Kcse 2023 Joint Mocks s1

KCSE JOINT MOCK EXAM
SERIES 1-2023
ALL SUBJECTS
Compilation of First Trial Joint mock examinations for select National
Schools in the Republic of Kenya.
SUBJECTS COMPILED;
Mathematics, English, Kiswahili, Biology, Chemistry, Physics, CRE, Geography,
History, Business Studies, Agriculture, Homescience, IRE &Computer Studies.
SERIES 1
For Marking Schemes

Mr Isaboke 0746-222-000 /0742-999-000
MWALIMU CONSULTANCY
2023 SERIES 1 TRIAL
BIOLOGY
231/1
PAPER 1 (THEORY)
TIME: 2 HOURS
NAME……………………………………………………………………………………….
SCHOOL……………………………………………… SIGN………………………..
INDEX NO……………………………………………. ADM NO……………………
Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education.
INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES
a) Write your name and index number in the spaces provided above
b) Sign and write the date of the examination in the spaces provided above.
c) Answer ALL questions in the spaces provided.
EXAMINER’S USE ONLY

QUESTION MAXIMUM SCORE CANDIDATE’S SCORE
1 - 26 80
FOR MARKING SCHEMES CONTACT 0746-222-000 / 0742-999-000

SECTION A
Attempt All the Questions
1. Some form one students wanted to collect the following animals for study in the laboratory. State
the suitable apparatus they should use.
i) Flying insects (1 mark)
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ii) Crawling stinging insects (1 mark)

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iii) Small animals from tree barks (1 mark)

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2. The diagram below represents a mammalian vertebra.
(a) Identify the vertebra represented above. (1mk)

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(b) Give a reason for your answer. (1mk)

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3. (a) Explain the role of oxygen in Active transport (1mk)

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(b) Name two processes that depend on Active transport in animals (2mks)
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4. Explain how sunken stomata lower the rate of transpiration (2mks)

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5. State how xylem vessel is adapted to its function (3mks)

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6). a) Define the term immunity. (1mk)

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b) Distinguish between natural immunity and acquired immunity. (1mk)
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c) Identify one immunizable disease in Kenya. (1mk)

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7. State two adaptations of the alveolus to its functions. (2mks)

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(a) Why may an asthmatic patient produce a wheezing sound during breathing? (1mk)
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(b) What is the significance of the cartilage found in the human trachea being incomplete (c- shaped
rings) (1mk)
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8. Define the following terms;

(i) Inter specific competition. (1mk)
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(ii) Carrying capacity (1mk)
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9. Suggest two methods that can be used to determine that type of food eaten by animals.(2mks)
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10. (a)State one significance of genetics counseling (1mk)

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(b) Part of a strand of DNA molecules was found to have the following sequence
A-T-C-G-G-G-A-T-C-T.
What is the sequence?
(i) Of the complementary strand? (1mk)
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(ii) On a m- RNA strand copied (1mk)
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11). The paddles of whales and the fins of fish adapt these organisms to aquatic habitats.
a) Name the evolutionary process that may have given rise to these structures. (1mk)
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b) What is the name given to such structures? (1mk)

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c) Give two examples of vestigial organs in man. (2mk)

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12). An experiment was set to investigate a certain aspect of response. A seedling was put on a
horizontal position as shown in figure M below. After 24 hours, the set up was as shown in figure
N.
M
N
a) Name the response exhibited. (1mk)

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b) Explain the curvature of the shoot upwards. (3mk)
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13.The following is an equation representing a type of respiration
C6H12O6 2C2H5OH + 2CO2 + Energy
a) Identify the type of respiration. (1mk)

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b) Suggest one industrial application of the process shown in the equation above (1mk)
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14.

a) Name the bones labeled C and D. (2 mark)
C-
D-
b) What happens to structure A and B as the arm is straightened (1 mark)

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15. Below is a graphical representation of the effects of different concentration of auxins on shoot
and root growth. Study it carefully and then answer the questions that follow.
Auxin concentration (ppm)

(a)Identify any two conclusions that can be drawn from the graph. (2mks)
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(b)Name the growth hormone responsible for ripening of fruits. (1mk)

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16. The illustration below shows a transverse section through a mammalian kidney.
(a) Name the structures labelled X and Y.

X (1mk)
Y (1mk)
(b) State the process in Q that leads to the formation of glomerular filtrate. (1mk)
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17. State three differences in composition between umbilical artery and umbilical vein. (3 marks)
Umbilical vein Umbilical artery

18. (a)What is meant by the term taxonomy? (1mk)
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(b)When are two organisms considered to belong to the same species. (2mks)
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19).The diagram below shows part of alimentary canal of a mammal
(i)Name the parts labeled A and C (2mks)

A–
C–
(ii)State the function of the part labeled B (1mk)

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20). The graph below shows the relationship between body temperatures and external temperatures in
a human being and a snake. Study it and answer questions that follow.
a) What happens to the temperature of each organism as the external temperature increases.(2 marks)
Human
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Snake
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b) Humans are described as homoithermic. State the advantage of this condition. (2marks)
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21. a)Name two products of light stage during photosynthesis. (2 marks)
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b) State three differences between light stage and dark stage of photosynthesis. (3 marks)
Light Dark
22.The diagram below represents a cell organelle.
A D
a) Identify the organelle. (1 mark)
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b) Name the part labelled B (1 mark)

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c) State the functions of the part labelled A (1 mark)

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23 .The diagram below represents a plant cell that was subjected to a certain treatment.
At the start At the end of the experiment
a) Account for the shape of the cell at the end of the experiment. (2 marks)
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b) Draw a diagram to illustrate how an animal cell would appear if subjected to the same treatment.
(1 marks)
24.a)Give a reason why each of the following steps are followed when preparing cross sections of a
leaf for examination under a microscope.
i) Cutting thin sections. (1 mark)
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ii) Placing the sections in water. (1 mark)

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25.a ) Name two tissues in plants that provide mechanical support. (2 marks)
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b. Name the types of joints formed by each of the following pairs of bones:
i) Axis and atlas. (1 mark)
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ii) Humerus with clavicle and scapula. (1mk)

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26.) The diagram below represents a simple reflex ark
(a)Name the parts labeled A, B and C (3mks)

A–
B—
C—
(b)What is the role of part A (1mk)

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2023 SERIES 1 TRIAL
BIOLOGY
231/2
PAPER 2 (THEORY)
TIME: 2 HOURS
NAME……………………………………………………………………………………….
SCHOOL……………………………………………… SIGN………………………..
INDEX NO……………………………………………. ADM NO……………………
INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES.
1. Write your name and admission number in the spaces provided
2. Sign and write the date of examination in the spaces provided above
3. this paper consist of TWO section A and B
4. Answer ALL the questions in section A in the spaces provided
5. In section B answer question 6 (compulsory and either question 7 or 8 in the spaces provided
after question 8.
FOR EXAMINERS USE ONLY:
SECTION QUESTION MAX.SCORE CANDIDATES SCORE
A 1 8
2 8
3 8
4 8
5 8
B 6 20
7 20
8 20
TOTAL 80

1. In human beings, baldness is controlled by a dominant gene N located on the Y chromosome
a) Work out a cross between a bald headed man and his wife (4mks)
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b) i) What is the probability of the couple getting girls who would develop baldness (1mrk)
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ii) Give a reason for your answer in b i) above. (1mk)

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c.) Apart from the above trait name two other sex linked traits in human beings associated with Y
chromosome. (2mks)
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2. The diagram below shows structures of the bat wing and human arm.
Wing membrane

(a) These structures are thought to have same ancestral origin. State one structural similarity and
one adaptational difference between the two.
(i) Structural similarity. (1mk)

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(ii) Adaptation difference. (2mks)

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(b) Give two other examples of structures in nature that show the type of evolution as in (a) above.
(2mks)
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(c) Distinguish between the terms ‘chemical evolution’ and ‘organic evolution’. (2mks)
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(d) What is the study of fossils called? (1mk)

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3. The diagram below shows a synapse.
a) Indicate the direction of the impulse on the diagram. (1 mark)
b) Label D and E (2 marks)

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c) Compare a simple reflex action with a conditioned reflex action. (3 marks)

Simple reflex Conditioned reflex
d) State two functions of hormones in animals. (2 marks)

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4. Science club members designed an experiment as shown below. Examine it.
The set up was kept at room temperature for one week.

(a) What was the aim of the experiment? (1mark)
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(b) What observation was made after one week.in A and B (2marks)
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(c) (i) Explain the role of water in seed germination. (3marks)

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d.) What was the role of pyrogallic acid in the above set up? (1mk)
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e.) Name one internal factor necessary for seed germination (1mk)
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5. The diagram below represents a certain organism observed by a student in an ecological tour.
a) Name the parts labeled A and C ` (2mks)

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b) Name the division to which the organism belongs (1mk)

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c) Give two observable reasons for your answer in (b) above (2mks)
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d) Define the following terms (1mk)

i) Taxa
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ii) Binomial nomenclature (1mk)

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e) Give the name of the following leaf form observed in plants (1mk)
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SECTION B.
6. An experiment was carried out to investigate the effect of temperature on the rate of reaction
catalyzed by an enzyme. The results are shown in the table below
Temperature (0C) Rate of reaction in mg of products per unit

time
5 0.2
10 0.5
15 0.8
20 1.1
25 1.5
30 2.1
35 3.0
40 3.7
45 3.4
50 2.8
55 2.1
60 1.1

a). On the grid provided draw a graph of rate of reaction against temperature (6 mks)
b). When was the rate of reaction 2.6 mg of product per unit time? (2 mks)
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(c) Account for the shape of the graph between
(i) 50 C and 400 C ( 2 mks)
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(ii) 450 C and 600C (3 mks)

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(d) Other than temperature name two ways in which the rate of reaction between 50C and 400C could
be increased (2 mks)
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(e) (i) Name one digestive enzymes in the human body which works best in acidic condition
(1 mk)
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(ii) How is the acidic condition for the enzyme named in (e) (i) above attained? (2 mks)
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(f) The acidic conditions in (e) (ii) above is later neutralized
(i) Where does the neutralization take place? (1mk)
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ii) Name the substance responsible for neutralization (1 mk)

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7. Explain the role of human skin in:

a) Thermo- regulation. (14mks)
b) Protection (6mks)
8. (a) State the structural adaptation of the insects tracheal system (10 marks)
(b) Describe how various hormones influence the menstrual cycle. (10 marks)

2023 SERIES 1 TRIAL
BIOLOGY
231/3
PAPER 3 (PRACTICAL)
TIME: 1¾ HOURS
SCHOOL……………………………………………… SIGN………………………..
CONFIDENTIAL
a) -8cm long visking tubing
b) -50ml of distilled water (labelled solution X) in a 100ml beaker.
c) -80ml of 10% Glucose solution (labelled solution Y) in a 100ml beaker.
d) -2 pieces of thread, 30cm each.
e) -Benedict’s solution.
f) -Means of heating
g) -Two test tubes.
h) -Two droppers.

2023 SERIES 1 TRIAL
BIOLOGY
231/3
PAPER 3 (PRACTICAL)
TIME: 1¾ HOURS
NAME……………………………………………………………………………………….
SCHOOL……………………………………………… SIGN………………………..
INDEX NO……………………………………………. ADM NO……………………
231/3
BIOLOGY
PAPER 3
PRACTICAL
𝟏
TIME: 𝟐 𝟒 𝐇𝐎𝐔𝐑𝐒
Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education
1. Write your name and index number in the spaces provided above
2. Sign and write the date of the examination in the spaces provided above.
3. Answer ALL questions in the spaces provided.

QUESTIONS
1. a.) Carryout food tests for solution Y and X using the reagents provided. (6mks)
Solution Food substance Procedure Observation Conclusion

Solution X
Solution Y

b.) Tie one side of the visking tubing with one of the threads provided. Pour 5ml of solution X in the
visking tubing and tie the other end with the remaining piece of thread. Immerse the visking
tubing in solution Y in the beaker and leave the set up for 20 minutes. After 20 minutes perform
food test using the solution in the visking tubing and solution in the beaker and record your result
in the table below. (3mks)
Solution Food procedure observation conclusion
substance
Solution in
visking
tubing
Solution in
the
beaker
c.) Which process was being investigated. (1mk)

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d.) Account for the results obtained (3mks)
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e. State two importances of the process above in living organisms. (2mk)

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2. Study the diagrams set A1, set E1, set M1 and set B carefully and answer the questions below

(a) State the conditions under which each set up was grown. (3mks)
Set A1
Set E1
Set B
(b) (i) Name the phenomenon exhibited by seedlings in set E1 (1mk)

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(ii) Give a reason why plants exhibit the phenomenon named in (b) (i) above (1mk)
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(c) (i) Name the response exhibited by the seedlings in set B. (1mk)
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(ii) Explain how the response named in (c) (i) above occurred (2mks)
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(d) (i) State the type of germination exhibited by seedlings in set A1 and set M1. (2mks)
Set A1
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Set M1
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(ii) Give a reason for your answer in (d) (i) above (2mks)
Set A1
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Set M1
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(iii) State the mode of dispersal in set A above when mature. (1 mk)
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(iv) Name the type of fruit formed by M1 on maturity. (1 mk)
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3. Study the photographs below and hence answer the questions that follow

(i) To which phylum does organisms x,y and z belong to. (1 mark)
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(ii) Name the classes to which X, Y and Z belongs to. (3 marks)

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(iii) Give two important economic roles of specimen Y. (2 marks)

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(iv) Give one harmful effect of specimen X to animals. (1 mark)

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(v) With reasons identify two modes of locomotion of specimen Y . (4 marks)

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2023 SERIES 1 TRIAL
CHEMISTRY
233/1
PAPER 1 (THEORY)
TIME: 2 HOURS
NAME……………………………………………………………………………………….
SCHOOL……………………………………………… SIGN………………………..
INDEX NO……………………………………………. ADM NO……………………
(a) Write your name and index number in the spaces provided above.
(b) Sign and write the date of examination in the spaces provided above.
(c) Answer ALL the questions in the spaces provided in the question paper.
(d) KNEC Mathematical tables and electronic calculators may be used for calculations.
FOR EXAMINERS’ USE ONLY.

Questions Max-score Candidates score
1-31 80

Answer ALL the questions in the spaces provided
1. Study the set-up shown below and use it to answer the questions that follow.
Copper oxide
Liquid droplets
Flame
Dry hydrogen
gas
Point(s)
Heat Anhydrous cobalt II

Chloride
Clamp
(a) State the observations made at the end of the experiment on:
(i) The cobalt II chloride papers. (1 mark)
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(ii) Copper II oxide powder. (1 mark)

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(b) (i) Why was excess hydrogen ignited? (1 mark)

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(ii) Write a fully balanced equation for the reaction occurring at the flame at point(s).(1 mark)
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2. A student used the reaction between steam and heated magnesium metal to collect a dry sample
of hydrogen gas. Complete the diagram to collect the gas. (3 marks)
Write the equation for the reaction producing the hydrogen gas in the above reaction. (1 mk)
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3. The following diagram represents a set-up showing how changes of state from solid to liquid
could be investigated.
Q
P
Boiling tube
Beaker Water
Heat
(a) Identify the apparatus P and Q and state their uses. (2 marks)
P -
Q -

4. (a) Define the term “Gay Lussac’s law”. (1 mark)
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(b) When 100cm3 of gaseous hydrocarbon (Cx Hy) burn in 400cm3 of oxygen,
100cm3 of oxygen is unused, 200cm3 of steam are formed. Deduce the equation for the reaction and
the formula of the hydrocarbon. (2 marks)
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5. If it takes 30 seconds for 100cm3 of carbon (IV) oxide to diffuse across a porous plate. How long
will it take 150cm3 of nitrogen (IV) oxide to diffuse across the same plate under similar
conditions? (C = 12.0, N = 14.0, O = 16.0) (2 marks)
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6. Define Charles’ law. (1 mark)

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7. The table below shows the solubility of a salt at various temperatures.

Temperature oC Solubility (g/100g water)
0 36
40 30
80 25
100 22
120 20

(a) Define the term fractional crystallization. (1 mark)
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(b) A saturated solution of the salt at 400C was heated to 1000C. State and explain the observation
made. (2 marks)
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(c) Calculate the mass of salt formed when a saturated solution of the salt at 00C is placed in a water
bath maintained at 1000C. (1 mark)
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8. The structures below are a representation of cleansing agents M and N.
R 𝑂𝑆𝑂3− 𝑁𝑎+ 𝑅 − 𝐶𝑂𝑂 − 𝑁𝑎+
M N
(i) Identify the agents. (1 mark)

M -
N -
(ii) Write an equation for the compound formed when agent N is used with water containing calcium
nitrate salt. (1 mark)
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(iii) A water engineer analyzed water from a borehole and found out that it contained
magnesium chloride impurities. State any two methods used to make the water suitable for
washing using agent N. (1 mark)
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9. Calculate the percentage abundance of two other isotopes of element A with three isotopes, (30,
32, 35). Given that the R.A.M is 30.5 and percentage abundance of 35 is 5%. (2 marks)
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10. An element Z has ionic configuration of 𝑍 + − 2.8. The element is burned in excess oxygen and
the product is then added to water. Write two possible equation for the reactions which took
place. (2 marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
11. Phosphorus (III) oxide has a lower melting point than calcium chloride. Explain. (2 marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
12. Describe how you would prepare silver carbonate starting with silver. (3 marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

13. Use the table below to determine the enthalpy change for the reaction between hydrogen and
chlorine. (3 marks)
Bond Bond Energy kJ/mole
H–H 435
H – Cl 431
Cl – Cl 244
14. Explain why hydrogen sulphide cannot be used as a fuel, though it can burn to give out useful
heat energy. (1 mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
15. (a) Explain why cryolite is added to aluminium oxide before electrolysis. (1 mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(b) During electrolysis 40,000 amperes was passed through a Hall cell for 10 hrs. Calculate the
mass of aluminium deposited at the cathode in kg.
(IF = 96500C, Al = 27) (3 marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

16. (a) Define the term half-life. (1 mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(b) A certain nuclide has a half-life of 2.5 hours. What percentage of a given mass of the
nuclide will be left after 7.5 hrs? (2 marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
17. Explain how increase in temperature affects the rate of a given reaction. (2 marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
18. Write down the preliminary steps undertaken to concentrate an ore during extraction of metals.
(2 marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
19. Write down the formula of the chief ore of Aluminium. (1 mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

20. Dilute sulphuric (VI) acid was added to a compound P of magnesium. The solid reacted with the
acid to form a colourless solution Q and a colourless gas R which formed a white precipitate
when bubbled through lime water. Identify: (1 ½ marks)
(a) compound P -
(b) solution Q -
(c) colourless gas R -
21. During an experiment on the reduction of an oxide of copper, the following data was obtained.
Mass of empty boat = 25.0g
Mass of empty boat + oxide of copper = 29.0g
Mass of boat + copper (after reaction) = 28.2g
Determine the empirical formula. (3 marks)
(Cu = 64, O = 16)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
22. Calculate the number of atoms in 26.4g of calcium carbonate.

(Ca = 40, C = 12, O = 16, L = 𝟔. 𝟎𝟐 × 𝟏𝟎𝟐𝟑 ) (2 marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

23. Lead (II) nitrate was heated completely.
(a) Write an equation for heating lead (II) nitrate. (1 mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(b) Calculate the mass of the oxide formed given that 0.2 moles of the nitrate was heated. (Pb = 207,
O = 16) (2 marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
24. Draw and name two branched isomers of the compound whose chemical
formula is 𝐶5 𝐻12 . (2 marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
25. (a) Complete the following table based on organic compounds. (1 mark)
Compound Reagents needed for preparation
(i) Ethyne
(ii) Ethane
(b) Write chemical equations to represent the reaction in (a) above. (2 marks)
(i)
(ii)

(c) An organic substance (Q) reacted with ethanoic acid to form pleasant smelling compound
𝐶𝐻3 𝐶𝐻𝑂𝑂𝐶𝐻2 𝐶𝐻2 𝐶𝐻3 .
(i) What conditions will be required to form the product? (1 mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(ii) If another compound with a chemical formulas 𝐶3 𝐻6 has to be formed from compound Q, what
would be the conditions required in this process. (1 mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
26. (a)Give the formula of the Monomer used during the formation of the following polymer.
(1 mark)
H H H H
C C C C
Cl H Cl H
(b) State any use of the polymer in (a) above. (1 mark)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(c)Other than using universal indicator explain how one can differentiate between the following
chemicals.
Propanol and propanoic acid. (1 mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

27. The melting points of oxygen and sulphur are -2160C and 1130C respectively yet the two
elements belong to group VI in the periodic table. Explain. (2 marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
28. Which type of Sulphur is formed under the following conditions?

