NEET 2023 Sample Paper

NEET_2023_Sample_Paper
SUBJECT :- PHYSICS
SECTION-A
(Attempt All 35 questions)
    
1.  
What is the angle between A and the resultant of A  B and A  B ?  
A B  AB
(A) 0° (B) tan 1   (C) tan 1   (D) tan 1  
B A AB
Sol. (A)
    
A  B  A  B  2A
So,  = 0
2. A ball is projected vertically up with an initial speed of 20 m/s on a planet where acceleration
due to gravity is 10 m/s2. How high does it rise above the point of projection?
(A) 20m (B) 40m (C) 60m (D) 5m
Sol. (A)
As here motion is vertically upwards a = –g and v = 0
From 3rd equation of motion
i.e., v2 = u2 + 2as
 0 = (20)2 – 2 × 10 × h, i.e., h = 20 m
3. The path followed by a body projected along y axis is given as by y  3x  1/2  x 2 . If

g = 10 m/s2 then the initial velocity of projectile will be- (x and y are in m)
(A) 3 10 m/s (B) 2 10 m/s (C) 10 3 m/s (D) 10 2 m/s
Sol. (B)
Given, that y  3x  (1/2)x 2 ……(A)
The above equation is similar to equation of trajectory of the projectiles
g
y  tan  x  1/2 2 x2 ……(B)
u cos 2 
Comparing (A) and (B) we get
tan   3    60
g
and 1/2 = (1/2) 2 2
u cos θ
 u cos   g
2 2
 u 2 cos 2 60  10
 u 2 (1/4)  10  u 2  40
 u 2 (1/4)  10  u 2  40
 u  2 10 m/s
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4. Find the velocity of the hanging block if the velocities of the free ends of the rope are as
indicated in the figure.
(A) 3/2 m/s↑ (B) 3/2 m/s↓ (C) 1/2 m/s↑ (D) 1/2 m/s↓
Sol. (A)
From constrained
+2 – VB – VB + 1 = 0
VB = 3/2 m/s↑
5. The maximum value of the block mଶ for which the system will remain in equilibrium
(coefficient of friction between block mଵ and plane surface is µ, Pulley are massless) is:
m1 m1
(A)  (B) (C) m1 (D) 2m1
2 2
Sol. (A)
2T  m1g
T = m2g
2m 2 g  m1g
m1
m2 
2
6. The relationship between the force F and position x of a body is as shown in figure. The work
done in displacing the body from x = 1 m to x = 5 m will be
(A) 30 J (B) 15 J (C) 25 J (D) 20 J

Sol. (B)
Work done = area under F-x graph = area of rectangle ABDC + area of rectangle BCEF +
area of rectangle GFIH + area of triangle IJK

1
= (2 – 1) × (10 – 0) +(3 – 2) (5 – 0) + (4 – 3) (–5 – 0) + (5 – 4) (10 – 0) = 15 J
2
7. A pump ejects 12000 kg of water at speed of 4m/s in 40 second. Find the average rate at
which the pump is working
(A) 0.24 KW (B) 2.4 W (C) 2.4 KW (D) 24 W
Sol. (C)
Given m = 12000 kg, v = 4 m/sec & t = 40 sec
1 1
mv 2 12000  42
Pavg  2  2
t 40
= 2400 W = 2.4 KW
8. A particle executing simple harmonic motion of amplitude 5 cm has maximum speed of 31.4
cm/s. The frequency of oscillation is :
(A) 1 Hz (B) 3 Hz (C) 2 Hz (D) 4 Hz
Sol. (A)
Vmax  A
31.4 5
 2f 
100 100
10
f  , f  1Hz
10
9. If ratio of maximum to minimum resultant intensities of two intensities wave travelling in

same direction is 9 : 4 then find ratio of individual intensities.
(A) 5 : 1 (B) 1 : 25 (C) 1 : 5 (D) 25 : 1
Sol. (D)
2
Imax  I1  I2  9
  
I min  I1  I 2  4
I1  I 2 3

I1  I 2 2
I1 3 2 I
   1  25 : 1
I2 3 2 I2

10. Two persons of masses 55 kg and 65 kg respectively, are at the opposite ends of a boat. The
length of the boat is 3.0 m and weights 100 kg. The 55 kg man walks up to the 65 kg man and
sits with him. If the boat is in still water the centre of mass of the system shifts by
(A) 3.0 m (B) 2.3 m (C) zero (D) 0.75 m
Sol. (C)
Because there will be no net external force acting on the system. So C.O.M. is shifts by 0 m.

11. The moment of the force, F  4i  5j  6k at (2, 0, –3), about the point (2, –2, –2), is given by
(A) –7i  8j  4k (B) –4i  j  8k (C) –8i  4j  7k (D) –7i  4j  8k
Sol. (D)
F  4i  5j  6k

r  (2  2)i   0 – (–2)  j   (–3)  ( 2)  k
 0i  2j  1k
The moment of the force –
  
  r F
 
= 0i  2j  1k  4i  5j  6k 
=  2   6    1  5  i   0   6    1  4  j   0  5  4  2  k
moment of force is
= 7i  4j  8k
12. A rope is wound around a hollow cylinder of mass 3 kg and radius 40 cm. What is the
angular acceleration of the cylinder if the rope is pulled with a force of 30 N?
(A) 0.25 rad/s2 (B) 25 rad/s2 (C) 5 m/s2 (D) 25m/s2
Sol. (B)
  F r
I  F  r
30  40
MR 2   
100
3  40  40  
 12
100  100
3  16
   12
100
12  100

3  16
  25 rad/sec 2
13. Two satellites of earth S1 and S2 are moving in the same orbit. The mass of S1 is four times
the mass of S2. Which one of the following statement is true?
(A) The Kinetic energies are equal
(B) The Time period of S1 is four times that S2
(C) The potential energies of earth and satellite in the two cases are equal
(D) S1 and S2 are moving with the same speed
Sol. (D)
We know orbital speed of satellite is given by
v0  gR
So original speed does not depend on Mass(m)
So, S1 & S2 are moving with the same speed.
14. The figure shows elliptical orbit of a planet m about the sun S. The shaded area SCD is twice
the shaded area SAB. If t1 the time for the planet to move from C to D and t2 is the time to
move from A to B then :-
(A) t1 = t2 (B) t1 < t2 (C) t1 = 4t2 (D) t1 = 2t2

Sol. (D)
ASCD A SAB 2A SAB A SAB
  
t1 t2 t1 t2
15. A wire suspended vertically from one of its ends is stretched by attaching a weight of 200 N
to the lower end. The with stretches the wire by 1 mm. Then the elastic energy stored in the
wire is
(A) 0.2 J (B) 10 J (C) 20 J (D) 0.1 J
Sol. (D)
1 1
U   F  l   200 10 3 J  0.1 J
2 2
16. A candle of diameter d is floating on a liquid in a cylindrical container of diameter D(D >>d)
as shown in figure. If it is burning at the rate of 2cm/hour then the top of the candle will
(A) remain at the same height (B) fall at the rate of 1 cm/hour
(C) fall at the rate of 2 cm/hour (D) go up at the rate of 1cm/hour
Sol. (B)

2L  2
From above figure l    L  1
2
 The top of the candle fall at the rate of 1 cm/hour
17. By sucking through a straw, a student can reduce the pressure in his lungs to 750 mm of Hg
(density = 13.6 gm/cm3). Using the straw, he can drink water from a glass upto a maximum
depth of
(A) 10 cm (B) 75 cm (C) 13.6 cm (D) 1.36 cm
Sol. (C)
P = 760 – 750 = 10 mm of Hg
13.6 cm of water
18. An iron ball is heated. The percentage increase will be largest in

(A) diameter (B) surface area (C) volume (D) density
Sol. (C)
V  r3
19. The current in the windings on a toroid is 2.0A. There are 400 turns and the mean
circumferential length is 40cm. If the inside magnetic field is 1.0T, the relative permeability
is near to
(A) 100 (B) 200 (C) 300 (D) 400
Sol. (D)
0 r Ni 4107  r  400  2
B 1   r  400
2r 0.4
20. A coil having N turns carry a current I as shown in the figure. The magnetic field intensity at
point P is
 0 NIR 2  0 NI  0 NIR 2
(A) (B) (C) (D) Zero
2R  X 2 3/2
 R  X
2
2 2R
Sol. (A)
Magnetic field intensity at point P, shown in figure while carrying current "i" and having "N"
 0 NIR 2
turns is given by Magnetic field P due to entire loop is
2 R2  x2 
3/2
21. If the angles of dip at two places are 30° and 45° respectively, then the ratio of horizontal
components of earth's magnetic field at the two places will be
(A) 3: 2 (B) 1: 2 (C) 1: 3 (D) 1 : 2

