Pathology II - Midterm Questions Bank
Pathology II - Midterm Questions Bank
Pathology II - Midterm Questions Bank
True or False:
1. Insufficiency fractures are due to weak metabolic abnormalities (e.g. A. True B. False
osteoporosis).
2. Protracted chronic application of abnormal stresses (e.g. running) can cause A. True B. False
pathological fractures.
3. Fatigue fractures are secondary usually due to bone lesions such as metastasis A. True B. False
or a bone cyst.
4. An incomplete fracture is a fracture that does not cross the bone completely A. True B. False
“usually encountered in children”
5. A fracture is classified as simple or closed when the surrounding soft tissue A. True B. False
remains intact with no wounds.
6. A fracture perpendicular to the axis of the bone is known as a longitudinal A. True B. False
fracture.
7. A spiral fracture line is a helical fracture path usually in the diaphysis of long A. True B. False
bones in which the bone has been twisted.
9. When the bone is broken into many fragments, typically, the break is in three A. True B. False
or more fragments is known as a comminuted fracture.
10. Displacement of fractures is defined in terms of the abnormal position of the A. True B. False
distal fracture fragment in relation to the proximal bone.
11. Osteomyelitis is considered one of the delayed fracture complications. A. True B. False
12. Malunion occurs when the bone does not heal at a normal rate for the location A. True B. False
and type of fracture.
13. When fractured bones heal but not in the right position, this is known as non- A. True B. False
union.
12. Malunion can cause deformity & shortening of the limb A. True B. False
13. In a case of non-union, Healing is stopped and the fracture gap is filled by A. True B. False
fibrous tissue
14. One of the most common places for AVN is the femoral neck A. True B. False
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15. Polytrauma is defined as a pattern of potentially life-threatening injuries A. True B. False
involving at least two body regions.
16. A blunt trauma is caused by injuries such as stabbings and gunshot wound. A. True B. False
17. Penetrating injuries are caused by impact or other force applied from or with A. True B. False
a blunt object.
18. Blunt injuries are usually internal and not obvious, so they are more difficult A. True B. False
to assess and diagnose than penetrating injuries.
20. A person suffering moderate injury can lose consciousness for several A. True B. False
minutes and be confused, sleepy and agitated in the following days to weeks.
21. When brain injury is severe, the person is described as being in a coma. A. True B. False
22. MRI is considered the gold standard and workhorse in the evaluation of A. True B. False
severe and multiple traumatic injuries.
23. A dislocation is a separation of two bones where they meet at a joint. A. True B. False
24. Joint dislocations are described in terms of the position of the proximal bone A. True B. False
in relation to the distal bone.
25. In anterior shoulder dislocation, the humeral head moves slightly above the A. True B. False
glenoid level.
26. In posterior shoulder dislocation, the humeral head is usually below the A. True B. False
glenoid level.
27. Knee dislocations are almost always associated with a significant number of A. True B. False
serious neurovascular and ligamentous injuries.
28. Central hip dislocation is always associated with acetabular fracture. A. True B. False
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30. Fractures resulting from protracted chronic application of abnormal stresses (e.g.
running):
A) Fatigue fractures. B) Insufficiency fractures. C) Pathological fractures.
31. Fractures resulting from a bone lesion that focally weakens it (e.g. metastasis, bone cyst,
etc):
A) Fatigue fractures. B) Insufficiency fractures. C) Pathological fractures.
32. A fracture that extends all the way across the bone:
A) Complete fracture. B) Incomplete fracture.
33. A fracture that does not cross the bone completely “usually encountered in children”:
A) Complete fracture. B) Incomplete fracture.
34. A fracture that does not produce an open wound with the surrounding soft tissue
remaining intact:
A) Comminuted fracture. B) Compound fracture. C) Simple fracture. D) Open fracture.
35. A fracture in which a wound through the adjacent or overlying soft tissue communicates
with the outside of the body:
A) Comminuted fracture. B) Compound fracture. C) Simple fracture. D) Closed fracture.
38. Fracture line that passes at an angle oblique to the shaft of the long bone:
A) Longitudinal. B) Oblique. C) Spiral. D) Transverse.
39. A helical fracture line in which the bone has been twisted:
A) Longitudinal. B) Oblique. C) Spiral. D) Transverse.