Conditions Type of Sulphur
(i) Above 960
( ½ mark)
(ii) Pouring boiling Sulphur into cold water
( ½ mark)
(iii) Rapidly cooling Sulphur vapour
( ½ mark)
(iv) Mixing sodium thiosulphate with dilute
hydrochloric acid
( ½ mark)
29. When dry chlorine is passed over heated iron in a combustion tube, a brown solid forms on the
cooler parts of the combustion tube.
(i) Name the brown solid. (1 mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(ii) Why does the brown solid form on the cooler parts of the combustion? (1 mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

(iii) What will be the pH of the solution formed when the brown solid is dissolved in water?
(1 mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(iv)Chlorine gas is poisonous yet it is used to treat water. Explain. (1 mark)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
30. The diagrams below show the apparatus used to investigate one of the properties of carbon.
Boiling tube A Boiling tube B
Copper II oxide /
Aluminium oxide
carbon mixture
/ carbon mixture
Heat
Heat
State and explain the observations made in each boiling tube. (2 marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

31. The diagrams below show the apparatus used to investigate the properties of carbon IV oxide
gas.
Deflagrating spoon
Gas Jar Q Gas Jar X
CO2(g) Carbon IV oxide
Burning Mg
Burning sulphur
(i) State and explain the observations made in each gas jar. (2 marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(ii) State one industrial use of carbon (IV) oxide. (1 mark)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

2023 SERIES 1 TRIAL
CHEMISTRY
233/2
PAPER 2 (THEORY)
TIME: 2 HOURS
NAME……………………………………………………………………………………….
SCHOOL……………………………………………… SIGN………………………..
INDEX NO……………………………………………. ADM NO……………………
(a) Write your name, school and index number in the spaces provided above.
(b) Sign and write the date of examination in the space provided above.
(c) Answer ALL the questions in the spaces provided.
(d) Mathematical tables and silent electronic calculators may be used.
FOR EXAMINER’S USE ONLY

Question Maximum score Candidate’s score
1 12
2 10
3 10
4 10
5 12
6 13
7 13
Total score 80

Answer ALL the questions in the spaces provided.
1. Below is part of periodic table with elements shown. The letters are not actual chemical symbols.
Use it to answer question that follow.
P C D E
F G B H
Z
(i) What is the most likely nature of the solution formed by the oxide of Z? (1mk)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(ii) Chose a letter representing the most electronegative element. (1mk)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(iii) Write a balanced equation for the reaction between B and oxygen. (1mk)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(iv) Compare the reactivity of C and D. Explain your answer (2mks)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(v) An element Q has mass number 40 and 22 protons. What is the position of Q on the grid? (1mk)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(b) Study the information given and use it to answer the questions that follow
Formula NaCl MgCl2 AlCl3 SiCl4 PCl3 SCl2
Boiling point (0C) 1470 1420 ___ 60 75 60
Melting point (0C) 800 710 Sublimes at -70 -90 -80
1800C
(i) Name the physical state of SiCl4 at room temperature (1mk)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(ii) Although Aluminium and magnesium are metals, AlCl3 has a much lower melting point than
MgCl2. Explain this observation. (2mks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(iii) Explain why the melting point of SiCl4, PCl3 and SCl2 are low. (1mk)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
2. The table below gives reduction potentials obtained when half cells are connected to a standard
half cell. Study it to answer questions that follow.
Electrode reactions E°/volts
V2+(aq) + 2e- V(s) +0.56
X+(aq) + e - X(S) -2.97
Y+(s) + e- Y(s) 2.71
W+(aq) + e- W(S) +0.80
Z2+(aq) + 2e- Z(s) -2.85
R2+(aq) 2e- R(s) -

0.76
2P+ + 2e- P2(s) 0.00

a) Select two half cells which would produce the highest e.m.f. Determine the e.m.f that would be
produced. (2mks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
b) Write down the cell representation of the cell formed in (a) above. (1mk)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
c) From the standard electrode potentials given select any two elements that can be used as the
sacrificial metal in electroplating of R. (2mks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
d) A steady current of 0.2A was passed through solution of X and Y ions for 2 hours. 16g of X and
0.0474g of Y were deposited.
(i) Determine the relative atomic mass of X if the formula of chloride of X is XCI (F 6500C, Y =
63.5) (3mks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

(ii) Hence or otherwise determine the charge on Y. (l mk)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
e) State one use of a salt bridge, (1 mk)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
3. In an experiment, 1.0 grams of an alloy of copper and magnesium were reacted with excess 4M
hydrochloric acid, and the gas collected measured at different time intervals. The results were
recorded as shown below.
a) (i) Write an equation for the chemical reaction taking place. (1mk)
Time in minutes Total volume of gas in / cm3
0 0
1 220
2 410
3 540
4 620
5 640
6 640
7 640

ii) Plot a graph of the volume of the gas (verticals axis) against time ( horizontal axis) (3mks)
(b) Using the graph determine

i) The rate of reaction at 2 ½ minutes. (1mk)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
ii) The volume of the gas at the end of 3 ½ minutes. (1mk)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
c) The synthesis of ammonia from nitrogen and hydrogen is carried out in the Haber process using
the equation below.
N2(g) + 3H2 2NH3(g) H°=-92kJ mol-1
(i) What information is given by the thermochemical equation above? (1mk)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(ii) Explain how an increase in temperature would affect other yield of ammonia. (2mks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(iii) Explain how can a increase in pressure would affect the equilibrium of the mixture.(2mks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
4. Study the scheme below and answer the questions that follow.

(a) State the sources of the substance X and Y. (2mks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(b) Identify the catalyst used in step I and how it is made to be effective. (1mk)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(c) Name the substance A, B, C and E. (2mks)
A……………………………………………………………………………………………..
B……………………………………………………………………………………………...
C……………………………………………………………………………………………...
E……………………………………………………………………………………………...
(d) Write the chemical equations that shows

(i) The formation of substance C. (1mk)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

(ii) The reaction between substance C and copper metal. (1mk)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(e) Describe a chemical test for gas E. (1mk)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(f) (i) State one economic use of substance F. (1mk)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(ii) Name the optimum conditions for the production ammonia gas. (1mk)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
5. (a) Study the diagram below and use it to answer the questions that follow.
(i) Name liquid:

P…………………………………………………………………………. (1mk)
M………………………………………………………………………… (1mk)

(ii) What is the function of concentrated sulphuric(VI) acid in the set-up? (1mk)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(iii) Suggest a suitable reagent that can be used as solid W. (1mk)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(iv) State the role of solid W in the set-up. (1mk)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(v) Explain why solid Q collect further away from heated aluminium metal. (1mk)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(vi) In the reaction above, 0.645g of aluminium metal reacted completely with 1800cm3 of chlorine
gas at room temperature. Determine the molecular formula of solid Q, given that its relative
formula mass is 267 (Al = 27.0, Cl = 35.5, molar volume of gas at r.t.p. is 24.0 litres) (3mks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(b) The flow chart below shows part of an analysis of a mixture that contains two salts.

(i) What condition is necessary for the process in step I to take place? (1mk)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(ii) Draw a well labeled set-up of apparatus that could be used to separate the mixtures formed in
step II. (2mks)
(a)Use the bond energies given in the table below to calculate the enthalpy change for the reaction.
C2H6 (g) + Br2 (g) 
 C2H5Br(g) + HBr(g) (2mks)
Bond C–H C – Br Br – Br H – Br
Bond energy kJ/mol 413 280 193 365

(b) Hydrogen peroxide decomposes according to the equation given below;
H2O2 (l) 
 H2O(l) + ½ O2 (g) ; ΔH = -98 kJ/mol
If 6.8g of hydrogen peroxide contained in 75 cm3 of solution with water were completely
decomposed, determine the rise in temperature due to the reaction. (2mks)
(Specific heat capacity of water = 4.2 Jg-1K-1, density of water = 1 g/cm3, O = 16, H = 1)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(c)On the space provided below sketch the cooling curve that would be obtained when a
boiling tube containing water at 80oC is immersed in a freezing mixture maintained at -10oC. (3mks)
(d) Butane C4H10 cannot be prepared directly from its elements but its standard heat of
formation (ΔHθf) can be obtained indirectly. The following heats of combustion are given.
ΔHθC carbon (s) = -393 kJ/mol
ΔHθC H2 (g) = -286 kJ/mol
ΔHθC C4H10 = -2877 kJ/mol
(i) Draw an energy cycle diagram linking the heat of formation of butane with its heat of
combustion and the heat of combustion of its constituent elements. (2mks)

(ii) Calculate heat of formation of butane ΔHθf (C4H10). (2mks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(e) Given that the lattice enthalpy of potassium chloride is +690 kJ/mol and hydration enthalpies of
K+ and Cl- are -322 kJ and -364 kJ respectively. Calculate the enthalpy of solution of potassium
chloride. (2mks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
6. a) An aqueous solution of hydrogen peroxide decomposes according to the equation
2H2O2(l) 2H2O(l) + O2(g)
This reaction is fast at 200C in the presence of manganese (IV) oxide.
(i) What is the role of manganese (IV) oxide in the reaction. (1mk)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(ii) Sketch graphs on the same grid provided below showing how the volume of oxygen (vertical
axis) varies with
I. Time when 0.5g of manganese (IV) oxide is mixed with; 100cm3 hydrogen peroxide solution,
label this curve A. (1mk)

II. Time when the same experiment is repeated at 300C, label this curve B. (1mk)
Volume of oxygen
Time
(b) (i) Write the equation for the manufacture of ammonia hence explain how the increase in
pressure affects the position of the equilibrium. (2mks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(ii) The reaction in b(i) above is exothermic, what is the effect of raising temperature on the
equilibrium position? (1mk)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
6. a) Give the names of the following compounds.

(i) CH3CH2CH2CH2OH .……………………………………………………… (1mk)
(ii) CH3-COO-CH2-CH3……………………………………………………….. (1mk)
b).One of the two formulae in (a) above represents a sweet smelling compound. Give the names of
the two organic compounds that can be used to prepare this compound in the laboratory. (2mks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
c), Ethane and Ethene react with Bromine according to the following equations given below:
i. C2 H6  g   Br2 g   C2 H5 Brl   HBr g 
ii. C2 H4  g   Br2  g   C2 H4 Br2 l 
Name the type of bromination reaction taking place in

(i)……………………………………………………………………………… (1mk)
(ii)……………………………………………………………………………. (1mk)
d) A certain polymer has the following structure
CH CH2 CH CH2
C5H5 C6H5 n
What is meant by polymerization? (1mk)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

2023 SERIES 1 TRIAL
CHEMISTRY
233/3
PAPER 3 (PRACTICAL)
TIME: 2¼ HOURS
SCHOOL……………………………………………… SIGN………………………..

CONFIDENTIAL
This document must not be seen by the candidates whatsoever
1. 80cm3 of 0.5M lead (II) nitrate solution F
2. 60cm3 of 1M Potassium Iodide solution
3. 2g of solid A supplied in a stoppered container
4. 1g of solid P
5. 2cm of magnesium ribbon
6. Thermometer
7. One 250ml glass beaker
8. One boiling tube
9. One test-tube holder
10. One stop watch
11. 10ml measuring cylinder
12. 100ml measuring cylinder
13. One dropper
14. 30cm ruler
15. 10 labels
16. Test tube rack
17. 10 test tubes
18. Substance W – calcium chloride
19. Distilled water in a wash bottle
20. Solution E (aqueous sodium carbonate)
21. Tripod stand and wire gauze.
22. Substance W I g of calcium chloride supplied in a stoppered container.
Access to
 Bunsen burner
 Acidified potassium dichromate (VI)
 Tissue paper
 Ethanol
 2M ammonia solution
 2M sodium hydroxide solution
 Bromine water
Notes:
Substance P - maleic acid
Substance A – sodium tetraborate decahydrate(sodium borax

Substance W – calcium chloride
Preparation of solutions
 Solution E is obtained by dissolving 21.2g of sodium carbonate in 600cm3 of distilled water and
diluting it to 1dm3 of solution (0.2M Sodium Carbonate)
 Acidified potassium dichromate (VI) is prepared by dissolving 25g of solid K 2Cr2O7 in 200cm3
of 2M H2SO4 and diluting with distilled water to make one litre of solution.
 Bromine water is done by taking 1cm3 of bromine liquid and diluting with distilled water to make
100cm3 of the solution in the fume chamber.

2023 SERIES 1 TRIAL
CHEMISTRY
233/3
PAPER 3 (PRACTICAL)
TIME: 2¼ HOURS
NAME……………………………………………………………………………………….
SCHOOL……………………………………………… SIGN………………………..
INDEX NO……………………………………………. ADM NO……………………
1) Write your name and Index Number in the spaces provided above.
2) Sign and write date of examination in the spaces provided above.
3) Answer all questions in the spaces provided in the question paper.
4) All workings must be clearly shown where necessary. Mathematical tables and silent electronic
calculators may be used.
FOR EXAMINER’S USE ONLY.
Question Maximum Score Candidates Score
1 22
2 11
3 07
TOTAL 40

Answer all questions in the spaces provided
Q1. (a) You are provided with 0.2g of substance A labelled solid A
 You are required to determine the solubility of substance A in water.
PROCEDURE 1
i) Place 200cm3 of tap water in a 250ml beaker and keep it for use in step (VI)
ii) Place all the substance A in a dry boiling tube boiling.
iii) Using a burette measure 10.0cm3 of distilled water and add to substance A in the boiling tube.
iv) While stirring the mixture in the boiling tube with a thermometer, warm the mixture using a Bunsen
burner until the temperature rises to 65℃. Stop warming the mixture.
v) Allow the mixture to cool while stirring with the thermometer.
vi) When the temperature drops to 60℃ , start the stop watch / clock, place the boiling tube in a beaker
with tap water prepared in step (i) above.
vii) Continue stirring and record the temperature of the mixture after two minutes then thereafter
record the temperature of the mixture after every one minute interval and complete the table 1.
TABLE 1.
Time in minutes 0 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Temperature (℃) 60
(4mks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

a) On the graph provided, plot a graph of temperature (vertical axis) against time. (3mks)
b) Using the graph, determine the temperature (T) when 2.0g of substance A dissolves completely
in 10cm3 of distilled water. (1mk)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

c) Calculate the solubility of substance A in grammes per 100g of water at temperatures (T)
(2mks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(b) You are provided with:

 1M Potassium iodide solution
 0.5m Lead (II) nitrate solution
 Ethanol
You are required to determine the formulae of lead (II) iodide and the equation for the reaction
between lead (II) nitrate and potassium iodide.
Procedure 2
Take 5 test tube and label them 1, 2,3,4,5 and 6,7. Using a burette add to separate test tube volumes
of aqueous potassium iodide and aqueous lead (II) nitrate as shown in the table below; followed
by 3-4 drops of ethanol. Stir and allow to settle. Measure the height of the precipitate in each
test tube in mm and record the measurements in the table below. (4 marks)
Table 2
Test tube no 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8
Volume of KI (cm3) 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9
Volume of Pb(NO3)2 10 9 8 7 6 5 4 3
cm3
Height of the
precipitate (mm)

a) Plot a graph of height of the precipitate against the volume of lead (II) nitrate. (3 marks)
b) Use your graph to

i) Find the maximum height of the precipitate formed. (1mk)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
ii) Determine the volume of the 0.5M Pb (NO3)2 used in b (i) above (1mk)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
iii) Determine the volume of 1M Potassium Iodide that completely reacts with 0.5M Pb (NO3)2 (aq)
Potassium iodide solution. (1mk)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
iv) Use your answer in b(ii) above to determine the number of moles iodide ions which reacts with
one mole of lead (II ) ions hence determine the formulae of lead (II) iodide. (2mks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
2. You are provided with

 Substance W 0.5g
 Sodium hydroxide
 Aqueous ammonia
 Solution F – aqueous lead (II) Nitrate
 Distilled water in wash bottle
 Source of heat
a) Describe the appearance of substance W (1 mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
b) Add 10cm3 water to substance W
Observation Inference
(1⁄2 𝑚𝑘) (1⁄2 𝑚𝑘)
c) Substance W is suspected to be calcium chloride.

From the reagent provided and results in procedure (b) above select and describe four tests that could
be carried out consequently to confirm substance W is calcium chloride. Write the results and
expected observation in the spaces provided. (6mks)
Test 1 Expected observation
(1mk) (1mk)

(1mk) (1⁄2 𝑚𝑘)
(1mk) (1mk)
d) Carry out the tests described in (c) above using substance W and record the observations and
inferences in the spaces provided.
i) Test 1
(1 mk) (1mk)
ii) Test 2

(1⁄2 𝑚𝑘) (1mk)
iii) Test 3
(1 mk) (1mk)
3. You are provided with substance P. Carry out the following test and record your observation and
inferences in the spaces provided. Use about 2cm3 of portion of substance P in a test tube for
each tests a, b, c and d
a) Add about 2 or 3 drops of bromine water.
(1⁄2 𝑚𝑘) (1⁄2 𝑚𝑘)
b) Add about 1cm3 of acidified potassium dichromate (VI) warm the mixture.

(1mk) (1mk)
c) Add about 1cm3 of solution to E (aqueous sodium carbonate provided)

(1 mk) ( 1𝑚𝑘)
d) Add the piece of magnesium ribbon provided

(1 mk) (1𝑚𝑘)

2023 SERIES 1 TRIAL
PHYSICS
232/1
PAPER 1 (THEORY)
TIME: 2 HOURS
NAME……………………………………………………………………………………….
SCHOOL……………………………………………… SIGN………………………..
INDEX NO……………………………………………. ADM NO……………………
i) Answer all questions in the spaces provided
ii) Non programmable scientific calculators and mathematical tables may be used
iii) All numerical answers must be expressed in decimal notation
Constant: g=10n/kg
Section Questions Maximum score Candidate’s score

Section A 1-15 25
Section B 16-20 55
Total 20 80

SECTION A (25 MARKS)
Answer All the Questions In This Section
1) State the reading on the micrometer screw gauge shown below. (1mark)
2) An oil drop forms a circular patch of area 5x10-3 m2.If the oil drop has a volume
9x10-12 m3, calculate the thickness of the oil molecule (2marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
3) Name one non contact force (1mark)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
4) A crane just lifts 9940N when an effort of 116N is applied and its efficiency is 75%. Find it’s
velocity ratio. (3marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
5) The mass of a vessel is 90g and its specific heat capacity is 420J/Kgk. Calculate its heat capacity
(3marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

5) Explain the term absolute zero temperature (1mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
7) Two table tennis balls are suspended from a support by thin string and air is blown between them.
Explain the consequent motion of the balls. (2marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
8) State the Hooke’s law. 1mark)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
9) Give a reason why heat transfer by radiation is faster than heat transfer by conduction.
(1mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
10) The moment of the weight of vertical door does not significantly affect the moment of the force
to the door .Give a reason for this 1mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
11) In the Brownian motion experiment, smoke particles are observed to move randomly. Explain
how this motion is caused. (2marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

12) Give reason why weight of a body varies from place to place (1mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
13) The figure below shows a fire alarm circuit. Explain how the alarm functions. 2marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
14) State the reason why water spilled on a glass surface wets the surface. (1mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
15) Two liquids of density 1100kg/m3 and 850kg/m3 are mixed in equal volumes .The mixture fills a
tank of 300cmx40cmx50cm to the brim. Calculate the mass of each liquid. (3marks)

SECTION B (55 MARKS)
Answer All The Questions In This Section
16) The figure below shows a hydraulic press system using a lever of negligible mass, on the side of
the small piston, pivoted at point P. A force of 50N is applied.
a) Calculate the:
i) Force exerted by the small piston on the liquid (3 marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
ii) Pressure of the liquid below the small piston. (3 marks)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
iii) Weight of the object supported on the larger piston (3 marks)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

b) State two properties of the fluid used in the hydraulic press. (2marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
17) a) State Newton’s second law of motion (1mark)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
b) A body accelerates uniformly from rest to 30m/s in 10s.Find its acceleration (2marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
c) A car of mass 800kg moving with a speed of 15m/s crashes into a wall and comes to rest in 0.4 s.
Find the :
i) Impulse (3 marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
ii) Average force by the wall (3 marks)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

d) A steel ball is released at the top of a tall glass cylinder containing a viscous liquid. Sketch the
velocity –time graph for this motion (2 marks)
18) a) State the law of flotation (1mark)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
b) A uniform glass test tube of diameter 1.62cm containing lead shots floats in water with 14.9 cm in
water.
i) State the function of the lead shots (1mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
ii) Calculate the total mass of tube and its contents (4 marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
iii) Find the length immersed in a liquid of relative density of 1.6 3marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

C) A solid displaces 5cm3 of paraffin when floating and 25cm3 when fully immersed. Determine the
density of the solid (Density of paraffin =800kg/m3) (4marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
19) a) A ball of mass 200g tied to a spring is being whirled in a vertical circle of radius 0.4m with
uniform speed. At the lowest position, the tension in the string is 2.8N.Calculate the:
i) Uniform speed of the ball (3marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
ii) Tension in the string when the ball is at the upper most position of the circular path (3marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
b) A metal ball of mass 10kg is rotated horizontally by means of a rope 4m long .If its linear speed
is 30m/s, find the force that will break the rope. (3marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

c) A body moving with uniform speed in a circular path is accelerates. Explain (1mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
20) a) State the principle of moments (1mark)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
b) A uniform wooden lath measuring 200cm by 25cm by 15cm is suspended at the 150cm mark and
balanced horizontally by hanging a mass of 14 kg at the 200cm mark. Calculate the:
i) Mass of the wooden lath (3marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
ii) Density of the material of the wooden lath (3marks)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
iii) Tension in the rope supporting the system (3marks)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

2023 SERIES 1 TRIAL
PHYSICS
232/2
PAPER 2 (THEORY)
TIME: 2 HOURS
NAME……………………………………………………………………………………….
SCHOOL……………………………………………… SIGN………………………..
INDEX NO……………………………………………. ADM NO……………………
INSTRUCTIONS
1) This paper consists of two sections A and B
2) Answer all the questions in both sections in the spaces provided
3) All working must be clearly shown
4) Electronic Calculators may be used
FOR EXAMINERS USE ONLY

Section Questions Maximum Score Candidates Score
A 1-11 25
B 12-17 55
TOTAL 80

1. Name one source and use of infrared radiation (2mks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
2. The figure below shows curves obtained with a magnetic material
State what curves A and B represent (2mks)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
3. State the importance of ear thing in domestic wiring (1mk)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

4. The figure below shows the three nuclear radiation labeled A, B, and C under the influence of an
electric field.
Identify the radiation A, B and C (3mks)

A……………………………………………………………………………………………
B……………………………………………………………………………………………
C……………………………………………………………………………………………
5. In an experiment with a convex lens, image distances were measured when an object was placed
at various distances away from the lens. The figure below shows a graph of 1/v against 1/u for
the experiment where u is the object and v is the image distance.