Sol. (A)
The horizontal components are  BH 1  B cos 1 and  BH 2  B cos 2
 BH 1 cos 1 cos 30 3 3
     2
 BH  2 cos 2 cos 45 2 2
22. In sum and difference method in vibration magnetometer, the time period is more if
(A) Similar poles of both magnets are on same sides
(B) Opposite poles of both magnets are on same sides
(C) Both magnets are perpendicular to each other
(D) Nothing can be said
Sol. (B)
Is
In sum position : Ts  2
 M1  M 2  BH
Id
In difference position : Td  2
 M1  M 2  BH
It is clear that Td > Ts
23. In a coil of area 10cm2 and 10 turns with a magnetic field directed perpendicular to the plane
and is changing at the rate of 108 gauss/second. The resistance of the coil is 20 ohm. The
current in the coil will be
(A) 5 amp (B) 0.5 amp (C) 0.05 amp (D) 5 × 108 amp
Sol. (A)
e  N  dφ/dt  10  108 104  104  10
I  
R R 20
=5A
24. If a coil of metal wire is kept stationary in a non-uniform magnetic field, then
(A) An e.m.f. is induced in the coil (B) A current is induced in the coil
(C) Neither e.m.f. nor current is induced (D) Both e.m.f. and current is induced
Sol. (C)
E.m.f. or current induces, only when flux linked with the coil changes.
25. A bulb is connected first with dc and then ac of same voltage then it will shine brightly with
(A) AC (B) DC
(C) Brightness will be in ration 1/1.4 (D) Equally with both
Sol. (D)
1
Brightness  Pconsumed  for Bulb, R ac  R dc , so brightness will be equal in both the cases.
R

26. In the circuit shown below, the ac source has voltage V = 20 cos (t) volts with  = 200
rad/sec., the amplitude of the current will be nearest to
2
(A) 2A (B) 3.3A (C) A (D) 5A
5
Sol. (A)
R = 6 + 4 = 10 
X L  L  2000  5  103  10
1 1
XC    10
C 2000  50  106
 Z  R 2   X L  X C   10
2
V0 20
Amplitude of current  i 0    2A
Z 10
27. Light of wavelength 4000 Å is incident on a sodium surface for which the threshold wave
length of photo – electrons is 5420 Å. The work function of sodium is
(A) 4.58 eV (B) 2.29 eV (C) 1.14 eV (D) 0.57 eV
Sol. (B)
12375 12375
W0    2.28eV
 0  Å  5420
28. A radio transmitter radiates 1 kW power at a wavelength 198.6 metres. How many photons
does it emit per second
(A) 1010 (B) 1020 (C) 1030 (D) 1040
Sol. (C)
W nhc n  6.6 1034  3 108
P   103 
t t 198.6  1
 n  10 30
29. The relation between  and  parameters of current gains for a transistors is given by
  1  1 
(A)   (B)   (C)   (D)  
1  1   
Sol. (B)
i i 1 1 
ie  i b  ic  e  b  1    1   
ic ic   1   

30. A hexagon of side 8 cm has a charge 4 µC at each of its vertices. The potential at the centre
of the hexagon is
(A) 2.7 × 106 V (B) 7.2 × 1011 V (C) 2.5 × 1012 V (D) 3.4 × 104 V
Sol. (A)
As shown in the figure, O is the centre of hexagon ABCDEF of each side 8 cm. As it is a
regular hexagon OAB, OBC, etc are equilateral triangles.
 OA = OB = OC = OD = OE = OF = 8 cm
= 8 × 10–2 m
The potential at O is
6q 6  9 109  4  106
V  2
 2.7  106 V
4 0 r 8 10
31. The phenomenon of interference in light was studied first by:

(A) Newton (B) Young (C) Fresnel (D) Huygen
Sol. (B)
Young's Double slit experiment proved phenomenon of interference of light.
32. Two capacitors of capacity C1 and C2 are connected as shown in figure.
Now the switch is closed. Calculate the charge on each capacitor.

(A) 640 µC; 960 µC (B) 640 µC; 1260 µC (C) 240 µC; 960 µC (D) 240 µC; 1260 µC
Sol. (A)
2  200  3  400
Vc   320V
2  3
Q1  320  2  640C
Q 2  320  3  960C
33. Which of the following is not the unit of energy?

(A) watt-hour (B) electron-volt (C) N × m (D) kg × m/sec2
Sol. (D)
Energy W= f × d = Nm
W = eV = electro-volt
W = p × t = Watt hour
So, kg × m/sec2 is not the unit of energy

34. In Young's double slit experiment, wavelength of light is 6000Å. Then the phase difference
between the light waves reaching the third bright fringe from the central fringe will be:
(A) zero (B) 2 π (C) 4 π (D) 6 π
Sol. (D)
  2n
Here n = 3
  2 3  6
35. The plane surface of a plan convex lens of focal length f is silvered. It will behave as :
(A) plane mirror (B) convex mirror of focal lengths 2f
(C) concave mirror of focal length f/2 (D) none of the above
Sol. (C)
Fm   So, Pm  0
1 1
PL  
fL R
So, now power of system
P = 2PL + Pm
2 1 f
 0 F 
R P 2
SECTION –B
This section will have 15 questions. Candidate can choose to attempt any 10 question
out of these 15 question. First 10 attempted questions will be considered for marking.
36. The equation of stationary wave along a stretched string is given by :

x
y  5sin cos 40t
3
where x and y are in cm and t in second. The separation between two adjacent nodes is -
(A) 1.5 cm (B) 3 cm (C) 6 cm (D) 4 cm
Sol. (B)

y  5sin x cos 40t
3

kx  x
3

k
3
2 

 3
 = 6m

The separation b/w two objection node =
2
6
 3m
2
37. The densities of two monoatomic gases are in the ratio of 16 : 9. The velocities of sound in
gases having the same pressure will be in the ratio of
(A) 4 : 3 (B) 3 : 4 (C) 16 : 9 (D) 9 : 16
Sol. (B)
 16
Given; 1  & P1 = P2
2 9
P
V 

Vl P 2 9 3 V1
 1 2      3: 4
V2 P21 1 16 4 V2
38. The fundamental frequency of a closed organ pipe of length 20 cm is equal to the second
overtone of an organ pipe open at both the ends. The length of organ pipe open at both the
ends is
(A) 120 cm (B) 140 cm (C) 80 cm (D) 100 cm
Sol. (A)
V
Fundamental frequency of closed organ pipe is 
4L
V 3v
Given, 
4L 2L
L' = 6L
= 6 × 20 = 120 cm
39. A ring consisting of two parts ADB and ACB of same conductivity k carries an amount of
heat H. The ADB part is now replaced with another metal keeping the temperatures T1 and T2
constant. The heat carried increases to 2H. What should be the conductivity of the new ADB
ACB
part? Given  3:
ADB
7 5
(A) k (B) 2k (C) k (D) 3 k
3 2
Sol. (A)
Given ACB = 3 ADB
ADB = 
kA kA
H1   1  2    1  2 
 3

4kA
H1   1  2  ..… (1)
3
k 'A kA
H2   1  2    1  2 
 3
H 2  2H1
 kA k.A
 k '   1  2   2.4  1  2 
 3  3
k 8k
k '  H1  2H 2
3 3
7
k' k
3
40. An ideal gas heat engine operator in carnot cycle between 227°C and 127°C. It absorbs 6 ×
104 cal of heat at higher temperature amount of heat converted to work is
(A) 2.4 × 104 cal (B) 6 × 104 cal (C) 1.2 × 104 cal (D) 4.8 × 104 cal
Sol. (C)
W T  T 
  1  2  W  Q 1  2 
Q T1  T1 
= 1.2 × 104 cal
41. The translational kinetic energy of molecules of one mole of a monoatomic gas is
3NKT
U . The value of atomic specific heat of gas under constant pressure will be
2
(A) 3R/2 (B) 5R/2 (C) 7R/2 (D) 9R/2
Sol. (B)
 f
C v  1   R
 2
 3
C v  1   R
 2
5
Cv  R
2
42. At what temperature will the rms speed of oxygen molecules become just sufficient for
escape from the Earth's atmosphere? (Given : Mass of oxygen molecule (m) = 2.76 × 10–26 kg
Boltzmann's constant kB = 1.38 × 10–23 JK–1)
(A) 5.016 × 104 K (B) 8.360 × 104 K (C) 2.508 × 104 K (D) 1.254 × 104 K
Sol. (B)
Ves  vrms
3KT
11.2 103 
m

m
T  11.2 103 
2
3K
T
11.2 10  3 2
 2.76  1026
3  1.38  1023
T = 8.360 × 104 K
43. An archaeologist analyses the wood in the prehistoric structure and finds that C14 (Half life =
5700 years) to C12 is only one-fourth of that found in the cells buried plants. The age of the
wood is about
(A) 5700 years (B) 2850 years (C) 11,400 years (D) 22,800 years
Sol. (C)
t /5700
C14 1  1  t
     2  t  11400 years
C12 4  2  5700
44. What is the respective number of  and  particles emitted in the following radioactive decay
90 X
200
 80 Y168
(A) 6 and 8 (B) 8 and 8 (C) 6 and 6 (D) 8 and 6
Sol. (D)
A  A ' 200  168
n   8
4 4
n   2n   Z  Z '  2  8  90  80  6
45. Which logic gate is represented by the following combination of logic gates
(A) OR (B) NAND (C) AND (D) NOR

Sol. (C)
Y AB
According to de morgan's theorem
Y  A  B  A.B  A.B
This is the output equation of 'AND' gate.