40. A fracture where the cortex is broken, but only on one side (most commonly seen in
children):
A) Impacted. B) Greenstick. C) Spiral. D) Oblique.
41. A complete fracture where one fragment of bone goes into another, rendering the
fracture line indistinct and making assessment difficult:
A) Impacted. B) Greenstick. C) Spiral. D) Oblique.
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42. Fracture of the skull in which a fragment is depressed:
A) Impacted. B) Comminuted. C) Pathologic. D) Depressed.
43. A fracture arising within abnormal bone (e.g. due to bone tumors):
A) Impacted. B) Comminuted. C) Pathologic. D) Depressed.
44. A bone fracture that results in more than 2 separate bone fragments:
A) Impacted. B) Comminuted. C) Compound. D) Depressed.
50. A delayed fracture complication occurs when the bone does not heal at a normal rate for
the location and type of fracture:
A) Osteomyelitis. B) Avascular necrosis. C) Delayed union. D) Malunion.
51. A condition when the fractured bone fragments join in an unsatisfactory position:
A) Osteomyelitis. B) Non-union. C) Delayed union. D) Malunion.
53. A delayed fracture complication where death of bone occurs due to loss of blood supply:
A) Osteomyelitis. B) Avascular necrosis. C) Delayed union. D) Malunion.
54. Trauma that is caused by impact or other force applied from or with a blunt object:
A) Blunt trauma. B) Penetrating trauma.
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55. Traumas which are caused when the body is pierced by an object. They may be caused
by injuries such as stabbings and gunshot wounds:
A) Blunt trauma. B) Penetrating trauma.
56. Injuries that are usually internal and not obvious, which makes them more difficult to
assess and diagnose:
A) Blunt injuries. B) Penetrating injuries.
57. The most common type of trauma in the intensive care unit (ICU) is:
A) Chest. B) Abdomen. C) Orthopaedic. D) Brain.
58. When a person experiences a brief change in their mental status (such as memory loss or
headache) at the time of the injury (concussion):
A) Mild brain injury. B) Moderate brain injury. C) Severe brain injury.
59. When a person loses consciousness for several minutes and be confused, sleepy and
agitated in the following days to weeks:
A) Mild brain injury. B) Moderate brain injury. C) Severe brain injury.
62. The gold standard and workhorse in the evaluation of severe and multiple traumatic
injuries in haemodynamically stable or stabilized patients:
A) CT. B) MRI. C) Plain radiograph. D) None of the previous.
63. The most common type of glenohumeral joint dislocation pattern is (comprises about
95% of all glenohumeral joint dislocations):
A) Inferior dislocation. B) Anterior dislocation. C) Posterior dislocation.
64. As far as the glenohumeral joint dislocation pattern, when humeral head is below the
glenoid level, it is usually considered:
A) Inferior dislocation. B) Anterior dislocation. C) Posterior dislocation.
65. As far as the glenohumeral joint dislocation pattern, when the humeral head moves
slightly above the glenoid level, it is usually considered:
A) Inferior dislocation. B) Anterior dislocation. C) Posterior dislocation.
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67. The most common joint dislocation is:
A) Shoulder dislocation. B) Elbow dislocation. C) Knee dislocation. D) Hip dislocation.
69. The joint dislocation associated with a significant number of serious neurovascular and
ligamentous injuries:
A) Shoulder dislocation. B) Elbow dislocation. C) Knee dislocation. D) Hip dislocation.
71. The hip dislocation pattern that is always associated with acetabular fracture is:
A) Central dislocation. B) Anterior dislocation. C) Posterior dislocation.
72. Regarding knee dislocations, when the tibia goes in front of the femur, the dislocation is
known as:
A) Anterior. B) Posterior. C) Medial. D) Lateral.
73. Regarding knee dislocations, when the tibia goes behind the femur, the dislocation is
known as:
A) Anterior. B) Posterior. C) Medial. D) Lateral.
74. Regarding knee dislocations, when the tibia goes outwards and sideways away from the
femur, the dislocation is known as:
B) Anterior. B) Posterior. C) Medial. D) Lateral.
75. Regarding knee dislocations, when the tibia goes inwards and sideways away from the
femur, the dislocation is known as:
C) Anterior. B) Posterior. C) Medial. D) Lateral.
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