AnsSol JEEMain 2023 PH 2-15-04 2023 Morning Paper

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15/04/2023

Morning

Corporate Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005 | Ph.: 011-47623456

Answers & Solutions


Time : 3 hrs. for M.M. : 300

JEE (Main)-2023 (Online) Phase-2


(Mathematics, Physics and Chemistry)

IMPORTANT INSTRUCTIONS:

(1) The test is of 3 hours duration.

(2) The Test Booklet consists of 90 questions. The maximum marks are 300.

(3) There are three parts in the question paper consisting of Mathematics, Physics and Chemistry

having 30 questions in each part of equal weightage. Each part (subject) has two sections.

(i) Section-A: This section contains 20 multiple choice questions which have only one correct

answer. Each question carries 4 marks for correct answer and –1 mark for wrong answer.

(ii) Section-B: This section contains 10 questions. In Section-B, attempt any five questions out

of 10. The answer to each of the questions is a numerical value. Each question carries 4 marks

for correct answer and –1 mark for wrong answer. For Section-B, the answer should be

rounded off to the nearest integer.

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JEE (Main)-2023 : Phase-2 (15-04-2023)-Morning

MATHEMATICS
Sol. |A| = m – n, where 4m + n = 22 …(i)
SECTION - A
and 17m + 4n = 93 …(ii)
Multiple Choice Questions: This section contains 20 Solving (i) and (ii)
multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices
m = 5, n = 2
(1), (2), (3) and (4), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
Order = 5
Choose the correct answer: |A| = 3
1. Let S be the set of all (, ) for which the vectors  det (n adj (adj(mA)))
iˆ − jˆ + kˆ, iˆ + 2 jˆ + kˆ and 3iˆ − 4 ˆj + 5kˆ, where = |2adj (adj (5A))|

 –  = 5, are coplanar, then  (


80 2 + 2 ) is = 25 |5A|16
= 25 580 |A|16 = 25· 316· 580
( , )S
= 311 580 65
equal to
So, a + b + c = 96
(1) 2210 (2) 2130
3. If (, ) is the orthocenter of the triangle ABC with
(3) 2290 (4) 2370
vertices A(3, –7), B(–1, 2) and C(4, 5), then
Answer (3) 9 – 6 + 60 is equal to
 −1 1 (1) 25 (2) 35
Sol.  1 2  =0 (3) 30 (4) 40
3 −4 5 Answer (1)
 10 + 4] + 1 [5 – 3 + 1 [–10] = 0
 4 + 10 – 3 = 5 …(i)
And  –  = 5
So, by (1)
Sol.
4(5 + ) + 10(5 + ) – 3 = 5
 42 + 27 + 45 = 0
 42 + 15 + 12 + 45 = 0
 (4 + 15) – ( + 3) = 0
−15
  = −3,
4 −5
5
AD : y + 7 = ( x − 3)
 = 2, 3
4  3y + 21 = –5x + 15
 ( )
 225 25 
 80 2 + 2 = 80 ( 9 + 4 ) + 16 + 16  5x + 3y + 6 = 0 …(i)
s −1
BE : y − 2 = ( x + 1)
 125  12
= 80 13 + = 10  229
 8   12y – 24 = –x – 1
 x = 23 – 12y
= 2290
by (ii) 115 – 60y + 3y + 6 = 0
2. Let the determinant of a square matrix A of order m
57y = 121
be m – n, where m and n satisfy 4m + n = 22 and
17m + 4n = 93. If det(n adj(adj (mA))) = 3a5b6c, then 121 121
y= , x = 23 − 12 
a + b + c is equal to 57 57
(1) 84 (2) 96 121 121
 9 – 6 + 60 = 9 × 23 – 108  − 6 + 60
(3) 101 (4) 109 57 57
Answer (2) = 207 – 242 + 60 = 25

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JEE (Main)-2023 : Phase-2 (15-04-2023)-Morning
4. Let ABCD be a quadrilateral. If E and F are the mid Sol.
points of the diagonals AC and BD respectively and
B(9, 3, 4)
( AB – BC ) + ( AD – DC ) = k FE , then k is equal to
A(–1, –2, –3)
(1) 4 (2) –2
(3) 2 (4) –4 C(9, –2, 1)
Answer (4)
Sol.
AC = 10i + 4k
D C
AB = 10i + 5 j + 7k
i j k
AC  AB = 10 0 4
10 5 7
= –20i – 30j + 50k
A B Equation of plane
2x + 3y – 5z = d
Let position vector of A, B, C and D are a, b, c and d Put (–1, –2, –3)
respectively –2 – 6 + 15 = d
d=7
OC + OA c + a  2x + 3y – 5z = 7
 Position vector of E = =
2 2 Foot of ⊥r
x −3 y +2 z+9  38 
b+d = = = − 
Position vector of F = 2 3 −5  38 
2
x = 1, y = –5, z = –4
( )
Now, AB − BC + AD − DC Q(1, –5, –4)
Distance from origin = 1 + 25 + 16
(
 b−a− c −b +d −a− c −d ) ( ) = 42
6. The number of common tangents, to the circles
 2b − 2a − 2c + 2d x2 + y2 – 18x –15y + 131 = 0 and x2 + y2 – 6x – 6y
– 7 = 0, is
(
 2 b+d −2 a+c ) ( ) (1) 3 (2) 1
(3) 4 (4) 2
b + d a + c  Answer (1)
 4 −  = 4 OF − OE 
 2 2  Sol. x 2 + y 2 − 18 x − 15 y + 131 = 0
 15  225 5
 4 EF = − 4 FE C1  9,  , r1 = 81 + − 131 =
 2  4 2
 k = –4 x 2 + y 2 − 6 x − 6y − 7 = 0
5. Let the foot of perpendicular of the point C2 (3, 3), r2 = 9 + 9 + 7 = 5
P(3, –2, –9) on the plane passing through the points 2
 15  81 15
(–1, –2, –3), (9, 3, 4), (9, –2, 1) be Q(, , ). Then d = C1C2 = (9 − 3)2 +  − 3  = 36 + =
 2  4 2
the distance Q from the origin is
5 15
r1 + r2 =
+5 =
(1) 42 (2) 38 2 2
 C1C2 = r1 + r2
(3) 35 (4) 29
 Circles touch each other externally, 3 common
Answer (1) tangents.
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JEE (Main)-2023 : Phase-2 (15-04-2023)-Morning

7. The total number of three-digit numbers, divisible Put x = 3


by 3, which can be formed using the digits 1, 3, 5,
8, if repetition of digits is allowed, is =
( )
8 9 + y 2 − 16y 2

64 + 64 y 2
(1) 21 (2) 20
(3) 22 (4) 18
f (y ) =
(
1 9−y
2
)
Answer (3) 8 1+ y 2

Sol. Sum of digits 3 : (1, 1, 1) Range of f(y) = (– 0.125, 1.125]


