Respiratory PasTest MRCP II 2021

MyPastest 31/05/2021, 9:47 AM
A 74-year-old male smoker with a 30-pack-year smoking history has an FEV1 of 40%
predicted. He has successfully reduced his smoking habit to only 3 cigarettes per day with
help from smoking cessation services. However, he can only walk 100 m at a time before he
becomes out of breath and feels that he needs to stop. His medication includes an inhaled
long-acting beta-agonist and tiotropium. On examination, his BP is 155/85 mmHg and he has
coarse crackles and wheeze throughout both lung fields.
Investigations:
Investigation Result Normal value
Haemoglobin 121 g/l 135–175 g/l
White cell count (WCC) 5.9 × 10 9/l 4–11 × 10 9/l
Platelets 210 × 10 9/l 150–400 × 10 9/l
Sodium (Na +) 139 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
Potassium (K +) 4.9 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
Creatinine 139 µmol/l 50–120 µmol/l
Bicarbonate 30 mmol/l 24–30 mmol/l
pH 7.4 7.35–7.45
P aO 2 10.1 kPa 10.5–13.5 kPa
P aCO 2 6.4 kPa 4.6–6.0 kPa
Which would best improve his exercise tolerance?
Your answer was incorrect
A Inhaled beclometasone
B Inhaled salbutamol
C Portable oxygen
D Pulmonary rehabilitation
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MyPastest 31/05/2021, 9:47 AM
E Smoking cessation
Explanation 
D Pulmonary rehabilitation
Given his limited smoking habit, it is likely that a pulmonary rehabilitation programme will
have more impact.
A Inhaled beclometasone
Low-dose inhaled corticosteroids have no impact on disease progression in COPD, although it

appears that high-dose inhaled corticosteroids combined with a long-acting beta-2 agonist
does reduce exacerbations, at the expense of increased pneumonia.
B Inhaled salbutamol
Salbutamol is not likely to impact significantly as most patients have very poor reversibility.
C Portable oxygen
His P aO 2 is too high for portable oxygen to be of benefit.
E Smoking cessation
Smoking cessation will have some impact on exercise tolerance, but given his limited habit
now, it is likely that a pulmonary rehabilitation programme will have more impact.
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 External Links
Pulmonary rehabilitation in chronic obstructive pulmonary disease

sciencedirect.com/science/article/pii/S1745045407000329
(http://www.sciencedirect.com/science/article/pii/S1745045407000329)
 Expanded Explanation
Overview
Clinical Presentation
Differential Diagnosis
Diagnosis / Investigation
Management
Prognosis
Links to NICE guidelines/CKS
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 9:47 AM
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 9:48 AM
A 56-year-old man is referred to the outpatients department with a 2-year history of

increasing breathlessness and deteriorating exercise tolerance. He has a non-productive
cough and always feels tired, so much so that he has needed to ask his wife to help him look
after his pigeons, which he has been racing for many years. Over the last year he has lost
about 1 stone in weight. He has a past medical history of asthma as a child. In his social
history, he has had no history of recent foreign travel, except to France. He has always worked
in a bank and is an ex-smoker who drinks minimal amounts of alcohol. On examination he is
not clubbed. On auscultation of his chest, he has fine inspiratory crackles.
ABGs on air reveal:
pH 7.36
PO 2 7.4 kPa
PCO 2 4.7 kPa
Lung function tests:
FEV 1 70% predicted
FVC 64% predicted
KCO 53% predicted
TLCO 55% predicted
His CXR is shown below;
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 9:48 AM
Which of the following would help make a diagnosis?
A Aspergillus fumigatus precipitins
B Avian serum precipitins
C Blood cultures
D Bronchoscopy
E Serum ACE
Explanation 
B Avian serum precipitins
The patient has interstitial lung disease, demonstrated by the slowly progressive shortness of
breath, type I hypoxia and restrictive lung function tests with reduced TLCO and KCO. The
chest radiograph shows reticular nodular shadowing. The diagnosis is extrinsic allergic
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 9:48 AM
alveolitis secondary to pigeons – bird fancier's lung. This is caused by inhaled avian serum
proteins (usually IgA) present in the pigeon's feathers and excreta. It is a hypersensitivity
pneumonitis caused by a specific immunological response to inhaled organic dusts.
EAA may present either as an acute or a chronic disease. Acute disease develops several
hours after exposure to high concentrations of the allergen. Breathlessness and flu-like
symptoms occur sometimes with headaches, fever and myalgia. Symptoms usually resolve
within 48 h. The patient has chronic disease as it has progressed to interstitial lung disease
with fibrosis.
The diagnosis of extrinsic allergic alveolitis is made by:
Identifying a potential source of antigen

Characteristic clinical features: this patient has chronic EAA and presents with similar
features to pulmonary fibrosis – clubbing tends to occur later (idiopathic pulmonary
fibrosis would typically be associated with clubbing)
Characteristic radiology (usually upper lobe fibrosis)
Lung function tests – showing a restrictive defect with reduced carbon monoxide gas
transfer
Demonstrating precipitating antibodies (precipitins) in the patient's serum
Resolution or improvement of symptoms following avoidance of exposure to the cause
Histology of lung tissue biopsy showing a mononuclear cell infiltrate with the formation
of non-caseating granulomas
Fluid obtained from bronchoalveloar lavage has a high lymphocyte count (typically
>40%).
Treatment is avoidance of the antigen. Corticosteroids may improve recovery in acute attacks
but do not seem to provide long-term benefit. They are not usually helpful once fibrosis has
occurred.
Other causes of EAA include:
Farmer's lung, due to Micropolyspora faeni and Thermactinomyces in mouldy hay, straw
and grain
Bagassosis due to Thermactinomyces sacchari in sugar cane processing
Malt worker's lung due to Aspergillus clavatus
Mushroom worker's lung due to thermophilic actinomycetes
Ventilation and water-related contamination, e.g. due to thermophilic actinomycetes
contaminating air-conditioning systems
Veterinary workers and animal handlers
Workers in milling and construction, e.g. wood dust pneumonitis due to Alternaria spp.
Causes of upper-zone fibrosis:
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 9:48 AM
Progressive massive fibrosis/coal worker's pneumoconiosis

Ankylosing spondylitis
Sarcoid/silicosis
Tuberculosis
Extrinsic allergic alveolitis
Radiation (depending on site).
A Aspergillus fumigatus precipitins
This is a test for Aspergillus lung disease.
C Blood cultures
There is nothing to suggest sepsis here.
D Bronchoscopy
Bronchoscopy may be helpful as part of the work-up here, but is not the test most likely to
give the correct diagnosis.
E Serum ACE
This is not a specific test for any condition, but may be raised in sarcoidosis and TB.
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MyPastest 31/05/2021, 9:50 AM
A 49-year-old male head teacher presents with a progressive shortness of breath on exertion
for the last six months. He has also suffered from joint pains over the last few months, and an
erythematous rash affecting sun-exposed areas during the summer months. He has
previously been fit and has had no medical consultations for 25 years. He does not smoke. On
examination his BP is 155/82 mmHg, pulse is 82/min and regular, BMI 22 and there are
occasional crackles on auscultation of his chest. Full blood count and renal function are
within normal limits, but autoantibodies are positive for anti-nuclear antibodies.
Lung function test results are as follows:
Actual Predicted
FEV 1 (L/min) 1.4 2.0 - 2.8
VC (L) 1.6 2.4 - 3.4
FEV 1/VC 88%
TLCO (ml/min/mmHg) 2.8 3.5 - 7.3
KCO 0.9 1.2 - 1.8
Which of the following is the most likely cause of his abnormal lung function?
A Asthma
B Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)
C Pulmonary haemorrhage
D Idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis (IPF)
E Inherited thrombophilia with multiple pulmonary emboli
Explanation 
B Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 9:50 AM
The results show reduced lung volumes with normal FEV 1/VC ratio and impaired gas transfer.
The diagnosis is interstitial lung disease, of which the most common in this age group are
idiopathic fibrosing alveolitis, and fibrosing alveolitis secondary to connective tissue disease,
sarcoidosis and pneumoconiosis. Spirometry shows reduced lung volumes with FEV 1/FVC
ratio >75%. Gas transfer is also impaired (low KCO). The history of polyarthritis,
photosensitive rash and positive anti-nuclear antibodies fits best with a diagnosis of SLE.
A Asthma
Asthma is associated with an obstructive lung defect rather than the restrictive picture seen
here.
A more acute deterioration would be expected in patients with pulmonary haemorrhage, and
elevation in low carbon monoxide transfer factor (TLCO) due to intra-alveolar haemoglobin
would be expected.
D Idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis (IPF)
IPF is inconsistent with the other features of connective tissue disease seen here.
E Inherited thrombophilia with multiple pulmonary emboli
Multiple thromboemboli may result in reduced gas transfer, but they wouldn’t result in the
restrictive picture on pulmonary function testing seen here. In addition, given the features of
SLE seen here, if pulmonary emboli were detected, anti-cardiolipin antibodies would be a
more likely cause.
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MyPastest 31/05/2021, 9:52 AM
A 90-year-old man was referred to the clinic with a history of progressive shortness of breath
and dry cough. Eighteen months ago, he was able to complete a full round of golf. He has
now stopped playing as he is breathless after walking 200 m. He had been a heavy smoker all
his life. He has no known asbestos exposure.
On examination, he is breathless at rest. He has a photosensitive rash on his face and neck. He
is not clubbed. His pulse is irregularly irregular. Auscultation of his chest reveals fine
inspiratory crackles bi-basally.
Investigations:
Investigation Result Normal Values
Haemoglobin (Hb) 121 g/l 135 - 175 g/l
White cell count (WCC) 9.2 × 10 9/l 4.0 - 11.0 × 10 9/l
Neutrophils 6.1 × 10 9/l 1.5 - 7.0 × 10 9/l
Platelets (PLT) 203 × 10 9/l 150 - 400 × 10 9/l
Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) 7.1 mu/l 0.4 - 5.0 mu/l
Blood gases on 30% oxygen:
pH 7.48
pCO 2 4.68 kPa
pO 2 8.8 kPa
Bicarbonate 25.4 mmol/l
His chest X-ray is shown below:
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 9:52 AM
Spirometry:
1.7 l (predicted 2.0 – 2.4 l)

FEV 1
FVC 2.0 l (predicted 3.2 – 3.8 l)
KCO 74% predicted
What is the likely cause of the suspected diagnosis?
A Rheumatoid arthritis
B Amiodarone
C Pesticides
D Sarcoidosis
E Smoking
Explanation 
B Amiodarone
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 9:52 AM
This man has interstitial lung disease – gradual onset of shortness breath and dry cough. He is
not clubbed (but this could well be a feature) and has fine inspiratory crackles. Lung function
tests are restrictive and he has type I respiratory failure. The chest radiograph shows small
lung fields and reticular nodular shadowing.
Next you have to look for a cause. He has a photosensitive rash on his face, atrial fibrillation
and abnormal thyroid function, suggesting that he is on amiodarone. Interstitial lung disease
is an important side effect of long-term amiodarone administration.
Other side effects of amiodarone include:
Hyper- and hypothyroidism

Peripheral sensory neuropathy
Hepatitis
Photosensitivity
Ataxia
Corneal micro-deposits (reversible)
Metallic taste
Arrhythmias (torsade de pointes): a number of drugs cause pulmonary fibrosis – see
below.
Diagnosis is made by a combination of clinical findings, lung function tests, CXR, BAL and
high-resolution CT. It is confirmed with a VATS or an open lung biopsy in patients fit to
undergo the procedure.
If there was no obvious cause for the interstitial lung disease and radiology and biopsy
histology were consistent with usual interstitial pneumonia, then idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis
would be the most likely diagnosis.
Drugs causing interstitial lung disease:
Antibiotics – nitrofurantoin
Cardiovascular – amiodarone, beta-blockers
Chemotherapeutic – bleomycin, busulfan, cyclophosphamide, carmustine, lomustine,
methotrexate, melphalan, mitomycin C, nitrosureas, sulfasalazine, 5-fluorouracil (5FU)
Drugs used to treat rheumatoid arthritis – sulfasalazine, penicillamine,
cyclophosphamide, methotrexate, gold
Drugs used to treat migraine – ergotamine, ergots, methysergide
Others:
bromocriptine
radiation
dothiepin
pesticides
high-flow oxygen.
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 9:52 AM
Causes of lower interstitial lung disease:
Drugs
Connective tissue disease
Asbestosis
Idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis.
A Rheumatoid arthritis
There is nothing in the history to suggest RA. Rheumatoid arthritis resulting in interstitial lung
disease can cause shortness of breath, chronic dry cough, fatigue and weakness. There may
be lung nodules.
C Pesticides
It is more likely that the ILD has been caused by amiodarone, given the patient’s sun-exposed
rash.
D Sarcoidosis
This is not sarcoidosis, the presentation of which would be very unusual at this age. When
sarcoidosis affects the lungs there is a collection of inflammatory cells forming lumps known
as granulomas. This may present with wheezing, cough, shortness of breath or chest pain.
Lofgren syndrome is where there is fever, lymphadenopathy, arthritis and erythema nodosum.
E Smoking
Amiodarone is more likely to cause ILD than smoking. Smoking is associated with
desquamative interstitial pneumonia, but the history and age of the patient are against this.
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MyPastest 31/05/2021, 9:54 AM
A 56-year-old lady comes into the Emergency Department with palpitations and shortness of
breath. She is known to have mild chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) and is on
the following inhalers: salbutamol, ipratropium bromide and beclomethasone; according to
her notes, she does have a mild degree of reversibility. On examination, the patient is
dyspnoeic with blood pressure 154/88 mmHg and pulse rate of >100/min (AF). She
underwent echocardiography 6 months ago, which showed normal ventricular function and
no structural abnormality.
Her admission arterial blood gases (ABG) are:
Investigation Result Normal Value
pH 7.35 7.35–7.45
p a(O 2) 8.1 kPa 10.5–13.5 kPa
p a(CO 2) 6.2 kPa 4.6–6.0 kPa
Bicarbonate (HCO 3 -) 28 mmol/l 24–30 mmol/l
You start the patient on 28% oxygen, nebulisers (salbutamol 5 mg and ipratropium 0.5 mg)
and repeat the blood gases after 30 min:
pH 7.36 7.35–7.45
p a(O 2) 9.6 kPa 10.5–13.5 kPa
p a(CO 2) 5.8 kPa 4.6–6.0 kPa
You reassure her that she is improving on the current medication, but she tells you that she is
still having palpitations. You do a 12-lead electrocardiogram (ECG), which reveals multi-focal
atrial tachycardia (MAT) with a rate of 118/min. Her BP has fallen to 110/70 mmHg.
How would you control this arrhythmia?
A DC – cardioversion
B Start metoprolol
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 9:54 AM
C Start verapamil
D Increase inspired oxygen to 40%
E Observation only
Explanation 
C Start verapamil
MAT commonly occurs in critically ill patients with obstructive airways disease who may be
hypoxic and hypercapnic. It is characterised by at least three different P-wave morphologies
with varying PP and PR intervals. Aim to improve both p a(O 2) and p a(CO 2).
Whilst AF control may not be required as her pulmonary status improves, it is likely that in
the acute phase, especially with repeated salbutamol nebulisers, that she will suffer from
worsening symptoms of tachycardia. As such, verapamil would be an appropriate option. It
can be given in small boluses of 5 mg intravenously and then as an oral dose of 40–120 mg
TDS. It is a moot point whether she will require long-term AF control. If following the acute
episode she remains in sinus rhythm, a 72 h ECG monitor may be appropriate prior to
committing her to new medication.
A DC – cardioversion
DC cardioversion would be an inappropriate option in this patient, particularly given it may

lead to more serious rhythm disturbance in multi-focal atrial tachycardia. It should be done in
an emergency situation if the patient becomes haemodynamically unstable or develops
myocardial infarction as a result of the arrhythmia. If this happens and the patient is
conscious, then sedation can be given. It is important that the shock delivered is
synchronised to avoid shocking on a T wave, which could lead to asystole.
B Start metoprolol
Metoprolol could make her COPD worse when used acutely as she is noted to have a degree
of reversibility. This is not the same as chronic use of beta blockers in COPD, where evidence
suggests they don’t impact significantly on lung function.
D Increase inspired oxygen to 40%
This would be inappropriate as it would not deal immediately with the underlying problem of
the arrhythmia, which is important as the patient’s blood pressure has become lower. Also,
the hypoxia is already improving, and increasing oxygen may worsen the patient’s
hypercapnia.
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 9:54 AM
E Observation only
This arrhythmia has become significant in that it has caused a drop in blood pressure in a
very unstable patient. Therefore it would be inappropriate to simply observe.
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Overview
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 9:54 AM
Management
Prognosis
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 9:56 AM
A 64-year-old woman is referred with worsening COPD. She has a 10 pack-year smoking
history. Her exercise tolerance has been steadily decreasing due to dyspnoea, and she is only
able to walk a short distance on the flat now. She has previously responded to oral
prednisolone with around a 25% improvement in her FEV1. FEV1 is now only 38% of predicted.
She has tried PRN salbutamol but this has not helped.
Which of the following represents the most appropriate next step for this patient?
A Switch salbutamol to PRN ipratropium
B Start BD inhaled beclomethasone
C Start oral prednisolone 5 mg OD
D Start oral theophylline
E Start regular high-dose inhaled fluticasone and inhaled long-acting β-agonist
Explanation 
E Start regular high-dose inhaled fluticasone and inhaled long-acting β-agonist
This patient has severe COPD. Recent studies have demonstrated that high-dose combination
therapy with fluticasone and long-acting β-agonist may slow deterioration in FEV1. Low-dose
fluticasone, beclomethasone, ipratropium and ventolin have no impact on the deterioration of
lung function. The TORCH study (2007) showed a reduction in exacerbations with respect to
dual LABA and inhaled steroid therapy. It did, however, show that the risk of pneumonia was
increased in the treated group. Current NICE guidance states that for patients with FEV 1
<50%, LABA and LAMA as combination therapy is the intervention of choice, except as here
when there is evidence of previous reversibility when patients have been treated with
corticosteroids in the past.
A Switch salbutamol to PRN ipratropium
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 9:56 AM
NICE guidelines state that a once-daily long-acting muscarinic antagonist should be offered
in preference to four-times-daily short-acting muscarinic antagonists to people with stable
COPD who remain breathless or have exacerbations despite using short-acting
bronchodilators as required. Ipratropium is a short-acting muscarinic antagonist and is
therefore not a suitable option here.
B Start BD inhaled beclomethasone
NICE guidelines state that if FEV 1 is <50% predicted then give either LABA with an inhaled
corticosteroid (ICS) in a combination inhaler, or LAMA. Corticosteroid monotherapy for COPD
is not recommended.
C Start oral prednisolone 5 mg OD
Prednisolone would be appropriate if the patient had presented acutely with an exacerbation
of COPD (though a higher dose would be required), but NICE guidelines state that
‘Maintenance use of oral corticosteroid therapy in COPD is not normally recommended’.
D Start oral theophylline
NICE guidance states that ‘Theophylline should only be used after a trial of short-acting
bronchodilators and long-acting bronchodilators’ and therefore does not represent the most
appropriate next step for this patient.
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 External Links
NICE CKS. COPD

cks.nice.org.uk/chronic-obstructive-pulmonary-disease
(https://cks.nice.org.uk/chronic-obstructive-pulmonary-disease)
TORCH Study. The New England Journal of Medicine

nejm.org/doi/full/10.1056/NEJMoa063070
(https://www.nejm.org/doi/full/10.1056/NEJMoa063070)
Overview
Management
Prognosis
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 9:56 AM
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 9:58 AM
A 67-year-old man with long-standing chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) comes
to the Emergency Department with an exacerbation. He has suffered from a severe cough for
the past three days, productive of only small amounts of thick sputum, and is only able to
walk 2–3 yards to the toilet. He has had six admissions over the past 18 months because of
exacerbations, has home oxygen and takes nebulisers (fluticasone/salmeterol and
tiotropium).
When you review him, he is asleep, with a respiratory rate of 15 breaths/minute. He mumbles
incoherently after a vigorous sternal rub. His blood pressure is 124/82 mmHg, and pulse 85
bpm and regular. There is polyphonic wheeze on auscultation of the chest and ankle swelling
consistent with right heart failure. He is receiving 60% oxygen (O 2) by mask.
Arterial blood gas (ABG) on arrival:
Investigations Results Normal Values
pH 7.22 7.35–7.45
HCO 3 - 34 mmol/l 24–30 mmol/l
pCO 2 12 kPa 4.6–6.0 kPa
pO 2 10.8 kPa 10.5–13.5 kPa
Which of the following is the next most appropriate intervention?
Your answer was correct
A 28% O2
B Continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP)
C Doxapram
D Intubation and ventilation
E Non-invasive positive pressure ventilation (NIV)
Explanation 
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 9:58 AM
A 28% O2
This patient is adequately oxygenated but is clearly drowsy and acidotic because of marked
carbon dioxide (CO 2) retention. The most appropriate next step is to reduce the inspired O 2
and re-check the ABG result. It is likely CO 2 will reduce significantly, accompanied by a small
reduction in O 2 and a consequent improvement in consciousness.
B Continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP)
CPAP is more commonly used as a treatment for patients with sleep apnoea. In this situation,
if consciousness does not improve with decreased inspired O 2, NIPPV is preferred.
C Doxapram
Doxapram is a centrally acting respiratory stimulant. It was extensively used in the

management of COPD before the advent of NIPPV in patients where invasive ventilation was
undesirable.
Invasive ventilation is undesirable in patients with end-stage COPD if it can be avoided,

because of the difficulties in weaning patients. Here there are a number of stages before that
is necessary, including turning down the inspired oxygen and a trial of NIPPV.
E Non-invasive positive pressure ventilation (NIV)
NIPPV is the obvious next step if hypercapnia does not rapidly improve once inspired O 2 is
reduced, although ideally the pH should not be allowed to fall much further before NIPPV is
considered.
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Overview
Management
Prognosis
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 10:00 AM
A 31-year-old asthmatic woman was seen in the Respiratory Outpatient Clinic. She said she
had been generally well although she had not been sleeping well at night due to coughing.
She had also noticed that when playing tennis she was getting wheezy and requiring her
salbutamol inhaler more frequently – at least 4 times a week. She was taking budesonide 200
micrograms two puffs twice a day. She had no significant past medical history. She smoked 10
cigarettes/day and had done so for 2 years. Auscultation of her chest revealed a mild
expiratory wheeze. Examination was otherwise remarkable.
Auscultation of her chest revealed a mild expiratory wheeze. Examination was otherwise
remarkable.
Investigations:
PEF 80% predicted (420 1/min)
FEV1 85% predicted
FVC 90% predicted
She is treated successfully and goes home.

Her symptoms improve and she goes back to playing regular tennis without a problem. Three
months later she was feeling so much better she decided not to renew her prescription for
her inhalers.
Two weeks following this she developed a chest infection and became acutely short of
breath. On examination she is unable to speak full sentences. Respiratory rate is 30/min, pulse
115/min, BP 100/60 mmHg.
Auscultation of her chest reveals an expiratory wheeze throughout.
PEFR 150 l/min
ABGs on air:
pH 7.47
pCO 2 4.06 kPa
pO 2 12 kPa
Which of the following would be the best initial management for this patient?
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 10:00 AM
A High-flow oxygen, oral/intravenous steroid, ipratropium nebulisers and salbutamol

nebulisers
B 60% oxygen, oral/intravenous steroid, salbutamol nebulisers and ipratropium

bromide nebulisers and leukotriene receptor antagonist
C 60% oxygen, oral/intravenous steroid, salbutamol and intravenous magnesium
D High-flow oxygen, salbutamol nebulisers and ipratropium bromide nebulisers and

intravenous magnesium
E High-flow oxygen, intravenous/oral steroids, ipratropium bromide nebuliser and

intravenous aminophylline
Explanation 
A High-flow oxygen, oral/intravenous steroid, ipratropium nebulisers and salbutamol

nebulisers
After stopping her inhalers she is no longer on any medication to control her asthma. She
presents to the Emergency Department with symptoms and signs life threatening asthma
exacerbation – inability to complete a sentence in one breath, respiratory rate >25/min,
tachycardia >110 bpm and PEFR <50%. The correct management is high-flow oxygen as
patients with pure asthma do not retain carbon dioxide; salbutamol driven by oxygen; steroid
therapy – prednisolone 40 mg orally if the patient is able to take oral medication, or 100 mg
intravenous hydrocortisone. Ipratropium may also be used. Intravenous magnesium should be
given in life-threatening asthma or if there is no response to initial therapy. Intravenous
aminophylline can also be used.
B 60% oxygen, oral/intravenous steroid, salbutamol nebulisers and ipratropium

bromide nebulisers and leukotriene receptor antagonist
Leukotriene receptor antagonists are used in the management of asthma, but are not
appropriate as an acute treatment for an exacerbation.
C 60% oxygen, oral/intravenous steroid, salbutamol and intravenous magnesium
Intravenous magnesium is reserved for patients with a PEFR <50% predicted and who have
not had a good response to inhaled bronchodilator therapies.
D High-flow oxygen, salbutamol nebulisers and ipratropium bromide nebulisers and

intravenous magnesium
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 10:00 AM
Intravenous magnesium is reserved for patients with a PEFR <50% predicted and who have
not had a good response to inhaled bronchodilator therapies.
E High-flow oxygen, intravenous/oral steroids, ipratropium bromide nebuliser and

intravenous aminophylline
Salbutamol nebulisers are needed.

70124
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 External Links
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 10:00 AM
British guideline on the management of asthma

brit-thoracic.org.uk/document-library/clinical-information/asthma/btssign-asthma-guideline-qui…
(https://www.brit-thoracic.org.uk/document-library/clinical-
information/asthma/btssign-asthma-guideline-quick-reference-guide-2014/)
Overview
Management
Prognosis
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 10:02 AM
A 34-year-old HIV-positive man presented to hospital complaining of increasing shortness of

breath and cough. He had noticed his vision was slightly worse over the last few weeks. He
had prolonged admission 4 months previously with a chest complaint. He has been taking
prophylactic co-trimoxazole. He is a current smoker with a 10- pack year history. On
examination he looked unwell. Pulse was 110/min, respiratory rate 28/min, BP 95/65 mmHg
and saturations 91% on air. Auscultation of his chest revealed fine crackles bilaterally. The CXR
shows reticular shadowing throughout both lung fields.
Investigations:
Platelets (PLT) 511 × 10 9/l 150 - 400 × 10 9/l
Mean corpuscular volume (MCV) 84 fl 80 - 100 fl
CD4 + count 10/mm 3 430 - 1690 mm 3
Sodium (Na +) 139 mmol/l 135 - 145 mmol/l
Potassium (K +) 4.2 mmol/l 3.5 - 5.0 mmol/l
Urea 6.1 mmol/l 2.5 - 6.5 mmol/l
Creatinine (Cr) 111 µmol/l 50 - 120 µmol/l
Bilirubin 52 µmol/l 1 - 22 µmol/l
Aspartate aminotransferase (AST) 113 u/l 10 - 40 u/l
Alkaline phosphatase (ALP) 121 u/l 30 - 150 u/l
Albumin 34 u/l 35 - 55 u/l
Transfer factor for carbon monoxide (TLCO) 80% predicted
What is the likely diagnosis?
A Pneumocystis jirovecii pneumonia
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 10:02 AM
B CMV pneumonitis
C Nocardia infection
D Tuberculosis
E Streptococcal pneumonia
Explanation 
B CMV pneumonitis
This patient has a cytomegalovirus (CMV) infection. CMV is one of the most frequent
opportunistic infections in patients with advanced HIV disease. A CD4 count <50 cells/mm 3
carries high risk of the disease.
It can cause hepatitis, colitis, retinitis, pneumonitis, radiculopathy and encephalitis. The
reduced visual acuity and abnormal liver function tests also are more in keeping with CMV.
In the immunosuppressed, serology may be of little value. Diagnosis is made by polymerase

chain reaction (PCR) of serum. Histological staining of transbronchial biopsies may
demonstrate the pathognomic ‘owl’s eye’ cells. Other techniques include rapid culture
methods such as DEAFF (detection of early antigen fluorescent foci) by monoclonal
antibody.
Treatment is with intravenous ganciclovir.
A Pneumocystis jirovecii pneumonia
Clinically and radiologically, CMV pneumonia mimics P. jirovecii pneumonia (PJP). However,
this patient was on prophylactic co-trimoxazole, making PJP less likely.
C Nocardia infection
Nocardiosis can occur in immunocompromised patients, but CXR usually shows cavitation
plus/minus pleural effusion. Skin abscesses may be present. The diffuse CXR shadowing
combined with eye symptoms and deranged LFTs make CMV disease more likely.
D Tuberculosis
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 10:02 AM
TB is more common in immunocompromised patients, and miliary TB may affect multiple

organs, but the combination of diffuse CXR shadowing, deranged LFTs and eye symptoms in
particular make CMV disease more likely.
E Streptococcal pneumonia
There is multi-organ involvement here, making streptococcal pneumonia less likely.

70145
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Overview
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 10:02 AM
Management
Prognosis
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 10:03 AM
A 40-year-old single male carpenter presents to casualty with a three-week history of

increasing shortness of breath. He is a lifelong non-smoker. Temperature on admission is
38.2°C. On auscultation of his chest he has bilateral inspiratory crepitations. The chest X-ray is
reported as patchy opacification throughout both lung fields. There are no signs of peripheral
oedema, and he is thin with a BMI of 19.5. You ask him to walk the length of the ward holding
a portable pulse oximeter, and note that his oxygen saturation begins to fall rapidly.
Arterial blood gases (on air) reveal the following:
pH 7.36 7.35–7.45
pO 2 8.0 kPa 10.5–13.5 kPa
pCO 2 5.1 kPa 4.6–6.0 kPa
Bicarbonate (HCO 3 -) 20.1 mmol/l 24–30 mmol/l
Which of the following represents the most likely underlying diagnosis in this
case?
A Community-acquired pneumonia
B Fibrosing alveolitis
C Pneumocystis jirovecii pneumonia (PCP)
D Pulmonary oedema
E Pulmonary embolism
Explanation 
C Pneumocystis jirovecii pneumonia (PCP)
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 10:03 AM
PCP is most commonly seen related to immunodeficiency in patients who are HIV-positive.
The fact that he desaturates on a walk test is typical of this condition, as are the clinical signs
which are much more prominent than X-ray changes. Incidence is highest when the CD4
lymphocyte count falls below 100/mm 3. Diagnosis is via sputum to look for cysts of PCP or
via bronchioalvelolar lavage fluid if sputum is negative. Treatment is with co-trimoxazole
given either orally or IV; alternatives include pentamidine. After one episode of infection,
patients should be maintained on prophylactic co-trimoxazole to prevent further acute
episodes.
A Community-acquired pneumonia
The subacute course of this patient’s disease, coupled with the patchy bilateral areas of
consolidation, is inconsistent with common causes of community-acquired pneumonia such
as S. pneumoniae.
B Fibrosing alveolitis
The time course of this patient’s symptoms would be considered too short for the onset of
fibrosing alveolitis. The desaturation on exercise is also characteristic of PCP.
D Pulmonary oedema
Patchy consolidation and pyrexia are more consistent with infection versus cardiac failure.
The lack of significant cardiac risk factors also counts against pulmonary oedema as the
cause of symptoms seen here.
E Pulmonary embolism
Acute-onset pleuritic chest pain is absent from the history given here, and the patchy
consolidation and pyrexia don’t fit with an acute PE.
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Overview
Management
Prognosis
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 10:04 AM
A 30-year-old woman presents with sudden-onset shortness of breath and chest pain. She
had a similar episode earlier in the year. At that time she had a chest X-ray taken and a needle
inserted into her lung, which relieved the problem. Last year she had shortness of breath
associated with ‘fluid on her lung’, which was drained off, and she was told to follow a low-fat
diet. She has no other past medical history and is not on any medications.
What is the most likely diagnosis?
A Histiocytosis
B Tuberous sclerosis
C Neurofibromatosis type 1
D Recurrent Pneumocystis jirovecii infection
E Lymphangioleiomyomatosis
Explanation 
E Lymphangioleiomyomatosis
Lymphangioleiomyomatosis is a rare idiopathic disease, affecting women of reproductive

years. It is characterised by infiltration of immature muscle cells into the bronchiolar and
alveolar walls. This results in destruction of the airways, cyst formation and progressive
decline in lung function. Typical radiological findings are of interstitial lung disease, recurrent
pneumothoraces and chylous effusions. Treatment is lung transplantation. Patients are asked
to avoid taking the oral contraceptive pill, pregnancy and long-haul flights. Conservative
management includes progesterone supplements, but the response is variable. Management
of pneumothorax and chylous effusions is standard. If this occurs in men then tuberous
sclerosis should be considered.
A Histiocytosis
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 10:04 AM
Histiocytosis, or Langerhans cell histiocytosis, is a sign or multi-system condition

characterised by infiltrating granulomas with Langerhans cells. In the lungs this can cause
pneumothoraces and pulmonary hypertension, with cysts and honeycombing on imaging.
Diagnosis is by biopsy and treatment is with local excision and steroids. The presence of
pleural effusions makes this unlikely in this patient, as does the absence of any guiding
radiological features.
B Tuberous sclerosis
Tuberous sclerosis is an autosomal dominant disorder with hamartoma formation in the heart,
kidneys, eyes, brain and skin. Patients can have adenoma sebaceum, angiofibromas and ash
leaf hypomelanic macules, as well as shagreen patches. It is associated with Von Hippel–
Lindau. The absence of any such skin features makes this an unlikely underlying cause.
C Neurofibromatosis type 1
Neurofibromatosis type 1 is an autosomal dominant condition. Patients have café-au-lait

spots, freckling and neurofibromas. Some can develop problems resulting from
neurofibromas, particularly ophthalmic and neurological complications. The absence of any
neurofibromas makes this an unlikely diagnosis.
D Recurrent Pneumocystis jirovecii infection
Pneumocystis jirovecii is an opportunistic, AIDS-defining infection associated with severe

immunosuppression in HIV. It is very unlikely to cause infection without HIV and
immunocompromise, but in such patients it can cause pneumothorax as a complication.
7165
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MyPastest 31/05/2021, 10:05 AM
A 34-year-old woman presents with a gradual onset of exertional dyspnoea over the previous
18 months. She had consulted her general practitioner several months ago who had
diagnosed her with asthma and prescribed a salbutamol inhaler that was not really helping
symptoms. She was now dyspnoeic on minimal exertion. She had no cough, sputum or
haemoptysis. She described recent fatigue and several episodes of presyncope. She was a
non-smoker and had no significant past medical or family history.
On examination she was obese with a body mass index of 34. She had a loud pulmonary
component to the second heart sound, an early diastolic murmur over the pulmonary area
and a palpable right ventricular heave. Her jugular venous pressure was raised and she had
pitting ankle oedema. Her chest was clear to auscultation. Abdominal and neurological
examinations were entirely normal.
Investigations:
Platelets 250 × 10 9/l 150–400 × 10 9/l
Urea 5.2 mmol/l 2.5–6.5 mmol/l
Plasma D-dimers 130 (upper limit of normal = 285)
Sinus rhythm, right axis deviation,

ECG
right ventricular hypertrophy
Enlarged hilar bilaterally,

Chest X-ray
oligaemic peripheral lung fields
Which investigation would be most helpful in establishing the diagnosis?
A Respiratory function tests
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 10:05 AM
B Exercise ECG
C Ventilation–perfusion (V/Q) lung scan
D 24-h ECG monitoring
E Dobutamine stress echocardiogram
Explanation 
C Ventilation–perfusion (V/Q) lung scan
The diagnosis is either primary pulmonary hypertension (PPH) or multiple recurrent

pulmonary emboli. PPH is a rare disorder of unknown aetiology which typically affects young
females. There is an average delay of 2 years between symptom onset and diagnosis, by
which time cor pulmonale has usually developed. Echocardiography shows right ventricular
enlargement, and cardiac catherisation will demonstrate a raised pulmonary artery pressure.
A V/Q scan may show patchy filling defects different from those seen in pulmonary
embolism, and remains part of the diagnostic work-up. Multiple pulmonary emboli are a
possibility given her obesity. It’s possible for an accumulation of small pulmonary emboli to
eventually lead to secondary pulmonary hypertension and right heart failure. Diagnosis is with
V/Q scan or spiral CT, which demonstrates multiple perfusion defects. If V/Q is negative then
primary pulmonary hypertension becomes a more likely possibility.
A Respiratory function tests

pulmonary emboli, given the patient’s age, evidence of pulmonary hypertension, raised
haemoglobin and obesity. Pulmonary function testing will give us no more additional
information that will help us to reach a diagnosis. DLCO may be reduced given the reduced
capacity for oxygen transfer due to pulmonary hypertension, but PFTs will not help us make
either of these diagnoses.
B Exercise ECG

haemoglobin and obesity. An exercise ECG would help to pick up an exercise-induced
arrhythmia, but would not be of any diagnostic utility in this patient’s case.
D 24-h ECG monitoring
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 10:05 AM

haemoglobin and obesity. Ambulatory ECG monitoring might help to uncover an arrhythmia
causing intermittent dyspnoea and symptoms of palpitations, but it will not add any
additional diagnostic insight in this patient’s case.
E Dobutamine stress echocardiogram

haemoglobin and obesity. A dobutamine stress echo will help ascertain how cardiac function
performs under physiological stress, but it will not help to diagnose either of the above two
differentials.
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Overview
Management
Prognosis
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 10:07 AM
A 64-year-old man with a history of COPD managed with high-dose fluticasone and
salmeterol (combined) comes to the Emergency Department for review. He has attended the
clinic for routine follow up, where he was found on CXR to have a 1.5 cm pneumothorax. On
aspiration this reduces to 0.75 cm. There is no significant shortness of breath.
Which of the following is the most appropriate next step?
A Discharge with follow-up 24 hours later
B Admit for formal chest drain
C Admit and observe overnight
D Repeat aspiration
E Discharge with follow-up in 2 weeks
Explanation 
C Admit and observe overnight
This man has a history of COPD, and therefore this case follows the secondary pneumothorax
line of the BTS algorithm with respect to management. Because, after aspiration the
pneumothorax has reduced in size to <1 cm, observation overnight with oxygen
supplementation is the management of choice.
A Discharge with follow-up 24 hours later
Discharge of patients with pneumothorax applies if primary pneumothorax has occurred and
has been successfully aspirated; however, review within 2–4 weeks is advised.
B Admit for formal chest drain
Admission and insertion of a chest drain is only required if air aspiration of the pneumothorax
has proved unsuccessful.
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 10:07 AM
D Repeat aspiration
Repeat aspiration is not required. In the event that air aspiration is unsuccessful, insertion of
an 8–14 Fr chest drain is the next step.
E Discharge with follow-up in 2 weeks
This is the correct course of action when a primary pneumothorax has been successfully
aspirated.
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MyPastest 31/05/2021, 10:07 AM
Overview
Management
Prognosis
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 10:08 AM
You are asked to review a 58-year-old care worker who has complained of diffuse, non-
specific left-sided chest pain increasing over the past few months. She smokes 20 cigarettes
per day and has no past medical history of note. Her husband works as a plumber and had
worked as a boiler engineer for many years before that. Her chest X-ray reveals left-sided
pleural thickening and evidence of an infiltrative lesion. A previous chest X-ray taken 12
months had shown pleural plaques, but was otherwise normal.
Which of the following diagnoses fits best with the features of this case?
A Adenocarcinoma of the bronchus
B Small cell carcinoma of the bronchus
C Mesothelioma
D Benign pleural plaques
E Asbestosis
Explanation 
C Mesothelioma
The appearance of this lesion over the past year, coupled with the history of possible
asbestos exposure in the family, is suggestive of mesothelioma. A spouse can contract the
disease through secondary exposure such as handling the laundry of a spouse that has
already been exposed. Patients may present with a history of diffuse, non-specific chest pain
and profuse sweating. The diagnosis is a possibility in any patient with a suggestion of
asbestos exposure and who presents with pleural thickening or pleural effusion. Diagnosis is
with pleural fluid aspiration under ultrasound guidance and CT scanning. Repeated aspiration
should be avoided if the diagnosis is suspected, due to the possible risk of tumour tracking. In
addition, pleural biopsy is often helpful in making the diagnosis; this should be CT or
ultrasound guided, if possible, rather than using a blind technique.
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 10:08 AM
The presentation with initial pleural disease is more consistent with mesothelioma than a
bronchial carcinoma.
B Small cell carcinoma of the bronchus
Small cell carcinoma primaries are located centrally in 90% or more of cases, and this doesn’t
therefore fit with the clinical picture here.
D Benign pleural plaques
The rapid evolution of the CXR over the course of the past year to now show an infiltrative
lesion doesn’t fit with benign pleural plaque disease.
E Asbestosis
Asbestosis fits with a picture of pulmonary fibrosis, unlike that seen here.
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MyPastest 31/05/2021, 10:08 AM
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Overview
Management
Prognosis
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 10:08 AM
A 65-year-old man with known COPD comes to see you at the Respiratory Clinic. He has been
a smoker for 40 years and previously worked in the docks at Southampton. He has
experienced no increase in his sputum volume or any change in its colour. On examination, he
is pursed-lip breathing but managing complete sentences. His BP is 140/70 mmHg, pulse 80
bpm and regular, Sp(O 2) 93% o/a, respiratory rate 18 breaths/min and temperature 37°C.
Examination of his chest revealed a widespread wheeze with coarse crepitations heard in the
left mid-zone. FEV 1:FVC ratio in the clinic today was 69%.
What is the most useful investigation in establishing the diagnosis?
A Repeat spirometry
B Chest X-ray
C V/Q scan
D High-resolution CT
E Full blood count
Explanation 
D High-resolution CT
Patients with longstanding chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) often develop
localised areas of bronchiectasis because of progressive damage to the lung tissue. It is
important to distinguish between this and fibrosis (secondary to asbestos exposure) in the
absence of infective processes so that adequate treatment can be employed. The most useful
investigation is therefore a CT scan.
A Repeat spirometry
Spirometry is not useful and it is likely that it would confirm an obstructive picture, with a low
level of sensitivity to identify the onset of any restrictive lung disease.
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 10:08 AM
B Chest X-ray
CXR has only a low pick-up rate for bronchiectasis or pulmonary fibrosis versus CT and would
therefore not be considered useful here.
C V/Q scan
VQ scanning is most useful in identifying evidence of an acute pulmonary embolus. That

would not fit with the picture of wheeze and coarse crepitations on auscultation here.
E Full blood count
FBC may show an increase in Hb because of chronic hypoxia, although this would be non-
specific with respect to the cause of any underlying hypoxia (i.e. worsening COPD versus
asbestos-related pulmonary fibrosis).
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Overview
Management
Prognosis
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 10:10 AM
A 25-year-old man presents with left-sided pleuritic chest pain that come on suddenly 3 days
previously. Initially he thought it was secondary to his workout in the gym. However, since it
did not improve and he noticed that he was slightly more breathless than usual, he went to
the Emergency Department. He has no significant past medical history. He is a smoker of
20/day. On examination he looked well. He was a tall, thin man and was not short of breath at
rest. Examination was unremarkable except for a clicking sound which was synchronous with
the heart sounds. CXR was unremarkable.
What is the diagnosis?
A Mitral valve prolapse
B Pericarditis
C Primary pneumothorax
D Pleurisy
E Secondary pneumothorax
Explanation 
C Primary pneumothorax
A click synchronous with the heart sounds is a recognised sign of a small left apical
pneumothorax. He is a tall, thin man and a smoker, which are both risk factors for developing
a pneumothorax. There is a strong association between pneumothoraces and smoking. The
most recent British Thoracic Society (BTS) guidelines suggest that if the postero-anterior
(PA) chest X-ray is normal and a small pneumothorax is suspected, a lateral decubitus chest
X-ray provides added information in up to 14% of cases (see weblink below). Expiratory films
add little and are not recommended.
The treatment of a primary pneumothorax in a non-smoker, <50 years old, with no evidence
of underlying lung disease, with a rim of air of <2 cm and no breathlessness is to discharge
and follow up as an outpatient. Although this patient is a smoker there is nothing to suggest
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 10:10 AM
underlying lung disease, and it is likely that his apical pneumothorax is too small to safely
aspirate. Patients should be given analgesia if required and clear instructions to return if their
symptoms get any worse.
A Mitral valve prolapse
This is associated with a mid- to late systolic click. It occurs when there is an abnormally
thickened mitral valve leaflet that displaces into the left atrium during systole.
B Pericarditis
The patient has pleuritic, not pericarditic, chest pain. Pericarditis typically causes symptoms
that include sudden onset of sharp chest pain. The pain may be felt in the shoulders, neck or
back. It is typically relieved by sitting up and worse when lying down or deep inspiration.
Other symptoms include fever, weakness, palpitations or dyspnoea.
D Pleurisy
Onset was sudden and not associated with infective symptoms. Pleurisy results in a sharp
chest pain on breathing. Other symptoms include breathlessness, cough, fever and weight
loss.
E Secondary pneumothorax
There is no history of underlying lung disease. Secondary pneumothorax is defined as

pneumothorax that occurs in the presence of underlying lung disease. This is in contrast to
primary pneumothorax, where there is no lung disease.
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 External Links
BTS. Management of pleural infection in adults

thorax.bmj.com/content/65/Suppl_2/ii41
(https://thorax.bmj.com/content/65/Suppl_2/ii41)
Overview
Management
Prognosis
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 10:10 AM
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 10:11 AM
You review a 48-year-old man in the Respiratory Clinic. He is diagnosed with tuberculosis and
you want to start quadruple anti-tuberculous therapy. He is very concerned about the
potential side effects of therapy. Previous history of note includes abnormal liver function
tests and a history of alcohol abuse; most recently he has been diagnosed with type 2
diabetes. Recent ALT was 65 U/l, creatinine 102 µmol/l and a liver biopsy has shown early
hepatic fibrosis.
Which of the following is important to bear in mind when managing his anti-
tuberculous therapy?
A Ethambutol should not be given
B Isoniazid should not be given
C Pyrazinamide should not be given
D Pyridoxine should not be given
E Rifampicin should not be given
Explanation 
C Pyrazinamide should not be given
Drug-induced hepatitis associated with anti-tuberculous therapy can be fatal; for this reason
pyrazinamide should not be used in patients with known chronic liver disease, even if it is
thought to be stable. Baseline and regular monitoring of liver function should be undertaken
in patients on anti-tuberculous therapy, and where there is a history of chronic liver disease it
is advised that this is weekly for the first two weeks and then two-weekly thereafter.
A Ethambutol should not be given
Ethambutol can accumulate in patients with chronic kidney disease, leading to optic
neuropathy, and therefore should be given at a lower dose. The creatinine of 102 µmol/l seen
here means that dose adjustment is not required.
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 10:11 AM
B Isoniazid should not be given
In stable liver disease it is acceptable to give up to two drugs which may have hepatotoxicity,
usually isoniazid and rifampicin only.
D Pyridoxine should not be given
Pyridoxine should be given in addition to isoniazid in those with renal impairment, to prevent
peripheral neuropathy.
E Rifampicin should not be given
Rifampicin should only be avoided where there is decompensated liver disease and in those
patients taking sulphonylureas where it may reduce the effectiveness of these agents.
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Overview
Management
Prognosis
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 10:12 AM
You are on call on Boxing Day and you are referred a 61-year-old lady with shortness of
breath. Her only other complaint is of recent diarrhoea. She is a smoker of 30/day.
She tells you that she consumed a significant volume of alcohol the previous day, and does
not remember going to bed; she woke up on the floor.
On examination she looks unwell. Her temperature is 38.5°C. On auscultation of her chest she
has coarse crackles at the right base. She has a distended abdomen with dullness in the
flanks.
Investigations:
Neutrophils 9.5 × 10 9/l 1.5 - 7.0 × 10 9/l
Platelets (PLT) 88 × 10 9/ll 150 - 400 × 10 9/l
International normalized ratio (INR) 1.4 < 1.1
Albumin 30 g/l 35 - 55 g/l
Gamma glutamyl-transferase (GGT) 100 u/l < 50 u/l
Creatinine kinase (CK) 700 u/l 22 - 198 u/l
Her chest X-ray is shown below:
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 10:12 AM
A Mycoplasma pneumonia
B Legionella pneumonia
C Aspiration pneumonia
D Streptococcal pneumonia
E Klebsiella pneumonia
Explanation 
C Aspiration pneumonia
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 10:12 AM
This is aspiration pneumonia. This lady has signs of chronic alcohol excess
(thrombocytopenia, macrocytosis, raised INR and abnormal liver function tests – in particular
the gamma GT). She has consumed too much alcohol on Christmas Day, fallen (note creatine
kinase) and aspirated. The chest X-ray shows a right lower lobe pneumonia consistent with an
aspiration pneumonia.
A Mycoplasma pneumonia
Mycoplasma pneumonia usually affects young adults and is associated with dry cough, fever,
headache and malaise.
Legionella pneumonia is associated with poorly maintained water systems (hotel air-
conditioning, etc.), and presents with symptoms such as cough, dyspnoea, fever and myalgia.
In addition, while Legionella can cause hepatic dysfunction, the clinical findings are
compatible with ascites and her bloods are consistent with chronic rather than acute liver
disease.
D Streptococcal pneumonia
The history is suggestive of aspiration pneumonia rather than classical community-acquired

streptococcal pneumonia, which would be expected to present with a longer history of
productive cough, fever, etc.
E Klebsiella pneumonia
Klebsiella pneumonia is associated with lung destruction, including cavitation and abscess
formation.
70082
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Overview
Management
Prognosis
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 10:13 AM
The medical registrar on the grand round shows a chest X-ray of a man who has industrial
lung disease.
The X-ray is shown below.
Of the known industrial lung dust diseases, exposure to which substance is most
likely to give these findings?
A Asbestos
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 10:13 AM
B Coal dust
C Silica
D Beryllium
E Iron dust
Explanation 
B Coal dust
Coal dust exposure causes the occupational disease coal worker’s pneumoconiosis (CWP).
This can be classified into two subsets of disease.
Simple CWP generally leads to multiple small, round opacities, typically 1–10 mm in diameter,
mostly in the upper lobes.
Complicated CWP shows much larger opacities in the upper lobes with associated fibrosis,
particularly when there is coexisting smoking.
The X-ray in this case shows complicated CWP. Cases of CWP can be mistaken for
malignancy, and further investigation following initial X-ray is always required.
A Asbestos
Asbestos exposure is associated with pleural plaques and fibrosis, which is more marked in
the lower zones.
C Silica
Silica exposure is associated with diffuse small nodules scattered throughout the lung fields
and with eggshell calcification of hilar lymph nodes.
D Beryllium
Beryllium exposure presents with acute pneumonitis that may continue to a granulomatous
reaction (compare to sarcoidosis) with lymphadenopathy.
E Iron dust
Iron dust exposure presents with small nodules which appear more dense than those
associated with coal dust exposure, although there is less associated fibrosis.
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 10:13 AM
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Overview
Management
Prognosis
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 10:13 AM
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 10:14 AM
A 64-year-old man who has spent his whole life designing memorial head stones and
carvings for churches comes to the Respiratory Clinic with increased shortness of breath. He
has smoked ten cigarettes per day for the past 25 years and admits to hardly ever wearing a
breathing apparatus when he is designing his stone sculptures. He also has a chronic cough,
has been suffering from fevers over the past few months and has lost 3 kg in weight.
Examination reveals a blood pressure of 132/72 mmHg and a pulse of 85 bpm and regular.
There are scattered crackles on auscultation, more marked in the upper zones.
Investigations:
Haemoglobin (Hb) 131 g/l 135–175 g/l
Platelets (PLT) 241 × 10 9/l 150–400 × 10 9/l
Glucose 5.4 mmol/l 3.5–5.5 mmol/l
Alanine aminotransferase (ALT) 44 IU/l 5–30 IU/l
Alkaline phosphatase (ALP) 90 IU/l 30–130 IU/l
Calcium 2.84 mmol/l 2.2–2.6 mmol/l
Pulmonary function tests (PFTs): Mixed obstructive / restrictive defect
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 10:14 AM
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A Aspergillosis
B Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)
C Sarcoidosis
D Silicosis
E Tuberculosis (TB)
Explanation 
D Silicosis
This patient has a very long history of exposure to silica dust and the chest X-ray (CXR)
changes seen are suggestive of patchy fibrosis. Removal of exposure to silica dust and
stopping smoking are key steps in the management of this patient. No therapies have been
proven to alter the course of the disease, although corticosteroids may be of benefit in
treating acute exacerbations of silicosis.
A Aspergillosis
Allergic bronchopulmonary aspergillosis (ABPA) may produce similar changes on CXR,

although given this man’s occupation, silicosis is considered more likely. ABPA is treated with
a combination of oral corticosteroids and itraconazole.
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 10:14 AM
B Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)
The CXR changes are consistent with patchy fibrosis, not with COPD. In COPD, increased
bronchovascular markings, and sometimes bullae (in emphysema), are seen. Additionally, the
PFTs expected in COPD would be that of an obstructive pattern.
C Sarcoidosis
In sarcoidosis, there is hilar lymphadenopathy and patchy areas of fibrosis when the disease
is severe. The relative absence of hilar lymphadenopathy here makes sarcoidosis less likely.
Only around 15% of patients with sarcoidosis have respiratory symptoms, and use of steroids
to treat the disease is reserved for symptomatic patients.
E Tuberculosis (TB)
Changes due to tuberculosis are more likely to be confined to one side of the chest, rather
than the diffuse pattern seen here, and we are given no history of potential exposure to TB.
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Overview
Management
Prognosis
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 10:16 AM
A 45-year-old computer software firm owner presents with increasing breathlessness over
the past few months. He has previously been fit and well and had installed a home gym,
swimming pool and hot tub/steam room to use for personal training around 18 months ago.
He is a non-smoker and has a previous history of asthma as a child. Examination reveals
crackles and high-pitched wheeze throughout the lung fields. His blood pressure is 115/75
mmHg, with pulse 70 and regular. There is no ankle swelling.
Which of the following is the most appropriate intervention in this case?
A Inhaled corticosteroids
B Oral corticosteroids
C Oral antifungals
D Repainting and ventilation in the steam room
E Oral antibiotics
Explanation 
D Repainting and ventilation in the steam room
Treatment of hypersensitivity pneumonitis (the diagnosis in this case) centres on allergen

avoidance. Cladosporum is found in association with ceiling mould and is a source of ‘hot-tub
lung’; as such, it is the most likely cause of his symptoms. Other moulds known to lead to
hypersensitivity include micropolyspora, Aspergillus and thermoactinomycetes, which are
associated with mouldy hay, mushroom compost and contaminated water in humidifiers.
Trichosporum is associated with house dust. In this case the likely source is the steam room,
and hence repainting and adequate ventilation should prevent further exposure.
A Inhaled corticosteroids
Inhaled corticosteroids are ineffective in the treatment of hypersensitivity pneumonitis;

removal of exposure to the precipitant allergen is the most important intervention.
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 10:16 AM
B Oral corticosteroids
Oral corticosteroids may be given for an initial period to kick-start the recovery in symptoms.
However, if strict allergen avoidance is not practised, his symptoms will not completely
resolve.
C Oral antifungals
Hypersensitivity pneumonitis is related to exposure to antigen rather than invasive fungal

disease, and hence removal of exposure is the most important intervention.
E Oral antibiotics
Oral antibiotics have no role in the treatment of hypersensitivity pneumonitis.

32409
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Overview
Management
Prognosis
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 10:17 AM
54-year-old stonemason was referred to the clinic with a 3-year history of progressive
breathlessness. He is an ex-smoker (40 pack-years), having stopped 14 years ago.
On examination he looked well, was not clubbed and there was no lymphadenopathy. His
chest was hyper-expanded and he had basal inspiratory crackles.
His spirometry revealed:
FEV 1 58% predicted (1.71 litres)
FVC 70% predicted (2.4 litres)
KCO 55% predicted
His CXR is shown below:
What is the most underlying diagnosis?
A Silicosis
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 10:17 AM
B Asbestosis
C Byssinosis
D Berylliosis
E Simple pneumoconiosis
Explanation 
A Silicosis
Silicosis is a fibrotic lung disease associated with inhalation of silica (silicon dioxide), which is
highly fibrogenic. It is usually seen in quarrying and mining occupations and in sandblasters,
ceramic workers, pottery workers and in stonemasons if the dust generated contains quartz.
Acute silicosis may present within 12 months if exposure has been heavy, and is characterised
by dry cough and breathlessness. Patients deteriorate rapidly over 1–2 years and there is no
effective treatment to slow the progression.
Chronic silicosis runs a more chronic course, as in this patient, and is associated with a
gradual worsening of breathlessness, with restrictive lung function and a reduced transfer
factor.
Chronic silicosis is associated with silicotic nodule formation (3–5 mm in diameter),

predominantly affecting the upper lobes. These nodules may coalesce and cause progressive
massive fibrosis. Diagnosis is made on history of exposure and XR changes. The CXR may
show hilar eggshell calcification (pathognomonic of silicosis), as in the CXR shown, with or
without upper zone pulmonary nodules and fibrosis.
B Asbestosis
There is no mention of potential exposure to asbestos, and the chest radiograph shows no
pleural or diaphragmatic calcification to suggest previous asbestos exposure.
C Byssinosis
Byssinosis is associated with exposure to cotton dust, flax and hemp.
D Berylliosis
Berylliosis is associated with inhalation of fumes from the molten metal beryllium.
E Simple pneumoconiosis
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 10:17 AM
Simple pneumoconiosis, also known as simple coal worker’s pneumoconiosis, is associated

with exposure to coal dust and is classically seen in miners. It is usually relatively
asymptomatic unless progressive massive fibrosis develops.
70077
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Overview
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 10:17 AM
Management
Prognosis
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 10:18 AM
A 52-year-old farmer presented with a 5-month history of progressively worsening exertional

dyspnoea and a persistent dry cough. He also described 6 kg weight loss and general malaise
over this time period. He had no significant past medical history or family history. He was an
ex-smoker who stopped 10 years ago and drank 10–12 units of alcohol per week.
On examination, he was dyspnoeic on minimal exertion, but not at rest. He was not cyanosed
and there was no finger clubbing. He had low-grade pyrexia of 37.4 °C. His heart sounds were
normal, jugular venous pressure was not raised and there was no peripheral oedema. He had
bilateral fine apical crepitations on chest auscultation. Abdominal and neurological
examinations were unremarkable.
Investigations reveal the following:
White cell count (WCC) 12.4 × 10 9/l 4.0–11.0 × 10 9/l
Platelets (PLT) 420 × 10 9/l 150–400 × 10 9/l
Creatinine (Cr) 110 µmol/l 50–120 µmol/l
Corrected calcium (Ca 2+) 2.42 mmol/l 2.20–2.60 mmol/l
Bilirubin 14 µmol/l 2–17 µmol/l
Gamma glutamyl-transferase
44 IU/l 5–30 IU/l
(GGT)
Mean corpuscular volume (MCV) 92 fl 76–98 fl
Erythrocyte sedimentation rate

60 mm/hour 1–20 mm/hour
(ESR)
Restrictive defect,
Pulmonary function tests (PFTs)
reduced gas transfer
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 10:18 AM
A high-resolution computed tomography (CT) scan of the thorax is shown below:
A Sarcoidosis
B Allergic bronchopulmonary aspergillosis
C Idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 10:18 AM
D Extrinsic allergic alveolitis
E Pulmonary tuberculosis
Explanation 
D Extrinsic allergic alveolitis
This man has chronic extrinsic allergic alveolitis (EAA). This is caused by inhaled allergens
provoking a hypersensitivity reaction in the lungs and resulting in diffuse inflammation
involving the small airways and alveoli. In the chronic form, lymphocytic and giant cell
infiltration can eventually lead to pulmonary fibrosis. Typical allergens include microbial
spores, especially Micropolyspora faeni in mouldy hay, which causes farmer’s lung, and avian
proteins causing bird fancier’s lung. The diagnosis can be made by a combination of imaging,
respiratory function tests, serum precipitins and bronchoalveolar lavage. The computed
tomography (CT) scan shows multiple small, ill-defined nodules throughout both lungs, with
areas of ground-glass opacity in the basal segments. Treatment consists of avoidance of the
causative allergen and long-term corticosteroid therapy. In some patients progression to end-
stage fibrosis and respiratory failure cannot be prevented.
A Sarcoidosis
Sarcoidosis is associated with progressive pulmonary fibrosis if there is marked disease

activity which is left untreated, but other features associated with active sarcoid, such as
erythema nodosum and elevated serum calcium, appear absent here.
B Allergic bronchopulmonary aspergillosis
ABPA is associated with exaggerated asthma symptoms that do not respond to inhaled
therapies, rather than the restrictive lung picture seen here.
Idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis in this case is a diagnosis of exclusion. The occupation as a

farmer means that disease related to exposure to inhaled allergens should be excluded first.
E Pulmonary tuberculosis
There is no suggestion of TB exposure, and the CT image is suggestive of fibrosis rather than
showing any sign of focal infection.
9150
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 10:18 AM
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MyPastest 31/05/2021, 10:18 AM
Management
Prognosis
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 10:19 AM
A 40-year-old lady is admitted to the Emergency Department following shortness of breath

of 3 days’ duration. She is a patient known to have pulmonary sarcoidosis and had a
percutaneous right upper lung biopsy a week ago. Now she presents with right-sided chest
pain. She tells you that the pain worsens on inspiration and she has a cough that is not
productive. Her past medical history includes: pulmonary fibrosis, asthma and irritable bowel
syndrome. She takes dexamethasone 4 mg od and is not allergic to any medication. On
examination, she is slightly dyspnoeic at rest with a blood pressure of 135/79 mmHg, pulse of
90/min and respiratory rate of 20/min. Her oxygen saturation is 94% on air. Her trachea is
central but her chest expansion is minimally reduced on the right side. Breath sounds are
reduced of the right side. Her apex beat is in the 5th intercostal space in the mid-clavicular
line. Her cardiovascular and abdominal examination is normal.
Investigations:
On the right side there is a visible

Chest X-ray rim of air of 4 cm between the lung
margin and the chest wall
ECG Normal sinus rhythm
pH 7.40 7.35–7.45
pa(O 2) 9.1 kPa 10.5–13.5 kPa
pa(CO 2) 3.8 kPa 4.6–6.0 kPa
Sodium 137 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
Potassium 3.7 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
Platelets 233 x 10 9/l 150–400 × 10 9/l
White cell count (WCC) 10.2 x 10 9/l 4–11 × 10 9/l
How would you treat her pneumothorax?
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 10:19 AM
A Proceed to intercostal chest tube drainage
B Discharge with review after 48 h in the clinic
C 60% oxygen
D Start her on oxygen and just observe her
E Arrange for a bronchoscopy
Explanation 
A Proceed to intercostal chest tube drainage
This is a secondary pneumothorax, which could have resulted either from the percutaneous
lung biopsy or secondary to her pulmonary sarcoidosis. From the blood gases, this lady is
also hypoxic and the pneumothorax is large on CXR (a large pneumothorax approximates to
a 50% loss of lung volume). Since this is a large secondary pneumothorax it is appropriate to
proceed to intercostal drain insertion. Oxygen replacement therapy is also advisable, as is
suitable analgesia.
B Discharge with review after 48 h in the clinic
If a patient has a unilateral pneumothorax that is less than 2 cm, is not breathless and the
pneumothorax is primary rather than secondary, then the patient can be discharged with
outpatient review. As the pneumothorax is secondary and large, this would be inappropriate.
C 60% oxygen
All patients who are hypoxic with a pneumothorax should be given oxygen. Patients who
have a secondary pneumothorax that is less than 2 cm in size and are not breathless can be
managed with high-flow oxygen and observation for 24 h. This is contraindicated in those
who are oxygen sensitive. The size of this patient’s pneumothorax makes this inappropriate.
D Start her on oxygen and just observe her
This option is not appropriate. High-flow oxygen should be given in pneumothorax as it helps
to diffuse the nitrogen from the pneumothorax and thereby making it easier to reabsorb. As
this patient has a large pneumothorax, this is inappropriate.
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 10:19 AM
E Arrange for a bronchoscopy
Bronchoscopy would be useful in obtaining a biopsy of the bronchus and sometimes in tissue
near the bronchus. It is not indicated for this patient.
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 External Links
BTS Pleural Disease Guideline 2010

thorax.bmj.com/content/65/Suppl_2.toc#BTSPleuralDiseaseGuideline2010
(http://thorax.bmj.com/content/65/Suppl_2.toc#BTSPleuralDiseaseGuideline2010)
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 10:19 AM
Overview
Management
Prognosis
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 10:21 AM
micrograms two puffs twice a day. She had no significant past medical history. She smoked 10
cigarettes/day and had done so for 2 years. Auscultation of her chest revealed a mild
expiratory wheeze. Examination was otherwise remarkable.
PEF 80% predicted
FEV 1 85% predicted
FVC 90% predicted
She is treated successfully and goes home.
Her symptoms improve and she goes back to playing regular tennis without a problem. Three
months later she was feeling so much better she decided not to renew her prescription for
her inhalers.
Two weeks following this she developed a chest infection and became acutely short of
breath. On examination she is unable to speak full sentences. Respiratory rate is 30/min, pulse
115/min, BP 100/60 mmHg.
Auscultation of her chest reveals an expiratory wheeze throughout.
PEFR 50 l/min
ABGs on air:
pH 7.45
pCO 2 4.06 kPa
pO 2 12 kPa
She does not improve with treatment. Her chest examination now reveals quiet breath
sounds. Repeat arterial blood gases on oxygen show:
pH 7.33
pCO 2 6.5 kPa
pO 2 12 kPa
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 10:21 AM
Bicarbonate 25.1 kPa
What would you do next?
A Give intravenous antibiotics
B Give more regular nebulisers
C Refer to ICU for intubation
D Start non-invasive ventilation
E Trial of helium/oxygen
Explanation 
C Refer to ICU for intubation
The patient deteriorates and develops signs of life-threatening asthma – a silent chest, a
pCO 2 >6kPa and a fall in pH. Other signs of life-threatening asthma include: confusion,
exhaustion or coma, bradycardia, hypotension, PEFR <30% predicted or best, and severe
hypoxaemia (PaO 2 <8 kPa) despite oxygen therapy. This patient now needs intubation and
transfer to the ICU. Non-invasive ventilation is not used in asthma at present and it is unlikely
ever to replace intubation in life-threatening asthma.
A Give intravenous antibiotics
The priority here is to ensure the patient is receiving adequate respiratory support. This lady's
exacerbation is likely to have been triggered by a virus in conjunction with non-adherence to
her asthma medication.
B Give more regular nebulisers
This lady is now in acute type 2 respiratory failure with respiratory acidosis. This is near-fatal
asthma and she requires immediate intensive care assessment for intubation and ventilation.
D Start non-invasive ventilation
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 10:21 AM
Non-invasive ventilation is not an appropriate treatment for asthma. Invasive ventilation

should be used in patients with acute respiratory failure secondary to as asthma
exacerbation.
E Trial of helium/oxygen
Helium/oxygen is a treatment for vocal cord dysfunction – this lady is having a near-fatal
asthma exacerbation
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 External Links
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 10:21 AM
British Thoracic Society. 2019. BTS/SIGN British guideline on the management of a

a……
brit-thoracic.org.uk/quality-improvement/guidelines/asthma/
(https://www.brit-thoracic.org.uk/quality-improvement/guidelines/asthma/)
Overview
Management
Prognosis
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 10:22 AM
A 64-year-old woman comes to the Respiratory Clinic for review. She has recently been
diagnosed with moderate COPD and is about to commence therapy for the condition. She
also has a history of hypertension and chronic stable angina for which she receives ramipril,
indapamide and diltiazem. On examination her BP is 132/82 mmHg, with pulse 70/min and
regular. There is bilateral poor air entry with quiet wheeze on auscultation of the chest.
Which of the following is likely to have the greatest short-term impact on her
quality of life, (in the next 2-3 months)?
A Ipratropium
B Long-term oxygen therapy (LTOT)
C Pulmonary rehabilitation
D Salbutamol
E Tiotropium
Explanation 
C Pulmonary rehabilitation
Pulmonary rehabilitation has been shown to improve exercise tolerance in COPD, and will also
improve this patient’s exercise tolerance in relation to her chronic stable angina. Over a
relatively short time, (about 6-8 weeks), these improvements have been shown to lead to
quality of life (QoL) benefit.
A Ipratropium
Short-acting anti-cholinergics do not significantly impact on quality of life in COPD.
B Long-term oxygen therapy (LTOT)
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 10:22 AM
LTOT reduces progression of pulmonary hypertension and right heart failure over the longer
term. Although this translates into QoL benefit over the longer term, in the short term
pulmonary rehabilitation will have a greater impact.
D Salbutamol
Short acting beta-agonists do not have significant impact on QoL in COPD.
E Tiotropium
Although tiotropium did show an impact on the St George’s respiratory quality of life score,
the effect was moderate and was only seen in 3 out of 4 pivotal studies. Hence over the short
term, pulmonary rehabilitation carries greater benefit.
70500
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Overview
Management
Prognosis
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 10:23 AM
An 18-year-old man presents to the Outpatients Department having coughed up a small

amount of bright red blood. He is mildly short of breath and feels ‘wheezy’. His mother says
he has always been a ‘chesty’ child. He was teased at school as he has always been the
smallest in his class. His brother and sister were fit and well. He had a dog at home.
On examination he looked well and was not breathless at rest. He had clubbing. He had nasal
polyps and auscultation of his chest revealed coarse crackles throughout both lung fields. His
abdomen was distended but soft.
Urinalysis:
Protein +
Glucose ++
Nitrites -
Leucocytes -
Haematology:
Platelets (PLT) 450 × 10 9/l 150 - 400 × 10 9/l
Neutrophils 91%
Lymphocytes 8%
Monocytes 0.4%
Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) 35 mm/h 1 - 20 mm/h
C-reactive protein (CRP) 40 g/l < 10 g/l
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 10:23 AM
Protein 74 g/l
Magnesium (Mg 2+) 0.64 mmol/l 0.6 - 1.1 mmol/l
Corrected calcium (Ca 2+) 2.1 mmol/l 2.2 - 2.7 mmol/l
Phosphate (PO 4 3-) 0.75 mmol/l 1.1 - 1.45 mmol/l
Spirometry:
FEV1 60% predicted
FVC 80% predicted
PEF 350 l/min
KCO 70% predicted
His chest X-ray is shown below.
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 10:23 AM
What is the test most likely to establish a diagnosis?
A Metacholine challenge test
B Anti-GBM antibodies
C Electron microscopy of cilia
D Sweat test
E Aspergillus precipitins
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 10:23 AM
Explanation 
D Sweat test
This boy has cystic fibrosis. He has had recurrent chest infections secondary to bronchiectasis
(confirmed by examination findings and the chest X-ray, also note long line inserted via left
antecubital fossa), he is small for his age, has nasal polyps (which occur in one third of
patients with CF) and clubbing. Pulmonary function tests show airflow obstruction He has
mildly deranged liver function tests – secondary to obstruction of biliary ductules in the liver.
This can eventually lead to cirrhosis. He has glucose in his urine – pancreatic islet cells are
destroyed as the pancreas becomes fibrotic resulting in CF related diabetes in 30% of
patients by adulthood.
The diagnosis of cystic fibrosis is made by a sweat test and genetic analysis. A sweat chloride
concentration over 60 mmol/l is indicative of cystic fibrosis.
Treatment is with pancreatic supplements, prophylactic inhaled or nebulised antibiotics, strict
glucose control, mucolytics/DNAase and regular physiotherapy with postural drainage.
Prophylactic Azithromycin is used for its immunomodulatory effects. Non invasive ventilation
may be used in patients with chronic type 2 respiratory failure as a bridge to lung
transplantation Lung transplantation is considered as a treatment option once there is severe
respiratory compromise.
A Metacholine challenge test
This is a test for asthma. It is rarely performed, given that a diagnosis of asthma can usually
be made according to other clinical criteria.
This is a test for Goodpasture syndrome, which is associated with a deterioration in renal
function accompanied by haemoptysis over a relatively short period of time.
C Electron microscopy of cilia
This test is used to diagnose primary ciliary dyskinesia or Kartagener syndrome.
E Aspergillus precipitins
This is a test used in the diagnosis of ABPA, which is associated with symptoms of asthma
and patchy shadowing on the CXR. A poor response is usually seen to conventional inhaled
asthma medications.
70086
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Overview
Management
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MyPastest 31/05/2021, 10:23 AM
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 10:25 AM
An 18-year-old male attends his GP complaining of fever and a productive cough present for
2 weeks. He initially thought it was flu but the symptoms have been getting worse and not
better. He is concerned since he is the main breadwinner at home for his elderly parents, who
have just returned from a trip to India. On further questioning he admits to having lost his
appetite recently, and at night-time suffers from terrible sweating, drenching the bed sheets.
On the basis of the history and his clinical examination, the GP suspects a diagnosis of
tuberculosis. An urgent referral is made to the local Chest Clinic to confirm the diagnosis, and
tests confirm that the diagnosis is correct. The patient is commenced on standard treatment
for pulmonary tuberculosis. He returns to the GP several weeks later, stating that he has
noticed deterioration in his eyesight since his diagnosis.
Which of the following is most likely to be responsible for this side effect?
A Ethambutol
B Rifampicin
C Isoniazid
D Pyrizinamide
E Streptomycin
Explanation 
A Ethambutol
The standard medical treatment of pulmonary tuberculosis consists of an initial phase of 2

months on rifampicin, isoniazid, pyrazinamide and ethambutol. This is followed by a further 4-
month continuation phase on isoniazid and rifampicin only. There are some combination
preparations that may also be used, but this depends on their availability. Prior to treatment,
it is imperative to stress the importance of compliance. Also, both liver and renal function
should be assessed prior to commencing therapy. Visual acuity, colour vision and visual fields
should also be tested, preferably by an ophthalmologist, both before and during treatment
with ethambutol since ocular toxicity may occur.
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 10:25 AM
B Rifampicin
This is associated with orange discoloration of secretions such as tears and urine, GI
symptoms and alteration of hepatic function.
C Isoniazid
This is associated with peripheral neuropathy in high doses, GI upset, agranulocytosis and
haemolytic anaemia.
D Pyrizinamide
This is associated with GI upset and hepatotoxicity.
E Streptomycin
This is associated with vestibular and renal toxicity.