46. In the circuit shown in figure, R3 is a variable resistance. As the value R3 is changed, current I
through the cell varies as shown in graph. Resistances R1 and R2 are respectively:
(A) 4, 2 (B) 2, 4 (C) 2, 2 (D) 1, 4

Sol. (C)
36
When R 3  0 : I 2  9
R1  R 2
 R1  R 2  4
36
When R 3   : I 2  6
R 1  2R 2
 R1  2R 2  6
Solving, R1 = 2 and R2 = 2
47. P-type semiconductor is formed when

(i) As impurity is mixed in Si (ii) Al impurity is mixed in Si
(iii) B impurity is mixed in Ge (iv) P impurity is mixed in Ge
(A) (i) and (ii) (B) (i) and (iv) (C) (ii) and (iii) (D) (ii) and (iv)
Sol. (C)
The p−type semiconductor is formed when the Trivalent impurity is added to the pure
semiconductor.
48. Find resistance of carbon resistor if rings has colours

Red Green Blue Silver
(A) 36 × 107 ± 5% (B) 36 × 107 ± 10% (C) 25 × 106 ± 5% (D) 25 × 106 ± 10%
Sol. (D)
25 × 106 ± 10 %
49. In the given circuit, with steady current, the magnitude of potential drop across the capacitor
must be:
V V 2V
(A) V (B) (C) (D)
2 3 3
Sol. (C)
In steady state, no current will pass through the capacitor
In the lower loop
2V − 2iR – iR – V = 0
⇒ i = V/3R
For the upper loop, V  VC  iR  V  0  VC  iR  V/3
50. A point object is placed in air at a distance of 40 cm from a concave refracting surface of
refractive index 1.5. If the radius of curvature of the surface is 20 cm, then the position of the
image is -
(A) in air and at 30 cm from pole
(B) in refracting medium and at 30 cm from pole
(C) in air and at infinity
(D) in refracting medium and at infinity
Sol. (A)
Given object distance u = 40 cm, radius of curvature R = 20cm
refractive index n 2  1.5 and n1  1
Now making use of the relation
n 2 n1 n 2  n 1
 
v u R
n 2 n 2  n1 n1
 
v R u
n 2 1.5  1 1
 
v 20 40
n2 2

v 40
v = 1.5 × –20 = –30

Subject : Chemistry
SECTION - A
(Attempt all 35 questions)
51. Following solutions were prepared by mixing different volumes of NaOH and HCl of different
concentrations :
M M
(a) 60 mL HCl  40 mL NaOH
10 10
M M
(b) 55 mL HCl  45 mL NaOH
10 10
M M
(c) 75 mL HCl  25 mL NaOH
5 5
M M
(d) 100 mL HCl  100 mL NaOH
10 10
pH of which one of them will be equal to 1?
(A) b (B) a (C) d (D) c
Ans. (D)
 1  1
75     25  
 N1V1  N 2 V2  5  5
Sol. H net    10 1 M
V1  V2 100
pH  1
52.
major product z is :
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
Ans. (B)

53. The correct order of hydration enthapies of alkali metal ions is :
(A) Li+ > Na+ > Cs+ > Rb+ (B) Na+ > Li+ > K+ > Rb+ > Cs+
(C) Li+ > Na+ > K+ > Rb+ > Cs+ (D) Na+ > Li+ > K+ > Cs+ > Rb+
Ans. (C)
Ch arg e
Sol. H.E. 
Size
Li > Na > K+ > Rb+ > Cs+
+ +
L  R charge = const. size   HE 
54. In the electrochemical cell :

Zn | ZnSO4(0.01 M) | |CuSO4(1.0 M) | Cu, the emf of this Daniel cell is E1.
When the concentration of ZnSO4 is changed to 1.0 M and that of CuSO4 changed to 0.01 M, the emf
changes to E2. From the followings, which one is the relationship between E1 and E2?
RT
(Given,  0.059 )
F
(A) E1 < E2 (B) E1 > E2 (C) E2 = 0  E1 (D) E1 = E2
Ans. (B)
Sol. For cell
Zn | ZnSO4(0.01 M) | |CuSO4(1.0 M) | Cu
Cell reaction  Zn + Cu+2  Zn+2 + Cu
0.059 0.01
E1  E  log
2 1
0.059 1
 E  log ............ (A)
2 100
For cell
Zn | ZnSO4(0.01 M) | |CuSO4(1.0 M) | Cu
0.059 1
E 2  E  log
2 0.01
0.059
 E  log100 .......... (B)
2
[E1 > E2]
 

55.

H O (aq) H O (aq)
CH3CHO  3HCHO 
(CH 2OH)3 CCHO 
I II
(CH2OH)4 C  (CH2OH)3 CCOONa

Reactions I & II are respectively :-
(A) cannizaro, aldol (B) aldol, aldol
(C) cannizaro, cannizaro (D) aldol, cannizaro
Ans. (D)

56. With respect to an ore, Ellingham diagram helps to predict the feasibility of its.
(A) Thermal reduction (B) Electrolysis
(C) Vapour phase refining (D) Zone refining
Ans. (A)
Sol. Ellingham diagram in a graph between G°f of oxide/mole O2 vs temp. which help to predict suitable
reducing agent for therma reduction of oxide.
57. For a given reaction, H = 35.5 kJ mol–1 and S = 83.6 JK–1 mol–1. The reaction is spontaneous at :
(Assume that H and S do not vary with temperature)
(A) T > 425 K (B) All temperature (C) T > 298 K (D) T < 425 K
Ans. (A)
Sol. G = H – TS
for equilibrium G = 0
H = TS
H 35.5  1000
Teq.    425K
S 83.6
Since the reaction is endothermic, it will be spontaneous at T > 425 K.
58. CH 3CHO  HCHO  Ca (OH) 2
X
Product ‘X’ will be :- (excess of HCHO is used)
(A) CH2OHCH2CHO (B) CH3CH(OH)CH2OH
(C) (HOCH2)4C (D) (HOCH2)3CCHO
Ans. (C)
59. Diborane (B2H6) reacts independently with O2 and H2O to produce, respectively :
(A) HBO2 and H3BO3 (B) B2O3 and [BH4]–
(C) B2O3 and H3BO3 (D) H3BO3 and B2O3
Ans. (C)
Sol. B2H6 + O2  B2O3 + H2O
B2H6 + H2O  H3BO3 + H2
60. The number of water molecules is maximum in :
(A) 18 gram of water (B) 18 moles of water
(C) 18 molecules of water (D) 1.8 gram of water
Ans. (B)
Sol.  1 mole water = 6.02 × 1023 molecules
 18 mole water = 18 × 6.02 × 1023 molecules
so, 18 mole water has maximum number of molecules.
61. How many stereoisomers are possible from the condensation of with acetaldehyde by
the action of hot concentration NaOH ?

(A) 2 (B) 3 (C) 4 (D) None
Ans. (C)

62. The size of the iso-electronic species Cl– , Ar and Ca2+ is affected by :
(A) Principal quantum number of valence shell
(B) Electron-electron interaction in the outer orbitals
(C) Nuclear charge
(D) Azimuthal quantum number of valence shell
Ans. (C)
1
Sol. Size 
Nuclear Charge
63. Which of the following statements is correct for a reversible process in a state of equilibrium ?
(A) G = 2.30 RT log K (B) G° = –2.30 RT log K
(C) G° = 2.30 RT log K (D) G = –2.30 RT log K
Ans. (B)
Sol. G° = –2.303RTlogK
because at equilibrium G = 0
64.
 