Use the graph to find the focal length f of the lens (3mks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
6. A student synchronizes his watch with a church bell 2km away. The following morning, there is
a wind. He notes that the church bell sounded 0.15s later. Assuming his watch is correct and bell
was sounded at the usual time. Determine the direction of the wind and its speed. (Assuming the
speed of sound in still air is 340ms -1) (3mks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
7. The figure below shows a GM tube
i) Give a reason why the mica window is made thin (1mk)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
ii) The tube has got a small amount of bromine. State the purpose of the bromine in the tube
(1mk)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
Study the ray diagram below and use it to answer question 8 & 9
8. Complete the diagram by drawing the correct rays on it (1mk)

9. Use your drawing to determine the focal length f of the mirror (2mks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
10. A 5V ac signal with a frequency of 50Hz is applied across the y-plates. The y-gain and time base
setting is 2.5V/cm and 10Ms/cm respectively. Use the information above to sketch a wave form
as seen on CRO screen (3mks)

11. State Faraday’s law of electromagnetic induction (1mk)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
12. State three points to observe in maintaining a lead-acid battery (3mks)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
SECTION B(55 MARKS)

13. a) State three factors affecting the capacitance or a parallel plate capacitor (3mks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
b) You are provided with the following apparatus

-uncharged capacitor
-Voltmeter
-Milliammeter
-12v battery
-A load resistor
-Two way switch
i) Using the above apparatus draw a circuit diagram that can be used to study the
charging and discharging the capacitor. (3mks)

ii) Use the diagram in b(i) to describe how a fully charged capacitor is discharged (2mks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
iii) On the axis provided sketch a voltage –time graph of discharging of capacitor (1mk)
c) The zinc plate shown below connected to the electroscope and is exposed to ultraviolet
radiation.

Explain what happens to the charged electroscope (2mks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
14. a) With the aid of a well labeled diagram, explain how lunar eclipse occurs. (4mk)
b) Explain why large convex mirrors are placed at certain points in supermarket (2mks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
c) An object 2.5 m tall is at a point 8m from a pinhole camera. If the distance of the screen is 8.16m
from the object, calculate the size of the image (3mks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
d) i) Draw a diagram to show how prisms are used in a periscope (2mks)
ii) Calculate the critical angle of a ray of light passing from glass to water, if their
refractive indices are 2/3 and 4/3 respectively. (3mks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
15. a) State the Ohms’ law (1mk)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

b) Three resistors x,y and z where x = 200 Ω, y = 100 Ω and z is unknown resistance are
connected in parallel. This arrangement is then placed in a circuit and current passing
through, and potential difference across its measured the table below shows the result.
p.d(v) 2.0 4.0 6.0 8.0 10.0 12.0
Current(l) (A) 0.10 0.20 0.30 0.40 0.50 0.60
i) Plot a graph of p.d against current (4mks)

ii) Use your graph to calculate the value of unknown resistance. (4mks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
c) Four resistors are connected in a circuit as shown in the diagram below
Calculate the p.d across AB. (3mks)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
16. a) Distinguish between diffraction and refraction of waves (1mk)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

b) Explain clearly how the following affect light intensity in the young’s double slit experiment
i) Separation of the slits (2mks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
ii) Width of the slits (2mks)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
iii) Frequency of incident light (2mks)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
c) The figure below shows circular wave fronts approaching a convex barrier. Complete
the figure to show what happens to the wave fronts after reflection on the barrier. (2mks)
17. The figure below shows current-voltage characteristics of a junction diode.

a) In the forward bios, the diode does not conduct until a certain minimal voltage is
reached. Explain the effect (2mks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
b) Where the voltage is increased in reverse bias, the diode conducts when a certain
voltage is reached. What is the name given to this voltage (1mk)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
c) i) List two properties of x-rays (2mks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
ii) The figure shows a simplified illustration of an x-ray tube

Explain the following features in an x-ray tube
Low pressure 1 mk)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
Lead shield 1 mk)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
iii) Explain the adjustment that can be made to obtain hard x-rays (2mks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

2023 SERIES 1 TRIAL
PHYSICS
232/3
PAPER 3 (PRACTICAL)
TIME: 2½ HOURS
SCHOOL……………………………………………… SIGN………………………..
CONFIDENTIAL
1. Two metre rules (one metre rule and half metre rule)
2. Two stands and clamps
3. Two bosses
4. Three pieces of threads (at least 1m, 30cm, 30cm)
5. A spring
6. A piece of cellotape or a plasticine
7. One mass 100g
8. A stop watch
9. Optical pin
10. A glass block (rectangular)
11. Soft board
12. Plane mirror
13. Four optical pins
14. Four thumb pins
15. A protractor
16. A ruler

2023 SERIES 1 TRIAL
PHYSICS
232/3
PAPER 3 (PRACTICAL)
TIME: 2½ HOURS
NAME……………………………………………………………………………………….
SCHOOL……………………………………………… SIGN………………………..
INDEX NO……………………………………………. ADM NO……………………
(c) Answer ALL the questions in the spaces provided in the question paper.
(d) You are supposed to spend the first 15 minutes of the 2½ hours allowed for this paper reading
the whole paper carefully before commencing your work.
(e) Marks are given for a clear record of the observations actually made, their suitability, accuracy
and the use made of them.
(f) Candidates are advised to record their observations as soon as they are made.
(g) Non-programmable silent electronic calculators may be used.
For Examiner’s Use Only

QUESTIONS MAX.SCORE CANDIDATE SCORE
1 20
2 20
Total score 40

Answer ALL the questions in the spaces provided
1. You are provided with the following apparatus.
(a) Two metre rules (one metre rule and half metre rule)
(b) Two stands and clamps
(c) Two bosses
(d) Three pieces of threads (at least 1m, 30cm, 30cm)
(e) A spring
(f) A piece of cellotape or a plasticine
(g) One mass 100g
(h) A stop watch
(i) Optical pin
PROCEED AS FOLLOWS
i) Set the apparatus as shown in the figure below. Attach the optical pin (to act as the pointer) at one
end of the metre rule using a cellotape.
Metre rule
stand
spring
Stand
Metre rule
L
5cm
200g
Pin

Figure 1
ii) Suspend one end of the metre rule with a thread at 5cm mark from the other end.
iii) Suspend the other end with a spring also 5cm from the end so that the metre rule is horizontal.
iv) Hold the other ruler vertically on the bench so that it is near the end with a pointer as shown in the
diagram above.
v) Read the pointer position, L0= ……………………cm (1 Mark)
vi) Hang on the horizontal metre rule, the 100g mass at a length, L=10cm from the spring. Record the
extension, e, of the spring in the table below.
vii) Displace the mass slightly downwards and release it to oscillate vertically. Take time for
20 oscillations and record in the table below.
viii) Repeat for other position of L, of the mass.
NB: Before taking the reading, ensure the oscillation is steady.

Complete the table below. (8Marks)
Length, (cm) 10 20 30 40 50
Extension (cm)
(m)
Time t(s), for 20 oscillations
Period time T(s)
T2(s2)
i) Plot a graph of extension e(m) against T2(s2) (5 Marks

ii) Calculate the slope of the graph. (3 Marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

2
iii) Given that e  RT 2  C , determine the value of R. (3 Marks)
4
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
2. You are provided with the following apparatus

 A glass block (rectangular)
 Soft board
 Plane mirror
 Four optical pins
 Four thumb pins
 A protractor
 A ruler
Proceed as follows
a) Fix the plane paper on the soft board using the four thumb pins
b) Place the glass block on the plane paper (fixed on the soft board). Let the glass block rest on the
paper from the broader face
c) Trace the glass block using a pencil
d) Remove the glass block
e) Mark point X on the one of the longer side of the traced glass block a shown below. Point X
should be 2cm from edge A


2cm B
A X
y
D M
C
5cm
N
10cm
(e) Construct a normal at x to emerge through line DC. Let this normal meet line DC at point M.
(f)Mark point N along the emergent normal. 5cm from M
(g) Construct line NP to meet the normal at N at 90o. Line NP can be about 10cm
(h) Using a protractor, construct an incident ray Rx at an angle of incidence c=10 o. Fix two pins P1
and P2 along RX.
P1
P2
x B
A
y
D C
P3
5cmm P4
N
P
d
Eye
(i) Replace the glass block to the traced figure
(j) View the path of the incident ray RX through the glass block using the other two pins P3 and P4.
This can be done by ensuring that the images of pin P1 and P2 are in line with P3 and P4
(k) Remove the glass block and draw the emergent ray through P3 and P4
(l) Measure the distance of the emergent ray from point N along line NP as shown below
(m) Record the corresponding values of d in the table below
(n) Repeat the procedure for other values of i (12mks)

Angle of incidence io 10 20 30 40 50 60
Distance d(cm)
Sin i
Sin 2i
(o) (i) Plot the graph of sin2i against d (5mks)
(ii) Calculate the gradient of the graph

2023 SERIES 1 TRIAL
CHRISTIAN RELIGIOUS EDUCATION
313/1
PAPER 1
TIME: 2½ HOURS
NAME……………………………………………………………………………………….
SCHOOL……………………………………………… SIGN………………………..
INDEX NO……………………………………………. ADM NO……………………
313/1
PAPER 1
TIME: 2½ HOURS
a) Write your name, school and index number in the spaces provided above.
b) Write the date of examination and sign in the spaces provided above.
c) This paper consists of six questions.
d) Answer any five questions in the answer booklet provided.

Question 1 2 3 4 5 6 TOTAL SCORE
Candidates Score
Answer any five questions

1 a) From Genesis stories of creation, outline seven teachings about human beings. 7mks
b) Outline the differences in the two accounts of creation in Genesis 1 and 2. 8mks
c) How do Christians take care for God’s creation today? 5mks
2 a) Describe how God prepared the Israelites for the making of the covenant at Mt. Sinai
(Exodus 19) 7mks
b) Give four reasons that made the Israelites to break the covenant while at Mt. Sinai (Exodus 32:1-
35) 7mks
c) What do Christians learn about the nature of God from the Exodus? 6mks
3 a) Explain seven functions of Jerusalem temple. 7mks

b) Identify six expressions of syncretism in Israel at the time of Prophet Elijah 6mks
c) State seven qualities of a good leader that modern leaders can learn from King David 7mks
4 a) Identify five visions of Amos. 5mks

b) Outline five teaching of prophets Amos on Israel’s election. (Amos 9:8-15) 7mks
c) What evils would Amos condemn if he would come to Kenya today? 8mks
5 a) State the causes of judgement and punishment on Israel as stated by Jeremiah. 7mks
b) Explain four differences between the Sinai covenant and the new covenant as foretold by
Jeremiah. 8mks
c) Identify five methods used by Christians to communicate God’s message today 5mks
6 a) Give the Traditional African concept of a community. 8mks

b) What are the responsibilities of the living towards ancestors in the Traditional African
Community? 6mks
c) Identify the factors that undermine the role of traditional medicine men in modern society6mks

2023 SERIES 1 TRIAL
313/2
PAPER 2
TIME: 2½ HOURS
NAME……………………………………………………………………………………….
SCHOOL……………………………………………… SIGN………………………..
INDEX NO……………………………………………. ADM NO……………………
313/2
PAPER 2
TIME: 2½ HOURS

Candidates Score

Answer any five questions
1a) What does Mary’s song (the Magnificat) reveal about the nature of God. (7mrks)
b) Outline six activities that took place when Jesus was born. (6mrks.)
c) Write down seven ways through which Christians in Kenya express their joy for the birth of
Jesus. (7mrks)
2a) Giving examples state seven methods used by Jesus to spread the gospel. (7mrks)
b) What are the Reasons why Jesus chose the twelve disciples? (6mrks)
c) Identify seven problems faced by new converts in the church today. (7mrks)
3a) With reference to the life and ministry of Jesus, show how he tried to promote social equality.
(7mrks)
b) With the story of the sinful woman as a reference, explain Jesus teachings on forgiveness.
(5mrks)
c) Give ways in which Christians engage themselves in the healing ministry. (8mrks)
4a) Give seven reasons why Jesus sent the Holy Spirit to his disciples after ascension (7mrks)
b) List seven fruits of the Holy Spirit (7mrks)
c) How are the gifts of the Holy Spirit manifested in the church today? (6mrks)
5. a) Outline eight Christians teachings on work (8mks)

b) Give six factors that cause increased unemployment in Kenya today (6mrks)
c) How does the church help to reduce the rate of unemployment in Kenya (6mrks)
6 a) Explain how unfair distribution of wealth can lead to social disorder in Kenya today (6mrks)
b) Give reasons why Christians should not involve themselves in gambling (7mrks)
c) How is corruption affecting the society in Kenya today? (7mrks)

2023 SERIES 1 TRIAL
HISTORY AND GOVERNMENT
311/1
PAPER 1
TIME: 2½ HOURS
NAME……………………………………………………………………………………….
SCHOOL……………………………………………… SIGN………………………..
INDEX NO……………………………………………. ADM NO……………………
 This paper consists of three sections A,B and C
 Answer All questions in section A, three questions in section B and two Questions in section C
 Answer to all question must be written in the answer booklet provided
 Candidate should answer the questions in English
FOR EXAMINER USE ONLY

SECTION QUESTION MAX SCORE SCORE
A 1-17 25
B 15
15
15
C 15
15
TOTAL SCORE

SECTION A
1. Give the meaning of history. (1mk)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
2. Identify one age-grade for elders among the Akamba. (1mk)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
3. State the first settlement area of the Luo during their migration fro Sudan. (1mk)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
4. Name one early Christian missionary who worked in Kenya. (1mk)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
5. Identify two contributions made by early Christian missionaries in the field of education in
Kenya. (2mks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
6. Define the term “National Integration” (1mk)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
7. What constitutional amendment made Kenya return to multi-party state. (1mk)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
8. Give Two reasons why a Kenya citizen should obey the law. (2mks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
9. Give two ways in which education has promoted national unity in Kenya. (2mks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
10. State two advantages of representative democracy. (2mks)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
11. Name the First African to be appointed in the council of ministers in Kenya by the colonial
government. (1mk)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
12. Identify the leader who stepped down as the president of African Union for Jomo Kenyatta.
(1mk)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
13. State two ways in which the Harambee spirit promote National Unity in Kenya. (2mks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
14. State two ways through which the saving and credit cooperative societies in Kenya benefit
their members. (2mks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
15. State two qualifications that a person must fulfill in order to be allowed to Register as a
voter in Kenya. (2mks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
16. Name the two branches of National Police Service in Kenya. (2mks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
17. Give the main difference of the commission on Revenue Allocation in Kenya. (1mk)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
SECTION B. (45 MARKS)

Answer Three Questions In This Section.
18. (a) Give five reasons, which influenced the migration of the plain Nilotes to Kenya during the
Pre-Colonial period. (5mks)
(b) Explain five results of the migration and settlement of the Maasai in Kenya during the pre-
colonial period. (10 mks)
19. (a) State three reason for the coming of the Portuguese to Kenyan Coast in the 15th century.
(3mks)
(b) Explain six effects of the Portuguese rule on the East African Coast. (12mks)
20. (a) Give five grievances of the Kikuyu Central Association which were Presented by Jomo
Kenyatta to the colonial secretary in 1929. (5mks)
(b) Explain five factors which led to the migration of African to the
urban areas in Kenya during the colonial period. (10mks)
21.
(a) State three factors that have contributed to high illiteracy levels in Kenya since Independence.
(3mks)

(b) Discuss six factors that have facilitated industrialization in Kenya since Independence.(12mks)
SECTION C
Answer Any Two Questions From This Section.
22. (a) State three circumstances that can make a Kenyan citizen to be denied the right to life.
(3mks)
(b) Describe the functions of the Republic of the Kenyan. (12 mks)
23. (a) State five ways through which Independence of the Judiciary is guaranteed in Kenya.
(5mks)
(b) Explain five functions of the Independent Electoral and Boundaries Commission of Kenya.
(10mks)
24. (a) State three objectives of devolving the government of Kenya. (3mks)
(b) Explain six functions of the National Assembly in Kenya. (12mks)

2023 SERIES 1 TRIAL
HISTORY AND GOVERNMENT
311/2
PAPER 2
TIME: 2½ HOURS
NAME……………………………………………………………………………………….
SCHOOL……………………………………………… SIGN………………………..
INDEX NO……………………………………………. ADM NO……………………
 This paper consists of three sections A,B and C
 Answer All questions in section A, three questions in section B and two Questions in section C
 Answer to all question must be written in the answer booklet provided
 Candidate should answer the questions in English
FOR EXAMINER USE ONLY

SECTION QUESTION MAX SCORE SCORE
A 1-17 25
B 15
15
15
C 15
15
TOTAL SCORE

SECTION A (25MARKS)
Answer All Questions In This Section
1. List two examples of material remains in an archaeological site. (2mks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
2. What was the name of Charles Darwin’s book in which he published his on evolution theory.
(1mks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
3. Identify two centers of early Agriculture. (2mks)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
3. Names two West African Kingdoms that were involved in Trans- Saharan trade. (2mks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
5. State two features of the camel that enables it to be the most suitable animal for transport in arid
areas. (2mks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
6. State one theory that explains the origin and spread of iron working in Africa. (1mk)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
7. What was the main discovery William Morton? (1mk)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

8. Identify two major factors that contributed to the decline of Meroe. (1mk)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
9. Which company ruled southern Rhodesia on behalf of the British? (1mk)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
10. Give the main reason why European powers held the Berlin conference of 1884-1885. (1mk)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
11. Identify two positive result of Lewanika’s collaboration with the British. 2mks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
12. State one European nation that was led by a dictator after the First World War. (1mk)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
13. Name one member country of the common wealth in Africa which is not a former British
colony. (1mk)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
14. Identify two military facts formed during cold war. (2mks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
15. Identify two African delegates who attended the fifth pan African conference in Manchester in
1945. (2mks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

16. What was the main reason that led to the army muting in Congo in 1960. (1mk)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
17. Which is the highest court in India. (1mk)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
SECTION B (45 Marks)

Answer any three questions in this section
18a) State three differences between apes and man’s ancestors. (3mks)
b) Explain the impact of early agriculture on people Way of life. (12mks)
19.a) Identify three traditional forms communication (3mks)
(b) Explain six positive impacts of telecommunications today.
20. State three conditions that an African had to fulfil so as to be assimilated in Senegal. (3mks)
b) Explain six effects of direct rule in Zimbabwe. (12mks)
21a) Mention three ways in which Julius Nyerere assisted African nationalist in Mozambique in
their struggle for independence. (3mks)
b)Explain methods used by African nationalists in their struggle against apartheid rule. (12mks)
SECTION C (30mks)
Answer Any Two Question in this section
22a) Identify three kinds of spirits in the shone kingdom (3mks)
b) Describe the political organization of the Shona in the 19th century (12mks)
23a) Mentor three aims of common market for east and southern Africa.(COMESA). (3mks)
B) Explain six challenges facing East African community. (12mks)
24.A) Identify five source of British constitution. (5mks)

b) Explain the functions of the monarchy in Britain. (10mks)
25.Identifly five sources of British constitution. (5mks)

b) Explain the function of the monarchy in Britain. (10mks)

2023 SERIES 1 TRIAL
GEOGRAPHY
312/1
PAPER 1
TIME: 2¾ HOURS
NAME……………………………………………………………………………………….
SCHOOL……………………………………………… SIGN………………………..
INDEX NO……………………………………………. ADM NO……………………
a) This paper has two sections A and B
b) Answer all the questions in section A
c) Answer question 6 and any other two questions from section B

SECTION QUESTION CANDIDATE SCORE
A 1-5
B 6
7
8
9
10
TOTAL

SECTION A
Answer all the questions in this section.
1.(a) Differentiate between latitudes and longitudes. (2 mks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(b)State three reasons why the interior of the earth is very hot. (3 mks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
2. Describe the origin of the continents according to the theory of continental drift . (5mks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
3.(a) Name the three main stages of the long profile of a river (3mks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(b) State three conditions under which gorges may form (3mks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