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Overview
Management
Prognosis
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 10:26 AM
A 52-year-old immigrant from the Balkans presents for review. Over the past few months he
has suffered a number of fevers and night sweats and has lost a significant amount of weight.
A chest X-ray reveals a small to moderately sized right-sided pleural effusion. Tuberculin skin
testing is positive. Tapping of the fluid reveals a lymphocytosis, although staining for acid and
alkali-fast bacilli (AAFB) is negative, and protein count is 41 g/l.
What diagnosis fits best with this clinical picture?
A Lymphomatous pleural effusion
B Tuberculous pleural effusion
C Para-pneumonic effusion
D Carcinomatous pleural effusion
E Transudate effusion secondary to heart failure
Explanation 
B Tuberculous pleural effusion
TB effusions present with this pattern of symptoms, accompanied by a small to moderate

effusion rich in lymphocytes. Acid and alkali-fast bacilli (AAFB) staining is only positive in 5–
10%, although cultures are positive in 25% of cases over 2–6 weeks. Induced sputum or
polymerase chain reaction (PCR) for TB done at a specialist centre may improve the
diagnostic yield, as may pleural biopsy. Fluid volumes may increase during anti-tuberculous
therapy; corticosteroids are associated with reduced fluid volume but have no effect on
outcome; and pleural thickening and calcification unfortunately occur commonly. Tuberculin
skin testing and the fact that he has come from the Balkans are pointers to underlying TB.
A Lymphomatous pleural effusion
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 10:26 AM
This diagnosis could explain the fever, night sweats, weight loss and effusion, but is very rare.
The presence of a tuberculin skin test being positive points to a much more common
diagnosis.
C Para-pneumonic effusion
In the presence of pneumonia, a para-pneumonic effusion can develop. However, as the

patient has no evidence of chest infection, this is an unlikely diagnosis. Also, such an effusion
is likely to be smaller in volume.
D Carcinomatous pleural effusion
Carcinomatous pleural effusion is the second most common reason for an exudative pleural
effusion. It is most associated with cancer of the lung, ovary and breast, as well as lymphoma.
In malignancy, there can be increased pleural membrane permeability and increased pressure
as the lymphatic system becomes obstructed. The presence of night sweats, fevers and
weight loss makes this a strong differential diagnosis, but the positive tuberculin test and
immigration from an endemic area makes TB of higher likelihood.
E Transudate effusion secondary to heart failure
In heart failure, patients can develop pleural effusions. However, these effusions are typically
transudate rather than exudate in nature, and would be unlikely to have lymphocytes. In heart
failure, the effusion would more likely to be bilateral as well, and this patient does describes
no features of heart failure, nor any risk factors.
32427
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Overview
Management
Prognosis
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 10:27 AM
A 70-year-old female smoker presents with a 3-day history of loss of sensation of both her
lower legs. She also reports a 1-stone (6.53 kg) weight loss and unresolving cough over the
last month. Her chest X-ray shows a large hilar mass, not seen on a chest X-ray from 2 months
ago. She has no other past medical history and is not on any medication.
On examination, she has loss of light touch and pain sensation in a stocking distribution,
reduced air entry in her right chest, palpable supraclavicular lymph node and a large craggy
liver edge.
Platelets (PLT) 347 × 10 9/l 150–400 × 10 9/l
A Small-cell carcinoma
B Non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma
C Adenocarcinoma
D Sarcoid
E Squamous cell carcinoma
Explanation 
A Small-cell carcinoma
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 10:27 AM
Given the rapid progression and spread of her pathology and the probable paraneoplastic
peripheral neuropathy, this is the most likely diagnosis. Small cell carcinoma accounts for 20%
of all lung cancers (National Cancer Intelligence Network, 2012), and it is the morphological
subtype of lung cancer most closely associated with smoking. Small cell carcinoma often
presents with unilateral hilar enlargement, a perihilar or a mediastinal mass. Less commonly, it
may present with a central lesion, often cavitating, and given its rapid growth, with satellite
lesions elsewhere in the thorax, characteristically with extensive, bulky mediastinal
lymphadenopathy.
B Non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma
The rapid spread of disease in this patient would be associated with an abnormal full blood
count in non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma.
C Adenocarcinoma
Though the most common type of non-small-cell lung cancer, it is usually slow growing. It
typically presents as a peripheral mass lesion, or less commonly as an area of segemental
ground-glass attenuation.
D Sarcoid
The history of smoking and rapid progression of pathology are suggestive of a malignant
process. Sarcoid could cause the neurology seen, but would cause a smooth, enlarged
granulomatous liver and widespread generalised lymphadenopathy rather than the craggy
liver edge and isolated palpable supraclavicular lymph node noted.
E Squamous cell carcinoma
Like adenocarcinoma, squamous cell carcinoma is much slower growing. It typically presents
as a central lesion on chest X-ray, with or without lung collapse due to intraluminal
obstruction.
7175
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MyPastest 31/05/2021, 10:41 AM
An 18-year-old woman presents with increasing shortness of breath and nasal congestion.
She has a past history of recurrent chest infections.
On examination, her fingers appear as shown below. Her sputum is mucopurulent.
Pleural Fluid
Appearance Clear
Protein 35 g/l
WCC 2440 (80% lymphocytes)
A Cystic fibrosis
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 10:41 AM
B Yellow-nail syndrome
C Filariasis
D Meigs’ syndrome
E Tuberculosis
Explanation 
B Yellow-nail syndrome
This girl has yellow-nail syndrome which is a rare condition consisting of the triad of primary
lymphoedema, recurrent pleural effusions and dystrophic yellow nails. It is associated with
bronchiectasis and sinusitis. Pleural fluid is typically a clear exudate in which lymphocytes
predominate. The underlying abnormality is hypoplasia of the lymphatics with impaired
drainage. This results in subungual oedema, lymphoedema and pleural effusions.
A Cystic fibrosis
Cystic fibrosis would be expected to present with respiratory symptoms from infancy, is not
usually associated with pleural effusions, and would be expected to cause finger-clubbing,
not dystrophic nails.
C Filariasis
Filariasis is a cause of lymphoedema (most commonly of the legs and external genitals),
secondary to microfilariae being introduced into the skin by mosquitoes and migrating to the
lymphatics. It may present asymptomatically or with infective symptoms of
fever/rigors/myalgia, and lymphangitis. It can be associated with chylous pleural effusions.
D Meigs’ syndrome
This is a rare condition comprised of the triad of pleural effusions, ascites and benign ovarian
tumours – usually fibromas.
E Tuberculosis
TB may present as a lymphocytic pleural effusion, but with the history of recurrent chest
infections rather than an acute illness and no mention of night sweats, fevers or weight loss,
alongside the examination finding of dystrophic nails, it is less likely than yellow nail
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 10:41 AM
syndrome.
70142
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MyPastest 31/05/2021, 10:41 AM
Management
Prognosis
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 10:42 AM
A woman with known rheumatoid arthritis presents with breathlessness, which has increased
over the past 10 days, accompanied by night sweats and a dry cough. Currently, she takes
prednisolone 3 mg and methotrexate 10 mg once per week, ranitidine and folic acid.
Her chest X-ray is shown below.
By -- Samir धमर् 06:38, 14 January 2007 (UTC) [GFDL (http://www.gnu.org/copyleft/fdl.html) or

CC-BY-SA-3.0 (http://creativecommons.org/licenses/by-sa/3.0/)], via Wikimedia Commons
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 10:42 AM
Oxygen saturations are 97% on air but fall to 90% on exercise. Other bloods are
unremarkable, apart from her lymphocyte count, which is slightly below the lower limit of the
normal range.
What is the best investigation to elicit the likely diagnosis?
A Bronchoscopy and lavage
B Lung function tests
C Arterial blood gases
D Ventilation/perfusion (V/Q) scan
E Echocardiogram
Explanation 
The presence of exercise-induced oxygen desaturation in an immunocompromised or

immunosuppressed person should always raise the possibility of Pneumocystis jiroveci
pneumonia (PCP). In this case, however, the possibility of methotrexate-induced pneumonitis
should also be considered. Both conditions can be associated with dyspnoea, exercise-
induced desaturation and fever. Radiographic features vary considerably, with diffuse,
bilateral interstitial or alveolar infiltrates also possible in both conditions. In this case, the X-
ray shows diffuse bilateral interstitial changes.
Laboratory findings in PCP are generally unhelpful. Diagnosis can be made by staining
spontaneous or induced sputum samples. In patients with human immunodeficiency virus
(HIV), bronchoalveolar lavage diagnostic yield approaches 95% and this can be raised to
nearer 100% with the use of transbronchial biopsy.
B Lung function tests
This patient may have underlying methotrexate-related pneumonitis where a restrictive

picture is seen on lung function tests, but it is important to exclude PCP first.
C Arterial blood gases
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 10:42 AM
Arterial blood gases may reveal hypoxia but will not rule significant infection in or out. As
such, they are not the preferred investigation here.
D Ventilation/perfusion (V/Q) scan
A V/Q scan may reveal ventilatory defects consistent with infection but will not confirm the
nature of the pathogen.
E Echocardiogram
Although many immune modulators can affect myocardial function, methotrexate leads to
pulmonary and hepatic fibrosis.
9837
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MyPastest 31/05/2021, 10:43 AM
A 45-year-old woman is referred to the Respiratory Clinic for review. She has a history of SLE
which is currently treated with hydroxychloroquine, but she continues to have multiple joint
pains and a photosensitive rash. Over the past few weeks she has suffered from increasingly
severe left-sided pleuritic chest pain and a dull chest ache. On examination her BP is 155/85
mmHg, with pulse 75/min and regular. There are decreased breath sounds at the left base on
auscultation.
Investigations:
Investigation Result Normal values
Platelets (PLT) 155 × 10 9/l 150 - 400 × 10 9/l
Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) 72 mm/h 1- 20 mm/h
Chest X-ray small left sided pleural effusion
Which of the following is the most likely underlying cause of her chest symptoms?
A Alveolar haemorrhage
B Bronchiolitis obliterans
C Chronic interstitial pneumonitis
D Multiple pulmonary emboli
E Pleuritis
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 10:43 AM
Explanation 
E Pleuritis
Pleuritis is the most common manifestation of SLE-related lung disease; up to 60% of

patients with SLE may report pleuritic chest pain, with or without concomitant pleural
effusion. Pleural biopsies are rarely performed, although when they are, usually to exclude
alternative diagnoses, non-specific inflammation is seen.
A Alveolar haemorrhage
Alveolar haemorrhage may be seen in SLE, although more rarely than pleuritis, and it is
associated with interstitial shadowing rather than the pleural effusion seen here.
B Bronchiolitis obliterans
Bronchiolitis obliterans isn’t classically associated with a pleural effusion – it is associated

with hyperinflation, attenuation of vascular markings and reticulonodular shadowing in some
cases.
C Chronic interstitial pneumonitis
Chronic interstitial pneumonitis (CIP) is associated with more widespread inflammatory

infiltrates and may be seen in up to 15% of individuals with SLE.
Although pulmonary embolism is a possible differential, multiple pulmonary emboli would be

unlikely to affect one segment of the lung only.
36027
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MyPastest 31/05/2021, 10:44 AM
A 64-year-old man was referred to the clinic with insomnia. He complained of falling asleep
during the day and having an early morning headache. He had a past history of a
cholecystectomy and gout. He took no other regular medication. Examination was
unremarkable.
Weight 115 kg
Height 175 cm
Platelets (PLT) 94 × 10 9/l 150 - 400 × 10 9/l
Glucose 8.2 mmol/l 3.9 - 7.1 mmol/l
What would the optimal management of this patient be over the long term?
A Refer for non-invasive ventilation
B Diuretics
C Advise to lose weight
D Refer to ENT surgeons
E Doxapram
Explanation 
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 10:44 AM
C Advise to lose weight
This patient has obstructive sleep apnoea (OSA) – insomnia, daytime somnolence, morning
headache and obesity. Other symptoms include poor concentration during the day and
partners may describe snoring followed by apnoeic episodes.
Diagnosis is made using the Epworth score – which is a measure of daytime somnolence –
and sleep studies, which would show apnoeic/hypopnoeic episodes associated with
desaturations, increase in heart rate and arousal from sleep. Treatment will depend on
severity of symptoms and desaturations. In most cases, weight loss is advisable.
In mild OSA syndrome, a mandibular advancement device may control symptoms in mild to
severe OSA syndrome, such as nocturnal non-invasive ventilation (NIV) using continuous
positive airway pressure (CPAP). Early morning headaches can be caused by a transient
hypercapnia.This normally corrects to normal when the patient is awake. If a patient has
hypercapnia in waking hours (and not just on an early morning blood gas) then overlap
syndrome with obesity hypoventilation syndrome should be considered, although severe OSA
may cause persistent hypercapnia in some cases. Patients with persistent hypercapnia should
be considered for bi-level positive airway pressure (BiPAP).
It is important to exclude underlying causes – this patient has a history of gout which,
together with the raised MCV and low platelets, suggests alcohol consumption, which can
precipitate the problem. Hypothyroidism, acromegaly and sedating drugs also need to be
excluded. Retrognathia can cause OSA and large tonsils may obstruct the airway.
A Refer for non-invasive ventilation
Although NIV is optimal for relief of symptoms, over the long term, given significant risk of
type 2 diabetes and diseases associated with insulin resistance, weight loss is preferred long
term.
B Diuretics
Diuretics would be an appropriate treatment for pulmonary oedema.
D Refer to ENT surgeons
Surgery is used as a last resort as a treatment for OSA and is often unsuccessful.
E Doxapram
Doxopram is a respiratory stimulant with a vast array of side effects previously used to treat
acute type 2 respiratory failure. It has been superceded by non-invasive ventilation now.
70140
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MyPastest 31/05/2021, 10:44 AM
Prognosis
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 10:45 AM
A 60-year old man presents with dull, right-sided chest ache, progressive shortness of breath
and weight loss. He smokes 30 cigarettes per day and is a retired plumber with known
asbestos exposure. On examination, BP is 125/72 mmHg with pulse 80/min and regular. There
is reduced chest expansion on the right, with dullness to percussion and reduced air entry in
the same area. Chest X-ray confirms the presence of a right-sided pleural effusion.
Which of the following is the optimal way to confirm the diagnosis?
A Blind pleural biopsy
B CT thorax
C Pleural fluid aspiration
D Thoracoscopy and biopsy
E Ultrasound guided biopsy
Explanation 
D Thoracoscopy and biopsy
This patient most likely has mesothelioma, which can be difficult to diagnose. Biopsy is
essential, but this needs to be done under imaging guidance to reduce the risk of tract
spread, which is seeding of the tumour cells along the route of the biopsy needle.
Thoracoscopy with biopsy under direct vision is the investigation of choice to confirm the
diagnosis, and therefore this option is correct.
Mesothelial cells line the body cavities of the pleura, peritoneum, testis and pericardium.
Malignancies involving these cells can be diffuse or localised. Most but not all pleural
mesothelioma is associated with asbestos exposure. The most potent one is crocidolite (blue)
followed by amosite (brown). There are three main histological types: mixed, sarcomatous
and epithelial. The tumour arises from the visceral or parietal pleura and expands to encase
the lung and spread to the oesophagus, superior vena cava and other nearby structures. The
latent period from exposure is usually over 30 years. The higher the exposure dose the higher
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 10:45 AM
the risk. Some patients present up to 60 years after asbestos exposure. Where exposure is
very high, presentation may occur as little as 10 years. Median survival after diagnosis is 11
months.
Although pleural biopsy is necessary for the diagnosis of mesothelioma, this method is
relatively inaccurate at identifying the correct location for biopsy, and there is high risk of
tract spread. CT-guided biopsy is better than blind biopsy with an Abraham’s needle, since it
increases the chance of biopsy of an affected area; however, it still carries the same risk of
tract spread.
B CT thorax
CT is often used in the early stages of diagnosis of mesothelioma. On CT, mesothelioma

appears as a nodular mass that spreads along pleural fissures. CT is a less sensitive test and
would require subsequent biopsy to confirm the diagnosis.
C Pleural fluid aspiration
More than 90% of patients present with pleural effusion and although pleural fluid aspiration
may be necessary, it is not frequently diagnostic. Pleural fluid tends to have low leukocyte
levels, low LDH and elevated protein.
E Ultrasound guided biopsy
USS guidance is now recommended for all intrathoracic biopsies and fluid sampling. The
superiority of thoracoscopy and biopsy under direct vision makes this option incorrect.
32377
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Overview
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MyPastest 31/05/2021, 10:46 AM
A previously well 23-year-old student presents to the Emergency Department with an acute
onset of pleuritic chest pain and dyspnoea. She has just returned from a gap year to Australia
and had been well until the morning of admission.
She has no significant past medical history or family history, and her only medication included
the contraceptive pill. She is a non-smoker.
On examination, she is acutely distressed, with a respiratory rate of 32 breaths/min, a pulse of

128 bpm and a blood pressure of 98/60 mmHg. She is peripherally cool. Her chest is clear to
auscultation, and her heart sounds are normal. The jugular venous pressure (JVP) is elevated.
There is no obvious leg swelling.
Investigation results are below:
White cell count (WCC) 14 × 10 9/l 4.0–11.0 × 10 9/l
150–400 ×
Platelets (PLT) 310 × 10 9/l
10 9/l
Chest X-ray Normal
Electrocardiogram Sinus tachycardia, T wave inversion in leads V1–

(ECG) V3
Arterial blood gases (on 15 l/min oxygen) were:
pH 7.48
pa(O 2) 8.2 kPa
pa(CO 2) 3.6 kPa
Intravenous (IV) heparin is commenced.
Which of the following is the most appropriate initial management?
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 10:46 AM
A IV crystalloid fluid
B Thrombolysis with streptokinase
C IV dobutamine
D IV doxapram
E IV dopamine
Explanation 
A IV crystalloid fluid
The diagnosis is an acute major pulmonary embolism. Fluids should be given in the first
instance to increase the right ventricular filling pressure and maintain cardiac output.
Heparinisation should prevent the occurrence of further emboli.
B Thrombolysis with streptokinase
Thrombolysis should be considered if the patient is not improving after 15–30 min with the
above measures. The British Thoracic Society guidelines do not deliver any strong guidance
with respect to thrombolysis, except that it should be considered where there is circulatory
collapse. Pulmonary embolectomy should only be undertaken when thrombolysis is
contraindicated. The diagnosis of pulmonary embolism is made by computed tomography
(CT) or ventilation–perfusion (V/Q) scan.
C IV dobutamine
If hypotension is severe and does not respond to plasma expanders, inotropic support with
agents such as dobutamine may be necessary.
D IV doxapram
The use of doxapram is not indicated in this scenario. Doxapram is a respiratory stimulant,
which can lead to an increase in tidal volume and respiratory rate in patients with respiratory
failure. It may be useful for treating respiratory depression in patients who have taken
excessive doses of opiates and failed to respond adequately to treatment with naloxone.
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 10:46 AM
E IV dopamine
Dopamine is not indicated in the management of this patient. There is, however, some
evidence that it may be beneficial in patients with pulmonary embolism, a low cardiac index
and a normal blood pressure.
71457
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 External Links
2014 ESC Guidelines on the diagnosis and management of acute pulmonary emboli
emboli……
academic.oup.com/eurheartj/article/35/43/3033/503581
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 10:46 AM
(https://academic.oup.com/eurheartj/article/35/43/3033/503581)
Overview
Management
Prognosis
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 10:50 AM
You are asked to urgently review a 24-year-old woman who has been admitted to the
Emergency Department. She has poorly controlled asthma for which she takes combination
salmeterol/fluticasone two puffs bd and montelukast 10 mg daily. History of note includes
two previous admissions to the Intensive Care Unit. On examination she looks tired, her BP is
132/72 mmHg and pulse is 100/min and regular. There is poor air entry and bilateral severe
wheeze on auscultation of the chest. Peak flow on admission was 150 l/min, and this has only
improved to 210 after three salbutamol nebulisers; her predicted is 580. Her PaO 2 is 7.8 kPa
on arterial blood gas measurement. There is patchy shadowing at the left base on chest X-ray.
Which one of the following features would indicate life-threatening asthma?
A PaO 2 of 7.8 kPa on air
B PaCO 2 of 4.0 kPa on air
C Distress and agitation
D Changes suggesting infection on CXR
E pH of 7.46
Explanation 
A PaO 2 of 7.8 kPa on air
The fact that she is becoming severely hypoxic is a clear indication that this is life-threatening
asthma.
Criteria for the diagnosis of life-threatening asthma are clearly defined:
PEF <33% best or predicted

SpO 2 <92%
PaO 2 <8 kPa
normal PaCO 2 (4.6–6.0 kPa)
silent chest
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 10:50 AM
cyanosis
poor respiratory effort
arrhythmia
exhaustion, altered conscious level.
B PaCO 2 of 4.0 kPa on air
A Pa CO 2 of 4.0 implies that the patient has low CO 2. In asthma exacerbation this occurs as
the patient has a high respiratory rate and is exhaling CO 2 rapidly. In patients where the CO 2
is normalising, this can be a worrying sign as it implies tiring.
C Distress and agitation
Patients with asthma attacks are generally distressed and agitated due to the severity of the
condition. If they start to tire then this can become very worrying and signals impending
respiratory arrest.
D Changes suggesting infection on CXR
Exacerbations of asthma may be due to underlying chest infection. If so, IV antibiotics should
be given in addition to the asthma treatment.
E pH of 7.46
The patient is likely to have exhaled large amounts of CO 2 through a high respiratory rate,
and this is not alarming.
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 External Links
British guideline on the management of asthma 2018

sign.ac.uk/assets/asthma-consultation-draft.pdf
(https://www.sign.ac.uk/assets/asthma-consultation-draft.pdf)
Overview
Management
Prognosis
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 10:51 AM
An 18-year-old patient of short stature presents with fevers, thick nasal mucus and frontal
headache. He is found to have bilateral crackles and clubbing of his fingers. He also gives a
past history of chronic diarrhoea and has long-term problems with maintaining his weight.
Which of the following results is most closely related to the underlying diagnosis?
A Hypercalcaemia
B Eosinophilia
C A high number of macrophages on bronchoalveolar lavage
D A forced expiratory volume in 1 second (FEV 1) that improves > 12% following
administration of salbutamol
E Inadequate pancreatic exocrine function
Explanation 
E Inadequate pancreatic exocrine function
Cystic fibrosis gene mutation leads to defective chloride secretion and increased sodium
absorption across the airway epithelium, which can result in bronchiectasis and deficient
pancreatic exocrine function.
A Hypercalcaemia
The constellation of clinical signs is in keeping with a diagnosis of cystic fibrosis. A raised
calcium level could be associated with a number of conditions (such as sarcoidosis,
hyperparathyroidism, Paget’s disease and bone metastases), none of which would be
consistent with the above findings.
B Eosinophilia
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 10:51 AM
Multiple conditions may lead to a state of eosinophilia. Common causes include allergic
conditions such as hay fever and asthma, as well as hypersensitivity due to medications.
Eosinophilia may also be indicative of allergic bronchopulmonary aspergillosis (ABPA), which
would, however, not lead to clubbing.
C A high number of macrophages on bronchoalveolar lavage
A high number of macrophages are often seen in smokers’ lungs and are considered to be a
non-specific finding.
D A forced expiratory volume in 1 second (FEV 1) that improves > 12% following
administration of salbutamol
A forced expiratory volume in 1 second (FEV 1) that improves > 12% following administration
of salbutamol (Option D) is incorrect.
On spirometry, reversible FEV 1 values following the administration of bronchodilators (such
as salbutamol) are typical of a diagnosis of asthma.
2331
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MyPastest 31/05/2021, 10:52 AM
A 35-year-old man is admitted with night sweats, cough and general malaise. He is
tachycardic at 121 bpm and dyspnoeic, and chest examination reveals scattered wheeze.
On the second day of his admission, he experiences haemoptysis and haematuria is noted. He
has a background of anxiety and a previous deep vein thrombosis (DVT). His regular
medications include cetirizine, warfarin and diazepam.
Investigations:
Haemoglobin (Hb) 145 g/l (135–155 g/l)
White cell count (WCC) 15.1 × 10 9/l (4–11 × 10 9/l)
Creatinine (Cr) 176 µmol/l (50–120 µmol/l)
MPO antibodies Negative
PR3 antibodies Positive
24-hour urine 5-hydroxyindoleacetic acid (5-HIAA) Positive
First sputum sample Negative
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 10:52 AM
What is the most likely cause of this patient’s presentation?
A Anti-glomerular basement membrane (GBM) antibody disease
B Carcinoid tumour of the lung
C Eosinophilic granulomatosis with polyangiitis
D Granulomatosis with polyangiitis
E Mycobacterium tuberculosis
Explanation 
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 10:52 AM
D Granulomatosis with polyangiitis
This case features widespread symptoms, suggesting a multi-system cause. The combination
of renal impairment, haemoptysis, haematuria, pyrexia and malaise may raise suspicion of a
vasculitis. The positive PR3 points to granulomatosis with polyangiitis as a likely cause.
A Anti-glomerular basement membrane (GBM) antibody disease
This patient has an unusual widespread history, which indicates pulmonary involvement and
possible vasculitis. While anti-GBM is associated with haemoptysis, the blood results point to
an ANCA-positive vasculitis, rather than anti-GBM in this case.
B Carcinoid tumour of the lung
The non-specific symptoms and pulmonary involvement, alongside the raised urine 5-HIAA
levels, raise suspicion of carcinoid here. However, this picture is complicated by renal
impairment and PR3 antibody positivity. It is important to remember that urine 5-HIAA levels
can be artificially raised by certain medications, eg diazepam and warfarin. This lowers the
likelihood of carcinoid in this case and points to an alternate cause.
C Eosinophilic granulomatosis with polyangiitis
Eosinophilic granulomatosis with polyangiitis is associated with positive MPO antibodies,

rather than PR3.
E Mycobacterium tuberculosis
Tuberculosis may seem to be a possible diagnosis here with a history of dyspnoea,

haemoptysis and night sweats. The renal impairment could possibly be renal tuberculosis.
However, the blood results point to an ANCA-positive vasculitis, in this case granulomatosis
with polyangiitis.
71776
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Overview
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MyPastest 31/05/2021, 10:54 AM
A 45-year-old woman presents with increasing wheeze and paroxysms of coughing. Most
recently she has had two episodes of pneumonia in succession and an episode of
haemoptysis. She is a non-smoker. Chest X-ray reveals a well-defined single lesion in the right
lower lobe. Biopsy of the lesion reveals a multitude of abnormal cells but no necrosis,
occasional nuclear pleomorphism and absent mitoses.
Which of the following diagnoses fits best with this clinical picture?
A Small cell carcinoma of the bronchus
B Adenocarcinoma of the bronchus
C Squamous cell carcinoma of the bronchus
D Organised lung abscess
E Bronchial carcinoid
Explanation 
E Bronchial carcinoid
A solitary lesion with only occasional nuclear pleomorphism and absent or late mitoses fits
with the biopsy picture of ‘typical’ bronchial carcinoid. Endobronchial lesions fit with this
clinical picture of symptoms of obstruction and bouts of pneumonia. Patients with isolated
lesions should be considered for resection. If the tumour shows atypical features or is close to
the resection margin, then patients should be followed up with serial chest X-rays. Aggressive
carcinoid may be managed with chemotherapy; symptoms of the carcinoid syndrome may be
managed with octreotide, but by the time patients present with carcinoid syndrome, lesions
are irresectable.
A Small cell carcinoma of the bronchus
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 10:54 AM
Small cell carcinoma is associated with marked nuclear pleomorphism and a large number of
mitoses. Early metastasis is very common, and it is associated with exposure to tobacco
smoke.
B Adenocarcinoma of the bronchus
Adenocarcinoma presents with atypical cells showing frequent mitoses, often potentially
forming ducts or glands.
C Squamous cell carcinoma of the bronchus
Squamous cell carcinoma usually arises centrally, in larger bronchi, with metastases to hilar
lymph nodes early in its development. It is strongly associated with cigarette smoking.
D Organised lung abscess
Nuclear pleomorphism would not be expected in an organised lung abscess; white cell
infiltration, particularly with neutrophils, would be a prominent feature.
32436
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Overview
Management
Prognosis
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 10:56 AM
A 64-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with nausea, vomiting and
polyuria over the past few days. By the time he reaches the hospital he is drowsy and
confused. Past medical history of note includes COPD, for which he takes high-dose seretide,
a previous anterior myocardial infarction (MI), and he continues to smoke 30 cigarettes per
day. On examination his BP is 115/75 mmHg, with pulse 90/min and regular. There is bilateral
poor air entry on auscultation of the chest, with quiet wheeze. Abdomen is soft and non-
tender.
Investigations:
White cell count (WCC) 9.2 × 10 9 /l 4.0 - 11.0 × 10 9/l
Platelets (PLT) 203 × 10 9 /l 150 - 400 × 10 9/l
Alanine aminotransferase (ALT) 122 u/l 7 - 55 u/l
Chest X-ray left hilar mass
B Bronchial carcinoid
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 10:56 AM
C Non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma
D Small cell carcinoma of the bronchus
E Squamous cell carcinoma of the bronchus
Explanation 
E Squamous cell carcinoma of the bronchus
The most likely diagnosis, with evidence of lung cancer, hypercalcaemia and phosphate below
the lower limit of the normal range, is squamous cell carcinoma of the bronchus associated
with production of parathyroid hormone-related protein (PTHrP). If intact PTH is measured,
then this is found to be below the lower limit of normal.
Bronchial adenocarcinoma is rarely associated with paraneoplastic syndromes, although

some cases of polymyositis are documented.
B Bronchial carcinoid
Bronchial carcinoid generally occurs at a younger age and is not associated with smoking;
lesions are often peripheral. It is most likely to be associated with secretion of serotonin,
although tumours secreting ACTH and growth hormone are also seen.
C Non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma
In NHL more extensive lymphadenopathy would be expected, and although PTHrP secretion
is seen in NHL, it is much less frequently seen than in bronchial carcinoma.
D Small cell carcinoma of the bronchus
This is more likely to be associated with syndrome of inappropriate ADH secretion (SIADH)
and hyponatraemia.
70499
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MyPastest 31/05/2021, 10:56 AM
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 10:57 AM
A 31-year-old, previously healthy man presents with a 6-month history of nasal congestion
and sinusitis. Over a 6-month period he was treated with antibiotic therapy, but his symptoms
persisted. His current complaints include frontal headache and a nose bleed.
On examination, he is pyrexial and dyspnoeic. He has a rash on his legs (image below) and a
right foot drop.
Investigations:
135 - 145
Sodium (Na +) 140 mmol/l
mmol/l
3.5 - 5.0
Potassium (K +) 5.5 mmol/l
mmol/l
2.5 - 6.5
Urea 15 mmol/l
mmol/l
4.0 - 11.0 ×
White cell count (WCC) 12.0 × 10 9/l
10 9/l

84 mm/h 1 - 20 mm/h
(ESR)
Blood ++
Urine dipstick
Protein ++
Cavitating lesion in the right upper

Chest X-ray
lobe
Rash:
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 10:57 AM
A Eosinophilic Granulomatosis with Polyangiitis
B Granulomatosis with Polyangiitis (GPA)
C Polyarteritis nodosa
D Post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis
E Subacute bacterial endocarditis
Explanation 
B Granulomatosis with Polyangiitis (GPA)
GPA is a necrotising vasculitis involving the respiratory tract and kidneys. It causes epistaxis,
sinusitis, destruction of the nasal cartilage and glomerulonephritis and kidney disease. The
serum contains antibodies reacting with the cytoplasm of neutrophils (cANCA).
GPA is an idiopathic, systemic inflammatory disease characterised by the presence of

granulomas, necrosis and/or vasculitis. Although GPA typically affects the upper and lower
airways and the kidneys, it may involve any organ system. GPA is classified, along with
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 10:57 AM
microscopic polyangiitis (MPA) and Churg–Strauss syndrome (CSS), as a primary systemic

small-medium-sized vessel vasculitis associated with anti-neutrophil cytoplasmic antibodies
(ANCAs). However, GPA can also affect medium and even large arteries, and may lack an
association with ANCAs. It is a renal/pulmonary disease which often presents with
haemoptysis, sinusitis, oral lesions and otitis.
The diagnosis of GPA is based on a combination of clinical, laboratory and, if necessary,
pathological features. If a typical clinical picture is associated with a positive ANCA finding
with specificity for proteinase 3 (PR3), the diagnosis of WG can be presumed. It remains
incumbent for the clinician to be certain that GPA ‘mimics’, especially granulomatous
infection, are not present. In the setting of only a moderate suspicion of GPA and a negative
ANCA result, it would be judicious to pursue histological support for the diagnosis. The
outcome of GPA has been dramatically altered by treatment with glucocorticoids (GCs) and
cyclophosphamide (CP).
A Eosinophilic Granulomatosis with Polyangiitis
Eosinophilic Granulomatosis with Polyangiitis (eGPA), formally Churg–Strauss syndrome,

typically presents with respiratory symptoms such as asthmatic wheeze. Investigations in
eGPA will show microscopic evidence of red cells and casts in the urine, with protein on
dipstick. In the full blood count there would be either prominent eosinophilia (>10% total
white cell count or absolute count of >1.5 × 10 9/l) or a predominance of eosinophils in the
biopsy of affected tissues. This eosinophilia is highly steroid-responsive and resolves rapidly
on treatment.
C Polyarteritis nodosa
Polyarteritis nodosa is a systemic vasculitis. There would be palpable purpura and livedo
reticularis. Nerve involvement may include paraesthesia. There is no sinusitis. Investigations in
polyarteritis nodosa may include a raised creatinine kinase due to muscle injury, raised ESR
and ANCA negative. Hepatitis B would be positive in the minority. The diagnosis is made on
angiography, which would show arterial aneurysms in the renal or mesenteric tree.
D Post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis
This generally presents with sore throat. The streptococcal titre would be positive. There
would be no cavitating lung lesions on chest X-ray, as present in this case.
E Subacute bacterial endocarditis
You would expect mention of a murmur with endocarditis. Duke’s criteria are used for
diagnosis of endocarditis.
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MyPastest 31/05/2021, 10:57 AM
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 10:58 AM
A 62-year-old man who has a history of COPD, for which he takes fluticasone and salmeterol
(combined) and salbutamol, comes to the Emergency Department with sudden-onset
shortness of breath and right-sided pleuritic chest pain. He takes a number of medications for
hypertension and ischaemic heart disease, but has recently enrolled on a pulmonary
rehabilitation programme and is walking up to 2 miles per day. On examination his BP is
155/90 mmHg with pulse 92/min and regular. He has diminished breath sounds over the right-
hand side on auscultation. Oxygen saturation is reduced at 90%. CXR reveals a right-sided
pneumothorax with a 1.5 cm rim of air.
Which of the following is the most appropriate intervention?
A Admit for high-flow oxygen
B Air aspiration
C Discharge and review in 24 h
D Discharge and review in 2 weeks
E Insert size 8–14 Fr chest drain
Explanation 
E Insert size 8–14 Fr chest drain
Although the rim is <2 cm, in the presence of significant symptoms (i.e. shortness of breath) a
chest drain is preferred to air aspiration and is therefore the correct course of action.
A Admit for high-flow oxygen
This is the correct course of action after successful air aspiration for secondary
pneumothorax, where patients are usually brought into hospital for a period of 24 h.
B Air aspiration
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 10:58 AM
This is the recommended intervention for a secondary pneumothorax of size 1–2 cm that isn’t
associated with symptoms.
C Discharge and review in 24 h
Discharge and review in 2–4 weeks is recommended after successful air aspiration of a
primary pneumothorax.
D Discharge and review in 2 weeks
This is the correct course of action after successful air aspiration of a primary pneumothorax.
40118
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Overview
Management
Prognosis
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 10:59 AM
A 65-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with acute breathlessness, cough
and frothy, blood-stained sputum. He had been trying to save his cat from his house, which
was on fire when he was overcome with smoke. The firefighters rescued him.
On examination, he is dyspnoeic, with a blood pressure of 111/62 mmHg, a pulse rate of 104
bpm and a respiratory rate of 28 breaths per minute. On auscultation, he has crackles in both
lung fields. The abdominal examination is unremarkable. His oxygen saturation is 88% on air.
You immediately start the patient on high-flow oxygen (15 l).
The following results are obtained on oxygen:
pH 7.31 7.35–7.45
pa(O 2) 8.0 kPa 10.5–13.5 kPa
pa(CO 2) 4.2 kPa 4.6–6.0 kPa
A radiological diagnosis is given in the picture (see below).
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 10:59 AM
Which of the following options is the next management of choice?
A Give sublingual glyceryl trinitrate (GTN) spray (2 puffs)
B Intubate and ventilate the patient
C Continuous pulmonary airway pressure (CPAP)
D Bi-level pulmonary airway pressure (BiPAP)
E Ventilation/perfusion scan
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 10:59 AM
Explanation 
B Intubate and ventilate the patient
This patient has had an acute insult to his lungs, following smoke and carbon monoxide
exposure, with his chest X-ray appearances consistent with acute respiratory distress
syndrome (ARDS). Given that he is failing to maintain a p a(O 2) ≥ 8.3 kPa, despite maximal
oxygen delivery, the next step would be intubation and ventilation. Invasive circulatory
monitoring is also essential with respect to managing pulmonary capillary wedge pressure
and cardiac output. There is conflicting evidence for the use of steroids; as such, they are not
universally recommended in ARDS.
A Give sublingual glyceryl trinitrate (GTN) spray (2 puffs)
The clinical scenario above is describing a patient who has had an acute insult to his lungs,
following exposure to smoke and carbon monoxide. He has no features whatsoever of angina
or acute coronary syndrome, so sublingual GTN would be inappropriate.
C Continuous pulmonary airway pressure (CPAP)
exposure, with his chest X-ray appearances consistent with ARDS. CPAP would be a
reasonable option in pulmonary oedema, but given that this patient most likely has ARDS and
is failing to maintain his p a(O 2) ≥ 8.3 kPa on maximal oxygen delivery, invasive ventilation is
the more appropriate option for ventilatory support.
D Bi-level pulmonary airway pressure (BiPAP)
While the patient has a reduced pH, this is clearly metabolic acidosis as his bicarbonate level
is also reduced. His carbon dioxide levels are normal, so he is not in type 2 respiratory failure
and there is no indication for BiPAP.
E Ventilation/perfusion scan
exposure, with his chest X-ray appearances consistent with ARDS. As such, he is not
maintaining optimal oxygen saturation despite maximal oxygen delivery, so a decision must
be made immediately regarding additional ventilator support. Carrying out a scan at this
point will delay treatment and will not benefit the patient. This investigation would be more
appropriate in a stable patient in whom pulmonary embolism is suspected but who would not
be appropriate for computed tomography pulmonary angiography (eg a pregnant woman or
a patient in acute kidney injury who is at high risk of contrast-induced nephropathy).
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 10:59 AM
By Samir 04:51, 17 September 2007 (UTC) (en:File:Noncardiogenic_pulmonary_edema.JPG)

[GFDL (http://www.gnu.org/copyleft/fdl.html) or CC-BY-SA-3.0
(http://creativecommons.org/licenses/by-sa/3.0/)], via Wikimedia Commons
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MyPastest 31/05/2021, 10:59 AM
Management
Prognosis
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 11:00 AM
A 54 year old male with a history of alcohol excess presents to A+E with cough, dyspnoea
and drenching night sweats. Following investigation, the diagnosis of TB is confirmed, and he
is commenced on directly observed quadruple anti-TB combination treatment. Prior to
beginning treatment, he attends the clinic for discussion of the therapy and potential side
effects to be aware of.
Which of the following listed options is a possible side effect of anti-tuberculous
therapy?
A Hepatic obstruction
B Haematuria
C Vitamin A deficiency
D Cortical visual loss
E Peripheral neuropathy
Explanation 
E Peripheral neuropathy
Isoniazid can cause a peripheral neuropathy, particularly if used in patients with

malnourishment, HIV or alcoholism, or other patients at risk of peripheral neuropathy.
Among of the main side effects to be aware of with anti-TB therapy are: peripheral
neuropathy with isoniazid; orange-red staining of secretions with rifampicin; and optic
neuritis with ethambutol. Rifampicin, isoniazid and pyrazinamide are all associated with GI
upset and hepatitis.
A Hepatic obstruction
Anti-TB therapy is more commonly associated with drug-related hepatitis than obstruction.
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 11:00 AM
B Haematuria
Rifampicin is known to cause orange-red discoloration of secretions such as urine, sweat and
tears, but is not associated with haematuria.
C Vitamin A deficiency
Rifampicin and isoniazid can cause a relative vitamin D deficiency, probably already present
in the patient but unmasked by the anti-TB therapy, but anti-TB therapy is not associated
with vitamin A deficiency.
D Cortical visual loss
Rifampicin causes an orange discolouration of the urine. Ethambutol tends to cause colour
blindness, restriction of visual fields and loss of visual acuity because of optic neuropathy, but
not cortical blindness.
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MyPastest 31/05/2021, 11:02 AM
A 58-year-old female presents with a history of fever of one week’s duration associated with
rhinorrhoea, headache and cough productive of yellowish sputum. She has had type 2
diabetes for 8 years, complicated by painful peripheral neuropathy. Her present medications
include gliclazide 40 mg twice daily, metformin 500 mg three times a day and amitriptyline
75 mg at bedtime. Physical examination reveals temperature of 38°C, respiratory rate 18/min,
blood pressure 110/70 mmHg, mild posterior pharynx erythema, tenderness over the maxillary
sinus and fine inspiratory crackles at the right lung base.
Reticulocytes 6%
Chloride (Cl -) 98 mmol/l 98-106 mmol/l
Chest X-Ray (CXR) Infiltrates at R. lower zone
Which of the following drugs should be used to treat this patient?
A Erythromycin
B Levofloxacin
C Co-amoxiclav
D Doxycycline
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 11:02 AM
E Rifampicin
Explanation 
D Doxycycline
This patient has pneumonia and evidence of haemolysis (reticulocytosis and

hyperbilirubinaemia). This suggests Mycoplasma pneumoniae as a possible aetiological agent.
Macrolides, and fluoroquinolones such as levofloxacin and clarithromycin, can all be used to
treat Mycoplasma. However, this patient is taking amitriptyline that can cause prolongation of
the QT interval. Prescribing another agent that can also prolong the QT interval, such as
macrolides or levofloxacin. can be hazardous. Hence, doxycycline is the best therapy for this
patient. Other antimicrobial agents that can cause prolongation of the QT interval include:
Pentamidine
Spiramycin
Chloroquine
Halofantrine
Mefloquine.
Management of drug-induced long-QT syndrome is to stop the precipitating drug, correction

of any electrolyte disturbance such as hypokalaemia or hypomagnesaemia, and treatment of
associated ventricular arrhythmia. First-line pharmacological therapy for drug-induced long-
QT syndrome is intravenous magnesium sulphate 2 g administered as a bolus over 1–2 min,
followed by another bolus in 15 min if required, or continuous infusion at a rate of 5–20
mg/min.
A Erythromycin
As a macrolide, erythromycin has been linked to QT prolongation and torsades, and should
thus be avoided in the context of concomitant amitriptyline administration. Erythromycin is
indicated for susceptible infections in patients with penicillin hypersensitivity (e.g. respiratory
tract infections (including Legionella infection), skin and oral infections, and Campylobacter
enteritis).
B Levofloxacin
Levofloxacin has been linked to QT prolongation and torsades, and should thus be avoided in
the context of concomitant amitriptyline administration. Levofloxacin is active against aerobic
Gram-positive bacteria, aerobic Gram-negative bacteria, anaerobic bacteria, Chlamydophila
pneumoniae, Chlamydophila psittaci, Chlamydia trachomatis, Legionella pneumophila,
Mycoplasma pneumoniae, Mycoplasma hominis and Ureaplasma urealyticum.
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 11:02 AM
A 2019 UK government drug safety update advises that fluoroquinolones should now be
avoided in non-severe or self-limiting infections and in mild to moderate infections unless
other commonly recommended antibiotics are not suitable. This is due to rare reports of long
lasting or potentially irreversible side effects such as tendinitis and peripheral neuropathy.
Fluoroquinolones should be used with special caution in patients older than 60 years or those
with renal impairment due to higher risk of these significant adverse affects.
C Co-amoxiclav
This would not represent appropriate cover against Mycoplasma pneumoniae, the likely
pathogen in this case. Clavulanic acid is a potent inhibitor of β-lactamases produced by
Gram-negative bacteria, including Haemophilus ducreyi, H. influenzae, Neisseria gonorrhoeae,
Moraxella catarrhalis, Bacteroides fragilis and some Enterobacteriaceae. It also inhibits β-
lactamases produced by Staphylococcus aureus. Clavulanic acid reverses resistance to
amoxicillin in beta-lactamase-producing strains of species otherwise sensitive, and also
augments the activity of amoxicillin against numerous species not normally considered
sensitive.
E Rifampicin
This would not represent appropriate cover against Mycoplasma pneumoniae, the likely
pathogen in this case. Rifampicin, in combination with other antibacterials, is indicated for
brucellosis, legionnaires’ and serious Staph. infections. It’s also indicated for the treatment of
tuberculosis in combination with other antibacterials, and for the prevention of secondary
cases of meningococcal meningitis and Haemophilus influenzae type B.
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 External Links
National Information Program on Antibiotics

antibiotics-info.org/
(http://www.antibiotics-info.org/)
Overview
Management
Prognosis
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 11:02 AM
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 11:03 AM
A 71-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department. He has suffered from a dry cough
and diarrhoea over the past few days and is now drowsy and confused. According to his wife,
they have recently returned from a winter holiday to Spain where they spent three weeks
staying in a hotel. He has a past history of hypertension and an inferior myocardial infarction,
although he has had no ongoing symptoms of ischaemic heart disease over the past few
years.
Examination reveals a blood pressure of 103/82 mmHg and a pulse of 95 bpm and regular. His
temperature is 38.4 °C. There is left-sided wheeze on auscultation and evidence of left-sided
consolidation. Respiratory rate is elevated at 34 bpm, and he looks unwell. His abdomen is
soft, and there is minor left-sided tenderness on palpation.
Investigations:
Haemoglobin (Hb) 13.0 g/dl 13.5–17.5 g/dl
Platelets (PLT) 171 × 10 9/l 150–400 × 10 9/l
C-reactive protein (CRP) 178 mg/l 0–10 mg/l
Creatinine 112 × mol/l 50–120 µmol/l
Chest X-ray: Left-sided patchy basal consolidation, pleural effusion.

Which of the following is the most useful next investigation?
A Alkaline phosphatase
B Stool culture
C Sputum culture
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 11:03 AM
D Urine and plasma osmolality
E Urinary antigen testing
Explanation 
The history of pneumonia acquired following a trip to Spain, coupled with hyponatraemia and
diarrhoea, raises the possibility of Legionella infection. Urinary antigen testing is a rapid
potential route to confirm the diagnosis (commercial kits being widely available). Macrolides
or quinolones are the antibiotics of choice, and a course of at least ten days is recommended.
Mortality is approximately 10% and is higher in patients who are immunocompromised or are
older with significant co-morbidity. Alkaline phosphatase is often low in patients with
Legionella, although this is clearly a non-specific feature of infection. Syndrome of
inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH) is seen and potentially accounts for the low
sodium seen here.
A Alkaline phosphatase
Although alkaline phosphatase is often low in patients with Legionella, it is a non-specific

finding which does not contribute to confirming the diagnosis.
B Stool culture
Legionella can be grown on stool culture, although it is rapid antigen testing of urine which is
the default method for confirming the diagnosis and is therefore the default answer here.
C Sputum culture
Sputum culture is most useful in screening for typical causes of community-acquired

pneumonia and in screening for other respiratory tract infections such as tuberculosis.
D Urine and plasma osmolality
The low sodium seen here does raise the possibility of SIADH, although confirming the
diagnosis will not confirm the cause of this patient’s pneumonia or drive appropriate
antibiotic intervention.
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MyPastest 31/05/2021, 11:03 AM
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 11:36 AM
A 42-year-old man, who is known to be HIV positive, presents with a cough productive of
rusty-coloured sputum. He has been feeling unwell for around a week or so. On examination
he is pyrexial (38.2 oC) with a BP of 135/70 mmHg. His pulse is 95/min and regular.
Auscultation of the chest reveals an area of bronchial breathing over the right lower lung
field.
White cell count (WCC) 13.1 × 10 9/l (Neutrophilia) 4.0–11.0 × 10 9/l
Platelets (PLT) 195 × 10 9/l 150–400 × 10 9/l
Chest X-ray (CXR) R. lower lobe consolidation
Which of the following types of pneumonia is the most likely diagnosis?
A Pneumocystis
B Staphylococcus aureus
C Mycoplasma
D Streptococcus pneumoniae
E Klebsiella
Explanation 
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 11:36 AM
This man has community-acquired pneumonia which is most likely to be S. pneumoniae. The
estimated attack rate is higher in HIV-infected patients (5.9/1000 vs 0.31/1000 in non-HIV
infected patients). Resistance patterns are similar in HIV and non-HIV infected patients, and
invasive disease is rare and tends to occur in patients with a low CD4 count. The pattern of
lobar pneumonia and neutrophilia fits best with a S. pneumoniae episode rather than another
cause for the respiratory tract infection.
A Pneumocystis
Pneumocystis pneumonia is associated with diffuse patchy consolidation, and the hallmark of
the condition is desaturation on exercise (usually measured with a hand-held pulse oximeter).
Staphylococcus aureus pneumonia, even in the context of underlying HIV infection, normally
follows an episode of influenza.
C Mycoplasma
Mycoplasma pneumonia often follows a slightly more subacute course than streptococcal
pneumonia, with a dry cough, chest pain and wheeze, that can be present for a few days
before patients engage with medical services.
E Klebsiella
Klebsiella pneumonia is associated with lobar infection with cavitation and is seen most
commonly in patients with a history of alcoholism.
20635
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Overview
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MyPastest 31/05/2021, 11:37 AM
A 27-year-old pregnant lady is referred to the Emergency Admission for sudden development
of shortness of breath. She was well until 2 days ago when she developed shortness of
breath. She has some slight left-sided chest pains but no cough or haemoptysis. She is 28
weeks pregnant and has had no problems with the pregnancy. There is no history of long
flights or swelling of her legs. On examination, she appears anxious with a blood pressure of
110/60 mmHg, pulse rate of 92/min and a respiratory rate of 26/min. Her oxygen saturation
on air is 98%. Her abdomen is distended and fetal movements are seen. Her chest is clinically
clear. Her cardiovascular and lower limb examinations are unremarkable.
Platelets (PLT) 278 × 10 9/l 150–400 × 10 9/l
C-reactive protein (CRP) 6 mg/l < 10 mg/l
D-dimers 0.62 mg/l < 0.25 mg/l
Which of the following investigations would be the most appropriate next step?
A Bilateral lower limb Doppler scan
B Ventilation/perfusion (V/Q) scan
C Chest X-ray
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 11:37 AM
D Pulmonary angiography
E Echocardiogram
Explanation 
C Chest X-ray
This patient has symptoms of a potential pulmonary embolus, and green top guidance from
the RCOG recommends a CXR as an initial step in investigation. Although D-dimers are
elevated here, they are unreliable when measured in pregnancy and guidance doesn’t support
their use.
A Bilateral lower limb Doppler scan
Given that the lower limbs appear normal on examination, bilateral lower limb Doppler scan in
this case is unlikely to prove useful in ruling a pulmonary embolus in or out.
According to the RCOG guidelines V/Q or CTPA can be considered once the CXR has been
performed, although where the CXR has proven to be abnormal, CTPA is preferred to V/Q.
D Pulmonary angiography
CTPA is the preferred investigation post CXR in the event that the chest X-ray is found to be
abnormal. The choice between CTPA and V/Q is a balance between risk of radiation exposure
to the pregnant woman’s breast tissue (much higher for CTPA) and radiation exposure to the
fetus (which is higher for V/Q scanning).
E Echocardiogram
Echo is most useful as a bedside investigation when there is a high suspicion of PE and the
patient is unstable. It may reveal evidence of right ventricular strain.
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 External Links
Thromboembolic Disease in Pregnancy and the Puerperium: Acute Management

rcog.org.uk/globalassets/documents/guidelines/gtg-37b.pdf
(https://www.rcog.org.uk/globalassets/documents/guidelines/gtg-37b.pdf)
Overview
Management
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 11:37 AM
Prognosis
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 11:38 AM
A 62-year-old man is admitted to hospital with a 3-day history of dyspnoea, pleuritic chest
pain and several episodes of haemoptysis.
Before this, he described several months of constant rhinorrhoea, with some nasal crusting,
several large epistaxes and constant pain below his eyes. More recently, he had noticed some
double vision and swelling of his right eye.
On examination, he had low-grade pyrexia and was normotensive. There was some nasal
mucosal ulceration and right-sided proptosis. Cardiovascular examination was unremarkable.
He had localised areas of crepitations throughout both lung fields. His abdomen was soft and
non-tender, with no masses. There were no focal neurological signs or skin lesions.
Investigation results are below:
White cell count (WCC) 12.0 × 10 9/l 4.0 – 11.0 × 10 9/l
Platelets (PLT) 390 × 10 9/l 150 - 400 × 10 9/l
C-reactive protein 238 mg/L < 10 mg/l
Bilirubin 15 µmol/l 1.7 - 20.5 µmol/l
Calcium (Ca 2+) 2.42 mmol/l 2.2 - 2.7 mmol/l
Gamma-glutamyl transferase (GGT) 48 u/l 9 - 48 u/l
Urinalysis Blood +++ protein ++
Multiple large cavitating nodules
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 11:38 AM
Chest X-ray throughout both lung fields
Normal sinus rhythm,

Electrocardiogram (ECG)
no acute changes
What would be the most useful investigation in pointing to the diagnosis if

positive?
A High-resolution computed tomography (CT) scan of the thorax
B Serum anti-glomerular basement membrane (anti-GBM) antibodies
C Serum antineutrophil cytoplasmic antibodies
D Serum antinuclear antibodies
E Urine microscopy
Explanation 
C Serum antineutrophil cytoplasmic antibodies
This patient has the typical features of Granulomatosis with polyangiitis (GPA), which is a
necrotising granulomatous arteritis of the upper and lower respiratory tract and kidney. It is
rare, with an incidence of 5–10 per million. It is a multisystem disease and may affect the eyes,
skin, joints, heart and nervous system. Pulmonary involvement is seen in 95% of cases, and
renal involvement in 85% of cases. A positive serum antineutrophil cytoplasmic antibody
(ANCA) is present in > 90% of cases of GPA and strongly supports the diagnosis. Renal
biopsy is sometimes required.
Treatment is with steroids and cyclophosphamide. Untreated, 1-year mortality is 80%, but
with appropriate therapy, remission can be achieved in up to 90% of patients.
A High-resolution computed tomography (CT) scan of the thorax
This may show the cavitating lung lesions in more detail but will not aid in the diagnosis.
B Serum anti-glomerular basement membrane (anti-GBM) antibodies
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 11:38 AM
This scenario is not anti-GBM disease; therefore, these antibodies will be normal. Anti-GBM
disease typically causes macroscopic haematuria & proteinuria with mild renal impairment
along with alveolar haemorrhage.
D Serum antinuclear antibodies
Serum antinuclear antibodies will not aid in the diagnosis.
E Urine microscopy
Urine microscopy may show blood and protein; however, it is non-specific for the diagnosis.
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MyPastest 31/05/2021, 11:38 AM
Overview
Management
Prognosis
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 11:40 AM
A 72-year-old man is referred to the Respiratory Outpatients Clinic with a 2-month history of
increasing shortness of breath and cough. Over the last few weeks, he has coughed up a few
streaks of blood. He has also noticed difficulty getting up from a chair, and that his clothes
are looser recently without trying to lose weight. He is taking regular inhalers, but is unsure of
their names.
On examination, he is clubbed. Auscultation of his chest reveals reduced expansion and
breath sounds on the left. Heart sounds are normal. He has a 2 cm hepatomegaly on
palpation of his abdomen. He has reduced power (4/5) on hip flexion bilaterally and generally
reduced tendon reflexes. Plantars both show a flexor response; proprioception and sensation
are normal.
Investigations:
Platelets (PLT) 491 × 10 9/l 150 - 400 × 10 9/l
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 11:40 AM
What is the most likely underlying diagnosis?
A Adenocarcinoma of the lung
B Squamous carcinoma of the lung
C Small-cell carcinoma of the lung
D Mesothelioma
E Bronchioalveolar carcinoma
Explanation 
C Small-cell carcinoma of the lung
The chest X-ray shows left lower lobe collapse. There is loss of volume of the left hemi-thorax
and the classical ‘sail sign’ behind the heart.
In addition to this suggestive CXR, this man also has clinical features suggestive of a lung
malignancy weight loss, haemoptysis, dyspnoea and hypercalcaemia.
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 11:40 AM
His investigations and clinical examination are suggestive of a paraneoplastic component to

this malignancy:
hyponatraemia secondary to the syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone

secretion
the proximal weakness and hyporeflexia, which, along with autonomic features, suggest
Lambert-Eaton myasthenic syndrome.
These are seen more frequently with small cell lung cancer, making this the most likely
diagnosis in this case. Ectopic ACTH production is also associated but rare.
Squamous cell carcinoma is associated with:
gynaecomastia
hyperthyroidism
hypertropic pulmonary osteoarthropathy (HPOA) finger-clubbing, periostitis and
arthritis
hypercalcaemia usually secondary to secretion of PTH-related peptide.
Common to both:
Clubbing
Smoking: he is likely to be a smoker or ex-smoker and have COPD as he is on inhalers.
A Adenocarcinoma of the lung
Suspected lung malignancy with hyponatraemia and Lambert-Eaton myasthenic syndrome

would be more compatible with small cell lung cancer than adenocarcinoma.
B Squamous carcinoma of the lung
Suspected lung malignancy with hyponatraemia and Lambert-Eaton myasthenic syndrome

would be more compatible with small cell lung cancer than squamous cell carcinoma.
Although the calcium is elevated, this minor elevation could well be consistent with
dehydration rather than PTHrp
D Mesothelioma
Mesothelioma classically presents as progressive pleural thickening ± pleural effusion. This is

not seen here, and there are no pleural or diaphragmatic calcified plaques, or features in the
history, to suggest previous asbestos exposure.
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 11:40 AM
E Bronchioalveolar carcinoma
This is a subtype of adenocarcinoma but with different characteristics and management. It

presents more commonly in non-smokers, and has no gender predominance (unlike other
forms of lung cancer which show a male predominance). Patients may present
asymptomatically in up to 50% of cases. The paraneoplastic features make small cell lung
cancer more likely than bronchioalveolar carcinoma in this case.
70133
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MyPastest 31/05/2021, 11:40 AM
Overview
Management
Prognosis
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 11:42 AM
A 19-year-old man presents with a 10-day history of headaches and malaise, with the more
recent development of a dry cough and breathlessness.
On examination, he was pyrexial, and he had a rash which looked like this:
Investigations:
White cell count (WCC) 10 × 10 9/l 4.0 - 11.0 × 10 9/l
Neutrophils 9.2 × 10 9/l 1.5 - 7.0 × 10 9/l
Platelets (PLT) 200 × 10 9/l 150 - 400 × 10 9/l
Reticulocytes 5.1% 0.5 - 2.5 %
Lactate dehydrogenase (LDH 495 u/l 140 - 280 u/l
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 11:42 AM
Which is the most appropriate investigation in order to reach a diagnosis?
A EBV serology
B Urine Legionella antigen
C Sputum culture
D Mycobacterial culture
E Mycoplasma serology
Explanation 
E Mycoplasma serology
Mycoplasma usually affects young individuals and occurs in epidemics every 3–4 years. Chest
symptoms are usually preceded by non-specific symptoms such as malaise and headaches.
The CXR usually shows only one lobe to be involved; however, about 20% show bilateral
pneumonia. There is often a discrepancy between X-ray appearances and the clinical
condition of the patient.
Diagnosis is by Mycoplasma serology – cold agglutinins occur in 50%. The image shows
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 11:42 AM
erythema multiforme, which further supports the diagnosis. The blood results suggest a
haemolytic anaemia with a reticulocytosis, hyperbilirubinaemia and elevated LDH;
autoimmune haemolytic anaemia (AHIA), when caused by cold agglutinins, is associated with
Mycoplasma and can be diagnosed with a direct Coomb’s test.
Extra-pulmonary complications of Mycoplasma include:
Cardiovascular – myocarditis and pericarditis

Dermatological – erythema multiforme (as shown here), erythema nodosum, Stevens–
Johnson syndrome and non-specific rashes
Gastrointestinal – hepatitis, pancreatitis, nausea, vomiting, anorexia and transient
abdominal pain
Neurological – meningoencephalitis, meningitis, ascending paralysis, transient myelitis,
cranial nerve palsies, peripheral neuropathy, bullous myringitis
Haematological – cold autoimmune haemolytic anaemia, thrombocytopenia,
disseminated intravascular coagulation
Renal – glomerulonephritis
Others – arthralgia, arthritis, bullous myringitis.
Treatment: macrolides.
Causes of erythema multiforme:
Infections – herpes simplex virus (most common cause), orf, HBV, HIV, EBV, mumps
(paramyxovirus), Mycoplasma, psittacosis, Rickettsiae, Streptococcus, typhoid,
diphtheria
Drug reactions – barbiturates, penicillin, sulphonamides, phenytoin
Connective tissue disease – SLE
Vasculitis – polyarteritis nodosa, granulomatosis with polyangiitits
Others – underlying malignancy, sarcoidosis, rheumatoid arthritis, ulcerative colitis.
A EBV serology
EBV serology would be appropriate if the diagnosis was suspected to be EBV infection
causing infectious mononucleosis.
B Urine Legionella antigen
Urine Legionella antigen would be appropriate if the diagnosis was suspected to be

Legionella pneumophila infection.
C Sputum culture
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 11:42 AM
Mycoplasma is a fastidious organism, taking 3 weeks or more to grow in culture. Specialised

culture medium is required, and the test lacks sensitivity compared to other investigations.
For these reasons, sputum culture is not the first-line investigation for Mycoplasma.
D Mycobacterial culture
Mycobacterial culture would be appropriate if TB infection was suspected.

70076
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MyPastest 31/05/2021, 11:42 AM
Overview
Management
Prognosis
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 11:45 AM
A 67-year-old man presents with increasing shortness of breath, cough and pleuritic chest
pain. He has a past history of myocardial infarction and left ventricular failure and a 40 pack-
year smoking history. Medication includes ramipril, furosemide and amlodipine. Last year he
was prescribed amiodarone for paroxysmal ventricular tachycardia and he has taken the
medication since then. On examination his blood pressure is 142/85 mmHg, pulse is 85/min
and there are scattered crackles on auscultation with evidence of a left-sided pleural effusion.
Chest X-ray (CXR) reveals evidence of lung infiltration with bilateral focal opacities and
confirms a small left-sided pleural effusion.
A Left ventricular failure
B Amiodarone toxicity
C Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor-induced lung fibrosis
D Idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis
E Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)
Explanation 
B Amiodarone toxicity
Amiodarone toxicity occurs in approximately 5% of patients. This can vary from acute
respiratory distress to a picture of cough, pleuritic chest pain, pulmonary infiltrates and small
pleural effusions, to interstitial pneumonitis and eventually progressive pulmonary fibrosis.
Due to its long half-life, amiodarone toxicity takes some weeks to resolve; as such,
corticosteroids are added when therapy is discontinued as this may lead to more rapid
resolution of symptoms. Of course cardiology input is vital before amiodarone is discontinued
– as in this case when paroxysmal VT is the indication for therapy, an implantable cardioverter
defibrillator is the next logical step (and has been proven in trials to have a superior
outcome).
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 11:45 AM
A Left ventricular failure
Left ventricular failure is associated with infiltrates on the CXR consistent with fluid overload,
but not with the focal opacities seen here. Upper lobe diversion is also expected on CXR
examination where there is significant LVF.
C Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor-induced lung fibrosis
ACE inhibitors are associated with a dry cough and bronchospasm, but are not associated
with pulmonary fibrosis.
Idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis is diagnosed once other causes of pulmonary fibrosis have
been excluded. In this case, given the amiodarone use, this is a more likely cause of the lung
changes.
E Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)
COPD is not associated with the pulmonary fibrotic changes seen on CXR here, although
smoking-related lung disease may be a contributor to his shortness of breath.
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MyPastest 31/05/2021, 11:47 AM
A 70-year-old woman presents in acute respiratory distress. She gives a history of some chest
pain earlier that morning, which was worse on coughing. She is an ex-smoker of 30 pack-
years (20/day for 30 years).
On examination she looks unwell. Respiratory rate is 30/min, pulse 120/min, BP 80/50 mmHg
and O 2 saturation is 80% on air. Heart sounds are normal and her chest is clear.
ABG on air:
pH 7.44
PO 2 7.0 kPa
PCO 2 3.25 kPa
Base excess -2.6
You manage to get an urgent CT within the hour, shown below.
A Congestive cardiac failure
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 11:47 AM
B Myocardial infarction
C Pneumonia
D Pulmonary embolism
E Pneumothorax
Explanation 
This lady has had a massive pulmonary embolus, as shown on the CTPA. She presents with
shortness of breath and tachypnoea, and her arterial blood gases show she has type I
respiratory failure; note the low CO 2 – common in PE.
The CT shows large filling defects in the left and right main pulmonary arteries.
PE should be managed according to British Thoracic Society guidelines on the treatment of

massive PE. The guidelines state that if a PE is sufficiently severe to cause circulatory
collapse, thrombolysis should be given as early as possible. The current guidelines
recommend alteplase as the thrombolytic agent of choice, as it can be given to the
hypotensive patient, as in this example.
A Congestive cardiac failure
The patient’s symptoms are not in keeping with cardiac failure, and her clear chest on
examination makes this a less likely option. The CTPA is also clearly demonstrative of PE as
the cause of her symptoms.
B Myocardial infarction
We are not given a history of cardiac chest pain, and the CTPA is clearly demonstrative of PE
as the cause of her symptoms.
C Pneumonia
The patient would be expected to demonstrate symptoms such as productive cough, fever,
etc. if the diagnosis were pneumonia. Her clear chest on examination also makes this a less
likely option. The CTPA is also clearly demonstrative of PE as the cause of her symptoms.
E Pneumothorax
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 11:47 AM
Clear chest on examination, and a CTPA demonstrative of PE, make pneumothorax a less
likely option. Pneumothorax would be demonstrated by CT if present.
70080
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 External Links
British Thoracic Society guidelines for the management of suspected acute pulmon
pulmon……
brit-thoracic.org.uk/index.asp
(http://www.brit-thoracic.org.uk/index.asp)
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 11:47 AM
Overview
Management
Prognosis
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 11:48 AM
An 18-year-old man presents to the Outpatients Department having coughed up a small

amount of bright red blood. He is mildly short of breath and feels ‘wheezy’. His mother says
he has always been a ‘chesty’ child. He was teased at school as he has always been the
smallest in his class. His brother and sister were fit and well. He had a dog at home.
On examination, he looked well and was not breathless at rest. He had clubbing. He had nasal
polyps and auscultation of his chest revealed coarse crackles throughout both lung fields. His
abdomen was distended but soft.
Urinalysis:
Protein +
Glucose ++
Nitrites -
Leucocytes -
Haematology:
Platelets (PLT) 450 × 10 9/l 150 - 400 × 10 9/l
Neutrophils 91%
Lymphocytes 8%
Monocytes 0.4%
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 11:48 AM
Protein 74 g/l
Magnesium (Mg 2+) 0.64 mmol/l 0.6 - 1.1 mmol/l
Spirometry:
FEV1 60% predicted
FVC 80% predicted
PEF 350 l/min
KCO 70% predicted
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 11:48 AM
What is the most likely underlying diagnosis?
A Cystic fibrosis
B Kartagener’s syndrome
C Asthma
D Allergic bronchopulmonary aspergillosis
E Goodpasture’s syndrome
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 11:48 AM
Explanation 
A Cystic fibrosis
This patient has cystic fibrosis. He has had recurrent chest infections secondary to
bronchiectasis (confirmed by examination findings and the chest X-ray, but also note the long
line which has probably been inserted via the left antecubital fossa), he is small for his age
and has nasal polyps (which occur in one third of patients with CF) and clubbing. Pulmonary
function tests show airflow obstruction. He has mildly deranged liver function tests –
secondary to obstruction of biliary ductules in the liver. This can eventually lead to cirrhosis.
He has glucose in his urine – pancreatic islet cells are destroyed as the pancreas becomes
fibrotic, resulting in CF-related diabetes in 30% of patients by adulthood.
The most likely cause of this patient’s haemoptysis is secondary to infection. Larger-volume
hemoptysis can occur in cystic fibrosis due to bronchial artery hypertrophy. Ninety per cent
of patients with cystic fibrosis will have steatorrhoea secondary to pancreatic insufficiency if
pancreatic enzyme replacement therapy is not taken with food.
Kartagener syndrome causes bronchiectasis and situs inversus. The chest radiograph does
not show dextrocardia.
C Asthma
The chest X-ray is inconsistent with a diagnosis of simple asthma. With significant patchy
interstitial shadowing and failure to thrive, cystic fibrosis is suspected.
D Allergic bronchopulmonary aspergillosis
ABPA is associated with proximal bronchiectasis, fleeting pulmonary infiltrates, lobar collapse
and wheeze. It responds to treatment with systemic corticosteroids and itraconazole.
E Goodpasture’s syndrome
Goodpasture syndrome, or anti-GBM disease, is a cause of haemoptysis, although it is

associated with acute deterioration in renal function with glomerulonephritis and marked
haemoptysis.
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Overview
Management
Prognosis
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 11:48 AM
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 11:50 AM
A 45-year-old non-smoking man remains breathless at night with a polyphonic wheeze,

despite already being prescribed a short-acting b2-agonist by his general practitioner (GP).
He is concordant with treatment and has a good inhaler technique.
His spirometry result is shown below.
Which is the next appropriate therapy to offer according to current NICE

guidelines?
A Long-acting β2-agonist (LABA)
B Inhaled corticosteroids
C Leukotriene receptor antagonist (LTRA)
D No further treatment
E Long-acting muscarinic antagonist
Explanation 
B Inhaled corticosteroids
This clinical scenario and flow–volume loop are suggestive of asthma. The spirometry
suggests an obstructive picture, with a concave curve pattern. Inhaled corticosteroids at a
low dose are the first-line maintenance therapy for adults with uncontrolled asthma.
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MyPastest 31/05/2021, 11:50 AM
A Long-acting β2-agonist (LABA)
A LABA should only be offered after inhaled corticosteroids and an LTRA have already been
offered. The LTRA should then be reviewed after six to eight weeks after the addition of a
LABA to see if it should be continued.
C Leukotriene receptor antagonist (LTRA)
An LTRA is only recommended as a stage in adult asthma management after low-dose

inhaled corticosteroids have been initiated.
D No further treatment
The patient is experiencing nocturnal breathlessness, which is an indication for increasing

maintenance therapy for asthma.
E Long-acting muscarinic antagonist
A long-acting muscarinic antagonist is used as the next stage in the management of COPD.
However, the spirometry result is more in keeping with asthma than COPD, making this
answer incorrect.
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 External Links
National Institute for Health and Care Excellence. 2017. Asthma: diagnosis, monitor
monitor……
nice.org.uk/guidance/ng80/chapter/Recommendations
(https://www.nice.org.uk/guidance/ng80/chapter/Recommendations)
Overview
Management
Prognosis
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 11:53 AM
An 80-year-old gentleman presents to the Emergency Department with gradually worsening

shortness of breath of 4 days’ duration. He has a fever and cough productive of greenish
sputum. He is a known patient with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) and is on
home nebulisers (ipratropium bromide). He can walk only 50 metres on the flat without
shortness of breath and cannot climb the stairs. His past medical history includes: a
myocardial infarction 7 years ago, intensive care admission for his COPD 2 years ago and type
2 diabetes mellitus (diet-controlled). On examination, he is alert but febrile, with a blood
pressure of 159/92 mmHg and a pulse of 92/min and regular. He has basal crackles more
marked on the right, and scattered rhonchi in both lung fields. His abdominal examination is
unremarkable. He has received optimum initial treatment in ED and been placed on controlled
oxygen at FiO2 40% and SpO2 90% for the last 30 minutes.
150–400 ×
Platelets 233 × 10 9/l
10 9/l
pH 7.26 7.35–7.45
paO 2 7.9 kPa 10.5–13.5 kPa
paCO 2 7.4 kPa 4.6–6.0 kPa
Mean corpuscular volume

83 fl 76–98 fl
(MCV)
Opacity obscuring the right heart

Chest X-ray border,
evidence of fluid at both bases
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 11:53 AM
Which one of the following would be the optimal way to manage his ventilatory
support?
A High flow oxygen (15 l)
B Bi-level positive airway pressure (BiPAP)
C 24% oxygen
D Continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP)
E Intubate and ventilate the patient
Explanation 
B Bi-level positive airway pressure (BiPAP)
We can see from the patient’s arterial blood gases that he is in type 2 respiratory failure with
CO 2 retention, probably secondary to a right lower lobe pneumonia. BIPAP will help with gas
transfer, reducing CO 2 levels. BIPAP is highly effective in this situation and can have a
significant impact on mortality and morbidity.
A High flow oxygen (15 l)
We can see from the patient’s arterial blood gases that he is in a respiratory acidosis (with
CO 2 retention), so increasing his F iO 2 further is going to exacerbate his CO 2 retention and
worsen his clinical situation.
C 24% oxygen
We can see from the patient’s arterial blood gases that he is hypoxic on 40% O 2. Whilst the
rationale for reducing his oxygen to try to reduce his CO 2 levels might be reasonable with a
lesser degree of hypoxia, simply reducing his oxygen in this situation is unlikely to improve his
clinical situation.
D Continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP)
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 11:53 AM
We can see from the patient’s arterial blood gases that he is in type 2 respiratory failure with
CO 2 retention. CPAP provides a pneumatic splint to the airway and is effective in improving
oxygenation in patients requiring high concentration of oxygen by the recruitment of
collapsed airways. In this patient’s case, this is not such a good option; it would be more
prudent to use BIPAP in order to maximise gas exchange and help him to ‘blow off’ his
increased levels of CO 2.
E Intubate and ventilate the patient
Intubation and ventilation would not be the first line of treatment in this patient. Following a
trial of BIPAP, if the patient failed to respond and following a careful assessment of his pre-
morbid state and co-morbidities, a decision to intubate could then be considered.
32400
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MyPastest 31/05/2021, 11:53 AM
Overview
Management
Prognosis
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 11:55 AM
A man with a history of COPD who is on home oxygen therapy is admitted to hospital with
central chest pain. He suffers a cardiac arrest in the Emergency Department and is
resuscitated for 23 min before return of spontaneous circulation. During resuscitation he was
intubated, and he is now able to achieve adequate minute ventilation with minimal pressure
support. His BP is 96/50 mmHg, HR 80, RR16, SpO 2 98% with an F iO 2 of 0.6. Arterial blood
gases are taken 3 min after ROSC.
Which of the following results are most likely to be shown on arterial blood gas
analysis?
A pH 7.45 P aO 2 7.9 kPa P aCO 2 3.1 HCO 3 – 31 mmol/l
B pH 7.30 P aO 2 7.9 kPa P aCO 2 4.2 HCO 3 – 12 mmol/l
C pH 7.15 P aO 2 12.2 kPa P aCO 2 4.3 HCO 3 – 17 mmol/l
D pH 7.55 P aO 2 12.2 kPa P aCO 2 4.3 HCO 3 – 31 mmol/l
E pH 7.10 P aO 2 7.9 kPa P aCO 2 4.3 HCO 3 – 12 mmol/l
Explanation 
C pH 7.15 P aO 2 12.2 kPa P aCO 2 4.3 HCO 3 – 17 mmol/l
This man has COPD requiring home oxygen. As such, he is likely to have chronic CO 2
retention and will consequently have significant renal compensation and an elevated serum
bicarbonate. Given that he has suffered a significant period of cardiac arrest, it is also likely
that he will have significant tissue hypoxia, leading to a build-up of products of metabolism
such as lactate. This leads to the decreased pH. In patients who have suffered a cardiac arrest
there is usually a significant metabolic acidosis with a low bicarbonate level. However, due to
pre-existing renal compensation, the bicarbonate in this patient will not be as low as if there
was no previous renal compensation. In the absence of previous renal compensation, a
bicarbonate of the levels seen in B) or E), would be expected. The pressure support on the
ventilator allows him to achieve adequate gas exchange.
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 11:55 AM
A pH 7.45 P aO 2 7.9 kPa P aCO 2 3.1 HCO 3 – 31 mmol/l
In post-arrest patients we expect to see a metabolic acidosis.
B pH 7.30 P aO 2 7.9 kPa P aCO 2 4.2 HCO 3 – 12 mmol/l
The degree of acidaemia in this patient is likely to be worse, but the bicarbonate is likely to
be higher due to previous renal compensation.
D pH 7.55 P aO 2 12.2 kPa P aCO 2 4.3 HCO 3 – 31 mmol/l
A metabolic alkalosis is not realistic in this scenario.
E pH 7.10 P aO 2 7.9 kPa P aCO 2 4.3 HCO 3 – 12 mmol/l
The bicarbonate is likely to be higher due to previous renal compensation.