NaHCO3 (CaO  NaOH )  HBr  KBr H 3O /  H3 O
CH 3COOH 
 H2 O
(P) 
 /  Na 2 CO3
(Q) 
Br2 / h
 R 
KCN/ alc.
 S  T 
 NH 3F

 CO2
Product F is
(A) Methanoic acid (B) Ethanoic acid (C) Ethane nitrile (D) Methyl methanoate
Ans. (B)
65. The correct order of the spin-only magnetic moment of metal ions in the following low-spin complexes,
[ V (CN 6)]4–,[Fe(CN)6]4–, [Ru(NH3)6]3+, and [Cr(NH3)6]2+ , is :
(A) V2+ > Ru3+ > Cr2+ > Fe2+ (B) Cr2+ > V2+ > Ru3+ > Fe2+
(C) V2+ > Cr2+ > Ru3+ > Fe2+ (D) Cr2+ > Ru3+ > Fe2+ > V2+
Ans. (C)
Sol. [(CN)6]4– V+2 3d3 n=3
[(CN)6]4– Fe+2 3d6 n=0
Back pairing
[(NH3)6]3+ Ru3+ 4d5 n=1

Back pairing
[(NH3)6]2+ Cr2+ 3d4 n=2

 V2+ > Cr2+ > Ru3+ > Fe2+
n=3

66. NH3 + OCl–  N2H4 + Cl–

On balancing the above equation in basic solution, using integral coefficient, which of the following
whole numbers will be the coefficient of N2H4 ?
(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4
Ans. (A)
Sol.
2NH3 + OCl–  N2H4 + Cl– + H2O

Coefficient of N2H4 = 1
67. Hydrocarbon (C3H6) treated with HBr form complex (X). Then heated with excess of NH3 in alc.
medium, product y is formed. Identify final product y.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
Ans. (C)
68. The lathanide ion that would show colour is :

(A) Sm3+ (B) Gd3+ (C) Lu3+ (D) La3+
Ans. (A)
Sol. Sm+3 in a yellow ion
69. The wave number of the first line of Balmer series of hydrogen is 15200 cm–1. The wave number of the
first Balmer line of Li2+ ion is :
(A) 15200 cm–1 (B) 60800 cm–1 (C) 76000 cm–1 (D) 136800 cm–1
Ans. (D)

 1 1 
Sol. V  Rz 2  2  2 
 n1 n 2 
 1 1
R(1) 2  2  2 
(v)H 2 3 

(v)Li 2  1 1
R(3) 2  2  2 
2 3 
(v) Li2  136800 cm–1
70.
SnCl 2  HCl Boiling
CH 3CN  2H ether
 x 
H2O
y
Product y is :-
(A) Acetone (B) Ethanamine (C) Acetaldehyde (D) Dimethyl amine
Ans. (C)
71. The correct statement about ICl5 and ICl4– is :

(A) ICl5 is trigonal bipyramidal and ICl4– is tetrahedral.
(B) ICl5 is square pyramidal and ICl4– is square planar.
(C) ICl5 is square pyramidal and ICl4– is tetrahedral.
(D) Both are isostructural.
Ans. (B)
Sol. ICl5  = 5 lp = 1 sp3d2 square pyramidal
I Cl 4–  = 4 lp = 1 sp3d2 square planer
72. The average velocity of an ideal gas molecule at 27ºC is 0.3 m/sec the average velocity at 927ºC will
be :
(A) 0.6 m sec–1 (B) 0.3 m sec–1 (C) 0.9 m sec–1 (D) 3.0 m sec–1
Ans. (A)
8RT
Sol. Vag 
M
8  R  300
0.3 
M
8  R  1200
Vag 
M
Vag = 0.6 m/sec.
73. How glucose is related with fructose ?

(A) Functional group isomerism (B) Rotamers
(C) Position isomers (D) Geometrical isomers
Ans. (A)

74. The covalent alkaline earth metal halide
(X=Cl, Br, I) is :
(A) BeX2 (B) CaX2 (C) SrX2 (D) MgX2
Ans. (A)
1
Sol. Covalent character  polarisation  charge on cation and anion  size of anion 
Size of cation
BeX 2  MgX 2  CaX 2 SrX 2
Order of covalent character   
Size of cation  palarisation CC
75. Every atom or ion that forms an fcc unit cell is surrounded by
(A) Six octahedral voids and eight tetrahedral voids
(B) Eight octahedral voids and six tetrahedral voids
(C) Six octahedral voids and six tetrahedral voids
(D) Eight octahedral voids and four tetrahedral voids
Ans. (A)
Sol. in F.C.C. unit cell every atom or lon is surrounded
by 6 O.V. & 8 T.V.
76. Which of the following will respond to iodoform test ?
(A) (B)
(C) (D) All
Ans. (D)
77. The IUPAC symbol for the element with atomic number 119 would be :
(A) uue (B) uun (C) une (D) unh
Ans. (A)
Sol. 1 1 9
un un en
uue
78. The molal elevation constant of water = 0.52 K m–1. The boiling point of 1.0 molal aqueous KCl
solution (assuming complete dissociation of KCl) should be:
(A) 100.52ºC (B) 101.04ºC (C) 99.48ºC (D) 98.96ºC
Ans. (B)
Sol. Tb = i × Kb × m
Tb – Tb° = 2 × 0.52 × 1
Tb = 100 +1.04
Tb = 101.04 °C

79.

C5 H 8  AgNO3 
 white 
conc.KMnO 4
(CH 3 ) 2 CHCOOH
(X) (ammonical) ppt
Compound X will be :
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
Ans. (C)
80. Match the catalysts (Column I) with products (Column II).

Column I Column II
Catalyst Product
(A) V2O5 (i) Polythylene
(B) TiCl4/Al(Me)3 (ii) ethanal
(C) PdCl2 (iii) H2SO4
(D) Iron Oxide (iv) NH3
(A) (A)-(ii); (B)-(iii); (C)-(i); (D)-(iv) (B) (A)-(iii); (B)-(i); (C)-(ii); (D)-(iv)
(C) (A)-(iii); (B)-(iv); (C)-(i); (D)-(ii) (D) (A)-(iv); (B)-(iii); (C)-(ii); (D)-(i)
Ans. (B)
81. The gas evolved at the anode when K2SO4 (aq) is electrolyzed between Pt electrodes is :
(A) O2 (B) H2 (C) SO2 (D) SO3
Ans. (A)
Sol.
At Anode  'O2' will liberate
82. Product formed by oxymercurisation (HgSO4 + H2SO4) of 3-methyl - 1 - butyne at 70°C.
(A) (B)
(C) (D) + HCHO
Ans. (A)

83. The element having greatest difference between its first and second ionization energies, is:
(A) Sc (B) Ca (C) K (D) Ba
Ans. (C)
84. The reaction A(g) + 2B(g)  C(g) + D(g) is an elementary process. In an experiment, the initial
partial pressure of A & B are PA = 0.6 & PB = 0.8 atm, when PC = 0.2 atm the rate of reaction
relative to the intial rate is :
1 1 9 1
(A) (B) (C) (D)
48 24 16 6
Ans. (D)
Sol. A + 2B  C + D
(g) (g) (g) (g)
t = 0 0.6 0.8 0 0 ...(A)
t = t 0.6-0.2 0.8 –2 × 0.2 0.2 0.2
= 0.4 0.4 0.2 0.2 ...(B)
from Equation (A)
ri = K [0.6] [0.8]2
From Equation (B)
rf = K [0.4] [0.4]2
rf K[0.4][0.4]2

ri K[0.6][0.8]2
0.4  0.4  0.4 1
 
0.6  0.8  0.8 6
85.
II I
(CH3 )3 C CH  CH 2   (CH 3 )3 C  CH  CH 3  (CH 3 ) 2 C  C(CH 3 ) 2
|
Cl
path followed by the reaction.
(A) I is E1, II = E2 (B) I is E2, II = E1 (C) Both are E2 (D) Both are E1
Ans. (A)
SECTION –B
This section will have 15 questions. Candidate can choose to attempt any 10 question out
of these 15 question. First 10 attempted questions will be considered for marking.
86. The oxidation state of chromium in [Cr(PPh3)3(CO)3] is
(A) +3 (B) +8 (C) 0 (D) +5
Ans. (C)
Sol. [cr (PPh3]3 (CO)3]
x+0+0=0
x=0
87. The process of removing dissolved impurities from a colloidal system by means of diffusion through
suitable membrane under the Influence of an electric field is called :
(A) Electro-osmosis (B) Electrodialysis (C) Electrophoresis (D) Peptization
Ans. (B)

