper Gl bleeding with rapid transit of blood through the intestines.
A: Melena is black, tarry stool and typically indicates upper Gl bleeding, but bleeding from a
source in the small bowel or right colon may also be the cause. B and C: Black stool that does
not contain occult blood may result from ingestion of iron or bismuth.
17. Which of the following may be done acutely for patients with symptoms typical of
hemorrhoidal bleeding?
a) Angiography
b) B. Colonoscopy
c) Flexible sigmoidoscopy or anoscopy
d) Radionuclide scanning
ANSWER: C. FLEXIBLE SIGMOIDOSCOPY OR ANOSCOPY
RATIONALE: Flexible sigmoidoscopy or anoscopyMmay be all that is required acutely for
patients with symptoms typical of hemorrhoidalMbleeding. B: All other patients with
hematochezia should have colonoscopy. A and D: If colonoscopy cannot visualize the source and
ongoing bleeding is sufficiently rapid, angiography may localize the source. Some angiographers
first take a radionuclide scan to focus the examination because angiography is less sensitive than
the radionuclide scan.
18. A 42-year-old woman complains of hematemesis and recurrent midepigastric
abdominal pain that is somewhat relieved by eating. She has been taking an NSAID daily
for 3 weeks to relieve her low back pain. Her vital signs and laboratory tests are normal.
Peptic ulcer disease is suspected. What would be the most appropriate evaluation and
management of this patient?
a) Immediate upper endoscopy and an oral histamine-2 receptor blocker.
b) Immediate oral PP| and later upper endoscopy.
c) Immediate oral PPl and no endoscopy.
d) Immediate oral histamine-2 receptor blocker and no endoscopy.
ANSWER: B. IMMEDIATE ORAL PPI AND LATER UPPER ENDOSCOPY.
RATIONALE: Patients with an UGI bleed who are hemodynamically stable with normal
laboratory results do not require urgent endoscopy. Upper endoscopy can be scheduled
electively. Guidelines recommend a PPl should be started immediately for a UGl bleed and
should not be delayed until after endoscopy.
Oral PPIs are as effective as intravenous (IV) PPls for preventing recurrent bleeding, surgery, or
death. For patients with a history of peptic ulcer bleeding, the PPI should be continued for 4 to 8
weeks.
19. A 36-year-old man presents to your clinic, saying he had bright red rectal bleeding 2
hours ago. His vital signs and complete blood count (CBC) are normal. The patient says he
has no rectal pain or trauma, and has never had hematochezia before. What would be the
most appropriate evaluation for this patient?
a) Initiate nasogastric lavage and monitor vital signs every 4 hours.
b) Order an Immediate colonoscopy.
c) Schedule a colonoscopy after he completes an adequate bowel prep.
d) Monitor the patient's vital signs every 4 hours and repeat a CBC in 4 hours; do not order
a colonoscopy.
ANSWER: C. SCHEDULE A COLONOSCOPY AFTER HE COMPLETES AN
ADEQUATE BOWEL PREP.
RATIONALE: Hematochezia is more likely the result of lower gastrointestinal (LG1) bleeding.
LG bleeding is defined as bleeding originating distal to the ligament of Treitz. 1,2 Diverticular
disease is the most common etiology of LG bleeding. Endoscopy is indicated to evaluate LG
bleeding, but in hemodynamically stable patients such as this one, immediate colonoscopy
(within 24 hours of presentation) is not necessary. Patients should be hemodynamically stable
and the colon adequately prepped before proceeding with colonoscopy. Nasogastric lavage is not
recommended for the management of LG bleeding.
20. A 46-year-old man comes to your clinic with intermittent burning epigastric pain for
the past 2 months and early satiety. He has no other medical problems and does not take
any medications. He has never smoked and rarely drinks coffee. His weight has been stable.
Physical examination reveals his vital signs are normal. What would be the most
appropriate evaluation and treatment for this patient?
a) Upper endoscopy and 8 weeks of an oral histamine-2 receptor blocker.
b) Upper endoscopy and 8 weeks of an oral PPI.
c) No endoscopy and a test-and-treat strategy for Helicobacter pylori.
d) No endoscopy and measure serum H pylori antibodies.
ANSWER: C. NO ENDOSCOPY AND A TEST-AND-TREAT STRATEGY FOR
HELICOBACTER PYLORI.
RATIONALE: This patient has symptoms of dyspepsia, which is defined as at least 1 month of
epigastric discomfort with no evidence of organic disease after upper endoscopy. Since the
patient is younger than 60, upper endoscopy is not routinely recommended due to the low
prevalence of malignancy in younger patients. The prevalence of one alarm symptom (eg,
dysphagia in the case of this patient) should not be used to justify endoscopy because the positive
predictive value is < 1% for malignancy.
Hpylor is a frequent cause of dyspepsia. A test-and-treat strategy (performing a test to detect H
pylori and its subsequent eradication when detected) is safe, effective, and cost-effective
compared to endoscopy. Recommended test options to assess for active H pylori infection are the
urea breath test and the stool antigen test. A positive serum test for H pylori antibodies would not
prove if active infection was present, only that the patient had been infected in the past. The
primary treatment of dyspepsia is acid suppression with an oral PPl for 2 to 8 weeks.