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Overview
Management
Prognosis
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 11:57 AM
A 28-year-old woman comes to the Respiratory Clinic for review. She has been suffering from
asthma, confirmed by her general practitioner (GP) on peak flow testing, for the past four
years. She has progressively increased her therapy to cope with symptoms of wheeze,
shortness of breath on exercise and nocturnal coughing, but she is still not controlled. A past
history of paroxysmal atrial fibrillation (AF) is noted, although she is currently not using any
medication for prophylaxis. Current asthma medication includes inhaled beclometasone 400
mg twice daily and montelukast 10 mg orally (she originally responded well to the
introduction of the oral therapy). On examination, her blood pressure is 115/85 mmHg and
pulse 75 bpm and regular. There is bilateral wheeze on auscultation. Peak flow is 390
litres/minute (500 litres/minute predicted).
A Inhaled Tiotropium
B Inhaled salmeterol
C Oral Prednisolone
D Oral Sodium chromoglicate
E Oral Theophylline
Explanation 
B Inhaled salmeterol
The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) asthma guidelines recommend
montelukast at step 2 (as here), and in the event patients are not controlled, a long-acting
beta agonist (LABA), such as salmeterol, is a logical next step. Where patients do not see an
improvement initially with montelukast, a switch to salmeterol should be accelerated.
A Inhaled Tiotropium
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 11:57 AM
Tiotropium is a long-acting muscarinic antagonist (LAMA), used in the treatment of chronic

obstructive pulmonary disease. Both dual therapy with LABA/LAMA and high-dose inhaled
corticosteroids and LABA are endorsed by current guidelines.
C Oral Prednisolone
In this case, with multiple other potential interventions for asthma, moving to oral
corticosteroids would not be considered positive from the point of view of benefit–risk.
LABA, theophylline and anti-immunoglobulin E (IgE) monoclonal antibodies are all potential
options before reaching for prednisolone.
D Oral Sodium chromoglicate
Sodium cromoglicate appears to be most effective in children with asthma and in those with
predominant exercise-induced symptoms.
E Oral Theophylline
Assuming this patient’s inhaler technique is adequate, there is little added value in oral beta
agonist therapy and it may increase the risk for AF in a patient with previous episodes of
paroxysmal AF.
39176
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 External Links
Asthma: diagnosis, monitoring and chronic asthma management

nice.org.uk/guidance/ng80/chapter/Recommendations#principles-of-pharmacological-treatment
(https://www.nice.org.uk/guidance/ng80/chapter/Recommendations#principles-of-
pharmacological-treatment)
Overview
Management
Prognosis
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 11:58 AM
A 73-year-old man is sent to the Emergency Department by ambulance after a GP home visit.
The GP found him to be extremely short of breath with a cough productive of rusty-coloured
sputum. He has herpetic lesions at the corner of his mouth. On examination he has right-
sided crackles and bronchial breathing consistent with pneumonia.
You use the British Thoracic Society Community Acquired Pneumonia Severity Score (CURB-
65) criteria to assess the severity of infection with respect to the need for HDU/ITU.
Which one of the following features would be consistent with severe pneumonia by
CURB-65 criteria?
A Urea 9.2 mmol/l
B Systolic BP 105 mmHg
C Diastolic BP 65 mmHg
D Presence of X-ray changes
E Raised ESR
Explanation 
A Urea 9.2 mmol/l
The British Thoracic Society Community Acquired Pneumonia Severity Score (CURB-65) uses
five variables where a point is scored for each one. It is a mortality score.
The variables are:
confusion (AMT of 8 or less);

urea >7 mmol/l;
respiratory rate 30/min or greater;
systolic blood pressure 90 mmHg or less or diastolic BP 60 mmHg or less;
age >65
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 11:58 AM
A score of 3 is associated with a risk of mortality of 17% from community-acquired

pneumonia; for 5 this rises to a risk of mortality of 57%. These data are extrapolated to give a
guide as to whether and where the patient should be admitted: those with a score of 0 or 1
may safely be managed at home, 2 should receive hospital care, while HDU/ITU should be
considered for a score of 3 or more. This is a guide and should not replace clinical judgement.
B Systolic BP 105 mmHg
This blood pressure does not fit the criteria, although may be of concern depending on his
other clinical observations.
C Diastolic BP 65 mmHg
Again, though this does not fulfil the criteria of CURB-65, it may be of clinical importance.
CURB-65 is a guide to likely mortality and is used for this reason as a pointer towards the
requirement for ITU/HDU admission. It is not, however, a management guide.
D Presence of X-ray changes
X-ray changes are not involved in these prognostic criteria, though may be of diagnostic and
prognostic value.
E Raised ESR
ESR is not routinely measured in community-acquired pneumonia.

32332
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 External Links
NICE guidance
nice.org.uk/guidance/cg191/chapter/1-recommendations#community-acquired-pneumonia-2
(https://www.nice.org.uk/guidance/cg191/chapter/1-recommendations#community-
acquired-pneumonia-2)
Overview
Management
Prognosis
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 11:58 AM
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 12:00 PM
A 25-year-old man presents with left-sided pleuritic chest pain. It had come on suddenly 3
days previously. Initially he thought it was secondary to his workout in the gym. However,
since it did not improve and he noticed that he was slightly more breathless than usual, he
went to the Emergency Department. He has no significant past medical history. He is a
smoker of 20/day. On examination he looked well. He was a tall, thin man and was not short
of breath at rest. Examination was unremarkable except for a clicking sound which was
synchronous with the heart sounds. CXR was unremarkable.
Which of the following investigations may help with the diagnosis?
A ECG
B Echocardiogram
C Expiratory CXR
D Lateral decubitus CXR
E Repeat CXR
Explanation 
D Lateral decubitus CXR
A click synchronous with the heart sounds is a recognised sign of a small left apical
pneumothorax. He is a tall, thin man and a smoker, which are both risk factors for developing
most recent British Thoracic Society (BTS) guidelines suggest that if the postero-anterior
X-ray provides added information in up to 14% of cases (see weblink below).
The treatment of a primary pneumothorax in a non-smoker, <50 years old, with no evidence
of underlying lung disease, with a rim of air of <2 cm and no breathlessness is to discharge
and follow up as an outpatient. Although this patient is a smoker there is nothing to suggest
underlying lung disease, and it is likely that his apical pneumothorax is too small to safely
aspirate. Patients should be given analgesia if required and clear instructions to return if their
symptoms get any worse.
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 12:00 PM
A ECG
BTS guidelines recommend the use of lateral decubitus CXR. ECG may be abnormal in
pneumothorax, which may include abnormal left axis deviation and right axis deviation. There
may be QRS abnormalities as well.
B Echocardiogram
BTS guidelines recommend the use of lateral decubitus CXR. Ultrasound may be useful in
diagnosing traumatic pneumothorax, and the cardiac function may be affected by expanding
pneumothorax.
C Expiratory CXR
BTS guidelines recommend the use of lateral decubitus CXR. Whilst there is a thought
process that expiration results in the lungs reducing in volume, and theoretically improving
visability of pneumothorax, they are not recommended in BTS guidelines.
E Repeat CXR
BTS guidelines recommend the use of lateral decubitus CXR. Repeating a CXR will not help as
the CXR may look the same.
70119
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 External Links

brit-thoracic.org.uk/document-library/clinical-information/pleural-disease/pleural-disease-guide…
(https://www.brit-thoracic.org.uk/document-library/clinical-information/pleural-
disease/pleural-disease-guidelines-2010/appendix-3-spontaneous-pneumothorax-
poster-pleural-disease-guideline/)
Overview
Management
Prognosis
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 12:00 PM
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 12:05 PM
A 50-year-old woman undergoes routine cholecystectomy. Her preoperative full blood count
was normal and her operative progress was unremarkable other than a small postoperative
bleed that settled with simple pressure to the wound. You are asked to see her, as she has
become confused. She has no previous medical history of note and works as a computer
programmer.
On examination, she is disorientated in time and place. Temperature 37.9 °C, pulse 110 beats
per minute (bpm), blood pressure 110/70 mmHg, respiratory rate 24 breaths per minute.
Heart sounds are normal and jugular venous pressure is not raised. Chest reveals some
bronchial breathing on the right lower and middle zones. Her O 2 saturation is 91% on air.
Abdominal examination reveals mild tenderness around the operative scar but is otherwise
normal.
White cell count (WCC) 12.3 × 10 9/l 4.0–11.0 x 10 9/l
Platelets (PLT) 790 × 10 9/l 150–400 x 10 9/l
C-reactive Protein (CRP) 272 mg/l < 10 mg/l
A blood film shows a dramatic increase in platelets with many enlarged forms. There is an
increase in left-shifted granulocytes including metamyelocytes, myelocytes and
promyelocytes.
In addition to basic resuscitation, what action would you take?
A Aspirin 300 mg with ceftazidime 1 g twice daily intravenously
B Aspirin 75 mg plus hydroxyurea 1 g twice daily
C Apheresis to reduce the platelet count urgently
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 12:05 PM
D Anticoagulation with heparin to therapeutic levels
E Broad spectrum antibiotic intravenously
Explanation 
E Broad spectrum antibiotic intravenously
This patient has developed postoperative pneumonia, which is making her confused
secondary to hypoxia. The platelet count is raised secondary to infection – the normal
preoperative count makes a primary haematological diagnosis unlikely in the extreme; the left
shift is also secondary to infection. First-line therapy in this situation depends upon the
presence or absence of risk factors for multi-drug resistant pathogens, knowledge of the
local predominant pathogens and the patient's prior microbiology results. Additional
consideration for treating anaerobic bacteria must be made if aspiration pneumonia is a
possibility.
A Aspirin 300 mg with ceftazidime 1 g twice daily intravenously
Aspirin is not required in this situation given that the increased platelet count is reactive;
ceftazidime is an appropriate antibiotic choice where Pseudomonas is suspected.
B Aspirin 75 mg plus hydroxyurea 1 g twice daily
Hydroxyurea with aspirin is standard treatment for essential thrombocytosis, a clonal stem
cell disorder associated with increased risk of thrombosis and haemorrhage.
C Apheresis to reduce the platelet count urgently
Given that the platelet count increase is reactive as a result of ongoing infection, there is no
indication for apheresis to take place.
D Anticoagulation with heparin to therapeutic levels
Anticoagulation with heparin to therapeutic levels isn’t indicated, and may in the
postoperative period increase the risk of haemorrhage. Prophylactic dosing with low-
molecular weight heparin may, however, be used here.
6385
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Overview
Management
Prognosis
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 12:05 PM
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 12:08 PM
A 28-year-old man is referred from the Infertility Clinic. He has a past history of recurrent
sinusitis and a persistent cough with sputum production. Chest X-ray displays hyperinflated
lung fields with shadowing at the lung bases, and it also appears to be mis-labelled with
inappropriate left and right markers. Sweat test reveals a sodium concentration of 50 mmol/l.
A Bronchiectasis
B Cystic fibrosis
C α1-antitrypsin deficiency
D Situs inversus
E Kartagener syndrome
Explanation 
E Kartagener syndrome
This is primary ciliary dyskinesia associated with recurrent sinusitis, bronchiectasis and
azoospermia. The CXR is correctly labelled and this patient has situs inversus with
transposition of the major organs (as is the case in up to 50% of patients with ciliary
dyskinesia). It also causes azoospermia, explaining his infertility. The mainstay of treatment
for bronchiectasis is appropriate self-physio with postural drainage. Some physicians
advocate the use of rotating antibiotic therapy, but this is associated in many cases with
multi-drug resistance.
A Bronchiectasis
While bronchiectasis is a component of Kartagener syndrome, this alone would not

adequately explain his presentation; Kartagener syndrome also consists of sinusitis and
dextrocardia, and can cause azoospermia.
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 12:08 PM
B Cystic fibrosis
This typically presents in infancy with respiratory symptoms and features of pancreatic
insufficiency. Cystic fibrosis is diagnosed when the sweat test reveals a chloride concentration
of >60 mmol/l.
C α1-antitrypsin deficiency
This is associated with respiratory symptoms, predominantly cough and dyspnoea, but would
not adequately explain his situs inversus or infertility.
D Situs inversus
While this patient has situs inversus as a component of his Kartagener syndrome, it would not
adequately account for his sinusitis and infertility.
6608
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Overview
Management
Prognosis
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 12:11 PM
A 55-year-old asthmatic patient presented in December with increasing cough and wheeze.
She described a cough productive of brown sputum. She had no other past medical history.
She was taking a steroid inhaler regularly and increasing doses of beta-agonist with no
alleviation of her symptoms. She worked in a bakery for many years. She is an ex-smoker and
stopped smoking 20 years ago. She has a dog at home.
On examination, she had a temperature of 38 °C. She was breathless at rest. She had reduced
expansion anteriorly on the left side, with corresponding reduced breath sounds. She had a
mild expiratory wheeze.
Investigations:
Neutrophils 7.37 × 10 9/l 1.5 - 7.0 × 10 9/l
Lymphocytes 2.55 × 10 9/l 1.5 - 4.0 × 10 9/l
Monocytes 0.6 × 10 9/l 0.0 - 0.8 × 10 9/l
Basophils 0.05 × 10 9/l < 0.1 × 10 9/l
Eosinophils 1.9 × 10 9/l < 0.45 × 10 9/l
Mean corpuscular volume (MCV) 87.3 fl 80 - 100 fl
Platelets (PLT) 314 × 10 9/l 150 - 400 × 10 9/l
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 12:11 PM
Chest X-ray on presentation is shown below:
Chest X-ray taken one month earlier:
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 12:11 PM
A Occupational asthma
B Exacerbation of asthma
C Allergic bronchopulmonary aspergillosis
D Churg-Strauss syndrome
E Loeffler syndrome
Explanation 
C Allergic bronchopulmonary aspergillosis
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 12:11 PM
The chest X-ray shows left upper lobe collapse and also the ‘veil sign’. This patient has allergic
bronchopulmonary aspergillosis (ABPA). Pulmonary infiltrates, blood eosinophilia and asthma
are usually secondary to Churg–Strauss or allergic bronchopulmonary aspergillosis.
ABPA is suspected in any patient with asthma who has an abnormal chest X-ray and high
peripheral blood eosinophilia.The chest X-ray may show diffuse pulmonary infiltrates, and
pulmonary, lobar or segmental collapse occur as transient features. The most common cause
is sensitivity to Aspergillus fumigatus spores. The lack of other features of vasculitis such as
mononeuritis, or markers of elevation such as raised CRP counts against vasculitis as an
alternative diagnosis here.
The diagnostic criteria include:
Asthma (in most cases)

Peripheral blood and sputum eosinophilia
Abnormal chest X-ray (infiltrates, segmental or lobar collapse)
Positive skin tests/RAST to an extract of A. fumigatus
A. fumigatus IgG serum-precipitating antibodies
Raised total IgE >1000 ng/ml
Fungal hyphae of A. fumigatus on microscopy of sputum.
The lung and eosinophils:
Loeffler syndrome (eosinophils about 10% of blood WCC), also known as acute
eosinophilic pneumonia/simple eosinophilic pneumonia. Mild self-limiting illness with
transient migratory pulmonary shadows. Associated with parasitic infections, drug
allergies and exposure to inorganic chemicals
Tropical pulmonary eosinophilia (eosinophils >20%) – in tropical countries usually due
to migrating larvae of the filarial worms Wucheria bancrofti and Brugia malayi
Chronic/prolonged pulmonary eosinophilia (eosinophils >20%) – eosinophilic
pneumonia persisting for more than one month. Chronic debilitating illness
characterised by malaise, weight loss, fever and dyspnoea
Allergic bronchopulmonary aspergillosis (eosinophils 5–20%) as in this case
Eosinophilic granulomatosis with polyangiitis (eosinophils 5–20%) associated with
asthma
Hyper-eosinophilic syndrome (eosinophils >20%: eosinophilic infiltrations of various
organs – e.g. lungs, heart, bone marrow. Can be associated with an eosinophilic arteritis
External agents – drugs, toxins, parasitic infection.
A Occupational asthma
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 12:11 PM
The patient working as a baker is irrelevant – occupational asthma is unlikely to cause a

productive cough or these chest X-ray features. It can be screened for using serial peak flow
measurements and comparing those at home to those at work.
B Exacerbation of asthma
The chest radiograph features and clinical examination findings are not in keeping with an
exacerbation of asthma.
D Churg-Strauss syndrome
This patient does not have the diagnostic criteria for Churg–Strauss syndrome. Although the
eosinophil count is elevated there is no other evidence of vasculitis.
E Loeffler syndrome
Loeffler syndrome is associated with fleeting pulmonary infiltrates but not with intermittent
lobar collapse. It is associated with parasitic worm migration to the lungs. We’re given no
indication that this is a potential cause here.
70094
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Overview
Management
Prognosis
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 12:13 PM
This 72-year-old woman presents with several months’ history of dyspnoea, cough and
weight loss. There is a history of COPD for which she takes seretide BD, and coarse crackles
and wheeze consistent with the diagnosis are evident on auscultation.
Her Postero-anterior (PA) and lateral chest radiographs are shown below:
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 12:13 PM
Which of the following investigations is most appropriate to confirm the

diagnosis?
A Fibre-optic bronchoscopy ± transbronchial biopsy
B CT guided fine-needle aspiration biopsy
C Respiratory function tests
D Sputum for cytology
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 12:13 PM
E Mediastinoscopy
Explanation 
A Fibre-optic bronchoscopy ± transbronchial biopsy
The combination of the history with a solitary lung nodule on chest X-ray is highly suggestive
of bronchial carcinoma. Bronchoscopy enables the tumour to be directly visualised and
samples taken for cytology and histology. The extent of carinal involvement can also be seen
– if the tumour involves the first 2 cm of either main bronchus, it is deemed inoperable.
B CT guided fine-needle aspiration biopsy
of bronchial carcinoma. CT-guided FNA carries more risk than bronchoscopy, and the lesion
should be easily accessible via the bronchoscopy route. CT scanning of the thorax is however
still useful in assessing involvement of the mediastinum and lymph nodes. If surgery is being
considered, it should be extended to the abdomen and brain to exclude distant metastases.
C Respiratory function tests
of bronchial carcinoma. Respiratory function tests are not useful in diagnosis, but are
essential if pneumonectomy is being considered, as a forced expiratory volume (FEV 1) of <2.0
l means that there will in all likelihood be insufficient respiratory reserve post surgery.
D Sputum for cytology
of bronchial carcinoma. This option is incorrect, because sputum cytology is a low-yield
diagnostic tool. It is unlikely to be able to provide enough malignancy cells from a sputum
sample in order to make a histological diagnosis. In addition, the patient may not even be
producing sputum. If an infective diagnosis is being considered, sputum induction could be
carried out in order to obtain a sample.
E Mediastinoscopy
of bronchial carcinoma. Mediastinoscopy is an invasive procedure that involves making an
incision in the anterior chest wall in order to introduce the endoscope. It is used to obtain
mediastinal lymph node biopsies, for example, for staging lymph nodes involved in lung
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 12:13 PM
cancer or for the diagnosis of sarcoidosis or lymphoma. However, on reviewing the above
chest radiographs, the mass should be easily accessible using the less invasive technique of
bronchoscopy, so this should preclude mediastinoscopy.
32408
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Overview
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 12:13 PM
Management
Prognosis
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 12:14 PM
A 20-year-old man has recently started work in the bakery section of his local supermarket.
He complains of increasing shortness of breath, cough and wheeze during the course of the
working week. These symptoms resolve somewhat at weekends and improved markedly
during a week’s holiday in Spain. Examination in the clinic on a Monday morning reveals no
evidence of wheeze; peak flow is 520 (540 predicted).
Which of the following initial actions is most appropriate in this case?
A Trial of salbutamol
B 2-hourly peak flow recordings during the week, comparing work to rest periods
C Chest X-ray
D Bronchial provocation testing
E Patch testing
Explanation 
B 2-hourly peak flow recordings during the week, comparing work to rest periods
It is important to establish the relationship of deterioration in peak flow to work periods as

there is a suspicion of occupational asthma here. Occupational asthma in bakers may occur
due to flour dust or to other allergens used in making breads and cakes. Review of the
worker’s work pattern, allowing for removal of exposure to the potential allergen, is optimal
therapy, of course with the cooperation of the employer.
A Trial of salbutamol
A trial of salbutamol is inappropriate given the likely history of occupational triggers for this
patient’s asthma. Removal of exposure to any potential allergen is much more important than
starting asthma therapy.
C Chest X-ray
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 12:14 PM
A chest x-ray is not useful when evaluating potential bronchoconstriction related to asthma.
D Bronchial provocation testing
Bronchial provocation testing should only be undertaken in specialised centres, with

appropriate anaesthetist support, and only when there is doubt as to the underlying trigger.
E Patch testing
Patch testing is rarely useful in evaluating occupational asthma.

32435
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MyPastest 31/05/2021, 12:14 PM
Overview
Management
Prognosis
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 12:15 PM
A 19-year-old woman with cystic fibrosis comes to the Emergency Department with
deteriorating shortness of breath and increasing purulent respiratory tract secretions. She has
been chronically colonised with pseudomonas for the past 2 years, and is now treated with
nebulised Tobramycin. On examination she is pyrexial 37.8°C, There are bilateral coarse
crackles affecting both bases, more marked on the right than the left, and wheeze
throughout.
Investigations;
Hb 110 g/l
WCC 12.3 x109/l
PLT 181 x109/l
Na 137 mmol/l
K 4.5 mmol/l
Creatinine 94 micromol/l
Albumin 30 g/l
ALT 54 U/l
ALP 171 U/l
Ca 2+ 2.2 mmol/l
CRP 188 mg/l
CXR evidence of right basal consolidation
Sputum MCS Pseudomonas
Which of the following is the most appropriate next step with respect to antibiotic
therapy?
A 1 week IV Co-amoxiclav
B 1 week IV Gentamicin
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 12:15 PM
C 1 week IV Linezolid
D 2 weeks oral Ciprofloxacin
E 6 months oral Azithromycin
Explanation 
E 6 months oral Azithromycin
The answer is 6 months oral Azithromycin -
Guidelines from the CF trust recommend a prolonged course of oral Azithromycin for
patients chronically colonised with Pseudomonas. Two studies, one over 3 months, the other
over 6 months, showed a positive impact on FEV 1, exacerbations, body weight and quality of
life.
A 1 week IV Co-amoxiclav
Co-amoxiclav, is incorrect because it is not effective against pseudomonas. It is most

effective against community-acquired pneumonia.
B 1 week IV Gentamicin
Gentamicin is incorrect, it is effective against pseudomonas, although a prolonged course of

Azithromycin has been shown to have more positive effects on respiratory function and
quality of life in this population
C 1 week IV Linezolid
Linezolid is incorrect, it is an effective antibiotic for staphylococcal infection.
D 2 weeks oral Ciprofloxacin
Ciprofloxacin is incorrect, it is effective against Pseudomonas infection, although it is a less

effective option versus Azithromycin based on the results of the 3 and 6 month studies.
40422
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MyPastest 31/05/2021, 12:15 PM
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 12:20 PM
A 55-year-old obese dairy farmer is admitted to the Respiratory Clinic with shortness of
breath, a chronic cough, lethargy and night sweats. He has a history of type II diabetes and
hypertension, for which he takes metformin, gliclazide, lisinopril and indapamide. Apparently,
the farm has had financial troubles over the past few months because of the need to cull
approximately 50% of the herd due to tuberculosis.
On examination, his blood pressure is 135/75 mmHg and his pulse is 75 bpm and regular. He
has wheeze on auscultation of the chest and a few scattered coarse crackles.
Investigations:
Platelets (PLT) 221 × 10 9/l 150–400 × 10 9/l
Pulmonary function tests (PFTs): Reveal a mild restrictive defect.
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 12:20 PM
Which of the following is the most likely cause of his chest X-ray appearance?
A Allergic bronchopulmonary aspergillosis
B Asthma
D Miliary tuberculosis (TB)
E Obesity hypoventilation syndrome
Explanation 
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 12:20 PM
D Miliary tuberculosis (TB)
This patient has symptoms of chronic lung disease, coupled with evidence of infection (raised
WCC and marked elevation in CRP level). The chest X-ray shows bilateral interstitial infiltrates;
given the fact the patient has been exposed to TB, this is most likely to indicate miliary TB.
The diagnosis should be confirmed with at least three sputum samples, and given the extent
of the infection, contact tracing and testing are essential.
Image source:
https://commons.wikimedia.org/wiki/File:Chest_radiograph_of_miliary_tuberculosis_1.jpg
This leads to an obstructive picture on lung function testing and symptoms consistent with
poorly-controlled asthma. Patchy shadowing is usually apparent on the chest X-ray, rather
than the nodular appearance seen here.
B Asthma
Asthma is more likely to be associated with a normal appearance on the chest X-ray and
would not fit with the other constitutional symptoms of infection, including lethargy and
night sweats seen here.
This would be associated with a restrictive defect on lung function testing, although the
marked elevation in CRP level would be unexpected. Patchy shadowing, rather than the
nodular appearance on the chest X-ray, would be expected.
E Obesity hypoventilation syndrome
This is associated with a mild restrictive defect on lung function testing, but not with nodular
shadowing on the chest X-ray nor with the systemic symptoms of infection seen here.
39656
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Overview
Management
Prognosis
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 12:22 PM
A 63-year-old man is admitted with shortness of breath and productive cough. He is pyrexial
at 39 °C, has a blood pressure of 81/59 mmHg, and is tachycardic at 113 bpm. Concern is
raised regarding sepsis, and he is treated with intravenous (IV) piperacillin/tazobactam.
Initially, he improves; however, you are asked to review him, as his oxygen saturations have
dropped to 81% despite 15 litres of high-flow oxygen. On arterial blood gas, his p a(O 2) is 6.9
kPa. He has a background of diabetes and obstructive sleep apnoea, for which he has home
continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP).
What is the most appropriate next management step?
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 12:22 PM
A Change antibiotics to IV co-amoxiclav and clarithromycin
B IV furosemide
C IV methylprednisolone
D Referral to Intensive Therapy Unit (ITU)
E Utilise the patient’s home CPAP
Explanation 
D Referral to Intensive Therapy Unit (ITU)
This patient has Acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS), as indicated by diffuse
bilateral coalescent opacities on the chest X-ray. Most ARDS patients require mechanical
ventilation, and maintaining the cardiac output typically requires the use of a combination of
inotrope, vasodilators and transfusion. ARDS is associated with a mortality as high as 75%,
even with ITU involvement; therefore, early referral is essential.
A Change antibiotics to IV co-amoxiclav and clarithromycin
This patient has ARDS as indicated by diffuse bilateral coalescent opacities on the chest X-
ray. This is most commonly associated with sepsis, as in this scenario. ARDS may be managed
by treating the underlying cause; therefore, a change in antibiotics may well prove beneficial.
However, the main thrust of management is supportive and should be undertaken in ITU.
B IV furosemide
The X-ray demonstrates diffuse bilateral coalescent opacities, for which a differential
diagnosis may be severe pulmonary oedema in the context of heart failure. However, given
the history of sepsis, ARDS must be suspected and the patient should be managed in ITU.
C IV methylprednisolone
This is ARDS. In the past, this was occasionally managed with IV methylprednisolone;
however, this was not proven to be associated with increased survival rates. These patients
usually require mechanical ventilation and must be referred to ITU.
E Utilise the patient’s home CPAP
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 12:22 PM
The chest X-ray and history of sepsis are strongly suggestive of ARDS. While CPAP with
oxygen may maintain oxygenation, recommended management is involvement of ITU as
patients usually require mechanical ventilation.
71771
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 External Links
Faculty of Intensive Care Medicine. 2018. Guidelines on the management of ARDS.

ficm.ac.uk/news-events-education/news/guidelines-management-ards
(https://www.ficm.ac.uk/news-events-education/news/guidelines-management-ards)
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 12:22 PM
Overview
Management
Prognosis
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 12:24 PM
You are called to a cardiac arrest on the coronary care unit. A 74-year-old man with a 40-
pack year smoking history and COPD on high-dose salmeterol/fluticasone combination
inhaler has arrested two days after admission with an inferior myocardial infarction.
Arterial blood gasses on admission reveal the following:
pH 7.39 7.35–7.45
pO 2 8.5 mmol/l 10.5–13.5 kPa
pCO 2 5.8 mmol/l 4.6–6.0 kPa
HCO 3 - 31 mmol/l 24–30 mmol/l
Arterial blood gasses on 35% O 2 post-cardiac arrest reveal the following:
pH 7.29 7.35–7.45
pO 2 7.5 kPa 10.5–13.5 kPa
pCO 2 6.9 kPa 4.6–6.0 kPa
He responds appropriately to commands and is cooperative and conscious around 15 min

after his cardiac arrest. A portable chest X-ray shows no sign of resuscitation injury.
Which of the following is the most appropriate course of action with respect to his
ventilatory support?
A Continue 35% O 2 therapy
B Reduce his inspired oxygen to 28%
C Increase his inspired oxygen to 60%
D Consider him for non-invasive positive pressure ventilation (NIPPV)
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 12:24 PM
E Move to intubation and ventilation
Explanation 
D Consider him for non-invasive positive pressure ventilation (NIPPV)
On admission his arterial blood gasses revealed a compensated respiratory acidosis with
some degree of CO 2 retention. Post cardiac arrest he has decompensated with relative
hypoxia and CO 2 retention. At this point the concern is that the acidosis may promote further
respiratory weakness, driving CO 2 retention and worsening the pH further. NIPPV should
reverse the respiratory acidosis and may have a positive impact on any pulmonary oedema
associated with the MI.
A Continue 35% O 2 therapy
Continuing his 35% O 2 may further exacerbate CO 2 retention and lead to respiratory arrest,
because of increasing drowsiness and lethargy.
B Reduce his inspired oxygen to 28%
This risks worsening any hypoxia, which could exacerbate myocardial ischaemia leading to
chest pain and/or rhythm disturbance.
C Increase his inspired oxygen to 60%
This, like continuing 35% O 2, risks worsening respiratory acidosis without significantly
increasing PaO 2 because of consequent respiratory muscle weakness and steadily decreasing
consciousness.
E Move to intubation and ventilation
This should be carefully considered based on pre-morbid status, and ideally would be a step
only after NIPPV had not succeeded in maintaining oxygenation and reversing respiratory
acidosis.
18537
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MyPastest 31/05/2021, 12:26 PM
A 32-year-old African-Caribbean nurse is referred to the Chest Clinic with several months of
progressive dyspnoea and a dry cough. She is now short of breath on minimal exertion. She
was previously fit and well, has no relevant family history and is on no medications. She is a
non-smoker.
On closer questioning, she also described fatigue and weight loss and a painful eye with
blurred vision for the last few weeks.
On examination, she was comfortable at rest with mild pyrexia of 37.4 °C. Her heart sounds
were normal and she had fine crackles at both mid-zones in her chest. Her abdomen was non-
tender with no palpable masses. She had no focal neurological signs. She had an inflamed,
watery right eye with reduced visual acuity.
On inspection of her skin, she had several raised erythematous lesions on her shins that were
tender to palpation.
Investigations:
Platelets 360 × 10 9/l 150–400 × 10 9/l
γGT 32 IU/l 5–30 IU/l

92 fl 76–98 fl
(MCV)

80 mm/hr 0–10 mm in the 1 st hour
(ESR)
Potassium (K+) 4.2 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
Corrected Ca 2+ 2.78 mmol/l 2.20–2.60 mmol/l
Albumin 36 g/l 35–55 g/l
Alanine aminotransferase
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 12:26 PM
(ALT) 38 IU/l 5–30 IU/l
Alkaline phosphatase 60 IU/l 30–130 IU/l
Mottling at both mid-zones

Chest X-ray with some line shadows.
Enlarged hilar bilaterally.
Pulmonary function tests:
Forced expiratory volume (FEV 1) 78% of predicted
Forced vital capacity (FVC) 70% of predicted
Transfer co-efficient (Kco) 78% of predicted
Which of the following is the most appropriate initial therapy for this patient?
A Anti-tuberculous chemotherapy
B Ciclosporin
C Cyclophosphamide
D Methotrexate
E Prednisolone
Explanation 
E Prednisolone
Steroid are indicated in this case of sarcodosis as a first line treatment, as the patient has
hypercalcaemia. Without hypercalcaemia, the management would simply be supportive.
Local corticosteroids may be appropriate for her eye disease.
A Anti-tuberculous chemotherapy
This woman has pulmonary sarcoidosis with anterior uveitis and erythema nodosum, with
evidence of bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy on her chest x-ray. Therefore, this option is
incorrect as this is the treatment for TB.
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 12:26 PM
B Ciclosporin
Ciclosporin could be considered further down the line as a steroid-sparing agent if the
patient was unable to wean off prednisolone.
C Cyclophosphamide
Cyclophosphamide could be considered further down the line if the patient is particularly
resistant to high-dose steroids.
D Methotrexate
Methotrexate could be considered at a later stage as a steroid-sparing agent if the patient

fails to wean off prednisolone.
32406
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Management
Prognosis
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 12:27 PM
A 16-year-old boy presents with a persistent cough productive of brown/green sputum. He

occasionally produces a small amount of blood. His mother said he had always suffered from
chest infections, requiring numerous courses of antibiotics. He also complained of offensive-
smelling stools which were difficult to flush. On examination he looked small for his age.
Auscultation of his chest revealed bi-basal coarse crackles.
Investigations:
Platelets (PLT) 511 × 10 9/l 150 - 400 × 10 9/l
Albumin 3.9 g/dl 3.4 - 5.4 g/dl
Total Protein level 50 g/l 60 - 83 g/l
His CXR is shown below:
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 12:27 PM
A Cystic fibrosis
C Young’s syndrome
D X-linked hypogammaglobulinaemia
E Eosinophilic granulomatosis with polyangiitis (Churg-Strauss)
Explanation 
D X-linked hypogammaglobulinaemia
This patient has X-linked hypogammaglobulinaemia. The main clue is the low total protein
with a normal albumin, demonstrating low levels of globulins.
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 12:27 PM
Patients usually present in childhood with recurrent infections, which result in bronchiectasis
if untreated, and malabsorption, in a similar way to patients with cystic fibrosis. All
immunoglobulin classes and B cells and plasma cells are reduced.
The defect is in the differentiation of pre-B cells into B cells. T cells are normal. The gene
defect is on the long arm of the X chromosome, making it an X-linked condition.
Treatment is with IV immunoglobulin therapy which, if started early, can prevent progression
of disease.
The chest X-ray shows bronchiectasis – parallel thickened bronchial walls with a ‘tram track’
appearance.
Both inflammatory and infectious enteritis are more common in patients with x-linked
hypogammaglobulinaemia, which accounts for the appearance of the stools seen here.
A Cystic fibrosis
Although the patient has symptoms compatible with CF, bronchiectasis visible on his CXR
and the low total protein makes X-linked hypogammaglobulinaemia more likely.
There is no dextrocardia seen on the CXR. Kartagener syndrome is associated with

bronchiectasis, sinusitis and dextrocardia.
C Young’s syndrome
Young syndrome is not associated with malabsorption: it is the triad of bronchiectasis,

rhinosinusitis and reduced fertility.
E Eosinophilic granulomatosis with polyangiitis (Churg-Strauss)
An asthma/rhinitis prodrome to this condition is classical, followed by an eosinophilia and

systemic vasculitis. The bronchiectasis seen on the CXR, and infective rather than asthmatic
chest symptoms, make hypogammaglobulinaemia a more likely diagnosis.
70147
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Overview
Management
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MyPastest 31/05/2021, 12:28 PM
A 19-year-old man presents with a 10-day history of headaches and malaise, with the more
recent development of a dry cough and breathlessness.
On examination, he was pyrexial, and he had a rash which looked like this:
Investigations:
White cell count (WCC) 10 × 10 9/l 4.0 - 11.0 × 10 9/l
Neutrophils 9.2 × 10 9/l 1.5 - 7.0 × 10 9/l
Platelets (PLT) 200 × 10 9/l 150 - 400 × 10 9/l
Reticulocytes 5.1% 0.5 - 2.5 %
Lactate dehydrogenase (LDH) 495 u/l 140 - 280 u/l
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 12:28 PM
A Epstein–Barr virus (EBV)
C Streptococcal pneumonia
D Tuberculosis
E Mycoplasma pneumonia
Explanation 
Mycoplasma usually affects young individuals and occurs in epidemics every 3–4 years. Chest
symptoms are usually preceded by non-specific symptoms such as malaise and headaches.
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 12:28 PM
The CXR usually shows only one lobe to be involved; however, about 20% show bilateral
pneumonia. There is often a discrepancy between X-ray appearances and the clinical
condition of the patient.
Diagnosis is by Mycoplasma serology – cold agglutinins occur in 50%. The image shows
erythema multiforme, which further supports the diagnosis. The blood results suggest a
haemolytic anaemia with a reticulocytosis, hyperbilirubinaemia and elevated LDH;
autoimmune haemolytic anaemia (AIHA), when caused by cold agglutinins, is associated with
Mycoplasma and can be diagnosed with a direct Coomb’s test.
Extra-pulmonary complications of Mycoplasma include:
Cardiovascular – myocarditis and pericarditis

Dermatological – erythema multiforme (as shown here), erythema nodosum, Stevens–
Johnson syndrome and non-specific rashes
Gastrointestinal – hepatitis, pancreatitis, nausea, vomiting, anorexia and transient
abdominal pain
Neurological – meningoencephalitis, meningitis, ascending paralysis, transient myelitis,
cranial nerve palsies, peripheral neuropathy, bullous myringitis
Haematological – cold autoimmune haemolytic anaemia, thrombocytopenia,
disseminated intravascular coagulation
Renal – glomerulonephritis
Others – arthralgia, arthritis, bullous myringitis.
Treatment: macrolides.
Causes of erythema multiforme:
Infections – herpes simplex virus (most common cause), orf, HBV, HIV, EBV, mumps
(paramyxovirus), Mycoplasma, psittacosis, Rickettsiae, Streptococcus, typhoid,
diphtheria
Drug reactions – barbiturates, penicillin, sulphonamides, phenytoin
Connective tissue disease – SLE
Vasculitis – polyarteritis nodosa, granulomatosis with polyangiitits
Others – underlying malignancy, sarcoidosis, rheumatoid arthritis, ulcerative colitis.
A Epstein–Barr virus (EBV)
EBV causes infectious mononucleosis but is not associated with pneumonia. The disease is
characterised by malaise and upper respiratory tract symptoms.
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 12:28 PM
Whilst dry cough, malaise, hyponatraemia and pneumonia are compatible with a diagnosis of
Legionella pneumonia, the presence of erythema multiforme and headache, with normal LFTs,
in a teenage patient is more consistent with Mycoplasma pneumonia.
C Streptococcal pneumonia
This patient presents with features of an atypical pneumonia. Streptococcus pneumoniae is

the commonest cause of community-acquired pneumonia and would be associated with a
sudden onset of symptoms, including fever and productive cough.
D Tuberculosis
TB tends to affect the upper lobes and is usually associated with fever, night sweats and
weight loss. Additionally, no potential contact source of TB is mentioned, making this
diagnosis more unlikely.
70075
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MyPastest 31/05/2021, 12:30 PM
A 73-year-old man is sent to the Emergency Department by ambulance after a GP home visit.
The GP found him to be extremely short of breath, with a cough productive of rust-coloured
sputum. He has herpetic lesions at the corner of his mouth.
On examination, he has right-sided crackles and bronchial breathing consistent with
pneumonia. His blood pressure is 105/65 mmHg and respiratory rate 33. His abbreviated
mental test (AMT) is 10.
Investigations:
Platelets 203 × 10 9/l 150–400 × 10 9/l
You use the British Thoracic Society Community Acquired Pneumonia Severity Score (CURB-
65) criteria to assess the severity of infection with respect to the need for HDU/ITU.
Which of the following features is associated with a poor prognosis as identified

by CURB criteria?
A AMT score of 10
B Urea 9.2 mmol/l
C Systolic BP of 105 mmHg
D Diastolic BP of 65 mmHg
E Creatinine of 87 micromol/l
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 12:30 PM
Explanation 
B Urea 9.2 mmol/l
Urea is one of the variables assessed in the CURB criteria, where a level of >7 mmol/l is
associated with a poor prognostic outcome. Other criteria not listed as part of the options
here include age >65 and respiratory rate of 30/min or greater. A score of 3, as in this case, is
associated with a risk of mortality of 17% from community-acquired pneumonia. For 5 this
rises to a risk of mortality of 57%.
A AMT score of 10
Confusion with an AMT of 8 or less is associated with a poor prognosis in community-

acquired pneumonia.
C Systolic BP of 105 mmHg
BP criteria used to assess severity in CURB criteria are systolic blood pressure 90 mmHg or
less or a diastolic BP of 60 mmHg or less.
D Diastolic BP of 65 mmHg
The diastolic BP criterion that stratifies poor prognosis in pneumonia is 60 mmHg.
E Creatinine of 87 micromol/l
Creatinine is not a criterion used to assess prognosis under the CURB criteria.
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 External Links
BTS management of CAP

brit-thoracic.org.uk/document-library/clinical-information/pneumonia/adult-pneumonia/a-quick…
information/pneumonia/adult-pneumonia/a-quick-reference-guide-bts-guidelines-for-
the-management-of-community-acquired-pneumonia-in-adults/)
Overview
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MyPastest 31/05/2021, 12:30 PM
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 12:32 PM
A 77-year-old lady was referred to the Respiratory Outpatient Clinic with increasing shortness
of breath. Her CXR is shown below.
What operation has she had?
A Left upper lobectomy
B Left pneumonectomy
C Thoracoplasty
D Phrenic crush
E Plombage
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 12:32 PM
Explanation 
C Thoracoplasty
This question is a 'spot diagnosis'. Clues that this is a thoracoplasty and not any of the
alternative options are that there is evidence of rib resection in conjunction with loss of lung
volume. The CXR shows a thoracoplasty. This lady had tuberculosis in the 1940s, prior to the
use of anti-tuberculosis chemotherapy. She had a thoracoplasty, which was one of the main
surgical treatments for tuberculosis between 1930 and 1955. Several ribs were resected, which
reduced the thoracic volume and collapsed the underlying lung. The aim was to close the
tuberculous cavity and 'rest the lung'. Control of pulmonary tuberculosis and survival was
good. However, patients were left with severe chest deformity and the associated respiratory
compromise, a restrictive defect.
A Left upper lobectomy
Upper lobectomy would only be associated with loss of upper lung volume.
B Left pneumonectomy
This would not be associated with the bony changes seen here.
D Phrenic crush
Phrenic crush is associated with elevated hemidiaphragm rather than the extensive bony
resection seen here.
E Plombage
The CXR would show material inserted into the chest cavity to promote lung collapse.
70126
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MyPastest 31/05/2021, 12:33 PM
A 24-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department having felt unwell for the last
couple of days. He tells you that he has had flu for the last four days. He complains of a dry
cough, headache, fever, malaise and muscle pains.
On examination, he is unwell with a blood pressure of 110/60 mmHg, pulse of 92 beats per
minute and a respiratory rate of 22 breaths per minute. His oxygen saturation is 95% on air.
On auscultation, he has scattered crackles in both lung fields. His cardiovascular and
abdominal examinations are unremarkable.
Platelets (PLT) 278 × 10 9/l 150 - 400 × 10 9/l
Blood film Fragmented red cells, reticulocytosis
Coombs’ test +
How would you treat this patient?
A Ciprofloxacin
B Clarithromycin
C Flucloxacillin
D Gentamicin
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 12:33 PM
E Rifampicin
Explanation 
B Clarithromycin
This is the typical presentation of Mycoplasma pneumoniae with a few days’ history of dry
cough and flu-like symptoms. Cold-agglutinins associated with the infection may also drive
an autoimmune haemolytic anaemia with positive Coombs’ test. Infection is seen in
epidemics, particularly where young adults live in close proximity, for example in an army
barracks.
A Ciprofloxacin
Ciprofloxacin could be an option in combination with vancomycin for the treatment of

community-acquired pneumonia where patients are penicillin allergic but is not a first line
choice.
C Flucloxacillin
Flucloxacillin is an option for post-influenza pneumonia, which is considered as a possible

diagnosis when patients present with cavitating pneumonia following flu infection.
D Gentamicin
Gentamicin was considered additive to the effects of penicillins in severe infection – for
example in endocarditis, although is now mainly reserved for the treatment of severe Gram-
negative infections.
E Rifampicin
Rifampicin is used as dual therapy in the treatment of severe legionella infection.

71080
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MyPastest 31/05/2021, 12:35 PM
A 71-year-old woman with a previous history of pulmonary tuberculosis presents to the

Respiratory Clinic complaining of lethargy, weight loss, night sweats and intermittent severe
haemoptysis. She has a history of hypertension managed with ramipril and indapamide, but is
otherwise well.
On examination, her blood pressure is 142/87 mmHg, she is apyrexial and her body mass
index (BMI) is 21 kg/m 2. Her FEV 1 is 1.8 l.
Normal
Investigation Result
values
White cell count 4.0–11.0 ×

10.1 × 10 9/l
(WCC) 10 9/l
150–400 ×
10 9/l
135–145
mmol/l
3.5–5.0
mmol/l
50–120
Creatinine (Cr) 130 µmol/l
µmol/l
Left upper lobe cavity with rim of air surrounding a

Chest X-ray (CXR)
solid lesion
Aspergillus
+
precipitant test
FEV 1 1.8 l
A computed tomography (CT) chest scan confirms the presence of a density with the
classical appearance of an aspergillioma.
Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment for her?
A IV amphotericin
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 12:35 PM
B Surgical resection
C Bronchial artery embolisation
D Voriconazole
E Itraconazole
Explanation 
B Surgical resection
Pulmonary aspergilloma is defined as a conglomeration of intertwined Aspergillus hyphae,

fibrin, mucus and cellular debris within a pulmonary cavity or an ectatic bronchus. Patients
usually have an underlying chronic lung condition. Surgical resection is curative in patients
with aspergilloma who have an adequate reserve of lung function to enable them to undergo
surgery; pre-existing lung disease may preclude thoracotomy. A preoperative FEV1 of >1.5 l
for lobectomy and >2.0 l for pneumonectomy generally indicate suitability for resection
procedures on the lungs. Postoperative complications include haemorrhage, bronchopleural
fistulae and Aspergillus infection of the pleural space.
A IV amphotericin
Amphotericin is not first-line treatment for aspergilloma. Amphotericin is associated with

febrile reactions, kidney disease and electrolyte disturbances.
C Bronchial artery embolisation
Where there is life-threatening haemoptysis, arterial embolisation may be another potential

option.
D Voriconazole
Voriconazole is a triazole antifungal medication that can be used to treat invasive

aspergillosis, which may occur in immunocompromised patients. Visual disturbance is a
reported side effect of voriconazole, and thus patients taking voriconazole should be advised
against driving at night or other potentially hazardous tasks.
E Itraconazole
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 12:35 PM
Itraconazole is a triazole antifungal medication. In patients whose lung function is too poor to
tolerate surgical resection, long-term itraconazole therapy may be effective in reducing
symptoms of haemoptysis and actually leading to resolution of the aspergilloma lesion in up
to 60% of patients.
For Further Reference:
Walsh et al. Treatment of aspergillosis: Clinical Practice Guidelines of the Infectious Diseases
Society of America. Clin Infect Dis 2008; 46(3):327–360. doi: 10.1086/525258
Gould and Pearce. Assessment of suitability for lung resection. Contin Educ Anaesth Crit Care
Pain 2006; 6(3):97–100. doi: 10.1093/bjaceaccp/mkl016
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MyPastest 31/05/2021, 12:35 PM
 External Links
Scott Weingart. EMCrit Podcast 199 – Management of Massive Hemoptysis with Ore
Ore……
emcrit.org/podcasts/massive-hemoptysis/.
(https://emcrit.org/podcasts/massive-hemoptysis/.)
Overview
Management
Prognosis
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 12:40 PM
A 31-year-old lady presented to the Respiratory Outpatients Department with a 3-year history
of increasing shortness of breath and cough. Her symptoms are constant and not episodic.
She had required numerous courses of antibiotics in the last few years. She was a smoker of
5/day for about 5 years. Respiratory examination revealed a hyperinflated chest and a mild
wheeze throughout.
FEV 1 50% predicted
FVC 80% predicted
TLCO 68% predicted
KCO 71% predicted
RV:TLC No bronchodilator reversibility Increased
Which investigation would be most useful in making a diagnosis?
A Histamine challenge test
B Sweat test
C Alpha-1 anti trypsin deficiency genotyping
D Reversibility testing
E High-resolution CT
Explanation 
C Alpha-1 anti trypsin deficiency genotyping
Alpha-1-antitrypsin deficiency is a rare autosomal recessive disease associated with the

development of premature pan-lobular emphysema, most severe in the basal areas of the
lungs. Emphysema is thought to result from an imbalance in the lung between neutrophil
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 12:40 PM
elastase (which destroys elastin) and the elastase inhibitor α1-antitrypsin (which protects
against proteolytic degradation by elastin). The decline in lung function is accelerated in
smokers.
Patients usually present with progressive increasing shortness of breath and weight loss. Cor
pulmonale and polycythaemia occur later in the course of the disease. A chest X-ray usually
shows bilateral bi-basal emphysema. Lung function tests show an obstructive picture and the
RV:TLC ratio is raised, indicating gas trapping. Transfer factor will be reduced. There are a
number of different phenotypes depending on the serum level of α1-antitrypsin:
Pi – protease inhibitor
M – normal allele
S, X and null are disease alleles
Phenotype α1-Antitrypsin level Disease
PiMM Normal
PiMS 80%
PiMZ 60%
PiSS 60%
PiSZ 40% Liver cirrhosis/premature emphysema
Pi Null Null Nil Premature emphysema
Treatment is similar to that of asthma. Alpha1-antitrypsin replacement can be given weekly or

monthly and is recommended for those with very low serum levels and abnormal lung
function. Lung transplantation should be considered in advanced disease. Patients should be
encouraged to stop smoking.
A Histamine challenge test
This would be used to confirm a diagnosis of asthma. Histamine challenge is rarely performed
because of technical difficulties in performing it, including the risk of provoking severe
bronchoconstriction.
B Sweat test
This would be used to confirm a diagnosis of cystic fibrosis, where levels of sodium and
chloride are measured in sweat, production of which is stimulated by pads soaked in
pilocarpine.
D Reversibility testing
This would be used to confirm a diagnosis of asthma, rather than the picture consistent with
alpha-1-antitrypsin deficiency seen here.
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 12:40 PM
E High-resolution CT
This would be helpful in confirming basal predominant pan-lobular emphysema, making the
diagnosis likely, but α1-antitrypsin levels would be more helpful in making definitive diagnosis.
70193
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MyPastest 31/05/2021, 12:40 PM
Management
Prognosis
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 12:43 PM
A 55-year-old asthmatic patient presents to the Emergency Department with increasing

cough and wheeze. She describes a cough productive of brown sputum. There is no other
past medical history of note. She is taking a steroid inhaler regularly and increasing doses of
beta-agonist, with no alleviation of her symptoms. She has worked in a bakery for many
years. She is an ex-smoker and stopped smoking 20 years ago; she has a pet dog and one
cat.
On examination she has a temperature of 38°C and is breathless at rest. Her BP is 122/82
mmHg, with pulse 88/min and regular. There is reduced chest expansion anteriorly on the left
side, with corresponding reduced breath sounds. She has a mild expiratory wheeze.
Investigations:
Neutrophils 7.37 × 10 9/l 1.5–7.0 × 10 9/l
Lymphocytes 2.55 × 10 9/l 1.5–4.0 × 10 9/l
Eosinophils 2.1 × 10 9/l 0.1–0.4 × 10 9/l
Monocytes 0.6 × 10 9/l 0.0–0.8 × 10 9/l
Basophils 0.05 × 10 9/l < 0.1 × 10 9/l
Mean corpuscular volume (MCV) 87.3 fl 80–100 fl
Platelets (PLT) 314 × 10 9/l 150–400 × 10 9/l
Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) 28 mm/h 1–20 mm/h
Alanine aminotransferase (ALT) 49 u/l 7–55 u/l
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 12:43 PM
Alkaline phosphatase (ALP) 61 u/l 30–150 u/l
Chest X-ray on presentation:
CXR taken one month later:
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 12:43 PM
What investigation would help make a diagnosis?
A p-ANCA
B c-ANCA
C Positive skin test/radioallergosorbent test for Aspergillus fumigatus
D Metacholine challenge test
E Lung function tests
Explanation 
C Positive skin test/radioallergosorbent test for Aspergillus fumigatus
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 12:43 PM
The chest X-ray shows left upper lobe collapse and demonstrates the ‘veil sign’. This patient
has allergic bronchopulmonary aspergillosis (ABPA). Pulmonary infiltrates, blood eosinophilia
and asthma are usually secondary to Churg–Strauss syndrome, or allergic bronchopulmonary
aspergillosis.
peripheral blood eosinophilia. The chest X-ray may show diffuse pulmonary infiltrates, and
pulmonary, lobar or segmental collapse occurs as a transient feature. The most common
cause is sensitivity to A. fumigatus spores.

A p-ANCA
This is an appropriate test for vasculitis and is associated with Churg–Strauss syndrome. The
absence of other features of vasculitis, such as mononeuritis, counts against this as the
underlying diagnosis.
B c-ANCA
This is an appropriate test for vasculitis. C-ANCA positivity is associated with Granulomatosis
with polyangiitis, where features such as sinusitis, haemoptysis and renal vasculitis co-exist.
D Metacholine challenge test
The methacholine challenge test is used to diagnose asthma, usually where there is some
doubt as to the status with respect to hyper-reactivity.
E Lung function tests
Lung functions tests would not be sufficiently discriminatory to diagnose allergic

bronchopulmonary aspergillosis. They would merely demonstrate a mixed
obstructive/restrictive picture.
70095
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MyPastest 31/05/2021, 12:43 PM
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 12:45 PM
A 19-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with a 3-day history of minor
right-sided chest discomfort and lethargy. He smokes 20 cigarettes a day. A chest X-ray is
obtained which shows a right-sided pneumothorax that is <1 cm from the chest wall. He is not
distressed and he is not in significant pain. His oxygen saturation is 98% on air, his BP is
124/82 mmHg and his pulse is 81/min and regular.
How should he be managed?
A Pleural aspiration
B Small-bore chest drain insertion
C Oxygen therapy
D Outpatient clinic review
E Large-bore chest drain insertion
Explanation 
D Outpatient clinic review
In a patient under the age of 50 without evidence of pre-existing lung disease, this is a
primary pneumothorax. As the pneumothorax is <1 cm from the chest wall, it is reasonable to
consider discharging the patient for review in the outpatient clinic.
A Pleural aspiration
Primary pneumothoracies which are >2 cm from the chest wall, or are associated with
breathlessness, should be aspirated. Secondary pneumothoarcies which are 1–2 cm from the
chest wall should be aspirated.
B Small-bore chest drain insertion
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 12:45 PM
In primary or secondary pnemothoracies where aspiration was initially indicated but has
failed, and in secondary pneumothoracies >2 cm from the chest wall, insertion of an 8–14 F
chest drain is indicated.
C Oxygen therapy
Admission for high-flow oxygen therapy is indicated in secondary pneumothoracies <1 cm

from the chest wall, or where aspiration has reduced the pneumothorax to this size. Care
needs to be taken where there is oxygen sensitivity.
E Large-bore chest drain insertion
Large-bore chest drains are usually greater than 20 F. Such drains are indicated in
haemothoracies and complex empyema.
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 External Links
Management of spontaneous pneumothorax: British Thoracic Society pleural diseas

diseas……
thorax.bmj.com/content/thoraxjnl/65/Suppl_2/ii18.full.pdf
(http://thorax.bmj.com/content/thoraxjnl/65/Suppl_2/ii18.full.pdf)
Overview
Management
Prognosis
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 12:46 PM
A 31-year-old woman presented to the Respiratory Outpatients Department with a 3-year

history of increasing shortness of breath and cough. She had required numerous courses of
antibiotics in the last few years. She was a smoker of 5/day for 5 years but gave up 4 years
ago. Respiratory examination revealed a hyper-inflated chest and a mild wheeze throughout.
FEV 1 50% predicted
FVC 80% predicted
TLCO 68% predicted
KCO 71% predicted
RV:TLC Increased
A COPD related to smoking
B Asthma
C Cystic fibrosis
D Bronchiectasis
E Alpha-1-antitrypsin deficiency
Explanation 
E Alpha-1-antitrypsin deficiency
Alpha-1-antitrypsin deficiency is a rare autosomal recessive disease associated with the

development of premature panlobular emphysema, most severe in the basal areas of the
lungs.Emphysema is thought to result from an imbalance in the lung between neutrophil
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 12:46 PM
elastase (which destroys elastin) and the elastase inhibitor α1-antitrypsin (which protects
against the proteolytic degradation by elastin). The decline in lung function is accelerated in
smokers.
Patients usually present with progressive increasing shortness of breath and weight loss.
Corpulmonale and polycythaemia occur later in the course of the disease. A chest X-ray
usually shows bilateral bibasal emphysema. Lung function tests show an obstructive picture
and the RV:TLC ratio is raised, indicating gas trapping. Transfer factor will be reduced. There
are a number of different phenotypes depending on the serum level of α1-antitrypsin:
Pi – protease inhibitor
M – normal allele
Z, X and null are disease alleles
Phenotype α1-Antitrypsin level Disease
PiMM Normal
PiMS 80%
PiMZ 60%
PiSS 60%
PiSZ 40% Liver cirrhosis/premature emphysema
Pi Null Null Nil Premature emphysema
Treatment is similar to that of asthma. Alpha1-antitrypsin replacement can be given weekly or

monthly and is recommended for those with very low serum levels and abnormal lung
function. Lung transplantation should be considered in advanced disease. Patients should be
encouraged to stop smoking.
A COPD related to smoking
Her disease severity coupled with her minimal smoking history makes α1-antitrypsin
deficiency more likely.
B Asthma
The lung function pattern and history suggesting lack of variability in symptoms is more in
keeping with emphysema.
C Cystic fibrosis
Respiratory problems in CF would usually be present since infancy. She has no other features
of CF such as pancreatic insufficiency, sinus disease, liver disease or diabetes.
D Bronchiectasis
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 12:46 PM
The gas trapping and reduced gas transfer are more in keeping with emphysema in this
history.
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MyPastest 31/05/2021, 12:46 PM
Management
Prognosis
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 7:51 PM
You are seeing a patient in clinic. Unfortunately, all clinic notes in the Cardiorespiratory Test
Department, are being audited; however, the patient brings along a copy of her lung function
results. Her date of birth is missing from the report.
Lung function results reveal the following:
FEV 1 0.30 1.2–2.9
Total lung capacity 6.8 4.4–6.8
Corrected transfer factor 3.4 4.2–8.8
From these results, which disease do you suspect that she is most likely to have?
A Very severe chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)
B Severe asthma
C Moderate COPD
D Non-specific interstitial pneumonitis (NSIP)
E Sarcoidosis
Explanation 
A Very severe chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)
COPD is defined as a reduced FEV 1/FVC ratio (where FEV 1 is forced expired volume in 1
second and FVC is forced vital capacity), such that FEV 1/FVC is less than 0.7. Though you are
not given an FVC reading, note that the total lung capacity here is within the normal range,
yet the FEV 1 is significantly reduced, this fits best with a diagnosis of COPD.
B Severe asthma
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 7:51 PM
Asthma is associated with a normal or raised transfer factor.
C Moderate COPD
Predicted FEV 1 in moderate COPD is 50–79%. See table below for classification of COPD.
FEV 1 % predicted Severity of airflow obstruction
> 80% Mild**
50–79% Moderate
30–49% Severe
< 30% Very severe
**If FEV 1 is ≥ 80% predicted normal, a diagnosis of COPD should only be made in the
presence of respiratory symptoms, for example breathlessness or cough.
D Non-specific interstitial pneumonitis (NSIP)
Restrictive lung disease is associated with a decreased total lung capacity.
E Sarcoidosis
Like NSIP, sarcoidosis falls under the category of restrictive lung disease, and is associated
with a decreased total lung capacity.
7176
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 External Links
COPD Diagnosis & Management

goldcopd.org/wp-content/uploads/2016/12/wms-GOLD-2017-Pocket-Guide.pdf
(http://goldcopd.org/wp-content/uploads/2016/12/wms-GOLD-2017-Pocket-Guide.pdf)
Overview
Management
Prognosis
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 7:51 PM
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 7:53 PM
You are asked to review a 64-year-old man with a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary
disease (COPD), prior to planned surgery for a large inguinal hernia. You take a history and
examine him. He is worked up with investigations before proceeding to the operation.
Which of the following is most associated with increased risk of peri-operative
complications?
A Nature of the surgery (hernia repair)
B CO 2 level of 6.2 kPa on air-breathing arterial blood gas sample
C FEV 1 (forced expiratory volume in 1 s) of 1.4 l
D History of treated hypertension
E Ability to walk 1.2 miles on the flat
Explanation 
B CO 2 level of 6.2 kPa on air-breathing arterial blood gas sample
A raised CO 2 on air would have most impact on increased peri-operative risk in this case.
Whilst epidural anaesthesia may offer a reduction in peri-operative risk, atelectasis due to
continued abdominal pain is still associated with increased incidence of postoperative lower
respiratory tract infection. Postoperative pain relief and aggressive physiotherapy support are
therefore essential components of treatment.
A Nature of the surgery (hernia repair)
Although abdominal surgery is associated with increased risk of postoperative respiratory

failure, hernia repair is a relatively minor procedure and adequate analgesia should minimise
the risk of perioperative complications.
C FEV 1 (forced expiratory volume in 1 s) of 1.4 l
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 7:53 PM
FEV 1 <0.8 l is particularly associated with operative risk. Obesity, because of splinting of the
diaphragm, may also drive postoperative respiratory failure.
D History of treated hypertension
Controlled blood pressure should not be associated with significant operative risk. Recent
ischaemic cardiovascular events on the other hand do significantly impact on outcome.
E Ability to walk 1.2 miles on the flat
Ability to walk 1.2 miles implies a functional status associated with low risk of operative
complications.
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Overview
Management
Prognosis
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 7:53 PM
A 46-year-old man presents with a persistent dry cough and shortness of breath. There has
been a history of fatigue over the past few months and he has recently lost his job. On
examination there are diffuse crackles on auscultation of the lung fields. He also has a nodular
rash on his shins. Chest X-ray reveals bilateral hilar enlargement. There is a diffuse increase in
globulins.
Which of the following represents the best initial step for this patient?
A Oral prednisolone
B Oral methotrexate
C Chemotherapy for myeloma
D Bronchoscopy to look for mycobacteria
E Oral azathioprine
Explanation 
A Oral prednisolone
This patient has sarcoidosis, a chronic granulomatous disorder of unknown origin,

characterised histologically by the presence of non-caseating granulomas. Work-up involves
chest X-ray and biopsy of easily accessible affected tissue. Corticosteroids, namely oral
prednisolone, remain the initial mainstay of treatment, although they are reserved for patients
with significant symptoms (in this case, cough and shortness of breath) or severe changes on
CXR. Steroid-sparing agents such as methotrexate or hydroxychloroquine may be added if
required. Most patients achieve remission within 2 years, though as yet there are no curative
therapies and relapses are common.
B Oral methotrexate
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 7:53 PM
In patients who are unresponsive to, or dependent on, steroids, methotrexate can be
considered as a steroid-sparing option. It should not be considered a first-line option in
patients requiring treatment.
C Chemotherapy for myeloma
Myeloma tends to present in older patients, with symptoms such as bone pain, fatigue
secondary to anaemia, recurrent infections, hypercalcaemia and renal symptoms. The
persistent cough and CXR findings are more in keeping with sarcoidosis than myeloma.
D Bronchoscopy to look for mycobacteria
Mycobacterium tuberculosis is the organism responsible for TB. There is no mention in the
history of night sweats or weight loss; the history and examination findings here are more in
keeping with sarcoid than TB.
E Oral azathioprine
In patients who are unresponsive to, or dependent on, steroids, azathioprine can be
considered as a steroid-sparing option. It should not be considered a first-line option in
patients requiring treatment.
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Overview
Management
Prognosis
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 7:54 PM
A 24-year-old patient comes to the emergency department with acute breathlessness. She is
a known asthmatic and has a previous history of requiring admission for her asthma. She
usually takes beclomethasone 500 µg bd, but over the past day has needed repeated doses
of her salbutamol inhaler. Over the past hour she has becoming increasingly breathless,
despite taking regular salbutamol. On examination the patient looks tired and has increased
work of breathing. Her respiratory rate is 40 breaths per minute, heart rate is 110 bpm and
blood pressure is 105/75 mmHg. Her temperature is 37.2 oC. Examination of the chest reveals
generalised wheeze and poor air entry. Oxygen saturations are 86% on room air.
Arterial blood gases reveal the following:
pH 7.35 7.35–7.45
pO 2 7.1 kPa 10.5–13.5 kPa
pCO 2 5.1 kPa 4.6–6.0 kPa
Which of the following would be the most appropriate next management step?
A Back-to-back salbutamol nebulisers and admission to the medical ward
B Back-to-back salbutamol nebulisers, IV corticosteroids and admission to the medical

high-dependency unit (HDU)
C IV hydrocortisone
D Nebuliser therapy and later discharge from the Emergency Department
E Addition of long-acting β-agonists to her therapy
Explanation 
B Back-to-back salbutamol nebulisers, IV corticosteroids and admission to the medical

high-dependency unit (HDU)
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 7:54 PM
Respiratory muscle fatigue and acidosis are known to worsen established hypoxia and lead to
a vicious circle of further muscle weakness. As such, early admission to the medical HDU
should be considered. It is likely this patient will rapidly need ventilatory support ± intubation.
Long-term she is likely to require the addition of long-acting β-agonists to her therapy. A
combination inhaler such as salmeterol/fluticasone (sere tide) may be the most effective way
to deliver the two drugs together.
A Back-to-back salbutamol nebulisers and admission to the medical ward
Her O 2 is low and CO 2 raised, indicating a severe asthma attack. Salbutamol nebulisation
represents a significant component of her management, but the medical ward represents an
inadequate place of care; she should be managed in a critical care area.
C IV hydrocortisone
This represents an appropriate therapy but should not represent the sole management of her
condition.
D Nebuliser therapy and later discharge from the Emergency Department
This patient is having a severe asthma attack – nebuliser monotherapy and discharge without
further investigation/assessment would be inappropriate.
E Addition of long-acting β-agonists to her therapy
This will likely be required in due course, but does not represent the most appropriate next
step in her management.
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Overview
Management
Prognosis
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 7:56 PM
A 72-year-old man comes to the Emergency Department some 48 hours after starting a
course of amoxicillin from his General Practitioner for right lower lobe pneumonia. His
condition has deteriorated with persistent fever, a cough productive of purulent, blood
stained sputum and diarrhoea. Apparently, he has recently returned from a holiday to
Portugal and became ill over the last few days on holiday.
On examination, his blood pressure is 123/85 mmHg; pulse is 85 bpm and regular, his
temperature is 38.9 °C. There are signs of right lower lobe consolidation on auscultation of
the chest. His abdomen is soft although there is mild tenderness on palpation. He is mildly
confused.
Investigations:
Platelets (PLT) 181 × 10 9/l 150–400 × 10 9/l
Chest X-ray Right lower lobe consolidation
Which of the following antibiotics is an option for treating his underlying

condition?
A Ceftriaxone
B Co-amoxiclav
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 7:56 PM
C Meropenem
D Flucloxacillin
E Levofloxacin
Explanation 
E Levofloxacin
The suspicion here is that this patient has an atypical pneumonia, potentially Legionnaire’s
disease as characterised by confusion, diarrhoea, hyponatraemia and abnormal liver function
tests, coupled with the lack of response to amoxicillin. The treatment of choice for
Legionnaire’s disease includes modern macrolides including clarithromycin and azithromycin
and quinolones such as levofloxacin. Given the side-effects of levofloxacin, including tendon
rupture, clarithromycin would seem a sensible first line choice. Should treatment fail,
levofloxacin or a broader spectrum agent such as meropenem would be next in line.
A Ceftriaxone
Ceftriaxone is rarely used in patients with pneumonia given its antimicrobial spectrum. This
patient is most likely suffering from an atypical pneumonia; therefore, ceftriaxone is not
clinically indicated here.
B Co-amoxiclav
Although co-amoxiclav covers a wider spectrum of organisms than amoxicillin, the clinical
scenario indicates a possible atypical pneumonia and therefore requires macrolide cover.
C Meropenem
While carbapenems such as meropenem certainly have efficacy against legionella pneumonia,
sensible antibiotic stewardship should be practised here, and the patient should be given a
chance to respond to an appropriate antibiotic with a narrower spectrum of activity. Should
clarithromycin fail, meropenem would be a reasonable alternative.
D Flucloxacillin
Flucloxacillin may be an appropriate choice for suspected staphylococci pneumonia. This

typically occurs post influenzae or measles and causes cavitation on the chest X-ray.
39663
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Overview
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 7:56 PM
Management
Prognosis
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 7:57 PM
A woman presents to clinic in her eighth week of pregnancy. She is concerned about her
husband’s family history of cystic fibrosis (CF), as her husband’s brother has cystic fibrosis
and her husband has been confirmed as a carrier. The patient does not wish to know about
her risk of developing CF and is reluctant to be tested herself, but is concerned about the
health of her child. There is a 1:20 prevalence of CF carriage in the area where she lived as a
child and husband and wife are not consanguineous.
What is the chance of her child having cystic fibrosis?
A 1/4
B 1/40
C 1/80
D 1/160
E 1/320
Explanation 
C 1/80
CF is an autosomal recessive disease, so two abnormal alleles are required for the disease to
be manifest. As a carrier (with one abnormal gene) the husband has a 1:2 chance of passing
the abnormal gene to his offspring. If one assumes that the woman is of the same genetic
stock as those in the area of her birth, she has a 1:20 chance of being a carrier, so the chance
of the child receiving an abnormal allele from both parents is 1/2 (male risk) × 1/20 (female
carrier risk) × 1/2 (female risk of passing a gene on) = 1/80.
A 1/4
1 in 4 is the risk of a child being affected by CF if both of the parents are confirmed to be
carriers for the disease.
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 7:57 PM
B 1/40
1 in 40 would be the risk of offspring suffering from a recessive condition if one partner was a
homozygote for the abnormal gene, and the carrier frequency was 1 in 20.
D 1/160
This would be the correct answer if the carrier frequency was 1 in 40, not 1 in 20 as it is.
E 1/320
This would be the correct answer if the carrier frequency was 1 in 80.
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Management
Prognosis
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 7:59 PM
A 55-year-old man presents to the Emergency Admission with dry cough and shortness of
breath, which he has had for the past 4 days. He has recently returned from a winter holiday
to an all-inclusive hotel in Spain. He also complains of some abdominal discomfort, nausea,
vomiting, diarrhoea and a headache. He was previously well before he developed these
symptoms and is not on any medication.
On examination, he is unwell with a blood pressure of 123/67 mmHg, pulse of 92/min and a
respiratory rate of 22/min. On auscultation of his chest, he has bi-basal crackles. His
cardiovascular examination is unremarkable.
Platelets (PLT) 278 × 10 9/l 150–400 × 10 9/l
What initial investigation is most likely to be helpful in elucidating the diagnosis?
A Urinary immunoglobulin titres
B Sputum microscopy and culture
C Stool microscopy and culture
D Bronchoalveolar lavage
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 7:59 PM
Explanation 
The most likely diagnosis is Legionella pneumophila. This usually infects middle-aged men,
more severely in smokers, is twice as common in men and has an incubation period of 2–10
days. It causes moderate leucocytosis (neutrophilia, lymphopenia), hyponatraemia, deranged
LFTs, proteinuria, haematuria and myoglobinuria. Diagnosis: urinary antigen testing, rise in
specific IgM and IgG titres in the urine, blood and sputum or by direct immunofluorescent
staining of the organism via bronchial washings. With a CURB-65 score of 1, indicating mild
disease, treatment would be dependent on local guidelines but may consist of a macrolide,
such as azithromycin or clarithromycin.
A Urinary immunoglobulin titres
This is not a commonly used investigation in infection.
B Sputum microscopy and culture
Patients with pneumonia should have a sputum MCS sample sent. Legionella, as this patient
has, can be diagnosed from growth by a sputum sample, but that takes time and is therefore
not as helpful as urinary antigen testing, which is much faster.
C Stool microscopy and culture
Despite the patient having diarrhoea, abdominal pain and a travel history, there are also
respiratory signs and symptoms. This makes a respiratory pathogen far more likely than a
gastrointestinal one, and so a stool sample is unlikely to provide any useful information.
A bronchoalveolar lavage can be a useful way to obtain sputum in a patient who is unable to
expectorate a sample. It can be particularly useful in ITU patients, to diagnose TB or to
diagnose PCP. It is generally not necessary when the patient is able to cough up a sputum
sample.
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MyPastest 31/05/2021, 7:59 PM
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 8:00 PM
A 71-year-old man presents to his GP along with his wife. He has severe problems with
sleeping at night, with episodes where he snores, stops breathing, is restless and often
disturbs his wife from sleep. During the day his family complain that he often falls asleep
watching the television, after his dinner or even whilst talking to his wife. He is a smoker of 20
cigarettes per day, has hypertension and suffered a TIA 3 years earlier. Medication includes
ramipril 10 mg, simvastatin 40 mg and aspirin 75 mg. On examination his BMI is 32, his BP is
150/90 mmHg and he has signs of right heart failure.
A Central sleep apnoea
B Nocturnal epilepsy
C Obstructive sleep apnoea
D Multiple TIAs
E Narcolepsy
Explanation 
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 8:00 PM
C Obstructive sleep apnoea
This patient is obese, with hypertension and right heart failure. He has significant symptoms
of nocturnal airway obstruction and daytime sleepiness, and this constellation of symptoms
and signs fits with a diagnosis of obstructive sleep apnoea. Management of the condition
involves aggressive weight reduction and the use of nocturnal CPAP to relieve nocturnal
airway obstruction. Clearly this gentleman should also receive very strong advice to stop
smoking and should be advised not to drive.
A Central sleep apnoea
Central sleep apnoea is usually seen in patients with significant neurological impairment, and
the fact this patient is a smoker and obese is a much stronger pointer to obstructive sleep
apnoea.
B Nocturnal epilepsy
Nocturnal epilepsy is more likely to be associated with tonic–clonic movements, automatisms

or sleep-walking, rather than the clinical picture seen here.
D Multiple TIAs
There are no focal features to suggest TIAs; the recurrent snoring and cessation of breathing
is much more suggestive of obstructive sleep apnoea.
E Narcolepsy
Narcolepsy is associated with excessive daytime sleepiness, cataplexy, hypnagogic

hallucinations and sleep paralysis. The snoring and periods of apnoea are not consistent with
a diagnosis of narcolepsy.
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MyPastest 31/05/2021, 8:01 PM
A 32-year-old woman presents to her doctor complaining of increasing shortness of breath.