4.(a) Give two sources of underground water. (2mks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(b) State three conditions that favour the formation of artesian wells. (3mks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
5.(a) What is the meaning of the term vegetation? (1 mk)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(b) Use the sketch map below to answer the questions that follow

i) Identify the type of vegetation in the shaded region marked F (1 mk)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
ii) State two characteristics of theabove identified vegetation type ( 2mks)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
SECTION B
Answer question six and any other two questions from this section
6. Study the map of Nyeri 1:50,000 (sheet 120/4) provided and answer the following questions.
(a) (i) Give the six figure grid reference of the forest Guard Post at grid square 5059.
(2 marks)
(ii) What is the magnetic variation of the map? (2 marks)
(b) (iii) What is the general direction of the flow of river Chanya? (1 mark)
(c) (i) Using a vertical scale of 1cm to represents 50m; draw a cross section
along Northing 64 from Easting 68 to Easting 78. On it mark and label the
following.
 All weather road
 A hill.
 River. (7 marks)
(ii) Calculate the vertical exaggeration of the cross section. (2 marks)
(iii) Determine the intervisibility of the cross section. (1 mark)
(d) Citing evidence from the map, identify three social services offered in the area covered by
the map. (6 marks)
(e) Explain two ways relief has influenced the distribution of settlement in the area covered by
the map. (4 marks)

7. (a) (i) Define the term volcanicity. (2 marks)
(ii) Name two active volcanoes in Kenya. (2 marks)
(b) (i) Differentiate between solfatara and moffete. (2 marks)
(ii) Identify two areas in Kenya where geysers are found. (2 marks)
(c)(i) A part from batholiths, name three features resulting from intrusive vulcanicity.
(3 marks)
(ii) With the aid of a diagram describe how a batholith is formed. (6 marks)
(d) Explain four negative effects of vulcanicity. (8 marks)
7.(a) (i) What is ocean salinity? (2mks)

(ii) Give three sources of mineral salts in ocean water. (3mks)
(b) Explain three factors that cause horizontal movement of ocean water. (6mks)
(c) Describe how the following are formed
(i) Wave-cut platform. (4mks)
(ii) Cuspate foreland. (5mks)
(d) You intend to carry out a field study on wave deposition on the coast of Kenya.
(i) Formulate two hypotheses for your study. (2mks)
(ii) Give three reasons why you would need to state objectives for your study. (3mks)
8. a) (i) Listfour characteristics of desert soils. (4 mks)

(ii) Give two factors that contribute to soil leaching. (2 mks)
b) Explain how each of the following factors influence the formation of soil
(i) Parent rock (2 mks)
(ii) Living organisms (2 mks)
(iii) Topography (2 mks)
c) Draw a well labelled profile of a mature soil. (5 mks)
d) Differentiate between a soil profile and soil catena. (2 mks)
e) Explain three ways in which human activities contribute to soil erosion. (6 mks)
9. (a)( i) What is a glacier? (2mks)
(ii) How is a glacier formed? (4mks)
b)(i) Explain three processes through which ice moves (6mks)
(ii) Describe the formation of a cirque (3mks)
c) Describe how the movement of valley glaciers is influenced by the following factors
(i) Temperature (2marks)
(ii) Width of glacier channel (2marks)
d. You intend to carry out a field study on Mt Kenya
(i) Name three types of moraines you are likely to identify (3mks)
(ii) State three problems you are likely to encounter (3mks)
10.a) (i) Define the following features

 Erg (1 mk)
 Hamada (1 mk)
 Reg (1 mk)
(ii) State two factors that contribute to the development of hot desert. (2 mks)
b) With the aid of well labeled diagrams explain how a rock pedestal is formed. (8mks)
c) Explain three factors that influence wind transportation in a desert. (6 mks)
d) You are required to carry out a field study of an arid area in Kenya.
(i) Formulate two objectives for the study findings. (2mks)
(ii) State two measures the government would put in place to curb desertification in
Kenya. (2mks)
(iii) Name any two features resulting from action of water in desert areas. (2mks)

2023 SERIES 1 TRIAL
GEOGRAPHY
312/2
PAPER 2
TIME: 2¾ HOURS
NAME……………………………………………………………………………………….
SCHOOL……………………………………………… SIGN………………………..
INDEX NO……………………………………………. ADM NO……………………
INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES.
a) This paper has two Sections; A and B.
b) Answer all the questions in Section A.
c) Answer question6 and any other two questions from section B.
FOR EXAMINER’S USE

Section Question Maximum score Candidate score
A 1 -5 25
B 6 25
7 25
8 25
9 25
10 25
100

SECTION A
Answer all the questions in this section
1 a) State three factors that contribute to growth of slums in urban centers. (3mk)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
b) List two types of settlement patterns in Kenya. (2mk)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
2a) State three physical conditions that favour growing of maize in Kenya. (3mk)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
b) Give two problems facing maize farming in Kenya. (2mk)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
3a) What is air pollution? (2mk)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
b) State three ways that Kenya has adopted to manage air pollution. (3mk)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
4a) Differentiate between a national park and a game reserve. (2mk)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
b) State three effects of human encroachment into wildlife habitats. (3mk)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
5 a) Name two places where diamond mining is done in South Africa. (2mk)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
b) State three problems facing gold mining in South Africa. (3mk)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
SECTION B
Answer question 6 and any other two questions from this section.
6 a) The photograph below shows a crop cultivated under horticultural farming.

a i) identify the type of photograph shown above. (1mk)
ii) Using evidence from the photograph, identify two indicators that show the area receive
high rainfall. (2mk)
iii) Draw a rectangle measuring 15 cm by 10 cm and on it sketch and show the main features.
(4mk)
b) State four reasons why growing of vegetables in green houses in Kenya would be preferred.
(4mk)
c) Explain four difficulties that the Kenyan farmer face in marketing horticultural produce. (8mks)
d) Explain three similarities between horticultural farming in Kenya and Netherlands. (6mk)
7a) Differentiate between pelagic fishing and demersal fishing. (2mk)

b) State four reasons why marine fisheries are not well developed in Kenya. (4mk)
c i) Explain three reasons why Lake Victoria is a major fishing ground in Kenya. (6mk)
ii) Give five ways in which fresh water fisheries in Kenya can be conserved. (5mk)
d) Explain fourdifferences between fishing in Kenya and Japan. (8mk)

8 The sketch map below shows the Great Lakes and the St. Lawrence sea way. Use it to answer
question
a) i) Name the lake marked L. (1mk)

ii) Name the waterfall marked M. (1mk)
iii) Name the sea port marked N. (1mk)
b) i) List three objectives that led to the construction of the St. Lawrence sea way. (3mk)
ii) Explain four ways in which the St. Lawrence Sea way has benefited the economies of
Canada and the USA. (8mk)
c) State threecauses of the decline in use of letters as a mean of communication in Kenya. (3mk)
d)Explain fourefforts made by the Government of Kenya to solve the problems facing
communication in the country. (8mk)
9 a i) Name two places in Kenya where wind energy is being harnessed. (2mk)
ii) Give four reasons why Kenya has not been able to fully exploit her geothermal power
potential. (4mk)

b) Explain four benefits that would result from rural electrification in Kenya. (8mk)
c) Apart from petroleum oil, name three other sources of non -renewable energy. (3mk)
d) i) What is energy crisis. (2mk)
ii) Explain three effects that the increase in petroleum oil prices has had on the economy of
Kenya. (6mk)
10. ai) Name two towns in Kenya with motor vehicle assemblyindustries. (2mks)
ii) State four ways in which Kenya has benefited from the motor vehicle assembly
industries. (4mk)
b) The sketch map below shows the Ruhr Industrial region of Germany.
i) Name the town marked R. (1mk)

ii) Name the canal marked S. (1mk)
iii) Name the river marked T. (1mk)
c) Explain four factors that have led to the growth of the iron and steel industries in the Ruhr
region of Germany. (8mk)
d) Your class has decided to undertake a field study in a factory near your school.
i) Give three reasons why it is important to seek permission from the school. (3mk)
ii) State two reasons why administering questionnaires may not be an appropriate method
to collect data. (2mk)
iii) State three advantages of using statistical tables to record data. (3mk)

2023 SERIES 1 TRIAL
AGRICULTURE
443/1
PAPER 1
TIME: 2 HOURS
NAME……………………………………………………………………………………….
SCHOOL……………………………………………… SIGN………………………..
INDEX NO……………………………………………. ADM NO……………………
INSTRUCTION TO CANDIDATES
a) This paper consists of THREE sections: A, B and C.
b) Answer ALL questions in section A.and B
c) ANY Two questions from section C.
SECTION MARKS CAND. SCORE

A 30
B 20
C 40
TOTAL SCORE 90

SECTION A (30MKS)
Answer all the questions from this section in the spaces provided.
1. Give two characteristics of plantation farming. (1mk)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
2. Name two chemical processes of weathering. (1mk)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
3. State two advantages of organic farming. (1mk)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
4. Outline two effects of soil organisms which benefit plant growth. (1mk)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
5. Give two ways in which organic mulch help to conserve water in the soil. (1mk)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
6. Give two types of labour records. (1mk)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

7. Outline four ways in which land consolidation helps to improve farm management. (2mks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
8. State four importance of raising seedlings in a nursery bed. (2mks)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
9. Give four ways of controlling weeds in a field of maize. (2mks)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
10. State three reasons for top dressing pasture. ( 11/2mks)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
11. Give four reasons for training crops as a field practice . ( 2mks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

12. State three activities the farmer carries out on a store before storing grains. (11/2mks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
13. Give four desirable characteristics of certified seeds. (2mks)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
14. (a) Outline two characteristics of nitrogenous fertilizers. (1mk)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(b) Give the forms in which the following elements are available to plants: (1mk)
(i) Phosphorous: ……………………………………….
(ii) Potassium: ……………………………………
15. Give four factors that influence the choice of tools and equipment used in Primary cultivation.
(2mks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

16. State four factors that contribute to competitive ability of weeds. (2mks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
17. Define the following terms as used in crop production.

(a) Trelishing (1mk)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(b) Stooking (1mk)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
18. Give two advantages of strip grazing (1mk)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
19. State four advantages of mixed pasture. (2mks)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

SECTION B. (20 MARKS)
Answer ALL questions in this section in the spaces provided
20. Study the diagram below and answer the questions that follow. The illustrations represent a method
of crop propagation.
(a) Name the crops (s) propagated by illustrations: (1mrk)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(c) Give three factors that promote the rooting of illustration A. (3mrks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
21. The diagram below illustrates an experiment using garden soil. Study it carefully and answer the
question that follow.

(a) What was the aim of the experiment? (1mrk)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(b) Name the parts labeled C and D. (2mrks)

C………………………………………………………………………………………………………
D………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(c) Name the property of soil being investigated. (1mrk)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
22. The illustration below shows a type of soil erosion. Study it carefully and answer the questions that
follow.
(a) Identify the type of erosion illustrated. (1mrk)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(b) Give two soil factors that influence the rate of soil erosion. (2mrks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(c) Name one agent of soil erosion. (1mrk)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

23. The diagram below illustrate a method of irrigation carried out on the farm
(i) Identify the type of irrigation shown above. (1mk)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(ii) Name two advantages of the above method. (2mks)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
24. The diagram below represent a method of manure preparation. Study it carefully and answer the
questions that follow.

(a) Identify the type of manure being prepared. (1mrk)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(b) Name the parts labeled E and F. (1mrk) .
E………………………………………………………………………………………………
F………………………………………………………………………………………………
(c) Give three disadvantages of manures. (3mrks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
SECTION C (40MARKS)
Answer any TWO question from the section in the spaces provided
25. (a) Give six precautions observed in pruning mature tea (6 mks)
(b) Describe the procedure followed when collecting a soil sample form the field for testing in
the laboratory (6 mks)
(c) Outline four advantages of intercropping crops (4 mks)
(d) State four factors considered before selecting a farm enterprise. (4 mks)
26. Describe the production of tomatoes under the following sub-headings:

i) Ecological requirements of tomato plants (5mks)
ii) Land preparations (4mks)
iii) Transplanting (7mks)
iv) Disease control (4mks)
27. a) State five factors that influence soil productivity. (5mks)

b) State five qualities of mother plant used during grafting. (5mks)
c) Give two types of mulching materials. (2mks)
d) State four agricultural practices which pollute water. (4mks)
e) Describe precautions followed when harvesting coffee. (4mks)

2023 SERIES 1 TRIAL
AGRICULTURE
443/2
PAPER 2
TIME: 2 HOURS
NAME……………………………………………………………………………………….
SCHOOL……………………………………………… SIGN………………………..
INDEX NO……………………………………………. ADM NO……………………
INSTRUCTION TO CANDIDATES
1. This paper consist of three section A,B and C.
2. Answer ALL questions n section A and B.
3. Answer any TW questions in section C.
4. Answers should in spaces provided
SECTION QUESTION MAX.SCORE CANDIDATE SCORE
A 1-17 30
B 17-21 20
C 20
20
TOTAL SCORE 90

Answer All Questions in This Section
1. Name four notifiable diseases of cattle (2mks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
2. Outline four qualities of eggs for incubation (2mks)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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3. State the ingredients required in preparation of artificial colostrum (2mks)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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4. Give two symptoms of bloat (2mks)

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5. Give two light breeds of poultry (1mk)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

6. Name two characterstics that make indigenous cattle better suited to marginal areas than exotic
cattle (2mks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
7. State four signs of heaf in pigs (2mks)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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8. Give two reasons for seasoning timber before it is used for construction (2mks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
9. State four reasons for dehorning cattle (2mks)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
10. Differentiate between pin mating and flock mating in poultry (2mks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

11. Give four reasons why it is important to maintain farm tools and equipment (2mks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
12. State two reasons why hoof trimming is carried out in sheep (1mk)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
13. Give four factors that affect the digestibility of a feed (2mks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
14. Name two livestock diseases controlled through artificial insermination (1mk)
.......................................................................................................................
.......................................................................................................................
.......................................................................................................................
15. Give the uses of each of the following workshop tools (2mks)
(i) Centre punch
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(ii) Bastard file
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

16. State two factors that lower the quality of concrete (1mk)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
17. Outline four factors that determine the national requirement of an animal (2mks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
SECTION B (20 MARKS)

Answer All Questions In This Section In The Spaces Provided
18. Below is a diagram of an implement used for primary cultivation .Study if carefully and answer
question 18(a) and (b)
Dia
(a) Identify the implements represented above
.......................................................................................................................
(b) Name the parts labelled E, F, G and H (2mks)

E.....................................................................................................................
F.....................................................................................................................
G....................................................................................................................
H....................................................................................................................
(c) State two ways in which the depth of ploughing can be increased when using the above
implement (2mks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

19. Below is a diagram of a cross-section of a poultry house showing a set –up of a brooder study it
carefully and then answer question 19(a)
(a) What is the purpose of the part labelled P (2mks)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(b) Name any material that would be suitable for use as litter in this brooder (1mk)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(c) State two observations that would be made on the behaviour of chicks to determine when the
temperature in the brooder is too high for the chicks (2mks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

20. Diagram Q and R below illustrate a practise carried out on livestock .Study diagrams and answer
the questions that follow.
Q R
(a) State the practice in Q and R (1mk)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(b) Name the methods carried out in Q and R.
Q ............................................................................................................... (1mk)
R ................................................................................................................. (1mk)
(c) State one advantage of practice R over Q (1mk)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(d) Using method Q draw the animal whose number b 75

21. The diagram below presents an external parasite. Study it carefully and answer question that
follows
(a) Identify the parasite (1mk)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(b) State two effects of parasite of parasite shown on livestock (2mks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(c) Give two control measures for the parasite illustrated above (2mks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
SECTION C (40MARKS)
Answer Any Two Questions From This Section In The Spaces Provided After Questions 24.
22. (a) Describe the life cycle of beef tape worm (taenia saginata) (10mks)
(b) Describe the disease foot and mouth disease under the following sub-headings
(i) Causal agent (1mk)
(ii) Pre-disposing factors (2mks)
(iii) Symptoms (4mks)
(iv) Control measures (3mks)
23. (a) Describe factors to consider when planning the layout of a mixed farm (12mks)
(i) Milk secretion (4mks)
(ii) Milk let down (4mks)
24. (a) Describe the preparation you would make before the arrival of day old chicks and their
care for the finish one week (12mks)
(b) Describe the daily maintenance and servicing of a tractor before use (8mks)

2023 SERIES 1 TRIAL
BUSINESS STUDIES
565/1
PAPER 1
TIME: 2 HOURS
NAME……………………………………………………………………………………….
SCHOOL……………………………………………… SIGN………………………..
INDEX NO……………………………………………. ADM NO……………………
565/1
BUSINESS STUDIES
PAPER 1
TIME: 𝟐 𝐇𝐎𝐔𝐑𝐒
• Answer all the question in section A.
FOR OFFICIAL USE ONLY
Question 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14
Marks
Scored
Question 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25
Marks
Scored

QUESTIONS
1. State four ways in which knowledge of business studies would benefit a secondary school leaver.
(4mks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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2. Give four reasons why one would prefer a partnership instead of a sole proprietorship? (4mks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
3. Identify (by √) whether the following factors form the external or internal environment. (4mks)
Factors External Internal
a) Recruitment of workers
b) Political stability
c) Development of infrastructure
d) Purchase of modern equipment
4. State four characteristics of economic resources. (4mks)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

5. Highlight four roles of warehousing in promotion of trade. (4mks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
6. Highlight four circumstances under which an insurance contract can be terminated. (4mks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
7. Outline four reasons why government of Kenya preferred to privatize state owned business
enterprises. (4mks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
8. State the books of original entry in which each of the following transactions would be recorded.
Transactions Book of original entry
a) Sold machine on credit
b) Received sh 40,000 cash from Mutua a debtor.
c) Sold goods worth sh 20,000 on credit to jirani stores.
d) Returned goods previously bought to rajab traders.

9. State four advantages of using m-pesa account to an individual. (4mks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
10. Outline four steps involved in personal selling. (4mks)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
11. Highlight four challenges that may be encountered by using a long channel to distribute farm
produce. (4mks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
12. State four business documents to which each of the following relates.
Statement Document
(a) Informs the buyers when goods were dispatched.
(b) A request by seller for payment in advance
(c) Used to correct undercharge in an invoice
(d) Show details of transaction between sellers and buyers.