88. Mg CH 3C CH 2 Br
HC  C  CH 2 Br 
ether
 x  y
final product y will be :-
(A) CH CH2MgBr (B) CH  C CH2 CH2 C  C CH3
(C) CH3C  C CH2MgBr (D) CH3C  CCH3 & BrCH2 C  C MgBr
Ans. (B)
89. The correct statements among I to III regarding group 13 element oxides are,
(I) Boron trioxide is acidic
(II) Oxides of aluminium and gallium are amphoteric
(III) Oxides of indium and thallium are basic
(A) (II) and (III) only (B) (I) and (III) only
(C) (I) and (II) only (D) (I), (II) and (III)
Ans. (D)
90. How much will the reduction potential of a hydrogen electrode change when its solution initially at
pH = 0 is neutralised to pH = 7 ?
(A) Increase by 0.059 V (B) Decrease by 0.059 V
(C) Increase by 0.41 V (D) Decrease by 0.41
Ans. (D)
Sol. 2H+ + 2e–  H2
0.0591 PH
E  E  log 2 2
n (H )
+ + –7
P H1  0 or [H ] = 1, P H2  7 or [H ] = 10
0.0591 1
E1  log 2  0
2 (1)
0.0591 1
E2  log 7 2  0.41
2 (10 )
91. Which of the following is optically active :
H H
(A) CH3 C C C2 H5 (B)
OH OH
(C) (D) CH3 – CH2 COOH
Ans. (A)

92. The maximum number of possible oxidation states of actinoides are shown by :
(A) neptunium (Np) and plutonium (Pu) (B) nobelium (No) and lawrencium (Lr)
(C) actinium (Ac) and thorium (Th) (D) berkelium (Bk) and californium (Cf)
Ans. (A)
Sol. Np  (upto 7)
93. The statement that is INCORRECT about the interstitial compounds is :

(A) they have high melting points (B) they are chemically reactive
(C) they have metallic conductivity (D) they are very hard
Ans. (B)
 
  
 
 
94. CH 2  CH  CH  O  CH 2  CH  CH  O  CH 2  CH  CH  O  C H 2  CH  CH  O
(1) (2) (3) 4
among the canonical structures, which one is least stable ?

(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4
Ans. (D)
95. Among the following, the molecule expected to be stabilized by anion formation is:
C2, O2, NO, F2
(A) C2 (B) O2 (C) F2 (D) NO
Ans. (A)
96. The activation energy of a reaction can be determined from the slope of which of the following
graphs ?
ln K 1 T 1
(A) vs.T (B) ln Kvs. (C) vs. (D) lnK vs. T
T T ln K T
Ans. (B)
Sol. Arrhenius equation
Ea
K  A.e  Ea / RT  nk  nA 
RT
1
so, activation energy of reaction can be determined from the slope of ln Kvs.
T
97.
K 2Cr2O 7 CH 3OH(excess ) 2CH 3MgBr

H O
(A)  H
(B) 
H O
(C)
3 3
(C) is :
(A) (B) (C) (D)
Ans. (A)
98. The number of water molecules(s) not coordinated to copper ion directly in CuSO4.5H2O, is:
(A) 3 (B) 1 (C) 2 (D) 4
Ans. (B)

Sol.
99. Maximum deviation from ideal gas is expected from:

(A) NH3(g) (B) H2(g) (C) N2(g) (D) CH4(g)
Ans. (A)
Sol. NH3 will show maximum deviation from ideal gas due to Greater vanderwal constant (a) (because H-
bonding).

100.  
H


 (A)
Product (A) will be
(A) (B) (C) (D)
Ans. (D)

SUBJECT:- BOTANY
SECTION –A
Attempt All 35 Question
101. The Golgi complex participates in

(A) respiration in bacteria (B) formation of secretory vesicles
(C) fatty acid breakdown (D) activation of amino acid
102. There is no natural death in single-celled organisms like Amoeba and bacteria because
(A) they cannot reproduce sexually
(B) they reproduce by binary fission
(C) parental body is distributed among the offspring
(D) they are microscopic
103 Match the following columns

Column I Column II
A. Centriole 1. In foldings in mitochondria
B. Chlorophyll 2. Thylakoids
C. Cristae 3. Nucleic acids
D. Ribozymes 4. Basal body of cilia or flagella
Codes
A B C D
(A) 4 2 1 3
(B) 1 2 4 3
(C) 1 3 2 4
(D) 4 3 1 2
104. See the diagrams carefully and identify the different stages of mitosis (A-C) by choosing
appropriate options given below.
(A) A- Metaphase; B-Telophase; C- Interphase

(B) A- Telophase; B-Metaphase; C- Prophase
(C) A- Anaphase; B-Telophase; C- Interphase
(D) A- Telophase; B-Anaphase; C- Prophase
105. Find out the correct order of succession levels in xerarch.

(A) Lichen Moss stage Annual herb stage Perennial herb stage Shrub stage Forest
(B) Annual herb stage Perennial herb stage Lichen Moss stage Shrub stage Forest
(C) Shrub stage Forest Annual herb stage Perennial herb stage Lichen Moss stage
(D) Forest Shrub stage Annual herb stage Perennial herb stage Lichen Moss stage

106. Match the following columns.
Column Column II
(Plant life cycle) (plant groups)
A. Haplontic life cycle 1. Bryophytes and pteridophytes
B. Diplontic life cycle 2. Gymnosperms and angiosperms
C. Haplo-diplontic life cycle 3. Volvox, Spirogyra and Chlamydomonas
Codes
A B C
(A) 3 1 2
(B) 1 2 3
(C) 2 3 1
(D) 3 2 1
107. Where does TCA cycle takes place :–

(A) Cytoplasm (B) Inner membrane of mitochondria
(C) Outer membrane of mitochondria (D) Mitochondrial matrix
108. Study the following picture and the statements given below and choose the incorrect option.
(A) The above diagram shows the net movement of water from the dilute to concentrated
solution
(B) The two solutions are separated by a differentially Permeable membrane
(C) Water molecule strikes the membrane randomly on both the sides and passes through the
same
(D) Diffusion of water does not occur from its lower chemical potential to higher chemical
potential
109. The Avena curvature is used for bioassay of

(A) GA3 (B) IAA (C) Ethylene (D) ABA
110. Ethylene is used for

(A) retarding ripening of tomatoes (B) hastening of ripening of fruits
(C) slowing down ripening of apples (D) Both (B) and (C)
111. Choose the correct option in the given diagram of TS of dicot leaf to identify A to E.
(A) A- Phloem, B - Xylem, C- Palisade mesophyll, D-Spongy mesophyll, E-Stomata

(B) A- Phloem, B-Xylem, C- Palisade mesophyll, D-Spongy mesophyll. E- Hydathodes
(C) A- Xylem, B-Phloem, C- Palisade mesophyll, D-Spongy mesophyll, E- Stomata
(D) A- Xylem, B-Phloem, C- Palisade mesophyll, D-Spongy mesophyll, E- Hydathodes

112. Occurrence of more than one embryo is called
(A) polyembryony (B) embryony (C) parthenogenesis (D) fertilization

Column I Column II
(Layers of dicot/ monocot leaf) (Found in)
A. Endodermis 1. Companion cells
B. Stomata 2. Lenticels
C. Sieve tube 3. Palisade cells
D. Periderm 4. Passage cells
E. Mesophyll 5. Accessory cells
Codes
A B C D E
(A) 4 5 2 1 3
(B) 5 3 1 2 4
(C) 4 5 1 2 3
(D) 2 5 3 4 1
114 Match the following columns.

Column- I Column II
A Meristem 1. Photosynthesis, storage
B. Parenchyma 2 Mechanical support
C. Collenchyma 3. Actively dividing cells
D. Sclerenchyma 4. Stomata
E. Epidermal tissue 5. Sclereids
Codes
A B C D E
(A) 1 3 5 2 4
(B) 3 1 2 5 4
(C) 2 4 5 1 3
(D) 5 4 3 2 1
115. Identify the types of placentation in the given diagrams (A to E).
(A) A- Marginal, B- Axile, C- Parietal, D-Free-central, E-Basal

(B) A-Marginal, B-Basal, C- Parietal, D-Free-central, E-Axile
(C) A- Parietal, B-Basal, C- Marginal, D-Free-central, E- Axile
(D) A- Parietal, B-Axile, C- Marginal, D-Free-central. E-Basal

116. The genotypic ratio of a monohybrid cross in F2-generation is
(A) 3 : 1 (B) 1 : 2 : 1 (C) 2 : 1 : 1 (D) 9 : 3 : 3 : 1
117. Functional unit of protein synthesis is :–

(A) Dictyosome (B) Polysome (C) Peroxisome (D) Lysosome
118. Match the following columns

Column I Column II
A. Cristae 1. Flat membranous sacs in stroma
B. Cisternae 2. Infolding in mitochondria
C. Thylakoid 3. Disc-shaped sacs in Golgi apparatus
A B C
(A) 1 2 3
(B) 2 3 1
(C) 3 1 2
(D) 3 2 1
119. The phase of cell cycle in which the centriole duplicates in the cytoplasm?
(A) S– phase (B) G1– phase (C) G2–phase (D) G0–phase
120. Which of the following is correct for the figure given below
Number of homologous Number of chromatids Phase of cell divison

chromosomes
(A) 2 4 Telophase-I
(B) 4 8 Telophase
(C) 2 8 Telophase-II
(D) 4 2 Telophase
121. Incomplete dominance is similar to codominance in having identical