Over the past year or so she has also noticed that her hands go white and are very painful if
she ventures out into cold weather. On examination there is evidence of subcutaneous
calcification in the fingers. Fine bi-basal crepitations and occasional wheezes are heard on
auscultation of the chest.
Anti-nuclear antibody Positive
Anti scl-70 antibody Positive
FVC 3.2 litres
FEV 1 2.6 litres
Which of the following represents the most appropriate treatment in this case?
A Commence inhaled corticosteroids
B Commence inhaled short-acting beta-2-agonist therapy
C Commence immuno-suppressant therapy
D Commence combined inhaled corticosteroid and beta-2 agonist therapy
E Commence inhaled long-acting anti-cholinergic therapy
Explanation 
C Commence immuno-suppressant therapy
This woman has evidence of systemic sclerosis, with clinical features and the scl-70 positivity
pointing towards associated lung fibrosis. Her lung function tests also suggest the possibility
of a restrictive lung defect, further supporting this diagnosis. Around 15% of patients have
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 8:01 PM
disease which is associated with more rapidly progressive lung fibrosis. Lung fibrosis in
systemic sclerosis may also be associated with an increased risk of lung cancer, and is
associated with the development of pulmonary hypertension.
Management is usually with immunosuppressant. Mycophenolate

(https://www.uptodate.com/contents/mycophenolate-mofetil-cellcept-and-mycophenolate-
sodium-myfortic-drug-information?source=see_link) mofetil has a good evidence base and is
often used first line, with cyclophosphamide being an alternative. Low-dose corticosteroids
can be used as an adjunct in some cases, but high-dose steroids should be avoided if possible
due to risk of scleroderma crisis.
A Commence inhaled corticosteroids
Unfortunately inhaled corticosteroids are ineffective in the treatment of pulmonary fibrosis

and have no role in the management of this patient.
B Commence inhaled short-acting beta-2-agonist therapy
Inhaled short-acting beta-2-agonists are of course the initial therapy of choice for asthma,
but have no value in relieving symptoms associated with pulmonary fibrosis.
D Commence combined inhaled corticosteroid and beta-2 agonist therapy
Combined inhaled corticosteroid and LABA therapy is utilised for patients with asthma who
fail to gain control of symptoms on inhaled corticosteroids alone.
E Commence inhaled long-acting anti-cholinergic therapy
Long-acting anti-cholinergics are of value in the treatment of COPD, not pulmonary fibrosis.
18555
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MyPastest 31/05/2021, 8:02 PM
A 38-year-old woman underwent a heart and lung transplantation for pulmonary

hypertension. Whilst she was initially well post surgery she presents to the clinic some 15
months later with progressive shortness of breath. On examination her BP is 125/82 mmHg
and there is wheeze on auscultation of her chest.
Investigations:
Platelets 184 × 10 9/l 150–400 × 10 9/l
Obstructive picture,
Pulmonary function tests irreversible with salbutamol,
worsening over the past 3 months
A Post-transplant lymphoproliferative disorder
B Acute rejection
C Bronchiolitis obliterans syndrome
D New-onset asthma
E Recurrence of pulmonary hypertension
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 8:02 PM
Explanation 
C Bronchiolitis obliterans syndrome
Bronchiolitis obliterans syndrome occurs due to progressive obliterative bronchiolitis

affecting terminal bronchioles. The condition is manifest in increasing shortness of breath and
a progressively worsening fixed airways obstruction picture on pulmonary function testing.
Risk factors for the development of the condition include early acute rejection and CMV
infection. Bronchiolitis obliterans has been seen as early as 3 months post-transplant, and is
responsible for over 50% of deaths after the first year.
Pulmonary hypertension (PAH) is defined by a mean pulmonary artery pressure greater than
25 mmHg at rest and a normal pulmonary capillary wedge pressure of 15 mmHg or less with a
pulmonary vascular resistance greater than 3 Wood units. Prior to lung transplantation being
available, median survival for patients with pulmonary hypertension was 2.8 years.
A Post-transplant lymphoproliferative disorder
In this condition there is controlled B-cell proliferation due to the need for
immunosuppressive therapy after transplantation. The clinical presentation can vary from
simple lymphoid hyperplasia to aggressive disease that closely resembles non-Hodgkin's
lymphoma. Post-transplant lymphoproliferative disorder is still a rare disease, despite being
more commonly observed after lung transplantation than with other organs.
B Acute rejection
Acute rejection may occur any time from the first week after the transplant to 3 months
afterwards. All recipients have some amount of acute rejection.
D New-onset asthma
In asthma, you would see obstructive spirometry, but you would expect reversibility with
salbutamol.
E Recurrence of pulmonary hypertension
Recurrence of the disease is rare after transplantation.

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MyPastest 31/05/2021, 8:03 PM
A 39-year-old lady from Zimbabwe presents to the Emergency Department with a 5-day
history of increasing shortness of breath and dry cough. She has a 1-day history of sudden
onset of sharp chest pain which is worse on coughing, movement and deep inspiration. She
describes having had night sweats and a poor appetite for 2 months. Her weight has
decreased by about 5 kg. She has a past medical history of genital herpes and depression.
She is married and has two children who live in Zimbabwe. She moved to England 2 years
ago and has not travelled since. She is a smoker of 20/day and drinks little alcohol.
On examination she looked unwell. Observations: temperature 38.3°C, BP 108/72 mmHg,

pulse 120/min, regular, respiratory rate 30/min. Auscultation of her chest revealed inspiratory
crackles bi-basally.
Investigations:
Neutrophils 8.6 × 10 9/l 1.5 - 7.0 × 10 9/l
Platelets (PLT) 439 × 10 9/l 150 - 400 × 10 9/l
Blood gases on 80% oxygen Result
pH 7.46
PCO 2 3.44 kPa
PO 2 10.77 kPa
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 8:03 PM
Base excess -3.5
Her chest X-ray is shown:
Which investigation would be most helpful in establishing a diagnosis?
A Bronchoscopy and transbronchial biopsy
B CT pulmonary angiogram
C Lung function tests and transfer factor
D Indirect immunofluorescence of bronchoalveolar lavage fluid
E Blood cultures
Explanation 
D Indirect immunofluorescence of bronchoalveolar lavage fluid
Diagnosis is now usually made by PCR of sputum or BAL fluid. Other diagnostic methods
include staining induced sputum or BAL with indirect immunofluorescence with monoclonal
antibodies.
For the purpose of the exam, people who have lived abroad (especially Africa and South
America), businessmen who work abroad, men who have sex with men (MSM) and
intravenous drug users, are more likely to have HIV.
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 8:03 PM
This lady has HIV – the history of living in Zimbabwe and the low lymphocyte count are the
clues. Pneumocystis jirovecii is the most common opportunistic infection to cause pneumonia
in AIDS – especially when the CD4 count is <200/mm 3. It accounts for about 50% of cases of
pneumonia in AIDS and 40% of all AIDS-defining illnesses.
Patients usually present with a fever, dry cough and breathlessness. They are usually hypoxic
and desaturate on exercise.
In P. jirovecii pneumonia (PJP) the chest X-ray usually shows bilateral interstitial shadowing
and cysts in the mid and lower zones. However, the CXR may be normal. Pneumothorax
(because the cysts rupture) may be present in up to 10%.
Treatment is with high-flow oxygen and high-dose co-trimoxazole. Prednisolone should be

added in severe cases (PO 2 <9.5 kPa).
A Bronchoscopy and transbronchial biopsy
Transbronchial biopsy would cause undue risk of pneumothorax in a patient already at risk of
pneumothorax due to Pneumocystis pneumonia. Also, it is likely that this patient will end up
invasively ventilated, further adding to risk of pneumothorax.
B CT pulmonary angiogram
CTPA is an appropriate investigation for PE. The abnormal chest X-ray with evidence of
pulmonary infiltration counts against a PE as the underlying diagnosis here.
C Lung function tests and transfer factor
These tests would not be the most likely to give a definitive diagnosis: they would simply
show the degree of lung function impairment. In this case, due to pulmonary infiltration, it’s
likely that transfer factor will be reduced.
E Blood cultures
Blood cultures are likely to be negative in Pneumocystis pneumonia, with local invasion and
inflammatory infiltration the drivers for symptoms.
70099
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MyPastest 31/05/2021, 8:05 PM
A 32-year-old man presents to the Respiratory Clinic. He describes being a chronic sufferer of
allergic rhinitis, eczema and asthma for decades. These problems have worsened, and he has
developed a chronic nocturnal cough despite regular steroid inhaler use. He has also started
developing weight loss and malaise. He also complains that he has needed to see his GP
several times for sinusitis and inner ear problems. He says that he takes a regular inhaler twice
per day and a blue inhaler when he needs it, and uses emollients daily for his skin. He also
says that he cannot take aspirin as this worsens his asthma.
Which investigation would be most likely to be diagnostic?
A Neutrophil count
B HRCT
C FEV 1 and FVC measurements
D IgG
E ANCA
Explanation 
E ANCA
The presence of antineutrophil cytoplasmic antibody (ANCA) helps to rule in favour of

eosinophilic granulomatosis with polyangiitis (found in 70% of cases), which is similar to
asthma and an important differential diagnosis since the treatment is different. Eosinophilic
granulomatosis with polyangitis is a vasculitis affecting small- to medium-vessel vasculitis
with eosinophilia. It commonly affects many organs, including the lungs, cardiovascular
system and renal system, and is heavily associated with atopy, otitis media and asthma, as in
this patient. ANCA testing is the most appropriate way to differentiate from severe allergy
and other causes of vasculitis.
A Neutrophil count
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 8:05 PM
An eosinophilia count, rather than neutrophil count and IgE, can suggest allergic
bronchopulmonary aspergillosis (ABPA). To diagnose ABPA, the sputum should be examined
for Aspergillus, an aspergillus skin test can be done or an Aspergillus IgE RAST test can be
done.
B HRCT
Computed tomography (CT) in expiration phase shows air trapping and can be seen
especially in severe asthmatics. High-resolution computed tomography (HRCT) is only useful
when looking for bronchiectasis in patients with ABPA.
C FEV 1 and FVC measurements
Although the forced expiratory volume in 1 s (FEV 1) and forced vital capacity (FVC) are non-
specific in terms of diagnosis, they are useful in disease monitoring. In asthma attacks, FEV 11
is lower when compared to the patient’s established FEV 1. A FEV 1 at 35–50% of expected
would be considered a severe asthma attack, whilst FEV 1 <33% of expected would be life-
threatening.
D IgG
IgE, rather than IgG, levels of Aspergillus can be useful in differentiating ABPA from simple
asthma.
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MyPastest 31/05/2021, 8:08 PM
A 45 year old man with acute pancreatitis and developing ARDS is referred to the Intensive
Therapy Unit. On examination his BP is 135/85 mmHg; pulse is 95/min and regular. There are
scattered crackles on auscultation of the chest and O 2 saturation is only 86% on high flow
oxygen. CXR shows patchy shadowing. The patient is intubated.
Which of the following is correct with respect to the ventilator settings?
A Low PEEP, Low tidal volume, respiratory rate up to 35 breaths/min
B Low PEEP High tidal volume, respiratory rate up to 25 breaths/min
C High PEEP, High tidal volume, respiratory rate up to 35 breaths/min
D High PEEP High tidal volume, respiratory rate up to 25 breaths/min
E High PEEP low tidal volume, respiratory rate up to 35 breaths/min
Explanation 
E High PEEP low tidal volume, respiratory rate up to 35 breaths/min
The answer is High PEEP, low tidal volume, respiratory rate up to 35 breaths/min -
Low tidal volumes are thought to improve survival in ARDS by reducing excessive lung
stretch; hence it is the preferred option here. High PEEP is thought to reduce progression of
ARDS versus lower levels. Respiratory rate up to 35 breaths / min is required to deliver the
predicted minute volume needed for most patients.
http://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pubmed/23740697
(http://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pubmed/23740697)
A Low PEEP, Low tidal volume, respiratory rate up to 35 breaths/min
Low PEEP, Low tidal volume, respiratory rate up to 35 breaths/min, is incorrect because low
levels of PEEP do not reduce the progression of ARDS versus higher levels.
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 8:08 PM
B Low PEEP High tidal volume, respiratory rate up to 25 breaths/min
Low PEEP High tidal volume, respiratory rate up to 25 breaths/min, is incorrect because high
tidal volume may accentuate stretch damage to lung tissue.
C High PEEP, High tidal volume, respiratory rate up to 35 breaths/min
High PEEP, High tidal volume, respiratory rate up to 35 breaths/min, is incorrect because high
tidal volume may accentuate damage to lung tissue, although high PEEP is in fact has a
positive impact on reducing ARDS progression.
D High PEEP High tidal volume, respiratory rate up to 25 breaths/min
High PEEP High tidal volume, respiratory rate up to 25 breaths/min is incorrect because high
tidal volume may accentuate damage to lung tissue, although high PEEP is in fact has a
positive impact on reducing ARDS progression.
40408
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MyPastest 31/05/2021, 8:09 PM
A 23-year-old African-Caribbean patient develops painful red nodules on both her shins over
2 days and has noticed painful knees, ankles and wrists. She also complains of mild sweats
and weight loss over the past 2 months. Chest X-ray shows bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy
(BHL) but clear lung fields.
Given the likely clinical diagnosis, what is the most likely outcome for her?
A Complete remission after a course of steroids
B Spontaneous resolution with no long-term sequelae
C Spontaneous resolution followed by further relapses
D Peripheral lung infiltrates and shortness of breath
E Increasing weight loss and neurological impairment
Explanation 
B Spontaneous resolution with no long-term sequelae
This patient has acute sarcoidosis with erythema nodosum, polyarthralgia and mild
constitutional symptoms. Around 90% patients have BHL at presentation. In 10–20% of cases,
symptoms progress to shortness of breath, dry cough and chest pain. The majority of
patients (80%) either stabilise or regress, so in the first instance treatment is not indicated.
Non-pulmonary manifestations include neuropathy, Bell’s palsy, hepatosplenomegaly, uveitis,
conjunctivitis, lupus pernio, subcutaneous nodules, cardiomyopathy, arrhythmias,
hypercalcaemia and renal stones. Treatment of acute sarcoidosis is usually supportive,
including non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) for polyarthralgia, because most
recover spontaneously.
A Complete remission after a course of steroids
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 8:09 PM
Sarcoidosis usually resolves spontaneously and steroids at first presentation would not be
indicated. Steroids should be commenced if: symptoms worsen or cause limitation to daily
activities, pulmonary function deteriorates, CXR signs worsen (e.g. development of cavitation
or fibrosis) or if other organ system involvement develops.
C Spontaneous resolution followed by further relapses
Most patients recover spontaneously, and in 90% this is within 2 years. Less than 10% develop
relapses after this point. Relapses and chronic disease are more likely if spontaneous
remission does not occur within the first 2 years.
D Peripheral lung infiltrates and shortness of breath
The extent of infiltrates on CXR is used in staging of the disease and is a guide to prognosis,
with the likelihood of relapse increasing as the extent of infiltrate worsens. This option is
incorrect because it is uncommon.
E Increasing weight loss and neurological impairment
Neurological involvement does occur with sarcoidosis, but this is rare, occurring in 5-15% of
patients. Neurological involvement tends to be present at presentation and often in disease
with other significant extra-pulmonary features. This option is incorrect because it is an
uncommon outcome.
31663
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MyPastest 31/05/2021, 8:10 PM
A 48-year-old builder working in the UK for over 5 years presents to your clinic with a 1-year
history of wheeze and cough that is worse in the early hours of the morning. On direct
questioning he admits to mild haemoptysis over the past few days with no increase or
change in his sputum production, occasional mild night sweats and he has noticed a slight
weight loss over the past few months due to decreased appetite. His past medical history
includes previous alcohol excess and type 2 diabetes. A chest X-ray taken two years ago
showed clear lung fields and no signs of previous lung pathology.
Which of the following pathologies is the most likely cause of his haemoptysis?
A Aspergilloma
B Allergic bronchopulmonary aspergillosis (ABPA)
C Semi-invasive aspergillosis
D Invasive aspergillosis
E Asthma exacerbation
Explanation 
C Semi-invasive aspergillosis
This is a chronic indolent disease that affects people with mild immunosuppression, such as
those with diabetes or chronic obstructive pulmonary disease or those who abuse alcohol,
are elderly or on prolonged steroid use. If left untreated there is a significant associated
mortality; however, it is difficult to diagnose due to its slow progression both radiologically
and clinically. Symptoms include cough, wheeze, bronchitis and constitutional symptoms, and
about 15% present with haemoptysis.
A Aspergilloma
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 8:10 PM
This is a ball of fungus within a pre-existing cavity such as that caused by tuberculosis (TB).
With a recent clear chest X-ray (2 years ago), this patient is unlikely to have any cavities in
which an aspergilloma could reside. Furthermore, aspergillomas are usually asymptomatic but
can cause weight loss, cough and haemoptysis, which can be massive and require emergency
surgical excision. Oral antifungals can be given, but with limited success.
B Allergic bronchopulmonary aspergillosis (ABPA)
This is an IgE and IgG reaction to Aspergillus sp. in asthmatics. The key criteria for diagnosis
include a long history of asthma, skin-prick/IgE, positive/IgG precipitins to Aspergillus
fumigates, central bronchiectasis, elevated total serum IgE, blood/sputum eosinophilia and
pulmonary infiltrates.
D Invasive aspergillosis
This patient is not acutely unwell. This condition occurs in immunosuppressed individuals and
is caused by haematogenous spread of the fungus, so prompt diagnosis and treatment are
required to prevent a high mortality rate.
E Asthma exacerbation
Night sweats and haemoptysis are not features of asthma exacerbation.

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MyPastest 31/05/2021, 8:11 PM
A 35-year-old woman presents to her general practitioner complaining of breathlessness. The

only history of note is that her mother died of a respiratory illness of unknown aetiology
during her early 40s. She is a non-smoker who works as a secretary in a solicitor’s office. On
examination her blood pressure is 122/72 mmHg, with pulse 85/min and regular. There are
scattered crackles more marked at the lung bases on auscultation of the chest. Routine
bloods are normal, although her chest X-ray reveals a surprising finding, with fine
micronodular calcification seen, predominantly in the lung bases and around the hilae.
Pulmonary function testing reveals a restrictive defect.
A Sarcoidosis
B Obliterative bronchiolitis
C Adenocarcinoma of the lung
D Alveolar microlithiasis
E Silicosis
Explanation 
D Alveolar microlithiasis
This rare condition, which is sometimes familial with autosomal recessive inheritance, is
associated with the deposition of diffuse calcified microliths in the alveolar space. In familial
cases there is often a 2:1 female preponderance. Chest X-ray or computed tomography (CT)
scan may confirm micronodular calcification, and there is a progressive restrictive lung
defect. Unfortunately, progressive calcium deposition leads to respiratory failure. No medical
intervention has proved successful, although lung transplantation has been used in some
cases. So much calcium is deposited that lungs examined at post-mortem have been
reported to be so stiff as to require a saw to enable sectioning for examination.
A Sarcoidosis
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 8:11 PM
Sarcoidosis is not associated with areas of micronodular calcification, but is associated with
hilar lymphadenopathy.
B Obliterative bronchiolitis
Obliterative bronchiolitis is associated bronchiolar inflammation and scarring that leads to

fixed airway obstruction. It isn’t associated with the micronodular calcification seen here.
C Adenocarcinoma of the lung
Adenocarcinoma of the lung is a peripheral lung tumour that arises in distal airways and isn’t
associated with the diffuse calcification seen here.
E Silicosis
Silicosis is associated with eggshell calcification rather than the fine micronodular
calcification seen here, and occurs in patients exposed to mineral dust.
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MyPastest 31/05/2021, 8:13 PM
A 37-year-old Afro-Caribbean woman presents to the Emergency Department with a painful

raised rash affecting both shins. She has been followed up on a number of occasions over the
past few months by her General Practitioner because of complaints of shortness of breath
and a dry cough. This has not responded to a salbutamol inhaler or two courses of
amoxicillin. There is no past medical history of note.
On examination, her blood pressure is 145/89 mmHg; pulse is 75 bpm and regular. Her chest
is clear on auscultation, and her abdomen is soft and non-tender. There is a rash on both
shins consistent with erythema nodosum.
Investigations:
Platelets (PLT) 178 × 10 9/l 150–400 × 10 9/l
Corrected calcium (Ca) 2.71 mmol/l 2.2–2.6 mmol/l
Which of the following is the most useful next investigation?
A Autoimmune profile
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 8:13 PM
B Computed tomography (CT) thorax
C Chest X-ray
D Sputum for microscopy, culture and sensitivity
E Ultrasound scan (USS) abdomen
Explanation 
C Chest X-ray
Given the patients ethnicity, symptoms of shortness of breath and a rash consistent with
erythema nodosum. The next logical step would be a chest X-ray given the suspicions of a
possible diagnosis of sarcoidosis. CT thorax and pulmonary function tests can be used to
confirm the diagnosis. Controversy exists over the role of steroids in the short term; however,
it has been widely seen that there is some symptom reduction and a chest X-ray therefore
may be indicated.
A Autoimmune profile
Patients with erythema nodosum may require autoimmune profiling; however, the clinical
scenario is more in keeping with a diagnosis of sarcoidosis. Therefore, an autoimmune profile
is not clinically indicated.
B Computed tomography (CT) thorax
The patient’s clinical features would suggest a diagnosis of sarcoidosis. A chest X-ray would
be able to confirm the presence of lymphadenopathy. CT thorax is used to confirm the
diagnosis and identify areas of possible fibrosis; it is not the most useful next investigation.
D Sputum for microscopy, culture and sensitivity
The clinical presentation would be consistent with a patient suspected of sarcoidosis. Sputum
for microscopy, culture and sensitivity would not be indicated.
E Ultrasound scan (USS) abdomen
Although the liver function tests are mildly elevated, it would not be appropriate next best
investigation. The clinical scenario indicates a possible diagnosis of sarcoidosis and therefore
a chest X-ray is the most logical next investigation.
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 8:13 PM
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MyPastest 31/05/2021, 8:13 PM
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MyPastest 31/05/2021, 8:14 PM
micrograms two puffs twice a day. She had no significant past medical history. She smoked
10 cigarettes/day and had done so for 2 years.
Auscultation of her chest revealed a mild expiratory wheeze. Examination was otherwise
unremarkable.
PEF 80% predicted
FEV 1 85% predicted
FVC 90% predicted
A Increase Budesonide
B Add Montelukast
C Give a course of oral Prednisolone
D Add Aminophylline
E Start a regular Salbutamol inhaler
Explanation 
B Add Montelukast
This woman is on step 2 of the asthma treatment ladder – she is on a low/moderate dose
inhaled steroids (800 mcg/day). A trial of an alternative agent should be added prior to
increasing inhaled steroids. The first choice of additional therapy would be a leukotriene
receptor antagonist such as montelukast, for a trial, as per the NICE 2017 asthma guidelines.
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 8:14 PM
A Increase Budesonide
She is already on a moderate dose of inhaled corticosteroid. The next most appropriate step
is to add in a long acting bronchodilator. If this were to have no effect then the dose of
inhaled corticosteroid should be increased.
C Give a course of oral Prednisolone
This is not an acute asthma exacerbation requiring oral steroid therapy, this lady has poor
asthma control and needs her maintenance treatment increased.
D Add Aminophylline
Aminophylline is reserved for patients who have not responded to high dose inhaled
corticosteroids in combination with a long acting inhaled beta 2 agonist.
E Start a regular Salbutamol inhaler
Salbutamol is a short acting beta 2 agonist and would need to be taken multiple times per
day to relieve symptoms. It is more appropriate to give a long acting beta 2 agonist. Short
acting beta 2 agonists like Salbutamol are reserved for acute relief of symptoms rather than
prevention.
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MyPastest 31/05/2021, 8:14 PM
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 8:15 PM
A patient with known bronchiectasis grows fully sensitive Pseudomonas aeruginosa in their
sputum for the first time. This is associated with a deterioration in his breathlessness.
Which of the following antibiotics would be most suitable as first-line treatment?
A IV ticarcillin plus IV gentamicin
B IV ceftazidime
C IV gentamicin
D IV colistin
E Nebulised Colistin
Explanation 
B IV ceftazidime
Standard treatment is with a third-generation cephalosporin such as ceftazidime, meropenem

or aztreonam, used in combination with gentamicin if required. Pseudomonas aeruginosa is
resistant to amoxicillin.
A IV ticarcillin plus IV gentamicin
Ticarcillin is primarily used against urinary Pseudomonas infections rather than respiratory
infections.
C IV gentamicin
IV gentamicin can be an adjunct to meropenem in Pseudmonas infection but unsuitable on its

own. In urinary infections, gentamicin can be used as monotherapy but it is generally
otherwise used in combination.
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 8:15 PM
D IV colistin
Colistin is an effective antibiotic against most Gram-negative bacilli. It can be used as last-line
treatment against Pseudomonas, Klebsiella and Acinetobacter infections in the presence of
multi-drug resistance. It is generally not used due to its renal toxicity. This makes it
inappropriate at this stage for this patient.
E Nebulised Colistin
Nebulised treatments, such as aminoglycosides and colistin, can be used for prevention of a
flare-up in a patient colonised with Pseudomonas aeruginosa, and their use as prophylactic
therapy has been shown to improve lung function in patients with cystic fibrosis, but this not
adequate as a treatment for acute infection.
2321
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MyPastest 31/05/2021, 8:16 PM
A 27-year-old pregnant lady is referred to the Emergency Admission for sudden development
of shortness of breath. She was well until 2 days ago when she developed shortness of
breath. She has some slight left-sided chest pains, but no cough or haemoptysis. She is 28
weeks pregnant and has had no problems with the pregnancy. There is no history of long
flights or swelling of her legs.
On examination, she appears anxious with a blood pressure of 110/60 mmHg, pulse rate of
92/min and a respiratory rate of 26/min. Her oxygen saturation on air is 98%. Her abdomen is
distended and fetal movements are seen. Her chest is clinically clear. Her cardiovascular and
lower limb examinations are unremarkable.
150–400 ×
10 9/l
135–145
mmol/l

89 fl 76–98 fl
(MCV)
C-reactive protein (CRP) 6.0 mg/l < 10 mg/l
D-dimers 0.62 mg/l < 0.25 mg/l
pH 7.48 7.35–7.45
pa(O 2) on air 13.7 kPa 10.5–13.5 kPa
pa(CO 2) on air 3.9 kPa 4.6–6.0 kPa
Chest X-Ray (CXR) No focal abnormality
Low probability of pulmonary embolism

V/Q scan (PE)
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 8:16 PM
What would be the most appropriate step in her immediate management?
A Commence low-molecular weight heparin
B Commence warfarin
C Arrange for her discharge
D Commence low-dose aspirin
E Thrombolysis
Explanation 
C Arrange for her discharge
A low-probability V/Q scan has a low clinical suspicion of pulmonary emboli (PE) and should
prompt a search for another cause for the patient’s symptoms. The slightly elevated pH, with
O 2 towards the upper end of the normal range, accompanied by low CO 2 are more
suggestive of mild hyperventilation and anxiety. Taking these facts into account, it is safe to
facilitate discharge.
A Commence low-molecular weight heparin
There is no indication here for anticoagulation given the V/Q scan result.
B Commence warfarin
There is no indication for anticoagulation taking into account the V/Q result, and warfarin is
not advised in early or in very late pregnancy.
D Commence low-dose aspirin
There is no indication for anti-platelet therapy, and even if there were evidence of
thromboembolic disease, aspirin is not an effective intervention.
E Thrombolysis
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 8:16 PM
Both thoracotomy with embolectomy and thrombolysis can be considered for pregnant
women with massive pulmonary embolism, although that isn’t the diagnosis here.
7511
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Thromboembolic Disease in Pregnancy and the Puerperium: Acute Management

rcog.org.uk/globalassets/documents/guidelines/gtg-37b.pdf
(https://www.rcog.org.uk/globalassets/documents/guidelines/gtg-37b.pdf)
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 8:16 PM
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MyPastest 31/05/2021, 8:17 PM
A 39-year-old man presented to his GP with a 3-month history of fever, rhinitis and weight
loss. Two weeks ago he had an exacerbation of asthma and was treated with a course of
erythromycin. He also complained of weakness in his hands and legs. He has a past medical
history of angina. He is an ex-smoker and stopped 5 years ago.
On examination he has a rash on his shins, shown below.
Auscultation of his chest reveals a mild expiratory wheeze. Examination was otherwise
unremarkable. Urinalysis was normal.
Investigations:
Neutrophils 5.3 × 10 9/l 1.5 - 7.0 × 10 9/l
Lymphocytes 1.8 × 10 9/l 1.0 - 4.0 × 10 9/l
Monocytes 0.3 × 10 9/l 0.0 - 0.8 × 10 9/l
Basophils 0.08 × 10 9/l < 0.1 × 10 9/l
Eosinophils 1.9 × × 10 9/l 0.04 - 0.4 × 10 9/l
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 8:17 PM
Platelets (PLT) 411 × 10 9/l 150 - 400 × 10 9/l
A Microscopic polyangiitis
B Granulomatosis with polyangiitis
C Eosinophilic pneumonia secondary to erythromycin
D Eosinophilic granulomatosis with polyangiitis (EGPA)
E Allergic bronchopulmonary aspergillosis
Explanation 
D Eosinophilic granulomatosis with polyangiitis (EGPA)
The patient has systemic symptoms, asthma, eosinophils >1.5 × 10 9/l and evidence of
vasculitis in two or more non-lung organs (Lanham’s criteria):
Cutaneous vasculitis (see picture)

Mononeuritis multiplex
A cardiac history.
The American Criteria of Rheumatology require four out of six of the following to be present
for a diagnosis of Eosinophilic granulomatosis with polyangiitis (EGPA):
The presence of asthma

Eosinophils >10% in the peripheral blood
Evidence of a neuropathy in a vasculitic pattern, e.g. mononeuritis multiplex
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 8:17 PM
Transient pulmonary infiltrates

A history of sinus disease
Evidence of intravascular eosinophils on biopsy.
Renal involvement in EGPA syndrome is very rare.
A Microscopic polyangiitis
Microscopic polyangiitis is associated with renal disease. The absence of any evidence of
glomerulonephritis counts against this as the underlying diagnosis.
B Granulomatosis with polyangiitis
Granulomatosis with polyangiitis is associated with glomerulonephritis, which has not been
demonstrated here.
C Eosinophilic pneumonia secondary to erythromycin
The symptoms preceded erythromycin administration, making eosinophilic pneumonia

unlikely.
E Allergic bronchopulmonary aspergillosis
Allergic bronchopulmonary aspergillosis usually occurs in asthmatics, but would not produce
the signs and symptoms of vasculitis as in this patient, including the obvious skin lesions.
70091
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MyPastest 31/05/2021, 8:19 PM
A 71-year-old white man is admitted to your ward with a 3-day history of pleuritic right-sided
chest pain, cough productive of green sputum, shortness of breath and a fever. He has
smoked 20 cigarettes a day for 50 years and is usually fit and well. He has no penicillin
allergy.
On examination, he is alert, has a fever of 38.1 °C and a respiratory rate of 40/min. He is
tachycardic, pulse 120/min and his blood pressure is 86/61 mmHg. On chest auscultation, he
has coarse inspiratory breath sounds and bronchial breathing in the right lower lobe.
Investigations:
C-reactive protein (CRP) 314 µg/l < 10 mg/l
Platelets (PLT) 534 × 10 9/l 150 - 400 × 10 9/l
Chest X-ray shows shadowing in the right lower zone and blunting of the right heart border.
You want to start this patient on medication for his pneumonia.

Which of the following antibiotics/antibiotic combinations would be a reasonable
choice for treatment?
A IV cefuroxime 1.5 g tds
B Oral co-amoxiclav 625 mg tds + oral clarithromycin 500 mg bd
C IV levofloxacin 500 mg od and oral rifampicin 600 mg od
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 8:19 PM
D IV co-amoxiclav 1.2 g tds and PO clarithromycin 500mg BD
E IV ciprofloxacin 400 mg bd
Explanation 
D IV co-amoxiclav 1.2 g tds and PO clarithromycin 500mg BD
This patient has severe community-acquired pneumonia (CAP) as defined by a CURB 65

score of 4. British Thoracic Society (BTS) guidelines have recommended that all patients with
pneumonia are assessed using CURB 65. Where possible clarithromycin should be given
orally due to the risk of phlebitis with IV route.
Patients get 1 point each for
confusion
urea >7 mmol/l
respiratory rate >30/min
blood pressure <90 mmHg systolic and 60 mmHg diastolic and
patient older than 65.
Scores 3+ indicate high mortality.
Treatment for severe CAP is of course driven by local antibiotic protocols but an acceptable
choice of antibiotics would be the combination of co-amoxiclav and clarithromycin delivered
IV as a first-line option.
A IV cefuroxime 1.5 g tds
IV cefuroxime can be used for severe sepsis with oral clarithromycin if the patient is penicillin
allergic.
B Oral co-amoxiclav 625 mg tds + oral clarithromycin 500 mg bd
This treatment option could be considered for mild to moderate community-acquired

pneumonia if amoxicillin had recently been used and shown to be ineffective.
C IV levofloxacin 500 mg od and oral rifampicin 600 mg od
Rifampicin can be added if a staphylococcal cause of pneumonia is suspected.
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 8:19 PM
A 2019 UK government drug safety update advises that fluoroquinolones should now be
avoided in mild to moderate infections unless other commonly recommended antibiotics are
not suitable. This is due to rare reports of long lasting or potentially irreversible side effects
such as tendinitis and peripheral neuropathy. Fluoroquinolones should be used with special
caution in patients older than 60 years or those with renal impairment; treatment should be
discontinued promptly at fist signs of serious adverse reactions.
E IV ciprofloxacin 400 mg bd
Ciprofloxacin is effective against Pseudomonas but has little use in the empirical treatment of
CAP.
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MyPastest 31/05/2021, 8:19 PM
Overview
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MyPastest 31/05/2021, 8:20 PM
A 41-year-old woman presented with fatigue, joint aches and dry, painful, red eyes.
Routine blood testing reveals a calcium level just above the upper end of the normal range. A
biopsy of one of her skin lesions was taken.
Which enzyme is activated by macrophages in this condition?
A Lactate dehydrogenase
B 1-alpha hydroxylase
C Lysozyme
D Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 8:20 PM
E Acid phosphatase
Explanation 
B 1-alpha hydroxylase
1-alpha hydroxylase is activated by macrophages in sarcoid granulomas (the diagnosis here),

and converts 25-hydroxyvitamin D3 to 1,25-dihydroxyvitamine D3, the active form of the
vitamin. Absorption of calcium from the gut increases as a consequence as does renal
calcium reabsorption from the distal tubule.
A Lactate dehydrogenase
Lactate dehydrogenase is raised in myonecrosis, haematological malignancies and in patients

with haemolysis.
C Lysozyme
Lysozyme is an enzyme which drives bacterial cell wall lysis, it is not involved in the
pathogenesis of sarcoidosis.
D Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase
Deficiency of G-6PD leads to red cell haemolysis in the presence of drugs which act as
oxidising agents.
E Acid phosphatase
Acid phosphatase is used as a marker for prostate cancer.

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MyPastest 31/05/2021, 8:21 PM
A 64-year-old man comes to the Respiratory Clinic for review. He has been referred by his
General Practitioner because of increasing shortness of breath due to chronic obstructive
pulmonary disease (COPD). He continues to smoke ten cigarettes per day.
A few years ago, he had a trial of oral steroids which did lead to a positive impact on his peak
flow, and he reports being diagnosed with asthma as a child. His most recent forced
expiratory volume in 1 second (FEV 1) is 40% of predicted, and he can walk only 50 m to the
local bus stop.
Current medications include a salbutamol inhaler as needed (prn) and carbocisteine.
Examination reveals a blood pressure of 135/82 mmHg and a pulse of 78 bpm and regular. He
has signs of right heart failure.
Which of the following is most appropriate to reduce the risk of future

exacerbations?
A Long-acting beta agonist (LABA) and long-acting muscarinic antagonist (LAMA)
B Short-acting muscarinic antagonist (SAMA)
C Long-term oxygen therapy (LTOT)
D LABA and high-dose inhaled corticosteroid (ICS)
E Theophylline
Explanation 
D LABA and high-dose inhaled corticosteroid (ICS)
In clinical trials, the combination of LABA and high-dose ICS has shown an ability to reduce
the frequency of exacerbations, although this is at the expense of an increase in the risk of
pneumonia. As evidence has developed from large intervention trials comparing LABA +
LAMA to LABA + ICS, it has become apparent that LABA + ICS is the most effective in
patients who have asthmatic features/features of steroid responsiveness in their disease, as is
seen here.
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 8:21 PM
A Long-acting beta agonist (LABA) and long-acting muscarinic antagonist (LAMA)
LABA and LAMA in combination is the intervention of choice for patients with symptomatic
COPD where there are no features of asthma or steroid responsiveness.
B Short-acting muscarinic antagonist (SAMA)
Ipratropium may improve symptoms, but it does not have a positive impact on outcomes in
COPD, so that it would not represent the intervention of choice.
C Long-term oxygen therapy (LTOT)
LTOT improves mortality by reducing progression of right heart failure and pulmonary
hypertension rather than by reducing exacerbations, but its use is less than desirable in
patients who continue to smoke because of fire risk.
E Theophylline
Theophylline may improve symptoms, but it does not improve mortality in COPD and
increases the risk for atrial arrhythmias in patients who take it. Inhaled beta agonists are the
preferred option.
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 External Links
National Institute for Health and Care Excellence. 2019. Chronic obstructive pulmo
pulmo……
nice.org.uk/guidance/ng115/resources/visual-summary-treatment-algorithm-pdf-6604261741
(https://www.nice.org.uk/guidance/ng115/resources/visual-summary-treatment-
algorithm-pdf-6604261741)
Overview
Management
Prognosis
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 8:26 PM
A 54-year-old patient presents to the General Medical Clinic. He has a 6-month history of
slowly worsening breathlessness and is finding it more difficult to carry out daily activities. He
denies any chest pain but has an occasional cough, during which he brings up some sputum.
He is an ex-smoker with a 15 pack-year history. He has a minimal alcohol history. He travelled
to the USAs last year. He has not been in contact with anyone with known tuberculosis. He
has a long history of working as an electrician since he was 18 years old, but has lately
struggled with his work due to breathlessness.
On examination, he has reduced air entry on the right lower lobe. There is also a slight
general wheeze.
His hands are pictured below.
A chest X-ray demonstrates a small-to-moderate right-sided pleural effusion and evidence of

multiple pleural plaques.
Which investigation is most likely to differentiate between benign and malignant

disease?
A Pleural biopsy
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 8:26 PM
B Pleural aspiration for cytology
C Computed tomography (CT) chest with contrast
D Liver function tests
E Blood film
Explanation 
A Pleural biopsy
This patient has a long history of a profession associated with asbestos exposure and has
developed breathlessness. In addition, there are pleural plaques which are highly suggestive
of asbestos-related disease. The presence of a pleural effusion and clubbing raises the
possibility of malignant mesothelioma.
B Pleural aspiration for cytology
Pleural aspiration can be done for this patient as he is symptomatic with a pleural effusion.
However, the cytology from aspiration has a high rate of false-negative results. Therefore, it is
important to send a large volume to be centrifuged to allow for a better yield. Because of
this, the most definitive diagnosis is a biopsy which has a much lower rate of false-negative
results.
C Computed tomography (CT) chest with contrast
A CT will be helpful to delineate any masses, but it will still struggle to differentiate between a
malignant and a benign lesion unless there is clear evidence of metastatic or invasive disease.
This is unusual with mesotheliomas, and therefore a biopsy would be more appropriate. In
addition, the patient is relatively young and should be able to tolerate a biopsy.
D Liver function tests
Liver function tests can be useful and if severely deranged can indicate liver metastases;
however, this is unusual for mesotheliomas and highly non-specific.
E Blood film
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 8:26 PM
A blood film would be unlikely to give any abnormal results. It would be far more useful if
acute haematology malignancy was suspected, such as in the presence of lymph nodes or
night sweats.
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MyPastest 31/05/2021, 8:26 PM
Management
Prognosis
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 8:27 PM
A 62-year-old cleaner comes to the Respiratory Clinic complaining of increasing shortness of

breath and a persistent cough. She used to work sweeping up for a plumber and boiler maker.
She has begun to get tired while walking the dog, which is spoiling the enjoyment of her time
off. She smokes five cigarettes per day.
On examination, she is finger-clubbed and you can hear fine end-inspiratory crackles.
Platelets (PLT) 210 × 10 9/l 150–400 × 10 9/l
Forced expiratory volume in 1 s (FEV 1) 2.7
Forced vital capacity (FVC) 3.1
Chest X-ray (CXR) Shown below
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 8:27 PM
A Asthma
B Solderer’s lung
C Asbestosis
D Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 8:27 PM
E Idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis
Explanation 
C Asbestosis
The clue is very clear that, in her work at a plumbers, this woman is likely to have had
significant exposure to asbestos. The chest X-ray findings of bilateral pleural plaques also
point towards asbestos exposure. High-resolution computed tomography (CT) is important to
confirm pulmonary fibrosis, and pulse oximetry normally reveals a degree of hypoxaemia.
Despite extensive trials, neither corticosteroids nor second-line immunomodulatory agents
have any significant impact on the course of the disease.
A Asthma
The chest X-ray findings here are consistent with early pulmonary fibrosis related to asbestos
exposure, and FEV 1/FVC is 87%.
B Solderer’s lung
Solderer’s lung is a cause of occupational asthma but does not result in the pleural plaques
seen on chest X-ray here, nor the reticulo-nodular pulmonary shadowing.
COPD leads to obstruction on pulmonary function testing and is not associated with the
chest X-ray changes seen here.
Idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis is a diagnosis of exclusion, and this patient’s job working with a
plumber is associated with a high risk of asbestos exposure. The pleural plaques on chest X-
ray do confirm previous exposure to asbestos fibres.
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MyPastest 31/05/2021, 8:30 PM
You are seeing a patient on the surgical wards as a medical referral. He has had a lymph node
dissected from his neck for possible recurrent head and neck cancer. On his postoperative
chest X-ray, he has a moderate pleural effusion, which on aspiration drains white, milky fluid.
What is the likely diagnosis of the cause of the effusion?
A Empyema
B Mesothelioma
C Chylous effusion
D Reactive effusion
E Malignant effusion
Explanation 
C Chylous effusion
A chylous effusion is suggested by the white milky fluid aspirated on thoracocentesis.

Cardiothoracic and head or neck surgery, including excision of cervical lymph nodes, can
result in damage to the thoracic duct resulting in a chylothorax. To confirm the diagnosis, test
for pleural fluid triglycerides and cholesterol levels.
A Empyema
Aspiration of frankly purulent fluid would indicate an empyema.
B Mesothelioma
Though mesothelioma can present with a pleural effusion alone, the history in this case is not
suggestive of this diagnosis.
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 8:30 PM
D Reactive effusion
You would not aspirate white, milky fluid in a reactive effusion. The fluid may be cloudy or
even slightly clear. Reactive effusions are principally lymphocytic infiltrates secondary to the
movement of interstitial fluid. The underlying aetiology is varied, and includes congestive
heart failure and collagen vascular disease.
E Malignant effusion
Malignant effusions can present as either serous or serosanginous fluid.

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MyPastest 31/05/2021, 8:30 PM
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MyPastest 31/05/2021, 8:32 PM
A 70-year-old farmer is admitted with a 4-day history of feeling increasingly short of breath.
He tells you he was kicked by a cow and was laid up with a swollen leg before the symptoms
started. On examination there is extensive bruising and haematoma around the left knee, and
the leg is more swollen than the right. He has bilateral basal crackles and occasional wheezes
on inspiration, blood pressure (BP) is 110/80 mmHg and pulse is 105 and regular; oxygen
saturations 89–91% on pulse oximetry. Chest X-ray reveals nil of note.
Which of the following represents the best treatment choice for this man?
A Oral prednisolone
B Anticoagulation
C Intravenous furosemide
D Nebulised salbutamol
E Penicillin IV
Explanation 
B Anticoagulation
We are presented here with a patient who has had a blow to the knee, a period of inactivity
and now has hypoxia with circulatory compromise with no signs of severe asthma or heart
failure seen on examination or X-ray. Given the differential leg size, pulmonary embolus is the
most likely diagnosis and anticoagulation the treatment of choice. The injury to the knee is
some days old, and therefore anticoagulation is unlikely to result in increased size of the knee
haematoma. He may well also have other lung disease related to his farming occupation that
accounts for the wheezes and crackles heard on auscultation.
A Oral prednisolone
This would be an appropriate treatment for an exacerbation of asthma or COPD. The lack of
significant wheeze counts against asthma as the cause of his symptoms here.
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 8:32 PM
C Intravenous furosemide
This would be an appropriate treatment for cardiac failure/pulmonary oedema. The normal
CXR counts against heart failure as the likely cause of his symptoms here.
D Nebulised salbutamol
This would be an appropriate treatment for an exacerbation of asthma or COPD. The lack of
significant wheeze, and relatively acute onset of symptoms, counts against asthma or COPD
as the underlying cause of this patient’s symptoms.
E Penicillin IV
This would be an appropriate treatment for pneumonia. The negative chest X-ray and
absence of features such as pyrexia and raised inflammatory markers makes pneumonia a less
likely diagnosis in this case.
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MyPastest 31/05/2021, 8:32 PM
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MyPastest 31/05/2021, 8:33 PM
A 45-year-old farmer comes to the Respiratory Clinic for review. He has been diagnosed by
the GP as having asthma, for which he is treated with high-dose fluticasone/salmeterol and
salbutamol ,without significant improvement in his symptoms. Examination reveals a BP of
122/72 mmHg, with pulse 70/min and regular. There is scattered wheeze and coarse crackles
on auscultation of the chest. Respiratory function tests show an obstructive picture. A
thoracic HRCT shows bilateral centrally dilatated thickened airways with ‘signet rings’.
Which of the following tests would be most useful to confirm the suspected
diagnosis?
A IgE
B IgG
C ANCA
D ANA
E C3 and C4
Explanation 
A IgE
The HRCT changes described are classical of proximal bronchiectasis. The diagnosis is
therefore allergic bronchopulmonary aspergillosis (ABPA). The total IgE will be raised in
ABPA, especially during a flare-up, and therefore represents the preferred investigation.
B IgG
IgG can be low in bronchiectasis secondary to hypogammaglobulinaemia, although

presentation for the first time at an earlier age would be expected because of recurrent
respiratory tract infection.
C ANCA
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 8:33 PM
ANCA is most likely to be elevated in vasculitis. Eosinophilic vasculitis (Churg–Strauss) is

associated with more features than just worsening of asthma, including skin lesions and
mononeuritis, which aren’t seen in this scenario.
D ANA
ANA is raised in connective tissue disease such as SLE, although there are no other features
to suggest connective tissue disease as the underlying diagnosis.
E C3 and C4
Complement factors are consumed most when there is active tissue inflammation, such as
with SLE. The absence of other features such as glomerulonephritis counts against C3 and C4
as being useful here.
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MyPastest 31/05/2021, 8:33 PM
Overview
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Prognosis
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 8:34 PM
A 44-year-old man presented with a rash on his legs and feeling generally unwell with
malaise, weight loss and fevers. He also had recently noticed some loss of sensation over the
top of his right foot, with the foot-dragging when he walked. He had been diagnosed with
asthma by his general practitioner many years ago and used a salbutamol inhaler as required.
He also had a constant watery nasal discharge, but no epistaxis. He was a non-smoker.
On examination, he had low-grade pyrexia and scattered wheeze in his chest. Heart sounds
were normal. His abdomen was soft and non-tender, with no masses. He had a purpuric rash
on his lower limbs and several tender subcutaneous nodules on his forearms. He had a right
foot drop but no other neurological abnormalities.
Platelets (PLT) 390 × 10 9/l 150–400 × 10 9/l
Neutrophils 6.2 × 10 9/l 1.5–7.0 × 10 9/l
Eosinophils 2.2 × 10 9/l 0.04–0.4 × 10 9/l
Monocytes 1.6 × 10 9/l 0.0–0.8 × 10 9/l
Basophils 0.1 × 10 9/l < 0.1 × 10 9/l
Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) 82 mm/h 1–20 mm/hour
Gamma-glutamyl transferase (GGT) 42 IU/l 5–30 IU/l
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 8:34 PM
Antinuclear antibody (ANA) Negative
Anti-neutrophil cytoplasmic antibody

Positive
(pANCA)
Urinalysis Normal
Patchy shadowing at hilar regions,

Chest X-ray (CXR)
small pleural effusion
A Systemic lupus erythematosus
B Polyarteritis nodosa
C Eosinophilic granulomatosis with polyangitis
D Anti-GBM disease
E Granulomatosis with polyangitis
Explanation 
C Eosinophilic granulomatosis with polyangitis
This man presents with the classic triad of asthma, eosinophilia and systemic vasculitis. There
is usually a prodromal period for many years consisting of allergic rhinitis and late-onset
asthma, which can be difficult to control.
The chest X-ray may show nodules, transient hilar lymphadenopathy and pulmonary
infiltrates. There may also be pleural or pericardial effusions. Mononeuritis multiplex can
occur. Anti-neutrophil cytoplasmic antibody (ANCA) is positive in approximately 40% of
cases. Renal involvement is rare. Treatment is with high-dose corticosteroids, azathioprine or
cyclophosphamide.
A Systemic lupus erythematosus
Although SLE is associated with an erythematous rash on sun-exposed areas, the

eosinophilia, negative ANA and positive pANCA would be unusual for a diagnosis of lupus.
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 8:34 PM
B Polyarteritis nodosa
pANCA is classically not positive in patients with PAN. In addition, the symptoms of
significant asthma poorly responsive to conventional therapies, and eosinophilia, are
inconsistent with a diagnosis of PAN.
D Anti-GBM disease
This presents with rapidly progressive pulmonary and kidney disease, accompanied by
haemoptysis and kidney disease due to glomerulonephritis. Eosinophilia isn’t a feature, nor is
mononeuritis multiplex.
E Granulomatosis with polyangitis
This is associated with pulmonary and renal vasculitis with haemoptysis and a progressive
rise in serum creatinine. There is usually sinusitis. cANCA rather than pANCA is more likely to
be positive, and eosinophils are not elevated.
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MyPastest 31/05/2021, 8:35 PM
A 62-year-old man presents with a cough and shortness of breath which has increased in
severity over the course of the past four days. The cough is productive with rusty-
coloured/pus-stained sputum. He has a past history of mild asthma, for which he takes a
salbutamol and beclometasone inhaler. He is pyrexial at 38.2 °C. His pulse is 89 bpm and
regular, and his blood pressure is 105/72 mmHg. There are signs of right-sided consolidation
on auscultation. You notice a cold sore on his right upper lip.
Investigations:
Haemoglobin (Hb) 13.2 g/dl 13.5–17.5 g/dl
Platelets (PLT) 288 × 10 9/l 150–400 × 10 9/l
Chest X-ray: Right lower lobe consolidation.
A Haemophilus influenzae
B Klebsiella
C Legionella pneumophilia
E Staphylococcus aureus
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 8:35 PM
Explanation 
Pneumococcal pneumonia is the most common cause of community-acquired pneumonia in

percentage terms and is often associated, as in this case, with the presence of cold sores. The
treatment of choice is use of co-amoxiclav and clarithromycin in combination, as per the
British Thoracic Society (BTS) guidelines.
H. influenzae is characteristically seen as a cause of infectious exacerbations of chronic

obstructive pulmonary disease. It does not fit with the rusty-coloured sputum and cold sores
here.
B Klebsiella
Klebsiella is a cause of cavitating pneumonia in patients who are immunocompromised, eg

with a history of chronic alcohol abuse. It does not fit with the scenario here.
C Legionella pneumophilia
Legionella infection is associated with atypical pneumonia, including marked pyrexia,

diarrhoea, abnormal liver function and hyponatraemia, which are not features seen here.
Like Klebsiella, S. aureus infection is associated with cavitating pneumonia. It occurs most
commonly after influenza infection.
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MyPastest 31/05/2021, 8:37 PM
A 63-year-old man is reviewed in the Respiratory Clinic some 6 weeks after his latest
admission with an exacerbation of COPD. He is currently managed by his GP with Fluticasone
250mcg inhaled BD and PRN Salbutamol, and has finished a reducing course of oral
corticosteroids in the past few weeks. He is still significantly short of breath and is unable to
walk more than 100 metres without stopping despite having given up smoking. On
examination his BP is 155/85 mmHg, pulse is 70/min, (atrial fibrillation), auscultation of the
chest reveals bilateral poor air entry and fine wheeze consistent with emphysema. O 2
saturation is 93% on air.
Investigations;
Hb 131 g/l
WCC 7.4 x10 9/l
PLT 181 x10 9/l
Na + 137 mmol/l
K+ 4.5 mmol/l
Glucose 5.6 mmol/l
ECG inferior Q waves, pulse 70 atrial fibrillation
CXR Evidence of emphysema
FEV 1/FVC 0.65
FEV 1 35% of predicted
A Add Ipratropium bromide PRN
B Add Theophylline tablets
C Add Tiotropium 18 mcg
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 8:37 PM
D Increase inhaled Beclomethasone to 800 mcg per day
E Start home oxygen therapy
Explanation 
C Add Tiotropium 18 mcg
The answer is Add Tiotropium 18 mcg -

Under GOLD guidelines this patient has severe COPD. As such either a high dose inhaled
corticosteroid combined with long-acting beta agonist, or a long-acting anti-cholinergic such
as Tiotropium would be the most appropriate next step. Both Tiotropium and ICS/LABA have
good data in COPD with respect to lung function and quality of life, although the ICS/LABA
combo is associated with increased risk of pneumonia.
A Add Ipratropium bromide PRN
Add Ipratropium bromide PRN, is incorrect because although short acting anti-cholinergics
can improve symptoms, they do not impact on prognosis.
B Add Theophylline tablets
Add Theophylline tablets, is incorrect because whilst they can impact on symptoms, they do
not impact on prognosis and may increase the risk of fast AF, particularly in a patient with
rate controlled AF, as here.
D Increase inhaled Beclomethasone to 800 mcg per day
Increase inhaled Beclomethasone, is incorrect because inhaled steroids alone are not as
effective as high dose ICS/LABA or long acting anti-cholinergics in improving symptoms of
COPD.
E Start home oxygen therapy
Start home oxygen therapy, is incorrect because his COPD therapy is not currently
maximised, given his measured O 2 saturation it is unlikely he is hypoxic on air, and there are
no signs of right heart failure.
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MyPastest 31/05/2021, 8:37 PM
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 8:38 PM
A 55-year-old woman presented with a 6-month history of recurrent chest infections. She had
had a few episodes of wheeze and haemoptysis in the last few weeks. She also noticed
intermittent hot flushes, which her GP had put down to the menopause. These could occur at
any time but on occasions were precipitated by alcohol. She had no significant past medical
history and she had never smoked.
On examination, she was anxious. Examination of her chest revealed reduced expansion of
the upper right zone. Cardiovascular examination revealed a pansystolic murmur. Blood
results were unremarkable.
What investigation is most likely to reveal the diagnosis?
A CT thorax
B Metacholine challenge test
C Urinary 5-hydroxyindoleacetic acid
D Urinary catecholamines
E Sputum culture
Explanation 
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 8:38 PM
C Urinary 5-hydroxyindoleacetic acid
This patient has bronchial carcinoid. It commonly presents between the ages of 50 and 70
and is unrelated to smoking. Bronchial carcinoid tumours are the most indolent form of a
spectrum of neuroendocrine tumours of the lung that include small cell lung cancer as the
most malignant. They are thought to arise from Kulchitsky cells in the bronchial mucosa. They
usually secrete serotonin and arise from the large bronchus. Patients may present with a mass
that is usually centrally located (as in this case – CXR shows right upper lobe collapse), or
with recurrent chest infections, haemoptysis, chest pain and wheeze. Flushing (which may be
precipitated by alcohol, food ingestion, stress or emotion) and diarrhoea may occur. However,
patients are commonly asymptomatic and the tumour is found incidentally.
Carcinoid syndrome occurs when there are secondary tumours in the liver that release
serotonin into the systemic circulation. However, symptoms of carcinoid syndrome may rarely
occur in bronchial carcinoid in the absence of metastases, as the bronchial tree drains into
the systemic circulation.
Diagnosis is by detection of 5-hydroxyindoleacetic acid (the metabolite of serotonin) in the

urine, and bronchial carcinoid is usually seen and diagnosed by bronchoscopy and biopsy.
The treatment of choice for bronchial carcinoid is surgical resection. Flushing may be
controlled with somatostatin analogues.
Pellagra may occur due to tumour uptake of tryptophan, the precursor of nicotinic acid.
A CT thorax
CT may confirm upper lobe collapse and help visualise any obstructing lesion, but would not
give a definitive diagnosis.
B Metacholine challenge test
This is a test for asthma, which is an unlikely diagnosis based on the clinical features seen
here.
D Urinary catecholamines
This is a test for phaeochromocytoma. Phaeochromocytoma is more likely to present with

paroxysms of hypertension, severe headaches and dysglycaemia.
E Sputum culture
Sputum culture may reveal pulmonary infection due to an obstructed right upper lobe
bronchus, but will not confirm the underlying diagnosis.
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MyPastest 31/05/2021, 8:38 PM
Prognosis
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 8:40 PM
A 56-year-old man presented to his GP with a 4-week history of feeling generally unwell. He
described nasal congestion, with pain under his left eye, flu-like symptoms and lethargy. His
GP made a diagnosis of sinusitis and gave him a course of antibiotics. He did not improve and
developed breathlessness, cough and chest pain. He had previously been fit and his only past
medical history was of an inguinal hernia repair 10 years previously. He worked in a shop. He
smoked 10 cigarettes a day and drank about 10 units of alcohol a week. He was taking no
regular medication.
On examination he looked unwell and pale. Observations: respiratory rate 34/min, BP 140/85
mmHg, pulse 120 bpm, temperature 36.6 °C. He had crusting of his nasal septum. His JVP was
not elevated, and heart sounds were normal. Auscultation of his chest revealed fine crackles
bilaterally. His abdominal and neurological examinations were unremarkable.
Urinalysis:
Protein ++
Blood ++
Nitrites -
Leucocytes -
Bilirubin -
Haematology:
Platelets (PLT) 510 × 10 9/l 150 - 400 × 10 9/l
Urea 21 mmol/l 2.5 - 6.5 mmol/l
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 8:40 PM
Spirometry:
FEV1 72% predicted
FVC 77% predicted
KCO 122% predicted
Which investigation would help make a diagnosis?
A c-ANCA (anti-proteinase 3)
C p-ANCA (anti-myeloperoxidase)
D Legionella antigen
E Echocardiogram
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 8:40 PM
Explanation 
A c-ANCA (anti-proteinase 3)
This is a question about pulmonary–renal syndromes (for a list see below).

The raised KCO and the CXR should make one think of pulmonary haemorrhage. This should
narrow the diagnosis down to a vasculitis, Goodpasture’s syndrome and SLE.
This patient has granulomatosis with polyangiitis. The clinical diagnosis is made by the triad
of upper respiratory tract (nasal polyps and sinusitis), lower respiratory tract and renal
involvement. It is a small-vessel vasculitis associated with granulomas.
The diagnosis of granulomatosis with polyangiitisis is suggested by a positive c-ANCA with

the presence of an antibody to proteinase-3. The chest radiograph usually shows single or
multiple nodules, fixed infiltrates or cavities. Pleural effusions and pulmonary infiltrates may
also been seen. Diagnosis is usually confirmed with a biopsy. If untreated the median survival
is just five months. Treatment is with intravenous cyclophosphamide and prednisolone, which
reduces mortality to approximately 10%. Plasmapheresis would be first-line treatment if the
disease was primarily renal.
Causes of pulmonary–renal syndromes:
Systemic diseases:
Granulomatosis with polyangiitis
Microscopic polyangiitis
Goodpasture syndrome
Systemic lupus erythematosus
Polyarteritis nodosa
Henoch–Schönlein purpura
Churg–Strauss syndrome (renal involvement less common)
Primary pulmonary disease:
Legionella pneumonia and interstitial nephritis
Bacterial pneumonia with renal compromise secondary to sepsis
Others:
Pulmonary oedema with acute kidney disease
Uraemic pneumonitis
Right-sided bacterial endocarditis – may cause pulmonary embolic lesions and
glomerulonephritis
Iatrogenic glomerulonephritis with ciprofloxacin, e.g. in patients given ciprofloxacin for
cystic fibrosis.
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 8:40 PM
Anti-GBM antibodies are seen in Goodpasture syndrome, which isn’t associated with sinusitis;
this drives us away from anti-GBM as the cause of this patient’s symptoms.
C p-ANCA (anti-myeloperoxidase)
p-ANCA is associated with microscopic polyangitis, which isn’t typically associated with
upper respiratory tract disease. Churg–Strauss can be associated with positive p-ANCA,
although it wouldn’t fit here as it’s associated with eosinophilia and asthma symptoms.
D Legionella antigen
This may be positive in Legionella pneumonia, but the subacute course of this patient’s
symptoms counts against Legionnaire’s disease as the underlying diagnosis.
E Echocardiogram
An echocardiogram would not show diagnostic features to confirm diagnosis of

granulomatosis with polyangiitis. It would be of most value if left ventricular failure, rather
than pulmonary infiltration, was suspected.
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MyPastest 31/05/2021, 8:40 PM
Session Progress
Overview
Management
Prognosis
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 8:42 PM
A patient comes to the Emergency Department with difficulty in breathing which started the
previous night. He has difficult giving history, as his lower jaw is painful when he tries to talk.
On examination, he is dyspnoeic, febrile and anxious. His lower jaw is inflamed, swollen,
oedematous and tender.
What is the immediate appropriate step in the management of this patient?
A Examine the inside of his mouth with a spatula
B Request for an urgent chest X-ray
C Take blood cultures
D Take bloods for U/E, full blood count (FBC) and C-reactive protein (CRP)
E Call for an anaesthetist
Explanation 
E Call for an anaesthetist
This patient has most likely got Ludwig’s angina, which is a rapidly spreading, life-threatening
cellulitis of the sublingual and submandibular spaces that usually starts in an infected lower
molar. Airway obstruction may result as the infection spreads to the supraglottic tissues.
A Examine the inside of his mouth with a spatula
This patient’s breathless may be secondary to partial airway obstruction. An anaesthetist

should be called to visualise the airway and institute definitive management as required.
B Request for an urgent chest X-ray
This patient is at significant risk of airway obstruction; therefore management of their airway
is the most appropriate next immediate step.
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 8:42 PM
C Take blood cultures
Following definitive management of the patient’s airway, treatment with intravenous

antibiotics active against streptococci and oral anaerobes should be started.
D Take bloods for U/E, full blood count (FBC) and C-reactive protein (CRP)
Routine bloods will be helpful in tracking the patient’s progress over coming days, but taking
them is not an immediate priority.
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MyPastest 31/05/2021, 8:42 PM
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 8:45 PM
An acutely unwell 62-year-old man is brought to the Emergency Department by his wife.
They had returned from holiday to Spain three days ago. Apart from some mild flu-like
symptoms, he had been otherwise well on returning to the United Kingdom. Over the last 24
hours, he had developed a severe headache, violent shivers and muscle pains. He also had
some abdominal pain, with several episodes of diarrhoea. He had no significant past medical
history and was on no medication. He had consumed some seafood on holiday, but his wife
had eaten the same dish and had no symptoms.
On examination, he was confused and agitated, with a fever of 40 °C. His respiratory rate was
32 bpm, pulse 110 bpm and blood pressure 100/62 mmHg. His heart sounds were normal, and
he had left basal crepitations on chest auscultation. His abdomen was soft and non-
specifically tender, with scanty bowel sounds. There was no focal neurology.
Platelets (PLT) 380 × 10 9/l 150–400 × 10 9/l
Neutrophils 10.2 × 10 9/l 2.5–7.58 × 10 9/l
Lymphocytes 0.5 × 10 9/l 1.5–3.5 × 10 9/l
Monocytes 0.8 × 10 9/l 0.0–0.8 × 10 9/l
Eosinophils 0.4 × 10 9/l 0.04–0.4 × 10 9/l
Basophils 0.1 × 10 9/l < 0.1 × 10 9/l
Gamma-glutamyltransferase (GGT) 65 IU/l 5–30 IU/l
Total calcium (Ca 2+) 2.06 mmol/l 2.20–2.60 mmol/l
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 8:45 PM
Electrocardiogram (ECG) Sinus tachycardia
Urinalysis Blood+++, protein+
By Antonella GrottolaComments to Author , Fabio Forghieri, Marisa Meacci, Anna Fabio,

Lorena Pozzi, Patrizia Marchegiano, Mauro Codeluppi, Monica Morselli, Leonardo Potenza,
Ambra Paolini, Valeria Coluccio, Mario Luppi, Fabio Rumpianesi, and Monica Pecorari [Public
domain], via Wikimedia Commons
What is the most likely causative organism?
A Legionella pneumophila
B Mycoplasma pneumoniae
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 8:45 PM
C Coxiella burnetii (Q fever)
D Salmonella typhi
E Chlamydia pneumoniae
Explanation 
A Legionella pneumophila
This man has the typical features of legionnaires’ disease. Legionella infection is said to be the
cause of between 1 and 5% of adult pneumonias. The organism is a small coccobacillus, which
is not seen on Gram staining and can only be cultured on special media. Infection is spread by
the aerosol route and is usually acquired from contaminated air-conditioning or shower
systems in institutions such as hotels and hospitals. Investigations may show hyponatraemia,
normal or slightly elevated WCC with lymphopenia, hypoalbuminaemia and raised liver
enzymes. Chest X-ray may show either unilobar or multilobar involvement and/or a pleural
effusion. Haematuria and kidney disease can occur. Diagnosis is made by either a fourfold
increase in antibody titre or a highly specific urine antigen test. Macrolides or quinolones with
rifampicin are used in combination for patients with severe infection. Mortality is 15–30%,
particularly in the elderly.
Mycoplasma is associated with a dry cough and pleuritic chest pain, and in some patients, it
may be associated with haemolysis. It is less likely than Legionella to be associated with
gastrointestinal disturbance and is treated with macrolides as the first-line intervention.
C Coxiella burnetii (Q fever)
Coxiella burnetii is a cause of Q fever, with abrupt onset of fever, malaise, profuse sweating,
severe headaches, muscle and joint pains, loss of appetite, dry cough, pleuritic chest pain and
confusion.
D Salmonella typhi
Typhoid fever presents with marked pyrexia and abdominal pain, with bradycardia, rather
than tachycardia, as seen here.
E Chlamydia pneumoniae
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 8:45 PM
Chlamydia presents with nasal stuffiness, a low-grade fever, laryngitis and a slowly worsening
cough that can last for a period of weeks.
9144
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Overview
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 8:45 PM
Management
Prognosis
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 8:46 PM
A 90-year-old man was referred to the clinic with a history of progressive shortness of breath
and dry cough. Eighteen months ago he was able to complete a full round of golf. He has now
stopped playing as he is breathless after walking 200 m. He had been a heavy smoker all his
life. He has no known asbestos exposure. On examination he is breathless at rest. He has a
photosensitive rash on his face and neck. He is clubbed. His pulse is irregularly irregular.
Auscultation of his chest reveals fine inspiratory crackles bi-basally.
Investigations:
Neutrophils 6.1 × 10 9/l 1.5 - 7.0 × 10 9/l
Platelets (PLT) 203 × 10 9/l 150 - 400 × 10 9/l
pH 7.46
PCO 2 4.68 kPa
PO 2 8.8 kPa
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 8:46 PM
Spirometry:
Investigation Result Predicted values
FEV 1 1.1 L 2.0 - 2.4 L
FVC 2.0 L 3.2 - 3.8 L
KCO 74% predicted
What is the likely cause of his breathlessness?
A Bronchial alveolar carcinoma
B Interstitial lung disease
C COPD
D Lymphangioleiomyomatosis
E Pulmonary oedema
Explanation 
B Interstitial lung disease
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 8:46 PM
This man has interstitial lung disease – gradual onset of shortness breath and dry cough. He is
clubbed and has fine inspiratory crackles. Lung function tests show a mixed restrictive /
obstructive picture and he has type I respiratory failure. Chest radiograph shows small lung
fields and reticular nodular shadowing.
The patient has a photosensitive rash on his face, atrial fibrillation and abnormal thyroid
function, suggesting that he is on amiodarone. Interstitial lung disease is an important side
effect of long-term amiodarone administration. Pulmonary fibrosis is a known side effect of
several other drugs, including beta blockers, nirofurantoin and methotrexate.
Diagnosis is made by a combination of clinical findings, lung function tests, CXR, BAL and
high-resolution CT. It is confirmed with a VATS or an open lung biopsy in patients fit to
undergo the procedure.
If there was no obvious cause for the interstitial lung disease and radiology and biopsy
histology were consistent with usual interstitial pneumonia, then idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis
would be the most likely diagnosis.
Interstitial lung disease is an important side effect of long-term amiodarone administration.