13. State four circumstances which a firm may choose to operate on small scale basis. (4mks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
14. The following information was extracted from the books of Juma stores on 31 st march 2010
Sh
 Stock 1st april 2010 8000
 Stock 31st march 2011 9000
 Purchases 4500
 Sales 21000
Calculate
i. Margin (2mks)
ii. Rate of stock turnover. (2mks)
15. Outline four causes of demand pull inflation. (4mks)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

16. The following balances were extracted from books of Rapu merchants for the year ended 31 st
Dec 2006.
 Sh
 Land 110,000
 Debtors 64,000
 Capital 166,100
 Sales 95,000
 Purchases 58,000
 Stock 35,000
 Creditors 47,700
 General expenses 41,800
Prepare a trial balance as at 31st Dec 2016 (4mks)
17. Highlight four negative implication of rapidly growing population in a country (4mks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
18. Mention four circumstances under which a producer will find it necessary to transport goods by
train. (4mks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

19. State four features of oligopoly market. (4mks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
20. In the spaces provided write decrease, increase or no effect to show the effects of each one of the
following transactions on assets, liabilities or capital.
Transaction Asset liabilities capital
(a) Bought furniture on credit
(b) Paid creditors by cash
(c) Withdrew goods for personal use
(d) Converted personal van for business use.
21. Give four reasons why a manufacturer may offer after sale services to his customers. (4mks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
22. Outline four features of capital as a factor of production. (4mks)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

23. State four characteristics of direct production. (4mks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
24. Identify the office equipment that is used in each of the purposes. (4mks)
(a) Printing postage impressions on envelope ………………………………….
(b) Preparing cash receipts…………………………………………………………
(c) Cutting unwanted documents into tiny pieces………………………………
(d) Pinning papers together…………………………………………………………
25. Give four circumstances under which a person could use signals to communicate with another.
(4mks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

2023 SERIES 1 TRIAL
BUSINESS STUDIES
565/2
PAPER 2
TIME: 2½ HOURS
NAME……………………………………………………………………………………….
SCHOOL……………………………………………… SIGN………………………..
INDEX NO……………………………………………. ADM NO……………………
Instructions to Candidates
(b) Sign and write the date of the examination in the spaces provided above.
(c) This paper consists of 6 questions.
(d) Answer ANY FIVE questions in the spaces provided
FOR TEACHER’S USE ONLY

Question Maximum Score Candidate’s Score
20
20
20
20
20
Total Score

Answer ANY FIVE questions in the spaces provided
1. a) Explain five functions of money (10mks)
b) Differentiate between a public limited company and a partnership (10mks)
2. a) Explain five principles that guide the tax system in a country (10mks)
b) Labour is one of the basic factors of production. Outline five measures that a business can take to
increase the productivity of its labour force (10mks)
3. a) With the aid of a diagram, explain the effects of an increase in supply on equilibrium price
and quantity of a commodity (10mks)
b) Discuss five causes of unfavourable balance of payment for most developing countries (10mks)
4. a) Explain five factors that influence the choice of a channel for distributing flowers (10mks)
b) Explain five circumstances that would influence a producer to use wholesalers in distributing
farm produce (10mks)
5. a) The following balances relate to Msafiri traders as at 31 st December 2014
Sh
Purchases 900,000
 Stock 1.1.2014 230,000
 Buildings 1,200,000
 Motor vehicles 750,000
 Returns outwards 50,000
 Debtors 190,000
 Creditors 310,000
 Loan from IDB 600,000
 Cash 130,000
 Bank 270,000
 Drawings 100,000
 Capital 1,840,000
 Net profit 170,000
Additional information
i) Stock 31/12/14 280,000
ii) Expenses (including carriage inwards Shs. 150,000) 250,000
Required
a) Balance sheet as at 31st December 2014 (6mks)
b) Calculate
i) Mark-up percentage (5mks)
ii) Return on capital employed (2mks)
b) Explain five problems associated with a sole proprietorship form of a business (10mks)
6.a) Businesses are adopting new technology in their operations. Explain five limitations of adoption
of this practice (10mks)
b) The following balance sheet was extracted from the books of Sagana traders on 1 st April 2015
Sagana Traders
Balance sheet
As at 1st April 2015
Sh Sh.
Equipment 200,000 Capital 415,000
Furniture 82,000 Mutai (creditor) 27,000
Stock 140,000
Cash 20,000
442,000 442,000
The following transactions took place during the month of April 2015
4th April: Sagan traders sold her personal assets for sh. 30,000 receiving payment by cheque which
she invested in the business
10th: She purchased goods for sh. 29, 000 on credit from Mutai
19th April: She returned goods worth sh. 3,000 to Mutai after they were found defective.
Required
a) Open the ledger accounts record the above transactions and balance them off.
(b) Extract a trial balance (10mks)

2023 SERIES 1 TRIAL
ENGLISH
(Functional Writing, Cloze Test, Oral Skills)
101/1
PAPER 1
TIME: 2 HOURS
NAME……………………………………………………………………………………….
SCHOOL……………………………………………… SIGN………………………..
INDEX NO……………………………………………. ADM NO……………………
1) Write your Name, Admission number and Class in the spaces provided above.
2) Sign and write the date of examination in the spaces provided above.
3) Answer all questions in this question paper.
FOR EXAMINER’S USE ONLY:

QUESTION MAXIMUM SCORE CANDIDATE’S SCORE
1 20
2 10
3 30
TOTAL SCORE 60

1. FUNCTIONAL WRITING (20 MARKS)
You are going to the Masai Mara on a three day trip.
a) Write a shopping list of the items that you will require. (8marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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b) Prepare a journal you kept for the three days you were there. (12marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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2. CLOZE TEST (10 marks)
Read the passage below and fill in each blank space with the most appropriate word
Tourism is one of the jewels in Kenya’s economic crown, contributing …………………………. the
economy as it is one of the top three income generating sectors that contribute immensely to the
GDP. It has …………………………..since before independence owing to the unique attractions
our country …………………………………………visitors. But it is also the most vulnerable to
disruption. Just one or two …………………………………………… advisories can wipe out
millions ………………………..dollars in revenue for industry players and this just
………………………………….. of a perception that visitors are not safe.
This is the reality that our election managers, our security forces, our media and all of
…………………. should endevour to forestall. We cannot afford to play dice with our economic
lifeline. And we cannot let a basic,regular and too often repeated civic
………………………………like a general election deprive us of our livelihoods, if not our
lives. Elections …………………………………and go. They should afford us an opportunity for
renewal and not plunge us into a fear that we spread to visitors from afar.
3. ORAL SKILLS (30mks)

ORAL NARRATIVE
People Should Mind Their Own Business
There was once a man who was a trapper and he used to set his traps and catch birds and small animals
in the forest. Now, this man had a wife. And every day, he set out to go to the forest. Whenever he
caught something, like a guinea fowl, he would go and sell part of what he had caught and other
part he would take home to eat. With the money he got from selling some of the creatures he
caught, he bought rice for himself and his wife to eat.
As time passed, he began to trap some really big animals and birds. He would slaughter them and, as
usual, take some of the meat to the market to sell and the rest
to his house to eat. He always bought rice for their food. One day he caught a number of rabbits. He
slaughtered them and sold some of the meat.
But the trapper’s wife never found the liver in any meat of which he brought home. This is because
the trapper had made a pact with a beast of the forest: ‘You do the trapping and catching…me, I
will keep an eye on your trap here and whatever you trap, what is inside is for me and the flesh is
for you.’
So the wife never found the liver and began to wonder. She said to the trapper, “What kind of husband
are you, then? Every day you bring me game meat and what do you do with the livers of all these

animals?” He answered her,”My wife, one shouldn’t get involved in other people’s affairs; one
should mind one’s own business. Be content with what I bring you and don’t go around asking
unnecessary questions.” But the woman wouldn’t listen. She said to herself, “I’ll follow him.”
So, one day the man went out and set his trap. He had set his trap out there and the woman didn’t know
where the trap was. She came walking, kwah-kwah-kwah! and the lion was there, the one which
had made a pact with the man that whatever was caught, the tripe or innards would be for it and
the flesh for the man. Anyway, here was the woman, walking, walking and walking, and then, all
of a sudden, huruuuu-kwi! The trap caught her. There she was, held up by the head, her legs
dangling down.
Now, her husband was coming along, far behind her. “Oh,oh, my friend!” exclaimed the lion when it
saw him arrive, “Today we’ve caught a really big animal! We always catch small animals but today
we’ve got the real one, the two-legged one!”
“Oh, no!” said the man, “Don’t say that. This is my wife.” “No, no, no,” said the lion, “I am not going
to have any of that. We’ve agreed that of whatever comes here, what is in the stomach is mine and
the flesh is yours. I can’t allow you to back out now.”
The Hare was passing by and the man called him. “Hey, Hare, come and help us to settle this.” The
Hare came and asked the woman, “Now, how did you get up there?” “Well, I was passing here like
this, just passing like this and…”
“Wait a minute,” said the Hare. “Let’s set her free first, so that she can show us, this woman, how she
got caught up in the trap.”
So, they left the woman off the trap and the Hare set it exactly as it had been before she got caught in
it. Then he said to the Lion, “Maybe you can show us how this woman got caught in the trap.”
The Lion said, “Sure. She came walking like this, like this and like this and then stepped on the trap
and then it went huruuuu-kwiand caught her. Hey, look here my friend,” said the Lion, “Set me
free at once.”
The Hare laughed and said, “No way!” then he turned to the woman and said, “Now you, make
yourself scarce at once!” the woman turned and ran all the way home without even looking back
once.
Later, when the trapper came home, he said to his wife, “That was a narrow escape, wasn’t it? Your
inquisitiveness and suspicion nearly got you into trouble.”
Well, that’s it. It isn’t me who made up the stories; it’s the people of long ago.
Translated and adapted from: N. Gueunier. Si Mimi MwongoWatuwaZamani. Zanzibar:
EACROTANAL, 1980.
i) What techniques will the narrator use to capture and maintain the audience attention? (2 marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

ii) If you were part of the audience for this story, explain two things you would do to show that you
are participating in the performance (2 marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
iii) Identify and illustrate two sound devices that have been used in this story. (2 marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
b) Give a word that is pronounced the same as the following (2marks)

i. bark
ii. dough
c) Study the genre below and answer the questions that follow
Gregory and Grace grew glassy grapes and grimy garlic gladly.
i. Classify the genre above (1mark)
ii. Give two functions of the genre above (2 marks)
iii. Identify one sound device used in the genre (1 mark)
d) Imagine you are a speaker at a youth rally. Identify four speech enhancing cues you would
employ and explain how it would make the speech more effective (4 marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
e) Imagine you are going to take part in the debate in your school. Explain what you would do as
preparation and what you would do during presentation to convince your audience. (4 marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
f) Underline the part (syllable) where the stress falls in the following words. (4 marks)
i. Exaggerate
ii. Amalgamate
iii. Amaze
iv. Forgive
g) Consider the following group discussion and answer the questions that follow.
Chairperson: Our teacher has asked us to discuss the importance of poetry. As the chairperson, I
should begin by giving my observations about it. I find poetry exciting and I have even tried to
compare some……………………………………………………………………
Tony: We need to report back……………………………………………………………………..
Chairperson: I will do the reporting
Jane: But Mr. Chairperson, can you chair and record what we are going to say at the same time?
And is it proper?
George:I don’t even know why people write poetry anyway. Why can’t they write in a
straightforward way?
Tamara: for me, a poem tries to capture a moment of human feelings that are universal in
significance and as readers………………………………………………………...………..
Chairperson: You didn’t allow me to finish. As I was saying
Mandy: But have we resolved the question of procedure?
Chairperson: I give up. Somebody else can chair and report to the rest of the class.

i) Identify the limitations both in the chairing and participation. (6 marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

2023 SERIES 1 TRIAL
ENGLISH
(Comprehension, Literary Appreciation and Grammar)
101/2
PAPER 2
TIME: 2½ HOURS
NAME……………………………………………………………………………………….
SCHOOL……………………………………………… SIGN………………………..
INDEX NO……………………………………………. ADM NO……………………
a) Write your name and index number in the spaces provided above.
b) Sign and write the date of examination in the spaces provided above.
c) Answer all the questions in this paper.
d) All your answers must be written in the spaces provided in the question paper.

QUESTION MAX SCORE SCORE
1 20
2 25
3 20
4 15
TOTAL SCORE 80

1. COMPREHENSION: (20MKS)
Read the following passage and then answer the questions that follow:
There is nothing as important as a pregnant woman getting all the emotional support she can get during
pregnancy. It makes her appreciate the pregnancy and in turn care of it well, says Dr. Maxwell
Okonji.
The doctor talked to Pregnant Magazine on how you can use your mental muscle to handle any
pregnancy misgivings.
“Once you discover that you are pregnant, you need to be optimistic”, says Dr. Okonji. Positive
handling of a pregnancy is one of the surest ways of carrying it to term, minus health complications.
He adds: “Stress and worry, which are bound to accompany the numerous emotional and physical
changes that come along with pregnancy, can lead to depression”.
Depression, particularly during pregnancy, often drains your energy, which can prevent you from
seeking appropriate prenatal care. Depressed pregnant women are more likely to abuse alcohol or
drugs during the term. When it is most severe, depression can lead to self harm and even suicide.
Are you depressed?
Persistent feelings of sadness, self-pity and hopelessness during the pregnancy are common. The
feeling could be accompanied by difficulty in sleeping or oversleeping, weight loss or change in
appetite, irritability or mood swings; difficulty in concentration, characteristic or bizarre behaviour,
and thoughts of self-harm.
You may notice that you have become unusually hostile and fight with your spouse often with no
prompt.
Feeling as though you could do without the pregnancy at that time and that it is the reason that is
constantly making you angry.
Having a mental condition; before pregnancy, make depression more likely during pregnancy. Again,
if during a previous pregnancy – a woman showed signs of depression, chances are that when she
falls pregnant again, it will recur.
In cases where depression is severe with prompting to suicide, termination of the pregnancy may be
called for. This is purely on medical grounds. This usually happens during the first three months.
Termination should, however, be a last resort, after other modes of treatment have failed.
In the first three months of pregnancy, it is not unusual for a pregnant woman to have to experience
nausea and vomiting.

These are very frustrating to the mother, particularly if it’s a first pregnancy. During this time, it is
normal to have mood changes like touchiness and irritability overfriendliness to certain people and
nastiness to others is a normal occurrence. This happens to a varying extent and not to all women.
After the third month or so, those early signs of pregnancy and the mood changes disappear. The
middle trimester, from four to six months, is a stable time for most women, with little or no
problems during that time. The second and third trimester present more mood changes as the
mother begins to feel the baby and in turn prepares to receive her. Mood changes are quite normal
and do not pose any threat to the pregnancy however, in case you as a woman notice that the moods
border on the extreme, then it is recommended that you talk to a counselor.
Adapted from, Lifestyle Sunday Nation, 13th November 2011
QUESTIONS
(a) According to the author what are the most essential things to a pregnant woman? (2mks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(c) In note form, what are the consequences of depression to a pregnant woman? (5mks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(c) How will a pregnant woman know that she is depressed? (4mks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

(d) According to the passage, a certain group of women are likely to experience depression.
Who are they? (2mks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(e) If depression in a pregnant woman becomes worse, what should be done? (2mks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(f) Provide an antonym of the word “angry”. (1mk)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(g) Explain the meaning of the following words and phrases as used in the passage? (4mks)
(i) Mental muscle.
(ii) Misgiving
(iii) Drains
(iv) Last resort

2. Read the excerpt below and then answer the questions that follow.
Krogstad : I asked you if it was only a disagreeable scene at home that you were afraid of?
Nora : If my husband does get to know of it, of course he will at once pay you what is
still owing, and we shall have nothing more to do with you.
Krogstad : (coming a step nearer)Listen to me, Mrs. Helmer. Either you have a very bad
memory or you know very little of business. I shall be obliged to remind you of a few
details.
Nora : What do you mean?
Krogstad : When your husband was ill, you came to me to borrow two hundred and fifty
pounds.
Nora : I didn’t know anyone else to go to.
Krogstad : I promised to get you that amount___
Nora : Yes, and you did so.
Krogstad : I promised to get you that amount, on certain conditions. Your mind was taken up with
your husband’s Illness, and you were so anxious to get the money for your journey that you
seem to have paid no attention to the conditions of our bargain. Therefore, it will not be
amiss if I remind you of them. Now, I promised to get the money on the security of a bond
which I drew up.
Nora: Yes, and which I signed.
Krogstad: Good. But below your signature there were a few lines constituting your father a
surety for the money; those lines your father should have signed.
QUESTIONS
(a) Place the excerpt in its immediate context. (4 mks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

(b) What disagreeable scene is Krogstad alluding to? (2 mks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(c) What reasons did Nora have when getting the money from Krogstad? (2 mks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(d) State and explain any one character trait of the following. (2 mks)
(i) Krogstad
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(ii) Norah
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(e) Why is Krogstad so much keen in protecting his job at the bank. (2 mks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(f) State and explain any two styles used in this excerpt. (2 mks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

(g) With reference to the rest of the play, what makes Nora’s procurement of money from Krogstad
fraudulent? (3 mks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(h) Explain the meaning of the following words as used in the passage.
(a) Obliged ( 1 mk)
(b) Amiss (1 mk)
(i) Write the following statement as a question.

I promised to get you that amount. (2 mks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
3. POETRY:
Read the poem below and answer the questions that follow. (20mks)
WILFRED OWEN
Dulce Et Decorum Est.
Bent double, like old beggars under sacks,
Knock-kneed, coughing like hags, we cursed through sludge,
Till on the haunting flares we turned our backs
And towards our distant rest began to trudge.
Men marched asleep. Many had lost their boots
But limped on, blood-shod. All went lame; all blind;
Drunk with fatigue; deaf even to the hoots.
Of disappointed shells that dropped behind.
GAS! Gas! Quick, boys!—An ecstasy of fumbling,

Fitting the clumsy helmets just in time;
But someone still was yelling out and stumbling
And floundering like a man in fire or lime.—
Dim, through the misty panes and thick green light
As under a green sea, I saw him drowning.
In all my dreams, before my helpless sight,
He plunges at me, guttering, choking, drowning.
If in some smothering dreams you too could pace

Behind the wagon that we flung him in,
And watch the white eyes writhing in his face,
His hanging face, like a devil’s sick of sin;
If you could hear, at every jolt, the blood
Come gargling from the froth-corrupted lungs,
Obscene as cancer, bitter as the cud
Of vile, incurable sores on innocent tongues,--
My friend, you would not tell with such high zest
To children ardent for some desperate glory,
The old Lie: Dulce et decorum est
Pro patria mori.*
____________________________________________________________
*Latin for: It is sweet and fitting to die for one’s country.
(i) Describe briefly what the poem is about. (4mks)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(ii) Who is the persona? (2mks)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(iii) Identify and illustrate any three features of style used in the poem. (6mks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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(iv) Explain one thematic concern raised in the poem. (3mks)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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(v) Comment on the title of the poem. (2mks)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(vi) Give the meaning of the following words. (3mks)

(a) trudge
(b) fumbling
(c) zest
4. GRAMMAR: (15MKS)
(a) Rewrite the following sentences according to the instructions given after each. (3mks)
(i) I cannot decide what to eat (Begin: What …………….)
(ii) The Ministry of Education has warned all principals. (Rewrite in Passive)
(iii) The bridge had been weakened by successive storms and was no longer safe. (Begin:
Weakened……………..)

(b) Complete the following sentences with the most appropriate prepositions. (3mks)
(i) His breath smelt ___________________________________ alcohol.
(ii) He has been dealing __________________________ hardware for a long time.
(iii) I disagreed ______________________________________ him over the issue.
(c) Complete the following sentences with the correct form of words in brackets. (3mks)
(i) The __________________________ (sell) of the house has been
stopped.
(ii) John Michuki’s death is an _____________________ (repair) loss of the nation.
(iii) The meat that we carried ______________________ (stink) after only two days.
(d) In the sentences below, choose the correct pronoun to fill in the blanks. (2mks)
(i) Temu gave Ombiro and ___________________ (I, me) birthday gifts.
(ii) It was _______________________ (she, her) who was rewarded.
(e)In the following sentences identify the verbs and state whether they are
transitively or intransitively used. (2mks)
(i) Mirang’a shut the door.
(ii) The baby slept soundly the whole night.
(f) Complete the following sentences with the correct order of adjectives in brackets. (2mks)
(i) The principal sank into his ____________________ (leather, new, comfortable, Kenyan) chair.
(ii) I had to wear __________________________ (grey, woolen, executive) jacket.

2023 SERIES 1 TRIAL
ENGLISH
(Imaginative Composition and Essays Based on the Set Texts)
101/3
PAPER 3
TIME: 2½ HOURS
NAME……………………………………………………………………………………….
SCHOOL……………………………………………… SIGN………………………..
INDEX NO……………………………………………. ADM NO……………………
INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDINDATES
a) Answer three questions only
b) Question one and two are compulsory
c) In question three, choose only one of the optional texts you have prepared on.
d) Where a candidate presents work on more than one optional text, only the first to appear will
be marked.
e) Each essay should not exceed 450 words.
FOR EXAMINER’S USE ONLY.

QUESTION TOTAL MARKS CANDIDATE’S SCORE
1.Imaginative Composition 20
2.The Compulsory Set Text 20
3.The Optional Set Text 20
TOTAL 60

1. IMAGINATIVE COMPOSITION (20 MKS)
Either
a) Write a story starting with the statement,
The news on the cancellation of my KCSE results after being in Bahati High School for five years
was received with shock and resentment…………………
OR
b) Write a composition based on the following statement.
“The solution to the run-away corruption is in the hands of Kenyan’s themselves.”
2. Compulsory questions. The Blossoms of Savannah by Olet Kulet (20 mks)

‘Our greatest enemies are those close to us.’ Support this statement with illustrations from the novel.
3. Answer only one question from these choices

THE OPTIONAL SETBOOKS (20 MKS)
Either
a) Short story
Ninema is an admirable character. Support this from Vrenika Pather's 'Ninema'
OR
b) The Novel: Kazuo Ishiguro, Artist of the Floating World.

The teachers in “An Artist of the Floating World” have a passionate, paradoxical relationship
to their most gifted students. Discuss.
(c)Inheritance, David Mulwa

“Lacuna represents the evil that bedevils our leaders.” Write an essay to justify this using
Inheritance by David Mulwa.