Sum of digits 9 : (1, 3, 5) or (3, 3, 3)  = – 0.125
Sum of digits 12 : (1, 3, 8)  = 1.125
Sum of digits 15 : (5, 5, 5)  –  = 1.25
Sum of digits 18 : (5, 5, 8) 24( – ) = 30
Sum of digits 21 : (5, 8, 8)
( )
10 20
Sum of digits 24 : (8, 8, 8) 9. Let a + bx + cx 2 =  pi x i , a, b, c  . If
i =10
Possible numbers are
p1 = 20 and p2 = 210, then 2(a + b + c) is equal to
3! 3!
= 1 + 3!+ 1 + 3!+ 1 + + + 1 (1) 6 (2) 15
2! 2!
(3) 12 (4) 8
= 22
Answer (3)
z z zz
( )
8. If the set Re :z , Re z 3 is 10! r3
2 3z 5z Sol. General term : ( a )r1 ( bx )r2 cx 2
r1 ! r2 ! r3 !
equal to the interval (, ], then 24( – ) is equal
For coeff. of x : r2 + 2r3 = 1
to
r1 r2 r3
(1) 36 (2) 27
9 1 0
(3) 30 (4) 42
10! 9 1
Answer (3)  coff of x = a b = 20
9!
 z − z + zz   a9  b = 2 …(i)
Sol. Re 
 2 − 3z + 5z 
  10! 8 2 10!
Coff of x2 : a b +  a9  c = 210
8!2!0! 9!0!1!
 x + iy − ( x − iy ) + x 2 + y 2 
Re    45a8  b2 + 10  a9  c = 210
 2 − 3 ( x + iy ) + 5 ( x − iy ) 
 
 9a8b2 + 2a9  c = 42
 x 2 + y 2 + i ( 2y )  as a, b, c N
Re  
 2 + 2x − 8iy   a = 1, b = 2, c = 3
 
2(a + b + c) = 2(3 + 2 + 1) = 12

Re 
( )
 x 2 + y 2 + 2yi ( 2 (1 + x ) + 8iy ) 
 10. The number of real roots of the equation


 ( 2 (1 + x ) ) + ( 8y )
2 2

 xx 5x 2 6 0, is

( )
(1) 5 (2) 4
2 x 2 + y 2 (1 + x ) − 16 y 2
= (3) 6 (4) 3
4 (1 + x ) + ( 8 y )
2 2
Answer (4)

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JEE (Main)-2023 : Phase-2 (15-04-2023)-Morning
Sol. x|x| – 5|x + 2| + 6 = 0 1
 b 4
Case-I : G1 = a  
a
x < –2
2
–x2 + 5(x + 2) + 6 = 0
 b 4
G2 = a  
 x2 – 5x – 16 = 0 a
5 25 64 3
 x
2  b 4
G3 = a  
a
5 89
 x is accepted
2 (G1 )4 + (G2 )4 + (G3 )4 + (G1 )2  (G3 )2
Case-II :
b b2 b3 b2
–2  x < 0  a4  + a4  + a4  + a4 
a a2 a3 a2
–x2 – 5(x + 2) + 6 = 0
= ba3 + b2a2 + b3a + a2b2
 x2 + 5x + 4 = 0
= ab(a2 + b2 + 2ab) = ab(a + b)2
 (x + 1) (x + 4) = 0
x = –1 is accepted ( A1 + A3 )2  G1G3 = ( a + b )2  ab
Case-III :  Option (1) is correct.
x0 12. Let [x] denote the greatest integer function and
x2 – 5(x + 2) + 6 = 0 f ( x ) = max 1 + x +  x , 2 + x, x + 2  x  , 0  x  2.
 x2 – 5x – 4 = 0
Let m be the number of points in [0, 2], where f is
5 25 16 not continuous and n be the number of points in
x
2 (0, 2), where f is not differentiable. Then
5 41 (m + n)2 + 2 is equal to
2 (1) 2
5 41 (2) 11
x is accepted
2 (3) 6
 3 real roots are possible. (4) 3
Option (4) is correct. Answer (4)
11. Let A1 and A2 be two arithmetic means and G1, G2 max  x + 1, x + 2, x 0  x 1
and G3 be three geometric means of two distinct 
Sol. f ( x ) = max  x + 2, x + 2, x + 2 1  x  2
positive numbers. Then G14 G24 G34 G12G32 is  max 5, 4, 6 x=2

equal to
x + 2 0  x 1
(1) (A1 + A2)2 G1G3 
 f ( x ) = x + 2 1 x  2
(2) 2(A1 + A2) G1G3 6
 x=2
(3) ( A1 + A2 ) G12G32
x + 2 0x2
 f (x) = 
(4) 2 ( A1 + A2 ) G12G32 6 x=2
Answer (1) f is not continuous at x = 2
Sol. Let the two numbers are a, b. f is differentiable in (0, 2)
b a 2a b
A1 a  m = 1, n = 0
3 3
(m + n)2 + 2 = 1 + 2 = 3.
b a a 2b
A2 a 2 Option (4) is correct
3 3
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JEE (Main)-2023 : Phase-2 (15-04-2023)-Morning

13. Let S be the set of all values of , for which the 15. Let the system of linear equations
shortest distance between the lines – x + 2y – 9z = 7
x y 3 z 6 x y z 6
and – x + 3y + 7z = 9
0 4 1 3 4 0
– 2x + y + 5z = 8
is 13. Then 8 is equal to – 3x + y + 13z = 
S
has a unique solution x = , y = , z = . Then the
(1) 306 (2) 304
distance of the point (, , ) from the plane
(3) 308 (4) 302
Answer (1) 2x – 2y + z =  is
x – y –3 z+6 (1) 11 (2) 7
Sol. = =
0 4 1 (3) 9 (4) 13
x+ y z–6 Answer (2)
= =
3 –4 0 Sol. –x + 2y – 9z = 7 ...(i)

d=
( a2 – a1 )  ( n1  n2 ) = 13
–x + 3y + 7z = 9 ...(ii)
n1  n2 –2x + y + 5z = 8 ...(iii)

iˆ ˆj kˆ –3x + y + 13z =  ...(iv)


n1  n2 = 0 4 1 From (i), (ii), (iii)
3 –4 0 x = –3, y = 2, z = 0
= 4iˆ + 3 ˆj – 12kˆ Substitute in (iv)
3×3+2=
( 2iˆ + 3 jˆ – 12kˆ )  ( 4iˆ + 3 ˆj – 12kˆ ) =8
16 + 9 + 144  = 11

8 + 9 + 144 = 104 Point: (–3, 2, 0)


Plane: 2x – 2y + z = 11
8 + 153 = 104
8 = ±104 – 153 –6 – 4 – 11 21
d= = =7
2 2
–49 –257 2 + 2 +1 3
= ,
8 8 16. A bag contains 6 white and 4 black balls. A die is