Other side effects of amiodarone include:
Hyper- and hypothyroidism

Peripheral sensory neuropathy
Hepatitis
Photosensitivity
Ataxia
Corneal microdeposits (reversible)
Metallic taste
Arrhythmias (torsade de pointes).
Drugs causing interstitial lung disease:
Antibiotics – nitrofurantoin
Cardiovascular – amiodarone, beta-blockers
Chemotherapeutic – bleomycin, busulfan, cyclophosphamide, carmustine, lomustine,
methotrexate, melphalan, mitomycin C, nitrosureas, sulfasalazine, 5-fluorouracil (5FU)
Drugs used to treat rheumatoid arthritis – sulfasalazine, penicillamine,
cyclophosphamide, methotrexate, gold
Drugs used to treat migraine – ergotamine, ergots, methysergide
Others:
bromocriptine
radiation
dothiepin
pesticides
high-flow oxygen.
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 8:46 PM
Causes of lower interstitial lung disease:
Drugs
Connective tissue disease
Asbestosis
Idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis.
A Bronchial alveolar carcinoma
The duration of symptoms is too long for bronchoalveolar cell carcinoma, and this is usually
associated with a productive cough with frothy sputum. The chest radiograph shows
interstitial lung disease.
C COPD
His CXR clearly shows there is more going on than COPD.
D Lymphangioleiomyomatosis
This condition usually affects women in their childbearing years and is associated with cystic
destruction of the lungs.
E Pulmonary oedema
This is a reasonable differential diagnosis based on the history, but the chest radiograph
shows interstitial lung disease, not pulmonary oedema.
70116
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Session Progress
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 8:48 PM
A 72-year-old man is admitted to the Intensive Care Unit with post-influenza pneumonia.
Apparently, he has been ill for the past week with flu-like symptoms and developed a severe
cough productive of purulent sputum over the past 48 hours. He has a past history of
ischaemic heart disease, hypertension and type 2 diabetes and is known to be penicillin-
allergic. Examination reveals a blood pressure of 105/60 mmHg, a pulse of 95 bpm and
regular and a temperature of 38.2 °C. He is intubated and ventilated. There is extensive right-
sided consolidation on auscultation of his chest.
Investigations;
Investigations Results Normal values
Platelets (PLT) 205 × 10 9/l 150–400 × 10 9/l
Chest X-ray (CXR): Extensive right sided consolidation, some left sided basal consolidation.
Which of the following is the most appropriate intervention?
A Clarithromycin
B Doxycycline
C Flucloxacillin
D Linezolid
E Vancomycin
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 8:48 PM
Explanation 
D Linezolid
This patient has severe staphylococcal pneumonia post-influenza. Studies have shown that
linezolid is effective in treating both non-meticillin-resistant and meticillin-resistant
staphylococcal pneumonia. One study of linezolid versus vancomycin showed that linezolid
was associated with more rapid clearance of pneumonia, although no significant difference
was seen in 60-day mortality.
A Clarithromycin
Clarithromycin is less effective than linezolid in the treatment of staphylococcal pneumonia.
B Doxycycline
Doxycycline is less effective than linezolid in the treatment of staphylococcal pneumonia.
C Flucloxacillin
This patient has a penicillin allergy. Therefore, he would be at risk for developing anaphylaxis
if flucloxacillin were to be administered. Flucloxacillin would be the first-line agent for
staphylococcal pneumonia in a patient with no allergies.
E Vancomycin
As discussed above, one study of linezolid versus vancomycin showed that linezolid was
associated with more rapid clearance of pneumonia, although no significant difference was
seen in 60-day mortality. It is therefore reasonable to consider linezolid as first line, as
opposed to vancomycin.
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MyPastest 31/05/2021, 8:48 PM
Session Progress
Overview
Management
Prognosis
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 8:49 PM
A 72-year-old gentleman is referred to the Respiratory Outpatients Clinic with a 2-month

history of increasing shortness of breath and cough. Over the last few weeks, he has coughed
up a few streaks of blood. He has also noticed difficulty getting up from a chair, and that his
clothes have been looser recently without trying to lose weight. He is taking regular inhaler
therapy but is unsure of their names.
are normal.
Investigations:
Platelets (PLT) 491 × 10 9/l 150 - 400 × 10 9/l
Creatinine 125 µmol/l 50 - 120 µmol/l
Phosphate (PO 4 3- ) 0.81 mmol/l 1.1 - 1.45 mmol/l
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 8:49 PM
Which investigations would you organise next to aid diagnosis and treatment?
A Bone scan and bronchoscopy
B CT brain and liver ultrasound
C Bronchoscopy and PTH level
D MRI chest and bone scan
E CT chest/upper abdomen and bronchoscopy
Explanation 
E CT chest/upper abdomen and bronchoscopy
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 8:49 PM
In addition to this suggestive CXR, this man also has clinical features of lung malignancy
weight loss, haemoptysis, dyspnoea and hypercalcaemia.
His investigations and clinical examination also demonstrate evidence of paraneoplastic
syndromes which are associated with certain types of lung cancer:

secretion
the proximal weakness and hyporeflexia which, along with autonomic features,
suggests Lambert-Eaton myasthenic syndrome.
These are seen more frequently with small cell lung cancer. Ectopic ACTH production is also
associated but rare.
Squamous cell carcinoma is associated with:
gynaecomastia
hyperthyroidism
hypertropic pulmonary osteoarthropathy (HPOA) finger-clubbing, periostitis and
arthritis
hypercalcaemia usually secondary to bone metastases, but rarely may be secondary to
secretion of PTH-related peptide.
Common to both:
hypercalcaemia: the corrected calcium here is 2.74 mmol/ , due to bony metastases. If
albumin is <40 g/l, corrected calcium = [Ca 2+] + 0.02 × 40-[alb] mmol/l
clubbing
smoking: he is likely to be a smoker or ex-smoker and have COPD as he is on inhalers.
A histological diagnosis is important, as is accurate staging. Therefore the most appropriate

next investigation would be a bronchoscopy and biopsy, and a staging CT scan. Following
this, a bone scan would be useful to confirm bone metastases. Since this patient has
deranged liver function tests and hypercalcaemia, it is likely he has metastatic disease.
Treatment of small cell lung cancer is primarily palliative with chemotherapy, as metastases
tend to occur early. Surgical resection may be considered in combination with chemotherapy
if it presented as a solitary pulmonary nodule, but this is rare. Palliative care involvement is
important for symptomatic control or if the patient is unsuitable for other treatment options.
A Bone scan and bronchoscopy
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 8:49 PM
While the hypercalcaemia may suggest metastatic disease warranting a bone scan in due
course, NICE guidance recommends that ‘Patients with known or suspected lung cancer
should be offered a contrast-enhanced chest CT scan to further the diagnosis and stage the
disease’; the CT scan should be performed first to stage disease, in association with
bronchoscopy for histological diagnosis.
B CT brain and liver ultrasound
This would represent an inadequate combination of investigations in this case, and would
provide neither histological nor radiological confirmation of the diagnosis. The patient’s
neurological symptoms are more likely caused by paraneoplastic effects than a cerebral
metastasis, and while liver ultrasound may be appropriate to examine for metastases, this
alone would not provide adequate staging of the primary tumour.
C Bronchoscopy and PTH level
While bronchoscopy could provide histological diagnosis, PTH would not be a diagnostic test
for malignancy. NICE guidance recommends that ‘patients with known or suspected lung
cancer should be offered a contrast-enhanced chest CT scan to further the diagnosis and
stage the disease’.
D MRI chest and bone scan
CT scan, rather than MRI, is the recommended imaging modality for staging of lung cancer.
Bronchoscopy is recommended for histological diagnosis.
70132
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 External Links
Lung cancer: diagnosis and management

nice.org.uk/guidance/cg121/
(http://www.nice.org.uk/guidance/cg121/)
Overview
Management
Prognosis
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 8:49 PM
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 8:51 PM
A 62-year-old woman with a history of 30 pack-years of smoking presents with a cough and
haemoptysis. She has been feeling increasingly lethargic over the past few months. On
examination, there is no lymphadenopathy and she looks thin. Auscultation of the chest
reveals wheeze and occasional coarse crackles consistent with a COPD picture.
Normal
values
Haemoglobin 115–155
115 g/l
(Hb) g/l
White cell 4.0–11.0

8.1 × 10 9/l
count (WCC) × 10 9/l
150–
Platelets
224 × 10 9/l 400 ×
(PLT)
10 9/l
Sodium 135–145
134 mmol/l
(Na +) mmol/l
Potassium 3.5–5.0
5.0 mmol/l
(K +) mmol/l
Creatinine 50–120
100 µmol/l
(Cr) µmol/l
Chest X-ray
Right upper lobe tumour
(CXR)
FEV 1 2.0 l
3.5 cm lesion with ipsilateral hilar lymphadenopathy; PET uptake

Staging CT
consistent with ipsilateral lymph node involvement only
Which of the following represents the likely appropriate management?
A Palliative chemotherapy
B Palliative radiotherapy
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 8:51 PM
C Radical radiotherapy
D Surgery
E Radical chemoradiotherapy
Explanation 
D Surgery
The N1 staging seen here, with ipsilateral hilar lymphadenopathy, is not a contraindication to
surgery, with the PET scanning reassuring with respect to the possibility of metastases. This
woman’s lung function also suggests that she would be a potential surgical candidate.
Guidelines suggest that FEV 1 >2.0 l is the cut-off for pneumonectomy. N2 lymph nodes
(ipsilateral mediastinal or sub-carinal involvement), particularly when they are bulky, do
contraindicate surgery.
A Palliative chemotherapy
Palliative chemotherapy for non-small cell lung cancer is thought to at best extend life by
around 2 months. Given this patient’s young age, more aggressive intervention is warranted.
B Palliative radiotherapy
Palliative radiotherapy is considered for stage III and IV non-small cell lung cancer where
surgical resection isn’t an option.
C Radical radiotherapy
Radical radiotherapy is considered for patients with potentially curable lung cancer who are
not fit to undergo surgical resection, for example on grounds of poor lung function or severe
cardiovascular disease.
E Radical chemoradiotherapy
Here, with a curable lesion, surgery is the most appropriate intervention. With regards to
immunotherapy in lung cancer, PD-1 and PDL-1 inhibitors, which help T cells to recognise
cancer cells, are gaining ground in the treatment of the condition.
If she did have more advanced lymph node involvement and was not a surgical candidate,
then combined chemo- and radiotherapy would be the most appropriate option.
21215
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Overview
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 8:51 PM
Management
Prognosis
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 8:52 PM
A 72-year-old gentleman is referred to the Respiratory Outpatients Clinic with a 2-month

history of increasing shortness of breath and cough. Over the last few weeks he has coughed
up a few streaks of blood. He has also noticed difficulty getting up from a chair. He has
noticed that his clothes are looser without having tried to lose weight. He takes inhaled
medication but cannot remember their names.
On examination he is clubbed. Auscultation of his chest reveals reduced expansion and
are normal.
Investigations:
Platelets (PLT) 491 × 10 9/l 150 - 400 × 10 9/l
His chest X-ray is shown;
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 8:52 PM
A Radiotherapy
B Lobectomy
C Pneumonectomy
D Chemotherapy
E Best supportive care
Explanation 
D Chemotherapy
This man has radiological and clinical features suggestive of a lung malignancy weight loss,
haemoptysis, dyspnoea and hypercalcaemia.
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 8:52 PM
He also has features of paraneoplastic syndromes, making small cell lung cancer the most
likely diagnosis in this case:

secretion
the proximal weakness and hyporeflexia which, along with autonomic features,
represents Lambert-Eaton myasthenic syndrome.
Platinum-based combination chemotherapy represents the mainstay of treatment for small

cell lung cancer (SCLC), as per current NICE guidelines, ± radiotherapy dependent on the
stage of the disease at the time of diagnosis or response to chemotherapy. Those with
limited-stage disease, or with extensive disease that shows a complete response to
chemotherapy at distant sites, should be considered for adjunctive radiotherapy. Because
SCLC has a predilection for early metastasis, surgery has a limited role in management in
comparison to other lung cancer subtypes.
A Radiotherapy
Radiotherapy is an inappropriate monotherapy in the treatment of SCLC - chemotherapy is

the most appropriate choice. Some patients may benefit from chemo-radiotherapy
depending on their disease stage and response to chemotherapy.
B Lobectomy
Surgery in the case of widely metastatic SCLC would not provide a curative option, and it
would be inappropriate in this case; chemotherapy represents the treatment of choice.
C Pneumonectomy
Surgery in the case of widely metastatic SCLC would not provide a curative option, and it
would be inappropriate in this case; chemotherapy represents the treatment of choice.
E Best supportive care
SIGN guidelines state that ‘Patients have a high objective response rate to [systemic anti-
cancer therapy], with useful symptomatic improvement’ and therefore it should be at least
considered in all patients with SCLC. Age should not be a factor in itself, but consideration
should be given to best supportive care in those patients with, for example, poor
performance status (WHO PS 3-4) or other life-limiting disease.
70134
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Overview
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 8:52 PM
Management
Prognosis
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 8:53 PM
A 63-year-old man was brought to the Emergency Department by a ‘blue light’ ambulance
after having been found at home by his daughter. It transpires that the daughter had gone
out for 15 min and, upon her return, had discovered her father collapsed but conscious. She
does not live with her father so was not aware of any recent health problems that her father
had, but she knew that he was on medication for blood pressure and his heart. She recalls
that her father was complaining of some retrosternal discomfort earlier after coughing and
bringing up a little blood, and that he was slightly more short of breath than usual. She
reports that he is known to have had a heart attack 6 months previously.
The paramedics have initiated volume replacement and protected the airway. In the casualty
department, clinical examination shows the patient to be dyspnoeic and tachypnoeic, with a
raised JVP. Appropriate bloods are obtained and fluid replacement continued. An ECG is
obtained which shows non-specific ST-T-wave abnormalities .
Unfortunately, shortly after his arrival in the Emergency Department, his condition
deteriorates and he has a cardiac arrest. He is resuscitated and transferred to the ITU where
he is ventilated but his condition continues to deteriorate.
A Haemothorax
B Acute pulmonary embolus
C Left ventricular failure
D Acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS)
E Fat embolus
Explanation 
B Acute pulmonary embolus
Pulmonary embolism (PE) is an often fatal complication of underlying venous thrombosis in

the legs or pelvis. Microthrombi break off and pass through the heart before lodging in the
pulmonary circulation. The classical triad of symptoms of PE – haemoptysis, shortness of
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 8:53 PM
breath and pleuritic chest pain – occur in less than a fifth of patients eventually diagnosed
with PE. Massive PE causes hypotension due to acute right heart failure.
A Haemothorax
A haemothorax typically occurs in the context of trauma, which is not seen in the history
here, and is not as likely a diagnosis as PE in this case.
C Left ventricular failure
Left ventricular failure can occur after an acute myocardial infarction, but this patient’s
symptoms (specifically haemoptysis) and the ECG changes are not suggestive of this
diagnosis.
D Acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS)
ARDS may be caused by lung injury or may occur secondary to a systemic illness such as
sepsis or pancreatitis. ARDS is characterised by respiratory failure not of cardiogenic or
hypovolaemic origin, occurring within 1 week of a precipitating trauma/condition, with the
presence of bilateral opacities on CXR. Clinical features include dyspnoea, tachypnoea,
tachycardia, cyanosis and low pO 2.
E Fat embolus
Fat embolism occurs following trauma to the long bones or pelvis, following parenteral lipid
infusion, or recent corticosteroid administration.
6809
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MyPastest 31/05/2021, 8:53 PM
Session Progress
Overview
Management
Prognosis
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 8:55 PM
A 58-year-old man was referred to the neurology clinic by his general practitioner with a 4-
month history of progressive weakness. He described difficulty walking, with heavy, stiff legs.
He had particular trouble in going upstairs and rising from a chair. He also occasionally had
episodes of double vision. Apart from controlled hypertension, he had no significant past
medical history. He smoked 20 cigarettes per day and drank 16 units of alcohol per week. On
systems enquiry, he also admitted to weight loss of one stone, a persistent cough and a dry
mouth. He reluctantly admitted that he had been having some sexual difficulties with his wife
recently.
On examination, he looked reasonably well. There was no finger clubbing or
lymphadenopathy. Cardiorespiratory examination revealed coarse crackles consistent with
COPD, and abdominal examination was unremarkable. On neurological examination, his tone
and sensation were normal, with no muscle wasting. He had predominantly proximal muscle
weakness and his tendon reflexes were universally absent. Apart from mild bilateral ptosis, his
cranial nerves were intact. Interestingly, his power and reflexes seemed to improve after a
brief period of repetitive exercise of the affected muscle.
Investigations:
Platelets 300 × 10 9/l 150–400 × 10 9/l
Alkaline phosphatase 80 IU/l 30–130 IU/l
γGT 42 IU/l 5–30 IU/l
Which of the following investigations would be the most useful in making a

diagnosis?
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 8:55 PM
A Tensilon (edrophonium) test
B Serum acetylcholine receptor antibodies
C Muscle biopsy
D Anti-calcium channel antibodies
E Serum creatine kinase
Explanation 
D Anti-calcium channel antibodies
This man has Lambert–Eaton myasthenic syndrome (LEMS), which is associated with an
underlying small cell carcinoma of the bronchus. This is a rare paraneoplastic phenomenon
which can precede radiological evidence of the tumour by up to 5 years. LEMS is a
presynaptic disorder of the neuromuscular junction which is caused by antibodies to the
voltage-gated calcium channels of the nerve terminal, leading to failure of acetylcholine
release. The clinical features are proximal muscle weakness and depressed tendon reflexes,
which can return after a few minutes of muscular contraction. Autonomic symptoms are
common. The diagnosis is made electrophysiologically, and auto-antibodies are found in 90%
of cases. Treatment is with 3,4-diaminopyridine, prednisolone and occasionally plasma
exchange.
A Tensilon (edrophonium) test
A tensilon test would be diagnostic for myasthenia gravis, an autoimmune muscle condition
which is associated with fatigueability, ie power and function deteriorate with repeated
testing.
B Serum acetylcholine receptor antibodies
ACh receptor antibodies would be part of the diagnostic testing for myasthenia gravis, an
autoimmune muscle condition which is associated with fatigueability, ie power and function
deteriorate with repeated testing.
C Muscle biopsy
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 8:55 PM
A muscle biopsy would be useful in diagnosing an inflammatory or necrotising myopathy, but

these diagnoses are less likely, given that testing improves with repetition in this patient, and
one would expect power to decline with repeated testing in a myopathy.
E Serum creatine kinase
Raised creatine kinase is a non-specific marker of muscle damage. It can be elevated in, for
example, inflammatory or necrotising myopathy, statin-induced myopathy, myocardial
infarction, rhabdomyolysis or metabolic myopathy.
32404
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
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 8:55 PM
Overview
Management
Prognosis
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 8:56 PM
A 39-year-old Irish accountant was referred to the clinic with a 4-month history of
progressive breathlessness. He noticed this mainly on climbing the stairs. Over the last few
months, he had been using some eye drops from the local pharmacy for dry eyes. He was
also complaining of fatigue, night sweats and polyuria. He was a non-smoker and drank 20
units of alcohol a week.
On examination, he had conjunctival injection, but examination of his eyes was otherwise
unremarkable. He had no rash or joint swelling. On auscultation of his chest, he had fine
inspiratory crackles. Heart sounds were normal. He had no organomegaly on palpation of the
abdomen. Urinalysis was unremarkable.
Investigations:
Platelets (PLT) 201 × 10 9/l 150 - 400 × 10 9/l
TB test -
Pulmonary function tests Results
FEV 1 75% predicted
FVC 70% predicted
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 8:56 PM
TLCO 80% predicted
A Tuberculosis
B Berylliosis
C Small cell lung carcinoma
D Sarcoidosis
E Langerhans cell histiocytosis
Explanation 
D Sarcoidosis
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 8:56 PM
The most likely diagnosis is sarcoidosis. This is a relatively young patient with breathlessness,
dry eyes, fatigue, night sweats and polyuria. He has a normocytic anaemia, a raised ESR and
slightly deranged liver function tests.
Sarcoid is a multi-system granulomatous disorder of unknown aetiology, with a number of

different presentations. It usually presents in those under 40, and is more common in women
and persons of West Indian and African descent. Presentation may be with erythema
nodosum, bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy on chest radiography with fever or arthralgia
(Löfgren syndrome), or more insidiously with symptoms such as dyspnoea, dry cough, fever,
malaise and weight loss. The main differential diagnoses are TB and lymphoma.
The diagnosis is suggested from a chest X-ray and high-resolution CT. High-resolution CT
characteristically shows features such as hilar and mediastinal lymphadenopathy,
peribronchovascular nodules, ground-glass shadowing, parenchymal bands, cysts and
fibrosis.
Pulmonary involvement can be classified according to the radiographic stage of the disease
as below:
Stage 0: Clear chest radiograph

Stage 1: Bihilar adenopathy
Stage 2: Bihilar adenopathy and interstitial infiltrates
Stage 3: Diffuse interstitial disease
Stage 4: Advanced fibrosis.
Transbronchial biopsy is the investigation with the highest yield, as positive results are seen in
90% of patients with pulmonary sarcoidosis. Endobronchial biopsies are also useful but less
sensitive. Histology typically shows non-caseating granulomas composed of macrophages,
lymphocytes and epithelioid histiocytes, which fuse to form multinucleate giant cells.
Serum ACE is not specific, as raised levels are also seen in pulmonary TB, asbestosis, silicosis
and lymphoma. It is elevated in about 75% of patients with untreated sarcoid. The value of
using serum ACE to monitor disease activity remains unclear.
24 h urinary calcium excretion is often raised.

The lung function tests depend on severity of the disease. The tuberculin test is negative in
80% of patients with sarcoidosis, but clinicians must be mindful that anergy can also be seen
in HIV-positive patients or patients who have overwhelming TB.
Treatment is rarely required in stage 0 or 1 disease. Corticosteroids should be given to
patients with stage 2 or higher disease with deterioration in lung function, or patients with
ocular sarcoid, hypercalcaemia, severe or persistent erythema nodosum, or myocardial and
neurological manifestations of sarcoidosis. Prednisolone dose is 0.5 mg/kg for the first four
weeks of treatment and is then down-titrated to the lowest maintenance dose that controls
the disease. Treatment withdrawal should be considered after 6–24 months. Steroid-sparing
agents such as methotrexate or azathioprine may be used for relapsing disease.
Common clinical characteristics of sarcoidosis include:
Skin:
Erythema nodosum – caution, not always on the shins
Lupus pernio – red crusty lesions, often around the nose
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 8:56 PM
Annular lesions
Polyuria:
Secondary to hypercalciuria/hypercalcaemia (can also cause renal calculi and
nephrocalcinosis)
Secondary to central diabetes insipidus
Cardiac:
Ventricular arrhythmias
Conduction defects
Cardiomyopathy
Congestive cardiac failure
Neurological:
Involvement of CNS occurs in 2%
Cranial diabetes insipidus
Ocular:
Anterior uveitis
Conjunctivitis
Retinal lesions
Keratoconjunctivitis sicca and lacrimal gland enlargement
Optic neuritis
Metabolic:
Hypercalcaemia and hypercalciuria
Bone and joints:
Arthralgia
Bone cysts
Others:
Hepatosplenomegaly
Löfgren syndrome (acute sarcodosis) – triad of bihilar lymphadenopathy, arthritis and
erythema nodosum.
A Tuberculosis
We are not given a history of contact with TB, nor a history of fevers. Inflammatory markers
are normal, and tuberculin test is negative (with no history to suggest immunosuppression).
B Berylliosis
There is no history suggestive of beryllium exposure, and bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy is

not a feature of berylliosis.
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 8:56 PM
C Small cell lung carcinoma
The patient is young and is a non-smoker, making SCLC a less likely diagnosis. The chest
radiograph does not show any lung lesion suggestive of a lung malignancy; it shows bilateral
lymphadenopathy and diffuse interstitial infiltrates.
E Langerhans cell histiocytosis
Langerhans cell histiocytosis is a disease more commonly seen in childhood (though is

increasingly recognised in adults), and in those with lung involvement, the majority being
smokers.
70083
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MyPastest 31/05/2021, 8:56 PM
Overview
Management
Prognosis
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 8:58 PM
A 36-year-old man is admitted to the Emergency Department after collapsing while waiting
for his luggage at the local airport. According to a relative, he was complaining of pleuritic
chest pain most marked on the left, shortly before the collapse. He had flown for six hours
from the United States in economy class and has no significant past medical history.
On examination, his blood pressure is 80/60 mmHg and pulse 105 bpm and regular. His
jugular venous pressure (JVP) is markedly elevated. Saturation is 92% on 40% oxygen (O 2) by
mask. His chest is clear. He is obese, although there are no palpable abdominal masses.
He is given a 500-ml bolus of fluid and his blood pressure does not improve significantly.
Arterial blood gases confirm significant hypoxia; electrolyte results are unremarkable. A
portable chest film is normal. The electrocardiogram (ECG) shows an S1, Q3, T3 pattern.
A Aspirin 300mg
B Further fluid loading
C Intravenous (IV) heparin only
D Subcutaneous (SC) low-molecular weight heparin
E Thrombolysis
Explanation 
E Thrombolysis
The suspicion here is of massive pulmonary embolism (PE) witn an imminent cardiac arrest.
As such, thrombolysis is an appropriate next step. The patient is significantly hypoxic, and his
blood pressure has not improved in response to a fluid bolus. According to guidelines,
indications for thrombolysis in massive PE include:
systolic pressure of < 90 mmHg or a drop of > 40 mmHg for longer than 15 minutes if
not caused by a rhythm disturbance
new-onset right heart failure, as evidenced by raised JVP, loud P2 and ECG
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 8:58 PM
abnormalities where there is evidence of thrombus formation on echocardiogram.
A Aspirin 300mg
Antiplatelet agents do not improve the prognosis in massive PE. They do not even have any
useful impact as prophylaxis for PE.
B Further fluid loading
There was no initial impact of fluid loading here, and given this patient’s marked hypotension
and tachycardia, the risk of imminent cardiorespiratory arrest is high.
C Intravenous (IV) heparin only
Treatment with heparin alone is only reasonable in a patient who is haemodynamically stable.
Given this patient’s hypoxia, hypotension and tachycardia, thrombolysis is the only
appropriate option.
D Subcutaneous (SC) low-molecular weight heparin
Like unfractionated heparin, SC heparin is only really an option for patients with stable blood
and pulse and adequate oxygenation.
39759
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MyPastest 31/05/2021, 8:58 PM
Session Progress
Overview
Management
Prognosis
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 9:03 PM
A 67-year-old non-smoker was referred to the Respiratory Consultant with a 3-month history
of progressive shortness of breath. She was also complaining of a right-sided chest pain,
which she described as a constant severe ache. She had lost about 5 kg in the last month and
felt lethargic. She had initially put the symptoms down to the stress of recently being
widowed. Her husband, who used to work as a plumber, died of a ‘lung problem’. She has
never worked outside the home, and has two daughters who are fit and well. On examination
she looked unwell and was breathless at rest. Examination of her chest revealed reduced
expansion, percussion note, vocal fremitus and breath sounds throughout the right
hemithorax.
Investigations:
Platelets (PLT) 471 × 10 9/l 150 - 400 × 10 9/l
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 9:03 PM
A Asbestosis
B Squamous-cell carcinoma
C Pleural adenocarcinoma
D Mesothelioma
E Metastatic adenocarcinoma
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 9:03 PM
Explanation 
D Mesothelioma
The clue is in the question – her husband who has died worked as a plumber. She is a
housewife (she has never worked outside the home), so it is assumed she may have been
exposed to her husband’s overalls and was therefore exposed to asbestos. She has systemic
symptoms as well as a pleural effusion, making the most likely diagnosis malignant
mesothelioma.
Video-assisted thoracoscopy surgery is the investigation of choice as it has the highest

diagnostic yield.
The chest X-ray shows pleural thickening and an effusion on the right. There is a holly-leaf
pleural plaque on the left (directly above the heart to the left of the aortic knuckle),
consistent with previous asbestos exposure. Incidentally, there is pericardial calcification.
A Asbestosis
Whilst the history is suggestive of an asbestos related pathology the history of right chest
pain with radiographic evidence of significant pleural thickening is suggestive of
mesothelioma with chest wall invasion.
B Squamous-cell carcinoma
The lady is a non-smoker with a history to suggestive of asbestos exposure and the chest
radiograph shows significantpleural thickening. All these factors make mesothelioma more
likely than small cell lung cancer.
C Pleural adenocarcinoma
This would be the main differential diagnosis but the probable history of asbestos exposure
makes mesothelioma more likely.
E Metastatic adenocarcinoma
Again, the history is suggestive of asbestos exposure and with the significant unilateral
pleural thickening mesothelioma is the most likely diagnosis.
70096
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Overview
Management
Prognosis
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 9:03 PM
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 9:04 PM
A 32-year-old woman with a history of intravenous drug abuse attends for review. She has a
history of gradually increasing shortness of breath over the past 18 months to 2 years. There
has been associated intermittent fevers and weight loss of some 5 kg. She has tested
negative for hepatitis B some 6 months earlier. On examination there are lower zone
inspiratory crackles.
Investigations reveal haemoglobin (Hb) of 92 g/l and a diffuse increase in immunoglobulins,
renal function testing is normal. Chest X-ray reveals diffuse lower zone alveolar shadowing.
Lung biopsy reveals diffuse interstitial lymphoid infiltrates and pulmonary function tests
suggest a restrictive lung defect.
A Lymphoid interstitial pneumonia
B Idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis
C Viral pneumonia
D Hypersensitivity pneumonitis
E Respiratory bronchiolitis-associated interstitial lung disease
Explanation 
A Lymphoid interstitial pneumonia
Clinical features of lymphoid interstitial pneumonia include gradual-onset breathlessness over

a considerable time, intermittent fevers and weight loss, with inspiratory crackles on
examination. There is mild anaemia with a diffuse increase in immunoglobulins. Chest X-ray
features include lower zone shadowing, and histology reveals lymphoid interstitial infiltrates.
Steroids may improve symptoms, although around one-third of patients progress to extensive
fibrosis. Associations include HIV, connective tissue disease, hepatitis B infection, chronic
active hepatitis and Hashimoto’s thyroiditis.
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 9:04 PM
Idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis implies there is no identified underlying cause; against a

background of IV drug abuse, secondary interstitial lung disease should be excluded before
describing the changes seen here as idiopathic.
C Viral pneumonia
Given the chronic nature of this patient’s symptoms, viral pneumonia is very unlikely to be
responsible.
D Hypersensitivity pneumonitis
Although hypersensitivity pneumonitis may be seen, particularly against a background of

cocaine smoking, it is stated that this patient’s mode of drug abuse is primarily intravenous.
E Respiratory bronchiolitis-associated interstitial lung disease
RBALD is primarily associated with heavy smoking and presents with pigment-loaded
macrophages in the pulmonary infiltrates rather than the lymphocytes seen here.
32439
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MyPastest 31/05/2021, 9:06 PM
A 28-year-old Somalian man presents suffering from increased shortness of breath for the
last 3 months. He has recently returned to the United Kingdom after a visit to his family. He
has a dry, non-productive cough and admits to night sweats over the last 2 weeks. He is a
non-smoker.
On examination, he is thin and not cyanosed at rest. You note multiple enlarged lymph nodes
in the axillae and both groins. There is no finger clubbing. There are no signs on auscultation
of the chest, and the chest X-ray is shown below.
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 9:06 PM
Oxygen saturations reveal the following:
S p(O 2) at rest 98%
S p(O 2) on exertion 82%
What investigation is most likely to provide the diagnosis?
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 9:06 PM
A Pulmonary function tests
C Bronchoalveolar lavage and transbronchial biopsy
D Computed tomography (CT) thorax
E Exercise electrocardiogram (ECG)
Explanation 
C Bronchoalveolar lavage and transbronchial biopsy
The presence of exercise-induced oxygen desaturation in a young person should always raise
the possibility of Pneumocystis jiroveci pneumonia (PCP), particularly in an individual who
has lived in an area where undiagnosed human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) is common.
Pneumocystis jiroveci is traditionally considered a protozoan, although recent data suggest
that it may be taxonomically closer to a fungus. It is a ubiquitous pathogen, and disease most
likely occurs as a result of latent infection acquired via the respiratory route early in life.
Physical examination may reveal fever and tachypnoea, but examination of the chest is
frequently normal. Radiographic features vary considerably, with diffuse, bilateral interstitial
or alveolar infiltrates characteristic, but with unilateral or focal infiltrates and lobar or
segmental consolidation also occurring. In this case, the X-ray shows diffuse bilateral
interstitial changes.
Laboratory findings in PCP are generally unhelpful. Diagnosis can be made by staining
spontaneous or induced sputum samples. In patients with HIV, bronchoalveolar lavage
diagnostic yield approaches 95%, and this can be raised to nearer 100% with the use of
transbronchial biopsy.
By -- Samir ???? 06:38, 14 January 2007 (UTC)

(http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Image:PCP_CAP_CXR.JPG) [GFDL
(http://www.gnu.org/copyleft/fdl.html) or CC-BY-SA-3.0
(http://creativecommons.org/licenses/by-sa/3.0/)], via Wikimedia Commons
A Pulmonary function tests
Pulmonary function tests are likely to reveal decreased transfer factor, consistent with
pulmonary infiltration, and potentially a restrictive defect, although they will not inform as to
the underlying diagnosis.
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 9:06 PM
V/Q scanning may show multiple ventilation scan defects due to pulmonary infiltration, and
there is also likely to be evidence of pulmonary vessel shunting.
D Computed tomography (CT) thorax
CT thorax will confirm areas of infiltration consistent with PCP, although it will not deliver a
microbiological diagnosis.
E Exercise electrocardiogram (ECG)
The hypoxia seen here is not due to cardiac decompensation, and the patient is highly
unlikely to be able to complete the test because of the underlying Pneumocystis infection.
9836
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MyPastest 31/05/2021, 9:06 PM
Overview
Management
Prognosis
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 9:07 PM
A 64-year-old female presents to the Emergency Department with severe shortness of

breath, fever, and a cough productive of rusty-coloured sputum. She has no past medical
history. On auscultation of her chest, crackles are heard at the right base. Her blood pressure
is 110/70 mmHg, she is tachycardic with a pulse rate of 101 beats per minute, her respiratory
rate is 28 breaths per minute and she is pyrexial at 38.2 oC.
Investigations:
Platelets 204 × 10 9/l 150–400 × 10 9/l
Creatinine 110 micromol/l 50–120 µmol/l
P aO 2 8.2 kPa 10.5–13.5 kPa
P aCO 2 6.1 kPa 4.6–6.0 kPa
EGG Sinus tachycardia – 101 beats/min
Which of the following features in the clinical picture would contribute to an

increased CURB-65 score in her case?
A pO2 8.2 kPa
B pCO2 5.9 kPa
C WCC 12.9 × 10 9/l
D Urea 9.0 mmol/l
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 9:07 PM
E Respiratory rate 28/min
Explanation 
D Urea 9.0 mmol/l
The CURB-65 score is a simple additive score ranging from 0–5, based on the presence of
confusion, urea, respiratory rate, blood pressure and age, which can be used to stratify
patients with community-acquired pneumonia into different management groups.
Each of the following features score 1 point:
Confusion (<8/10 score on abbreviated mental teste (AMT))
Urea >7 mmol/l
Respiratory rate >30 breaths/min
Blood pressure – systolic <90 mmHg and/or diastolic <60 mmHg
Age > 65.
Patients with scores of 0 and 1 are at low risk of mortality (<2%) and might be suitable for
management as hospital outpatients or by their general practitioner. Patients with a score of
2 are at intermediate risk of mortality (9%) and should be considered for hospital-supervised
treatment. Patients with a score of >2 are at high risk of mortality (>19%). They should be
treated in hospital. Initial care in an intensive care or high-dependency unit may be
appropriate in those with the highest scores
A pO2 8.2 kPa
Hypoxaemia does not feature in the CURB-65 score. However, patients with hypoxaemia do
have a worse prognosis.
B pCO2 5.9 kPa
Hypercapnia does not feature in the CURB-65 score. However, the presence of co-existing
lung disease is a bad prognostic factor.
C WCC 12.9 × 10 9/l
White cell count does not feature in the CURB-65 score. However, a white cell count above 12
× 10 9/l is a feature of the systemic inflammatory response syndrome (SIRS).
E Respiratory rate 28/min
While respiratory rate does feature in the CURB-65 score, it does not add to the score unless
the respiratory rate is >30 breaths/min
21468
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 External Links
Defining community acquired pneumonia severity on presentation to hospital: an in

in……
ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pubmed/12728155
(https://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pubmed/12728155)
Overview
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 9:07 PM
Management
Prognosis
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 9:09 PM
You review a 26-year-old woman who has been admitted to the neurological ward for
treatment. She complained of ascending symmetrical weakness and loss of sensation
affecting both lower limbs. This began after a diarrhoeal illness. A diagnosis of Guillain–Barré
syndrome was made. She is complaining to the nurses of increasing shortness of breath. You
are aware that a deterioration in respiratory function can predict mortality. She is 50 kg in
weight. FVC on admission was noted to be 1.5 l. You arrange for it to be checked again.
What level of FVC would indicate the threshold for respiratory support?
A 1.5 l
B 1.4 l
C 1.3 l
D 1.0 l
E 0.6 l
Explanation 
D 1.0 l
Deterioration in FVC is closely predictive of deterioration with opportunistic respiratory tract

infection, and associated increased morbidity and mortality. Patients with Guillain–Barré
syndrome should be monitored with regular spirometry. The threshold for increased
respiratory intervention is said to be around 20 ml/kg FVC, which would put this at around 1 l
in this patient. Minimal sedation and aggressive physiotherapy while on the Intensive Care
Unit can serve to reduce the possibility of infection. Overall poor prognosis in Guillain–Barré is
associated with rapid progression of symptoms, advanced age, prolonged ventilation (>1
month) and severe action potential reduction on neuromuscular testing.
A 1.5 l
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 9:09 PM
1.5 l corresponds to around 30 ml/kg FVC, which is above the recommended threshold for
respiratory support.
B 1.4 l
1.4 l is above the level where respiratory support is likely to be required, meaning that
patients may be inappropriately admitted to the High-dependency Unit, putting pressure on
bed space for other patients.
C 1.3 l
1.3 l is around 30% above the level where respiratory support is likely to be required.
E 0.6 l
At 0.6 l FVC, type 2 respiratory failure and pneumonia are possible sequelae. Respiratory
support should happen at the higher threshold of 1.0 l for FVC.
71074
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MyPastest 31/05/2021, 9:09 PM
Overview
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 9:11 PM
A 38-year-old woman comes to the Respiratory Clinic for review of her asthma control. On
her last appointment, she was taking 200 mcg BD of inhaled beclomethasone, and feels that
unfortunately her symptoms have not significantly changed. She still wakes up coughing at
night and peak flows average 360 L/min (vs 490 L/min predicted). Her BP is 110/80 mmHg,
pulse is 75/min and regular, there is scattered wheeze on auscultation of the chest.
Which of the following is the most appropriate next step according to NICE
guidelines?
A Add low dose oral prednisolone
B Add montelukast
C Add theophylline
D Increase inhaled steroid
E Add salmeterol
Explanation 
B Add montelukast
Add montelukast, is the correct answer. NICE guidelines recommend a trial of Montelukast in
patients who have failed to gain control of their symptoms on low dose inhaled
corticosteroids.
A Add low dose oral prednisolone
Add low dose oral prednisolone, is incorrect. This should only be done if other options
including increasing inhaled steroid, adding monteleukast, adding theophylline if appropriate,
have been exhausted first.
C Add theophylline
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 9:11 PM
Add theophylline, is incorrect. This is appropriate if the response to inhaled therapies and
monteleukast is inadequate.
D Increase inhaled steroid
Increasing inhaled steroid isn’t appropriate according to NICE guidelines 2017, a trial of
Montelukast is required in this situation, before other options such as increasing
corticosteroids are considered.
E Add salmeterol
Adding salmeterol is only an option in the event that symptoms remain uncontrolled with the
combination of Montelukast and inhaled corticosteroids.
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MyPastest 31/05/2021, 9:11 PM
 External Links
British Thoracic Society. 2019. BTS/SIGN British guideline on the management of a

a……
brit-thoracic.org.uk/quality-improvement/guidelines/asthma/
(https://www.brit-thoracic.org.uk/quality-improvement/guidelines/asthma/)
NICE. 2017. Asthma: diagnosis, monitoring and chronic asthma management.

nice.org.uk/guidance/ng80
(https://www.nice.org.uk/guidance/ng80)
Overview
Management
Prognosis
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 9:31 PM
A 26-year-old man presents with episodic wheeze and cough. He feels that his symptoms are
worse in the morning. The symptoms have been present intermittently over a number of
years. While the cough is usually non-productive, in the last two weeks, he has been coughing
green sputum.
He has a background of anxiety and previous mumps as a child and works in a shipyard. He
smokes approximately ten cigarettes a day.
Chest examination was unremarkable. Spirometry was undertaken, the results of which are
shown below.
A Asbestosis
B Asthma
C Bronchiectasis
Explanation 
B Asthma
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 9:31 PM
This is a history of shortness of breath and cough with diurnal variation, which raises
suspicion of asthma. While classically asthma may have an obstructive picture on spirometry,
as shown here, it may also be normal. In this pattern, the maximal expiratory flow rate is
reduced, with the concave shape of the curve indicating an obstructive pattern. In
investigation of asthma, spirometry is undertaken before and following bronchodilator
administration, to assess for reversibility.
A Asbestosis
This is a history of a young person with classic symptoms of asthma. While working on a
shipyard may make him more at risk of asbestosis, this usually occurs in older patients. This is
due to a latency period, which may be five years at a minimum post-exposure, though this
period may extend to 40 or more years. While asbestosis generally has little impact on
spirometry, asthma may also present with normal spirometry.
C Bronchiectasis
While previous mumps may make an individual at risk of bronchiectasis, the history of
productive sputum is not particularly long enough to be convincing of bronchiectasis. This is
more likely to be an infection on a background of asthma. Spirometry in bronchiectasis is
usually obstructive.
Spirometry is essential in diagnosing COPD, with the picture being obstructive. However,
spirometry is a poor predictor of the extent of disease and disability in COPD. Assessing the
clinical context, the patient is much too young for COPD despite being a smoker.
Idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis usually presents with a restrictive pattern on spirometry, rather
than the obstructive picture demonstrated here.
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MyPastest 31/05/2021, 9:31 PM
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MyPastest 31/05/2021, 9:32 PM
A 68-year-old man with a 10-year history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)
presents with a 6-month history of increasing exertional dyspnoea and fatigue. He also has a
cough productive of yellow sputum, episodes of chest pain, nausea and anorexia. He stopped
smoking 2 years ago.
On examination, he had raised jugular venous pressure (JVP), right parasternal heave, a loud
second heart sound and an ejection systolic murmur at the left second intercostal space. On
chest auscultation, he had scattered expiratory wheeze and bi-basal crepitations. He had
pitting leg oedema.
4.0–11.0 ×
10 9/l
150–400 ×
10 9/l
135–145
mmol/l
3.5–5.0
mmol/l
2.5–6.5
Urea 4.6 mmol/l
mmol/l
Gamma-glutamyltransferase
100 IU/l 5–30 IU/l
(γGT)
Right ventricular hypertrophy, peaked P

Electrocardiogram (ECG)
waves
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 9:32 PM
Which of the following therapies is most likely to improve long-term prognosis?
A High-dose furosemide
B Long-term oxygen therapy
C Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor
D Regular venesection
E Daily amoxicillin
Explanation 
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 9:32 PM
B Long-term oxygen therapy
This man has developed cor pulmonale, which is defined as right heart failure secondary to
pulmonary hypertension. Causes include any chronic lung disease, pulmonary vascular
disease, hypoventilation neuromuscular disorders and thoracic cage abnormalities. Long-term
home oxygen therapy for at least 15 hours per day can reduce hypoxia, which lowers
pulmonary resistance and can improve symptoms and increase life expectancy.
A High-dose furosemide
Diuretics can be used for right ventricular failure, but care should be taken to avoid excessive
fluid depletion. In heart failure, these do not improve long-term prognosis.
C Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor
In contrast to left ventricular impairment, ACE inhibitors do not have any prognostic benefit
and may, in fact, make matters worse. In systolic heart failure, they are of prognostic benefit
and very useful.
D Regular venesection
This patient has polycythaemia secondary to chronic hypoxia as a mechanism of

compensation. Venesection improves prognosis in haemochromatosis and can also be used
for primary polycythaemia.
E Daily amoxicillin
There is no role for antibiotic prophylaxis in either cor pulmonale or COPD.

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MyPastest 31/05/2021, 9:32 PM
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Overview
Management
Prognosis
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 9:34 PM
A 54-year-old stonemason was referred to the clinic with a 3-year history of progressive
breathlessness. He is an ex-smoker (40 pack-years) having stopped 14 years ago.
On examination at that time, he looked well, was not clubbed and there was no
lymphadenopathy. His chest was hyper-expanded and he had basal inspiratory crackles.
His spirometry revealed:
FEV 1 38% predicted
FVC 70% predicted
KCO 55% predicted
His chest X-ray from the original referral is shown below:
Three years later, he presents to the Emergency Department with increasing shortness of
breath, cough and wheeze. Over the last year, he has had recurrent chest infections and now
has a cough productive of green sputum.
On examination, respiratory rate 30/min, temperature 36.2 οC, blood pressure (BP) 160/100
mmHg, pulse 130/min, SpO 2 57% on air.
He is breathing through pursed lips. Auscultation of his chest reveals expiratory wheeze and
crackles throughout.
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 9:34 PM
pH 7.22 7.35 - 7.45
PO 2 7.9 kPa > 10.5 kPa
PCO 2 8.0 kPa 4.7 - 6.0 kPa
Bicarbonate 20 mmol/l 22 - 29 mmol/l
Base excess -3 (-2 -> +2)
What do the blood gases show?
A Metabolic acidosis
B Respiratory acidosis
C Respiratory acidosis with metabolic compensation
D Mixed respiratory and metabolic acidosis
E Metabolic acidosis with respiratory compensation
Explanation 
D Mixed respiratory and metabolic acidosis
This patient’s blood gases show a picture of mixed respiratory and metabolic acidosis. The
chest X-ray shows predominantly upper lobe fibrosis consistent with chronic exposure to
silica.
It is important when assessing blood gas results to do so in a systematic manner to make

sure the correct diagnosis is reached.
Initially, looking at the pH in this case, it can be seen that there is an acidosis. pH normally
ranges between 7.35 and 7.45, with values lower than 7.35 representing acidosis and values
greater than 7.45 representing alkalosis.
When it has been established that an alkalosis or acidosis exists, look next at the CO 2 and
bicarbonate to establish the cause, and the presence of compensation (if any).
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 9:34 PM
pCO 2 is normally 4.5–6.0 kPa. As CO 2 is acidic, values greater >6.0 signify acidosis
(respiratory acidosis) while values lower <4.5 signify alkalosis (respiratory alkalosis).
Bicarbonate normally ranges between 22 and 28 mEq/l. As bicarbonate is basic, values lower
than 22 signify acidosis (metabolic acidosis) while values greater than 28 signify alkalosis
(metabolic alkalosis).
In this case, it can be seen that CO 2 is elevated and bicarbonate is reduced, indicating a
mixed respiratory and metabolic cause of this patient’s acidosis.
Compensation can be seen when there are abnormalities of either CO 2 or bicarbonate in the
‘opposite’ direction to the change in pH. For example, in the case of metabolic acidosis (with
low pH and low bicarbonate) there may be respiratory compensation in which the patient
hyperventilates to ‘blow off’ CO 2 and, as such, a reduced CO 2 is seen (which in isolation
would normally signify a respiratory alkalosis).
A Metabolic acidosis
Because his CO 2 is raised, in addition to a low bicarbonate and base excess this option is
incorrect.
B Respiratory acidosis
Because his CO 2 is raised, in addition to a low bicarbonate and base excess this option is
incorrect.
C Respiratory acidosis with metabolic compensation
If he had metabolic compensation, his base excess and bicarbonate would be raised in
response to the acidosis caused by the raised CO 2.
E Metabolic acidosis with respiratory compensation
In respiratory compensation, the carbon dioxide is reduced to compensate for acidosis

caused by reduced bicarbonate.
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MyPastest 31/05/2021, 9:35 PM
A 27-year-old woman presents with right-sided pleuritic chest pain. She says the pain came
on suddenly while lifting her son into his push-chair some 30 h earlier. Her only medication of
note is the oral contraceptive pill, and she is usually fit and well. The symptoms have largely
resolved and she has not taken paracetamol for some 6 h.
On examination, BP is 120/70 mmHg, pulse 80/min and regular, breath sounds seem normal
and O 2 saturation on air is 97%.
Investigations:
Platelets 192 × 10 9/l 150–400 × 10 9/l
Small right pneumothorax

Chest X-ray
– rim less than 1cm
Which of the following is the most appropriate next course of action?
A Send home with a plan for early review
B Admit for observation and oxygen therapy
C Admit for air aspiration
D Admit for formal chest drain insertion
E Admit for thoracoscopy
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 9:35 PM
Explanation 
A Send home with a plan for early review
This woman has a pneumothorax which is more than 1 day old, and the chest X-ray indicates
that the size is small. Given that her symptoms are improving, it would be most appropriate
to discharge her with a plan to review in the respiratory clinic, or to return if her pain
significantly worsens. Air aspiration might be considered for a larger pneumothorax, whereas
formal chest drain insertion would be indicated if the pneumothorax was larger and there was
a previous history of chest disease.
B Admit for observation and oxygen therapy
The patient’s oxygen saturations are 97% on air, so there is no indication for supplemental
oxygen. As this is a spontaneous pneumothorax in an otherwise well patient
C Admit for air aspiration
In the case of a primary spontaneous pneumothorax, air aspiration is only indicated if the
pneumothorax is >2 cm and/or the patient is breathless. If this fails to resolve the symptoms
or the pneumothorax does not decrease in size, then formal chest drain insertion would be
needed.
D Admit for formal chest drain insertion
Formal chest drain insertion is only indicated in symptomatic/>2 cm primary spontaneous

pneumothorax where aspiration has failed. It is first line if there is underlying lung disease and
the patient is breathless or the pneumothorax is >2 cm in size.
E Admit for thoracoscopy
Thoracoscopy is usually performed to investigate pleural disease or in preparation for

pleurodesis. This patient has had a spontaneous pneumothorax and there is no current
suspicion of underlying lung disease. The annual incidence of primary spontaneous
pneumothorax is around 5/100,000 in women and around 25/100,000 in men. The greatest
risk factor is smoking.
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 External Links
Management of spontaneous pneumothorax: British Thoracic Society pleural diseas

diseas……
thorax.bmj.com/content/65/Suppl_2/ii18
( http://thorax.bmj.com/content/65/Suppl_2/ii18)

Overview
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 9:35 PM
Management
Prognosis
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 9:35 PM
A 40-year-old farmer presents with a 1-month history of wheeze and shortness of breath
associated with working on the farm and resolving about 6 h after stopping work.
On examination, his blood pressure (BP) is 136/82 mmHg, pulse is 82/min and regular and
oxygen saturation is 94% on air. He has coarse inspiratory crackles and a dry cough. You
suspect he is suffering from extrinsic allergic alveolitis.
Which feature is most likely to be seen on his chest X-ray?
A Bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy
B Lower zone nodular pattern of fibrosis
C Upper zone nodular pattern of fibrosis
D Pleural thickening
E Honeycomb pattern in the upper zones
Explanation 
C Upper zone nodular pattern of fibrosis
Extrinsic allergic alveolitis usually has a nodular pattern bilaterally, with a predilection for the
upper lobes .
A Bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy
This is rarely seen in extrinsic allergic alveolitis. It is more commonly associated with
sarcoidosis, malignancy (lymphoma and carcinoma) and infection (tuberculosis, mycoplasma
and silicosis).
B Lower zone nodular pattern of fibrosis
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 9:35 PM
Extrinsic allergic alveolitis affects the upper lobes. Lower zone fibrosis usually occurs in those
with asbestosis, rheumatoid arthritis or connective tissue diseases, or as a side effect of
certain drugs (busulphan, bleomycin, nitrofurantoin, methotrexate, amiodarone).
D Pleural thickening
This is a non-specific feature that can occur with both benign (such as occupational –
asbestos exposure) and malignant pleural disease (mesothelioma, pleural metastases) rather
than extrinsic allergic alveolitis.
E Honeycomb pattern in the upper zones
This is usually a manifestation of end-stage interstitial fibrosis. This gentleman has a short
presentation history and saturating 94% on air, making honeycomb pattern on radiology
unlikely. Honeycombing occurs due to the airspaces consisting of irregular, thickened fibrotic
walls and inflammatory cells.
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MyPastest 31/05/2021, 9:35 PM
Overview
Management
Prognosis
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 9:36 PM
A 67-year-old obese man with known mild chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)
presents via ambulance. He is drowsy, and his wife is unable to rouse him. He usually has a
good level of functioning, is able to walk to the local pub, uses a salbutamol inhaler only and
continues to smoke five cigarettes per day.
You arrange a chest X-ray and blood gases on air, which reveal the following:
pH 7.2 7.35–7.45
pCO 2 8.7 kPa 4.6–6.0 kPa
pO 2 6.3 kPa 10.5–13.5 kPa
Bicarbonate (HCO 3 –) 27.7 mmol/l 24–30 mmol/l
Which of the following best describes the blood gas results?
A Mixed metabolic and respiratory acidosis
B Metabolic acidosis
C Fully compensated respiratory acidosis
D Respiratory acidosis
E Metabolic alkalosis
Explanation 
D Respiratory acidosis
This is a respiratory acidosis, characterised by raised p a(CO 2), decreased pH and serum
bicarbonate in the normal range. Exacerbation of COPD is a common cause, although the fact
that the bicarbonate is in the normal range suggests that his deterioration has been too rapid
to allow renal compensation. Pneumonia or abnormalities of the thoracic cage, such as those
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 9:36 PM
related to spina bifida, may also be responsible. In compliant patients, non-invasive positive
pressure ventilation (NIPPV) may be an option. Alternatives include doxapram, a central
respiratory stimulant. These would be combined with appropriate antimicrobial therapy.
Unfortunately, many patients with COPD are unsuitable for formal intubation and ventilation.
A Mixed metabolic and respiratory acidosis
HCO3 – is a base in nature. This means that an acidosis is metabolic if HCO3- is lower than the
normal range. This is not the case as it is increased rather than lowered, indicating a
compensatory mechanism for respiratory acidosis.
B Metabolic acidosis
Metabolic acidosis can occur with an increased or normal anion gap. In an increased anion
gap there is increased production or reduced excretion of organic acids, which causes HCO3 –
to fall. In a normal anion gap there is loss of bicarbonate or ingestion of H + ions, such as in
diarrhoea and renal tubular acidosis. In this patient, the HCO3 – is raised in acidosis, meaning
that it is being produced in greater amounts as a compensatory mechanism.
C Fully compensated respiratory acidosis
The acidosis is not fully compensated as the pH is <7.35, and so the patient is still acidotic.
Metabolic alkalosis can occur with vomiting, potassium depletion and ingestion of a base. It is
seen with a pH >7.45 and a high HCO3 –. This patient has a low pH.
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MyPastest 31/05/2021, 9:38 PM
A 21-year-old man presents with a 3-month history of progressive wheeze and dyspnoea.
Over the last few weeks, he has been coughing up thick, rubbery ‘plugs’ of mucus. There is no
haemoptysis. He has a background of mild asthma, which was well controlled until a few
months ago, and eczema. He has had recurrent chest infections recently, requiring several
courses of antibiotics from his general practitioner, and he attributes this to the damp autumn
weather. He also has a feeling of general malaise. He had been more acutely short of breath
for the last few days.
On examination he was dyspnoeic at rest, but not cyanosed. His temperature was 37.8 °C,
pulse 100/min, blood pressure 132/86 mmHg, S a(O 2) 94% on air, respiratory rate 22/min. His
heart sounds were normal. On auscultation of his chest, he had widespread expiratory
wheeze, with some coarse crepitations in the mid-zones and reduced air entry in the right
lower zone. Abdominal and neurological examinations were unremarkable.
Neutrophils 8.5 × 10 9/l 2.5–7.58 × 10 9/l
Lymphocytes 2.2 × 10 9/ 1.5–3.5 × 10 9/l
Monocytes 0.2 × 10 9/ 0.0–0.8 × 10 9/l
0.04–0.4 ×
Eosinophils 2.1 × 10 9/
10 9/l
Basophils 0.1 × 10 9/ < 0.1 × 10 9/l
150–400 ×
Platelets (PLT) 390 × 10 9/
10 9/l
Alanine aminotransferase
(ALT) 32 IU/l 5–30 IU/l
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 9:38 PM
Gamma glutamyl-transferase
30 IU/l 5–30 IU/l
(γGT)
Patchy infiltrates throughout both lung

Chest X-ray (CXR) fields,
particularly affecting the upper lobes
A Cystic fibrosis
B Invasive pulmonary aspergillosis
C Cryptogenic eosinophilic pneumonia
D Churg–Strauss syndrome
E Allergic bronchopulmonary aspergillosis (ABPA)
Explanation 
E Allergic bronchopulmonary aspergillosis (ABPA)
ABPA is due to endobronchial colonisation by the fungus Aspergillus fumigatus. It tends to

present in early adult life against a background of worsening asthma. There is initially
bronchospasm, which can progress to proximal bronchiectasis and occasionally upper zone
lung fibrosis, similar to TB.
Exacerbations are more common in the autumn and winter months. Patients often get
recurrent episodes of eosinophilic pneumonia, and fleeting infiltrates can often be seen on
the chest X-ray. Mucus plugging can sometimes cause lobar collapse.
The diagnosis is made by skin-prick testing, which causes an immediate hypersensitivity

reaction. Serum precipitins are present in 90% of cases and there is a high peripheral
eosinophil count.
Treatment is with oral prednisolone, which usually results in a rapid clinical and radiological
improvement. Sometimes maintenance steroids are needed to prevent relapse.
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 9:38 PM
A number of studies have suggested a possible role for itraconazole therapy, e.g. Wark et al.,
Journal of Clinical Immunology 2003, and this may be a useful adjunctive therapy in some
patients.
A Cystic fibrosis
Cystic fibrosis (CF) is a common autosomal recessive disorder of the CF trans-membrane

conductance regular. This is a chloride channel, and when it does not function properly the
composition of the mucus electrolytes changes, making it thicker. This causes chronic
pulmonary infections and bronchiectasis in the lungs, and pancreatic insufficiency, gallstones,
cirrhosis and male infertility. History is with recurrent infections or gastrointestinal signs such
as steatorrhoea. Management is with physiotherapy for postural drainage, mucolytics and
pancreatic enzyme replacements. First presentation at the age of 21 would be considered
very unusual.
B Invasive pulmonary aspergillosis
Invasive aspergillosis occurs in immunocompromised patients or following the use of broad-

spectrum antibiotics. Diagnosis can be very difficult. Sputum cultures of alveolar lavage may
demonstrate Aspergillus on microscopy, but often biopsy is needed. Early CT scan of the
chest or serial measurements of galactomannan may be helpful. Treatment is with
voriconazole or miconazole. There is 30% mortality. The absence of risk factors makes this an
unlikely diagnosis.
C Cryptogenic eosinophilic pneumonia
This is characterised by accumulation of eosinophils in the interstitium and alveolar spaces

without provocation. Strongly associated with asthma and atopy, there is gradual onset in the
4 th or 5 th decades of life. There is commonly dyspnoea, productive cough and fever with
wheeze and crepitations. For this diagnosis, the eosinophil count would be much higher.
D Churg–Strauss syndrome
The correct name for this disorder is now eosinophilic granulomatosis with polyangitis
(EGPA), a disorder of rhinosinusitis, asthma and eosinophilia with vasculitis. Patients normally
develop problems in their 20s to 30s with atopy, rhinitis and asthma, followed later by
eosinophilic infiltration of the lungs and vasculitis. The moderate elevation only in eosinophil
count, coupled with the absence of other features of vasculitis, counts against a diagnosis of
EGPA.
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MyPastest 31/05/2021, 9:38 PM
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 9:42 PM
A 62-year-old male smoker of 30 cigarettes per day presents with symptoms of cough and
dyspnoea, accompanied by vague, non-specific chest pain. There is general malaise and joint
pain, which has been relieved by using diclofenac as required (prn), and his cough has not
been improved by a salbutamol inhaler prn.
By James Heilman, MD [CC BY-SA 4.0 (https://creativecommons.org/licenses/by-sa/4.0)],

from Wikimedia Commons
There is a non-specific increase in immunoglobulins and raised serum angiotensin-converting

enzyme (ACE) level.
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 9:42 PM
A Bronchial carcinoma
B Sarcoidosis
C Multiple myeloma
D Lymphoma
E Tuberculosis
Explanation 
B Sarcoidosis
In this case, there is evidence of bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy on chest X-ray. More than
90% of patients with sarcoidosis have abnormal chest X-ray findings. Both immunoglobulins
and serum ACE levels can be raised in active sarcoidosis. Renal function, liver function tests
and serum calcium levels should also be assessed at initial appointment. High-resolution
computed tomography (CT) scanning may demonstrate micronodules in a subpleural and
bronchoalveolar distribution, fissural nodularity and bronchial distortion. Irregular linear
opacities and ground-glass shadowing may also be seen. Air trapping due to endobronchial
granulomas and ‘honeycombing’ may also be seen. Kveim tests are no longer performed due
to perceived danger of infection. If the CT scan is diagnostic, then mediastinoscopy,
bronchoscopy or biopsies can often be avoided.
A Bronchial carcinoma
Bronchial carcinoma is more usually associated with a unilateral mass seen on chest X-ray,
with lymph node spread to the ipsilateral side.
C Multiple myeloma
Multiple myeloma is associated with the appearance of a paraprotein band on

immunoglobulin testing, rather than the non-specific increases seen here.
D Lymphoma
Lymphoma is associated with hilar lymphadenopathy, although the dry cough and elevated
serum ACE level are more consistent with a diagnosis of sarcoidosis.
E Tuberculosis
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 9:42 PM
Tuberculosis is less likely, given the hilar lymphadenopathy is bilateral and no risk factors for
tuberculosis are proffered in the clinical scenario.
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MyPastest 31/05/2021, 9:42 PM
Management
Prognosis
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 9:43 PM
A 54-year-old man presented with increasing shortness of breath and orthopnoea. He had
noticed these symptoms over the last few years, but only went to his general practitioner
(GP) after he had had a severe episode of breathlessness when he went wading in the sea on
holiday. On further enquiry, he had also become aware of morning headaches and an
increasing tendency to fall asleep during the day.
On examination, he looked well. Auscultation of his chest revealed reduced breath sounds
and reduced percussion note bi-basally.
Investigations:
Packed cell volume (PCV) 0.51 0.4 - 0.53 (male)
Platelets (PLT) 289 × 10 9/l 150 - 400 × 10 9/l
Investigation Erect (% predicted) Supine (% predicted)
Residual volume 105%
Total lung capacity 80%
Vital capacity 75% 50%
TLCO 70%
KCO 95%
Which of the following is the most helpful investigation in achieving the correct
diagnosis?
A Chest X-ray
B Arterial blood gases
C Ultrasound screening of the diaphragm
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 9:43 PM
D Echocardiogram
E Gas transfer and transfer coefficient
Explanation 
C Ultrasound screening of the diaphragm
In bilateral diaphragmatic weakness, patients commonly present with breathlessness on

exertion and when lying flat. It can be associated with sleep apnoea, resulting in daytime
somnolence and headaches. The symptoms are due to the paroxysmal movement of the
diaphragm during inspiration. In the supine position, expansion of the ribs results in
movement of the abdominal contents into the chest, aided by gravity. Symptoms can be
worse when standing up to the waist in water, as this counteracts the effects of gravity and
prevents outward movement of the abdomen during inspiration and therefore produces a
similar situation to being in the supine position.
A chest X-ray may show relatively small lung fields and basal linear shadowing due to
subsegmental collapse. A SNIF test (diaphragmatic screening on ultrasound) will show
paradoxical movement of the diaphragm, particularly on sniffing. Blood gases may show a
type II respiratory failure, particularly at night. Lung function tests classically show a low vital
capacity, which falls further in the supine position. All lung volumes except the residual
volume are reduced. The gas transfer tends to be mildly impaired with a normal KCO.
Treatment is with non-invasive ventilation.
A Chest X-ray
This may show relatively small lung fields but would not confirm diaphragmatic weakness.
B Arterial blood gases
These may show respiratory failure (either type 1 or chronic type 2) but cannot be used to
diagnose diaphragmatic weakness.
D Echocardiogram
This would most likely be normal in this case, as the history is more in keeping with
diaphragmatic weakness than cardiac disease.
E Gas transfer and transfer coefficient
This would likely be normal, or only mildly impaired, in this case, and would not aid in
confirming the diagnosis.
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 9:43 PM
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MyPastest 31/05/2021, 9:45 PM
A 17-year-old woman with stable cystic fibrosis presents to the Emergency Department with
a cough productive of purulent sputum tinged with blood, and significantly worse shortness
of breath over the past 48hrs. Her CF is currently well managed and she is Pseudomonas
negative. On examination she is pyrexial 38.1°C, BP is 95/60 mmHg; pulse is 85/min and
regular. There are coarse crackles at the right base, and you also notice a couple of cold sores
at the corner of her mouth. O 2 saturation on air is 92%. Her BMI is 23.
Investigations;
White cell count (WCC) 13.4 × 10 9/l (neutrophilia) 4–11 × 10 9/l
Platelets 189 × 10 9/l 150–400 × 10 9/l
Alanine aminotransferase (ALT) 34 U/l 5–30 IU/l
Alkaline phosphatase (ALP) 95 U/l 30–130 IU/l
Chest X-ray Right lower lobe consolidation
Which of the following is the most appropriate antibiotic option?
A IV Ciprofloxacin
B IV Gentamicin
C Nebulised Tobramycin
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 9:45 PM
D Oral Azithromycin
E Oral Clarithromycin and IV Co-amoxiclav
Explanation 
E Oral Clarithromycin and IV Co-amoxiclav
The answer is Oral Clarithromycin and IV Co-amoxiclav -
Patients with cystic fibrosis are more susceptible to community-acquired pneumonia. The
short history, coupled with lobar consolidation and evidence of herpes simplex, raises the
possibility of Streptococcus pneumoniae infection. Oral Clarithromycin and IV Co-amoxiclav
is therefore the most appropriate intervention with respect to antibiotics. Past medical
history, examination and investigations including both albumin and glucose, suggest this
patient is maintaining relatively good nutritional status with respect to her cystic fibrosis.
A IV Ciprofloxacin
IV Ciprofloxacin is incorrect, it is an option for Pseudomonas infection, but that seems less
likely given the clinical history here.
B IV Gentamicin
IV Gentamicin is incorrect, it is an alternative option for Pseudomonas infection, and is not

first line for community-acquired pneumonia.
C Nebulised Tobramycin
Nebulised Tobramycin is incorrect, it is a nebulised option for chronic Pseudomonas

colonisation. When P. aeruginosa is first detected, prompt treatment using inhaled
tobramycin alone (300 mg in 5 ml, administered twice daily) for 28 days, rather than a
regimen including other antibiotics is recommneded. The therapy is repeated only if
surveillance cultures show recurrence of P. aeruginosa.
D Oral Azithromycin
Oral Azithromycin is incorrect, it is given for 6 months in patients colonised with

Pseudomonas because of data suggesting it improves outcomes.
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MyPastest 31/05/2021, 9:45 PM
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 9:46 PM
A 25-year-old man presents with left-sided pleuritic chest pain. It had come on suddenly 3
days previously. Initially he thought it was secondary to his workout in the gym. However,
since it did not improve and he noticed that he was slightly more breathless than usual, he
went to the Emergency Department. He has no significant past medical history. He is a
smoker of 20/day. On examination he looked well. He was a tall, thin man and was not short
of breath at rest. Examination was unremarkable except for a clicking sound which was
synchronous with the heart sounds. CXR was unremarkable.
How would you best manage this patient?
A Analgesia and discharge with follow-up in the clinic
B Aspiration of chest
C Chest drain insertion
D Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs and admit patient
E Refer to Cardiology Department
Explanation 
A Analgesia and discharge with follow-up in the clinic
A synchronous click with the heart sounds is a recognised sign of a small left apical
pneumothorax. He is a tall thin man and a smoker, which are both risk factors for developing
most recent British Thoracic Society (BTS) guidelines 1, suggest that if the postero-anterior
X-ray provides added information in up to 14% of cases. Expiratory films add little and are not
recommended. The treatment of a primary pneumothorax in a non smoker with no evidence
of underlying lung disease <50yrs old with a rim of air of <2 cm and no breathlessness is to
discharge and follow up as an outpatient. Although this patient is a smoker there is nothing
to suggest underlying lung disease and it is likely that his apical pneumothorax is too small to
safely aspirate. Patients should be given analgesia if required and clear instructions to return
if their symptoms get any worse.
1
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 9:46 PM
1https://www.brit-thoracic.org.uk/document-library/clinical-information/pleural-
disease/pleural-disease-guidelines-2010/appendix-3-spontaneous-pneumothorax-poster-
pleural-disease-guideline/ (https://www.brit-thoracic.org.uk/document-library/clinical-
information/pleural-disease/pleural-disease-guidelines-2010/appendix-3-spontaneous-
pneumothorax-poster-pleural-disease-guideline/)
B Aspiration of chest
There is no clinical indication to admit this patient, although he should be followed up as an

outpatient.
C Chest drain insertion
There is no indication to aspirate a small pneumothorax in a young patient with no lung

disease who is not breathless when reviewed.
D Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs and admit patient
There is no indication insert a chest drain in a small pneumothorax in a young patient with no
lung disease who is not breathless when reviewed.
E Refer to Cardiology Department
This would not be helpful in diagnosing pneumothorax.