2023 SERIES 1 TRIAL
KISWAHILI
102/1
PAPER 1
TIME: 1¾ HOURS
NAME……………………………………………………………………………………….
SCHOOL……………………………………………… SIGN………………………..
INDEX NO……………………………………………. ADM NO……………………
MAAGIZO
a) Andika jina lako na nambari yako ya mtihani katika nafasi ulizoachiwa hapo juu.
b) Tia sahihi yako kisha uandike tarehe ya mtihani katika nafasi ulizoachiwa hapo juu.
c) Andika insha mbili. Swali la kwanza ni la lazima.
d) Kisha chagua insha nyingine moja kutoka kwa hizo tatu zilizobakia.
e) Kila insha isipungue maneno 400.
f) Kila insha ina alama 20.
g) Kila insha lazima iandikwe kwa lugha ya Kiswahili
KWA MATUMIZI YA MTAHINI PEKEE

Swali Upeo Alama
1 20
2 20
3 20
4 20
Jumla 40

INSHA
1. Lazima.
Umepata kazi ya utangazaji katika kampuni moja nchini. Umealikwa kwa mahojiano. Andika
mahojiano kati yako na mkurugenzi wa kampuni hiyo (al.20)
2. Andika kisa kitakachodhihitisha maana ya methali sikio la kufa halisikii dawa (al.20)
3. Jadili mikakati inayotumiwa na serikali kupambana na tishio la usalama nchini (al.20)
4. Andika kisa kitakachomalizia kwa maneno haya

……….nilitamani ardhi ipasuke inimeze mzima mzima. (al.20)

2023 SERIES 1 TRIAL
KISWAHILI
(Matumizi Ya Lugha)
102/2
PAPER 2
TIME: 2½ HOURS
NAME……………………………………………………………………………………….
SCHOOL……………………………………………… SIGN………………………..
INDEX NO……………………………………………. ADM NO……………………
MAAGIZO
1. Jibu maswali yote katika nafasi uliyopewa.
2. Andika majibu yako kwa lugha ya Kiswahili.
SWALI UPEO ALAMA
1. Ufahamu 15
2. Ufupisho 15
3. Matumizi ya lugha 40
4. Isimujamii 10
Jumla 80

SEHEMU YA KWANZA (ALAMA 15)
UFAHAMU
MAJILIO ya wakoloni barani Afrika ambao walidumisha utawala wao katika’bara jeusi’ kwa takriban
kipindi cha miaka sabini kulisababisha mivutano ya kiisimu mpaka leo (Ngugi,1993,uk 42)
Wakoloni walizipa kipaimbele lugha za kigeni na kuzikandamiza zile za kiasili zisiweze kuelezea
uhalisi wa maisha katika viwango vya teknolojia. Kwa hakika, itazichukua lugha hizi muda mrefu
kwenda sambamba na maendeleo ya fikra na teknolojia kwa kutoandaliwa vyema kutekeleza
wajibu huu.
Lugha ni kipengele muhimu sana cha utamaduni. Hivyo basi serikali zinawajibika kuzilinda, sio tu
kwa sababu lugha zimejaa maarifa mengi ya tangu jadi, bali pia kwa sababu lugha ni chombo cha
maendeleo ya binadamu.
Maarifa yote na ufanisi wa binadamuu huelezwa kupitia kwa lugha. Mwelekeo ulioonekana kishika
sana katika mataifa megi barani afrika, ikiwemo Kenya, ni kuhusudu lugha na tamanduni za kigeni.
Lugha za kigeni zimehusishwa na maendeleo na ustaarabu.
Hatua iliyochukuliwa na serikali ya Tanzania ya kufunza masomo yote kwa lugha ya Kiswahili
kuanzia darasa la kwanza hadi chuo kikuu ilizua kejeli na kicheko kwa baadhi wa wakenya;
hususan katika stesheni za fm. Kisa na maana: jambo hili haliwezekani!
Je, ni lazima tutegemee lugha za kigeni kupiga hatua kimaendeleo? La hasha! Kuna ushahidi wa
mataifa kama vile Uchina, Ufini,Sweden, Indonesia,Japan,Malaysia, India,Uyahudi n.k.
yalioendeleza lugha zao kimakusudi ili ziweze kukidhi haja kufundishia masomo yote hadi
viwango vya juu sana vya elimu.
Katika sherehe za kuadhimisha siku ya kimataifa ya ‘lugha mama’ miongoni mwa mataifa wanachama
wa umoja wa mataifa (united Nations International Mother Language Day) mnamo februari, 2000,
mkurugenzi wa shirika la umoja wa mataifa kuhusu Elimu,sayansi na utamanduni(UNESCO),
jenerali koichiro Matsuura alisema: ‘mojawapo ya vigezo vitumiwayo na wataalmu kukadiria
iwapo lugha Fulani inatishiwa kuangamia au kufa ni iwapo watoto wanajifunza lugha hiyo…
Iwapo takribani asilimia 30 ya watoto, hawajifunzi lugha yao’ya mama’, basi lugha hiyo inatishiwa
kuangamia… lugha hiyo bila shaka huenda ikafa pamoja na kizazi kinachoizungumza.’
Kwa mujibu wa UNESCO, lugha nyingi ambazo zimetishiwa kufa au kutoweka zinapatikana katika
mabara ya merakani na Australia. Shirika hililinaongeza kuwa, nchini Kenya, lugha kama vile
suba,El Molo, Lorkoti, Yaaku sogoo,kore,Segeju,Omotik, na KInare’ zimekufa’ au kutoweka huku
Bong’om na Terik/Tiriki zimo kwenye hatari ya kutoweka.
Lugha pia huangamia wakati ambapo lugha hizo zinashindwa kuzihudumia jamii zao ipasavyo kama
chombo mahsusi cha mtagusano wa kijamii. Baadhi ya lugha huku na kusambaa huku zingine
zikididimia na hatimaye’kumezwa’ na lugha zilizoshaimiri au hata kutoweka kabisa. Kwa mfano,
jamii ya Seng’wer ‘imemezwa’ na makabila kama vile Wapokot, Wamarakwet, Wakeiyo,
Watugen, Wanandi na Waluhya, ilhali Wakipsigis,Watugen na Wamaasai’wammeza’jamii ya
Ogiek.

Hata hivyo,mkaoni nyanza ya kusini nchini Kenya, wakakti wa uchaguzi mdogo wa useneta katika
gatuzi ya Homabay, tulisikia kupitia kwa profesa….(aliyewania kiti), kwamba jamii ya Abasuba
ipo-wala’haijamezwa’ na jamii ya waluo.
Msimamo wa wizara ya elimu nchini Kenya kuhusu ufundishaji wa ‘lugha ya mama’ unaonekana
kuyumba. Mara tunaambiwa lugha ya mama itafundishwa katika madarasa ya chini katika shule
za mashambani; mara tunaambiwa itafundishwa katika madarsa ya chini katika maeneo Fulani;
ilimradi wizara haijitokeza waziwazi na sera wala mwongozo mwafaka.
Njogu (2003) anahoji;’mkondo uliopo nchini Kenya hivi sasa ni ule wa jamii nyingi kuwahimiza
watoto wao kuzungumza lugha za kigeni kama vile kiingeraza, kifaransa, na hata kijerumani na
kupuuza lugha ya kwanza. Hii inatokanan na imani kuwa lugha za kigeni ndizo zitakazofungua
njia za kigeni ndizo zitakazofungua njia za maendeleo hapo baadaye.
Mkondo huu usipozuiliwa, huenda ukasababisha vifo vya lugha za kiasili’ Njogu anaendelea: ‘uwezo
wa kuongea lugha nyingine pamoja na yenye asili ya kikoloni huweza kujenga jisia za kujiamini
miongoni mwa watu wasiokuwa na uwezo mwingi wa kiuchumi-nako kujiamini ni hatua ya awali
ya kuleta maendeleo ya jamii’MAKIWA! Familia, jamaa na marafiki wa Grace Ogot aliyeandika
baadhi ya kazi zake kwa lugha ya mama.
Maswali
1. Ni nini kisababishi cha mivutano ya kiisimu katika bara la afrika (al. 2)
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2. Serikali zinafaa kuwajibika katika kuzilinda lugha . eleza (al. 2)

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3. Ni hatua gani ambayo ilichukuliwa nan chi ya Tanzania ambayo ilizua kejeli na kicheko kwa
baadhi ya wakenya (al. 1)
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4. Lugha ya mama inasemekana kuwa katika tishio la kuangamia kwa kutumia vigezo gani? (al. 2)
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5. Kwa nini jamii nyingi huwahimiza watoto wao kuzungumza lugha za kigeni kigeni (al. 2)
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6. Kuna mabara ambayo yametajwa kuwa na lugha nyingi ambazo zinatishiwa na kufa au
kutoweka. Yataje mabara hayo. (al. 2)
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7. “Msimamo wa wizara ya elimu kuhusu ufundishaji wa lugha ya mama unaonekana kuyumba “

Eleza (al. 2)
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8. Eleza maana ya msamiati ufuatayo kwa mujibu wa taarifa au ufahamu

a) Takriban
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b) Mtagusano
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UFUPISHO
TUMEKWISHA kueleza katika makala ya hapo awli kuwa lugha ni maalum kwa binadamu tu na
kwamba hakuna kiumbe yeyote ambaye si mwanadamu mwenye uwezo wa kujua, kujifunza na
kutumia lugha zaidi ya binadamu.
Bila shaka, mawasiliano ya binadamu yanaweza kujumuishwa kama mawasiliano ya wanyama
yaliyoendelezwa. Utafiti wa mawasiliano ya wanyama, uitwao’zuosemiotiki’(zoosemiotics)
tofauti na ‘athroposemiotiki’( utafiti wa mawasiliano ya binadamu), umechangia pakubwa katika
ukuzaji wa uwezo wa mnyama wa kutambua. Jambo hili ni dhahiri kwani binadamu wanaweza
kuwasiliana na wanyama kwa kutumia njia za kipekee lakini si’lugha’.
Makala haya yanalenga kuthmini na kuzamia sifa au tabia za lugha ya mwanadamu. Kimsingi sifa ai
Tania hizi ndizo zinazoitofautisha lugha ya mwanadamu na aina nyinginezo za mawasiliano
zitumiwazo na ndege au wanyama.
Unasibu wa lugha ya binadamu unaangaliwa katika ukweli kwamba binadamu hazaliwi na lugha,
anakutana nayo kwa unasibu tu. Hakuna uhusiano wa moja kwa moja au wa aili kati ya kitajwa(kitu
au umbo linalomaanishwa au maana).
Uhusiano wake ni wa unasibu na unatokana na makubaliano ya watu wajua – lugha yao. Hata
makubaliano haya ya kwamba kitu kiitwe au dhana Fulani iitwe na kuelezwa kwa namna Fulani ni
ya kinasibu tu. Hapa tunamaanisha kwamba mkutano au kikao ambaco binadamu amewahi kukaa
akasema mathalani neno “chuki” limaanishe hali ya kutompenda mtu au neno “upendo”
limaanishe hali ya kuonesha huba kwa mtu. Kila jamuiya-lugha ina namna yake ya kuufasili na
kuelekezea ulimwengu kwa lugha yake ambayo inatofautiana na jamuiya-lugha nyingine.
Lugha ya mwanandamu inao uwezo wa kuambukiza utamanduni kutoka katika kizazi kimoja kwenda
kizazi kingine au kutoka katika jamuiya-lugha moja kwenda katika nyingine. Leleweke kuwa,
uwezo huu wa kuambukiza maarifa ya lugha hufanyika kwa njia ya kusoma au kujifunza na si
kurithi. Kwa mfano, mtu anaweza kurithi. Kwa mfano, mtu anaweza kurithi maumbile kutoka kwa
wazazi wake, mathaalan aina ya nywele, macho, pua, kucha au masikio lakini mtu hawezi kurithi
lugha.
Lugha inamfikia kwa kuambukiza katika jamuiya-lugha anayokulia na kulelewa. Yatupasa tukumbuke
kuwa, ingawa mwanadamu anazaliwa na ule uwezo(kitengo cha lugha) wa kujifunza
lugha”language Acquisition Device”kama anavyoeleza mwanaisimu Naom Chomsky, lakini
hazaliwi na lugha. Hii ndiyo sababu mwanandamu anaweza kujifunza lugha yeyeote ile na kwa
wakati wowote maadamu yupo katika mazingira na hali ya kawaida na saidizi.
Lugha ya mwanandamu imepangwa katika viwango viwili ambavyo vinashirikiana na kukamilishana.
Kiwango cha kwanza I kile kiwango cha utamkaji wa sauti au utoaji wa sauti kwa kutumia ala
mbalimbali za matamshi. Sauti hizi zikisimama peke yake hazina maana yoyote, ni kama milio tu
kama kupiga chafya, au kelele zinazotokana na kubururwa kwa meza kwenye sakafu au kelele za
injini ya pikipiki.
Sauti hizi zinapounganishwa (kwa kufuata sheria, kanuni na taratibu za lugha husika) tunapata
kiwango kingine cha pili cha maana. Sifa ya uwili inadhihirisha sifa ya uwekevu katika lugha ya

mwanadamu kwani kwa kutumia sauti hizi chache mzungumza lugha anaweza kutunga na kutamka
sentensi nyingi au tungo nyingi na zenye maana tofauti tofauti bila kikomo
Suala jingine la msingi ni kwamba, tunaposema kuwa lugha imegawika katika viwango viwili,
kiwango cha sauti na kiwango cha maana haimaanishi kwamba binadamu anatumia viwango hivi
kuipekepeke. Hata siku moja mwanadamu hasemi kwamba sasa naanza kutamka sauti za neno
Fulani, halafu ndiyo niweke maana yake. La hasha!
Binadamu hutamka kwa mara moja sauti pamoja na maana zikiwa zimebebana ndani kwa
ndani(hutamka sauti pamwe na maana). Yaani, wakati anatamka sauti na kuziunganisha ndiyo
wakati anaambatanisha na maana ndani yake. Hii ndiyo sifa au uwili katika lugha ya mwanadamu.
Uzalikaji katika lugha ya binadamu unajidhihirisha katika uwezo wa mwanandamu kubuni na
kuunganisha maneno na miundo mbalimbali ya tungo bila kikomo. Mjuzi wa lugha anastahili
kutunga na kuzielewa tungo mbalimbali ikiwa ni pamoja na zile ambazo hajawahi kuzisikia wala
kuzitunga yeye mwenyewe.
Aidha, anapaswa kuelewa tungo zilizotungwa na watu wengine na kufahamu maana ya kisemantiki
na ile kipragmatiki zinazodhihirika kadri anaposimbua jumbe zilizomo. Anapaswa kuzielewa
tungo sahihi na zile zisizo sahihi. Hivyo uwezo huu unatofautiana na aina nyingine ya mawasiliano
inayotumiwa nan a wanyama wengine, kwa mfano,”nyenje ni mnyama mwenye milio au ishara
nne za kuchagua ili awasiliane, tumbili ana miito sita tu. Hivyo wanyama wote hawa wana idadi
isiyobadilika ya milio na sauti au ishara na hawana uwezo wa kubuni namna nyingine ya
kuwasiliana au kubuni milio mingine ya kuwezesha na kudumisha mawasiliano yao.
Maswali
a) kwa maneno kati ya 50- 60 fupisha aya tau za kuanza (al. 8. 1 mtiririko)
matayarisho
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Jibu
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b) kwa kutumia maneno 60-70 bainisha ujumbe ambao mwandishi anaibua katika ya tatu za
mwisho (al. 7, 1 mtirirko)
matayarisho
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Jibu
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SEHEMU YA TATU: SARUFI NA MATUMIZI YA LUGHA (ALAMA 40)

1. Bainisha sifa za sauti ifuatayo /o/ (al. 2)
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2. Kambishi ni nini? (al. 1)

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3. Onyesha matumizi ya kiambishi “ku” katika sentensi ifuatayo

Nitakupa fedha za mchango ili uende ukaniwakilishe (al. 2)
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4. Nyambua vitenzi vifuatavyo katika kauli zilizowekwa katika mabano

i) pa(kutendeka)
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ii) ha(kutendewa) (al. 2)
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5. Tunga sentensi moja katika wakati ujao hali timilifu (al. 1)
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6. Onyesha aina za virai katika sentensi ifuatayo.

Mteja wangu atawasili kesho saa tatu (al. 2)
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7. Tumia kivumishi kionyeshi kisisitizi cha mbali kidogo pamoja na nomino katika ngeli ya li-ya
kutunga sentensi (al. 2)
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8. Tunga sentensi moja yenye kishazi huru na kishazi tegemezi ukitumia’o’ rejeshi tamati (al. 2)
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9. Changanua sente4nsi ifuatayo kwa jedwali/visanduku

Mkulima alilima kwa bidii lakini hakupata mazao mengi (al. 4)
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10. Onyesha aina za shamirisho katika sentensi uliyopewa
Babu alisomewa barua na mjukumu wake
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11. Tunga sentensi mbili ili kuonyesha matumizi ya kiambishi ‘po’ cha
(i) Wakati
(ii) Mahali
12. Changanua kitenzi kufuatacho (al. 4)

Alimlisha.
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13. Kwa kutunga sentensi eleza matumiz mawili tofauti ya kiakifishi (al. 2)
Parandesi
14. Eleza maana ya sentensi ya masharti (al. 1)
Tunga sentensi ya masharti (al. 2)

15. Andika visawe vya maneno yaliyopigiwa mstari
Daktari alipokuwa akimtibu alishikwa na kisulisuli (al. 2)
16. Bainisha kihisishi na kihusishi katika sentensi

Naam! Ameingia kabla ya mwalimu kufika (al. 2)
17. Andika sentensi ifuatayo kwa msemo wa taarifa

“nitaweza kuondoka kwangu kesho asubuhi.”mwalimu akasema (al. 3)
18. Bainisha kiima na chagizo katika sentensi

Mwenyewe alimpenda kwa dhati (al. 2)

SEHEMU YA NNE: ISIMU JAMII (ALAMA 10)
1. Taja dhana au nadharia zinazohusiana na chimbuko la lugha ya Kiswahili (al. 3)
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2. Eleza maana ya istalahi zifutatazo kama zinavyotumika katika isimujamii
i) misimu
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ii) lafudhi
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iii) pijini (al. 3)
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3. Taja sifa nne za sajili ya maabadini (al. 4)

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2023 SERIES 1 TRIAL
KISWAHILI
FASIHI
102/3
PAPER 3
TIME: 2½ HOURS
NAME……………………………………………………………………………………….
SCHOOL……………………………………………… SIGN………………………..
INDEX NO……………………………………………. ADM NO……………………
MAAGIZO
a) Jibu maswali manne pekee.
b) Swali la kwanza ni la lazima
c) Maswali hayo mengine matatu yachaguliwe kutoka sehemu nne zilizobaki yaani; Riwaya
Hadithi fupi,Tamthilia na Ushairi.
d) Usijibu maswali mawili kutoka sehemu moja.
e) Majibu yote yaandikwe kwa lugha ya Kiswahili
KWA MATUMIZI YA MTAHINI PEKEE

Swali Upeo Alama
1 20
20
20
20
Jumla

SEHEMU A:
“Mapambazuko ya Machweo na hadithi nyingine” Swali la lazima
1. Swala la Elimu limepewa kipaumbele katika hadithi ya sabina. Jadili alama 20
SEHEMU B:
Chozi la heri
Chagua swali la 2 au 3
2. “………….. wanahofia kusema wasije wakavikata viganja vinavyowalisha…………..
(a) Eleza muktadha wa dondoo hili (ala. 4)
(b) Taja maudhui yanayojitokeza katika dondoo hili na ueleze (ala. 2)
(c) Kwa kutoa hoja kumi, eleza namna maudhui uliyotaja hapo juu (2b) yanavyojitokeza katika riwaya
(ala. 10)
(d) Eleza sifa nne za msemaji (ala. 4)
3. (a) Migogoro ni maudhui muhimu katika riwaya hii. Fafanua (ala. 10)
(b) Uozo umetamalaki katika jamii ya Chozi la Heri. Tetea kauli hii kwa kutolea hija kumi
zilizoelezwa (ala. 10)
SEHEMU C: TAMTHILIA
Kigogo
Jibu swali la 4 au 5
4. Wewe unajua vote valivosemwa. hadharani na faraghani. Si makanisani, si magweni. leo
nikiviona vitoto hivi vilivyochekwa na kusimangwa jana, vikijiendeshea mambo yao
ninaridhika"
(a) Bainisha matokeo ya maneno yaliyopigiwa mstari (alama6)
(b) Eleza sifa za mwanawe msemewa (alama4)
(c) Kwa hoja kumi, jadili namna suala la malezi lilivyoangaziwa katika (alama10)
tamthilia.
5. Naam, bembea! Hata ikiwa ya kamba au chuma hatimaye hulika. Wanasema papo kwa
papo kamba hukata jiwe. Bembea inapolika na kukatika haiwi mwisho wa mchezo. Huungwa
na mchezo kuanza tena.
a) Jadili dhana 'bembea inapolika na kukatika haiwi mwisho wa mchezo. ' Ukirejelea tamthilia
(alama10)
b) Jadili namna wahusika tofauti wanavyounga bembea (alama10)

SEHEMU D: USHAIRI
Jibu swali la 6 au la 7
6. Shairi
La adhabu hili wingu, lataka kutunyeea
Himahima kwalo vungu, pasi nako kuchelea, Kujikinga hili wingu, sije katunyeshea.
Wengineo hawajali, wasinayo wasiwasi, Tahadhari hawabali, wajiunge nasi

Aidha watafakali, mengine yalo hasi.
Vua hili halibagui, jinsia wala umri, Na kama hawajui, tuwajuze vizuri, Kwani siso adui, kuwao
msumari.
Tangazo haliwapiku, wahimizwa kujikinge, Wingu hili la usiku, ukicheza likuringe, Latutia
usumaku, daima likunyonge.
Vumilia kwalo vungu, nje kuna dhoruba,

Yavuma kwa machungu, bila lolote huba, Tunza chako kijungu, fungia kwalo juba.
Japo nafika tamati, nawaacha tafakari,

Madhara linalo wananti, wingu hili sukari,
Daima mwape kujiseti, mjitunze kujijari
Maswali
1. Eleza ujumbe wa mwandishi katika ubeti wa nne (ala. 2)
2. Onyesha ufundi wa kimuundo wa mwandishi katika utunzi wa shairi hili (ala. 4)
3. Eleza namna jazanda imetumika katika utungo huu. (ala. 2)
4. Kwa kuzingatia idadi ya mishororo katika beti tambua aina ya ushairi huu (ala. 1)
5. Tamthini ustadi wa mshairi katika matumizi yaidhini ya kishairi (ala. 3)
6. Litie shairi hili katika bahari tatu tofauti (ala. 3)
7. Andika ubeti wa nne kwa lugha ya tutumbi (ala. 4)
8. Eleza sifa moja ya nafsi neni katika shairi hili (ala. 1)