8   = 8  49 + 257  = 306 rolled once and the number of balls equal to the
 s 8 8  number obtained on the die are drawn from the bag
14. Negation of p  ( q   ( p  q ) ) is at random. The probability that all the balls drawn
are white is
(1) (  ( p  q ))  p (2) p  q
1 11
(3)  (pq) (4) (  ( p  q ))  q (1)
4
(2)
50
Answer (1) 1 9
(3) (4)
Sol.  p  ( q  ) ( p  q ) ) 5 50
 p  ( q  ( p  q ) )  Answer (3)
Sol. Bag have 6 white and 4 black balls
 p  ( ( q  p )  (q  q ) ) 
Probability all drawn balls are white
 p  ( q  p ) 
1  6C1 6
C2 6
C3 6
C4 6
C5 6
C6 
=  10 + 10 + 10 + 10 + 10 + 10 
p (q  p) 6  C1 C2 C3 C4 C5 C6 
p  ( q  p)
504 1
= =
p (pq )  p 2520 5

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JEE (Main)-2023 : Phase-2 (15-04-2023)-Morning

1 1 1   + 1 Sol. 4 x 2 + 11x + 6  0  ( 4 x + 3 )( x + 2 )  0
0 dx = loge  ,
(5 + 2x − 2x2 )(1+ e(2−4x ) )
17. If
   
 −3 
 x  ( −, − 2 )   ,   …(i)
,  > 0, then 4 – 4 is equal to  4 
(1) 19 (2) –21
−1  4 x + 3  1  −4  4 x  −2
(3) 0 (4) 21
Answer (4) 1
−1  x  − …(ii)
1 2
1 1
Sol. I =  dx
20  −
 1 
− 10 x + 6
5
( 
) −1   1  − 3  10 x + 6  3
4  2
x
 
 2 − x − x  1 + e
2
 3
 
 
 −9  10 x  −3
1
1 1
=  dx −9 −3
20 2  −4 x −  
 1
x
 11   1   …(iii)
   −  x −   1+ e  2   10 10
 4   2    
   −3 −1
(i), (ii), (iii)  x
1 4 2
Let x − = t , dx = dt
2
−3 −1
1 = , =
2 4 2
1 1
= 
2 −1   2 
dt
5

2 
 11
 − t  1+ e
  2 
2

−4 t
( ) 36  +  = 36 
4
= 45
 
19. Let x = x(y) be the solution of the differential
1

1 2
1 1 equation
= 
2 0  2 
+
 2  2 ( y + 2 ) loge ( y + 2 ) dx + ( x + 4 − 2loge ( y + 2))dy = 0,
 
(
  11  − t 2  1 + e −4t
  2 
)
  11  − t 2  1 + e 4t
  2 
( )


 

 ( ) (
y > –1 with x e 4 − 2 = 1 . Then x e9 − 2 is equal )
1
1 11 2 to
2 +t 
1 1 1 1
2 0  11 2
= dt =  ln 2  (1) 3
2  11  11 
  − t2 2   −t  4
 2  2  (2)
 2  0 9

( )
2 
1  11 + 1  1  11 + 1  32
= ln  = (3)
 ln  
2 11  11 − 1  2 11  10 9

 
10
(4)
1  11 + 1  3
= ln  
11  10  Answer (3)
  = 11,  = 10   −  = 21 4 4
Sol. Let x + 4 = u, y + 2 = v
18. If the domain of the function dx = du, dy = dv
( 2
)
f ( x ) = loge 4 x + 11x + 6 + sin (4 x + 3) + −1
(2v lnv)du = –(u – 2 lnv)dv
 10 x + 6 
cos−1   is (, ], then 36  +  is equal to 2v ln v
du
+ u = 2ln v
 3  dv
(1) 54 (2) 72
du 1 1
(3) 63 (4) 45 + u =
dv 2v ln v v
Answer (4)
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JEE (Main)-2023 : Phase-2 (15-04-2023)-Morning

1 1 1 SECTION - B
 ln( ln v ) 1
IF = e 2 v ln v = e 2 = ( ln v ) 2 Numerical Value Type Questions: This section
1 1 contains 10 questions. In Section B, attempt any five
1
u  ( ln v ) 2 =   ( ln v ) 2 dv questions out of 10. The answer to each question is a
v
NUMERICAL VALUE. For each question, enter the
1 3
2
u  ( ln v ) 2 = (ln v ) 2 + c …(i) correct numerical value (in decimal notation,
3 truncated/rounded-off to the second decimal place;
y = e4 – 2  x = 1 e.g., 06.25, 07.00, –00.33, –00.30, 30.27, –27.30) using
the mouse and the on-screen virtual numeric keypad in
 v = e4  u = 5
the place designated to enter the answer.
 1 3
2
5   42  =  ( 4)2 + c 21. Let f ( x ) = 
dx
,x 
2
. If f(0) = 0
  3
  (3 + 4x )
2
4 – 3x 2 3

16 1 
10 = +c and f (1) = tan–1   , ,  > 0, then 2 + 2 is
3  
14 equal to _______.
c= Answer (28)
3
dx
y = e9 – 2  v = y + 2 = e9 Sol. f ( x ) = 
(3 + 4 x 2 ) 4 − 3 x 2
2 14 14 1 1
(i)  u  3 =  27 + = 18 + Put x = , dx = − 2 dt
3 3 3 t t
14 −dt
x +4 =u = 6+ f (x) = 
9  4 3
t2 3 + 2  4 − 2
 t  t
14 32
x = 2+ = − t dt
9 9 =
(3t + 4) 4t 2 − 3
2
20. The mean and standard deviation of 10
4t 2 − 3 =  2  8t dt = 2 d 
observations are 20 and 8 respectively. Later on, it
 d
was observed that one observation was recorded f (x) = − 
as 50 instead of 40. Then the correct variance is   2 + 3  
4 ·  3  
 + 4 ·
 
(1) 11 (2) 13   4  
d d 1 d
=− = −
3
(3) 12 (4) 14 =−
Answer (2) 3 + 9 + 16
2
3 + 25
2
2 +
25
3
x1 + x2 + ... + x9 + 50  3
Sol. = 20 1 3
=−  tan–1  +c
10
3 5  5 
 
x1 + x2 + …+x9 = 150
3  3 (4 − 3 x 2 ) 
x12 + x22 + ... + x92 + 2500 f (x) = − tan−1   +c
64 = − 400 15  5x 
 
10
3
x12 + x22 + ... + x92 = 2140 f (0) = 0  c = +
30
150 + 40 − 3  3 3 
New mean = = 19 f (1) = tan−1   + 
15 
10  5  15 2
2140 + 1600 3  3 3  5  1  5 
− (19 ) cot –1  tan–1  tan–1 
2 = =
New  =  5  15 = 
10 15    3  5 3  3