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MyPastest 31/05/2021, 9:46 PM
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 9:47 PM
A 76-year-old man with a 10-year history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease was
admitted to hospital with a 2-day history of progressively worsening dyspnoea and a cough
productive of mucoid sputum. His wife stated that he is on home oxygen therapy for up to 12
h per day and home nebulisers. He is breathless on minimal exertion and rarely leaves the
house. He has several exacerbations per year requiring hospital admission and these have
become more frequent over the last few years, although he has never required ventilation
before. He stopped smoking 2 years ago.
On examination he was acutely dyspnoeic with a respiratory rate of 32/min and was using
accessory muscles of respiration. He was apyrexial, pulse 120/min and regular, blood pressure
182/92 mmHg. He was able to speak in broken sentences. Auscultation of his chest revealed
generalised poor air entry and widespread expiratory wheeze.
His chest radiograph is shown below.
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 9:47 PM
Arterial blood gases on 24% oxygen via Venturi mask reveals the following:
pH 7.32 7.35–7.45
p a(O 2) 6.2 kPa 10.5–13.5 kPa
p a(CO 2) 7.2 kPa 4.6–6.0 kPa
His inspired oxygen concentration was increased to 28% and he was treated with intravenous
hydrocortisone, salbutamol and ipratropium nebulisers and an aminophylline infusion. After 1
h he had made little improvement and was tiring.
Repeat blood gases on 28% oxygen reveals the following:
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 9:47 PM
pH 7.26 7.35–7.45
p a(O 2) 6.8 kPa 10.5–13.5 kPa
p a(CO 2) 9.2 kPa 4.6–6.0 kPa
What is the next most appropriate step in management?
A Immediate intubation and ventilation
B Intravenous doxapram
C Bi-level positive airway pressure (BiPAP)
D Increase inspired oxygen concentration to 35%
E Continuous positive airways pressure (CPAP)
Explanation 
C Bi-level positive airway pressure (BiPAP)
This man is in type 2 respiratory failure due to a severe exacerbation of chronic obstructive
pulmonary disease (COPD), and is not improving despite maximal medical therapy. Non-
invasive ventilation is the best option in this situation and may be life saving. BiPAP has been
shown to reduce respiratory acidosis, increase clearance of secretions and re-expand
collapsed lung segments. However, it is only suitable for patients who are conscious,
cooperative and able to protect their airway.
A Immediate intubation and ventilation
His poor premorbid functional status and lack of an acute precipitating event make him a
poor candidate for the Intensive Therapy Unit. If he had a better function baseline this could
be the ideal management choice, especially as he is tiring.
B Intravenous doxapram
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 9:47 PM
Doxapram is a respiratory stimulant and should only be used when BiPAP is unavailable or in
the case of reduced respiratory drive due to sedatives or anaesthetic agents. Doxapram also
has a number of contraindications, which include hypertension (relative contraindication),
such that concomitant therapy and past medical history should be carefully reviewed prior to
starting therapy.
D Increase inspired oxygen concentration to 35%
This is a patient with type 2 respiratory failure and acidosis. His main problem is hypercapnia,
which is decompensated as indicated by the low pH. He will need support in ventilation rather
than oxygenation, and increasing inspired oxygen is likely to increase hypercapnia. Ventilatory
support can help both hypoxia and hypercapnia, and further oxygen can be given during
ventilation.
E Continuous positive airways pressure (CPAP)
With respect to BiPAP vs CPAP, outcome evidence is much more widely available for BiPAP,
which drives the correct answer here.
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MyPastest 31/05/2021, 9:51 PM
An 18-year-old man is admitted to the Emergency Department. His carer called the
ambulance after she found him in a drowsy and confused state at home. He had been
suffering from a heavy cold. He is known to suffer from Duchenne’s muscular dystrophy. Over
the past few weeks she noted that he seemed to be suffering intermittent morning
headaches, slight mental confusion, particularly in the mornings, and didn’t enjoy his normal
trip to the swimming pool due to shortness of breath. On examination in the Emergency
Department he was drowsy but able to obey simple commands. Respiratory rate was noted
to be 13/min. Bilateral air entry was poor on auscultation, with evidence of consolidation at
the left base.
pH 7.3 7.35–7.45
pCO 2 7.0 kPa 4.6–6.0 kPa
pO 2 7.0 kPa 10.5–13.5 kPa
Which of the following would represent the most appropriate management in this
case?
A 60% oxygen therapy
B 35% oxygen therapy
C 28% oxygen therapy
E Non-invasive ventilation
Explanation 
E Non-invasive ventilation
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 9:51 PM
This man has evidence of chronic CO 2 retention as evidenced by his morning headaches,
intermittent confusion and drowsiness. A further indication of respiratory muscle, particularly
diaphragmatic weakness may be indicated by breathlessness at his swimming class. It is likely
that chronic hypoventilation has led to opportunistic respiratory tract infection associated
with his cold. At present he has mild respiratory acidosis, and the situation may be
remediable with NIV and antibiotics. Given that Duchenne’s is progressive, intubation and
ventilation should be carefully considered.
A 60% oxygen therapy
60% oxygen therapy will have very limited impact, if any, on improving this patient’s hypoxia
due to their hypoventilation and worsening acidosis, and thus it isn’t the appropriate option
here.
B 35% oxygen therapy
Like higher percentages of oxygen, 35% O 2 won’t reverse the impact of hypoventilation with
respect to respiratory acidosis, and it isn’t therefore the most appropriate option.
C 28% oxygen therapy
28% O 2 therapy won’t improve oxygenation and won’t reverse the impact of hypoventilation,
and hence it isn’t preferred here.
Intubation and ventilation should be carefully considered in the context of Duchenne’s. It is a

progressive condition and the risk is that the patient may become unweanable from the
ventilator. As such, NIV is preferred here. Ideally patients should consider an advanced
directive before they become unwell so that their wishes with respect to invasive therapies
are already established.
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MyPastest 31/05/2021, 9:52 PM
A known asthmatic is admitted to A&E with wheeze and shortness of breath, although she is
not yet showing signs of fatigue. She is given continued nebulised salbutamol, IV steroids and
high-flow oxygen. You are asked by the nursing sister in charge whether giving IV magnesium
is appropriate.
According to the BTS guidelines, which of the following would count against the
need for IV magnesium at this stage?
A Patient is 18 years old
B Magnesium is at the lower end of the normal range
C Tachycardia with a heart rate of 120 beats/min
D Patient is treated with oral theophylline
E PEFR 240 vs 140 on admission (normal 500)
Explanation 
E PEFR 240 vs 140 on admission (normal 500)
The British Thoracic Society (BTS) guidelines say that 50% magnesium sulphate at 1.2–2 g (4–
8 mmol) over 20 min can be given IV to a patient with severe asthma not responding to
inhaled bronchodilator or who has severe life-threatening asthma. In this case the PEFR is
improving, without signs of fatigue, and it is therefore appropriate to continue with current
management.
A Patient is 18 years old
Age is irrelevant when considering the need for magnesium infusion, and there is little
difference in response as age increases.
B Magnesium is at the lower end of the normal range
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 9:52 PM
Magnesium concentration is irrelevant as supra-therapeutic levels are given to achieve a

pharmacological response with reduced acetylcholine release and improved smooth muscle
relaxation
C Tachycardia with a heart rate of 120 beats/min
Heart rate >110/min is an indicator of severe asthma and more likely to drive the use of
magnesium.
D Patient is treated with oral theophylline
The need for oral theophylline implies a poor response to beta-agonist therapy, and therefore
a possible greater need for acute intervention with magnesium.
2332
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MyPastest 31/05/2021, 9:53 PM
A 35-year-old man presents with night sweats and a chronic cough. After investigations, a
diagnosis of pulmonary tuberculosis is made, and he is commenced on quadruple therapy. On
completion of six months of treatment, he attends for a follow-up computed tomography
(CT) scan. He is noted to be asymptomatic, and there have been no identified complications
of treatment so far. The CT result is shown below.
A Aspergilloma
B Pulmonary nodule
C Invasive aspergillosis
D Recurrence of tuberculosis
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 9:53 PM
E Staphylococcus aureus empyema
Explanation 
A Aspergilloma
This is the correct response, as it correlates with the asymptomatic presentation of the
patient, the past history of tuberculosis and the CT appearances. Aspergilloma is a ball of
fungal hyphae within a previous cavity space. The most common prior pathology creating the
cavity is pulmonary tuberculosis. Patients are commonly asymptomatic, although
occasionally invasion of the bronchial artery can cause haemoptysis.
B Pulmonary nodule
While pulmonary nodules are asymptomatic, they do not cause a crescent-shaped air space,
as shown in the image. The CT image is classical for an aspergilloma.
This is an extremely rare condition in an immunocompetent patient. Symptoms would depend

on the locus of infection but may include cough, breathlessness and haemoptysis, none of
which are given in the question. A characteristic CT appearance may include the ‘halo sign’ –
a haziness surrounding a nodule or infiltrate.
D Recurrence of tuberculosis
This response is incorrect, as one would expect the patient to present with symptoms
congruent with the CT presentation. These may include malaise, anorexia, breathlessness and
haemoptysis.
E Staphylococcus aureus empyema
One would expect such a large empyema to present with a symptomatic patient. S. aureus is
a common organism for empyema development, and the previous tuberculosis infection
would provide a lung cavity. An empyema would typically present with a fluid density in the
lung field, sometimes with locules of gas.
71792
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MyPastest 31/05/2021, 9:54 PM
A 55-year-old man presents to his GP, with his wife complaining of 3–4 months of increased
shortness of breath, irritability and daytime somnolence. The patient is a known smoker of
one pack per day. He reports no other medical problems and is not on any medication.
Clinical examination shows the patient to have a BMI of 22, with mild peripheral oedema and
cyanosis. The patient is tachypnoeic. Examination of the chest shows hyperinflation, with the
use of accessory muscles of respiration and quiet breath sounds. Pulse oximetry shows a
pa(O 2) of 94%. Appropriate investigations are initiated for the patient, including lung
function tests which show non-reversible obstruction and air trapping. Additionally, the
patient is referred to the Sleep Disorders Unit of the nearest specialised Ear, Nose and Throat
hospital, where arterial blood gases show a chronic respiratory acidosis.
The results of the sleep study are below

below..
What is the most likely diagnosis for this patient’s symptoms?
A Obstructive sleep apnoea
B Pickwickian syndrome
C Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) and nocturnal hypoventilation
D Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) and simple snoring
E Narcolepsy
Explanation 
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 9:54 PM
C Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) and nocturnal hypoventilation
COPD patients commonly suffer from nocturnal oxygen desaturation that is not usually
caused by sleep apnoea. Sleep-related hypoxaemia can result in the patient reporting
morning headaches and daytime somnolence. The diagnosis is made via overnight home
monitoring with a pulse oximeter, which shows dramatic falls in saturation levels that occur
during REM sleep.
Obstructive sleep apnoea is a disorder characterised by obstructive apnoeas, daytime

symptoms secondary to reduced sleep and signs of disturbed sleep such as snoring. It
typically occurs in obese patients with craniofacial or upper airway soft tissue abnormalities.
Treatment is with CPAP.
B Pickwickian syndrome
Pickwickian syndrome is the combination of severe obesity, a plethoric face and obstructive
sleep apnoea causing hypoxia and hypercapnia, resulting in marked daytime somnolence. It is
named after the ‘fat and red-faced boy in a state of somnolency’ as described in the novel
The Pickwick Papers by Charles Dickens.
D Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) and simple snoring
This patient has evidence of disturbed sleep, and the study demonstrates hypoxia during
sleep, meaning that this is more than simple snoring.
E Narcolepsy
Narcolepsy is a neurological disorder characterised by a sudden and uncontrollable, though

often brief, compulsion to sleep, sometimes accompanied by cataplexy and sleep paralysis.
6807
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MyPastest 31/05/2021, 9:55 PM
A 19-year-old student is brought to the Emergency Department by his housemates. He has

suffered a cough for the past week and using increasing amounts of his blue inhaler.
Ordinarily he is maintained on fluticasone/salmeterol combination inhaler, 250 µg/50 mg BD,
and montelukast, 10 mg daily. His housemates don’t think he has registered with the student
health service and are worried that he may not have filled his prescription.
Clinical features on admission to Emergency are respiratory rate 30/min, PEFR 240 l/min and
predicted 590 l/min, and O 2 saturation 90%.
You commence oxygen therapy, give a bolus of IV hydrocortisone and give him a nebuliser
containing salbutamol 5 mg and ipratropium 500 µg. The nurses repeat the salbutamol
nebuliser three times.
Clinical features later in the evening on oxygen reveal the following:
Respiratory rate 15 breaths per minute
PEFR 230 l/min
pH 7.35 7.35–7.45
pO 2 7.7 kPa 10.5–13.5 kPa
pCO 2 5.8 kPa 4.6–6.0 kPa
What is the most appropriate next step for this gentleman?
A IV salbutamol therapy
B IV aminophylline therapy
C IV magnesium therapy
D Review by the ITU outreach team
E Continuous nebulised salbutamol
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 9:55 PM
Explanation 
D Review by the ITU outreach team
The most appropriate next step in this case would be review by an ITU physician. Despite
therapy his peak flow has deteriorated, he is making less respiratory effort and there is
evidence of hypoxia with hypercapnia on arterial blood gas testing. He is at risk of respiratory
arrest and should be assessed for ventilatory support.
A IV salbutamol therapy
IV salbutamol gives only limited advantage versus continuous nebuliser therapy, and
increases the risk of atrial arrhythmia.
B IV aminophylline therapy
IV aminophylline is no longer considered a first-line therapy for acute asthma because of the
limited additional beta agonist efficacy versus continuous nebulisers, against a risk of
significant arrhythmia.
C IV magnesium therapy
IV magnesium is recommended in the management of acute severe asthma, although it may

well not reverse the current deterioration in this patient’s symptoms. Hence planning for ITU
admission is an essential next step.
E Continuous nebulised salbutamol
Although continuous nebulised salbutamol is appropriate here, review by the ITU outreach
team is crucial with respect to outcomes.
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MyPastest 31/05/2021, 9:56 PM
An HIV-positive patient is admitted acutely unwell with shortness of breath initially only on
exertion, but now present even at rest. He has been prescribed HAART and pentamidine
nebulisers (co-trimoxazole being unsuitable for him). However, recently he says that he has
not had time to come to the clinic for treatment. His chest X-ray shows bilateral air-space
shadowing and his arterial blood gas on air shows pO 2 7.9 kPa and pCO 2 5.0 kPa. His CD4
count is 164.
What is the most appropriate initial treatment option?
A Clindamycin and primaquine with prednisolone
B Further nebulised pentamidine
C Intravenous Pentamidine with prednisolone
D Intravenous cefotaxime and oral clarithromycin
E IV hydrocortisone
Explanation 
A Clindamycin and primaquine with prednisolone
This combination is recommended for pneumocystis, where trial evidence now shows higher
response rates than for IV pentamidine, (the main alternative in this case). He should also be
treated with oral or intravenous steroids as his pO 2 is below the 9.3 kPa threshold.
B Further nebulised pentamidine
This is an appropriate prophylactic treatment, but is not the best management choice for this
patient’s acute presentation.
C Intravenous Pentamidine with prednisolone
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 9:56 PM
The patient has an intolerance to co-trimoxazole and has a CD4 count less than 200, so
needs pentamidine nebulisers as PCP prophylaxis. If he has not been having these, he is at
risk of pneumocystis pneumonia (PCP), which must be treated even before definitive
histology can be obtained. The ideal treatment for him is as for severe PCP which drives
clindamycin and primaquine as the correct answer because response rates are higher than for
pentamidine. IV pentamidine is a fall-back option in the event that primaquine and
clindamycin isn’t tolerated. He needs treatment with oral or intravenous steroids as his pO 2 is
below the 9.3 kPa threshold.
D Intravenous cefotaxime and oral clarithromycin
This antibiotic combination therapy would be suitable if a bacterial aetiology were suspected
for his presentation, and may well be appropriate as additional therapy until microbiological
confirmation of the organism can be obtained, but the more likely diagnosis of PCP would
make this inappropriate as sole therapy.
E IV hydrocortisone
While corticosteroids are an important adjuvant therapy, they are inadequate as monotherapy
in the treatment of PCP.
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MyPastest 31/05/2021, 9:57 PM
A 49-year-old nurse comes to the surgery. She is a smoker of 20 cigarettes per day and is
complaining of increased shortness of breath, a chronic cough and wheezing. On examination
she smells strongly of cigarettes. You can hear coarse wheezing and occasional crackles on
auscultation.
Which of the following is most useful in determining appropriate long-term
management of her condition?
A Chest X-ray
B Alpha-1-antitrypsin deficiency testing
C CT thorax
D Bronchoscopy
E Spirometry with reversibility
Explanation 
E Spirometry with reversibility
This woman has evidence of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), but up to 30% of
patients fit the definition of reversibility (>15% improvement in FEV 1 post-bronchodilator). In
patients who are reversible, there is good evidence for treating with inhaled corticosteroids,
as in asthma. Spirometry also correlates well with long-term mortality, and can be helpful in
persuading patients to give up smoking.
A Chest X-ray
Although a chest X-ray may show hyper-expansion consistent, for example, with emphysema
and alternative diagnoses such as lung cancer, it won’t establish response to therapeutic
intervention.
B Alpha-1-antitrypsin deficiency testing
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 9:57 PM
Given this patient’s age and smoking history, it’s likely her shortness of breath is related to
COPD, rather than having any link to alpha-1-antitrypsin deficiency.
C CT thorax
CT thorax is useful for elucidating the underlying cause of restrictive lung disease. In the
event that lung function testing reveals a restrictive lung defect, CT thorax may be a more
important part of the work-up.
D Bronchoscopy
Neutrophils and eosinophils may both be seen in bronchial fluid when there is underlying
airway inflammation related to asthma, but this doesn’t link strongly to the response to
corticosteroids.
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MyPastest 31/05/2021, 9:58 PM
A 54-year-old man comes to the Emergency Department complaining of shortness of breath.

He has been unwell for a few days and most recently has begun to spike fevers. He has a
history of a previous myocardial infarction (MI) some 4 years earlier and mild left ventricular
failure as a consequence. Medication includes ramipril 10 mg daily, aspirin 75 mg and
bendroflumethiazide 2.5 mg. On examination his BP is 115/70 mmHg, pulse 95/min and his
temperature is 37.9 oC. He has bilateral crackles on auscultation, perhaps more marked on the
left than the right, and a respiratory rate of 36/min.
Investigations:
pH 7.6 7.35–7.45
pCO 2 3.5 kPa 4.6–6.0 kPa
pO 2 7.2 kPa 10.5–13.5 kPa
Which of the following best describes his acid–base disturbance?
A Compensated respiratory alkalosis
B Compensated respiratory acidosis
C Mixed respiratory and metabolic alkalosis
D Compensated metabolic alkalosis
E Metabolic and respiratory acidosis
Explanation 
C Mixed respiratory and metabolic alkalosis
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 9:58 PM
This situation with an elevated bicarbonate and low CO 2 and O 2 can be seen in patients who
are chronic diuretic users and who suffer an acute respiratory event such as a pulmonary
embolus, where they hyperventilate to maintain adequate oxygenation.
A Compensated respiratory alkalosis
Compensation implies that bicarbonate would be reduced to maintain pH in the normal

range; however, a bicarbonate of 33 mmol/l means that is clearly not the case here.
B Compensated respiratory acidosis
In a compensated respiratory acidosis, bicarbonate and CO 2 are both elevated.
D Compensated metabolic alkalosis
Respiratory compensation for metabolic alkalosis is limited because of hypoxic drive; it may,
however, be associated with a small rise in Pa CO2.
E Metabolic and respiratory acidosis
A mixed metabolic and respiratory acidosis presents with low pH and low bicarbonate, with
elevated CO2, in contrast to the picture seen here.
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MyPastest 31/05/2021, 9:59 PM
A 77-year-old woman was referred to the Respiratory Outpatient Clinic with increasing
shortness of breath. Her chest X-ray is shown below.
What was her underlying diagnosis?
A Adenocarcinoma
B Pneumothorax
C Small cell lung cancer
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 9:59 PM
D Tuberculosis
E Chronic spontaneous pneumothorax
Explanation 
D Tuberculosis
This question is a ‘spot diagnosis’. Clues that this is a thoracoplasty are that there is evidence
of rib resection in conjunction with loss of lung volume. The CXR shows a thoracoplasty. This
lady had tuberculosis in the 1940s, prior to the use of anti-tuberculosis chemotherapy. She
had a thoracoplasty, which was one of the main surgical treatments for tuberculosis between
1930 and 1955. Several ribs were resected, which reduced the thoracic volume and collapsed
the underlying lung. The aim was to close the tuberculous cavity and ‘rest the lung’. Control
of pulmonary tuberculosis and survival was good. However, patients were left with severe
chest deformity and the associated respiratory compromise, a restrictive defect.
A Adenocarcinoma
Adenocarcinoma would present as a mass on the chest X-ray. There would not be rib
resection and loss of lung volume. Other symptoms and signs may include anaemia and
weight loss.
B Pneumothorax
Symptoms of pneumothorax would include sudden onset of sharp, unilateral chest pain with
shortness of breath. On a chest X-ray there would be an air rim and collapse of lung. However,
there would not be rib resection as in this case.
C Small cell lung cancer
As with adenocarcinoma, chest X-ray would show a mass rather than loss of lung volume.
Small cell lung cancer is a fast-growing type of lung cancer, spreading more quickly than non-
small cell lung cancer and therefore it is the most aggressive form of lung cancer.. Small cell
lung cancer is more common in men than women. Almost all cases of small cell lung cancer
are due to cigarette smoking. It is very rare in people who have never smoked.
E Chronic spontaneous pneumothorax
The rib resection counts against this being a chronic pneumothorax and fits with a
thoracoplasty for tuberculosis.
70127
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MyPastest 31/05/2021, 9:59 PM
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MyPastest 31/05/2021, 10:00 PM
A 62-year-old heavy smoker comes to the Emergency Department for review. He has suffered
from progressively worsening headaches, shortness of breath and chest pain over the past
three months. He has suffered from a dry cough, which is occasionally productive of
bloodstained sputum, for about six months. A past history of chronic obstructive pulmonary
disease (COPD) and ischaemic heart disease is noted.
On examination, his blood pressure is 155/95 mmHg, his pulse is 88 bpm and regular and he
looks distressed. There is facial oedema and oedema of both arms, with a blue discoloration
to the skin of the face. He has injected conjunctivae and there is bilateral papilloedema.
Auscultation of the chest reveals bilateral wheeze and coarse crackles consistent with COPD,
and decreased breath sounds on the right hand side.
Investigations:
Platelets (PLT) 201 × 10 9/l 150–400 × 10 9/l
Potasium (K +) 4.3 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
Glucose 5.4 mmol/l 3.5–5.5 mmol/l*
Chest X-ray: Large spiculated right hilar mass
Which of the following is the most effective and appropriate intervention in this
situation?
A Chemotherapy
B Dexamethasone
C Endovascular stenting
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 10:00 PM
D Radiotherapy
E Surgical reconstruction
Explanation 
C Endovascular stenting
In this situation, while corticosteroids are the mainstay of initial treatment, they are thought
to be less effective when superior vena cava (SVC) obstruction is due to bronchial carcinoma,
compared to SVC obstruction due to an underlying lymphoid malignancy. As such, where it is
available, interventional radiology is the best intervention. Stenting also leads to a rapid
improvement in symptoms, whereas with corticosteroids or radiotherapy, the improvement is
gradual and modest.
A Chemotherapy
The response to chemotherapy in bronchial carcinoma is likely to be modest and relatively

slow, compared to stenting. This makes it not a preferred option for symptom relief here.
B Dexamethasone
Steroids result in some reduction in local oedema and may impact on symptoms, although
the effect is almost certainly going to be inferior to endovascular stenting. Where on-call
interventional radiology is available, it is the intervention of choice, endorsed by the National
Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) guidance, for SVC obstruction.
D Radiotherapy
Radiotherapy is an alternative to stenting in the event that interventional radiology is not

available or is not technically feasible. The disadvantage is that it can cause significant
damage to the vascular anatomy, making future stenting technically more difficult.
E Surgical reconstruction
Surgical reconstruction would not likely be an option in this situation due to underlying
advanced cancer, and the coexisting COPD makes him a very poor prospect for aggressive
intervention.
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MyPastest 31/05/2021, 10:00 PM
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 10:02 PM
The airway pressure graph of a patient receiving ventilator support is shown below.
What form of ventilatory support is this patient receiving?
A Continuous positive airways pressure (CPAP)
B Positive end-expiratory pressure (PEEP)
C None
D Intermittent mandatory ventilation (IMV)
E Inverse ratio ventilation
Explanation 
A Continuous positive airways pressure (CPAP)
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 10:02 PM
CPAP generates continuous increased pressure, where the shape of the curve of inspiration
and expiration stays the same but the whole curve is shifted upwards.
B Positive end-expiratory pressure (PEEP)
In PEEP, positive pressure is applied at the end of expiration and hence this portion of the
curve remains positive for a more prolonged period, with a rapid fall-off at the end of the
breath, versus normal respiration.
C None
In normal respiration the airway pressure returns to baseline at the beginning and end of each
breath.
D Intermittent mandatory ventilation (IMV)
Intermittent mandatory ventilation intersperses ventilator-driven breathing with normal

breathing, when the patient’s own respiratory effort is inadequate.
E Inverse ratio ventilation
Inverse ratio ventilation extends the inspiratory phase of breathing, leading to a greater AUC
for the inspiratory phase of ventilation, versus the symmetrical curves seen here.
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MyPastest 31/05/2021, 10:03 PM
This high-resolution computed tomography (CT) scan is from a 42-year-old man with chronic
dyspnoea and cough. PaO 2 is 8.9 kPa on air on arterial blood gas testing.
What is the most appropriate management strategy for this condition?
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 10:03 PM
A Oral corticosteroids
B Antibiotics and regular postural drainage
C Long-term home oxygen therapy
D Intravenous cyclophosphamide
E Anti-mycobacterial therapy
Explanation 
B Antibiotics and regular postural drainage
This computed tomography (CT) scan shows the typical appearance of bronchiectasis, with
dilated, thickened bronchi. Causes of this condition include cystic fibrosis, post-infective TB,
immune deficiency and Kartagener syndrome. Management includes daily postural drainage,
antibiotic therapy for infective exacerbations (which should be guided by sputum culture)
and bronchodilators. Surgical resection for localised areas of bronchiectasis is rarely
indicated. Heart lung transplantation is an option in end-stage disease with cor pulmonale.
Colonisation with Pseudomonas aeruginosa is a common problem. Complications of
bronchiectasis include massive haemoptysis, empyema, pneumothorax and metastatic
infections (e.g. brain abscess).
A Oral corticosteroids
In this patient, if the CT had demonstrated evidence of fibrosis with honeycombing, this
would have indicated that he had interstitial lung disease which would be likely to be
susceptible to steroid treatment.
C Long-term home oxygen therapy
If the CT scan had demonstrated features of idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis, with bilateral
lower zone reticulo-nodular shadows and reduced lung volume, then a diagnosis of idiopathic
pulmonary fibrosis would be likely and long-term home oxygen could be considered as a
supportive measure.
D Intravenous cyclophosphamide
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 10:03 PM
If the CT had demonstrated bilateral hilar lymphoadenopathy with pulmonary infiltrates and
fibrosis, then a diagnosis of sarcoidosis could be considered, for which IV cyclophosphamide
is a treatment option in severe disease.
E Anti-mycobacterial therapy
Anti-mycobacterial therapy is used to treat TB. TB would be suggested on a CT scan if it

demonstrated consolidation and cavitating lesions, but would require further immunological
or microbiological testing to confirm diagnosis.
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MyPastest 31/05/2021, 10:03 PM
Overview
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MyPastest 31/05/2021, 10:04 PM
A high-resolution thoracic CT of a patient complaining of shortness of breath shows patchy

ground-glass shadowing. However, there is much movement artefact.
What would be the best test to confirm restrictive lung disease due to a
parenchymal disorder?
A CT in expiration phase
B FEV1
C Arterial blood gas
D Chest X-ray
E KCO
Explanation 
E KCO
Restrictive lung diseases are characterised by reduced lung volume, either because of an
alteration in lung parenchyma or because of a disease of the pleura, chest wall or
neuromuscular apparatus. The transfer coefficient will be reduced in patients with interstitial
lung disease. With the presence of an abnormal CT, despite the fact that it is of poor quality,
this would be enough evidence to suggest the diagnosis. Without the presence of a CT lesion,
a normal KCO would merely rule out significant restrictive lung disease as a cause. With the
abnormal CT seen here, abnormal KCO is useful supporting evidence for an underlying
parenchymal disorder.
A CT in expiration phase
CT in expiration phase is useful for showing air-trapping in COPD.
B FEV1
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 10:04 PM
FEV 11 is the forced expiratory volume in one second. It can be measured by a peak flow meter
or spirometry. From that, airway calibre can be estimated. Based on FEV 1, obstructive airway
disease can be diagnosed. It is limited in that it is effort dependent.
C Arterial blood gas
In an ABG, arterial blood is taken in a heparinised syringe to establish pH, PaO 2 and PaCO 2,
amongst other measurements. It is very useful in diagnosing hypoxia or hypercapnia as well
as analysing pH, and can therefore differentiate between types of respiratory failure. However,
in this patient it may be of limited value as the patient may not be sufficiently unwell to have
an abnormal ABG.
D Chest X-ray
Parenchymal lung disease is often of normal appearance in the early stages on a chest X-ray.
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MyPastest 31/05/2021, 10:04 PM
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 10:05 PM
A 39-year old Irish accountant was referred to the clinic with a 4-month history of
progressive breathlessness. He noticed this mainly on climbing the stairs. Over the last few
months he had been using some eye drops from the local pharmacy for dry eyes. He was also
complaining of fatigue, night sweats and polyuria. He was a non-smoker and drank 20 units
of alcohol per week.
On examination he had conjunctival injection, but examination of his eyes was otherwise
unremarkable. He had no rash or joint swelling. On auscultation of his chest he had fine
inspiratory crackles. Heart sounds were normal. He had no organomegaly on palpation of the
abdomen. Urinalysis was unremarkable.
Investigations:
Platelets (PLT) 201 × 10 9/l 150 - 400 × 10 9/l
Asparate aminotransferase (AST) 51 u/l 10 - 40 u/l
Tuberculin test -
FEV1 75% predicted
FVC 70% predicted
TLCO 80% predicted
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 10:05 PM
Which of the following is most likely to give you a definitive diagnosis?
A Serum angiotensin-converting enzyme
B Sputum for microbiology
C Bronchoscopy and transbronchial biopsies
D Bronchoscopy and endobronchial biopsies
E Kveim test
Explanation 
C Bronchoscopy and transbronchial biopsies
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 10:05 PM
The most likely diagnosis is sarcoidosis. This is a relatively young patient with breathlessness,
dry eyes, fatigue, night sweats and polyuria. He has a normocytic anaemia, a raised ESR and
slightly deranged liver function tests.
Sarcoid is a multi-system granulomatous disorder of unknown aetiology with a number of

different presentations. It usually presents in the under-forties, and is more common in
women and persons of West Indian and African descent. Presentation may be with erythema
nodosum, bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy on chest radiography with fever or arthralgia
(Löfgren syndrome) or, more insidiously, with symptoms such as dyspnoea, dry cough, fever,
malaise and weight loss. The main differential diagnoses are TB and lymphoma.
The diagnosis is suggested from a chest X-ray and high-resolution CT. High-resolution CT
characteristically shows features such as hilar and mediastinal lymphadenopathy,
peribronchovascular nodules, ground-glass shadowing, parenchymal bands, cysts and
fibrosis. Pulmonary involvement can be classified according to the radiographic stage of the
disease:
Stage 0: Clear chest radiograph

Stage 1: Bi-hilar adenopathy
Stage 2: Bi-hilar adenopathy and interstitial infiltrates
Stage 3: Diffuse interstitial disease
Stage 4: Advanced fibrosis.
Transbronchial biopsy is the investigation with the highest yield, as positive results are seen in
90% of patients with pulmonary sarcoidosis. Endobronchial biopsies are also useful, but less
sensitive. Histology typically shows non-caseating granulomas composed of macrophages,
lymphocytes and epithelioid histiocytes, which fuse to form multinucleate giant cells.
The lung function tests depend on severity of the disease. The tuberculin test is negative in
80% of patients with sarcoidosis, but clinicians must be mindful that anergy can also be seen
in HIV-positive patients or patients who have overwhelming TB.
Treatment is rarely required in stage 0 or 1 disease. Corticosteroids should be given to
patients with stage 2 or higher disease with deterioration in lung function or in patients with
ocular sarcoid, hypercalcaemia, severe or persistent erythema nodosum, myocardial and
neurological manifestations of sarcoidosis. Prednisolone dose is 0.5 mg/kg for first 4 weeks
of treatment and is then down-titrated to the lowest maintenance dose that controls the
disease. Treatment withdrawal should be considered after 6–24 months. Steroid-sparing
agents such as methotrexate or azathioprine may be used for relapsing disease.
Common clinical characteristics of sarcoidosis include:
Skin:
Erythema nodosum – caution, not always on the shins
Lupus pernio – red crusty lesions, often around the nose
Annular lesion
Polyuria:
Secondary to hypercalciuria/hypercalcaemia (can also cause renal calculi and
nephrocalcinosis)
Secondary to central diabetes insipidus
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 10:05 PM
Cardiac:
Ventricular arrhythmias
Conduction defects
Cardiomyopathy
Congestive cardiac failure
Neurological:
Involvement of CNS occurs in 2%
Cranial diabetes insipidus
Ocular:
Anterior uveitis
Conjunctivitis
Retinal lesions
Keratoconjunctivitis sicca and lacrimal gland enlargement
Optic neuritis
Metabolic:
Hypercalcaemia and hypercalciuria
Bone and joints:
Arthralgia
Bone cysts
Others:
Hepatosplenomegaly
Löfgren syndrome (acute sarcodosis) – triad of bi-hilar lymphadenopathy, arthritis and
erythema nodosum.
A Serum angiotensin-converting enzyme
Serum ACE is not a specific test for sarcoidosis. Raised ACE levels are also seen in pulmonary
TB, asbestosis, silicosis and lymphoma. It is elevated in about 75% of patients with untreated
sarcoid. The value of using serum ACE to monitor disease activity remains unclear – currently
inflammatory markers are thought to be more useful.
B Sputum for microbiology
This is not a history of infection. Sputum culture will be negative. Culture may be useful in the
event that TB is suspected, although there is no history of potential TB exposure.
D Bronchoscopy and endobronchial biopsies
Endobronchial biopsies may give a diagnosis of sarcoidosis, but transbronchial biopsies in

addition to endobronchial biopsies will give a higher yield.
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 10:05 PM
E Kveim test
The Kveim test is now obsolete because of potential infection risk. It involves using material
from the spleen of a patient suffering from sarcoidosis.
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MyPastest 31/05/2021, 10:05 PM
Management
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MyPastest 31/05/2021, 10:06 PM
A 60-year-old South Asian patient presents with shortness of breath and weight loss with
night sweats. On examination, his respiratory rate is 24 breaths/min, he has lymphadenopathy
and his left lower zone is stony dull to percussion. His chest X-ray demonstrates evidence of a
moderate pleural effusion. You suspect tuberculosis as he confirms that his wife was recently
diagnosed with the disease.
Investigations:
Platelets 342 × 10 9/l 150–400 × 10 9/l
Mean corpuscular volume (MCV) 89.3 fl 76–98 fl
C-Reactive protein (CRP) 85 mg/l 0–10 mg/l
Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) 43 mm/h 0–10 mm in the 1 st hour
Which of the following investigations is most useful in confirming the cause of the
pleural effusion?
A CT pleural biopsy
B High-resolution CT
C Pleural fluid pH
D Quantiferon gamma
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 10:06 PM
E Pleural fluid LDH
Explanation 
A CT pleural biopsy
Pleural biopsy has a high yield in confirming active tuberculosis. The key to diagnosing
tuberculosis is obtaining a tissue sample, particularly so that PCR for tuberculous DNA can be
carried out to provide rapid diagnosis, to allow early differentiation from non-tuberculosis
mycobacterial infection, and to detect multidrug-resistant disease.
B High-resolution CT
Imaging such as CT will only determine the location and extent of the effusion, but it won’t
give any diagnostic information regarding whether it is caused by tuberculosis. CT will also
help determine whether there is any mass underlying the effusion.
C Pleural fluid pH
A pleural fluid pH <7.2 will confirm empyema, but not the infecting organism causing the
empyema.
D Quantiferon gamma
Quantiferon is an interferon-gamma release assay, specifically acting as a surrogate marker of

Mycobacterium tuberculosis, and thus it cannot differentiate between latent and active
infection. Therefore, a positive quantiferon gamma is of no diagnostic utility in this case, as it
could simply indicate previous infection or infection with non-tuberculous mycobacteria.
E Pleural fluid LDH
LDH is non-specifically raised in a number of conditions other than tuberculosis, such as a

rheumatoid arthritis-related effusion or bacterial infection.
Pleural biopsy has a good detection rate for pleural TB. CT will not help determine the cause
of the effusion, merely delineate its size and detect whether there is evidence of an
underlying mass. Fluid pH is less than 7.2 in empyema and hence it is useful in pointing
towards an infective cause but not necessarily TB. A Heaf test, if grade 4, will tell you that the
patient has active TB, but again won’t necessarily indicate that the effusion itself is related to
TB infection. LDH is non-specifically raised in many causes of effusion, including infection,
rheumatoid and TB.
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MyPastest 31/05/2021, 10:06 PM
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MyPastest 31/05/2021, 10:09 PM
A 64-year-old man is admitted to the Emergency Department with a cough productive of

green sputum and a severe deterioration in cough and shortness of breath related to
underlying chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). He normally takes tiotropium and
high-dose Seretide ® and, at best, his peak expiratory flow rate (PEFR) is 260. Today he is only
able to manage 140. He continues to smoke 15 cigarettes per day.
On examination, his blood pressure (BP) is 152/72 mmHg and pulse 85 bpm and regular, and
his temperature is 37.9 °C. There is poor air entry and wheeze throughout both lung fields,
and an area of crackles at the right base. Oxygen saturation on pulse oximetry is 91%. He is
allergic to penicillin.
Investigations:
Normal
values
White cell count 4.0 - 11.0 ×

14.1 × 10 9/l
(WCC) 10 9/l
150 - 400 ×
10 9/l
135 - 145
mmol/l
3.5 - 5.0
mmol/l
50 - 120
µmol/l
C-reactive protein
245 mg/l < 10 mg/l
(CRP)
Changes consistent with COPD and consolidation at

Chest X-ray
the right base
He is treated with nebulisers and corticosteroids.

Which of the following is the most appropriate antibiotic therapy?
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 10:09 PM
A Piperacillin with tazobactam (Tazocin ®)
B Co-amoxiclav
C Cephalexin
D Clarithromycin
E Ciprofloxacin
Explanation 
D Clarithromycin
The answer is Clarithromycin (Option D).
This man has evidence of a community-acquired pneumonia on top of underlying COPD. As

he is penicillin-allergic, a macrolide, such as clarithromycin, is the next most logical step.
Where clarithromycin is prescribed against a background of theophylline, this should be
discontinued during the course of antibiotics. Another option would be doxycycline – not
because of his underlying COPD, but rather due to a diagnosis of community-acquired
pneumonia with a background of penicillin allergy.
A Piperacillin with tazobactam (Tazocin ®)
Piperacillin with tazobactam (Tazocin ®) (Option A) is incorrect.
Tazocin ® contains a penicillin and would therefore be inappropriate. It is also not indicated for
community-acquired pneumonia, unless there is evidence of Pseudomonas.
B Co-amoxiclav
Co-amoxiclav (Option B) is incorrect.
Co-amoxiclav is not appropriate because of the history of penicillin allergy reported here.
C Cephalexin
Cefalexin (Option C) is incorrect.
There is 20% cross-over between penicillin and cephalosporin allergy, and cephalosporins are
not as effective as clarithromycin in this situation.
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 10:09 PM
E Ciprofloxacin
Ciprofloxacin (Option E) is incorrect.

Ciprofloxacin is a potential therapy for COPD exacerbation but is not recommended for the
treatment of pneumonia. It is also now recommended that quinolone treatment is avoided
wherever an effective alternative is available due to a small but significant risk of debilitating
adverse effects.
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MyPastest 31/05/2021, 10:09 PM
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MyPastest 31/05/2021, 10:10 PM
A 54-year-old Asian female, who had emigrated from Pakistan 9 months previously, presents
to A+E with retrosternal discomfort at the site of her sternotomy wound. She had undergone
aortic valve replacement 2 months previously, and subsequently developed a keloid scar. A
wound infection at the incision site is diagnosed, and she is admitted by the surgical team for
removal of the sternotomy sutures.
At 6 days post-procedure she develops right pleuritic chest pain with a temperature of 38°C,
which does not respond to amoxicillin. A CXR is performed which shows a raised right
hemidiaphragm and a right hilar mass (also seen on the lateral film).
Two days after starting antibiotic therapy, the patient also develops dorsal back pain for
which a CT scan of the thorax and a CT scan of her thoracic spine is performed. The result of
the chest CT scan confirms the hilar lymphadenopathy as well as showing a mass within the
right psoas muscle. The CT scan of her mid-thoracic spine shows the destruction of the body
and the process of T8. She goes onto have a bone scan which identifies several ‘hot spots’,
including over the thoracic spine.
What organism is most likely to be cultured from this abscess?
A Escherichia coli
B Mycobacterium tuberculosis
C Streptococcus bovis
D Candida albicans
Explanation 
B Mycobacterium tuberculosis
Pott’s disease is also known as tuberculous spondylitis and is one of the oldest diseases to
afflict humankind. It is usually secondary to an extra-spinal source of infection, primarily from
the lungs or the mediastinal glands through the blood stream. The classical symptoms of
tuberculosis of the spine are pain, rigidity, deformity, cold abscess and paraplegia (following
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 10:10 PM
vertebral collapse). Although any vertebra may be involved, it is usually the lower thoracic
and upper lumbar vertebrae that are affected. Patients also report constitutional symptoms,
including fever and weight loss. This patient had tuberculosis of the lung which had spread to
her spine. Although upper lobe involvement is most common, tuberculosis can be found in
any part of the lung.
A Escherichia coli
This organism is associated with secondary psoas abscess in patients with inflammatory
bowel disease or renal sepsis, but would not explain her respiratory or vertebral symptoms.
C Streptococcus bovis
This organism is associated with gastrointestinal malignancy, but would not explain her
constellation of respiratory, vertebral and psoas symptoms.
D Candida albicans
Systemic candidial infection is most commonly seen in immunocompromised patients such as

those with HIV, and is a less likely diagnosis than TB given the respiratory, vertebral and psoas
features seen.
This is the most common cause of primary psoas abscess, and secondary psoas abscess
where skeletal infection is the primary cause. In this case, this patient probably has
pulmonary TB which has spread to her vertebrae and psoas.
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MyPastest 31/05/2021, 10:11 PM
A 30-year-old man, who is fit and well, is admitted with sudden-onset shortness of breath
associated with sharp chest pain made worse with coughing. The symptoms began suddenly
while the patient was working on his computer.
He is not on any regular medications. His blood pressure (BP) is 145/70 mmHg, and his pulse
is 70 bpm and regular. After clinical examination of the patient, a chest X-ray is requested,
which confirms the presence of a pneumothorax.
Which of the following signs is most likely to have been elicited during the clinical
examination?
A Deviation of the trachea
B Bilateral reduced expansion
C Saturation of 90% on air
D Dull percussion note
E Unilateral decreased breath sounds
Explanation 
E Unilateral decreased breath sounds
This is another classical finding that occurs due to failure of the affected lung to expand
appropriately.
A Deviation of the trachea
A pneumothorax occurs due to the entry of air in the intrapleural space and the subsequent
partial or total collapse of the lung. Pneumothoraces are often spontaneous and are more
likely to occur in young, thin men. A secondary pneumothorax is more likely to occur in the
presence of an underlying lung disease. Patients may be asymptomatic or they may present
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 10:11 PM
with sudden onset of shortness of breath and pleuritic chest pain. The classical signs of a
pneumothorax on clinical examination of the chest include: reduced expansion on the
affected side, hyperresonant percussion note and diminished breath sounds.
A deviated trachea (away from the affected side) is seen in cases of a tension pneumothorax
and is usually accompanied by a combination of respiratory distress, tachycardia, tachypnoea
and hypotension.
B Bilateral reduced expansion
Unilateral reduced expansion is a very common finding in a pneumothorax. Due to the entry
of air, the associated lung collapses and cannot inflate, leading to reduced chest expansion on
the affected side.
C Saturation of 90% on air
The patient described has unremarkable BP and heart rate measurements. Given that and the
fact that spontaneous pneumothoraces are often small, normal saturation levels would be an
expected finding.
D Dull percussion note
Localised hyperresonance is a common finding that occurs due the presence of air in
conjunction with reduced amounts of tissue.
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MyPastest 31/05/2021, 10:12 PM
A 25-year-old teacher presents with a 3-year history of recurrent chest infections that never
really completely resolved after completing a course of antibiotics. She has a cough most
days and produces large volumes of green sputum on a daily basis. She has had mild
haemoptysis in the past. She has noticed weight loss over the past year with increased
lethargy and shortness of breath on exertion. She has no previous past medical history and is
not on any regular medications. On examination she has clubbing and coarse inspiratory
crackles in both her bases, which are worse on the right side. She is 135 cm in height,
apparently significantly shorter than her brothers and sisters.
Which of the following tests is most likely to contribute to determining her
underlying diagnosis?
A cANCA (anti-neutrophil cytoplasmic antigen)
B Delta F508 mutation
C Hepatitis screen
D Alpha-1-antitrypsin testing
E E ESR (erythrocyte sedimentation rate)
Explanation 
B Delta F508 mutation
The patient clinically has bronchiectasis with coarse inspiratory crackles and clubbing and a
history of copious purulent sputum and cough. A number of causes exist with respect to
bronchiectasis in this age group, but heterozygosity for the cystic fibrosis CFTR mutation is
increasingly recognised as being associated with the disease.
A cANCA (anti-neutrophil cytoplasmic antigen)
ANCA-positive vasculitis may be associated with pulmonary disease, although pulmonary

haemorrhage is the usual presentation.
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 10:12 PM
C Hepatitis screen
Viral hepatitis is not usually associated with bronchiectasis, although evidence of cirrhosis
may co-exist with emphysema in patients with alpha-1-antitrypsin deficiency.
D Alpha-1-antitrypsin testing
Alpha-1 antitrypsin deficiency is associated with the development of emphysema, rather than
bronchiectasis.
E E ESR (erythrocyte sedimentation rate)
ESR is a non-specific marker of pulmonary inflammation or infection, and is therefore not

useful in identifying the underlying cause of her symptoms.
32431
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MyPastest 31/05/2021, 10:12 PM
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MyPastest 31/05/2021, 10:14 PM
A 68-year-old woman presents to the clinic complaining of increasing shortness of breath

over the past year. Her GP has prescribed steroid and salbutamol inhalers, but they have
given her little benefit. She has a past history of hypertension and has recently been
prescribed furosemide for swollen ankles. In the past week or so her breathing has begun to
deteriorate more rapidly. Examination reveals an increased respiratory rate at rest and finger
clubbing. Auscultation of the chest reveals end inspiratory crackles at both lung bases.
Viscosity 2.1 mPa/s 1.3–1.7 mPa/s
pH 7.4 7.35–7.45
pO 2 7.2 kPa 10.5–13.5 kPa
pCO 2 3.7 kPa 4.6–6.0 kPa
Interstitial lung disease,

Computed tomography (CT) thorax
evidence of bilateral consolidation
A Sarcoidosis
C Silicosis
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 10:14 PM
D Alveolar cell carcinoma
Explanation 
The clinical picture here of gradual deterioration, coupled with crackles on auscultation
consistent with fibrosis, finger clubbing and the CT findings, fits with the diagnosis. Patients
may suffer an acute deterioration which is accompanied by consolidation, as we see here.
Pulmonary histology may reveal areas of normal lung, interstitial fibrosis, inflammation and
honeycomb change. Perfinidone and nintedanib are both potential interventions for
idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis; they are not curative but are able to slow the decline of lung
function.
A Sarcoidosis
Sarcoidosis presents with bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy and other extrapulmonary features
such as erythema nodosum.
C Silicosis
Silicosis occurs in patients chronically exposed to silica dust, such as stonemasons or miners.
It is associated with egg cell calcification on the chest x-ray, rather than the pattern of
respiratory changes seen here.
D Alveolar cell carcinoma
Alveolar cell carcinoma presents as a peripheral lesion, the cancer arising from epithelial cells
within the alveoli themselves.
Mycoplasma pneumonia is associated with respiratory symptoms over a few days/weeks and
is characterised by wheeze, dry cough and chest pain. The time course in this case is too long
for mycoplasma pneumonia to be the underlying cause for the patient’s symptoms.
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MyPastest 31/05/2021, 10:14 PM
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 10:15 PM
A 64-year-old homeless man is admitted on the routine medical take. He has lost a significant
amount of weight over the past few months and now presents with increasing shortness of
breath. He is a former heavy smoker. On examination: decreased air entry over the right lower
chest and dullness to percussion. Chest X-ray reveals a large, right-sided pleural effusion.
Pleural aspiration is performed.
Which one of the following features, if present, would be the most specific
indicator of probable underlying malignancy?
A Turbid fluid
B High pleural fluid neutrophil count
C Uniform blood staining throughout pleural fluid samples
D Abnormal liver function tests
E Abnormal pleural fluid LDH levels
Explanation 
C Uniform blood staining throughout pleural fluid samples
Uniform blood staining and a protein level of >30 g/l are supportive of a diagnosis of
malignancy.
pH can also be useful for interpreting pleural fluid results. Low pleural fluid pH is associated
with a number of conditions, including pleural infection and empyema, inflammatory effusions
such as those related to rheumatoid arthritis, tuberculosis, malignancy and oesophageal
rupture.
A Turbid fluid
Turbid fluid is suggestive of an infectious cause.
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 10:15 PM
B High pleural fluid neutrophil count
This is also indicative of an infective cause.
D Abnormal liver function tests
Although deranged LFTs may suggest malignancy, there are other causes such as infection
(particularly atypical organisms such as Legionella) and chronic disease such as liver
cirrhosis.
E Abnormal pleural fluid LDH levels
LDH is used to differentiate an exudate from a transudate. Raised LDH is suggestive of an

exudate and therefore infectious or inflammatory cause. It needs to be measured
simultaneously with serum LDH as it is the ratio of pleural fluid to serum LDH that is
interpreted. A ratio >0.6 indicates an exudate.
32374
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MyPastest 31/05/2021, 10:16 PM
A 62-year-old man presented with a 5-day history of shortness of breath and a cough
productive of green sputum. He was able to give a clear and focused history.
On examination, his respiratory rate was 32 breaths per minute and his heart rate was 120
beats per minute. Blood pressure was 110/65 mmHg. On chest auscultation there were coarse
crackles at the left lung base.
Investigations
Neutrophils 10 × 10 6/l 1.5 - 7.0 × 10 9/l
Chest X-ray Left lower lobe consolidation
He is diagnosed with community-acquired pneumonia.
Which factor is most indicative of severity?
A Blood pressure of 110/65 mmHg
B Evidence of focal consolidation
C Neutrophilia
D Pulse rate of 120 beats/min
E Respiratory rate of 32 breaths/min
Explanation 
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 10:16 PM
E Respiratory rate of 32 breaths/min
This forms part of the CURB-65 criteria, an evidence-based scoring system used to estimate
the severity and guide the management of patients with community-acquired pneumonia.
The components of CURB-65 are: confusion (not present in this patient); urea greater than 7
mmol/l (urea here is <7.0 mmol/l); respiratory rate greater than or equal to 30 breaths/min
(this patient meets this criteria as his respiratory rate is 32 breaths/min); systolic blood
pressure less than 90 mmHg (not met in this patient, who has a systolic blood pressure of 110
mmHg); diastolic BP less than 60 mmHg, and age over 65 years (this patient is 62 years old).
A score of 0 in CURB-65 corresponds to a 0.7% risk of mortality, whereas a score of 5
corresponds to a 57% risk. With a score of 1, this patient’s risk is 3.2%. He would be suitable
for outpatient management. If he had scored 2 or more, he should be managed as an
inpatient.
A Blood pressure of 110/65 mmHg
This question relates to the CURB-65 criteria: these clinical criteria provide evidence-based
guidance on the severity of a community-acquired pneumonia and can be used to determine
the appropriate management of a patient (admission vs. outpatient care, and antibiotic
therapy). Blood pressure does form part of the CURB-65 criteria, but patients score a point if
their systolic blood pressure is less than 90 mmHg or diastolic is less than 60 mmHg. This
patient has a systolic blood pressure of 110 mmHg, and therefore this is not the correct
answer. The only criterion on which this patient scores against the CURB-65 is for his
respiratory rate, which is ≥ 30.
B Evidence of focal consolidation
Patients with community-acquired pneumonia can be scored against the CURB-65 criteria, an
evidence-based scoring system that allows estimation of severity and therefore planning of
appropriate management. Chest X-ray findings and evidence of focal consolidation do not
feature in this scoring system. The only CURB-65 criterion met by this patient is for his
respiratory rate, which is ≥32 breaths/min.
C Neutrophilia
This question is asking about CURB-65, an evidence-based scoring system used to determine
the severity and appropriate management of community-acquired pneumonia. Neutrophilia is
not one of the features of CURB-65; the only criterion in CURB-65 met by this patient is for
his respiratory rate, as it is ≥32 breaths/min.
D Pulse rate of 120 beats/min
All patients with community-acquired pneumonia should be scored using CURB-65, an

evidence-based system that estimates disease severity and guides appropriate management.
Pulse rate is not one of the components of CURB-65: the only component met by this patient
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 10:16 PM
is respiratory rate, as his respiratory rate is ≥32 breaths/min.

71041
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 External Links
CURB-65 Pneumonia Severity Score

reference.medscape.com/calculator/curb-65-pneumonia-severity-score?pa=2TrPCXym%2FpRW…
(https://reference.medscape.com/calculator/curb-65-pneumonia-severity-score?
pa=2TrPCXym%2FpRW5UznakMMXSMXVQzn1MzKpgV4qBuIIWdqVsHZIJNA%2FQno%2FfNtJbTr8
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 10:16 PM
Overview
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MyPastest 31/05/2021, 10:17 PM
A 17-year-old student presents with a persistent cough productive of brown/green sputum.

He occasionally produces a small amount of blood. His mother said he had always suffered
from chest infections, requiring numerous courses of antibiotics. He also complained of
offensive-smelling stools which were difficult to flush .
On examination, he looks small for his age. Auscultation of his chest revealed bi-basal coarse
crackles.
Investigations:
Platelets (PLT) 511 × 10 9/l 150–400 × 10 9/l
Aspartate aminotransferase (AST) 34 u/l 10–40 u/l
Alkaline phosphatase (ALP) 93 u/l 30–150 u/l
Albumin 39 g/l 35–55 g/dl
Total protein level 50 g/l 60–83 g/l
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 10:17 PM
How would you make a diagnosis?
A Sweat test
B Measure immunoglobulins
C High-resolution CT scan
D Electron microscopy of cilia
E Full lung function tests
Explanation 
B Measure immunoglobulins
This patient has X-linked hypogammaglobulinaemia. The main clue is the calculated globulin
fraction, which is low, if you minus the albumin from the total protein.
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 10:17 PM
Patients usually present in childhood with recurrent infections, which result in bronchiectasis
if untreated, and malabsorption, in a similar way to patients with cystic fibrosis. All
immunoglobulin classes and B cells and plasma cells are reduced.
The defect is in the differentiation of pre-B cells into B cells. T cells are normal. The gene
defect is on the long arm of the X chromosome, making it an X-linked condition.
Treatment is with intravenous (iv) immunoglobulin therapy which, if started early, can prevent
progression of disease. The chest X-ray shows bronchiectasis – parallel thickened bronchial
walls with a ‘tram track’ appearance.
A Sweat test
This is a diagnostic test for cystic fibrosis. This can present in infancy with failure to thrive,
typically due to pancreatic insufficiency. Cough, recurrent chest infections, malabsorption and
recurrent sinusitis are typical features. However, the low globulins in this patient’s case make
X-linked hypogammaglobulinaemia a more likely diagnosis here.
C High-resolution CT scan
This would help diagnose bronchiectasis but would not reveal the underlying cause in this
case.
D Electron microscopy of cilia
This is a diagnostic test for primary ciliary dyskinesia, associated with chronic/recurrent
respiratory infections and sinusitis. Up to 50% of patients with PCD have situs inversus.
Kartagener syndrome is a subset of this condition, associated with bronchiectasis, sinusitis
and dextrocardia.
E Full lung function tests
Lung function tests would help assess the severity of lung function impairment but would not
be diagnostic of hypogammaglbulinaemia.
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MyPastest 31/05/2021, 10:18 PM
A 24-year-old man presents to the Emergency Admission for being unwell over the last
couple of days. He tells you that he has had flu for the last four days. He complains of a dry
cough, headache, fever, malaise and muscle pains.
On examination, he is unwell with a blood pressure of 110/60 mmHg, pulse 92/min and a
respiratory rate of 22/min. His oxygen saturation is 95% on air. On auscultation, he has
scattered crackles in both lung fields. His cardiovascular and abdominal examinations are
unremarkable.
Normal
Value
4.0–11.0 ×
10 9/l
150–400 ×
10 9/l
135–145
mmol/l
3.5–5.0
mmol/l
50–120
µmol/l
2.5–6.5
Urea 8.1 mmol/l
mmol/l

89 fl 76–98 fl
(MCV)
Red cell agglutination reticulocytosis, occasional

Blood film
spherocytes
A Streptococcus pneumoniae
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 10:18 PM
C Chlamydia pneumoniae
D Legionella pneumophila
E Viral pneumonia
Explanation 
Mycoplasma pneumoniae is a disease of young adults. It presents with flu-like symptoms with
low-grade fever, dry cough, headache and myalgia. Cold agglutinins may cause an
autoimmune haemolytic anaemia. Coombs’ test is positive. The low sodium is related to
SIADH. Treatment is with clarithromycin or doxycycline. It is important to note that
clarithromycin should be given orally unless contraindicated, as it has good bio-availability
when given orally and can often cause thrombophlebitis when given intravenously.
Streptococcal pneumonia is the most common type of pneumonia but has higher incidence in
the elderly, post-splenectomy and in those with pre-existing heart or lung disease. Patients
usually present with fever, pleurisy and can develop sepsis. Chest X-ray demonstrates lobar
consolidation, and diagnosis can be confirmed with urinary antigen. The dry cough and
myalgia features, as well as electrolyte disturbances, make this a less likely diagnosis.
Spread occurs between people and follows a biphasic course, first with pharyngitis,
hoarseness and otitis, then leading to pneumonia. Diagnosis is with chlamydophila fixation
test and PCR. Treatment is with clarithromycin. The absence of upper airway symptoms
makes this a less likely diagnosis.
Legionella has an incubation period of 2–10 days, and presents with fever, rigors, headache,
myalgia, dry cough, progressively increasing respiratory distress and confusion. Diarrhoea
and vomiting are common, as are non-specific liver function test abnormalities. Relative
bradycardia may be seen in some patients, in contrast to other acute pneumonias. Pleural
effusion may be seen in up to 50%, and chest X-ray appearance may take up to 4 months to
return to normal. Diagnosis is made with serology, or with PCR on urinary Legionella antigen.
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 10:18 PM
Treatment is with quinolones as first-line therapy, with macrolides as a potential alternative.

Complications include pericarditis, encephalitis and kidney disease. This is a strong
differential diagnosis, but the electrolyte disturbance and absence of travel history makes this
a less likely diagnosis.
E Viral pneumonia
Viral pneumonia can occur with influenza, measles, CMV and varicella zoster. Whilst the
symptoms of myalgia would match with a viral infection, the presence of haemolysis would
not be explained, making it an unlikely diagnosis.
7513
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MyPastest 31/05/2021, 10:18 PM
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MyPastest 31/05/2021, 10:19 PM
A 70-year-old woman presents in acute respiratory distress. She gives a history of some chest
pain earlier that morning, which was worse on coughing. She is an ex-smoker of 30 pack-
years (20/day for 30 years).
On examination, she looks unwell. Respiratory rate is 30/min, pulse 120/min, blood pressure
(BP) 80/50 mmHg and O 2 saturation is 80% on air. Heart sounds are normal and her chest is
clear.
ABG on air:
pH 7.44
PO 2 7.0 kPa
PCO 2 3.25 kPa
Base excess -2.6
You manage to get an urgent CT within the hour, shown below.
The patient deteriorates.

What is the immediate management?
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 10:19 PM
A IV diuretic
B IV antibiotics
C Streptokinase
D Alteplase
E Low-molecular weight heparin
Explanation 
D Alteplase
This woman has had a massive pulmonary embolus. She presented with shortness of breath
and tachypnoea. Her arterial blood gases show she has type I respiratory failure; note the low
CO 2 – common in PE.
The CT shows large filling defects in the left and right main pulmonary arteries.
British Thoracic Society guidelines on the treatment of massive PE state that if a PE is

sufficiently severe to cause circulatory collapse, thrombolysis should be given as early as
possible. The current guidelines recommend alteplase as the thrombolytic agent of choice as
it can be given to the hypotensive patient, as in this example.
A IV diuretic
Diuretics would be an appropriate treatment for acute pulmonary oedema.
B IV antibiotics
Intravenous antibiotics would be appropriate treatment if clinically she had severe pneumonia
or sepsis.
C Streptokinase
The thrombolytic therapy of choice for PE with haemodynamic instability is alteplase, as

streptokinase can worsen hypotension.
E Low-molecular weight heparin
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 10:19 PM
Low-molecular weight heparin is used to treat patients with PE and no haemodynamic

compromise while they are initiated on long-term anticoagulation, such as warfarin, to
therapeutic levels. Unfractionated heparin can be used alongside thrombolysis in patients
with PE and haemodynamic instability.
70081
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MyPastest 31/05/2021, 10:19 PM
Management
Prognosis
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 10:21 PM
You admit a 73-year-old man to the Emergency Department. He has had influenza over the
past few days and has a worsening cough productive of purulent, blood-stained sputum.
Observations: BP 122/72 mmHg, pulse 90/min and regular, respiratory rate 28/min. There are
signs of right lower lobe pneumonia. A routine blood screen including arterial blood gas is
performed.
Which one of the following features on admission is likely to be associated with a
poorer prognosis when symptoms, signs and investigations are reviewed?
A Age
B Respiratory rate 28/min
C Serum urea 6 mmol/l
D Albumin 37 g/l
E ALT slightly outside the normal range
Explanation 
A Age
Age >65 years is associated with a poorer prognosis in acute pneumonia. Other features not
present here and which are associated with poorer prognosis include:
confusion;
urea >7 mmol/l;
respiratory rate >30/min;
blood pressure <90 systolic or <60 diastolic.
These features plus age make up the CURB-65 criteria. Where all five features are present,
mortality from pneumonia is >50%, whereas 0-1 features carries a mortality rate of <3%.
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 10:21 PM
B Respiratory rate 28/min
The normal respiratory rate is 12-20 breaths per minute. It is likely to be elevated in the
context of pneumonia, due both to the lung pathology and systemic effects of the infection.
C Serum urea 6 mmol/l
Normal serum urea is 2.5-7 mmol/l. This is a normal result and not of clinical significance.
D Albumin 37 g/l
Normal serum albumin levels are >35-50 g/l. This is therefore normal and not of prognostic
significance.
E ALT slightly outside the normal range
Deranged liver function tests tend to occur in atypical pneumonias such Legionella or
Mycoplasma. Elevated ALT can indicated a poor prognosis, though a mild elevation is unlikely
to be of clinical significance.
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MyPastest 31/05/2021, 10:21 PM
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MyPastest 31/05/2021, 10:23 PM
You are asked to comment on some arterial blood gas results. You understand the sample
was taken from a 64-year-old patient attending one of the outpatient clinics. The clinical
information says 'female smoker with shortness of breath, wheeze on auscultation of the
chest'.
pH 7.38 7.35–7.45
pCO 2 6.5 kPa 4.6–6.0 kPa
pO 2 8.0 kPa 10.5–13.5 kPa
Which of the following is the most likely underlying diagnosis?
A Diuretic therapy
B Bartter syndrome
C Chronic COPD
D Acute exacerbation of COPD
E Conn syndrome
Explanation 
C Chronic COPD
This picture is consistent with chronic COPD, as exhibited by CO 2 retention in the presence of
a pH within the normal range. What has occurred over time is renal compensation with
conservation of bicarbonate, leading to the elevated HCO 3 – level of 38 mmol/l which is seen
here.
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 10:23 PM
A Diuretic therapy
Although diuretic therapy does result in a metabolic alkalosis, the raised bicarbonate seen
here is as a result of compensation for chronic respiratory acidosis.
B Bartter syndrome
Bartter syndrome is associated with metabolic alkalosis and normal blood pressure. It often
presents in infancy as a result of salt wasting. The elevated bicarbonate is inconsistent with
Bartter as the underlying diagnosis.
D Acute exacerbation of COPD
An acute exacerbation is likely to be associated with respiratory acidosis due to further CO 2

retention, and it’s unlikely the patient would be attending the outpatient’s clinic.
E Conn syndrome
Conn syndrome is associated with metabolic alkalosis and hypertension, but not with the CO 2
retention seen here.
During an acute exacerbation a vicious circle occurs, with inadequate gas exchange leading
to progressive hypoxia and CO 2 retention, resulting in worsening acidosis.
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MyPastest 31/05/2021, 10:26 PM
A 56-year-old man is referred to the outpatients department with a 2-year history of

increasing breathlessness and deteriorating exercise tolerance. He has a non-productive
cough and always feels tired, so much so that he has needed to ask his wife to help him look
after his pigeons, which he has been racing for many years. Over the last year he has lost
about 1 stone in weight. He has a past medical history of asthma as a child. In his social
history, he has had no history of recent foreign travel, except to France. He has always worked
in a bank and is an ex-smoker who drinks minimal amounts of alcohol.
On examination, he is not clubbed. On auscultation of his chest, he has fine inspiratory

crackles.
ABGs on air reveal:
pH 7.36
PO 2 7.4 kPa
PCO 2 4.7 kPa
FEV 1 70% predicted
FVC 64% predicted
KCO 53% predicted
TLCO 55% predicted
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 10:26 PM
A Bronchopulmonary aspergillosis
B Extrinsic allergic alveolitis
D Psittacosis
E Sarcoidosis
Explanation 
B Extrinsic allergic alveolitis
The patient has interstitial lung disease, demonstrated by the slowly progressive shortness of
breath, type I hypoxia and restrictive lung function tests with reduced TLCO and KCO. In the
chest radiograph there is reticular nodular shadowing. The diagnosis is extrinsic allergic
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 10:26 PM
alveolitis secondary to pigeons – bird fancier's lung. This is caused by inhaled avian serum
proteins (usually IgA) present in the pigeon's feathers and excreta. It is a hypersensitivity
pneumonitis caused by a specific immunological response to inhaled organic dusts. EAA may
present either as an acute or a chronic disease. Acute disease develops several hours after
exposure to high concentrations of the allergen. Breathlessness and flu-like symptoms occur
sometimes with headaches, fever and myalgia. Symptoms usually resolve within 48 h. The
patient has chronic disease, as it has progressed to interstitial lung disease with fibrosis.
The diagnosis of extrinsic allergic alveolitis is made by:
Identifying a potential source of antigen

Characteristic clinical features: this patient has chronic EAA and presents with similar
features to pulmonary fibrosis – clubbing tends to occur later (idiopathic pulmonary
fibrosis would typically be associated with clubbing)
Characteristic radiology (usually upper lobe fibrosis)
Lung function tests – showing a restrictive defect with reduced carbon monoxide gas
transfer
Demonstrating precipitating antibodies (precipitins) in the patient's serum
Resolution or improvement of symptoms following avoidance of exposure to the cause
Histology of lung tissue biopsy showing a mononuclear cell infiltrate with the formation
of non-caseating granulomas
Fluid obtained from bronchoalveloar lavage has a high lymphocyte count (typically
>40%).
Treatment is avoidance of the antigen. Corticosteroids may improve recovery in acute attacks
but do not seem to provide long-term benefit. They are not usually helpful once fibrosis has
occurred.
Other causes of EAA include:
Farmer's lung, due to Micropolyspora faeni and Thermactinomyces in mouldy hay, straw
and grain
Bagassosis due to Thermactinomyces sacchari in sugar cane processing
Malt worker's lung due to Aspergillus clavatus
Mushroom worker's lung due to thermophilic actinomycetes
Ventilation and water-related contamination, e.g. due to thermophilic actinomycetes
contaminating air-conditioning systems
Veterinary workers and animal handlers
Workers in milling and construction, e.g. wood dust pneumonitis due to Alternaria spp.
Causes of upper-zone fibrosis:
Progressive massive fibrosis/coal worker's pneumoconiosis
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 10:26 PM
Ankylosing spondylitis
Sarcoid/silicosis
Tuberculosis
Extrinsic allergic alveolitis
Radiation (depending on site).
A Bronchopulmonary aspergillosis
The chest radiograph shows diffuse infiltrates. CXR findings in ABPA are more likely to
include proximal bronchiectasis, lobar collapse or discrete pulmonary infiltates.
There is a clear precipitant to interstitial lung disease here.
D Psittacosis
Psittacosis is an infection caused by Chlamydia psittacosis. It usually presents with a sudden

onset of fever, dry cough and headache following a recent exposure to birds. Psittacosis is
typically linked to parrots. The duration of symptoms is too long for psittacosis, and the chest
X-ray changes are too widespread.
E Sarcoidosis
Exposure to pigeons and weight loss make EAA more likely than sarcoidosis.
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MyPastest 31/05/2021, 10:28 PM
A 49-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department complaining of haemoptysis.