7. Ushairi
Soma shairi lifuatalo kasha ujibu maswali yanayofuata
1. Maendeleo ya umma Sio vitu maghalani
Kama tele vimesaki
Lakini havishikiki Ama havikamatiki
Ni kama jinga la moto
Bei juu
2. Maendeleo ya umma
Sio vitu gulioni
Kuviona madukani
Kuvishika mikononi
Na huku wavitamani Kama tama ya fisi
Kuvipata ng’o
Sio vitu shubakani
Dhiki ni kwa mafakiri
Nafuu kwa matajiri
Ni wao tu washitiri
Huo ni ustiimari
lo! Warudia
4. Maendeleo ya umma Ni vitu kumilikiwa

Na wanyonge kupatiwa
Kwa bei kuzingatiwa
Bila ya kudhulumiwa
Na hata kuhadaiwa
Hiyo ni haki
5. Maendeleo ya umma Dola kudhibiti vitu

Vijapo nchini mwetu
Na kuwauzia watu
Toka nguo na sapatu
Pasibakishiwe na kitu
Huo usawa

Watu kuwa na kauli Katika zao shughuli
Vikaoni kujadili
Na mwisho kuyakubali
Maamuzi halali
Udikteta la
Watu kuwa waungwana
Vijakazi na watwana
Nchini kuwa hakuna
Wote kuheshimiana
Wazee hata vijana
Maswali
(a) Toa anwani mwafaka ya shairi hili (ala. 1)
(b) Shairi hili ni la aina gani? Toa sababu zako (ala. 2)
(c) Eleza dhamira ya mwandishi kuandika shairi hili (ala. 3)
(d) Toa mifano miwili ya urudiaji katika shairi hili, Je urudiaji huu una
kazi/majukumu gani? (ala. 4)
(e) Onyesha matumizi mawili ya tamathali za usemi katika shairi hili (ala. 4)
(f) Eleza toni ya mshairi. Toa sababu (ala. 2)
(g) Nafsineni ni nani? (ala. 1)
(h) Toa mfano mmoja wa twasira katika hili. Je, twasira hiyo inajengwa na nani? (ala. 3)
SEHEMU E: FASIHI SIMULIZI

8. (a) Fafanua sifa za matambiko katika jamii (ala. 4)
(b) Eleza tofauti kati ya maigizo ya kawaida na maonyesho ya sanaa (ala. 10)
(c) Taja shughuli zozote mbili zinazoonyesha matumizi ya Ulumbi katika jamii ya kisasa
(ala. 2)
(d) Tofautisha dhana zifuatazo
(i) Miviga na maapizo (ala. 2)
(ii) Ngoma na ngomezi (ala. 2)

2023 SERIES 1 TRIAL
MATHEMATICS
121/1
PAPER 1
TIME: 2½ HOURS
NAME……………………………………………………………………………………….
SCHOOL……………………………………………… SIGN………………………..
INDEX NO……………………………………………. ADM NO……………………
(a) Write your name, admission number and class in the spaces provided above.
(c) This paper consists of two sections; Section I and Section II.
(d) Answer all the questions in Section I and any five questions from Section II
(e) Show all the steps in your calculations, giving your answers at each stage in the spaces
provided below each question
(f) Marks may be given for correct working even if the answer is wrong.
(g) Non-programmable silent electronic calculators and KNEC Mathematical tables may be
used, except where stated otherwise.

Section I
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 Total
Section II
17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 Total
Grand
Total
Grand Total
SECTION I (50 Marks)
1. Use square roots, reciprocal and square root tables to evaluate to 4 significant figures the
expression; (4 marks)
2
1 2
(0.06458)2 +( )
0.4327
2. Find the equation of the perpendicular bisector of line AB where A is (3, 9) and B (7, 5) giving
your answer in the form 𝑎𝑥 + 𝑏𝑦 + 𝑐 = 0. (3 marks)
3. It takes 40 road construction workers 8 days working 10 hours a day to complete a section of a
road. How many days would 60 road construction workers working 8 hours a day take to
complete the same section of the road working at the same rate? (3 marks)

4. A solid cylinder with radius 7 cm and height 5 cm is melted down and recast into a spherical ball.
Calculate to 2 decimal places the radius of the ball. (3 marks)
5. The currency exchange rates of a given bank in Kenya are as follows;

Currency Buying Selling
1 Sterling pound 135.50 135.97
1 US dollar 72.23 72.65
A tourist arrived in Kenya with 5 000 US dollars which he converted to Kenya shillings. He spent
Kshs. 214 500 and converted the remaining to sterling pounds. How many pounds did he
receive? (3 marks)
6. Find the value of 𝑛 in 4𝑛+1 + 22𝑛+1 = 384. (3 marks)

7. The exterior angle of a regular polygon is (𝑥 − 50)0 and the interior angle is (2𝑥 + 20)0 . Find
the number of sides of the polygon. (3 marks)
8. Find 𝑥 if cos(3𝑥 − 300 ) = sin(7𝑥 + 500 ). (2 marks)
9. The figure below shows the motion of a particle in 20 seconds. The particle starts off at a speed
of 30 m/s and accelerates at 4 m/s2 for 5 seconds. Calculate the total distance covered by the
particle in 20 seconds. (4 marks)

10. Construct triangle PQR such that PQ = 7 cm, QR = 5 cm and ∠𝑅𝑃𝑄 = 300. Construct the locus
L1 of all points equidistant from P and Q to meet the locus L2 of points equidistant from Q and R
at M. Measure PM. (4 marks)

11. The surface areas of two cylindrical water tanks are 50 m2 and 162 m2 respectively. Given that
the volume of water in the second tank is 36 450 cm3, find the volume of water in the first tank if
it’s half full. (4 marks)
12. Solve the inequalities below and represent the solutions on a single number line. (3 marks)
1 − 2𝑥 < 5, 5 − 3𝑥 ≥ −10.
13. From the roof of a house, a boy can see an avocado tree which is 20 m away from the house. He
measures the angle of elevation of the top of the tree as 21 0 and the angle of depression of the
bottom of the tree as 310. Find the height of the avocado tree. (3 marks)

14. Simplify (2 marks)
2 12 x 4 y −1 z 5
√
3x −2 y −3 z 3
15. The position vector of p and q is 3𝑖 − 2𝑗 + 𝑘 and 2𝑖 + 𝑗 − 3𝑘 respectively. Determine the

column vector PQ and hence calculate its length to 2 decimal places. (2 marks)

16. The table below shows the height of 50 bean plants, six weeks after planting.
Height (h) in cm Cumulative
frequency
ℎ≤4 4
ℎ≤8 15
ℎ ≤ 12 31
ℎ ≤ 16 44
ℎ ≤ 20 50
Estimate the mean height of the seedlings. (4 marks)

SECTION II (50 Marks)
Answer any five questions in this section in the spaces provided.
17. A trader sold an article at Ksh. 4 800 after allowing a customer a 12% discount on the marked
price of the article. In so doing he made a profit of 45%.
a) Calculate to 2 decimal places;
i. The marked price of the item. (3 marks)
ii. Price at which the trader had bought the article. (2 marks)
b) If the trader had sold the same article without giving a discount, calculate the percentage profit he
would have made. (3 marks)
c) To clear his stock, the trader decided to sell all the remaining articles at a loss of 12.5%, calculate
the price at which he sold each article. (2 marks)

18. The diagram below represents a solid consisting of a hemispherical bottom and a conical frustum
at the top.
a) Determine the value of 𝑥 and hence the height of the big cone. (2 marks)
b) Calculate the surface area of the solid. (4 marks)
c) Calculate the volume of the solid. (4 marks)

19. (a) Find the equation of a straight line L1 that passes through the points P (−6, −3) and
Q (1, 3) in the form 𝑎𝑦 + 𝑏𝑥 = 𝑐 where a, b and c are constants. (2 marks)
(b) A second line L2 is parallel to L1 and passes through (2, −3). Find the equation of L2 in the form
𝑦 = 𝑚𝑥 + 𝑐. (2 marks)
(c) A third line L3 passes through (2, 3) and is perpendicular to L1. Find the equation of L3 in the
form 𝑎𝑦 + 𝑏𝑥 = 𝑐. (2 marks)
(d) Use matrix method to find the coordinates of R the point where L1 and L3 intersect. (4 marks)

20. A factory blends three types of juice in the ratios 𝐴: 𝐵 = 3: 4 and 𝐵: 𝐶 = 1: 2
a) Determine;
i. The ratio 𝐴: 𝐵: 𝐶 (1 mark)
ii. The amount of type A juice in a 20 litre mixture. (2 marks)
b) The cost of producing one litre of A is Ksh. 80, one litre of B is Ksh. 84 and one litre of C is Ksh.
90.
i. Find the cost of producing one litre of the mixture. (2 marks)
ii. Calculate the selling price of one litre of the mixture if the factory makes a profit of 25%.
(2 marks)
c) The factory uses types of machines P and Q to blend the juices. Machine P takes 7 hours to blend
14 000 litres and Q takes 5 hours to blend 12 000 litres. Determine the time it would take the
factory to blend 550 000 litres. (3 marks)

21. A motorist is to follow the route ABCD. B is 250 km from A on a bearing N750E from A. C is on
a bearing of S750E from A and 275 km from B. D is 300 km on a bearing of S800E from B. using
a scale 1 cm to represent 50 km;
a) Show the relative position of ABCD. (4 marks)
b) Determine;
i. The distance of A from C. (2 marks)
ii. The bearing of B from C. (1 mark)
iii. The distance of A from D. (2 marks)
iv. The compass bearing of C from D. (1 mark)

22. Two towns P and Q are 550 km apart. A bus starts from town Q and travels towards P at 8: 45
a.m. at an average speed of 80 km/hr. A car starts from P towards Q at 10: 00 a.m. at an average
speed of 100 km/hr. Calculate:
a. The distance covered by the bus before the car starts its journey. (2 marks)
b. How far from Q the vehicles met. (3 marks)
c. The time the two vehicles met. (2 marks)
d. The time the car arrived at town Q. (3 marks)

23. Triangle ABC has vertices A (1, 2) B (2, 3) and C (4, 1) while triangle A′B′C′ has vertices A’ (1, -
2) B’ (2, -3) and C’ (4, -1).
a. Draw triangle ABC and A′B′C′ on the same grid. (2 marks)
b. Describe fully a single transformation that maps ABC onto triangle A′B′C′ (2 marks)

c. On the same grid, draw triangle A′′B′′C′′ the image of ABC under a reflection in the line 𝑦 =
−𝑥. (2 marks)
d. Draw triangle A′′′B′′′C′′′ such that it can be mapped onto triangle ABC by a negative quarter turn
about the origin. (2 marks)
e. Find the matrix of transformation that maps triangle ABC onto triangle A′′′B′′′C′′′. (2 marks)

24. An investment group decided to raise Shs. 960 000 to buy a piece of land costing
Kshs. 80 000 per hectare. Before they paid, four of them pulled out and those that remained were
supposed to pay an additional Kshs. 40 000.
a. If the initial number of members was 𝑥, write down;
i. An expression of what each was to contribute originally. (1 mark)
ii. An expression of what each of remaining members contributed. (1 mark)
b. Calculate the number of members who were initially in the group using the expression in (a)
above. (5 marks)
c. If the land was sub divided equally, calculate what size each member got. (3 marks)

2023 SERIES 1 TRIAL
MATHEMATICS
121/2
PAPER 2
TIME: 2½ HOURS
NAME……………………………………………………………………………………….
SCHOOL……………………………………………… SIGN………………………..
INDEX NO……………………………………………. ADM NO……………………

(a) Write your name, admission number and class in the spaces provided above.
(c) This paper consists of two sections; Section I and Section II.
(d) Answer all the questions in Section I and any five questions from Section II
(e) Show all the steps in your calculations, giving your answers at each stage in the spaces
provided below each question
(f) Marks may be given for correct working even if the answer is wrong.
(g) Non-programmable silent electronic calculators and KNEC Mathematical tables may be
used, except where stated otherwise.

Section I
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 Total
Section II
17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 Total
Grand
Total

SECTION I (50 Marks)
Answer all questions in this section in the spaces provided.
1. Use logarithms to evaluate; (4 marks)
3
6.79 × 0.3911 4
( )
log 5
3
2. The equation of a line is − 𝑥 + 3𝑦 = 6. Find the
5
a) Gradient of the line. (1 mark)
b) Equation of a line passing through point (−1, 2) and perpendicular to the given line.
(3 marks)

3. A shirt whose marked price is sh. 800 is sold to a customer after allowing him a discount of 13%.
If the trader makes a profit of 20%, find how much the trader paid for the shirt. (3 marks)
√𝟏𝟏
4. Simplify (2 marks)
√𝟏𝟏−√𝟕
5. The length and width of a rectangular signboard are (3𝑥 + 12) 𝑐𝑚 and (𝑥 − 4)𝑐𝑚 respectively.
If the diagonal of the signboard is 200 cm, determine its area. (4 marks)

6. Find the value of 𝑥 given that; (3 marks)
log(𝑥 − 1) + 2 = log(3𝑥 + 2) + log 25
7. Use the expansion of (𝑥 − 𝑦)5 to evaluate (9.8)5 correct to 4 d.p. (3 marks)
𝟒
8. Evaluate ∫𝟐 (𝒙𝟐 + 𝟐𝒙 − 𝟏𝟓) 𝒅𝒙 (3 marks)

9. Make y the subject of formula: (3 marks)
𝒙𝒚
𝑷=
𝒙−𝒚
10. In the figure below, ABCD is a cyclic quadrilateral. Point O is the centre of the circle. ∠ 𝐴𝐵𝑂 =
30° and ∠ 𝐴𝐷𝑂 = 40°.
Calculate the size of angle BCD. (2 marks)
11. Find the number of terms of the series 2 + 6 + 10 + 14 + 18 … that will give a sum of 800.
(2 marks)

12. A bag contains 10 balls of which 3 are red, 5 are white and 2 are green. Another bag contains 12
balls of which 4 are red, 3 are white and 5 are green. A bag is chosen at random and then a ball
chosen at random from the bag. Find the probability that the bell chosen is red. (3 marks)
3 2
13. The point (5, 2) undergoes the transformation [ ] followed by a translation (−6
11
).
−1 0
Determine the coordinates of the image. (3 marks)
14. The latitude and the longitude of two stations A and B are (47°𝑁, 25°𝐸 ) and (47°𝑁, 70°𝐸 ).
Calculate the distance in nautical miles between A and B along latitude 470 N. (3 marks)

15. Using a ruler and a pair of compass only;
a) Construct a parallelogram PQRS in which PQ = 6 cm, and QR = 4 cm and ∠ 𝑆𝑃𝑄 = 75°
(3 marks)
b) Determine the perpendicular distance between PQ and SR. (1 mark)
16. The mass of a mixture A of beans and maize is 72 kg. The ratio of beans to maize is 3:5
respectively.
a) Find the mass of maize in the mixture. (1 mark)
b) A second mixture B of beans and maize of mass 98 kg is mixed with A. The final ratio of beans
to maize is 8:9 respectively. Find the ratio of beans to maize in B. (3 marks)

SECTION II (50 Marks)
Answer any five questions in the spaces provided in this section
17. Given the simultaneous equations
5𝑥 + 𝑦 = 19
−𝑥 + 3𝑦 = 9
a) Write the simultaneous equations in matrix form. Hence solve the simultaneous equations.
(6 marks)
b) Find the distance of the point of the intersection of a line 5𝑥 + 𝑦 = 19 and

−𝑥 + 3𝑦 = 9 from the point (11, − 2) (4 marks)

18. A particle was moving along a straight line. The acceleration of the particle after t seconds was
given by 𝑎 = (9 − 3𝑡 )𝑚𝑠 −2. The initial velocity of the particle was 7 m/s. Find:
a) The velocity (V) of the particle at any given time (t). (4 marks)
b) The maximum velocity of the particle. (3 marks)
c) The distance covered by the particle by the time it attained maximum velocity. (3 marks)

19. The figure below represents a right pyramid with vertex V and a rectangular base PQRS. 𝑉𝑃 =
𝑉𝑄 = 𝑉𝑅 = 𝑉𝑆 = 18 𝑐𝑚 PQ = 16 cm and QR = 12 cm. M and O are the mid points of QR and
PR respectively.
Find;
a) The length of the projection of line VP on the plane PQRS. (3 marks)
b) The size of the angle between line VP and the plane PQRS. (3 marks)
c) The size of the angle between the planes VQR and PQRS. (4 marks)

20. Two towns A and B lie on the same latitude in the northern hemisphere. When it is 8:00 a.m. at
A, the time at B is 11:00 a.m.
a) Given that the longitude of A is 15° E, find the longitude of B. (3 marks)
1
b) A plane leaves A for B and takes 3 hours to arrive at B travelling along a parallel of latitude at
2
850 km/h. Find,
i. The radius of the circle of latitude of towns A and B. (4 marks)
ii. The latitude of the two towns. (3 marks)

21. The gradient function of a curve is given by the expression 2𝑥 + 1. If the curve passes through
the point (−4, 6),
a) Find;
i. The equation of the curve. (3 marks)
ii. The values of x at which the curve cuts the x- axis. (3 marks)
b) Determine the area enclosed by the curve and the x- axis. (4 marks)

𝑎 𝑏 17 15 0 −8
22. The transformation A given by the matrix ( ) maps ( ) to ( ) and ( ) to ( )
𝑐 𝑑 0 8 17 15
a) Determine the matrix A giving a, b, c and d as fractions. (4 marks)
b) Given that A represent a rotation through the origin, determine the angle of rotation. (3 marks)
c) S is a rotation through 1800 about the point (2, 3). Determine the image of (1, 0) under followed
by A. (3 marks)

23. The figure below shows a triangle ABC inscribed in a circle (not drawn to scale.) AB = 6 cm, BC
= 9 cm and AC = 10 cm.
Calculate;
a) The radius of the circle. (6 marks)
b) The area of the shaded parts. (4 marks)

24. In an experiment involving two variables t and r, the following results were obtained.
t 1.0 1.5 2.0 2.5 3.0 3.5

r 1.50 1.45 1.30 1.25 1.05 1.00
a) On the grid provided, draw the line of best fit for the data. (4 marks)
b) The variables r and t are connected by the equation 𝑟 = 𝑎𝑡 + 𝑘 where a and k are constants.
Determine;

i. The values of a and k. (3 marks)
ii. The equation of the line of best fit. (1 mark)
iii. The value of t when 𝑟 = 0. (2 marks)

2023 SERIES 1 TRIAL
HOME SCIENCE
441/1
PAPER 1
TIME: 2½ HOURS
NAME……………………………………………………………………………………….
SCHOOL……………………………………………… SIGN………………………..
INDEX NO……………………………………………. ADM NO……………………
1. Write your name and index number in the spaces provided above.
2. Sign and write the date of examination in the spaces provided above.
3. This paper consists of THREE SECTIONS, A, B AND C
4. Answer all the questions in Section A and B and any 2 questions from Section
5. Answer must be written in the spaces provided in the question paper.
6. Additional pages must NOT be inserted.
EXAMINERS USE ONLY

SECTION QUESTIONS MAXIMUM CANDIDATE’S
SCORE SCORE
A 1-20 40
B 21 20
C 22 20
23 20
24 20
TOTAL SCORE 100

SECTION A- ( 40MKS)
Answer All The Questions In This Section In The Spaces Provided.
1. State two important rights that each consumer should be aware of:- (2mks)
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2. Name two groups of synthetic fibres (2mks)

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3. Mention two methods used to coat food before frying. (2mks)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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4. State two qualities of a well- made dart ( 2mks)

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5. Name four foods that can be given to a child in the management of Kwarshiokor (2mks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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6. Name two seams commonly used when joining side seams of trousers made of heavy fabric
(2mks)
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7. State two points to look for when buying a seam ripper (2mks)
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8. Name two surfaces that are cleaned by scrubbing. ( 2mks)

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9. List down two uses of takum powder when applied on the feet. ( 2mks)
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10. State two dangers of smoking during pregnancy . ( 2mks)

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11. Point out two reasons for lining a cake tin. ( 2mks)
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12. Which two reasons make stainless steel unsuitable for cooking food? (2mks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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13. In two well stated points say why babies who are fed on formula diarrhoea (2mks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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14. Mention two advantages of having labels on consumer products. ( 2mks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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15. Two good qualities of a well made sleeve include.:-

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16. Point out two advantages of habit training. ( 2mks)

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17. Suggest four ways of decorating an apron (2mks)

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18. List down two important uses of opening on garments. ( 2mks)

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19. State four different forms in which laundry is found. (2mks)

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20. Give two advantages of using soft water for laundry work. ( 2mks)
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Section B (Compulsory) 20mks

You have been left at home on a Saturday afternoon and are expected to carry out some tasks.
a) Explain how you will clean a neglected brass ornament. (6mks)
b) Weekly- cleaning of a hurricane lamp. ( 6mks)
c) Laundering your school acrylic sweater. OR (8mks)
White cotton table- cloth with a fresh tea stain.
Section C. ( 40mks)
Answer any two questions from this section
22 (a) Outline five reasons for finishing plain wooden surfaces. (5mks)
(b) Suggest five practices that are harmful to woolen articles. ( 5mks)
(c ) List down Five activities at the antenatal clinic. (5mks)
(d) Explain five qualities of a good waistband. (5mks)
23. (a) State and explain on five differences between cotton and polyester fabrcs. (10mks)
(b) Point out five requirements of a good kitchen floor. ( 5mks)
(c) Outline five qualities to look for when purchasing labour saving cleaning equipment (5mks)
24. (a) State at least five remedies of needle breaking when machining. ( 5mks)
(b) Briefly and in point form discuss five disadvantages of convenience foods. ( 5mks)
(e) Explain five modern methods of food preservation. (5mks)
(d) Using relevant diagrams, give the procedure for making a French seam on the side seam for a
child’s dress.