 = 13  2 + 2 = 28

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JEE (Main)-2023 : Phase-2 (15-04-2023)-Morning
22. Let an ellipse with center (1, 0) and latus rectum of  = 11, (a, b)/(c, d) → (4, 7)/(5, 6) → 8 numbers
1  = 12, (a, b)/(c, d) → (5, 7) Not possible
length have its major axis along x-axis. If its
2
 = 13, (a, b)/(c, d) → (6, 7) Not possible
minor axis subtends an angle 60º at the foci, then
the square of the sum of the lengths of its minor and  = 14, (a, b)/(c, d) → (7, 7) Not possible
major axes is equal to _______.  Total numbers = 72
Answer (9)
24. The number of elements in the set {n   : 10  n 
Sol. 100 and 3n – 3 is a multiple of 7} is _______.
Answer (15.00)
Sol. 3n − 3 = 7k
3  3(mod 7)

32  2(mod 7)

33  –1 (mod 7)

36  1 (mod 7)

2b2 1 b 37  3 (mod 7)
= , tan30 =
a 2 ae

a 1 b2 a2
b2 = , =  a2 − b2 = 3b2  b2 = 313  3 (mod 7)
4 3 a2 − b2 4
n can be 13, 19, 25, … 97
1 1
 a = 1, b2 = b= Total 15 such n exist
4 2
25. Let A = {1, 2, 3, 4} and R be a relation on the set
 (2a + 2b)2 = 9
A × A defined by R = {((a, b), (c, d)) : 2a + 3b = 4c
23. A person forgets his 4-digit ATM pin code. But he + 5d}. Then the number of elements in R is
remembers that in the code all the digits are _______.
different, the greatest digit is 7 and the sum of the
Answer (06.00)
first two digits is equal to the sum of the last two
digits. Then the maximum number of trials Sol. 2a + 3b = 4c + 5d
necessary to obtain the correct code is________.
Maximum value of 2a + 3b = 20 at (4, 4)
Answer (72)
Minimum value of 4c + 5d = 9 at (1, 1)
Sol. abcd
a+b=c+d So, 4c + 5d can be equal to 9, 13, 14, 17, 18, 19

0, 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7 2a + 3b can be 9  (a, b) = (3, 1)


Let a + b = c + d =  (c, d) = (1, 1)
There must be 7 2a + 3b can be 13  (a, b) = (2, 3)
 a+b=c+d=7
(c, d) = (2, 1)
 = 7, (a, b)/(c, d) → (0, 7)/(1, 6)
2a + 3b can be 14  (a, b) = (4, 2) OR (1, 4)
or (2, 5)(3, 4) → 24 numbers
(c, d) = (1, 2)
 = 8, (a, b)/(c, d) → (1, 7)/(2, 6)
or (3, 5) → 16 numbers 2a + 3b can be 17  (a, b) = (4, 3)

 = 9, (a, b)/(c, d) → (2, 7)/(3, 6) (c, d) = (3, 1)

or (4, 5) → 16 numbers 2a + 3b can be 18  (a, b) = (3, 4)


 = 10, (a, b)/(c, d) → (3, 7)/(4, 6) → 8 numbers (c, d) = (2, 2)
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JEE (Main)-2023 : Phase-2 (15-04-2023)-Morning

26. Consider the triangles with vertices A(2, 1), B(0, 0) Answer (42.00)

and C(t, 4), t  [0,4] . If the maximum and the

minimum perimeters of such triangles are obtained Sol.

at t =  and t =  respectively, then 6 + 21 is

equal to ___________.

Answer (48.00)

Sol. To minimize CA + CB, take image of B in

y=4

B = (0, 8)  2y 2 
 dy −  ( 2 ) 
3/2 2 1
A=  (3 − y ) −
0  3  8
AB
36 − 9 − 6  21 
= − = −
8 4 8 4

28. If the line x = y = z intersects the line

xsinA + ysinB + zsinC – 18 = 0 = xsin2A + ysin2B +

zsin2C – 9, where A, B, C are the angles of a

 A B C
triangle ABC, then 80  sin sin sin  is equal to
 2 2 2
−7
y–8= ( x − 0) __________.
2
Answer (5)
when y = 4
Sol. x = y = z = k (let)
−7
−4 = (x)
2  k (sin A + sin B + sin C ) = 18

8 8  A B C
x= =  k  4cos  cos  cos  = 18 …(i)
7 7  2 2 2

Maximization will be possible if  = 0 or 4 k (sin 2 A + sin 2B + sin 2C ) = 9

When compared  = 4  k (4 sin A  sin B  sin C ) = 9 …(ii)

6 + 21 = 48 (ii)/(i)

A B C 9
27. If the area bounded by the curve 2y2 = 3x, lines 8 sin  sin  sin =
2 2 2 18
x + y = 3, y = 0 and outside the circle (x – 3)2 + y2 = 2
A B C
is A, then 4( + 4A) is equal to __________.  80 sin  sin  sin = 5
2 2 2

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JEE (Main)-2023 : Phase-2 (15-04-2023)-Morning
29. If the sum of the series Sol. Plane containing the line 2x + y – 3 – 3 = 0 = 5x –
 1 1  1 1 1   1 1 1 1  3y + 4z + 9 is 2x + y – z – 3 + (5x – 3y + 4z + 9) =
 – + 2 – + + – + – +
2 3 2 2  3 32   23 22  3 2  32 33  0
 1 1 1 1 1 
 4 – 3 + – +  + ....  x(2 + 5) + y(1 – 3) + z(4 – 1) + 9 – 3 = 0
2 2 3
2 2 3 2 3 23 34 

 This plane is parallel to the line


is , where  and  are co-prime, then  + 3 is

x +2 3−y z−7
= =
equal to _________. 2 −4 5
Answer (7)
 (2 + 5)(2) + (1 – 3)(4) + (4 – 1)5 = 0
1 1
Sol. Let a = , b =
2 3  4 + 10 + 4 – 12 + 20 – 5 = 0

Given: (a – b) + (a2 – ab + b2) + (a3 – a2b + ab2 – b3) −1


 18 = –3   =
+… 6


1
a+b
(( ) ( ) ( ) )
a2 − b2 + a3 + b3 + a 4 − b 4 + ...  Plane P :
7
6
3 5 9
x+ y − z− =0
2 3 2

 1  2
 
 a + b 
(
3 4 2
( 3 4
 a + a + a .... − b − b + b .... ))  7x + 9y – 10z – 27 = 0

 1  a b2 
2
=    − 
 a + b   1 − a 1 + b 

 1 1 
 4
1 9 
=  − 
1 1 1 1
+  1− 1 + 
2 3 2 3
x − 8 y + 1 z + 19
61 1  AB : = = =k
= − −3 4 12
5  2 12 
B = (–3k + 8, 4k – 1, 12k – 19)
6 5  1 
=  = =
5  12  2  B lies on plane P.