She has attended the GP on three previous occasions over the past 6 months complaining of
recurrent nose bleeds and sinusitis.
Examination of the chest reveals scattered crackles and signs of consolidation, particularly on
the left-hand side. On further questioning, she admits to smoking 30 cigarettes per day.
Investigations:
White cell count

8.1 × 10 9/l 4.0 - 11.0 × 10 9/l
(WCC)
150 - 400 ×
10 9/l
135 - 145
mmol/l
c-ANCA Positive
Consolidation with evidence of granuloma

Chest X-ray
formation
A Anti-GBM disease
B Eosinophilic granulomatosis with polyangiitis
C Sarcoidosis
D Tuberculosis
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 10:28 PM
E Granulomatosis with polyangiitis (GPA)
Explanation 
E Granulomatosis with polyangiitis (GPA)
The picture seen here fits well with a diagnosis of GPA, with positive c-ANCA, anaemia with
leukocytosis, thrombocytosis, granulomas on CXR and evidence of renal involvement.
Diagnosis is confirmed by taking a histology sample from affected tissue. Easiest to obtain is
usually a biopsy of nasal/ upper respiratory tract mucosa, but if this is impossible, lung or
renal biopsy is the alternative. Most physicians begin treatment with a course of 3 days’ high-
dose IV methylprednisolone and cyclophosphamide, with the aim of inducing remission from
granulomatosis with polyangiitis. This is followed by conversion to lower doses of orals. IV
immunoglobulin may be used in patients who are severely ill. More recently, IV rituximab (an
anti-CD20 antibody) has shown promising results in inducing a clinical response in patients
resistant to medical treatment.
A Anti-GBM disease
The are no granulomas on chest X-ray in anti-GBM disease. This most typically presents with
pulmonary haemorrhage in the context of rapidly deteriorating renal function.
B Eosinophilic granulomatosis with polyangiitis
Eosinophilic granulomatosis with polyangiitis typically presents with asthma and peripheral
blood eosinophilia. There is eosinophilic vasculitis. However, unlike this scenario, there is no
granuloma formation in the lungs and it is associated more with p-ANCA positivity.
C Sarcoidosis
Although sarcoid is a granulomatous disease, it is not associated with a positive ANCA.
D Tuberculosis
Pulmonary tuberculosis may present with haemoptysis. However, C-ANCA would not be
positive.
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MyPastest 31/05/2021, 10:28 PM
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 10:29 PM
A 24-year-old man with a known history of cystic fibrosis (CF) presents as a self-admission to
the ward. He has increased volume of purulent sputum, more shortness of breath and left-
sided chest ache. On reviewing his history, you note that he is under consideration for the
transplant list and has been colonised with Pseudomonas for some years. On examination he
is pyrexial, with a temperature of 38.2°C, and appears very unwell with FEV 1 (forced
expiratory volume in 1 s) having fallen to <75% of the previous recorded value. He is
hypotensive and tachycardic, with a respiratory rate of 32/min. Gram-negative rod-shaped
bacilli are isolated from his sputum.
Which of the following micro-organisms would fit best with this pattern of
deterioration?
C Streptococcus pneumoniae
D Burkholderia cepacia
E Stenotrophomonas maltophilia
Explanation 
D Burkholderia cepacia
Cepacia syndrome is associated with a severe worsening of respiratory symptoms in a small

number of patients with cystic fibrosis. Thankfully the majority of patients colonised with B.
cepacia do not, however, suffer a deterioration in their underlying condition. Cepacia is known
to demonstrate resistance to multiple antibiotics including colomycin and aminoglycosides,
and hence intravenous regimes involving two or more antibiotics such as ceftazidime and an
aminoglycoside should be employed. Other possible combinations include ceftazidime and
chloramphenicol or chloramphenicol and minocycline. Approximately 2.5–3.0% of cystic
fibrosis individuals are thought to be colonised with B. cepacia, and measures are usually
taken to limit colonisation where possible.
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 10:29 PM
H. influenzae colonisation is frequently seen in patients with CF, where they are visible as
Gram-negative cocci in sputum samples. Colonisation may be associated with acute
exacerbations of cystic fibrosis.
S. aureus is most likely to be associated with lower respiratory tract infection post-influenza.
There is no apparent preceding episode of influenza reported here.
S. pneumoniae is a Gram-positive coccus that does cause community-acquired pneumonia.

However, the picture here with rapid deterioration and rod-shaped bacilli on sputum sampling
is more consistent with B. cepacia syndrome.
E Stenotrophomonas maltophilia
S. maltophilia colonises equipment used in mechanical ventilation and urinary catheters and
is a rare cause of opportunistic infection in these settings.
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MyPastest 31/05/2021, 10:30 PM
An 18-year-old woman comes to the Emergency Room complaining of extreme lethargy. A

couple of weeks earlier she had suffered from a nasty bout of gastroenteritis after a takeaway
meal. She complains of abnormal sensation and numbness in her fingers, and weakness of her
lower legs. She is generally hypotonic and has difficulty standing. On examination there is a
postural drop in BP of 20 mmHg to 105/70 mmHg, and she has a resting tachycardia of 90
BPM. No deep tendon reflexes can be elicited in her lower limbs. Only medication of note
includes the oral contraceptive pill.
Platelets (PLT) 230 × 10 9/l 150–400 × 10 9/l
Thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH) 1.8 µU/l 0.17–3.2 µU/l
Given the likely diagnosis, which of the following is the most important way to
monitor the progress of her condition?
A Lumbar puncture
B Anti-GQ1b antibodies
C FVC
D FEV 1
E Creatine kinase levels
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 10:30 PM
Explanation 
C FVC
This woman has a history consistent with Guillain–Barré syndrome (GBS), which is known to
occur after an episode of bacterial gastroenteritis. Typical symptoms seen here include
paraesthesia in the fingers, with progressive lower limb weakness. Autonomic signs such as
tachycardia and postural hypotension also occur. FVC is the most helpful investigation in
assessing prognosis. Respiratory failure, including supervening bacterial pneumonia, is the
most important cause of morbidity/mortality associated with the condition.
A Lumbar puncture
Although an elevation in CSF protein may be seen, this may be normal in the early stages of
the condition and therefore doesn’t rule out the diagnosis.
B Anti-GQ1b antibodies
Anti-GQ1b antibodies are found in the Miller Fisher variant of GBS, which is associated with
ophthalmoplegia; they are not predictive of outcomes in the condition.
D FEV 1
FEV 1 is a marker of airways obstruction, and is much more useful in the monitoring of asthma
and COPD.
E Creatine kinase levels
CK is a marker of disease activity in dermatomyositis, and is not useful in monitoring of

Guillain–Barré syndrome.
21025
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MyPastest 31/05/2021, 10:30 PM
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Overview
Management
Prognosis
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 10:31 PM
You review a 35-year-old woman who is overweight, with a body mass index (BMI) of 31. She
presents with increasing lethargy and shortness of breath over the past few weeks. She has a
past history of deep vein thrombosis three years ago. Electrocardiogram (ECG) reveals
evidence of right ventricular hypertrophy. Her BP is 145/82 mmHg, with pulse 92/min and
regular. Saturations are 91% on air and fall on only minor exercise. D-dimers are above the
upper limit of normal.
A Right heart failure
B Sleep apnoea syndrome
C Single massive pulmonary embolus
E Cardiomyopathy
Explanation 
Right ventricular hypertrophy and the previous history of deep venous thrombosis point
towards a diagnosis of multiple pulmonary emboli; raised D-dimers also support the
diagnosis of thromboembolic disease. Lifelong warfarinisation is the treatment of choice. If
further pulmonary emboli occur, then the patient should be considered for insertion of an
inferior vena cava (IVC) filter.
A Right heart failure
There is no evidence of right heart failure symptoms, such as elevated JVP, peripheral
oedema or ascites.
B Sleep apnoea syndrome
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 10:31 PM
Although this patient is overweight (a risk factor for sleep apnoea), she does not have the
features suggestive of sleep apnoea such as sleepiness and snoring.
C Single massive pulmonary embolus
There is no evidence of circulatory collapse – this patient does not have a low systolic blood
pressure drop to suggest a massive pulmonary embolus.
E Cardiomyopathy
Unless this patient has arrhythmogenic right cardiomyopathy (a rare genetic condition), right
ventricular hypertrophy on ECG does not fit with this picture.
32449
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MyPastest 31/05/2021, 10:31 PM
Overview
Management
Prognosis
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 10:32 PM
A 56-year-old man presented to his General Practitioner (GP) with a 4-week history of feeling
generally unwell. He described nasal congestion, with pain under his left eye, flu-like
symptoms and lethargy. His GP made a diagnosis of sinusitis and gave him a course of
antibiotics. He did not improve and developed breathlessness, cough and chest pain. He had
previously been fit and his only past medical history was of an inguinal hernia repair 10 years
previously. He worked in a shop. He smoked 10 cigarettes a day and drank about 10 units of
alcohol a week. He was taking no regular medication.
On examination he looked unwell and pale. Observations: respiratory rate 34/min, BP 140/85
Urinalysis:
Protein ++
Blood ++
Nitrites -
Leucocytes -
Bilirubin -
Haematology:
Platelets (PLT) 510 × 10 9/l 150 - 400 × 10 9/l
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 10:32 PM
Spirometry:
FEV1 72% predicted
FVC 77% predicted
KCO 122% predicted
A Intravenous antibiotics
B Intravenous diuretics
C Cyclophosphamide and methylprednisolone
D Methylprednisolone and Methotrexate
E Plasma exchange
Explanation 
C Cyclophosphamide and methylprednisolone
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 10:32 PM
narrow the diagnosis down to a vasculitis, Goodpasture syndrome and SLE.
This patient has granulomatosis with polyangiitis. The clinical diagnosis is made by the triad
of upper respiratory tract (nasal polyps and sinusitis), lower respiratory tract and renal
First-line immunosuppressive therapy is with cyclophosphamide and methylprednisolone.
Systemic diseases:
Others:
Uraemic pneumonitis
glomerulonephritis
cystic fibrosis.
A Intravenous antibiotics
This would be an appropriate treatment for severe pneumonia or sepsis.
B Intravenous diuretics
This would be appropriate for acute pulmonary oedema.
D Methylprednisolone and Methotrexate
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 10:32 PM
This combination may be considered as initial treatment for non-organ or life-threatening

granulomatosis with polyangiitis. This gentleman is clearly very unwell and has renal
involvement.
E Plasma exchange
Most patients with granulomatosis with polyangiitis are treated initially with
immunosuppression rather than plasma exchange. Patients with rapidly worsening renal
function (> 500 µmol/l), despite immunosuppression, or marked pulmonary haemorrhage are
usually referred earlier for plasma exchange.
70090
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MyPastest 31/05/2021, 10:32 PM
Overview
Management
Prognosis
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 10:33 PM
A 39-year-old lady from Zimbabwe presents to the Emergency Department with a 5-day
On examination she looked unwell. Observations: temperature 38.3°C, BP 108/72 mmHg,

crackles bibasally.
Investigations:
Neutrophils 8.6 × 10 9/l 1.0 - 7.0 × 10 9/l
Lymphocytes 0.6 × 10 9/l 1.5 - 4.5 × 10 9/l
Platelets (PLT) 439 × 10 9/l 150 - 400 × 10 9/l
Blood gases on 80% oxygen Result
pH 7.46
PCO 2 3.44 kPa
PO 2 10.77 kPa
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 10:33 PM
Base excess -3.5
Her chest X-ray is shown:
A Legionella pneumonia
B Pneumocystis jirovecii pneumonia
C Pulmonary embolus
D Nocardiosis
E CMV pneumonitis
Explanation 
intravenous drug users are more likely to have HIV.
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 10:33 PM
In PJP the chest X-ray usually shows bilateral interstitial shadowing and cysts in the mid and
lower zones. However, the CXR may be normal. Pneumothorax (because the cysts rupture)
may be present in up to 10%.
antibodies.

Other respiratory diseases associated with immunosuppression, in particular with HIV and
AIDS, include:
Tuberculosis
Other bacterial pneumonias, including Mycobacterium avium-intracellulare
Cryptococcus (other fungi include – Candida, Histoplasma, Nocardia and Aspergillus
fumigatus
CMV pneumonitis (other viruses include herpes simplex, Epstein–Barr virus)
Toxoplasmosis
Kaposi’s sarcoma
Lymphoma
A Legionella pneumonia
The history is clearly suggestive of underlying HIV (patient from Zimbabwe, 2-month history
of being unwell and night sweats, weight loss). The chest radiograph shows widespread
changes in keeping with Pneumocystis pneumonia. There is very little in the history or
investigation results to suggest Legionella pneumonia.
C Pulmonary embolus
The pleuritic chest pain in this case is most likely due to pleurisy, although clinicians must be
aware that there is a risk of pneumothorax in Pneumocystis pneumonia.
D Nocardiosis
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 10:33 PM
HIV-positive individuals are at risk of nocardiosis, but you would expect a productive cough
and history of abscess formation (e.g. skin abscesses, neurological symptoms to suggest
brain abscess or lung abscess and cavitation). Diffuse pulmonary shadowing can occur, but
the overall history is more in keeping with Pneumocystis.
E CMV pneumonitis
HIV-positive individuals are at risk of CMV pneumonitis, and this is the main differential here.
One might expect GI or visual symptoms suggestive of systemic CMV disease. The lack of
these symptoms with the history of pleuritic chest pain makes Pneumocystis pneumonia
more likely.
70098
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MyPastest 31/05/2021, 10:33 PM
Overview
Management
Prognosis
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 10:35 PM
A 21-year-old woman who is visiting the United Kingdom from East Africa comes to the
Emergency Department for review. She has been suffering from chronic cough, fevers and
weight loss over the last six months and is worried there may be a serious underlying
problem. There is no past medical history of note, apart from an episode of shingles on the
chest wall some 12 months earlier.
On examination, she is thin, with a body mass index (BMI) of 20 kg/m 2, and there is
generalised lymphadenopathy. There are coarse breath sounds in the mid and lower zones
bilaterally on auscultation.
Lymphocytes 1.0 × 10 9/l 1.5–3.5 × 10 9/l
Platelets (PLT) 171 × 10 9/l 150–400 × 10 9/l
Mantoux test: Negative

MyPastest 31/05/2021, 10:35 PM
A Pertussis scarring
B Sarcoidosis
C Scleroderma
D Tuberculosis
E Varicella pneumonia
Explanation 
D Tuberculosis
Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) infection is a recognised cause of negative Mantoux, in

the presence of active TB, the most likely clinical picture here. The chest X-ray picture fits
with miliary TB, and the symptoms of fevers, cough and weight loss also support the
diagnosis. Increased exposure to HIV is seen in patients from the African subcontinent.
Initiation of anti-tuberculous therapy, coupled with highly active antiretroviral therapy
(HAART) once the diagnosis of HIV is confirmed, are the most appropriate next steps.
A Pertussis scarring
Scarring over the long term from pertussis leads to symptoms and signs of bronchiectasis.
With respect to the chest X-ray findings, these can include parallel line opacities, known as
tram tracks, caused by dilated, thickened bronchi. Ring opacities or cystic spaces may be
seen which are large (2 cm in diameter), and these result from cystic bronchiectasis. The
signet ring sign, which is said to be characteristic of bronchiectasis, corresponds to a dilated
bronchus, immediately adjacent to a smaller pulmonary artery.
B Sarcoidosis
Sarcoidosis is characteristically associated with bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy. It does not

fit with the multiple peripheral nodules seen here on the chest X-ray.
C Scleroderma
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 10:35 PM
Scleroderma (systemic sclerosis) does not fit with the picture seen here on chest X-ray. The
chest X-ray may be normal in early pulmonary fibrosis related to systemic sclerosis. Over the
longer term, generalised patchy opacification consistent with pulmonary fibrosis is seen,
rather than the nodular changes seen here.
E Varicella pneumonia
Previous varicella pneumonia does lead to nodular calcification seen on chest X-ray, but it
would not explain the symptoms of active infection reported here.
39657
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
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 10:35 PM
Overview
Management
Prognosis
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 10:47 PM
A 34-year-old woman presents with increasing breathlessness, complaining that she is no

longer able to chase after her 4-year-old child. She also complains of chest pain and light-
headedness and has recently noticed swelling of the ankles. There is no past medical history
of note, particularly with respect to chronic chest disease or venous thromboses. On
examination her body mass index (BMI) is 24, the jugular venous pressure (JVP) is elevated,
and there is evidence of tricuspid regurgitation and right heart failure. Chest X-ray (CXR)
shows enlargement of the pulmonary vessels. An echocardiogram is arranged, which shows
markedly elevated right-sided pressures. There is hypoxia and hypocapnia on arterial blood
gas estimation, with desaturation on exercise. Ventilation–perfusion scan is unremarkable.
A Chronic venous thromboembolism
B Idiopathic right heart failure
C Primary pulmonary hypertension
D Secondary pulmonary hypertension
E Pulmonary fibrosis
Explanation 
C Primary pulmonary hypertension
Mean age at presentation for primary pulmonary hypertension is 36 years; patients

characteristically complain of exertional dyspnoea, syncope and symptoms of right heart
failure. Diagnosis is confirmed with echocardiogram, right heart catheterisation and
computed tomography (CT) pulmonary angiogram or ventilation–perfusion scan to rule out
significant thromboembolic disease. Autoantibodies such as anti-SCL-70 and anti-centromere
may point to associated connective tissue disease. Options for intervention include PDE-5
inhibitors, endothelin receptor antagonists and prostacyclin receptor agonists.
A Chronic venous thromboembolism
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 10:47 PM
Chronic venous thromboembolism is less likely given the absence of features to suggest
thrombophilia, and the fact that this patient’s BMI is in the normal range.
B Idiopathic right heart failure
Isolated right heart failure is associated with the peripheral oedema seen here, although the
pulmonary hypertension demonstrated is inconsistent with right heart failure alone.
D Secondary pulmonary hypertension
Secondary pulmonary hypertension occurs as a result of pulmonary fibrosis, either idiopathic

or related to connective tissue disease, and as a result of chronic venous thromboembolism.
There is no past medical history to suggest an underlying cause for pulmonary fibrosis, and
no abnormalities are seen on the CXR to suggest extensive fibrotic disease.
32426
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MyPastest 31/05/2021, 10:47 PM
Session Progress
Overview
Management
Prognosis
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 10:48 PM
A 28-year-old woman, who is ten weeks pregnant with her first child, presents to the
Emergency Department with pleuritic chest pain. Investigations confirm an underlying
diagnosis of pulmonary embolus. She has no known risk factors for venous
thromboembolism.
Which of the following is the most appropriate option for treatment?
A Clopidogrel
B Danaparoid
C Rivaroxaban
D Tinzaparin
E Warfarin
Explanation 
D Tinzaparin
This woman is still in the first trimester and, as such, low-molecular weight heparin is the
most appropriate therapeutic intervention. Low-molecular weight heparins do not cross the
placenta and therefore, the risk to the fetus is minimal.
A Clopidogrel
Antiplatelet therapy is an inadequate treatment for pulmonary embolism. It is imperative that

any patient who is diagnosed with pulmonary embolism receives treatment with an
anticoagulant. In this case, as the patient is pregnant, low-molecular weight heparin is the
most appropriate option.
B Danaparoid
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 10:48 PM
The experience of use of danaparoid in pregnancy is very small (only 60 patients, according
to the summary of product characteristics). Although it is not thought to be teratogenic and
no adverse effects have been reported, it is not recommended.
C Rivaroxaban
Rivaroxaban is contraindicated in pregnancy due to the increased risk for placental

haemorrhage.
E Warfarin
Warfarin is not recommended in the first and third trimesters of pregnancy. Therefore, many
patients take low-molecular weight heparin over the entire pregnancy, rather than switching
between the two.
38203
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MyPastest 31/05/2021, 10:48 PM
Overview
Management
Prognosis
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 10:49 PM
A 69-year-old smoker presents for review. He has a 60-pack year history and has recently
begun losing weight. In addition he has a chronic cough and is thirsty all the time. Past
history of note includes two left carotid territory TIAs in the past year. Blood testing reveals
mild hypercalcaemia, a left upper lobe lung mass is seen on chest X-ray and trans-bronchial
biopsy confirms this to be a squamous cell carcinoma of the bronchus.
Computed
Left upper lobe mass, with maximal dimension of 5.2 cm. No
tomography (CT)
evidence of lymph node, pleural or rib involvement
scan
Spirometry FEV 1 pre surgery less than 40% predicted
Carotid ultrasound
Left carotid 90% stenosis
(US)
Corrected calcium
2.7 mmol/l
(Ca 2+)
Which of the following represents the most appropriate management in this case?
A Refer for left pneumonectomy
B Refer for left upper lobectomy
C Refer for radiotherapy
D Refer for chemotherapy
E Refer for combined chemo- and radiotherapy
Explanation 
E Refer for combined chemo- and radiotherapy
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 10:49 PM
Unfortunately, this patient makes a very poor operative candidate due to his spirometry and
carotid stenosis, which means he is at risk of not having sufficient residual lung function
postoperatively, and of suffering a perioperative stroke. As such, radical radio- and
chemotherapy is the intervention of choice.
A Refer for left pneumonectomy
Pneumonectomy is likely not survivable for this patient, given that his FEV 1 pre-surgery is less
than 40% predicted.
B Refer for left upper lobectomy
Although left upper lobectomy may preserve sufficient lung function in this patient, his
carotid atherosclerosis puts him at high risk of a perioperative stroke.
C Refer for radiotherapy
Radiotherapy alone risks denying this patient access to chemotherapy for squamous cell
carcinoma, which may significantly impact on his 2-year survival.
D Refer for chemotherapy
Chemotherapy alone risks denying this patient access to the benefits of aggressive
radiotherapy – for example, continuous hyperfractionated radiotherapy (CHART).
18548
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Overview
Management
Prognosis
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 10:50 PM
A 60-year-old man with known emphysema presented to the Emergency Department with
sudden onset of severe left-sided pleuritic chest pain and shortness of breath. He is a smoker
of 20/day. On examination he looks unwell. He is pale and sweaty. BP 140/85 mmHg, pulse
120/min, respiratory rate 30/min, SaO 2 88% on air. He has reduced expansion and reduced
breath sounds on the left side. Heart sounds were normal and abdominal examination
unremarkable.
ABGs on air:
pH 7.41
PO 2 7.5 kPa
PCO 2 6.5 kPa
His CXR is shown below;
He is given 28% oxygen and analgesia and his saturations improve.
What would your immediate management of this patient be?
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 10:50 PM
A Chest aspiration
B Insertion of an intercostal chest drain
C Arrange an urgent CT scan of the chest
D Refer to the thoracic surgeons
E Insertion of an intercostal tube and apply suction
Explanation 
B Insertion of an intercostal chest drain
This man has a secondary pneumothorax as he has underlying lung disease. The management
is different for primary (no underlying pulmonary disease) and secondary (underlying
pulmonary disease) pneumothoraces. Current guidelines 1 suggest that an intercostal drain
should be inserted if the patient is breathless, over 50 years old with a significant smoking
history and there is a rim of air of > 2 cm from the chest wall on a standard size chest X-ray.
This patient fits all the above criteria.
Suction should not be applied immediately and it is recommended that it should not be
routinely employed. It maybe considered after 48 hours whilst awaiting surgical review if the
lung is not fully re-expanded or if there is a persistent air leak. Suction should be low-pressure
(-10 to -20 cmH 2O), high-volume.
If this patient had a persistent air leak, despite suction, they should be referred to the
thoracic surgeons. The exact timing of referral remains contentious but it is suggested that in
cases of persistent air leak or failure of the lung to re-expand, an early (3-5 days) thoracic
surgical opinion should be sought.
For secondary pneumothoraces, an early thoracic surgical referral is recommended.
A Chest aspiration
Chest aspiration should only be considered for a secondary pneumothorax <2cm if the
patient is clinically stable.
C Arrange an urgent CT scan of the chest
A CT is not required here, the diagnosis of pneumothorax is clearly visible on CXR.
D Refer to the thoracic surgeons
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 10:50 PM
It would be appropriate to try and resolve pneumothorax with an intercostal drain before
assessing whether a surgical referral is required.
E Insertion of an intercostal tube and apply suction
Suction should be applied with caution due to risk of re-expansion pulmonary oedema. It
should only be applied after consideration and specialist advice and monitoring.
70121
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MyPastest 31/05/2021, 10:50 PM
Overview
Management
Prognosis
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 10:51 PM
A 54-year-old man with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) attends for smoking
cessation advice.
Which of the following methods is likely to be associated with the greatest chance
of quitting?
A Bupropion
B Nicotine replacement lozenges
C Willpower
D Nicotine replacement gum
E Hypnosis
Explanation 
A Bupropion
Studies have shown success in smoking cessation in 20–30% of patients involved in

bupropion studies at 1 year, with marginally higher quit rates seen when bupropion and
nicotine replacement were combined (35%). Studies have shown that varenicline also aids
smoking cessation in combination with motivational support, resulting in higher quit rates
when higher doses were used (44% success rate).
B Nicotine replacement lozenges
Nicotine replacement is associated with a quit rate of only around 10% in clinical trials.
C Willpower
Willpower quit rates are thought to be around only 2–4% at 1 year in reality.
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 10:51 PM
D Nicotine replacement gum
Like option B, nicotine replacement is associated with a quit rate of only around 10% in
clinical trials.
E Hypnosis
Hypnosis aims to improve willpower in the subconscious state, and trials have showed no
greater abstinence rate.
32442
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MyPastest 31/05/2021, 10:51 PM
Overview
Management
Prognosis
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 10:52 PM
A 63-year-old man comes to the Respiratory Clinic for review. He has chronic obstructive
pulmonary disease (COPD), with a 40-pack-year smoking history, having stopped smoking
only two years earlier. Despite taking salbutamol inhalers four to five times per day, he is still
significantly short of breath, has a chronic dry cough, can walk only 30–40 m and only climbs
the stairs once a day.
Examination reveals a blood pressure of 142/72 mmHg and a pulse of 80 bpm and regular. His
chest is hyperexpanded; air entry is poor, and there is fine wheeze on auscultation. Lung
function testing showed a forced expiratory volume in one second (FEV 1) of 30% of
predicted, with no evidence of reversibility.
According to the National Institute of Health and Care Excellence (NICE), which of
the following is the most appropriate next step?
A Add a combination of a long-acting muscarinic agonist (LAMA) + long-acting beta-2

agonist (LABA) inhaler
B Add a combination of a LAMA + inhaled corticosteroid (ICS) inhaler
C Add a combination of LAMA + LABA + ICS
D Add Salmeterol
E Add tiotropium
Explanation 
A Add a combination of a long-acting muscarinic agonist (LAMA) + long-acting beta-2

agonist (LABA) inhaler
Recently updated NICE guidelines suggest using a LAMA + LABA inhaler as second-line
treatment if there is no evidence of reversibility on lung function testing that would suggest
steroid responsiveness.
B Add a combination of a LAMA + inhaled corticosteroid (ICS) inhaler
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 10:52 PM
The addition of a LAMA + ICS inhaler would be appropriate if the patient had asthmatic
features or signs suggesting steroid responsiveness. Importantly, in this case, the patient has
no evidence of reversibility on lung function testing, which suggests that this patient has no
asthmatic features. Other tests that could be used to check steroid responsiveness are a high
blood eosinophil count, substantial variation in FEV 1 over time (at least 400 ml) or
substantial diurnal variation in peak expiratory flow (at least 20%).
C Add a combination of LAMA + LABA + ICS
This option would be an appropriate third-line therapy to consider if the patient fails to
improve with the combination of LAMA + LABA therapy or if they have one to two severe
exacerbations within a 12-month period.
D Add Salmeterol
This patient has significant airway obstruction, which is evidenced by an FEV 1 of 30% and his
significant symptoms of breathlessness. He has already been established on a short-acting
beta-2 agonist, which has failed to control his symptoms. Guidelines suggest that this should
no longer be used second line as a monotherapy and should instead be used in combination.
E Add tiotropium
NICE guidelines now suggest that tiotropium should be used second line in combination with
a LABA or an ICS, depending on the presence of steroid responsiveness, and not as a
monotherapy as previously advised.
72027
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Session Progress
 External Links
National Institute of Health and Care Excellence. 2018. Chronic obstructive pulmon
pulmon……
nice.org.uk/guidance/ng115
(https://www.nice.org.uk/guidance/ng115)
Overview
Management
Prognosis
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 10:52 PM
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 10:53 PM
A 42-year-old homeless man is admitted with confusion, fever and shortness of breath. He is
well known to the Emergency Department and has presented on a number of occasions with
alcohol intoxication. On examination he is pyrexial at 38.6°C. He has a cough productive of
purulent and blood-stained sputum. Auscultation of the chest reveals findings consistent with
left-sided consolidation, and chest X-ray confirms consolidation and evidence of cavitation
with abscess formation.
A Chlamydia psittaci
B Haemophilus influenzae
C Klebsiella pneumoniae
D Staphylococcus aureus
E Streptococcus pneumoniae
Explanation 
C Klebsiella pneumoniae
This patient has pneumonia with evidence of lung abscess formation. Given his history of
alcoholism and the fact there is evidence of cavitation on chest X-ray, Klebsiella is a likely
cause. Third-generation cephalosporins or quinolones provide coverage for community-
acquired infection but macrolides do not. Mortality is particularly high in patients with a
history of alcoholism, potentially as a result of poor nutrition and defective immunity
associated with chronic excess alcohol consumption.
A Chlamydia psittaci
C. psittaci is associated with atypical pneumonia as a result of exposure to infected birds.

Symptoms may initially mimic typhoid fever with fever, joint pains, gastrointestinal (GI)
disturbance, headache and lymphopaenia. A cough and evidence of respiratory tract
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 10:53 PM
infection develop later.
B Haemophilus influenzae
H. influenzae infection is associated primarily with exacerbations of chronic obstructive

pulmonary disease (COPD) rather than the cavitating pneumonia seen here.
S. aureus is also associated with cavitation and abscess formation, but occurs more
commonly after an episode of influenza.
E Streptococcus pneumoniae
S. pneumoniae is a common cause of community-acquired pneumonia, although it is not

usually cavitating.
32429
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MyPastest 31/05/2021, 10:53 PM
Overview
Management
Prognosis
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 10:54 PM
A 31-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department with abdominal pain and
shortness of breath. She has had six attendances in the last six months, including gastritis,
alcohol-related injuries and an upper gastrointestinal (GI) bleed, the latter from which she
self-discharged from hospital one month ago.
She feels generally unwell, and on examination, her respiratory rate is 30 breaths/minute.
Oxygen saturations are 81% on air, and she is apyrexial. She is cyanosed and has widespread
fine inspiratory crackles on auscultation. Her abdomen is diffusely tender, with the pain
moving to her back.
The results of her initial blood tests are as follows:
Adjusted calcium 2.71 mmol/l (2.20–2.60 mmol/l)
Alkaline phosphatase (ALP) 250 iu/l (30–130 iu/l)
Alanine aminotransferase (ALT) 31 iu/l (5–30 iu/l)
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 10:54 PM
What is the most likely cause of this presentation?
A Acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS)
B Flash pulmonary oedema secondary to heart failure
D Pulmonary sepsis
E Transfusion reaction
Explanation 
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 10:54 PM
This patient has presented with a history of alcohol-related disease and abdominal pain. The
nature of the pain, the blood results and the patient’s risk factors all point to a diagnosis of
pancreatitis. The chest X-ray shows diffuse bilateral coalescent opacities, which fits with
ARDS , a known severe complication of pancreatitis. In ARDS, pulmonary oedema is caused
by lung damage of various potential sources, resulting in fluid leakage into the alveoli.
Mortality may be as high as 75%, and early Intensive Therapy Unit (ITU) support is indicated.
B Flash pulmonary oedema secondary to heart failure
The X-ray demonstrates diffuse bilateral coalescent opacities, for which a reasonable
differential diagnosis may be severe pulmonary oedema in the context of heart failure.
However, the clinical stem is much more strongly suggestive of a pancreatitis picture, given
the patient’s age, lack of cardiac risk factors, blood results and history of alcohol excess.
Pulmonary haemorrhage may well be a reasonable differential for this X-ray. However, the
major causes of pulmonary haemorrhage, such as vasculitides, are not suggested in the stem.
D Pulmonary sepsis
It would be important to consider sepsis in this patient, who has raised inflammatory markers
and haemodynamic instability. However, the chest X-ray reveals more than just pneumonia,
with ARDS as the most likely diagnosis.
E Transfusion reaction
This patient has had a previous upper GI bleed, and therefore, it is possible that they recently
had a blood transfusion. However, while ARDS may be a manifestation of a transfusion
reaction, this would tend to appear much more quickly than in this stem. ARDS can develop
over 12–24 hours.
71770
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 External Links
Faculty of Intensive Care Medicine. 2018. Guidelines on the management of ARDS.

ficm.ac.uk/news-events-education/news/guidelines-management-ards
(https://www.ficm.ac.uk/news-events-education/news/guidelines-management-ards)
Overview
Management
Prognosis
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 10:54 PM
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 10:55 PM
A 45-year-old woman complains of shortness of breath, occasional fevers and mild weight
loss, all getting worse over the past months. She does not complain of a cough but
remembered that she had coughed once and produced a twig-shaped mucoid sputum mass.
She has no haemoptysis. She has no past medical history and is on no medications. Her chest
X-ray reveals bilateral, perihilar, dense airspace shadowing. She went on to have a HRCT of
her thorax, which showed a ‘crazy paving’ pattern of extensive, dense, white infiltrates. Her
spirometry was a restrictive pattern with reduced total lung capacity. She also had a
bronchoscopy and lavage, which revealed periodic acid–Schiff (PAS)-positive proteinaceous
fluid and elevated levels of surfactant proteins A and D.
A Chronic pulmonary eosinophilia
B Sarcoidosis
C Extrinsic allergic alveolitis
D Pulmonary alveolar proteinosis
E Pneumocystis jirovecii infection
Explanation 
D Pulmonary alveolar proteinosis
Pulmonary alveolar proteinosis (PAP) is a rare diffuse lung disease in which the alveolar sacs
become filled with protein-rich fluid that characteristically stain for PAS, a protein derived
from surfactant. It usually affects people aged 20–60 years who have no previous lung
disease, men more frequently than women. It can be primary or secondary, the latter being
related to infections with, for example, Pneumocystis jirovecii or atypical mycobacteria, or to
immunosuppressants, organic dusts and haematological malignancy. It usually presents with
shortness of breath and mild constitutional symptoms. Diagnosis is based on bronchial lavage
or biopsy with PAS-positive stains and increased presence of surfactant proteins A and D.
HRCT shows a classic picture of dense infiltrates, often referred to as crazy paving.
Spirometry shows a restrictive pattern with reduced lung capacity and reduced carbon
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 10:55 PM
monoxide diffusion. Most patients do not require treatment unless their shortness of breath is
disabling. Treatment is by washing the alveoli out with salt solution. This can be done by
bronchoscopy or under general anaesthesia through the trachea. If both lungs need washing
then they are done about 5 days apart. The number of washings depends on symptoms. The
prognosis is good.
A Chronic pulmonary eosinophilia
Histology would be expected to show eosinophilic and lymphocytic infiltration of the alveoli
and interstitium, with fibrosis. HRCT typically shows non-segmental areas of consolidation,
with a peripheral predilection.
B Sarcoidosis
This is classically associated histologically with the formation of non-caseating granulomas.

We are not given any history of cutaneous features such as erythema nodosum. The CT
findings also do not fit, with sarcoidosis commonly showing hilar lymphadenopathy and
perilymphatic nodule distribution.
C Extrinsic allergic alveolitis
Hypersensitivity pneumonitis occurs in response to an antigen, such as occurs in, for example,
bird fancier’s lung, etc. We are not given any history of exposure that would explain this
diagnosis, and the CT findings are not in keeping, with a ‘ground glass’ pattern being more
common.
E Pneumocystis jirovecii infection
This is uncommon outwith the context of HIV infection or other cause of

immunocompromise.
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MyPastest 31/05/2021, 10:57 PM
A 68-year-old alcoholic patient with known chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)
was admitted to A&E with a 5-day history of green sputum and fevers. Past history of an
inferior myocardial infarction is noted, and regular medication includes high-dose
combination salmeterol/fluticasone inhaler, atorvastatin, ramipril and aspirin.
On examination, his BP is 95/65 mmHg, with pulse 100/min and regular. His respiratory rate is
25/min. There are signs of left lower lobe consolidation. He answers questions appropriately
and his AMTS is 9/10.
Investigations:
Platelets 266 × 10 9/l 150–400 × 10 9/l
Chest X-ray Extensive left lower lobe consolidation
pH 7.38 7.35–7.45
pO 2 8.9 kPa 10.5–13.5 kPa
pCO 2 4.6 kPa 4.6–6.0 kPa
What is his CURB-65 score?
A 1
B 2
C 3
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 10:57 PM
D 4
E 5
Explanation 
B 2
The CURB-65 score comprises:
age > 65 years

confusion
urea > 7 mmol/l
respiratory rate > 30/min
blood pressure < 90 systolic or 60 diastolic.
In this case, he scores increased risk for age and urea, so the correct answer is B, CURB-65
score of 2. The risk of mortality in patient scoring a 2 is 9.2%, therefore, inpatient treatment is
indicated. A score of over 3 conveys a 22% mortality and patients should be considered for
critical care admission, if appropriate. A score of 1 implies a 1.5% risk of mortality, indicating
outpatient care can be instigated safely.
A 1
This would have been correct if the patient only had one point. A CURB-65 score of 0–1
suggests that home treatment is possible as the risk of mortality stands at 1.5%.
C 3
This patient scores only a 2 on age and urea level. A score of over 3 conveys a 22% mortality
and patients should be considered for critical care admission, if appropriate.
D 4
This patient scores only a 2 on age and urea level. A score of over 3 conveys a 22% mortality
E 5
This patient scores only a 2 on age and urea level. A score of 4 or 5 conveys a 22% mortality
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 10:57 PM
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MyPastest 31/05/2021, 10:57 PM
Overview
Management
Prognosis
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 10:57 PM
A 68-year-old man who has a history of asthma is admitted to hospital with severe
community-acquired pneumonia. You understand that he has a part-time job in a pet shop.
He is severely hypoxic on admission and is transferred immediately to the Intensive Therapy
Unit (ITU). He is treated with meropenem but, after 5 days, is still pyrexial and requiring
significant inotropic and ventilatory support.
Investigations:
Platelets (PLT) 221 × 10 9/l 150–400 × 10 9/l
C-reactive protein (CRP) 82 mg/l (< 10) 0–10 mg/l
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 10:57 PM
By James Heilman, MD [CC BY-SA 3.0 (https://creativecommons.org/licenses/by-sa/3.0) or

GFDL (http://www.gnu.org/copyleft/fdl.html)], from Wikimedia Commons
A Aspergillus
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 10:57 PM
D Klebsiella pneumoniae
E Chlamydia psittaci
Explanation 
The suspicion is that the poor response to broad-spectrum antibiotics is indicative of either
an infection with an atypical pneumonia, such as Chlamydia, or the possibility of a fungal
infection. The chest X-ray appearance of a left upper lobe consolidation is more typical of
Chlamydia than Aspergillus. Tetracyclines are the therapy of choice for Chlamydia pneumonia,
with macrolides as the second option, although there is a significant percentage of treatment
failures on erythromycin. The other clue in the history to this man’s underlying diagnosis is
the fact that he works in a pet shop and may have had exposure to bird faeces.
A Aspergillus
Aspergillus can cause various infections of the lungs. In asthmatics, there can be a type I
hypersensitivity reaction or allergic bronchopulmonary aspergillosis. The latter causes
bronchoconstriction with persistent inflammation, leading to bronchiectasis. Aspergilloma
can occur within a pre-existing cavity, such as from previous tuberculosis or sarcoidosis, and
invasive aspergillosis can occur in immunocompromised patients. This patient does not have
risk factors for an acute Aspergillus reaction.
Staphylococcus pneumonia can occur as a complication of influenza or in intravenous drug

users, as well as at extremes of age. It causes bilateral cavitating bronchopneumonia. The
absence of risk factors makes this an unlikely cause.
Streptococcal pneumonia is the most common type of pneumonia but has a higher incidence
in the elderly, post-splenectomy, and in those with pre-existing heart or lung disease. Patients
usually present with fever and pleurisy and can develop sepsis. Chest X-ray demonstrates
consolidation of the left upper lobe, and diagnosis can be confirmed with urinary antigen.
D Klebsiella pneumoniae
MyPastest 31/05/2021, 10:57 PM
Klebsiella can cause cavitating pneumonia, particularly in alcoholics and the elderly. It often
affects the upper lobes. It commonly displays antibiotic resistance. The location of the
pneumonia makes this less likely.
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MyPastest 31/05/2021, 10:57 PM
Management
Prognosis
MyPastest 01/06/2021, 11:44 AM
A 55-year-old woman presents with a 6-month history of recurrent chest infections. She had
had a few episodes of wheeze and haemoptysis in the last few weeks. She also noticed
intermittent hot flushes, which her GP had put down to the menopause. These could occur at
any time but on occasions were precipitated by alcohol. She had no significant past medical
history and she had never smoked.
On examination, she was anxious; examination of her chest revealed reduced expansion of
the upper right zone. Cardiovascular examination revealed a pansystolic murmur. Blood
results were unremarkable.
What is the treatment of choice?
A Surgery
B Steroid inhaler
C Intravenous antibiotics
D CHOP chemotherapy
E Alpha-adrenergic blockade, e.g. Phenoxybenzamine
Explanation 
MyPastest 01/06/2021, 11:44 AM
A Surgery
The treatment of choice for bronchial carcinoid is surgical resection, as lesions are vascular
and obstructive, leading to potential significant haemoptysis and/or pneumonia.
The disease commonly presents between the ages of 50 and 70 and is unrelated to smoking.
Bronchial carcinoid tumours are the most indolent form of a spectrum of neuroendocrine
tumours of the lung that include small cell lung cancer as the most malignant. They are
thought to arise from Kulchitsky cells in the bronchial mucosa. They usually secrete serotonin
and arise from the large bronchi. Patients may present with a mass, which is usually centrally
located (as in this case – CXR shows right upper lobe collapse), or with recurrent chest
infections, haemoptysis, chest pain and wheeze. Flushing (which may be precipitated by
alcohol, food ingestion, stress or emotion) and diarrhoea may occur. However, patients are
commonly asymptomatic and the tumour is found incidentally.
Carcinoid syndrome occurs when there are secondary tumours in the liver that release
serotonin into the systemic circulation. However, symptoms of carcinoid syndrome may rarely
occur in bronchial carcinoid in the absence of metastases, as the bronchial tree drains directly
into the systemic circulation.
Diagnosis is by detection of 5-hydroxyindoleacetic acid (the metabolite of serotonin) in the

urine, and bronchial carcinoid is usually seen and diagnosed by bronchoscopy and biopsy.
Pellagra may occur due to tumour uptake of tryptophan, the precursor of nicotinic acid.
B Steroid inhaler
This is an appropriate treatment for asthma. In this case a steroid inhaler won’t impact on
bronchial hyper-reactivity and won’t prevent/reduce the risk of lobar infection due to
bronchial obstruction.
C Intravenous antibiotics
This is an appropriate treatment for pulmonary infection, which is not suggested here by the
chronicity and periodicity of symptoms.
D CHOP chemotherapy
This is an appropriate treatment for lymphoma, which is less likely given the symptoms of
intermittent flushing.
E Alpha-adrenergic blockade, e.g. Phenoxybenzamine
This is an appropriate treatment for phaeochromocytoma, where patients should be subject

to complete alpha blockade prior to surgery.
70104
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Management
MyPastest 01/06/2021, 11:44 AM
Prognosis
MyPastest 01/06/2021, 11:46 AM
A 68-year-old retired teacher presents with a 3-month history of recurrent haemoptysis. She
had not sought medical advice at first as it had only been tiny, but the last few times there
was a large amount of blood, which alarmed her. She had also noticed a persistent cough
with some malaise and weight loss. She had a past medical history of tuberculosis when aged
19 years. She was an ex-smoker who stopped 15 years ago and did not drink alcohol. Physical
examination was unremarkable.
The chest X-ray is shown below.
MyPastest 01/06/2021, 11:46 AM
A Apical lung carcinoma
B Aspergilloma
C Reactivation of pulmonary tuberculosis
D Lung abscess
E Mesothelioma
Explanation 
B Aspergilloma
Image: By Yale Rosen from USA (Aspergilloma X-rayUploaded by CFCF) [CC BY-SA 2.0
(https://creativecommons.org/licenses/by-sa/2.0)], via Wikimedia Commons
This is a ball of Aspergillus fungus which forms inside an area of damaged lung tissue, most
commonly secondary to TB but occasionally bronchiectasis, neoplasm or abscess cavity. The
chest X-ray typically shows a round opacity in the upper zone, with a surrounding halo of air.
It is usually asymptomatic, but may cause massive haemoptysis. Treatment is usually surgical
excision of the affected lung segment. Other diseases caused by Aspergillus fumigatus are
allergic bronchopulmonary aspergillosis and invasive aspergillosis.
A Apical lung carcinoma
The appearance on the chest X-ray does not fit with a cancerous growth. Malignant growths
in the lung are speculated on imaging, as the malignant cells follow lymphatic and vascular
systems to grow from a central point.
C Reactivation of pulmonary tuberculosis
Reactivation of TB is a possible diagnosis, but the X-ray does not match with this diagnosis.
TB would show a cavitating lesion or consolidation.
D Lung abscess
The absence of recent infection and fever makes a lung abscess unlikely. An abscess would
also have a denser appearance due to accumulation of fluid within it.
E Mesothelioma
MyPastest 01/06/2021, 11:46 AM
Mesothelioma is rare without exposure to asbsestos, and when it does occur there are
multiple plaques in the pleura, which are not present on this X-ray.
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MyPastest 01/06/2021, 11:46 AM
Management
Prognosis
MyPastest 01/06/2021, 11:47 AM
A 30-year-old man from London with no significant past medical history is engaged on a
holiday to Peru to climb the Inca Trail. He is a non-smoker. After climbing above 3500 m he
has developed a headache, associated with nausea and vomiting. He also feels tired and
complains of insomnia. You are the expedition medic. His respiratory rate is 22/min and his
pulse is 90/min. Chest is clear on auscultation. No investigations are available as the nearest
hospital is over 100 km away.
A Exhaustion
B Hangover
C Migraine
D Acute mountain sickness
E Hypothermia
Explanation 
D Acute mountain sickness
There are three types of altitude illness: acute mountain sickness (AMS), high-altitude
cerebral oedema (HACE) and high-altitude pulmonary oedema (HAPE). This man has acute
mountain sickness with some evidence of cerebral oedema. The exact cause is unknown but it
is thought to be secondary to cerebral oedema and raised intracranial pressure. It is more
common in people who live at low altitude.
Symptoms and signs of AMS are non-specific; however, diagnosis can be made using the
criteria named in ‘The Lake Louise Score’, namely, the setting of recent gain in altitude, the
presence of headache and at least one of the following symptoms:
Gastrointestinal – anorexia, nausea and vomiting

Fatigue and weakness
Dizziness or light-headedness
MyPastest 01/06/2021, 11:47 AM
Difficulty sleeping.
He does not improve and progresses to develop ataxia and drowsiness. This is the
development of high-altitude cerebral oedema, which can be considered as end-stage AMS.
Treatment is immediate descent, oxygen and intravenous dexamethasone.
Acetazolamide may be used for prevention and treatment of AMS. It is a carbonic anhydrase
inhibitor that causes intracellular acidosis. It has a diuretic effect which can be useful in
AMS/HACE and HAPE. It is also beneficial as it shifts the oxygen-dissociation curve to the
right and therefore at lower partial pressures, more oxygen is released to the tissues.
A Exhaustion
This is more than exhaustion, since he has symptoms suggestive of altitude sickness. The
severe headache, nausea and vomiting are possible pointers to cerebral oedema.
B Hangover
There is no history to suggest alcohol consumption, and it is extremely unlikely the patient
would be able to climb to above 3500 m if he had consumed significant amounts of alcohol.
C Migraine
This would be a likely differential diagnosis if he was not at altitude, although it would be
unlikely to present for the first time at this age and there is no history of migraine triggers
reported as part of the scenario.
E Hypothermia
He has classical symptoms of mountain sickness, and hypothermia is not the most likely
diagnosis here. Significant signs consistent with attempts to maintain core temperature, such
as shivering, would be expected and are not reported here.
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MyPastest 01/06/2021, 11:48 AM
An overweight 55-year-old man complains of daytime sleepiness, so much so that he is at risk

of losing his job. He also notes morning headaches, and his wife complains that his snoring is
getting worse.
He is a heavy smoker and drinks about ten pints per night. His exercise tolerance is only
about 500 m before he feels too short of breath to continue.
On examination, his body mass index (BMI) is 38 kg/m 2.

His arterial blood gas at 10 pm reveals the following:
PaO 2 9.3 kPa 10.5–13.5 kPa
PaCO 2 8.2 kPa 4.6–6.0 kPa
A repeat arterial blood gas the following morning reads:
PaO 2 9.8 kPa 10.5–13.5 kPa
PaCO 2 8.4 kPa 4.6–6.0 kPa
A Obesity hypoventilation syndrome
B Central sleep apnoea
C Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)
D Chronic thromboembolic pulmonary hypertension (CTPH)
E Motor neurone disease (MND)
Explanation 
MyPastest 01/06/2021, 11:48 AM
A Obesity hypoventilation syndrome
Obesity hypoventilation syndrome is the presence of awake alveolar hypoventilation in an

obese individual. Patients present with daytime somnolence, loud snoring, fatigue and
impaired cognition. Management is with weight loss and non-invasive ventilation at night –
this can be continuous or bi-level, depending on the presence of co-existing obstructive sleep
apnoea. Where peripheral sleep apnoea is the cause, as here, there are usually pointers to the
diagnosis such as obesity.
B Central sleep apnoea
Central sleep apnoea is the absence of both airflow and ventilatory effort during sleep.
Diagnosis is by polysomnographic sleep studies. Treatment is with CPAP. A rise in carbon
dioxide in the morning is most likely to be seen in apnoea due to a peripheral cause. Where
central sleep apnoea is the cause there may be pointers to an underlying neurological
condition.
C Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)
COPD is a disorder of progressive airway obstruction and can cause increases in COPD
chronically, and acutely in exacerbations. Patients with COPD can retain slightly more carbon
dioxide in the morning, but this would not cause such a profound rise, nor the symptoms of
sleep apnoea.
D Chronic thromboembolic pulmonary hypertension (CTPH)
Following a PE most people experience complete resolution, but in some cases the embolus
remains and results in pulmonary hypertension. CTPH presents initially with exertional
breathlessness. Management may require surgical approaches to remove the clot. The
absence of both exertional shortness of breath and previous PE makes this an unlikely
diagnosis.
E Motor neurone disease (MND)
If the patient had MND such that it was affecting his diaphragm overnight, causing carbon
dioxide retention, you would expect the disease to have presented itself neurologically as
well, but the patient is able to walk.
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MyPastest 01/06/2021, 11:49 AM
A 24-year-old woman presents to the clinic with a nine-month history of nocturnal cough and
shortness of breath, particularly first thing in the morning. She works as a PA in a solicitor’s
office. She notices wheezing on a number of days during the week. She is a non-smoker. Her
weight is stable but she reports symptoms of reflux. A salbutamol inhaler used PRN has had
limited impact on her symptoms. On examination her BP is 138/72 mmHg, with pulse 70/min
and regular. Her chest is clear. Her BMI is 28. Chest X-ray is unremarkable and her peak flow is
400 (predicted is 480).
Which of the following is the most appropriate intervention for her asthma?
A Omeprazole
B Propping up the head of the bed
C Regular Salbutamol
D Regular Beclomethasone
E Regular salmeterol and fluticasone
Explanation 
D Regular Beclomethasone
This patient has symptoms of asthma, particularly with nocturnal cough, which are not
responsive to PRN salbutamol. As such, the next step is regular inhaled beclomethasone.
A Omeprazole
Although it was previously thought that proton pump inhibitors are effective at treating
asthma in this situation, a meta-analysis (see weblink) has challenged that view.
B Propping up the head of the bed
MyPastest 01/06/2021, 11:49 AM
Although this is an effective option for managing symptoms of reflux, it’s unlikely to impact
on her worsening nocturnal cough.
C Regular Salbutamol
Regular salbutamol is relatively short acting and is therefore a poor treatment option for
nocturnal symptoms of asthma.
E Regular salmeterol and fluticasone
Regular salmeterol and fluticasone is considered a potential escalation step, in the event that
symptoms are not controlled on regular inhaled beclomethasone alone.
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The efficacy of proton pump inhibitors for the treatment of asthma in adults: a met
met……
Overview
Management
Prognosis
MyPastest 01/06/2021, 11:55 AM
A 47-year-old hotel cleaner presents with a fever of 39°C, malaise and myalgia followed by
the development of a dry and non-productive cough. Other non-specific symptoms include
headache, anorexia, nausea and non-specific abdominal pain. Positive findings on general
examination include tachycardia, tachypnoea and bibasal crackles on auscultation of the
chest. The CXR shows early bibasal consolidation. Blood investigations show hyponatraemia
and deranged LFTs, and urine testing shows the presence of protein and blood.
Which of the following is the most appropriate initial antibiotic regimen?
A Benzylpenicillin and gentamicin
B Amoxicillin
C Azithromycin
D Oxytetracycline
E Rifampicin
Explanation 
C Azithromycin
The picture here, with marked fever, hyponatraemia, GI disturbance and blood and
proteinuria, fits well with a diagnosis of Legionnaires’ disease. His CURB-65 score classifies
the pneumonia as mild. A reasonable option therefore are macrolides such as azithromycin or
clarithromycin.
A Benzylpenicillin and gentamicin
This was the standard empirical intervention for bacterial endocarditis, although gentamicin
now appears not to impact significantly on prognosis versus benzylpenicillin alone.
B Amoxicillin
MyPastest 01/06/2021, 11:55 AM
Whilst amoxicillin is an appropriate first line option in community acquired pneumonia the
constellation of symptoms here hints toward an underlying diagnosis of Legionnaires’ disease.
As such, amoxicillin is ineffective.
D Oxytetracycline
Oxytetracycline is an alternative, rather than a first- or second-line option, for the treatment
of Legionnaires’ disease.
E Rifampicin
Rifampicin is used in combination with a quinolone or a macrolide for treatment of severe

Legionella infection.
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Overview
Management
Prognosis
MyPastest 01/06/2021, 11:56 AM
A 34-year-old woman is referred to the Respiratory Clinic. She has had a long history of
asthma since childhood and is maintained on combination inhaler therapy with fluticasone
250 µg/salmeterol 50 mg BD. On the advice of her doctor she moved away from London to
the countryside and was well. Around 2 years ago she began keeping a horse and since then
has noticed a gradual deterioration in her asthma control, with increased coughing up of
mucus plugs. She has been started on high-dose oral corticosteroids by her GP, although she
feels her symptoms have not significantly improved.
On examination in the clinic there was clear evidence of bilateral wheeze. Her peak flow was
measured at 350 l/min.
Immunoglobulin E (IgE) 1100 ng/ml
Peripheral blood Eosinophil count 0.6 × 10 9/l 0.04–0.4 × 10 9/l
IgG Precipitins to Aspergillus
Skin prick + to Aspergillus
Chest X-ray (CXR) Evidence of pulmonary infiltration
Which of the following represents the optimal next step in this patient?
A Increased dose of inhaled steroids
B Addition of oral montelukast
C Stop oral steroids and start itraconazole
D Continue oral corticosteroids alone
E Add oral itraconazole to her regime
Explanation 
MyPastest 01/06/2021, 11:56 AM
E Add oral itraconazole to her regime
There is evidence that this patient is suffering from bronchopulmonary aspergillosis. The
factors that promote evolution from atopic asthma to this disease are unknown, but it
appears that the type of CD4 response to aspergillus antigen is crucial. Management involves
the use of oral corticosteroids, and there is evidence that additional prolonged courses of
itraconazole (up to 4 months) may diminish the steroid requirement. Aggressive therapy with
oral corticosteroids is known to reduce the risk of bronchiectasis that results from mucus
plug impaction and subsequent localised infection.
A Increased dose of inhaled steroids
Inhaled corticosteroids do not relieve the inflammation seen here, even at high dose.
B Addition of oral montelukast
Oral montelukast is utilised in the treatment of adult asthma for patients who fail to gain
control of symptoms on a combination of inhaled corticosteroids and long-acting beta
agonist.
C Stop oral steroids and start itraconazole
Without oral corticosteroids ABPA does not improve on itraconazole alone; hence
combination therapy is required.
D Continue oral corticosteroids alone
Itraconazole has additional anti-inflammatory and anti-fungal effects with respect to the
treatment of ABPA, and leads to more effective resolution of the condition.
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MyPastest 01/06/2021, 11:57 AM
A 30-year-old man from London, with no significant past medical history, went on holiday to
Peru to climb the Inca Trail. He is a non-smoker. After climbing above 3500 m he developed a
headache, associated with nausea and vomiting. He also felt tired and complained of
insomnia. His respiratory rate was 22/min and his pulse was 90/min. The rest of the physical
examination was unremarkable. No investigations are available as the nearest hospital is over
100 km away. That night it was noticed that he was disorientated and walking with a broad-
based gait, and by the following morning he was drowsy and incoherent.
How would you treat this man?
A Immediate transfer down the mountain
B Acetazolamide and continue ascent
C Aspirin
D Dexamethasone and continue ascent
E Immediate antibiotics
Explanation 
A Immediate transfer down the mountain
mountain sickness with some evidence of cerebral oedema. The exact cause is unknown, but
it is thought to be secondary to cerebral oedema and raised intracranial pressure. It is more
criteria named in 'The Lake Louise Score', namely, the setting of recent gain in altitude, the

MyPastest 01/06/2021, 11:57 AM
If he does not improve and progresses to develop ataxia and drowsiness, this is the
This is the presentation of this case.
B Acetazolamide and continue ascent
Acetazolamide may be used for the prevention and treatment of AMS. This is a carbonic
anhydrase inhibitor which causes intracellular acidosis. It has a diuretic effect which can be
useful in AMS/HACE and HAPE. It is also beneficial as it shifts the oxygen-dissociation curve
to the right and therefore, at lower partial pressures, more oxygen is released to the tissues.
In this scenario, this patient has full house symptoms of altitude sickness and is at high risk of
further deterioration. Further ascent, even with acetazolamide, would be dangerous.
C Aspirin
This would not help symptoms of mountain sickness. This is a treatment for acute MI or non-
haemorrhagic CVA. Aspirin, acetylsalicylic acid, may also be used in the treatment of pain,
fever and inflammation.
D Dexamethasone and continue ascent
This patient has full house symptoms of altitude sickness and is at high risk of further
deterioration. Further ascent even with acetazolamide would be dangerous.
E Immediate antibiotics
This is an appropriate treatment for severe infection. However, it has no role in AMS. There is
no indication that this patient is suffering from infection: there are no fever, chills, rigors or
skin rash.
70109
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Prognosis
MyPastest 01/06/2021, 11:58 AM
A 27-year-old known asthmatic patient is brought into the Emergency Department by the
ambulance crew after an acute severe attack of asthma. On arrival, he is cyanosed, his
respiratory rate is 9 breaths/min and his heart rate is 48 bpm. He is started on high-flow
oxygen (non-rebreather mask). While assessing him, the patient suddenly develops
respiratory arrest. The patient still has radial pulse of 50 bpm and intubation is attempted.
While trying to intubate him, he starts to actively vomit a little.
What would be the immediate next appropriate step?
A Apply firm cricoid pressure
B Release the cricoid and perform suctioning
C Go ahead and intubate quickly
D Call the anaesthetist
E Turn the patient over
Explanation 
B Release the cricoid and perform suctioning
During emergency intubation, to minimise the risk of gastric aspiration, the Sellick manoeuvre
(firm pressure over the cricoid cartilage) may be initiated as soon as positive pressure
ventilation is started and should normally be continued until inflation of the tracheal cuff of
the endotracheal tube in the trachea. However active vomiting, which creates oesophageal
pressures greater than 60 cmH 2O, is a contraindication to using this technique. In this case,
the appropriate action is therefore to release the cricoid and suction.
A Apply firm cricoid pressure
Active vomiting, which creates oesophageal pressures greater than 60 cm H 2O is a

contraindication to using the Sellick manoeuvre. Applying firm cricoid pressure in this case
can result in the rupture of the oesophagus.
MyPastest 01/06/2021, 11:58 AM
C Go ahead and intubate quickly
The priority in this case is to minimise the risk of gastric aspiration, followed by return to pre-
oxygenation with 100% oxygen.
D Call the anaesthetist
Though senior specialist support should be sought, initial measures must be undertaken to
stabilise, and prevent further deterioration of the patient.
E Turn the patient over
In the context of a respiratory arrest, the risk of gastric aspiration is best minimised by
suctioning aspirates rather than repositioning the patient.
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MyPastest 01/06/2021, 11:58 AM
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MyPastest 01/06/2021, 11:59 AM
A 25-year-old man is brought to the Emergency Department following a road traffic accident
in which he was thrown off his motorbike. He is the subject of a trauma call. He is complaining
of pain in his chest and upper abdomen which radiates to his back and left shoulder. He was
previously fit and well.
On examination, he looks unwell. His BP is 90/55 mmHg, pulse 130 bpm. He is bruised and
tender over his anterior chest wall and on palpation crackling can be felt. Auscultation of his
chest reveals quiet breath sounds at the left base.
A chest drain is inserted in the Emergency Department.
Pleural fluid protein 45 g/l 25 - 35 g/l
Pleural amylase 240 u/l 30 - 110 u/l
Serum amylase 190 u/l 23 - 85 u/l
MyPastest 01/06/2021, 11:59 AM
A Oesophageal rupture
B Pancreatitis
C Rib fractures and haemothorax
D Chylothorax
E Aortic dissection
Explanation 
MyPastest 01/06/2021, 11:59 AM
Oesophageal rupture is a serious condition following trauma, violent vomiting or endoscopic

procedures, or can be associated with malignancy. Spillage of gastric contents into the
pleurae causes shock and pain. The chest X-ray usually shows a left pleural effusion or hydro-
pneumothorax. There may also be air in the soft tissues (as in this patient), termed surgical
emphysema. Pleural fluid is an exudate, and amylase levels are high. The ratio of pleural fluid
amylase to serum amylase is >1.0. Iso-enzyme analysis can be useful, as oesophageal rupture
will show the amylase to be salivary in origin.
Diagnosis is made radiologically using water-soluble contrast. Surgical treatment is required
and mortality is high.
B Pancreatitis
Serum amylase is only mildly raised, making an acute pancreatitis unlikely. Serum amylase can
be normal in chronic pancreatitis, but from the history the patient was previously fit and well.
The history of trauma in this case makes oesophageal rupture a more likely diagnosis.
C Rib fractures and haemothorax
There are no rib fractures visible on the CXR and no mention of blood in the pleural tap.
D Chylothorax
A chylothorax may be caused by a tear in the thoracic duct, which could occur with trauma.
Pleural fluid has a milky appearance and pleural triglyceride levels are high, neither of which is
mentioned here. The amylase values in serum and pleural fluid make oesophageal rupture
more likely.
E Aortic dissection
The mediastinum is not broadened, and pleural effusion with high amylase levels is more in
keeping with oesophageal rupture.
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MyPastest 01/06/2021, 12:03 PM
A 72-year-old man with a history of COPD and symptoms of benign prostatic hypertrophy
presents to the clinic complaining of bone pain. He is a 40 pack-year smoker and takes a
range of medications including ramipril, aspirin, atorvastatin, finasteride and a
salmeterol/fluticasone combination inhaler. He has lost a few kilos in weight over the past few
months without trying, and has seen his GP due to an episode of pneumonia. On examination
his BP is 155/81 mmHg, with pulse 75/min (atrial fibrillation). There are coarse crackles on
auscultation of the chest consistent with COPD. He looks clubbed.
Investigations:
Platelets 198 × 10 9/l 150–400 × 10 9/l
Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) 60 mm/hr 0–10 mm in the 1 st hour
Corrected (Ca 2+) 2.3 mmol/l 2.20–2.60 mmol/l
You arrange a bone scan, which reveals a symmetrical increase in uptake along the tubular
bones and around the periarticular surfaces. The mandible and both scapulae also show signs
of increased isotope uptake.
A Multiple bony metastases from a lung primary
B Paget’s disease
C Hypertrophic pulmonary osteoarthropathy
D Osteomalacia
MyPastest 01/06/2021, 12:03 PM
E Primary hyperparathyroidism
Explanation 
C Hypertrophic pulmonary osteoarthropathy
Hypertrophic pulmonary osteoarthropathy is a condition seen in patients with a bronchial

carcinoma, and may predate the discovery of the underlying lesion. It is characterised by
finger clubbing and long bone pain. The most sensitive investigation for making the diagnosis
is the isotope bone scan: the findings are typically uptake in long bones, around periarticular
surfaces and sometimes also the mandible and scapulae. Symptoms of the condition may
resolve when the primary tumour is removed. A chest X-ray has the potential to reveal the
primary lung tumour.
A Multiple bony metastases from a lung primary
Symmetrical increase in uptake along tubular bones around periarticular surfaces is seen
here. If multiple bony metastases were the cause of this patient’s symptoms you would
expect haphazard multiple areas of increased uptake over the bone scan.
B Paget’s disease
Paget’s disease often involves one joint only, and most frequently this is only one side of the
pelvis. A rise in alkaline phosphatase is seen, in the presence of a normal calcium.
D Osteomalacia
Osteomalacia is associated with a borderline/low serum calcium, proximal bone pain and
muscle weakness.
E Primary hyperparathyroidism
Primary hyperparathyroidism is associated with hypercalcaemia, rather than the normal

calcium level seen here.
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MyPastest 01/06/2021, 12:03 PM
MyPastest 01/06/2021, 12:04 PM
A 77-year-old man who smokes 20 cigarettes per day presents to the clinic with a chronic
cough and, most recently, increasing haemoptysis. He has lost 4 kg in weight over the past 3
months. On examination he looks thin, with a BMI of 20. His BP is 140/75 mmHg. Auscultation
of the chest reveals changes consistent with COPD.
Normal
values
4.0–11.0 ×
10 9/l
150–400 ×
10 9/l
135–145
mmol/l
3.5–5.0
mmol/l
50–120
µmol/l
Erythrocyte sedimentation rate 1–20

67 mm/hour
(ESR) mm/hour
Left-sided mass suspicious of bronchial

Chest X-ray (CXR)
carcinoma
Trans-bronchial biopsy squamous cell carcinoma
Which of the following would be a contraindication to left pneumonectomy?
A Hypercalcaemia
B FEV 1 of 0.7 litres post bronchodilators
MyPastest 01/06/2021, 12:04 PM
C MI within the past 6 months
D Tumour extending to the surface of the visceral pleura on CT
E Age 77 years
Explanation 
B FEV 1 of 0.7 litres post bronchodilators
Patients who have an FEV 1 of less than 2.0 litres post bronchodilators are not recommended
for pneumonectomy. VQ scanning may be of value in further assessment of such patients,
although where there is a postoperative predicted FEV 1 of 0.8, pneumonectomy is effectively
ruled out.
A Hypercalcaemia
Hypercalcaemia may be a paraneoplastic phenomenon related to PTHrp, or might actually

have no link at all to the underlying bronchial carcinoma. Therefore it isn’t a contraindication
to surgery.
C MI within the past 6 months
Surgery is not recommended if the patient has suffered an MI within 6 weeks; a history of MI
within 6 months necessitates a cardiology opinion and work-up, such as an echocardiogram,
to assess preoperative ejection fraction.
D Tumour extending to the surface of the visceral pleura on CT
Tumour abutting the visceral pleura is not necessarily a contraindication to surgery, although
more radical resection may be required and assessment of lymph node activity (for example
with PET scanning) is likely to be undertaken first.
E Age 77 years
Age may not necessarily contraindicate surgery; functional status is more important in
determining the chances of operative success.
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MyPastest 01/06/2021, 12:04 PM
MyPastest 01/06/2021, 12:11 PM
A 72-year-old man presents on the Emergency Medical Take with a worsening cough,
productive of scanty, blood-stained sputum. He has stable COPD treated with a high-dose
fluticasone and salmeterol inhaler and has not been admitted for an exacerbation for over 2
years. On examination his BP is 135/85 mmHg with pulse 80/min and regular. There are
scattered coarse crackles and wheeze on auscultation, consistent with the COPD.
Investigations:
Normal
values
4.0 - 11.0 ×
10 9/l
150 - 400 ×
10 9/l
135 - 145
mmol/l
3.5 - 5.0
mmol/l
50 - 120
µmol/l
Erythrocyte sedimentation
75 mm/h 1 - 20 mm/h
rate (ESR)
Left hilar mass suspicious of malignancy, small

Chest X-ray
left pleural effusion
B Bronchoscopy
C Contrast enhanced CT
MyPastest 01/06/2021, 12:11 PM
D Sputum cytology
E Thoracoscopy
Explanation 
C Contrast enhanced CT
In this situation, with a central lesion suspicious of bronchial carcinoma, thoraco-abdominal

CT including the liver and adrenals is the most appropriate next step. This is carried out
before bronchoscopy, because it can provide valuable information about the location of the
lung malignancy and nature of the pleural effusion.
Blind pleural biopsy is not recommended because of the risk that an abnormal area of pleura
may be missed, and unintended trauma caused versus an ultrasound guided attempt.
B Bronchoscopy
Bronchoscopy is recommended after a CT has been conducted to define the anatomy of an

underlying lesion.
D Sputum cytology
Sputum cytology is not of value in the majority of patients and should only be considered
when patients refuse, or are unable, to undergo bronchoscopy.
E Thoracoscopy
This may be required for investigation and biopsy of pleural tissue, but CT is more useful as
an initial step to define the nature of the effusion.
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MyPastest 01/06/2021, 12:11 PM
MyPastest 01/06/2021, 12:13 PM
A 57-year-old male patient with a 40 pack-year smoking history attends his GP with incessant
daytime sleepiness, making it difficult for him to even attend work. His initial examination
reveals a height of 180 cm, weight of 120 kg and neck circumference of 44 cm. He is referred
for sleep studies, which show hypnoea/apnoea episodes consistent with the diagnosis of
moderate to severe obstructive sleep apnoea (OSA).
Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment option?
A Overnight continuous positive airways pressure (CPAP)
B Amitriptyline
C Long-term oxygen therapy
D Nocturnal lorazepam
E Intra-oral device to prevent snoring
Explanation 
A Overnight continuous positive airways pressure (CPAP)
The treatment of choice has been shown in studies to be effective in reducing OSA
symptoms, and is first line in moderate–severe disease requiring intervention, but does not
prevent the cardiovascular mortality associated with OSA. Hypnotics worsen OSA, as do
alcohol, smoking and obesity, and so patients should alter their lifestyle appropriately, with
weight loss and alcohol and smoking cessation as first-line treatment. Long-term oxygen
therapy has not been shown to have any long-term benefit in OSA patients. Modafinil has
been shown in some small studies to have beneficial effects in use with CPAP, but not as an
alternative. Intra-oral devices may be useful for mild OSA, but not in daytime sleepiness.
B Amitriptyline
This is an inappropriate treatment option, as hypnotics can worsen OSA.
MyPastest 01/06/2021, 12:13 PM
C Long-term oxygen therapy
This can be used as an adjunct to CPAP therapy or in cases where patients are unable to
adhere to CPAP, but should not be offered first line in preference to CPAP.
D Nocturnal lorazepam
This is an inappropriate treatment option, as hypnotics can worsen OSA.
E Intra-oral device to prevent snoring
This may be useful for patients with mild OSA, but this patient has presented with daytime
sleepiness and studies consistent with moderate–severe disease.
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MyPastest 01/06/2021, 12:13 PM
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MyPastest 01/06/2021, 12:13 PM
A 58-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with approximately 500 ml of

haemoptysis. He has a past medical history of previous tuberculosis (TB) infection, chronic
obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) and heart failure. His mobility is noted to be poor, and
he is normally confined to a wheelchair.
An urgent computed tomography (CT) scan was carried out, and the result is shown below.
Which of the following is the most definitive management option in this case?
A Bronchial artery embolisation
B Tranexamic acid
C Blood transfusion
D Lobectomy
MyPastest 01/06/2021, 12:13 PM
E Oral itraconazole
Explanation 
A Bronchial artery embolisation
The image shown in the CT is classical for an aspergilloma. This would correlate with the
patient’s past medical history of previous pulmonary TB, leaving a cavity for the aspergilloma
to develop. In some patients, the aspergilloma can invade the bronchial artery. As the patient
has undergone massive haemoptysis, urgent intervention is necessary. Given the patient’s
comorbidities and performance status, he is unfit for a lobectomy, leaving embolisation as the
next most appropriate management option.
B Tranexamic acid
While tranexamic acid would form part of the immediate management of the patient, it is not
part of the definitive management of the patient. This would be bronchial artery
embolisation.
C Blood transfusion
While a blood transfusion would form part of the immediate management of the patient, it is
not part of the definitive management of the patient. This would be bronchial artery
embolisation.
D Lobectomy
A lobectomy would be the most definitive management if the patient were otherwise fit and
had a good performance status. However, in this case, research has shown the most
appropriate definitive management as bronchial artery embolisation.
E Oral itraconazole
Oral itraconazole has been shown to successfully treat aspergillomas in up to 60% of patients.
However, the patient presented is in a life-threatening scenario, and definitive management
must focus on preventing further haemoptysis.
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MyPastest 01/06/2021, 12:13 PM
MyPastest 01/06/2021, 12:15 PM
A young alcoholic patient presents with a fever, haemoptysis, green sputum and a left-sided
effusion clinically. He has been unwell with swinging fevers for the last week. On further
questioning he admits to drinking 8 pints of beer per day and to not eating properly. You are
concerned that it may be an empyema.
Which of the following tests would be most useful in supporting your suspicion?
A Pleural fluid microscopy and culture
B Pleural fluid white cell count and differential
C Urinary pneumococcal antigen
D Serum pneumococcal antigen
E Pleural fluid pH
Explanation 
E Pleural fluid pH
A pleural fluid pH of less than 7.2 is highly suggestive of an empyema, and is the most useful
investigation here.
A Pleural fluid microscopy and culture
While indispensible if positive in order to tailor antimicrobial therapy, only 60% of pleural fluid
cultures are positive.
B Pleural fluid white cell count and differential
Although a raised WCC (> 10) is seen in empyema, and more rarely in other exudative
effusions, it may not be diagnostic here. A low pleural fluid pH in contrast is likely to be
confirmatory for empyema.
MyPastest 01/06/2021, 12:15 PM
C Urinary pneumococcal antigen
While a urine pneumococcal antigen result would be of diagnostic help, neither a positive nor
a negative result would confirm the presence of empyema.
D Serum pneumococcal antigen
As with a urinary pneumococcal antigen test, though a serum pneumococcal antigen result
would be of diagnostic help, neither a positive nor a negative result would confirm the
presence of empyema. Given the patient's history of alcohol excess, the likelihood of a
Klebsiella pneumonia, a common cause of empyema, is high, rather than a pneumococcal
pneumonia.
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MyPastest 01/06/2021, 12:15 PM
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MyPastest 01/06/2021, 1:13 PM
A 30-year-old man from London, with no significant past medical history, went on holiday to
insomnia. His respiratory rate was 22/min and his pulse was 90/min. The remainder of
physical examination was unremarkable.
Investigations reveal:
That night it was noticed that he was disorientated and walking with a broad-based gait, and
by the following morning he was drowsy and incoherent.
What is the most likely cause?
A Cerebellar infarction
B Cerebral haemorrhage
C High-altitude pulmonary oedema
D Meningococcal septicaemia
E High-altitude cerebral oedema
Explanation 
E High-altitude cerebral oedema
MyPastest 01/06/2021, 1:13 PM
mountain sickness with some evidence of cerebral oedema. The exact cause is unknown, but
it is thought to be secondary to cerebral oedema and raised intracranial pressure. It is more
criteria named in 'The Lake Louise Score', namely, the setting of recent gain in altitude, the