2023 SERIES 1 TRIAL
HOME SCIENCE
441/2
PAPER 2
TIME: 2½ HOURS
SCHOOL……………………………………………… SIGN………………………..

441/2
Home science
(clothing construction)
Paper 2
Practical
CONFIDENTIAL
Provide each student with the following
1) 65 cm by 90 cm wide light weigh cotton fabric.
2) Sewing cotton thread to match the fabric
3) One button 1 cm in diameter.

2023 SERIES 1 TRIAL
HOME SCIENCE
441/2
PAPER 2
TIME: 2½ HOURS
NAME……………………………………………………………………………………….
SCHOOL……………………………………………… SIGN………………………..
INDEX NO……………………………………………. ADM NO……………………

441/2
Home science
(CLOTHING CONSTRUCTION)
PAPER 2
PRACTICAL
2 ½ HOURS

A Pattern of a child’s dress is provided. You are advised to study the sketches, the questions paper
and the layout before the test.
1. MATERIALS PROVIDED
Pattern pieces
A Front bodice
B Back bodice
C sleeve
D Collar
E cuff
F Neck binding
G Sleeve opening strip
N.B Use pattern piece D to cut interfacing for collar.
2. Light weight plain cotton fabric 65cm long by 90 cm wide.
3. Sewing cotton thread to match the fabric
4. One button 1 cm in diameter.
THE TEST
Using the materials provided , cut and make the left half of child’s dress bodice to show the
following:-
1) The working of the waist dart
2) The working of a machine fell seam at the shoulder and French seam at the side and under arm
seams.
3) Preparation of an interfaced collar and attaching it to the bodice.
4) The making of the continuous straight strip opening at the sleeve.
5) Attaching of the sleeve cuff
6) The preparation and attaching of the sleeve to the bodice and leaving the seam untrimmed and un
neatened.
7) The making of the button hole
8) The attaching of the button.
At the end of the examination, firmly sew on your work, on a single fabric a label bearing your name
and index number. Remove the needles and pins from your work, then fold your work carefully
and place it in the envelope provided.
DO NOT put scraps of fabric in the envelope.

2023 SERIES 1 TRIAL
HOME SCIENCE
441/3
PAPER 3
TIME: 1¾ HOURS
NAME……………………………………………………………………………………….
SCHOOL……………………………………………… SIGN………………………..
INDEX NO……………………………………………. ADM NO……………………
HOMESCIENCE
FOOD AND NUTRITION
PAPER 3 (PRACTICAL)
1 ¾ HOURS
- Read the test carefully
- Textbooks and recipes may be used during the planning session as reference materials
- You will be expected to keep to your order of work during the practical session
- You are only allowed to take away your reference materials at the end of the planning session
- You are not allowed to bring additional notes to the practical session.
- Candidates should check the questions paper to ascertain that no page is missing

THE TEST
You are left with your cousin who has been discharged from hospital. Using all the ingredients
provided below, prepare, cook and present a two course lunch for both of you.
Ingredients
Liver/ chicken/ minced beef.
Rice/ green bananas/ Irish potatoes
Green leafy vegetables
Sugar
Green pepper
Onions
Tomatoes
Carrots
Cooking fat/ oil
Salt
Fruits in season
Use separate sheets of paper for each task listed below and a carbon paper to make duplicate copies
i) Identify the food items & write down their recipe.
ii) Write down your order of work
iii) Make a list of food stuffs, materials and equipments you will require

2023 SERIES 1 TRIAL
COMPUTER STUDIES
451/1
PAPER 1
TIME: 2½ HOURS
NAME……………………………………………………………………………………….
SCHOOL……………………………………………… SIGN………………………..
INDEX NO……………………………………………. ADM NO……………………
 This paper consists of 2 sections A and B.
 Answer all the questions in sections A
 Answer question 16 and any other three questions from section B
For Examiners Use Only

Section Question Score
A 1 - 15
B 16
17
18
19
20
Total marks

1. State two practices to be observed in order to ensure the safety of the computer user (2mks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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2. State the function of the following keys on the computer key board (2mks)
(a) Insert…………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………….
(b) Delete……………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………..
3. Name three responsibilities that are carried out by a network administration (3mks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
4. List and describe three guidelines that should be followed when conducting an interview during
information gathering (3mks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
5. (a) Define portability as used in software selection (1mk)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

(b) List four ways of acquiring software in an organization (2mks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
6. (a) Subtract 1102 from 110102 (1mk)
(b) Find the sum of binary number 101.1012 and 110.1002 (1mk)
(c) Convert binary number 11010110.10012 into octal number. (1mk)
7. List three uses of DVDs (3mks)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
8. State the function of each of the following

(a) Network Interface Card (1mk)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………
(b) Modem (1mk)

……………………………………………………………………………………………………
(c) Repeaters (1mk)
……………………………………………………………………………………………………
9. How does an operating system manage computer memory (2mks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
10. List four factors to be considered when purchasing an operating system (2mks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
11. Write a PSEUDO CODE to compute the area of a circle (2mks)
12. (a) List three ways by which you can provide a common link or relationship between the tables in
a database software (3mks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(b) What is referential integrity (1mk)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

13. List four types of publications that ca be designed using DTP software (2mks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
14. (a) List four stages in data collection (2mks)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(b) What is meant by the following (2mks)

(i) Reference file
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………
(ii) Report
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………..
15. Explain the following terms (2mks)

(a) Computer fraud
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(b) Alteration
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

SECTION B (Answer question 16 and any other three questions from this section)
16. Study the flowchart below and answer the questions that follow.
Start
Enter :M,N
X=M;y=N
P=y-x; Q=x-y
P>Q?
P=Y P=X
Q=X Q=Y
PRINT:P,Q,x,y
Stop
(b) Name the control structure shown in the flow chart (2mks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(c) Assuming the user keys in 8 and 14 when prompted to enter values for M and N respectively,
determine the printed values of P,Q,x and y (4mks)

(d) Write a pseudo code that would be used in place of the flowchart. (9mks)

17. (a) List three advantages and three disadvantages of fibre optic cable (6mks)
Advantages
Disadvantages
(b) Describe the following signals and state where each is applied in network communication.
(4mks)
Analog
Digital
(e) Name two types of coaxial cables (2mks)
(f) (i) Distinguish between microwave and satellite transmissions (2mks)
(ii) Give an example of internet protocol (1mk)
18. The information below is maintained by the sales lady at the school canteen. Study it and answer
the questions that follow.
A B C
1 Item units (kg) value (ksh)
2 oranges 12 2000
3 mangoes 13 1000
4 tomatoes 12 1400
5 cabbages 15 2500
(a) Describe the basic data types used in this spreadsheet (4mks)
(b) Provide a single formula that would be used to
(i) Count the number of items whole units are equal; to 15 (2mks)
(ii) Sum the values of items whole units are equal to 12 (2mks)
(c) (i) :List and describe four areas of application of spreadsheets (4mks)
(ii) Explain data range legend and axis as used in spreadsheet charts (3mks)
19. A computer diskette in drive A has folders for MEMOS for an administrator. Each of these
folders is labelled according to the relevant months. The secretary created the folders for each
months memo for each of access.

Study the table below
MEMO 1 MEMO 2 MEMO 3
Warning Inaccuracies Careless talk
Lateness Auditing Inefficient
Assembly Fraud Meeting
(a) Assuming that the secondary was working from the diskette, draw the corresponding tree
structure (6mks)
(b) (i) The secretary wanted to create a folder to store a memo in Fraud folder. State the path for that
folder (2mks)
(ii) Suggest how the secretary can ensure that the work in that diskette is not
spoilt (1mk)
(iii) The content of the file is not viewed by any other person apart from her. (1mk)
(c) (i) List any two devices under the control of the operating system (2mks)
(ii) Explain how each one of these devices are controlled by the OS
20. (a) List and describe four strategies for converting from an old system to a new system
(4mks)
(b) (i) Distinguish between private data and confidential data (2mks)
(ii) What can be done to stop illegal access to a computer laboratory by unauthorized people
(3mks)
(c) (i) List four areas that would be considered in the requirement specification (4mks)
(ii) Name any two areas covered in a feasibility report during system analysis
and design. (2mks)

2023 SERIES 1 TRIAL
COMPUTER STUDIES
451/2
PAPER 2
TIME: 2½ HOURS
NAME……………………………………………………………………………………….
SCHOOL……………………………………………… SIGN………………………..
INDEX NO……………………………………………. ADM NO……………………
Instructions to candidates:
 This paper has TWO questions.
 Answer all the questions.
 Type your name and index number at the right-hand corner of each printout.
 Write your name and index number on the CD – ROM provided.
 Write the Name and version of software used in each question attempted in the answer sheet.
 Passwords should not be used while saving your work.
 Make a printout of the answers on the answer sheets provided.
 Arrange your print outs and stable them together.
 Hand in all the printouts and the CD – ROM provided.
1. a) Type and format the following document as it appears using a Word processor. Save it as
TELE1 (40marks)
TELE AND VIDEO CONFERENCING
The advent of the information and communications technology has brought with it several advantages
that need to be made use of by both the public and private sector. Not only are those technologies
E convenient but some are also cost effective.

launches. These were first the Tanzania launch
ven though most of the communications at lunch time and finally, the Uganda dinner
technologies are currently widely in use launch in kampala
-Mobile telephones Imagine all the travelling
Government and private sector
and need to take advantage of the involved and the resultant
facilities offered by tele and video
internet -one conferencing
fatigue for the three firms, Plus
area that others who were part of the
needs seriously to be retinue.
explored and utilized by both government Even though one would.
institutions and private Argue that the travelling to all three countries
sector is tele and video conferencing. Was necessary as there were pape5rs to be
During the February 1 launch of signed,
the ‘ Just Like Home’ seamless Reliable sources tell me that a formal exercise.
network by the region’s three Everything else, including the paper work and
main mobile phone providers, Memoranda of cunderstanding had already been
Safaricom, MTN Uganda and Vodacom signed.
Tanzania, the celebration were held in the three The second instance when holding a video
Different countries at different times of the conferencing would have been more ideal was
same day. recently when Ethiopia’s premier Meles Zenawi
made a few hours visit to Nairobi to discuss the
Nothing wrong with that only that the chief Somalia crisis with the former president Kibaki.
Executive of the three firms were meant to be
present at all the functions. I say ‘Were meant
to’ because I only attended the Nairobi launch.
After the Kenya launch, held at Nairobi’s

Serena hotel over breakfast from 7am, the three
CEO’s, (Safaricom’s Bob Collymore, MTN’s
Noel
Meier and Vodacom Tanzania’s Romeo
Kumalo) were to proceed to the other two
b) Insert the following formula which is used to compute the percentage growth of a particular
mobile phone provider in a region (4marks)
c) The following table shows the percentage growth of the three mobile phone providers in two
periods of six months in the year 2011,2012 and 2013. Include it exactly as it is formatted in the
passage just below the formula. Create a formula to calculate the total percentage growth over
the three years for each period.
(5marks)
Years Safaricom MTN Vodacom

Period 1 Period2 Period 1 Period 2 Period 1 Period 2
2011 10 7 12 6 5 8
2012 20 9 20 3 28 67
2013 10 9 7 39 17 1
TOTALS
d) Print TELE1. (1marks)
2. a) i) Create a Worksheet with the following entries and save the workbook as NOMA.
(12marks)
OMBAHEKIMA ACADEMY
FORM THREE END EXAM MARKS
STUDENT NAME ENGLISH KISWAHILI MATHEMATICS HISTORY
Ayuku Aseka 70 60 40 50
Irungu Wambua 50 70 60 40
Khalifa Mudigo 80 40 50 60
Nosieta Soita 30 75 60 50
Onyango Otieno 40 55 70 60

ii) Adjust column width where necessary to display all entries in details. Validate the cells to accept
ONLY numerals between 0-100 and return a comment “please enter a number between 0 and
100”
Whenever an out of range error occurs.
(3marks
iii) Rename sheet 1 as MARKS1.
(2marks
b) Obtain the following:
i) Total score for each student
(2marks)
ii) Mean score for each student
(2marks)
iii) Highest score per subject
(2marks)
iv) Standard deviation per subject (2marks)
v) Rank for each student (3marks)
vi) Grade the students using the grade for each student based on the following information.
(4marks)
MEAN
GRADE
75-100 A
60-74 B
50-65 C
35-49 D
0-34 E
b) Copy contents of Sheet 1 to sheet 2 and rename it as MARKS2. (2marks)

c) Insert a new row for Chege Kisilu between Ayuku Aseka and Irungu Wambua. Enter his scores
as 60, 50, 80, and 20. (3marks)

d) Copy contents of sheet 1 to sheet2 and rename it as MARKS3. Format the ranges with value for
mean score and standard deviation to display results to 3 decimal places. (4marks)
e) Generate a graph to compare Mathematics performance and save it in a new sheet as
MATHSG.5marks
F) Print MARKS 1, MARKS2, MARKS3 and MATHSG. (4marks)

2023 SERIES 1 TRIAL
ISLAMIC RELIGIOUS EDUCATION
314/1
PAPER 1
TIME: 2½ HOURS
NAME……………………………………………………………………………………….
SCHOOL……………………………………………… SIGN………………………..
INDEX NO……………………………………………. ADM NO……………………
314/1
Paper 1
2 ½ hours

Candidates Score

1. a) Sura al Hujurat lays rules on how Muslims should solve their disputes relative with each
other. Causes of conflicts in the society according to the Sura. (5x2 marks)
b) Giving relevant examples identify five styles used by Allah to convey His missing
message in the Qu ran. (5x1marks)
c) Reasons why some Muslims find it difficult to read the Qu an regularly.(5x1 marks)
2. a) Circumstances under which Suratul fill was revealed. (7x2 marks)

b) Problems encountered in the standardization of the Qu an during the reign of caliph
Uthman. (6x1 marks)
3. a) How Hadith has influenced the Muslim’s way of life. (5x2 marks)
b) Subject content of Imam Malik’s Al-muwatta (5x1 marks)
c) Views of prophet Muhammad (S.A.W) on envy and jealousy. (5x1 marks)
4. a) Significance of visiting Madina after Hajj or Umra. (6x1 marks)

b) Conditions for acceptable Tawbah. (6x1 marks)
c) Types of Saum according to the teachings of Islam (4 x2 marks
5. a) Reasons for emergence of Madha hibb in Islam 5x2 marks)

b) Examples of ijma practiced by the rightly guided Caliphs. (5x1 marks)
c) Favors granted to a Muslim traveler (5x1 marks)
6. a) Why Qadhaa is not Qadr

b) Discuss Proofs of the occurrence of the Day of Judgment. (5x2 marks)
c) Incident of Ghadir- khum according to the Shia. (5x2 marks)

2023 SERIES 1 TRIAL
314/2
PAPER 2
TIME: 2½ HOURS
NAME……………………………………………………………………………………….
SCHOOL……………………………………………… SIGN………………………..
INDEX NO……………………………………………. ADM NO……………………
314/2
Paper 2
2 ½ hours

Candidates Score

1. a) Explain the rationale behind the prohibition of slander in Islam. (8mks)
b) state the wisdom behind the prohibition of zina in Islam. (7mks)
c)Highlight FIVE advantages of practicing the virtue of Qana’a(contentment) (5mks)
2. a) state the benefits of writing a will before a Muslim die. (7mks)

b) state the Islamic teachings that married couples can adopt to avoid Talaq(divorce).
(7mks)
c) state SIX causes of corruption in Kenya. (6mks)
3. a) Explain ways through which Muslims can co-exist peacefully with non-Muslims.
(8mks)
b) state the effects of riba on Muslim. (7mks)
c) highlight FIVE Islamic teachings on acquisition of wealth. (5mks)
4. a) Explain ways in which Muslim city sates facilitated spread of Islam in the East coast of
Africa between 1700-1900. (8mks)
b) Explain factors that led to the decline of the Banu Abbas. (7mks)
c) State FIVE achievements of the fatimids. (5mks)
5. a) Gives reasons why sayyidna Abubakar was elected Khalifa. (7mks)

b) Explain FOUR factors that led to the battle of badr. (8mks)
c)State FIVE lessons we learn from Sheikh Swalel Abdallah Farsy. (5mks)
6. a) Discuss FIVE achievements of sheikh sayyid Qutub (5mks)

b) State FIVE lessons we can learn from imam Ghazali’s rules of Conduct. (5mks)
c) Briefly describe sheikh Al Amin Al Mazrui. (5mks)

THE END
FOR THE FOLLOWING;
 ONLINE TUITION
 REVISION NOTES
 SCHEMES OF WORK
 SETBOOKS VIDEOS
 TERMLY EXAMS
 QUICK REVISION KITS
 KCSE TOPICALS
 KCSE PREMOCKS
 TOP SCHOOLS PREMOCKS
 JOINT PREMOCKS
 KCSE MOCKS
 TOP SCHOOLS MOCKS
 JOINT MOCKS
 KCSE POSTMOCKS
 TOP SCHOOLS PREDICTIONS
 KCSE PREDICTIONS
 KCSE REVEALED SETS
CALL/TEXT/WHATSAPP
0746-222-000
0742-999-000
mwalimuconsultancy@gmail.com
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KCSE JOINT MOCK EXAM

For Marking Schemes

INDEX NO……………………………………………. ADM NO……………………

Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education.

EXAMINER’S USE ONLY

FOR MARKING SCHEMES CONTACT 0746-222-000 / 0742-999-000

ii) Crawling stinging insects (1 mark)

iii) Small animals from tree barks (1 mark)

2. The diagram below represents a mammalian vertebra.

(a) Identify the vertebra represented above. (1mk)

(b) Give a reason for your answer. (1mk)

3. (a) Explain the role of oxygen in Active transport (1mk)

FOR MARKING SCHEMES CONTACT 0746-222-000 / 0742-999-000

4. Explain how sunken stomata lower the rate of transpiration (2mks)

5. State how xylem vessel is adapted to its function (3mks)

6). a) Define the term immunity. (1mk)

c) Identify one immunizable disease in Kenya. (1mk)

7. State two adaptations of the alveolus to its functions. (2mks)

FOR MARKING SCHEMES CONTACT 0746-222-000 / 0742-999-000

8. Define the following terms;

10. (a)State one significance of genetics counseling (1mk)

FOR MARKING SCHEMES CONTACT 0746-222-000 / 0742-999-000

b) What is the name given to such structures? (1mk)

c) Give two examples of vestigial organs in man. (2mk)

a) Name the response exhibited. (1mk)

FOR MARKING SCHEMES CONTACT 0746-222-000 / 0742-999-000

13.The following is an equation representing a type of respiration

C6H12O6 2C2H5OH + 2CO2 + Energy

a) Identify the type of respiration. (1mk)

FOR MARKING SCHEMES CONTACT 0746-222-000 / 0742-999-000

b) What happens to structure A and B as the arm is straightened (1 mark)

Auxin concentration (ppm)

(b)Name the growth hormone responsible for ripening of fruits. (1mk)

FOR MARKING SCHEMES CONTACT 0746-222-000 / 0742-999-000

(a) Name the structures labelled X and Y.

FOR MARKING SCHEMES CONTACT 0746-222-000 / 0742-999-000

19).The diagram below shows part of alimentary canal of a mammal

(i)Name the parts labeled A and C (2mks)

(ii)State the function of the part labeled B (1mk)

FOR MARKING SCHEMES CONTACT 0746-222-000 / 0742-999-000

FOR MARKING SCHEMES CONTACT 0746-222-000 / 0742-999-000

22.The diagram below represents a cell organelle.

b) Name the part labelled B (1 mark)

c) State the functions of the part labelled A (1 mark)

FOR MARKING SCHEMES CONTACT 0746-222-000 / 0742-999-000

At the start At the end of the experiment

ii) Placing the sections in water. (1 mark)

FOR MARKING SCHEMES CONTACT 0746-222-000 / 0742-999-000

ii) Humerus with clavicle and scapula. (1mk)

26.) The diagram below represents a simple reflex ark

(a)Name the parts labeled A, B and C (3mks)

(b)What is the role of part A (1mk)

FOR MARKING SCHEMES CONTACT 0746-222-000 / 0742-999-000

INDEX NO……………………………………………. ADM NO……………………

Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education.

FOR MARKING SCHEMES CONTACT 0746-222-000 / 0742-999-000

ii) Give a reason for your answer in b i) above. (1mk)

FOR MARKING SCHEMES CONTACT 0746-222-000 / 0742-999-000

(i) Structural similarity. (1mk)

(ii) Adaptation difference. (2mks)