 + 3 = 1 + 6 = 7 7(–3k + 8) + 9(4k – 1) –10(12k – 19) = 27

30. Let the plane P contain the line 2x + y – z – 3 = 0  –21k + 56 + 36k – 9 –120k + 190 = 27
= 5x – 3y + 4z + 9 and be parallel to the line
x+2 3–y z–7  –105k = –210
= = . Then the distance of the
2 –4 5
 k=2
point A(8, – 1, – 19) from the plane P measured
x y –5 2–z  B = (2, 7, 5)
parallel to the line = = is equal to
–3 4 –12
AB = 36 + 64 + 576
___________.

Answer (26) = 676 = 26

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JEE (Main)-2023 : Phase-2 (15-04-2023)-Morning

PHYSICS
SECTION - A Gmm
Sol. mω2a = 2
4a
Multiple Choice Questions: This section contains 20
multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices Gm
ω=
(1), (2), (3) and (4), out of which ONLY ONE is correct. 4a3
Choose the correct answer: 34. The position vector of a particle related to time t is
31. A flask contains Hydrogen and Argon in the ratio given by

2 : 1 by mass. The temperature of the mixture is r = (10t iˆ + 15t 2 jˆ + 7kˆ ) m
30°C. The ratio of average kinetic energy per
The direction of net force experienced by the
molecule of the two gases (K argon/K hydrogen) is:
particle is :
(Given : Atomic Weight of Ar = 39.9)
(1) Positive x-axis (2) In x-y plane
(1) 2 (2) 1
(3) Positive y-axis (4) Positive z-axis
39.9
(3) 39.9 (4) Answer (3)
2 
Answer (2) Sol. F = 30 jˆ
1 2 4RT 35. The half-life of a radioactive nucleus is 5 years. The
=
Sol. KE = mv avg
2 π fraction of the original sample that would decay in
15 years is :
KEH
⇒ 2
=1 1 1
KE Ar (1) (2)
8 4
32. A 12 V battery connected to a coil of resistance 6 Ω 3
7
through a switch, drives a constant current in the (3) (4)
8 4
circuit. The switch is opened in 1 ms. The emf
induced across the coil is 20 V. The inductance of Answer (3)
− t /T1/2
the coil is : Sol. N = N0 2
(1) 10 mH (2) 8 mH
N0
(3) 5 mH (4) 12 mH ⇒ N=
8
Answer (1)
Sol. V = 12 volt 7N0
⇒ Decayed amount =
R=6Ω 8
t = 1 ms 36. Match List-I with List II of Electromagnetic waves
dφ dI with corresponding wavelength range:
=L
dt dt
List I List II
2
20= L × (A) Microwave (I) 400 nm to 1 nm
10−3
L = 10 mH (B) Ultraviolet (II) 1 nm to 10–3 nm
33. Two identical particles each of mass ‘m’ go round a (C) X-Ray (III) 1 mm to 700 nm
circle of radius a under the action of their mutual (D) Infra-red (IV) 0.1 m to 1 mm
gravitational attraction. The angular speed of each Choose the correct answer from the options given
particle will be : below:
Gm Gm (1) (A)-(IV), (B)-(I), (C)-(II), (D)-(III)
(1) (2)
a 3
8a3 (2) (A)-(IV), (B)-(I), (C)-(III), (D)-(II)
(3) (A)-(IV), (B)-(II), (C)-(I), (D)-(III)
Gm Gm
(3) (4) (4) (A)-(I), (B)-(IV), (C)-(II), (D)-(III)
3
4a 2a3
Answer (1)
Answer (3)
Sol. λX < λUV < λIR < λMW
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JEE (Main)-2023 : Phase-2 (15-04-2023)-Morning
37. A wire of length 'L' and radius 'r' is clamped rigidly Sol. 50 = (RG + R)10–3
at one end. When the other end of the wire is pulled 5000 = 54 + R
by a force f, its length increases by 'l'. Another wire
R ≈ 50 kΩ
of same material of length '2L' and radius '2r' is
pulled by a force '2f'. Then the increase in its length 10–3 × 54 = r × 9 × 10–3
will be: r=6Ω
(1) 4l (2) l/2 40. The height of transmitting antenna is 180 m and the
(3) 2l (4) l height of the receiving antenna is 245 m. The
Answer (4) maximum distance between them for satisfactory
communication in line of sight will be:
l F
Sol. σ= = (given R = 6400 km)
L πr 2 y
(1) 96 km (2) 56 km
l′ 2F

σ= = ′ l
⇒ l= (3) 48 km (4) 104 km
2L 4πr 2 y
Answer (4)
38. The de Broglie wavelength of an electron having
kinetic energy E is λ . If the kinetic energy of Sol. Rmax = 2 × 180 × 6400 × 103
E
electron becomes , then its de-Broglie + 2 × 245 × 6400 × 103
4
wavelength will be: = 6 × 80 × 102 + 7 × 80 × 102
λ = 104 km
(1) 2λ (2)
2 41. A thermodynamic system is taken through cyclic
λ process. The total work done in the process is :
(3) (4) 2λ
2
Answer (4)
h
Sol. λ =
2mKE
39. For designing a voltmeter of range 50 V and an
ammeter of range 10 mA using a galvanometer
which has a coil of resistance 54 Ω showing a full
scale deflection for 1 mA as in figure.
(1) 200 J (2) 300 J
(3) 100 J (4) Zero
Answer (2)
2 × 300
Sol. W = J
2
= 300 J
42. A single slit of width a is illuminated by a
(A) for voltmeter R ≈ 50 kΩ
monochromatic light of wavelength 600 nm. The
(B) for ammeter r ≈ 0.2 Ω
value of ‘a’ for which first minimum appears at
(C) for ammeter r ≈ 6 Ω θ = 30° on the screen will be :
(D) for voltmeter R ≈ 5 kΩ
(1) 1.2 µm (2) 3 µm
(E) for voltmeter R ≈ 500 Ω
(3) 1.8 µm (4) 0.6 µm
Choose the correct answer from the options given
Answer (1)
below:
(1) (A) and (C) (2) (C) and (E) Sol. dsinθ = λ
⇒ d = 2λ
(3) (C) and (D) (4) (A) and (B)
Answer (1) = 1.2 µm

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JEE (Main)-2023 : Phase-2 (15-04-2023)-Morning

43. A vector in x – y plane makes an angle of 30° with Choose the correct answer from the options given
y-axis. The magnitude of y-component of vector is below:
2 3 . The magnitude of x-component of the vector (1) (C) and (D) only
will be : (2) (A), (C) and (D) only
1 (3) (A), (B) and (C) only
(1) (2) 6
3
(4) (A), (B) and (D) only
(3) 2 (4) 3 Answer (3)
Answer (3) Sol. F = –kx
Sol. ay = 2 3 a = –ω2x
∴ ax = ay tan30° Velocity is maximum at mean position.
1 47. The speed of a wave produced in water is given by
= 2 3×
3 ν = λagbρc. Where λ, g and ρ are wavelength of
wave, acceleration due to gravity and density of
water respectively. The values of a, b and c
44. The position of a particle related to time is given by respectively, are
x = (5t2 – 4t + 5) m. The magnitude of velocity of the
particle at t = 2 s will be : (1) 1, –1, 0