(A) phenotypic ratio (B) genotypic ratio
(C) Both (A) and (B) (D) None of the above

Column-I Column II
(Cell organelles) (Functions)
A. Lysosomes 1. Hydrolytic activity
B. Ribosomes 2. Formation of spindle
C. Smooth endoplasmic reticulum 3. Protein synthesis
D. Centriole 4. Steriod synhthesis

Codes
A B C D
(A) 2 1 3 4
(B) 1 3 4 2
(C) 1 4 3 2
(D) 4 3 1 2

Column I Column II
A. Natural ecosystem 1. Producer
B. Decomposer 2. Consumer
C. Primary productivity 3. Forest
D. Secondary productivity 4. Bacteria
Codes
A B C D
(A) 1 2 3 4
(B) 2 3 4 1
(C) 3 4 1 2
(D) 3 4 2 1
124. Animal husbandry and plant breeding programmes are the examples of
(A) reverse evolution (B) artificial selection
(C) mutation (D) natural selection
125. The plant-animal interaction often involve coevolution of the mutualists, so that
(A) the mutually beneficial system could be safeguarded against cheaters
(B) a given plant species can be pollinated only by its partner animal species and no other
species
(C) the animal utilises plant not only for oviposition but also to pollinate the plant
(D) All of the above
126. Match the organisms given in Column I to their functions given in Column II and Choose the
correct option.
Column I Column II
A. Thiobacillus 1. Free-living nitrogen-fixing cyanobacteria
B. Nitrosomonas 2. Denitrification
C. Nostoc 3. Free-living aerobic nitrogen –fixing bacteria
D. Azotobacter 4. Ammonia to nitrate
Codes
A B C D
(A) 2 4 1 3
(B) 4 1 3 2
(C) 3 4 1 2
(D) 3 2 4 1

127. On which strand of DNA, replication is continuous?
(A) 5 3 polarity strand (B) 35 polarity strand
(C) 3 2 polarity strand (D) 3 4 polarity strand
128 These plants flower and fruit only once in their life time and die after fruiting. These
are
(A) monocarpic plants (B) polycarpic plants
(C) vegetative plants (D) reproductive plants
129. Match the following columns .

Column I Column II
A. Chlorophyll-a 1. Blue-green
B. Chlorophyll-b 2. Yellow –green
C. Xanthophyll 3. Yellow
D. Carotenoid 4. Yellow to yellow –orange
Codes
A B C D
(A) 1 2 3 4
(B) 1 3 2 4
(C) 4 3 1 2
(D) 4 3 2 1
130. Identify A, B and C in the given citric acid cycle.
A B C
(A) GTP NADH2 FADH2
(B) FADH2 NADH2 GTP
(C) NADH2 FADH2 GTP
(D) CO2 NADH2 ADP
131. Match the following columns and choose the correct option from the codes given below.
Column I Column II
A. Pleiotropic gene 1. Both alleles express equally
B. Codominance. 2. Change in nucleotides
C. Epistasis 3. One gene shows multiple phenotypic expression
D. Mutation 4. Non-allelic gene inheritance

Codes
A B C D
(A) 1 2 3 4
(B) 2 3 4 1
(C) 3 1 4 2
(D) 1 3 4 2

Column I Column II
(Asexual reproduction types) (Examples)
A. Binary fission 1. Algae
B. Zoospore 2. Amoeba
C. Conidium 3. Hydra
D. Budding 4. Penicillium
E. Gemmules 5. Sponge
Codes
A B C D E
(A) 1 4 5 3 2
(B) 2 1 4 3 5
(C) 1 2 3 4 5
(D) 1 4 3 2 5
133. Identify the structures marked A to F in the given diagram.
(A) A–Asymmetric nucleus, B–Nucleus, C–Generative cell, D–Vegetative cell,

E–Pollen, F–Pollen tetrad
(B) A–Pollen tetrad, B–Pollen, C–Generative cell, D–Vegetative cell, E–Asymmetric
spindle, F–Nucleus
(C) A–Pollen tetrad, B–Vacuole, C–Nucleus, D–Asymmetric spindle, E–Vegetative cell,
F–Generative cell
(D) A–Vacuole, B–Nucleus, C–Pollen tetrad, D–Vegetative cell, E–Asymmetric spindle,
F–Generative cell
134 Which strand of DNA works as template strand?

(A) 5 – 3 polarity strand (B) 3 – 5 polarity strand
(C) Both (A) and (B) (D) None of these
135. During microsporogenesis, meiosis occurs in

(A) endothecium (B) microspore mother cells
(C) microspore tetrads (D) pollen grains

SECTION –B
136. Linkage groups are always present on the

(A) homologous chromosomes (B) analogous chromosomes
(C) sex chromosomes (D) heterologous chromosomes
137. A human male contains the karyotype of …A… and a human female has …B… chromosomes.
A B
(A) 44 + XX 44 + XY
(B) 44 + XY 44 + XX
(C) 44 + XO 44 + XX
(D) 44 + XX 44 + XO
138. Sickle-cell anemia is a classical example of

(A) frame-shift mutation (B) point mutation
(C) Both (A) and (B) (D) None of the above
139. The diagram shows an important concept in the genetic implication of DNA. Fill in the blanks
A to C.
(A) A–transcription, B–replication, C–James Watson

(B) A–translation, B–transcription, C–Erwin Chargaff
(C) A–transcription, B–translation, C–Francis Crick
(D) A–translation, B–extension, C–Rosalind Franklin
140. What will be the sequence of mRNA produced by the following stretch of DNA?
3'–ATGCATGCATGCATG–5' Template strand
5'–TACGTACGTACGTAC–3' Coding strand
(A) 3'–AUGCAUGCAUGCAUG–5'
(B) 5'–UACGUACGUACGUAC–3'
(C) 3'–UACGUACGUACGUAC–5'
(D) 5'–AUGCAUGCAUGCAUG–3'

Column-I Column II
A. Cuticle 1. Guard cells
B. Bulliform cells 2. Single layer
C. Stomata 3. Waxy layer
D. Epidermis 4. Empty colourless cell

A B C D
(A) 3 4 1 2
(B) 1 2 3 4
(C) 3 2 4 1
(D) 3 2 1 4
142. Thymine is also called

(A) 2 methyl uracil (B) 3 methyl uracil
(C) 4 methyl uracil (D) 5 methyl uracil
143. Which of the following options is correct with respect to the given figure showing different
zones of a typical root?
(A) Part B mainly helps in absorption of water

(B) Quiescent centre is present in part B
(C) Part A is most suitable for anatomical studies of root
(D) Differentiation of cells can be observed in part C
144. Population interactions

Organisms A Organisms B Names of interaction
+ + Mutualism
– – A
+ – Predation
+ – B
+ 0 Commensalism
– 0 C
‘+’ sign for beneficial interaction.
‘–’ sign for harmful (detrimental) interaction.
'0' sign for neutral interaction.
Find out what could be A, B and C.
(A) A–Amensalism, B–Parasitism, C–Competition
(B) A–Competition, B–Parasitism, C–Amensalism
(C) A–Competition, B–Amensalism, C–Parasitism
(D) A–Amensalism, B–Competition, C–Competition

145. Which group present in RNA nucleotide is very reactive and makes RNA liable and easily
degradable than DNA?
(A) 3–OH’ group at every nucleotide (B) 2–OH’ group on ribose sugar
(C) 3–OH’ group on ribose sugar (D) 4–OH’ group on ribose sugar
146 …… succession begins in area where natural biotic communities have been destroyed. The
most appropriate word to fill the blank is
(A) Primary (B) Secondary (C) Tertiary (D) Quaternary
147. On a logarithmic scale, the species-area relationship is a straight line described by the equation
log C log C
(A) log S = (B) Zog A=
log A logS
(C) los s = log C + Z log A (D) log S = log C – Z log A
148. In given diagram find out
A. Promoter site
B. Structural gene
C. Terminator site
D. Template strand
E. Coding strand
Codes
A B C D E
(A) 5 1 4 2 3
(B) 5 1 4 3 2
(C) 5 4 1 2 3
(D) 5 4 1 3 2
149. Flocs refer to

(A) Masses of bacteria associated with fungal filaments to form mesh-like structure
(B) Primary sludge formed in the ETP
(C) The remaining part of the sludge
(D) Biogases formed the fermentation of organic wastes
150. Haemophillic female marries normal male, the theoretical ratio to their offsprings regarding
haemophilla will be
(A) All off springs are haemophilic
(B) All girls are haemophillic
(C) All sons are haemophilic
(D) Half daughters and half sons are haemophillc