(1) 06 ms–1 (2) 14 ms–1 1 1


(2) , 0,
(3) 10 ms–1 (4) 16 ms–1 2 2
Answer (4) (3) 1, 1, 0
Sol. x = 5t2 – 4t + 5 1 1
(4) , ,0
⇒ v = 10t – 4 2 2
⇒ v = 16 m/s Answer (4)
45. The electric field due to a short electric dipole at a Sol. [ν] = [λagbρc]
large distance (r) from center of dipole on the ⇒ [LT–1] = [L]a[LT–2]b[ML–3]c
equatorial plane varies with distance as :
48. A body is released from a height equal to the radius
(1) r
(R) of the earth. The velocity of the body when it
1 strikes the surface of the earth will be:
(2)
r2 (Given g = acceleration due to gravity on the earth.)
1
(3) (1) 2gR
r3
(2) gR
1
(4)
r (3) 4gR
Answer (3)
gR
2kp (4)
Sol. E = 2
r3
Answer (2)
46. In a linear Simple Harmonic Motion (SHM)
(A) Restoring force is directly proportional to the GMm GMm 1
Sol. − =
− + mv 2
displacement. 2R R 2
(B) The acceleration and displacement are 1 GMm
⇒ mv 2 =
opposite in direction. 2 2R
(C) The velocity is maximum at mean position.
GM
(D) The acceleration is minimum at extreme points. =v = gR
R

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JEE (Main)-2023 : Phase-2 (15-04-2023)-Morning
49. Given below are two statements: 51. The fundamental frequency of vibration of a string
Statement I : The equivalent resistance of resistors between two rigid support is 50 Hz. The mass of the
in a series combination is smaller than least string is 18 g and its linear mass density is 20 g/m.
resistance used in the combination. The speed of the transverse waves so produced in
Statement II: The resistivity of the material is the string is _______ ms–1.
independent of temperature. Answer (90)
In the light of the above statements, choose the
correct answer from the options given below: v
Sol. = 50
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are false 2l
(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
(3) Statement I is true but Statement II is false 100 × 18
v= 100 × =
l = 90 m/s
(4) Statement I is false but Statement II is true 20
Answer (1) 52. A block of mass 10 kg is moving along x-axis under
Sol. Rseries > R1 or R2 the action of force F = 5x N. The work done by the
as Rseries = R1 + R2 force in moving the block from x = 2 m to 4 m will
ρ = ρ0 (1 + α∆T) be _______ J.
50. In the given circuit, the current (I) through the
battery will be Answer (30)
Sol. F = 5x
5 5
( )
W = xf2 − xi2 = × 12 = 30 J
2 2
53. A solid sphere and a solid cylinder of same mass
and radius are rolling on a horizontal surface
without slipping. The ratio of their radius of
gyrations respectively (ksph : kcyl) is 2 : x . The
(1) 2.5 A (2) 1 A
(3) 2 A (4) 1.5 A value of x is _______.
Answer (4) Answer (5)
Sol. Considering rotational axis as the diametrical axis
for sphere and axis of cylinder. Then

Sol. 2 2 1
K12 = R and K 22 = R 2
5 2

K1 2/5 4
∴= =
20 K2 1/ 2 5
⇒ Req = Ω
3
K1 2
30 ⇒ =
=I = A 1.5 A K2 5
20
SECTION - B ∴ x=5
Numerical Value Type Questions: This section 54. An electron in a hydrogen atom revolves around its
contains 10 questions. In Section B, attempt any five nucleus with a speed of 6.76 × 106 ms–1 in an orbit
questions out of 10. The answer to each question is a of radius 0.52 Å. The magnetic field produced at the
NUMERICAL VALUE. For each question, enter the nucleus of the hydrogen atom is _______ T.
correct numerical value (in decimal notation, Answer (40)
truncated/rounded-off to the second decimal place; µ0I µ0 e × ω
e.g., 06.25, 07.00, –00.33, –00.30, 30.27, –27.30) using Sol. =
B =
2r 2π × 2 × r
the mouse and the on-screen virtual numeric keypad in
the place designated to enter the answer. 10−7 × 1.6 × 6.76 × 106 × 10 −19
= = 40
0.52 × 0.52 × 10-20

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JEE (Main)-2023 : Phase-2 (15-04-2023)-Morning

55. There is an air bubble of radius 1.0 mm in a liquid 58. As per given figure A, B and C are the first, second
of surface tension 0.075 Nm–1 and density 1000 kg and third excited energy levels of hydrogen atom
m–3 at a depth of 10 cm below the free surface. The respectively. If the ratio of the two wavelengths
amount by which the pressure inside the bubble is  λ1  7
greater than the atmospheric pressure is _______  i .e.  is , then the value of n will be
 λ2  4n
Pa (g = 10 ms–2)
Answer (1150)
2T 2 × 0.075
Sol. ∆P =ρgh += 1000 +
r 10−3
= 1000 + 150 = 1150
56. In the given figure the total charge stored in the
combination of capacitors is 100 µC. The value of Answer (5)
‘x’ is ______________. 1 1  7
λ1  9 − 16  16
=
Sol. =
λ2  1 1 5
 − 
4 9 4
λ1 7
⇒ =
λ2 20
59. The refractive index of a transparent liquid filled in
an equilateral hollow prism is 2 . The angle of
minimum deviation for the liquid will be _______°.
Answer (30)
 δ
sin  30 + 
Sol. 2=  2
Answer (5)
1
Sol. 10(2 + x + 3) = 100 2
⇒ x=5 δ
57. A 20 cm long metallic rod is rotated with 210 rpm ⇒ 45°= 30° +
2
about an axis normal to the rod passing through its
δ = 30°
one end. The other end of the rod is in contact with
60. A network of four resistances is connected to 9 V
a circular metallic ring. A constant and uniform
battery, as shown in figure. The magnitude of
magnetic field 0.2 T parallel to the axis exists
voltage difference between the points A and B is
everywhere. The emf developed between the
__________ V.
centre and the ring is _________mV.
22
Take π =
7
Answer (88)
B ωl 2
Sol. ε =
2
210 × 2π (0.2)2
0.2 ×
= ×
60 2
0.2 × 210 × 22 × 0.04
= Answer (3)
7 × 60
Sol. IA = IB = 1.5 A
= 88 mV
VA – VB = 4 × 1.5 – 2 × 1.5 = 3

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JEE (Main)-2023 : Phase-2 (15-04-2023)-Morning

CHEMISTRY

SECTION - A
Multiple Choice Questions: This section contains 20 Sol.
multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices
(1), (2), (3) and (4), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

Choose the correct answer:


61. The product formed in the following multistep 63. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?
reaction is: (A) The pH of 1 × 10–8 M HCl solution is 8.
(i) B2H6 (B) The conjugate base of H2PO 4− is HPO24− .
(ii) H2O2 , NaOH
CH3 − CH = CH2 ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯→ (C) Kw increases with increase in temperature.
(iii) PCC
(iv) CH3MgBr (D) When a solution of a weak monoprotic acid is
titrated against a strong base at half
O
|| 1
(1) CH3 − CH2 − C− OCH3 neutralisation point, pH = pK a .
2
OH Choose the correct answer from the options given
|
below:
(2) CH3 − C − CH3
| (1) (B), (C) (2) (A), (D)
CH3 (3) (A), (B), (C) (4) (B), (C), (D)
OH Answer (1)
|
(3) CH3 − CH2 − CH− CH3 Sol. H2PO −4 HPo −2
4 + H+
acid Conjugate base

(4) CH3 − CH2 − CH2 − CH2 − OH Kw increase with increase in temperature as


Answer (3) dissociation of water increases with increase in
Sol. temperature.
When weak monoprotic acid is titrated against
strong base, at half neutralization point, the solution
becomes acidic buffer and its pH is given by
[Salt]
pH = pK a + log
[Acid]
 pH = pKa + 0 as [salt] = [acid]
64. Which is not true for arginine?
62. The major product formed in the Friedel-Craft (1) It has a fairly high melting point.
acylation of chlorobenzene is (2) It is associated with more than one pKa values.
Cl Cl (3) It has high solubility in benzene.
COCH 3
(4) It is a crystalline solid.
(1) (2)
CH3 Answer (3)
COCH 3
O Sol.
O CH 3
Cl Cl

(3) (4)
CH 3

O O CH 3
Answer (4) Since arginine is polar, it is not soluble in benzene.

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JEE (Main)-2023 : Phase-2 (15-04-2023)-Morning

65. The number of P – O – P bonds in H4P2O7, Sol. Complex CFSE


(HPO3)3 and P4O10 are respectively [Ti(OH2)6]3+ –0.4 0
(1) 0, 3, 6 (2) 0, 3, 4 [Cr(H2O)6]3+ –1.2 0
(3) 1, 2, 4 (4) 1, 3, 6 [Mn(H2O)6]3+ –0.6 0
Answer (4) [Fe(H2O)6]3+ 0
Sol. H4P2O7: 68. During water-gas shift reaction
(1) Carbon monoxide is oxidized to carbon dioxide.
(2) Water is evaporated in presence of catalyst.
(3) Carbon is oxidized to carbon monoxide.
(4) Carbon dioxide is reduced to carbon monoxide.

(HPO3)3 Answer (1)


Sol. C + H2O ⎯⎯
→ CO + H2
syn gas

CO + H2O ⎯⎯→ CO2 + H2O

Water gas shift reaction


69. Which of the following statement is correct for paper
chromatography?
P4O10 (1) Water present in the pores of the paper forms
the stationary phase.
(2) Paper sheet forms the stationary phase.
(3) Water present in the mobile phase gets
absorbed by the paper which then forms the
stationary phase.
(4) Paper and water present in its pores together
form the stationary phase.
Answer (1)
66. The possibility of photochemical smog formation Sol. In paper chromatography water present in the
will be minimum at pores of the paper forms the stationary phase.
(1) Srinagar, Jammu and Kashmir in January
(2) Kolkata in October
70.
(3) Mumbai in May
(4) New-Delhi in August (Summer)
‘A’ formed in the above reaction is
Answer (1)
Sol. Photochemical smog occurs in warm, dry and
(1) (2)
sunny climate.
Hence the correct answer is option (1)
67. The complex with highest magnitude of crystal field
splitting energy (0) is
(3) (4)
(1) [Ti(OH2)6]3+ (2) [Cr(OH2)6]3+
(3) [Mn(OH2)6]3+ (4) [Fe(OH2)6]3+
Answer (2) Answer (1)

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JEE (Main)-2023 : Phase-2 (15-04-2023)-Morning
Sol. (1) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is
correct
(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
(4) Statement I is correct but Statement II is
incorrect
Answer (2)
Sol. Both statements (I) and (II) are correct.
71. Consider the following sequence of reactions CH3 COOH
Br
73.

The product ‘B’ is


NO 2 Cl

(1) In the above conversion the correct sequence of


reagents to be added is
(1) (i) KMnO4, (ii) Br2/Fe, (iii) Fe/H+, (iv) Cl2

(2) (2) (i) Br2/Fe, (ii) Fe/H+, (iii) KMnO4, (iv) Cl2
(3) (i) Fe/H+, (ii) HONO, (iii) CuCl, (iv) KMnO 4, (v)
Br2

(3) (4) (i) Br2/Fe, (ii) Fe/H+, (iii) HONO, (iv) CuCl (v)
KMnO4
Answer (4)
(4) Sol.

Answer (3)
Sol.

74. Which one of the following is not an example of


calcination?

(1) CaCO3 ⎯⎯→ CaO + CO2
72. Given below are two statements 
(2) Fe2O3  xH2O ⎯⎯→Fe2O3 + xH2O
Statement I : According to Bohr’s model of

hydrogen atom, the angular momentum of an (3) 2PbS + 3O2 ⎯⎯→ 2PbO + 2SO2
electron in a given stationary state is quantised. 
(4) CaCO3  MgCO3 ⎯⎯→ CaO + MgO + 2CO2
Statement II : The concept of electron in Bohr’s
orbit, violates the Heisenberg uncertainty principle. Answer (3)

In the light of the above statements, choose the Sol. 2PbS + 3O2 ⎯⎯→ 2PbO + 2SO2
most appropriate anwer from the options given
The above reaction is an example of roasting
below

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JEE (Main)-2023 : Phase-2 (15-04-2023)-Morning