SUBJECT:- ZOOLOGY
SECTION –A
Attempt All 35 Question
151. Which one of the following diagram shows coelomate condition?
(A) A (B) B (C) C (D) none of these
152. Match the following genera with their respective phylum

Collum-I Column- II
A. Ophiura 1. Mollusca
B. Physalia 2. Platyhelminthes
C. Pinctada 3. Echinodermata
D. Planaria 4. Coelenterata
Codes
A B C D
(A) 4 1 3 2
(B) 3 4 1 2
(C) l 3 4 2
(D) 3 4 2 1
153 Which of the following are considered as cellular barrier of the body?
(A) Monocytes (B) Neutrophils
(C) Macrophages (D) All of these

Columns I Column II
(Cnidarian) (Common names)
A. Pennatula 1. Brain coral
B. Meandrina 2. Sea fan
C. gorgonian 3. Sea pen
D. Adamsia 4. Sea anemone
Codes
A B C D
(A) 3 1 2 4
(B) 1 3 2 4
(C) 2 4 1 3
(D) 2 3 4 1

Column I Column II
(Connective tissues) (Location)
A. Smooth muscles 1. Biceps
B. Cardiac muscles 2. Gall bladder
C. Skeletal muscles 3. Osseous tissues
D. Bones 4. Myocardium
Codes
A B C D
(A) 2 4 1 3
(B) 3 4 2 1
(C) 1 2 3 4
(D) 4 3 2 1
156. Which form of fats is absorbed into the intestinal cells?

(A) Micelles (B) Chylomicrons
(C) Fatty acids (D) Both (A) and (B)
157. Identify A –F in the given diagram of human heart and choose the correct option.
(A) A- Vena cava, B-Right atrium, C- Left atrium, D-Right ventricle, E- left ventricle,
F- Interventricular septum
(B) A- Vena cava, B-Right atrium, C- Right ventricle, D-Left ventricle, E-Left atrium,
(C) A- Vena cava, B-Right atrium, C- Right ventricle, D-Left atrium, E-left ventricle,
F-Interventricular septum
(D) A- Vena cava, B-Left atrium, C- Right ventricle, D-Left ventricle, E- Right atrium,
158. Match the following cell structures with their characteristic features.
Column I Column II
A. Tight junctions 1. Cement neighbouring cells together to form sheet
B. Adhering junctions 2. Transmit information through chemical to another cells
C. Gap junctions 3. Establish a barrier to prevent leakage of fluid across epithelia
cells
D. Synaptic junctions 4. Cytoplasmic channels to facilitate communication between
adjacent cells
A B C D
(A) 2 4 1 3
(B) 4 2 1 3
(C) 3 1 4 2
(D) 4 3 1 2

159. First cell produced on earth is
(A) Protobiont (B) Protozoa (C) Metazoa (D) None of these
160. The rib cage is formed by

(A) thoracic vertebrae (B) ribs
(C) sternum (D) All of these
161. The part of human eye which contain blood vessels and appear bluish in colour is
(A) sclera (B) choroid (C) ciliary body (D) cornea
162 In a DNA strand, nitrogenous bases pair with each other with the help of
(A) hydrogen bond (B) van der Waals' interaction
(C) covalent bond (D) ionic bond
163 Coiled portion of the labyrinth is called

(A) cochlea (B) eardrum (C) pinna (D) ear canal

Column I Column II
(Types of WBCs) (Functions)
A. Basophils 1. Phagocytes
B. Neutrophils 2. Secrete histamine, serotonin and heparin
C. Eosinophils 3. Allergic reaction
D. Lymphocytes 4. Immunity
A B C D
(A) 1 2 3 4
(B) 2 1 3 4
(C) 1 4 2 3
(D) 4 1 2 3
165. The Leydig or interstitial cells found in the intertubular spaces produce a group of hormones
called
(A) LH and FSH (B) Gonadotropins
(C) Androgens (D) All of the above
166. The transparent lens in the human eye is held in its place by
(A) smooth muscles attached to the iris
(B) Ligaments attached to the iris
(C) ligaments attached to the ciliary body
(D) smooth muscles attached to the ciliary body
167. Choose the incorrect pair.

(A) Facial bones – made up of 14 skeletal elements
(B) Sacral Vertebrae - One and fused
(C) Vertebrochondral ribs - False ribs (8th, 9th, 10th)
(D) Hinge joint - Adjacent lumbar vertebrae

168. Gout is caused due to the accumulation of
(A) glucose (B) uric acid crystals (C) bile (D) Ammonia
169. The steroid hormones, oestrogen and progesterone are secreted by which part/structure of
ovary?
(A) Ova and Leydig cells, respectively
(B) Ovarian follicle and corpus luteum, respectively
(C) Corpus luteum and corpus albicans, respectively
(D) Graafian follicle and ova, respectively
170. The peptide hormone, erythropoietin

(A) stimulates erythropoiesis (B) inhibits erythropoiesis
(C) inhibits platelet formation (D) stimulates platelet formation
171. Match the Column I (the parts of the human brain) with Column II (the functions) and identify
the correct choice from the given option.
Column I Column II
(Parts of brain) (Function)
A. Cerebrum 1. Controls the pituitary
B. Cerebellum 2. Controls vision and hearing
C. Hypothalamus 3. Maintains body posture
D. Midbrain 4. Site of intelligence
Codes
A B C D
(A) 3 4 2 1
(B) 4 3 2 1
(C) 3 4 1 2
(D) 4 3 1 2
172. One of the following is not a common disorder associated with digestive system.
(A) Tetanus (B) Diarrhoea (C) Jaundice (D) Dysentery
173. Choose the incorrect pair.

Organ Time of development in foetus
(A) Heart After one month of pregnancy
(B) Limbs and digits By the end of second month
(C) External genital organs By the end of 24 weeks (second trimester)
(D) First movement of foetus During the fifth month

Column I Column II
(Hormones) (Functions)
A. FSH 1. Prepares endometrium wall for implantation
B. LH 2. Develops female secondary sexual characters
C. Progesterone 3. Maturation of Graafian follicle
D. Oestrogen 4. Maintenance of corpus luteum

Codes
A B C D
(A) 3 4 1 2
(B) 4 3 2 1
(C) 4 1 2 3
(D) 3 1 2 4
175. Match the following hormones with the respective disease.

Column I Column II
A. Insulin l. Addison's disease
B. Thyroxine 2. Diabetes insipidus
C. Corticoids 3. Acromegaly
D. Growth hormone 4. Goitre
5. Diabetes mellitus
Codes
A B C D
(A) 2 4 3 1
(B) 5 4 1 3
(C) 2 4 1 3
(D) 5 1 2 3
176. Which of the following statements are false?

I. Abortions could happen spontaneously too.
II. Oral pills are very popular contraceptives among the rural women.
III. Removal of gonads can be considered as a contraceptive option.
IV. Sex education is necessary in schools.
V. Amniocentesis for sex-determination is banned in our country.
Correct option is
(A) I, II and III (B) II, III and IV (C) III, IV and V (D) II and III
177. Identify A, B and C in the figure given below
(A) A–Secondary oocyte, B–Oogonia, C–Primary oocyte

(B) A–Oogonia, B–Primary oocyte, C–Secondary oocyte
(C) A–Secondary oocyte, B–Primary oocyte, C–Oogonia
(D) A–Oogonia, B–Secondary oocyte, C–Primary oocyte

Column I Column II
A. Saheli 1. Intra uterine device
B. Diaphragms 2. Prevent implantation
C. Spermicides 3. Prevent sperms from reaching the cervix
D. Lippes loop 4. Sperm killing agent
Codes
A B C D
(A) 1 2 4 3
(B) 2 3 4 1
(C) 2 3 1 4
(D) 4 3 2 1
179. Given below the diagrammatic representation of lymph nodes.
Label A, B and C.
(A) A–Lymph nodes, B–Thymus, C–Lymphatic vessels
(B) A–Lymphatic vessels, B–Thyroid, C–Lymph nodes
(C) A–Tonsils, B–Peyer’s patchs, C–Lymphatic vessels
(D) A–Tonsils, B–Thymus, C–Peyer’s patches
180. Hormones secreted by the placenta to maintain pregnancy are

(A) hCG, hPL, progestogens, oestrogens
(B) hCG, hPL, oestrogens, relaxin, oxytocin
(C) hCG, hPL, progestogens, prolactin
(D) hCG, progestogens, oestrogens, glucocorticoids
181. Select the correct statements.