75. Consider the following statement 77. Which of the following expressions is correct in
(A) NF3 molecules has a trigonal planar structure. case of a CsCl unit cell (edge length ‘a’)?
a 3
(B) Bond Length of N2 is shorter than O2. (1) r +r = (2) r +r = a
Cs+ Cl– 2 Cs+ Cl– 2
(C) Isoelectronic molecules or ions have identical
a
bond order. (3) r +r = (4) r +r =a
Cs+ Cl– 2 Cs+ Cl–
(D) Dipole moment of H2S is higher than that of
Answer (2)
water molecule.
Sol. CsCl has body centered type structure in which Cs+
Choose the correct answer from the options given occupies at corner of a cube and Cl– occupies the
below: centre of the cube.
(1) (A) and (B) are correct 2r + 2r = 3a (where a is the edge length of
Cs+ Cl–
(2) (A) and (D) are correct the cube)
(3) (C) and (D) are correct 3
rCs+ + rCl− = a
(4) (B) and (C) are correct 2
Answer (4) 78. For a good quality cement, the ratio of silica to
alumina is found to be
Sol. NF3 is pyramidal
(1) 1.5 (2) 4.5
B.O of N2 = 3, B.O of O2 = 4
(3) 2 (4) 3
Hence bond length of N2 is shorter than O2 Answer (4)
Isoelectronic species have identical bond order Sol. For a good quality cement, the ratio of silica to
alumina lies between 2.5 and 4.
79. Match List I with List II:
Dipole moment of H2O is more than that of H2S due List I List II
to higher electronegativity of O. (Monomer) (Polymer)
76. Given below are two statements: One is labelled as (A) Tetrafluoroethene (I) Orlon
Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R: (B) Acrylonitrile (II) Natural rubber
Assertion (A) : BeCl2 and MgCl2 produce (C) Caprolactam (III) Teflon
characteristic flame
(D) Isoprene (IV) Nylon-6
Reason (R) : The excitation energy is high in BeCl2
Choose the correct answer from the options given
and MgCl2
below:
In the light of the above statements, choose the
(1) (A)-(III), (B)-(I), (C)-(IV), (D)-(II)
correct answer from the options given below:
(2) (A)-(IV), (B)-(I), (C)-(II), (D)-(III)
(1) (A) is true but (R) is false (3) (A)-(III), (B)-(IV), (C)-(II), (D)-(I)
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is NOT the (4) (A)-(II), (B)-(III), (C)-(IV), (D)-(I)
correct explanation of (A) Answer (1)
(3) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct Sol.
explanation of (A) (Monomer) (Polymer)
(4) (A) is false but (R) is true (A) Tetrafluoroethene (I) Teflon
Answer (4) (B) Acrylonitrile (II) Orlon
Sol. BeCl2 and MgCl2 do not produce characteristic (C) Caprolactam (III) Nylon-6
flame because excitation energy is high in BeCl2
(D) Isoprene (IV) Natural rubber
and MgCl2. Hence, the correct answer is option (4).

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JEE (Main)-2023 : Phase-2 (15-04-2023)-Morning
80. Decreasing order of reactivity towards electrophilic Sol. Wt. of solution = 100 × 1.2 = 120 gm
substitution for the following compounds is: Wt. of water = 120 – 30 = 90 gm
CH3 OCH 3 NMe 2 Now using formula
P0 − P moles of glucos e
=
CF3 P moles of water
( a) (b) (c) (d) (e) 30
(1) d > a > e > c > b (2) e > d > a > b > c 24 − P 180 3
= =
(3) a > d > e > b > c (4) c > b > a > d > e P 90 90
18
Answer (2)
24 × 90 – P × 90 = 3 P
Sol. Reactivity of aromatic compounds towards
electrophilic substitution depends on the electron  P = 23.22
density on benzene ring. Higher the electron 83. The volume (in mL) of 0.1 M AgNO3 required for
density on benzene ring, more be the reactivity complete precipitation of chloride ions present in 20
towards electrophilic substitution reaction. mL of 0.01 M solution of [Cr(H2O)5Cl]Cl2 as silver
Hence, the correct decreasing order is chloride is_______
Answer (4)
Sol. (Cr(H2O)5 Cl) Cl2 ⎯⎯→ (Cr(H2O)5 Cl) + 2Cl−
Molarity of Cl– ions = 0.01 × 2 = 0.02 M
 Millimoles of Cl– ions in the given solution
= 20 × 0.02
SECTION - B  Millimoles of AgNO3 required = 20 × 0.2
Numerical Value Type Questions: This section V × 0.1 = 20 × 0.02
contains 10 questions. In Section B, attempt any five V = 4 mL
questions out of 10. The answer to each question is a
NUMERICAL VALUE. For each question, enter the 84. For a reversible reaction A B , the Hforward
correct numerical value (in decimal notation, = 20 kJ mol–1. The activation energy of the
reaction

truncated/rounded-off to the second decimal place; uncatalyzed forward reaction is 300 kJ mol–1. When
e.g., 06.25, 07.00, –00.33, –00.30, 30.27, –27.30) using the reaction is catalysed keeping the reactant
the mouse and the on-screen virtual numeric keypad in concentration same, the rate of the catalysed
the place designated to enter the answer. forward reaction at 27°C is found to be same as that
of the uncatalyzed reaction at 327°C. The activation
81. In Chromyl chloride, the oxidation state of energy of the catalysed backward reaction is
chromium is (+) ___________. _______ kJ mol–1.
Answer (6) Answer (130)
Sol. As per the question
Sol. Chromyl chloride is
300103 −Ea

Ae 600R = Ae 300R
Hence the O.S. of Cr is +6
103 Ea
82. The vapour pressure of 30% (w/v) aqueous solution  =
2 300
of glucose is ________ mm Hg at 25°C.
 Ea = 150 × 103 J mol–1
[Given: The density of 30% (w/v), aqueous solution
of glucose is 1.2 g cm–3 and vapour pressure of  Ea = 150 kJ mol–1
pure water is 24 mm Hg.]  Activation energy of catalysed backward reaction
(Molar mass of glucose is 180 g mol–1) = Ea – H
Answer (23) = 150 – 20 = 130 kJ mol–1

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JEE (Main)-2023 : Phase-2 (15-04-2023)-Morning

85. The homoleptic and octahedral complex of Co2+ Sol.


and H2O has ______ unpaired electron(s) in the t2g
Species No. of electrons
set of orbitals.
Answer (1) O–2 10

Sol. [Co(H2O)6 ]2+ = d7 (H.S.) = t52g eg2 F– 10

86. The number of correct statements from the Al 13


following is ___________ Mg2+ 10
(A) Conductivity always decreases with decrease
Na+ 10
in concentration for both strong and weak
electrolytes. O+ 7

(B) The number of ions per unit volume that carry Mg 12


current in a solution increases on dilution.
Al3+ 10
(C) Molar conductivity increases with decrease in
concentration. F 9

(D) The variation in molar conductivity is different Hence five species among the given are
for strong and weak electrolytes. isoelectronic species.
(E) For weak electrolytes, the change in molar 89. 20 mL of 0.5 M NaCl is required to coagulate
conductivity with dilution is due to decrease in 200 mL of As2S3 solution in 2 hours. The
degree of dissociation. coagulating value of NaCl is ___________.
Answer (3) Answer (50)
Sol. Except (B) and (E), all statements are correct. 20  0.5
Sol. Coagulating value =  1000 = 50
87. The total change in the oxidation state of 200
manganese involved in the reaction of KMnO4 and 90. 30.4 kJ of heat is required to melt one mole of
potassium iodide in the acidic medium is ________. sodium chloride and the entropy change at the
Answer (5) melting point is 28.4 J K–1 mol–1 at 1 atm. The
melting point of sodium chloride is _______ K
Sol. KMnO4 + KI + H+ ⎯⎯→ Mn+2 + I2 + H2O (Nearest Integer)
Hence the change in O.S. of Mn is (5). Answer (1070)
88. The total number of isoelectronic species from the Hfus
Sol. Melting point =
given set is ________. S
O2–, F–, Al, Mg2+, Na+, O+, Mg, Al3+, F
30.4  103
= = 1070 K
Answer (5) 28.4

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