I. The word AIDS stands for Acquired Immuno Deficiency Syndrome. This means deficiency
of immune system, acquired during the lifetime of an individual.
II. AIDS was first reported in 1981 and the word ‘syndrome’ in this, means a group of
symptoms.
III. There is always a time-lag between the infection and appearance of AIDS symptoms, i.e.
vary from a few months to many years (usually 5-10 years).
IV. During HIV infection, the macrophages cells of body continues produce virus and in this
way acts like a HIV factory.
(A) I, II and III (B) I, III and IV (C) I, and IV (D) All of these

182. Read the following statements and select the correct statements.
I. Subsequent encounter with the same pathogen for the second time elicits a highly
intensified secondary immune response.
II. The vaccines generate Band T-cells that recognise the pathogen quickly on subsequent
exposure and overwhelm the invaders with massive production of antibodies.
(A) Both statements I and II are correct
(B) Statement I is correct, but II is incorrect
(C) Statement I is incorrect, but II is correct
(D) Both statements I and II are incorrect
183. Primers are

(A) small chemically synthesised oligonucleotides of about 10-18 nucleotides that are
complementary to the region of template DNA
(B) chemically synthesised oligonucleotides of about 10-18 nucleotides that are not
complementary to the region of template DNA
(C) the double-stranded DNA that need to be amplified
(D) specific sequences present on recombinant DNA
184. Full form of PMNL is

(A) Poly Morpho-Nuclear Leucocytes (B) Para Morpho-Nuclear Lymphocytes
(C) Penta Morpho-Nuclear Leucocytes (D) Poly Morpho-Nuclear Lymphocytes
185. The process of separation and purification of expressed protein before marketing is called
(A) upstream processing (B) downstream processing
(C) bioprocessing (D) post-production processing
SECTION –B

Column I Column II
A. Rosie 1. Emphysema
B. Biopiracy 2. Right granted for biological entities
C. Biopatent 3. Unauthorised use of biological products and processes
D. a-1-antitrypsin 4. Transgenic cow
Codes
A B C D
(A) 4 3 2 1
(B) 3 2 1 4
(C) 2 1 4 3
(D) 4 1 3 2

Column I Column II
A. Golden rice 1. Armyworm
B. Bt toxin 2. Rich in vitamin-A
C. RNAi 3. Cry protein
D. Lepidopterans 4. Gene silencing
Codes
A B C D
(A) 2 3 4 1
(B) 3 4 1 2
(C) 4 1 2 3
(D) 2 1 3 4
188. Gonadotropin releasing hormone is transferred to anterior pituitary by

(A) Left coronary artery (B) Hypophyseal portal veins
(C) Axons of neurosecretory cells (D) Nuclei of hypothalamus

Column I Column II
(Scientific names) (Common names)
A. Branchiostoma 1. Hagfish
B. Petromyzon 2. Lamprey
C. Trygon 3. Sting ray
D. Myxine 4. Ascidia
5. Amphioxus
Codes
A B C D
(A) 1 5 2 4
(B) 3 1 2 5
(C) 5 4 1 2
(D) 5 2 3 1
190. The source of complementary RNA for RNA interference as a means of cellular defence in
eukaryotic organism is
(A) an infection by bacteria having RNA genome
(B) an infection by viruses having RNA genome
(C) mobile genetic elements that replicate via an RNA intermediate
(D) Both (B) and (C)
191. Allopatric speciation is due to

(A) Mutation
(B) Geographical separation of populations
(C) Migration of member of a species form one to other populations
(D) Hybridization between closely related species

192. Passive immunity is provided through
(A) Exogenous supply of antigens (B) Exogenous supply of antibodies
(C) Endogenous supply of antigens (D) Endogenous supply of antibodies
193. Interferon is protein that

(A) Inactivates a virus
(B) Protects unattacked cells from virus
(C) Prevents viruses from taking over the cellular machinary
(D) All the above
194 Mumps is viral disease that causes inflammation of

(A) Parotid gland (B)Sublingual gland
(C)Submaxillary gland (D) Infra-orbital gland
195. Fungi belonging to genera–Microsporum, Trichophyton and Epidermophyton are responsible

for
(A) ringworm infection (B) skin allergy
(C) amoebiasis (D) measles
196. Crystals of Bt toxin produced by some bacteria do not kill the bacteria themselves because
(A) bacteria are resistant to toxin (B) toxin is immature
(C) toxin is inactive (D) bacteria enclose toxin in a special sac
197. Homo erectus is the zoological name of

(A) Cro-Magnon Man (B) Peking man
(C) Nut cracker man (D) Neanderthal man
198. During which phase of the pregnancy MTP is safe?

(A) 1st trimester (B) 2nd trimester (C) 3rd trimester (D) 4th trimester

Column I Column II
(Features) (Related part in nephron)
A. Delivers blood to glomerulus 1. Henle’s loop
B. Carries urine to pelvis 2. Renal artery
C. Collects filtrate from bowman’s capsule 3. Collecting duct
D. Extension of PCT 4. Proximal convoluted tubules
A B C D
(A) 4 3 2 1
(B) 1 2 3 4
(C) 2 3 4 1
(D) 2 3 1 4
200. In the given structure 'A' represents
(A) ester bond (B) ionic bond (C) phosphate bond (D) glycosidic bond

Answer Key
101. (B) 102. (C) 103 (A) 104. (A) 105. (A) 106. (D) 107. (D)
108. (C) 109. (B) 110. (B) 111. (C) 112. (A) 113. (C) 114 (B)
115. (A) 116. (B) 117. (B) 118. (B) 119. (A) 120. (A) 121. (C)
122. (B) 123. (C) 124. (B) 125. (D) 126. (A) 127. (B) 128 (A)
129. (A) 130. (C) 131. (C) 132. (B) 133. (C) 134 (B) 135. (B)
136. (A) 137. (B) 138. (B) 139. (C) 140. (B) 141. (A) 142. (D)
143. (C) 144. (B) 145. (B) 146 (B) 147. (C) 148. (C) 149. (A)
150. (C) 151. (A) 152. (B) 153 (D) 154. (A) 155. (A) 156. (A)
157. (B) 158. (C) 159. (A) 160. (D) 161. (B) 162 (A) 163 (A)
164. (B) 165. (C) 166. (C) 167. (D) 168. (B) 169. (B) 170. (A)
171. (D) 172. (A) 173. (C) 174. (A) 175. (B) 176. (D) 177. (B)
178. (B) 179. (A) 180. (A) 181. (D) 182. (A) 183. (A) 184. (A)
185. (B) 186. (A) 187. (A) 188. (B) 189. (D) 190. (D) 191. (B)
192. (B) 193. (B) 194 (A) 195. (A) 196. (C) 197. (B) 198. (A)
199. (C) 200. (A)


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3. The path followed by a body projected along y axis is given as by y  3x  1/2  x 2 . If

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(A) 30 J (B) 15 J (C) 25 J (D) 20 J

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9. If ratio of maximum to minimum resultant intensities of two intensities wave travelling in

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(A) t1 = t2 (B) t1 < t2 (C) t1 = 4t2 (D) t1 = 2t2

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18. An iron ball is heated. The percentage increase will be largest in

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31. The phenomenon of interference in light was studied first by:

32. Two capacitors of capacity C1 and C2 are connected as shown in figure.

Now the switch is closed. Calculate the charge on each capacitor.

33. Which of the following is not the unit of energy?

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36. The equation of stationary wave along a stretched string is given by :

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(A) OR (B) NAND (C) AND (D) NOR

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(A) 4, 2 (B) 2, 4 (C) 2, 2 (D) 1, 4

47. P-type semiconductor is formed when

48. Find resistance of carbon resistor if rings has colours

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L  R charge = const. size   HE 

54. In the electrochemical cell :

(CH2OH)4 C  (CH2OH)3 CCOONa

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the action of hot concentration NaOH ?

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[(NH3)6]3+ Ru3+ 4d5 n=1

[(NH3)6]2+ Cr2+ 3d4 n=2

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66. NH3 + OCl–  N2H4 + Cl–

2NH3 + OCl–  N2H4 + Cl– + H2O

68. The lathanide ion that would show colour is :

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71. The correct statement about ICl5 and ICl4– is :

73. How glucose is related with fructose ?

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76. Which of the following will respond to iodoform test ?

(C) (D) All

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80. Match the catalysts (Column I) with products (Column II).

At Anode  'O2' will liberate

82. Product formed by oxymercurisation (HgSO4 + H2SO4) of 3-methyl - 1 - butyne at 70°C.

(C) (D) + HCHO

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(C) (D) CH3 – CH2 COOH

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93. The statement that is INCORRECT about the interstitial compounds is :

among the canonical structures, which one is least stable ?

(A) (B) (C) (D)

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