He does not improve and progresses to develop ataxia and drowsiness. This is the

Acetazolamide may be used for prevention and treatment of AMS. This is a carbonic
anhydrase inhibitor which causes intracellular acidosis. It has a diuretic effect which can be
useful in AMS/HACE and HAPE. It is also beneficial as it shifts the oxygen-dissociation curve
to the right and therefore at lower partial pressures, more oxygen is released to the tissues.
A Cerebellar infarction
There is no history of unsteady gait and, given that the patient is at altitude, mountain
sickness is more likely. Cerebellar infarction presents with non-specific symptoms such as
dizziness, nausea and vomiting, unsteady gait and headache.
B Cerebral haemorrhage
There are other more likely diagnoses here. He has no neurological symptoms other than
headache. Cerebral haemorrhage will present with neurological symptoms and signs
depending on where the haemorrhage is located. For example, a cerebellar infarct will
present with unsteady gait.
C High-altitude pulmonary oedema
There is nothing in the history to suggest pulmonary oedema. There is no history of

breathlessness.
D Meningococcal septicaemia
MyPastest 01/06/2021, 1:13 PM
There is no suggestion of fever, meningism or rash. Meningococcal infection is the most

common cause of bacterial meningitis in the UK. There are several strains of meningococcal
bacteria, such as A, B and C.
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MyPastest 01/06/2021, 1:13 PM
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MyPastest 01/06/2021, 1:14 PM
A 67-year-old non-smoker was referred to the Respiratory Consultant with a 3-month history
of progressive shortness of breath. She was also complaining of a right-sided chest pain,
which she described as a constant severe ache. She had lost about 5 kg in the last month and
felt lethargic. She had initially put the symptoms down to the stress of recently being
widowed. Her husband, who used to work as a plumber, died of a ‘lung problem’. She has
never worked outside the home, and has two daughters who are fit and well.
On examination, she looked unwell and was breathless at rest. Examination of her chest
revealed reduced expansion, percussion note, vocal fremitus and breath sounds throughout
the right hemithorax.
Investigations:
Platelets (PLT) 471 × 10 9/l 150 - 400 × 10 9/l
MyPastest 01/06/2021, 1:14 PM
Which of the investigations is most likely to lead to a definitive diagnosis?
A Video-assisted thoracoscopic surgery biopsy
B CT chest
C Chest drain and fluid sent for cytology
D CT-guided percutaneous needle biopsy
E Blind pleural biopsy with an Abraham’s needle
Explanation 
A Video-assisted thoracoscopic surgery biopsy
The clue is in the question – her husband who has died worked as a plumber. She is a
housewife (she has never worked outside the home), so it is assumed she washed her
husband’s overalls and was therefore exposed to asbestos. She has systemic symptoms as
well as a pleural effusion, making the most likely diagnosis malignant mesothelioma.
Video-assisted thoracoscopy surgery is the investigation of choice as it has the highest
diagnostic yield. Prophylactic radiotherapy should be given to the operation site.
The chest X-ray shows pleural thickening and an effusion on the right. There is a holly-leaf
pleural plaque on the left (directly above the heart, to the left of the aortic knuckle),
consistent with previous asbestos exposure. Incidentally, there is pericardial calcification.
MyPastest 01/06/2021, 1:14 PM
B CT chest
A CT may show features in keeping with a high likelihood of mesothelioma, but histology is
required for a definitive diagnosis.
C Chest drain and fluid sent for cytology
It is unclear on chest radiography alone whether this lady has a pleural effusion. The
shadowing seen may just be due to pleural thickening. A thoracic ultrasound should be
performed prior to any pleural fluid aspiration, and certainly before chest drain insertion for
pleural effusion (as per BTS guidelines). Additionally, pleural fluid cytology is often non-
diagnostic in mesothelioma.
D CT-guided percutaneous needle biopsy
In practice, radiologically guided pleural biopsies are used more in diagnosis of mesothelioma
than VATS biopsy. However, the question asks which investigation is most likely to lead to a
definitive diagnosis and the answer to this is VATS biopsy.
E Blind pleural biopsy with an Abraham’s needle
Blind pleural biopsy will give a lower diagnostic yield than CT-guided or VATS biopsy.
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MyPastest 01/06/2021, 1:15 PM
A 45-year-old man of African descent presents to the Respiratory Clinic with increased
shortness of breath and a nagging dry cough, not relieved by a salbutamol inhaler. He has
also been feeling non-specifically unwell over the past few weeks with fevers, general fatigue
and lack of appetite. He has no past medical history of note and works as a solicitor.
Examination reveals a blood pressure of 122/72 mmHg and a pulse of 75 bpm and regular.
There are scattered crackles on auscultation of the chest. His blood results and chest X-ray
are shown below.
Investigations:
Platelets (PLT) 200 × 10 9/l 150–400 × 10 9/l
Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) 71 mm/first hour 0–10 mm/first hour
Given these results, which of the following is the most useful next investigation?
A Computed tomography (CT) chest
MyPastest 01/06/2021, 1:15 PM
B Lung function testing
C Positron emission tomography (PET) scan
D Serum angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE)
E Transbronchial biopsy
Explanation 
A Computed tomography (CT) chest
Given the clinical features seen here, coupled with a CXR that shows hilar lymphadenopathy,
sarcoidosis should be ruled out. The best initial investigation to do this is a high-resolution CT
scan. This is likely to demonstrate pulmonary fibrosis and/or alveolitis, with good correlation
with the diagnostic yield seen on transbronchial biopsy. Only 15% of patients with sarcoid
have persistent pulmonary disease which requires steroid therapy.
B Lung function testing
Lung function testing may only see a relatively minor restrictive defect at presentation with
sarcoid and is therefore not useful in confirming the diagnosis.
C Positron emission tomography (PET) scan
PET scanning is useful to demonstrate active inflammation and can differentiate benign from
malignant lymphadenopathy. It is not a current first-line investigation.
D Serum angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE)
While serum ACE can be elevated in sarcoidosis, elevated levels are only seen in 60% of
patients. As such, it is not sensitive enough to confirm the diagnosis.
E Transbronchial biopsy
Although transbronchial biopsy will confirm granulomas consistent with sarcoidosis, it is not
the next investigation of choice. It is only likely to be instigated in the event the diagnosis is in
doubt following non-invasive investigations. Additionally, there may be more easily accessible
biopsy sites if one is required.
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MyPastest 01/06/2021, 1:15 PM
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MyPastest 01/06/2021, 1:21 PM
A 65-year-old patient presents with increased shortness of breath (SOB) to the Respiratory
Outpatient Clinic. This has been progressively worsening over the past 6 months. He is a
farmer, a smoker and has two daughters with asthma. There was obvious wheeze and coarse
end-inspiratory crackles on examination of the chest. A chest X-ray shows diffuse non-
specific changes consistent with lung disease.
Which would be the next most appropriate investigation?
A Peak expiratory flow rate (PEFR)
B Spirometry and reversibility
C Serum precipitins
E CT thorax
Explanation 
B Spirometry and reversibility
This man either has asthma, chronic obstructive pulmonary disease or farmer’s lung.
Spirometry and reversibility would be the investigation of choice. A restrictive defect would
support a diagnosis of farmer’s lung; an obstructive defect with reversibility would support a
diagnosis of asthma; respiratory obstruction without reversibility would support a diagnosis
of COPD. Management of farmer’s lung involves avoidance of exposure to hay moulds. High-
dose steroid therapy may be useful in initial resolution of symptoms.
A Peak expiratory flow rate (PEFR)
PEFR would only provide hints as to a diagnosis of obstructive lung disease and wouldn’t
differentiate between asthma and COPD.
C Serum precipitins
MyPastest 01/06/2021, 1:21 PM
Precipitating antibodies will show evidence of exposure to actinomycetes but may not
necessarily indicate disease.
This may indicate lymphocytosis in extrinsic allergic alveolitis, but is invasive and wouldn’t
therefore be an appropriate next test.
E CT thorax
CT thorax is likely to show structural changes, but wouldn’t indicate the severity of
obstructive or restrictive lung disease.
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MyPastest 01/06/2021, 1:21 PM
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MyPastest 01/06/2021, 1:29 PM
A 56-year-old man is referred to the endocrine clinic with an 18-month history of constant
tiredness. He works as a taxi driver and on one occasion fell asleep at the wheel. He finds it
difficult to concentrate during the day and has frequent morning headaches. His wife stated
that he is restless and snores loudly at night and occasionally has ‘choking’ episodes. He has
also had very poor libido recently. He is a smoker of 30 cigarettes per day and drinks 4 pints
of lager every night. His only medication is an inhaler for ‘bronchitis’, and he has had a
chronic cough with sputum over the last few years.
On examination he was a large man with coarse features and was clinically obese, with body
mass index (BMI) of 35. His heart sounds were normal, there was some scattered wheezing in
the chest and he had early pitting ankle oedema.
What would be the most practical investigation to establish the diagnosis?
A Thyroid function tests
B Overnight home sleep oximetry
C Formal respiratory function tests
D CT thorax
E Epworth sleepiness score
Explanation 
B Overnight home sleep oximetry
The diagnosis is obstructive sleep apnoea, which affects 1–2% of the population and is most
commonly found in obese male smokers with a background of chronic obstructive pulmonary
disease (COPD). Rarer causes include acromegaly, Cushing’s disease, nasal deformities and
tonsillar enlargement. Apnoea occurs when the walls of the pharynx collapse during sleep,
which leads to hypoxia and increasingly strenuous respiratory efforts until the resistance is
overcome. Apnoea can occur hundreds of times per night, resulting in reduction of REM
sleep. The diagnosis can usually be made by a good history from the sleeping partner,
supported by non-invasive oximetry performed at home. Full polysomnographic studies are
rarely required for diagnosis but can be useful for research purposes. Management includes
MyPastest 01/06/2021, 1:29 PM
treating any underlying cause, weight reduction and avoidance of sedative drugs and alcohol.
Continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP), which keeps the walls of the pharynx open, is
the mainstay of treatment and can lead to a dramatic improvement in symptoms.
A Thyroid function tests
Although this patient is obese, it’s most likely this is related to his lifestyle rather than to any
underlying hypothyroidism. Hence TFT is unlikely to be of value here.
C Formal respiratory function tests
These may show evidence of obstructive lung disease and/or obesity hypoventilation
syndrome, although this wouldn’t prove or disprove obstructive sleep apnoea.
D CT thorax
This may show early changes consistent with COPD, although this won’t prove or disprove
obstructive sleep apnoea.
E Epworth sleepiness score
The Epworth sleepiness score is merely a pointer to daytime sleepiness associated with OSA;
it isn’t a confirmatory test.
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MyPastest 01/06/2021, 1:33 PM
A 72-year-old man is referred to the Respiratory Outpatients Clinic with a 2-month history of
increasing shortness of breath and cough. Over the last few weeks, he has coughed up a few
streaks of blood. He has also noticed difficulty getting up from a chair, and that his clothes
have been looser recently despite his not trying to lose weight.
breath sounds on the left. Heart sounds are normal. He has a 2-cm hepatomegaly on
are normal.
Investigations:
Platelets (PLT) 491 × 10 9/l 150 - 400 × 10 9/l
MyPastest 01/06/2021, 1:33 PM
What does the chest X-ray show?
A Left lower lobe consolidation
B Left lower lobe collapse
C Lingular consolidation
D Left upper lobe collapse
E Left apical pneumothorax
Explanation 
MyPastest 01/06/2021, 1:33 PM
The chest X-ray shows left lower lobe collapse. There is loss of volume of the left hemi-thorax,
the classical ‘sail sign’ (double left heart border) behind the heart, and loss of the normal
outline of the left hemi-diaphragm.
A Left lower lobe consolidation
The opacification seen in the left lower zone has a smooth border and is more in keeping with
the ‘sail sign’ of left lower lobe collapse. Consolidation would have a more heterogeneous
appearance and air bronchograms may be visible.
C Lingular consolidation
The left cardiac border can be visualised, making lingular consolidation unlikely. In lingular
consolidation, loss of the left heart silhouette would be expected.
D Left upper lobe collapse
Left upper lobe collapse presents as veil-like shadowing over the remaining inflated lung.
E Left apical pneumothorax
Lung markings are visible throughout all lung fields and no lung edge is seen.
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MyPastest 01/06/2021, 1:34 PM
A 51-year-old woman is admitted with worsening fevers and night sweats over the past 2
months, associated with joint pain and fatigue. She has been previously well, other than a
recent attendance at her general practitioner (GP) for a long-standing productive cough
some 5 months earlier. Travel of note includes a spell working at a church mission in India
during the past year.
A chest X-ray, as shown, is undertaken and sputum samples are awaited.
Other investigations are as follows:
White cell count (WCC) 3.4 × 10 9/l (neutrophils 1.98) (4–11 × 10 9/l)
What is the most appropriate management step with regard to isolation for this
patient?
MyPastest 01/06/2021, 1:34 PM
A Isolate in a negative pressure room
B Isolate in a positive pressure room
C Isolate in a standard patient bay
D Isolate in a standard side room
E No isolation required
Explanation 
A Isolate in a negative pressure room
The chest X-ray and symptoms are highly suggestive of active miliary tuberculosis (TB). The
National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) guidelines recommend managing
patients with a high risk for TB in a negative pressure room. A negative pressure room is one
where the air from the room is sucked out into dedicated ducting through a filter and into the
outside air, at a distance from all other air intakes.
B Isolate in a positive pressure room
The chest X-ray and symptoms are highly suggestive of active miliary TB. NICE guidelines
recommend managing patients with a high risk for TB in a negative pressure room, rather
than a positive pressure one. In a positive pressure room, ventilation allows air to flow out of
the room into the general environment, instead of into the room. This is useful in
immunocompromised patients. Here the patient has mild neutropenia; however, this would
not generally be an indication for positive pressure.
C Isolate in a standard patient bay
Source-isolating a patient in a bay is less effective than in a side room and is usually only
undertaken when side rooms or other facilities are not available. This would not be an
appropriate step to manage isolation of miliary TB.
D Isolate in a standard side room
MyPastest 01/06/2021, 1:34 PM
The chest X-ray and symptoms are highly suggestive of active miliary TB. NICE guidelines
recommend managing patients with a high risk for TB in a negative pressure room. Patients
who are low risk for TB may be managed in a side room.
E No isolation required
The chest X-ray and symptoms are highly suggestive of active miliary TB. Managing the
patient in a general bay with other patients risks transmission of TB.
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 External Links
MyPastest 01/06/2021, 1:34 PM
National Institute for Health and Care Excellence. 2016. Tuberculosis. NICE guidelin
guidelin…
…
nice.org.uk/guidance/ng33/chapter/recommendations#managing-active-tb-in-all-age-groups
(https://www.nice.org.uk/guidance/ng33/chapter/recommendations#managing-active-
tb-in-all-age-groups)
Overview
Management
Prognosis
MyPastest 01/06/2021, 1:35 PM
A 54-year-old woman has a left adenocarcinoma of the bronchus confirmed on

transbronchial biopsy. She tells you that she has lost weight over the past few months and
has a nagging cough, particularly in the mornings, but actually has still been able to hold
down her job, riding her bike the short distance to work and caring for her teenage children.
Platelets (PLT) 190 × 10 9/l 150–400 × 10 9/l
Which of the following is likely to be most informative with respect to determining

her suitability for surgery?
A Pulmonary function testing
B CT thorax
C PET/CT combined scan
D Serum calcium
E CT Head
Explanation 
C PET/CT combined scan
MyPastest 01/06/2021, 1:35 PM
PET/CT combined scanning offers the best imaging modality to determine lymph node
involvement in bronchial carcinoma. In this case, with a good functional status at the point of
diagnosis, it’s lymph node involvement which is likely to be the biggest determinant of the
success or failure of surgical intervention.
A Pulmonary function testing
Of course, FEV 1 and FVC do have an impact on suitability for surgery, but given that we are
told she cycles to work and aren’t given information on her smoking status, it is likely that her
lung function is adequate to undergo pneumonectomy.
B CT thorax
CT thorax is informative with respect to tumour staging, but won’t deliver adequate
information with respect to lymph node involvement.
D Serum calcium
A number of reasons for hypercalcaemia quite unconnected with bronchial carcinoma may be
apparent – hence raised calcium per se would not represent a contraindication to surgery.
PTHrp is also much less likely to be elevated in patients with an underlying adenocarcinoma
versus other bronchial carcinomas.
E CT Head
We are given no indication of cerebral metastases, meaning that CT head is of limited value
here.
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MyPastest 01/06/2021, 1:36 PM
A 45 year old woman is referred by the GP to the respiratory care clinic with shortness of
breath of unknown origin. Spirometry results: KCO 60%, FEV 1/FVC 90%.
Which of the following is most likely to be the underlying cause of these

pulmonary function test results?
A Sarcoidosis
B Severe kyphoscoliosis
C Muscular dystrophy
D Pneumonectomy
E Bronchiectasis
Explanation 
A Sarcoidosis
A FEV 1/FVC of 90% indicates a restrictive cause. All the above diseases are evidenced by a
restrictive pattern, except bronchiectasis which can result in an obstructive pattern. Only
sarcoidosis would reduce the transfer coefficient as there is damage to the alveolar cells
themselves. Other conditions where a reduction in KCO is reduced include those such is
idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis, where there is also loss of alveolar function.
B Severe kyphoscoliosis
Abnormalities of the thoracic cage lead to a reduction in available lung volume for gas
exchange but don’t impact on the transfer coefficient.
C Muscular dystrophy
Similar to kyphoscoliosis, muscular dystrophy can lead to a restrictive lung pattern but
doesn’t impact on gas transfer.
MyPastest 01/06/2021, 1:36 PM
D Pneumonectomy
Pneumonectomy is most likely to have been performed for chronic bronchiectasis or lung
cancer, both of which would be unusual in a 45-year-old woman and wouldn’t be expected to
impact on transfer factor in the remaining lung.
E Bronchiectasis
Bronchiectasis produces an obstructive lung pattern on pulmonary function testing.

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Overview
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MyPastest 01/06/2021, 1:37 PM
A 32-year-old man, who has been human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)-positive for 5 years
and started highly active antiretroviral therapy several months ago, presented with several
days of malaise, rigors, a cough productive of blood-streaked green sputum and pleuritic
chest pain. His latest CD4 count was 320 × 10 6/l several weeks ago.
On examination, he was unwell, with pyrexia of 39 °C, pulse of 110 bpm, blood pressure of
100/70 mmHg and oxygen saturation of 91% on air. On auscultation of his chest, he had
bronchial breathing and coarse crepitations at the left lower zone.
MyPastest 01/06/2021, 1:37 PM
A Pneumocystis jiroveci pneumonia (PCP)
B Streptococcal pneumonia
C Staphylococcal pneumonia
D Mycobacterium avium intacellulare infection
E Lymphoid interstitial pneumonitis
Explanation 
B Streptococcal pneumonia
This man has community-acquired pneumonia, 60–75% of which are caused by Streptococcus
pneumoniae. Disseminated bacterial sepsis is common in HIV patients and may be seen in the
early stages of infection, before a significant decline in the CD4 count. The chest X-ray shows
the classical ‘sail sign’, which indicates left lower lobe collapse. In this case, this has been
caused by community-acquired pneumonia.
A Pneumocystis jiroveci pneumonia (PCP)
P. jiroveci (previously carinii) pneumonia and Mycobacterium avium intracellulare infection are
acquired immune deficiency syndrome (AIDS)-defining conditions and require a CD4 count
of < 200 × 10 9/l to develop. PCP also usually develops as a dry cough, with desaturation on
exercise and patchy interstitial shadowing on chest X-ray.
C Staphylococcal pneumonia
Staphylococcal pneumonia tends to occur post-influenza infection or in intravenous drug

users, and causes cavitation and multiple lung abscesses. There is no indication of previous
influenza as a driver for infection here.
D Mycobacterium avium intacellulare infection
Atypical mycobacterial infection, like PCP, occurs in patients with a significant fall in their
CD4 count and is an AIDS-defining condition.
E Lymphoid interstitial pneumonitis
MyPastest 01/06/2021, 1:37 PM
Lymphoid interstitial pneumonitis is due to infiltration of the alveolar tissue by lymphocytes

and plasma cells and presents with dry cough, dyspnoea and reticulo-nodular shadowing on
chest X-ray. It is uncommon in adults but well described in paediatric HIV infection.
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MyPastest 01/06/2021, 1:37 PM
Management
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MyPastest 01/06/2021, 1:38 PM
A 35-year-old patient presents with a productive cough and shortness of breath on exertion
over the past month. He has no personal past medical history, but his father suffered
hepatocellular carcinoma at a young age. He is a smoker of 10 pack-years. On examination he
has a hyper-expanded chest and bi-basal wheeze on auscultation.
He has spirometry showing the following results:
FEV 1 54% predicted
FVC 82% predicted
Residual volume (RV) 115% predicted
T LCO 68% predicted
K CO 67% predicted
Which of the following diagnoses would best fit the above results?
A Asthma
B Emphysema
C Lymphangitis carcinomatosis
D Thoracic cage deformity
E Slowly expanding pneumothorax
Explanation 
B Emphysema
The spirometry shows an obstructive picture with raised RV, suggesting air trapping. He also
has reduced alveolar function, suggesting a lung parenchymal cause. It is unlikely to be
asthma given the short history and poor spirometry; it is more likely to be a rapidly
MyPastest 01/06/2021, 1:38 PM
progressive disease such as emphysema in a smoker with α1-antitrypsin. All patients under
the age of 35 years presenting with COPD should have their α1-antitrypsin tested. His
symptoms do not suggest someone with bad asthma. There is also a risk of HCC in patients
with cirrhosis.
A Asthma
The short history and poor spirometry make a rapidly progressive disease such as
emphysema in a smoker with α1-antitrypsin deficiency more likely.
C Lymphangitis carcinomatosis
This is lymphangitis as a result of a malignancy, most commonly adenocarcinoma such as

breast, lung, stomach or prostate. The patient’s young age makes this a less likely diagnosis
than emphysema secondary to α1-antitrypsin deficiency. Also, this would be expected to
show a restrictive pattern of PFTs, rather than the obstructive picture seen here.
D Thoracic cage deformity
This would be expected to show a restrictive pattern of PFTs, rather than the obstructive
picture seen here. The short history also makes this a less likely diagnosis.
E Slowly expanding pneumothorax
This would be expected to show a restrictive pattern of PFTs, rather than the obstructive
picture seen here.
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MyPastest 01/06/2021, 1:40 PM
A 64-year-old man with a history of two previous transient ischaemic attacks (TIAs) is
admitted to the Emergency Department by ambulance. He has a history of obesity,
hypertension and diabetes and smokes 20 cigarettes per day. His only drug treatment is
metformin for diabetes. His wife called the ambulance because he fell asleep while watching a
drama and was snoring loudly and she was unable to wake him. Apparently, he has recently
given up driving because he feels too tired to drive any distance at all. Examination reveals a
blood pressure of 155/85 mmHg and a pulse of 80 bpm and regular. He has wheeze on
auscultation of the chest, but no focal signs, and his saturations are 92% on air. His body
mass index (BMI) is 35 kg/m 2. Neurological examination is normal.
Investigations:
Platelets (PLT) 191 × 10 9/l 150–400 × 10 9/l
HbA1c 66 mmol/mol (8.2%) < 53 mmol/mol (< 7.0%)
A Epileptic seizure
B Hypoglycaemia
C Sleep apnoea
D Transient ischaemic attack
MyPastest 01/06/2021, 1:40 PM
E Transient global amnesia
Explanation 
C Sleep apnoea
The history of increasing tiredness, coupled with morbid obesity, is suggestive of sleep
apnoea, with episodes of daytime sleepiness well recognised to occur in situations such as TV
watching and while driving the car. A sleep study incorporating monitoring for apnoeic
episodes is the obvious next step. If sleep apnoea is proven and is moderate to severe, then
overnight continuous positive airways pressure (CPAP) is the initial intervention of choice. For
mild sleep apnoea, a mandibular advancement device may be an appropriate alternative.
Over the long term, weight reduction may lead to a regression of symptoms.
A Epileptic seizure
The lack of motor features and other signs of epilepsy, including tongue biting and loss of
continence, counts against epilepsy as the underlying diagnosis.
B Hypoglycaemia
The random glucose of 11.2 mmol/l and the suboptimal HbA1c control at 66 mmol/l (8.2%),
coupled with use of metformin monotherapy only, rule out hypoglycaemia as a possibility.
D Transient ischaemic attack
There are no focal signs, and the features of the episode here look like more severe sleepiness
against a pattern of sleep apnoea symptoms.
E Transient global amnesia
A significant period of amnesia without other neurological features, followed by complete

recovery, is most suggestive of transient global amnesia. In addition, the condition is not
thought to be associated with vascular risk factors.
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MyPastest 01/06/2021, 1:42 PM
A 66-year-old woman is admitted for an elective hernia repair by the general surgeons with
the procedure done under general anaesthetic. Of note in her past medical history is
hypertension, for which she takes bendrofluazide 2.5 mg od. She is an ex-smoker of four
years (40 pack years history).
Seven days after the operation, the patient's condition deteriorates and the surgeons ask for
your advice. When directly questioned, she denies any cough, but feels mild breathlessness
and fatigue. Her appetite is also depressed.
On examination, her temperature is 38 °C, blood pressure (BP) 135/90 mmHg, pulse 140
beats per minute, oxygen saturation 91% on air. Examination of the chest demonstrates
coarse crepitations at the left lower zone with a dull percussion note. Abdominal examination
is unremarkable. The operation scar looks clean, with no signs of infection. Chest X-ray
reveals an ill-defined mass in the left lower zone in an area of consolidation. The opacity
contains an air–fluid level.
A Aspiration pneumonia
C Pulmonary embolus
D Lung abscess
E Transudate pleural effusion
Explanation 
D Lung abscess
All of the above options could account for deterioration postoperatively, but the clinical
findings together with the CXR findings suggest lung abscess to be the most likely
complication following the general anaesthetic. An air–fluid level is characteristic of a lung
abscess. A contrast-enhanced computerised tomography (CT) scan would show the abscess
more clearly.
MyPastest 01/06/2021, 1:42 PM
A Aspiration pneumonia
Although aspiration pneumonia may cause the pyrexia and shortness of breath seen here, it’s
much more likely to be associated with right-sided consolidation.
The air–fluid level directs us more towards an abscess rather than pure collapse as the
underlying cause of symptoms here.
C Pulmonary embolus
At least early on, significant CXR changes in PE would be unexpected. The air–fluid level also
suggests an abscess rather than consolidation associated with lung infarction.
E Transudate pleural effusion
Transudate pleural effusions are more likely to appear as bilateral uncomplicated effusions
rather than the picture seen here.
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MyPastest 01/06/2021, 1:43 PM
A 30-year-old man from London with no significant past medical history went on holiday to
insomnia. His respiratory rate was 22/min and his pulse was 90/min. The rest of the physical
examination was unremarkable.
Investigations:
Platelets (PLT) 223 × 10 9/l 150 - 400 × 10 9/l
Which drug may have helped to prevent his symptoms?
A Aspirin
B Diazepam
C Furosemide
D Acetazolamide
E Propranolol
Explanation 
D Acetazolamide
MyPastest 01/06/2021, 1:43 PM
mountain sickness with some evidence of cerebral oedema. The exact cause is unknown but it
is thought to be secondary to cerebral oedema and raised intracranial pressure. It is more
criteria named in ‘The Lake Louise Score’, namely, the setting of recent gain in altitude, the

Acetazolamide may be used for prevention and treatment of acute mountain sickness (AMS).
It is a carbonic anhydrase inhibitor that causes intracellular acidosis. It has a diuretic effect
which can be useful in AMS/HACE and HAPE. It is also beneficial as it shifts the oxygen-
dissociation curve to the right and therefore, at lower partial pressures, more oxygen is
released to the tissues.
If he does not improve and progresses to develop ataxia and drowsiness, this is the
A Aspirin
Aspirin, acetylsalicylic acid, may be used in the treatment of pain, fever and inflammation. It is
commonly used in the treatment of coronary artery disease. However, it does not have any
role in AMS.
B Diazepam
Diazepam can be used for the treatment of anxiety disorders, alcohol withdrawal symptoms
or muscle spasms. It is part of the benzodiazepine family, which produces a calming effect. It
does not have any role in the treatment of AMS.
C Furosemide
Previously, frusemide was claimed to prevent acute mountain sickness and pulmonary
oedema of high altitude. However, results in treating experimental animals showed that death
rate was higher among the frusemide-treated groups for both mild and severe dehydration.
Therefore there is no role for frusemide in AMS.
E Propranolol
MyPastest 01/06/2021, 1:43 PM
One of the physiological adjustments to high altitude to compensate for hypoxia is activation
of the sympathetic nervous system. Therefore, it could be hypothesised that hindering the
sympathetic nervous system with propranolol may hinder altitude acclimatization and
exacerbate AMS, compromising well-being. However, studies have shown that this is not the
case and that it did not result in any change. Nevertheless, there was no improvement in
symptoms either.
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MyPastest 01/06/2021, 1:43 PM
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MyPastest 01/06/2021, 1:44 PM
A 49-year-old woman experiences long-standing, worsening shortness of breath. She smokes

15 cigarettes per day and has been provided with a salmeterol inhaler from her general
practitioner (GP), to minimal benefit. She describes 3 kg of unintentional weight loss over the
past six months but denies night sweats. She suffers from a chronic cough, which is non-
productive.
Examination reveals crackles on auscultation and cervical lymphadenopathy.
Investigations:
C-reactive protein (CRP) 161 mg/l (0–10 mg/l)
MyPastest 01/06/2021, 1:44 PM
Image original source: https://westjem.com/case-report/miliary-tuberculosis-coinfection-

with-human-immunodeficiency-virus.html
What is the most appropriate investigation to undertake to establish a diagnosis?
B Computed tomography (CT) thorax, abdomen and pelvis
C High-resolution CT
D Spirometry
MyPastest 01/06/2021, 1:44 PM
E Tuberculin skin test
Explanation 
In this case, the history is relatively non-specific. However, the chest X-ray reveals likely
miliary tuberculosis (TB). This would benefit from staining with Ziehl–Neelsen stain and rapid
direct microscopy for acid-fast bacilli. The patient has a non-productive cough; therefore, a
sputum sample is not straightforward. Bronchoscopy and lavage would provide the diagnosis
here.
B Computed tomography (CT) thorax, abdomen and pelvis
Any patient with significant weight loss should have malignancy considered in the differential
diagnosis, which would benefit from CT. However, this chest X-ray reveals miliary TB.
Therefore, bronchoscopy and lavage is the more appropriate answer.
C High-resolution CT
High-resolution CT would be of benefit to patients with lung fibrosis. However, this patient’s
chest X-ray reveals likely miliary TB, and therefore, bronchoscopy and lavage is the most
appropriate diagnostic test.
D Spirometry
The history in this case is suggestive of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD).
However, the chest X-ray indicated miliary TB. Therefore, spirometry would not be diagnostic
for this patient.
E Tuberculin skin test
The diagnosis in this case is miliary TB, as suggested by the chest X-ray. However, the
tuberculin skin test often leads to negative results in patients with miliary TB. Negative results
would not exclude TB, and therefore, this is not a useful diagnostic test.
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 External Links
National Institute for Health and Care Excellence. 2016. Tuberculosis. NICE guidelin
guidelin…
…
nice.org.uk/guidance/ng33/chapter/recommendations#managing-active-tb-in-all-age-groups
(https://www.nice.org.uk/guidance/ng33/chapter/recommendations#managing-active-
tb-in-all-age-groups)
Overview
MyPastest 01/06/2021, 1:44 PM
Management
Prognosis
MyPastest 01/06/2021, 1:45 PM
A 73-year-old man with severe COPD managed with high-dose combination steroid and long-
acting beta-agonist (LABA) inhaler is admitted to the Emergency Room. He has suffered
increasing shortness of breath and a worsening cough over the past few days and is now
completely unable to get his breath.
On examination he is pyrexial (38.2 °C) and there are chest signs consistent with both right-
sided consolidation and pulmonary oedema. He looks tired and his respiratory rate has fallen
to 13/min.
Right-sided consolidation, with

Chest X-ray (CXR)
evidence of pulmonary oedema
Blood gases on controlled O 2 via a 40% venturi reveal the following:
pH 7.28 7.35–7.45
pO 2 7.8 kPa 10.5–13.5 kPa
pCO 2 7.1 kPa 4.6–6.0 kPa
Which of the following is the most appropriate way to manage his O 2

replacement?
A Continue 40% O 2 by mask
MyPastest 01/06/2021, 1:45 PM
B Decrease inspired pO 2 to 28% by mask
C Continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP)
D BiPAP
E Increase inspired O 2 to 60% by mask
Explanation 
D BiPAP
This patient has evidence of both LVF and right-sided pneumonia, a long history of COPD
and is beginning to tire. The acidosis seen here can drive worsening respiratory muscle
weakness, and risks increasing CO 2 retention further. BiPAP can reverse acidosis and
significantly reduces progression to intubation and ventilation.
A Continue 40% O 2 by mask
Acidosis and CO 2 retention is potentially progressive, and continuing the status quo here
with respect to O 2 replacement is considered inadequate.
B Decrease inspired pO 2 to 28% by mask
This will drive hypoxia in addition to CO 2 retention, putting the patient at risk of cardiac
rhythm disturbance and worsening pulmonary oedema.
C Continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP)
BiPAP reduces the work of breathing during inspiration more than CPAP, and hence confers a
potential advantage in COPD versus CPAP alone.
E Increase inspired O 2 to 60% by mask
Once acidosis is established, respiratory muscle weakness is progressive; increasing inspired

O 2 won’t reverse this and will at best lead to a minor, short-term incremental improvement in
oxygenation.
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MyPastest 01/06/2021, 1:45 PM
MyPastest 01/06/2021, 1:47 PM
You review a 67-year-old man with severe chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)
who stopped smoking 3 years ago. He has a history of myocardial infarction 4 years ago and
chronic peripheral vascular disease. His medications include ramipril, indapamide, salbutamol
and ipratropium.
Which of the following clinical features would best support prescription of long-
term oxygen therapy (LTOT)?
A Pa(O2) of 8.2 kPa
B Pitting oedema of the lower limbs
C Pa(CO2) of 5.1 kPa
D FEV 1 (forced expiratory volume in 1 s) of 1.7 l
E History of angina
Explanation 
B Pitting oedema of the lower limbs
According the British Thoracic Society guidelines on long-term oxygen therapy (LTOT) in
regard to patients with stable chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) (see weblink
below), a resting Pa(O 2) ≤7.3 kPa should be assessed for LTOT, which offers survival benefit
when used for at least 15 h per day and improves pulmonary haemodynamics. LTOT should be
offered to those patients with stable COPD and a resting Pa(O 2) ≤8 kPa with evidence of
peripheral oedema, polycythaemia (haematocrit ≥55%) or pulmonary hypertension. Swollen
ankles indicate the possibility of right heart failure, which may be occurring as a result of
pulmonary hypertension.
Two measures are required to make the decision on therapy, and samples should be taken at
least 3 weeks apart whilst the patient is stable and free of an exacerbation. This leads to a
reduction in secondary polycythaemia, reduced sympathetic outflow and consequent salt and
water retention, a reduction in cardiac arrhythmias, and improved sleep quality due to
reduced hypoxia-induced sleep arousals.
MyPastest 01/06/2021, 1:47 PM
A Pa(O2) of 8.2 kPa
Pa(O 2) >8kPa should not lead to a prescription of LTOT.
C Pa(CO2) of 5.1 kPa
Although LTOT should be ordered for patients with resting hypercapnia (if they fulfil all other
criteria for LTOT), this gentleman does not have resting hypercapnia.
D FEV 1 (forced expiratory volume in 1 s) of 1.7 l
Spirometry findings do warrant criteria for oxygen therapy and do not indicate hypoxia.
E History of angina
Although it can be used in chronic heart failure, history of angina is not an appropriate use of
LTOT. Anti-anginal medication or a coronary angiogram would be required if patient has
recurrent episodes of angina.
32441
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 External Links
Guidelines for Oxygen Use

brit-thoracic.org.uk/about-us/pressmedia/2017/new-bts-quality-standards-for-home-oxygen-us…
(https://www.brit-thoracic.org.uk/about-us/pressmedia/2017/new-bts-quality-
standards-for-home-oxygen-use-in-adults/#)
Overview
Management
Prognosis
MyPastest 01/06/2021, 1:48 PM
A 55-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with a dry cough and shortness of
breath, which he has had for the past four days. He also complains of some abdominal
discomfort, nausea, vomiting, diarrhoea and a headache. He was previously well before he
developed these symptoms and is not on any medication, having recently returned from a
convention in Spain.
On examination, he is unwell with a blood pressure of 123/67 mmHg, a pulse of 92/min and a
respiratory rate of 22/min. On auscultation of his chest, he has bi-basal crackles. He is
pyrexial, 38.9 ºC. His cardiovascular examination is unremarkable.
White Cell Count (WCC) 16.1 × 10 9/l 4.0–11.0 × 10 9/l
Platelets (PLT) 278 × 10 9 /l 150–400 × 10 9/l
Urinalysis protein ++, blood ++, glucose –
A Streptococcal pneumoniae
MyPastest 01/06/2021, 1:48 PM
E Viral pneumonia
Explanation 
Legionella pneumophilia usually infects middle-aged or older men, is more severe in smokers
and has an incubation period of 2–10 days. Male to female ratio is 2:1. It causes moderate
leucocytosis (neutrophilia, lymphopenia), hyponatraemia, deranged LFTs, proteinuria,
haematuria and myoglobinuria. Infection may be acquired from infected water-based air-
conditioning systems, hence the link to a convention in Spain. Both fluoroquinolones and
clarithromycin have activity against the bacterium. Rifampicin may be used as combination
therapy in severe disease.
A Streptococcal pneumoniae
Streptococcal pneumonia is less likely to be associated with hyponatraemia or GI upset. The

attendance at a convention is also a stronger pointer towards Legionnaire’s.
Mycoplasma pneumonia tends to follow a more subacute course, with pleuritic chest pain and
a dry cough both prominent features. Often appearance on chest X-ray is of a more severe
pneumonia than first appears to be the case clinically.
Chlamydial pneumonia, like mycoplasma, follows a more subacute course, and may be seen in
patients who keep or are in close proximity to birds.
E Viral pneumonia
Viral pneumonitis is more likely to be associated with generalised crackles on auscultation of

the chest due to more widespread infiltration, and a lesser rise in CRP would be expected.
7508
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MyPastest 01/06/2021, 1:48 PM
MyPastest 01/06/2021, 1:49 PM
A 38-year-old man with known alpha-1-antitrypsin deficiency presents to the hospital with a
spontaneous right-sided pneumothorax. A chest drain is inserted and initially appears to work
correctly, but is then noted to be swinging and bubbling. However, after three days, the fluid
level stops swinging and the nurses notice he has begun to develop surgical emphysema. He
complains of renewed, severe, right-sided pain.
On examination, he has diminished breath sounds on the right and a resonant percussion
note. You notice that the drain has been clamped. On further questioning, it transpires that
nursing staff had seen that the drain had stopped swinging.
A Formal PA chest film
B AP erect chest film
C Lateral chest X-ray
D Unclamp the drain
E Pull the chest drain back by 1 cm
Explanation 
D Unclamp the drain
There is evidence to suggest that this patient is unstable, with renewed pain and surgical
emphysema. It is possible that he has an air leak into the tissues around the insertion site.
Transferring him to the radiology department may put him at significant risk. The optimal
course of action is to unclamp the drain immediately and arrange for an urgent portable
chest X-ray. Further management will be guided by the clinical and radiological findings after
unclamping the drain and obtaining imaging.
A Formal PA chest film
MyPastest 01/06/2021, 1:49 PM
The patient in the scenario is unstable, and transferring the patient to the radiology
department may put them at risk. After the drain has been unclamped, a portable chest X-ray
will provide the required information in a safer and more timely manner.
B AP erect chest film
Whilst a portable chest X-ray is required, the immediate management is to unclamp the drain
as this may allow the pneumothorax to drain and prevent the situation from deteriorating
further.
C Lateral chest X-ray
As before, this would necessitate an intra-hospital transfer with an unstable patient and will
not add anything additional that a portable chest X-ray can provide after the drain has been
unclamped.
E Pull the chest drain back by 1 cm
The safest thing to do is to unclamp the drain and obtain an urgent X-ray to assess position
and clinical status. Depending on findings, the drain may need to be pulled back after
reviewing the imaging, but it is not the initial step.
21483
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Overview
Management
Prognosis
MyPastest 01/06/2021, 1:50 PM
A 35-year-old woman with a 15-year smoking history and a diagnosis of myasthenia gravis is
referred by the neurologists for review. She has complained of progressive dyspnoea over the
past few months. On examination her BP is 123/82, with pulse 67 and regular. You note she
seems extremely fatigued, with obvious partial ptosis and proximal muscle weakness. The
weakness increases with repetitive testing. Chest X-ray reveals a mediastinal mass and
detailed pulmonary function testing reveals evidence of extrinsic obstruction.
Which of the following diagnoses is most likely given this clinical history?
A Multinodular goitre
B Thymoma
C Schwannoma
D Neurofibroma
E Bronchial carcinoma
Explanation 
B Thymoma
Given the clinical history of myasthenia gravis and a mediastinal mass, thymoma represents
the most likely diagnosis in this case (30–40% of thymoma cases have co-existent
myasthenia gravis). Thymoma has equal sex distribution and rarely presents below the age of
20 years. Removal of the thymoma can significantly improve symptoms of myasthenia and is
the next logical step once the diagnosis is confirmed in this patient.
A Multinodular goitre
Multinodular goitre is associated with extrinsic airways obstruction, although it isn’t

associated with myasthenia gravis.
C Schwannoma
MyPastest 01/06/2021, 1:50 PM
Myasthenia gravis can be associated with multiple schwannomas, although these are not
associated with extrinsic airways obstruction.
D Neurofibroma
Superficial plexiform neurofibromas have been reported to occur in patients with myasthenia
gravis, and this may occur because of inflammation around the neuromuscular junction.
E Bronchial carcinoma
Bronchial carcinoma is associated with Lambert-Eaton myasthenic syndrome, which is

associated with potentiation on repeated muscle testing rather than exacerbated weakness
as seen here.
32437
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Overview
Management
Prognosis
MyPastest 01/06/2021, 1:51 PM
An HIV-positive patient attends A+E with a history of a dry cough, shortness of breath and
fever. On investigation, his CD4 count is 50 cells/mm 3 and his oxygen levels drop after
exercise. On further questioning, he admits that he has not been taking his medications
recently.
CD4 50/mm 3 500–1600/mm 3
Platelets (PLT) 210 × 10 9/l 150–400 × 10 9/l
pO2 on room air 9.5 kPa
Which of the following is the first-line treatment for this patient?
A Prednisolone
B Co-trimoxazole
C Aciclovir
D Rifampicin, Isoniazid, Ethambutol and Pyrizinamide quadruple therapy
E Ganciclovir
Explanation 
B Co-trimoxazole
Clinically he is infected with Pneumocystis jirovecii, which often presents with a dry cough in
HIV-positive patients and other immunosuppressed patients, particularly after organ
transplantation and prolonged use of immunosuppressants, and when the CD4 count is very
low as here. On examination there is often tachycardia and tachypnoea, and there may be
MyPastest 01/06/2021, 1:51 PM
signs of cyanosis; however, the chest may even reveal no abnormality on examination in some
patients. The chest X-ray may reveal bilateral hilar infiltrates or even cysts, but the pleura is
rarely involved. If there is significant infiltration then crackles will be found on auscultation.
Diagnosis is from pulmonary secretions or lung biopsy, looking for organisms using
immunofluorescence or methenamine silver staining. The first-line treatment is with co-
trimoxazole, but prednisolone can be added if the oxygen level is < 9.3 kPa.
A Prednisolone
The first-line treatment is with co-trimoxazole but prednisolone can be added as adjuvant
therapy.
C Aciclovir
This is used to treat herpes virus infections. Herpes simplex infection is associated with oral
and genital mucous membrane ulceration. It can be associated with headache and
neurological symptomatology in the case of simplex encephalitis/meningitis.
D Rifampicin, Isoniazid, Ethambutol and Pyrizinamide quadruple therapy
This is the treatment for tuberculosis. It is associated with cough, fever, weight loss and night
sweats, which are often described as ‘drenching’ in severity.
E Ganciclovir
This is the treatment for CMV infections. CMV retinitis, leading to visual symptoms, is the
most common manifestation of systemic CMV infection in HIV-positive patients. Other
features may include GI upset, or changes in cognition/consciousness in the case of CMV
encephalitis.
7164
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MyPastest 01/06/2021, 1:52 PM
A 79-year-old man with a previous history of tuberculosis comes to the Emergency

Department for review because of increased shortness of breath. He has a past history of
tuberculosis (TB), for which he underwent a surgical procedure many years ago, and has
hypertension and ischaemic heart disease, but is otherwise relatively well.
Examination reveals a blood pressure of 138/85 mmHg; pulse is 80 bpm and regular. He has
reduced expansion on the right-hand side of his chest, and decreased breath sounds over the
upper lobe.
Which procedure has been performed?
A Oleothorax
B Pleurodesis
C Plumbage
D Upper lobectomy
MyPastest 01/06/2021, 1:52 PM
E Thoracoplasty
Explanation 
E Thoracoplasty
Thoracoplasty involves removal of ribs to a collapsed area of lung. Given the chest X-ray
appearances, this is the most likely procedure that has been performed here. It was largely
discontinued after the advent of anti-microbial therapy for tuberculosis as well as the
operative mortality rate being high.
A Oleothorax
Oleothorax involves instillation of paraffin into the pleural cavity and is used in pleurodesis. It
does not fit with the clinical history above.
B Pleurodesis
Pleurodesis can be performed medically or surgically and is indicated for recurrent

pneumothorax or pleural effusions, for example, caused by incurable cancer. Medical
pleurodesis involves the insertion of an irritant, such as talc, into the pleural space to cause
the pleural to adhere to the lung. There is no clinical indication in the vignette to suggest its
use here.
C Plumbage
Plumbage involves instillation of lucite balls to permanently collapse the lung and was used
as treatment option in patients with TB. However, the chest X-ray appearances are not
consistent with this diagnosis.
D Upper lobectomy
A right upper lobectomy would result in an elevated right hemidiaphragm and displacement
of the right hilum as opposed to the chest X-ray changes here.
39655
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MyPastest 01/06/2021, 1:53 PM
A 61-year-old male presents with a history of dull, aching right-sided chest pain, a cough and
unintentional weight loss. He has a 50-pack-year smoking history. He recently retired from
working as a plumber where he feels he is likely to have been exposed to asbestos through
his working life. He also has a history of rheumatoid arthritis which is currently managed with
non-steroidals and methotrexate. However, he remembers having an intravenous treatment in
the past. On examination, he has a BMI of 20 and has dullness to percussion on the right side
of this chest.
Investigations:
Platelets 243 × 10 9/l 150–400 × 10 9/l
Pleural fluid LDH > 300
Pleural fluid protein > 30
Lymphocytes 1250/ml
Pleural fluid glucose 3.4 mmol/l
Cytology No malignant cells seen
Chest X-ray Extensive right sided pleural effusion
A Mesothelioma
B Bronchogenic carcinoma
MyPastest 01/06/2021, 1:53 PM
C Lymphoma
D Inflammatory effusion
E Tuberculous effusion
Explanation 
E Tuberculous effusion
The marked pleural effusion lymphocytosis, coupled with elevated fluid protein and reduced
glucose, suggests this is a tuberculous effusion. The suspicion is that he may have received
anti-TNF therapy for his rheumatoid arthritis, which has led to reactivation of old TB.
Tuberculous pleuritis is a type IV hypersensitivity reaction to mycobacterial protein, and the
mycobacterial load in the pleural fluid is usually low. Pleural fluid microscopy for acid-fast
bacilli has a sensitivity of <5% and pleural fluid culture of 10–20%. Thoracoscopic pleural
biopsy has been shown to have a sensitivity of >70% for culture of pleural tissue, and overall
diagnostic sensitivity approaches 100% when evidence of caseating granulomas on pleural
biopsy histology is combined with culture.
A Mesothelioma
Pleural effusions in mesothelioma tend to have a normal LDH and <1000 white cells/ml.
Pleural fluid mesothelin has been shown to have additional value beyond pleural fluid
cytology in the diagnosis of mesothelioma. When possible, pleural tissue should be obtained
to confirm a diagnosis of malignant mesothelioma.
B Bronchogenic carcinoma
Malignant effusions can be diagnosed by pleural fluid cytology in about 60% of cases.
Immunocytochemistry should be used to differentiate between malignant cell types.
C Lymphoma
There may be a raised LDH in pleural effusions associated with lymphoma. Cytology is
positive in around 40% of cases.
D Inflammatory effusion
An effusion with such a high lymphocyte count is atypical for a purely inflammatory effusion.
21473
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 External Links
Investigation of a unilateral pleural effusion in adults: British Thoracic Society pleu

pleu……
thorax.bmj.com/content/thoraxjnl/65/Suppl_2/ii4.full.pdf
(http://thorax.bmj.com/content/thoraxjnl/65/Suppl_2/ii4.full.pdf)
Overview
MyPastest 01/06/2021, 1:53 PM
Management
Prognosis
MyPastest 01/06/2021, 1:54 PM
A 36-year-old man presents with increasing shortness of breath and a cough, which is worse
at night. He has no significant past medical history. He has never smoked. He works as a car
mechanic, restoring run-down cars. He notes that his symptoms are often better at the
weekend.
Investigations:
FEV 1 70% of normal
FVC 85% of normal
PEFR 450 l/min
Histamine challenge test 20% fall in FEV 1 with 2 micromol/l histamine (normal >4)
A Carbon monoxide poisoning
B Occupational asthma
C Silicosis
D Extrinsic Allergic Alveolitis
E Hyperactive airways
Explanation 
B Occupational asthma
This man has occupational asthma secondary to isocyanates, which are found in paints used
to spray cars. Occupational asthma is characterised by airway obstruction and/or bronchial
hyper-reactivity induced by a person’s occupation. His spirometry reveals an obstructive
picture with a hyper-responsive histamine challenge test. Diagnosis is confirmed by asking
the patient to do 2 h peak flows both at his place of work and at home, and ideally during a
period of leave from work, to look for significant differences and worsening of PEFR at work.
MyPastest 01/06/2021, 1:54 PM
Other occupations commonly associated with occupational asthma that may come up in the
MRCP exam include: bakers, vets, hairdressers, pharmaceutical workers, welders, roofers and
textile workers.
A Carbon monoxide poisoning
Carbon monoxide poisoning presents as a flu-like illness with malaise and fatigue. There is
dyspnoea on exertion and chest pain with palpitations can occur. As exposure progresses,
lethargy, hallucinations, agitation and confusion occur, eventually leading to coma. Patients
may also experience headache, abdominal pain with nausea, vomiting and diarrhoea.
C Silicosis
Silicosis is associated with occupations such as foundry work, hard rock mining and civil
engineering, and is due to inhalation of silicon dioxide. The history does not suggest this.
D Extrinsic Allergic Alveolitis
There is no history of allergen exposure to suggest EAA, which usually presents as a flu-like
illness with dyspnoea soon after exposure to the offending allergen.
E Hyperactive airways
The patient does have hyperactive airways, but the 20% drop in FEV 1 on histamine challenge
confirms a diagnosis of asthma as the underlying cause.
70144
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Management
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MyPastest 01/06/2021, 1:55 PM
A 69-year-old woman who is known to have severe COPD managed with high-dose
fluticasone and salmeterol (combined) and tiotropium comes to the Emergency Department
with an infectious exacerbation. She has had a cough productive of thick, yellow sputum for
the past few days and now has a severe cough and shortness of breath. She is unable to
mobilise more than a few metres from her chair at home.
On examination, she is pyrexial (38.2 oC), her pulse is 90/min and there is atrial fibrillation.
Her blood pressure is 123/82 mmHg. There is bilateral wheeze and poor air entry on
auscultation of her chest.
Investigations (after antibiotics, 1 h of back-to-back nebulisers and hydrocortisone IV), on

28% O 2:
Platelets (PLT) 204 × 10 9/l 150 - 400 × 10 9/l
Bicarbonate (HCO 3-) 28 mmol/l 22 - 29 mmol/l
pH 7.29 7.35 - 7.45
pO 2 8.8 kPa > 10.5 kPa
pCO 2 8.0 kPa 4.7 - 6.0 kPa
A Further nebulisers
B Intubation and ventilation
C Non-invasive positive pressure ventilation (NIPPV)
MyPastest 01/06/2021, 1:55 PM
D IV doxopram
E IV Aminophylline
Explanation 
C Non-invasive positive pressure ventilation (NIPPV)
Guidelines suggest that NIPPV should be considered in all patients with COPD who have
respiratory acidosis despite maximal medical therapy. NIPPV should be instigated in a timely
fashion, before there is further deterioration.
A Further nebulisers
Further nebulisers are unlikely to impact on air entry or CO 2 retention, only extending the
time before NIPPV is instigated.
B Intubation and ventilation
In those with a pH of <7.26, there is evidence that intervention should be stepped up further,
with ITU review to consider intubation and ventilation the next step.
D IV doxopram
IV doxopram is a respiratory stimulant which was the only realistic alternative option to
intubation and ventilation before widespread use of NIV. It is inferior with respect to
outcomes.
E IV Aminophylline
Aminophylline is no longer routinely used because of the risk of inducing atrial arrhythmias,
with little added beta agonist impact.
36477
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 External Links
The Use of Non - Invasive Ventilation in the management of patients with chronic o o…
…
brit-thoracic.org.uk/document-library/clinical-information/niv/niv-guidelines/the-use-of-non-inv…
(https://www.brit-thoracic.org.uk/document-library/clinical-information/niv/niv-
guidelines/the-use-of-non-invasive-ventilation-in-the-management-of-patients-with-
copd-admitted-to-hospital-with-acute-type-ii-respiratory-failure/)
Overview
Management
Prognosis
MyPastest 01/06/2021, 1:55 PM
MyPastest 01/06/2021, 1:56 PM
A 39-year-old man presented to his general practitioner (GP) with a 3-month history of fever,
rhinitis and weight loss. Two weeks ago he had an exacerbation of asthma and was treated
with a course of erythromycin. He also complained of weakness in his hands and legs. He has
a past medical history of angina. He is an ex-smoker and stopped five years ago.
On examination, he has a rash on his shins, shown below.
Auscultation of his chest reveals a mild expiratory wheeze. Examination was otherwise
unremarkable. Urinalysis was normal.
Investigations:
Platelets (PLT) 411 × 10 9/l 150 - 400 × 10 9/l
Neutrophils 5.3 × 10 9/l 1.5 - 7.0 × 10 9/l
MyPastest 01/06/2021, 1:56 PM
Lymphocytes 1.8 × 10 9/l 1.5 - 4.0 × 10 9/l
Monocytes 0.3 × 10 9/l 0.0 - 0.8 × 10 9/l
Basophils 0.08 × 10 9/l < 0.1 × 10 9/l
Eosinophils 1.9 × 10 9/l 0.04 - 0.4 × 10 9/l
Urine Blood –, protein –
Which investigation would help confirm the diagnosis?
A c-ANCA, proteinase 3 antibody positive
B c-ANCA, myeloperoxidase antibody positive
C p-ANCA, proteinase 3 antibody positive
D p-ANCA, myeloperoxidase antibody positive
E Aspergillus serology
Explanation 
D p-ANCA, myeloperoxidase antibody positive
This patient has Eosinophilic granulomatosis with polyangiitis (EGPA) with systemic
symptoms: asthma, eosinophils >1.5 × 10 9/l and evidence of vasculitis in two or more non-
lung organs (Lanham’s criteria):
Cutaneous vasculitis (see picture)

Mononeuritis multiplex
A cardiac history.
The American Criteria of Rheumatology require four out of six of the following to be present
for a diagnosis of EGPA:
The presence of asthma
MyPastest 01/06/2021, 1:56 PM
Eosinophils >10% in the peripheral blood

Evidence of a neuropathy in a vasculitic pattern, e.g. mononeuritis multiplex
Transient pulmonary infiltrates
A history of sinus disease
Evidence of extravascular eosinophils on biopsy.
Renal involvement in EGPA is very rare.
A c-ANCA, proteinase 3 antibody positive
c-ANCA, proteinase 3 antibody positive is associated with granulomatosis with polyangiitis
B c-ANCA, myeloperoxidase antibody positive
c-ANCA, myeloperoxidase antibody positive is not usually seen as a combination of positive

tests, and c-ANCA positivity is inconsistent with a diagnosis of Eosinophilic granulomatosis
with polyangiitis (EGPA), (where p-ANCA positivity would be more likely).
C p-ANCA, proteinase 3 antibody positive
p-ANCA, proteinase 3 antibody positive is not usually seen as a combination of positive tests.
E Aspergillus serology
Aspergillus serology is used to diagnose Aspergillus lung disease, which would be

inconsistent with the features of cutaneous vasculitis seen here.
70092
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MyPastest 01/06/2021, 1:58 PM
A 21-year-old man with a history of cystic fibrosis comes to the Respiratory Clinic for review.
He had been admitted with a significant exacerbation some 2 months earlier, and has been
finding it difficult to maintain his weight since then. On examination his BP is 132/82 mmHg,
with pulse 75/min and regular. You can hear coarse crackles and wheeze throughout both
lung fields on auscultation. On examining his blood results, you note that he has a fasting
plasma glucose of 8.5 mmol/l and his HbA1c is 53 mmol/mol.
Which of the following is the most appropriate way to manage his blood sugar?
A Empagliflozin
B Gliclazide
C High-carbohydrate diet and basal-bolus insulin
D Low-carbohydrate diet
E Metformin
Explanation 
C High-carbohydrate diet and basal-bolus insulin
In this situation, where patients with cystic fibrosis find it difficult to maintain their weight
because of exocrine pancreatic insufficiency and frequent infections, a diagnosis of diabetes
only compounds their difficulties. Treatment involves maintaining carbohydrate intake and
using enough insulin to maintain glucose control.
A Empagliflozin
SGLT-2 inhibitors are not an appropriate option for control of blood glucose in this situation;
they in essence remove carbohydrate by promoting urinary excretion of glucose, which leads
to a calorie deficit, exactly what patients with cystic fibrosis don’t need.
B Gliclazide
MyPastest 01/06/2021, 1:58 PM
Although gliclazide may stimulate residual insulin production to attain some improvement in
glucose control, this is likely to be short term and inadequate compared to a basal-bolus
insulin regime.
D Low-carbohydrate diet
A low-carbohydrate diet here is not appropriate because it will potentially drive further
weight loss without achieving adequate glucose control.
E Metformin
Insulin resistance is not the primary problem in diabetes associated with cystic fibrosis; as
such, metformin is ineffective in reducing blood sugar here.
7624
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Overview
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MyPastest 01/06/2021, 1:59 PM
A 41-year-old man is referred to the hospital with a 1-week history of fever, malaise, increasing
confusion, cough and breathlessness. The cough was initially dry but has become productive
of yellow sputum in the last few days. He saw the GP 4 days ago, who prescribed amoxicillin
with no benefit. His wife reports that he has also been suffering from abdominal pain and
vomiting. He is a smoker of 20/day and works in a large law firm.
On examination he looks unwell and dehydrated. Temperature 39°C, BP 100/50 mmHg, pulse
120/min, respiratory rate 30/min, SpO 2 89% on air and Glasgow Coma Scale score 12.
Auscultation of his chest reveals crackles in the left lower zone. His abdomen is generally
tender on palpation. Examination is otherwise unremarkable. Urinalysis shows blood +++.
Investigations:
Neutrophils 9.2 × 10 9/l 1.5 - 7.0 × 10 9/l
Platelets (PLT) 151 × 10 9/l 150 - 400 × 10 9/l
Arterial blood gases (ABG) on air Result
pH 7.39
PCO 2 4.66 kPa
MyPastest 01/06/2021, 1:59 PM
PO 2 7.3 kPa
Which organism is most likely to be responsible?
B Legionella pneumophila
C Mycoplasma pneumoniae
D Coxiella burnetti
Explanation 
B Legionella pneumophila
Legionella pneumophila is an aerobic, waterborne, Gram-negative, non-motile bacillus and

has three epidemiological patterns:
Outbreaks due to contaminated water-cooling systems, air-conditioning or showers.

May be an occupational history or recent hotel holiday. Usually occurs in previously fit
individuals. This man worked in a law firm and it is presumed this contains an air-
conditioning system.
Sporadic cases. Rare at extremes of age. Usually age 40–70. More common in men than
in women. At-risk groups: smokers, chronic illness – especially chest disease, diabetes
mellitus – and alcoholics.
Outbreaks occurring in immunosuppressed individuals, e.g. those on corticosteroids.
pneumophila can cause two distinct disease entities:
Legionnaires’ disease, which is characterised by pneumonia.

Pontiac fever, which is a milder, self-limiting illness consisting of fever and myalgia but
no pneumonia.
MyPastest 01/06/2021, 1:59 PM
2–15% of community-acquired pneumonias requiring hospitalisation globally are secondary to

L. pneumophila. Mortality is 10% in treated patients who are not immunocompromised, rising
to nearly 50% in nosocomial infections.
The incubation period of L. pneumophila is 2–10 days and it typically presents with flu-like
symptoms – fevers, malaise, myalgia and headaches; the patient later develops a cough
(often non-productive), breathlessness and confusion; 50% develop gastrointestinal
symptoms (usually diarrhoea and vomiting). Patients may also experience pleuritic chest pain
and episodes of haemoptysis.
Investigations may show: hyponatraemia (due to SIADH), lymphopenia, haematuria,

proteinuria and hypoxia. Abnormal liver biochemistry (especially aminotransferases) and
renal function occur in 50% of patients.
Diagnosis: the quickest way is to test for Legionella antigen in urine, and direct
immunofluorescent staining of the organism in sputum, pleural fluid or bronchial washings. L.
pneumophila is a fastidious organism. Gram stain does not usually reveal an organism and
culture on standard media is often negative.
Chest X-ray usually shows lobar and then multilobar shadowing. Small pleural effusions may
occur.
Treatment is with a macrolide. The other clue in this question is the lack of response to beta-
lactam antibiotics.
Whilst Streptococcus pneumoniae is the commonest cause of community-acquired

pneumonia (accounting for 50–70% of cases), this gentleman has features of an atypical
pneumonia: initial dry cough, lack of response to beta-lactam antibiotics and gastrointestinal
disturbance, in addition to hyponatraemia and deranged liver function. Herpetic cold sores
are associated with pneumococcal pneumonia and may be specifically mentioned in an exam
question relating to pneumococcal pneumonia.
C Mycoplasma pneumoniae
Pneumonia caused by Mycoplasma pneumoniae typically affects young adults but usually has
a longer prodrome of 2 weeks or more. White cell count may be normal. Cold agglutinins may
be present in 50% of patients. Extra-pulmonary manifestations include pericarditis,
myocarditis, rashes such as erythema multiforme and erythema nodosum, neurological
pathology such as cranial or peripheral nerve palsies, and meningoencephalitis.
Thrombocytopenia and haemolytic anaemia may occur, which are not suggested by the
blood results given for this question.
D Coxiella burnetti
Coxiella burnetii infection is associated with Q fever. In acute Q fever, 60% of patients are
asymptomatic. The incubation period varies from 2 to 6 weeks, and there are three main
clinical presentations:
MyPastest 01/06/2021, 1:59 PM
A self-limiting, flu-like illness with abrupt onset of fever, headache, myalgia and
arthralgia. This presentation does not fit with the case described.
Pneumonia (predominant in North America), usually of mild severity and often an
incidental finding on CXR. If patients have symptoms, typically there will be a dry
cough, breathlessness and pleuritic chest pain. Again this presentation does not fit with
the case described.
Hepatitis (predominant in Europe), usually with mild elevation of LFTs. Nausea and
vomiting can occur but diarrhoea is rare. Whilst some elements of the case described
fit with this, there are many other symptoms and results in the case which do not,
making L. pneumophila more likely.
Pneumonia due to Chlamydia psittaci is termed psittacosis. It is an infection acquired from

avian reservoirs, and is classically associated with parrots. Incubation period is 5–14 days.
Common symptoms include fever, chills and malaise, cough (usually dry), sore throat, mild
pharyngitis, epistaxis and severe headache. Whilst some of these symptoms are described in
this case, the lack of mention of avian contact, along with several features more in keeping
with L. pneumophila, make this option unlikely.
70073
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MyPastest 01/06/2021, 2:00 PM
A 35-year-old, HIV-positive, East African patient presents to A&E with shortness of breath
and night sweats. On examination he is thin and tachypnoeic, and has a right base that is
stony dull to percussion with reduced air entry. On his chest X-ray there is a moderate-sized
pleural effusion. His past medical history includes tuberculosis (TB) as a child for which he
can’t remember whether he had treatment. His initial three sputum samples do not stain for
acid-fast bacilli on Ziehl–Neelsen (ZN) stain. You want to carry out a test with the highest
pick-up rate for TB diagnosis.
Which of the following would be the most useful?
A Pleural fluid aspirate culture
B Pleural biopsy culture
C Pleural biopsy histology
D CD4 count
E Heaf test
Explanation 
B Pleural biopsy culture
Tuberculous effusion occurs in about 30% of patients with TB; this is comparable to HIV-
positive and -negative patients. ZN stains are positive in about 75% of cases. Indications for
pleural biopsy are exudative recurrent pleural effusion of unknown aetiology and pleural mass
or thickening.
A Pleural fluid aspirate culture
ZN stains of pleural fluid are positive in 10–20% of tuberculous effusions.
C Pleural biopsy histology
MyPastest 01/06/2021, 2:00 PM
Although it may demonstrate granulomas, it cannot give bacterial sensitivities.
D CD4 count
A low CD4 count not only predisposes to TB. CD4 cell counts give an indication of the health
of the immune system. Monitoring CD4 cell counts is less important while taking HIV
treatment than before starting. The count should go up when you take HIV treatment.
Patients with higher CD4 counts present similar to those who are HIV-negative with TB.
E Heaf test
This test has been discontinued since 2005 and has been replaced by the Mantoux test – a
person's medical risk factors determine at which increment (5, 10 or 15 mm) of induration the
result is considered positive. Other techniques used include bronchoscopy/endobronchial
ultrasound in those who have a non-productive cough/ unhelpful sputum culture and a high
index of clinical suspicion.
Adenosine deaminase (ADA) levels are useful when TB is suspected in those with negative
pleural fluid or biopsy cultures. However, raised ADA levels can be observed in other
conditions leading to a false-positive diagnosis of TB, such as in empyema, rheumatoid
effusion and malignancy.
32446
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MyPastest 01/06/2021, 2:02 PM
A 62-year-old patient presents complaining of shortness of breath which has increased over
the past 2–3 months. He smokes 10 cigarettes per day. Examination reveals a BP of 132/82,
with pulse 74 (AF). He has hyper-expanded lung fields and bilateral poor air entry. There is
quiet wheeze and bilateral pitting oedema of the ankles. BMI is 26.
Blood gas investigation reveals the following:
pCO 2 7.2 kPa 4.6–6.0 kPa
pO 2 9.1 kPa 10.5–13.5 kPa
pH 7.33 7.35–7.45
Lung function results reveal the following:
RV 120%
TLC 110%
KCO 70% (as a percentage of the expected values)
Which of the following diseases fits best with the above presentation?
A Emphysema
B Asthma
C Obesity hypoventilation syndrome
D Interstitial lung disease
E Lymphangiomyomatosis
MyPastest 01/06/2021, 2:02 PM
Explanation 
A Emphysema
Emphysema gives a chronic CO 2-retaining picture, with an increased residual volume (RV),
slightly high total lung capacity (TLC) and high RV/TLC percentage indicative of obstructive
lung pathology. It’s consistent with the compensated respiratory acidosis and evidence of
right heart failure.
B Asthma
Although acute asthma is associated with increased residual volume, this is not really a
feature of chronic controlled asthma, nor is hypercapnia.
C Obesity hypoventilation syndrome
Obesity hypoventilation is associated with reduced TLC, and would only be associated with
hypercapnia in severe disease complicated by pulmonary hypertension and right heart failure.
D Interstitial lung disease
Although interstitial lung disease is associated with hypoxia, hypercapnia is unexpected

unless the patient has a superimposed acute respiratory tract infection.
E Lymphangiomyomatosis
This usually presents in women of child-bearing age with shortness of breath and recurrent
pneumothoraces.
2318
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MyPastest 01/06/2021, 2:03 PM
A 40-year-old nurse is admitted to the Medical Unit with a 2-day history of wheeze and
exacerbation of asthma during peak pollen season. She has had this diagnosis for four years,
since moving from her home in West Africa to the UK. She also has a history of hay fever
since moving to the UK, and her daughter has developed asthma too. She has no other past
medical history and is a non-smoker.
Investigations:
White cell count (WCC) 10 × 10 9/l 4–11 × 10 9/l
Eosinophils 1.5 × 10 9/l 0–0.4 × 10 9/l
Platelets 350 × 10 9/l 150–400 × 10 9/l
Her lung fields on the chest X-ray show minor patchy shadowing.
Which additional test would you opt to do to best exclude causes, other than
asthma, of her wheeze and current exacerbation?
A Antinuclear antibody (ANA)
B IgE
C Aspergillus-specific IgE radioallergosorbant (RAST) level
D Peak flow reading
E Stool culture for ova, cysts and parasites
Explanation 
C Aspergillus-specific IgE radioallergosorbant (RAST) level
MyPastest 01/06/2021, 2:03 PM
Allergic bronchopulmonary aspergillosis (ABPA) should always be excluded in people with

asthma who have a raised eosinophil count. ABPA is a hypersensitivity reaction to Aspergillus
in people with asthma. This can be done by sputum culture or testing for atopy to the fungi
with RAST, skin-prick tests or IgE specific to the fungi. Aspergillus precipitins testing looks for
the presence of the antibody in the serum; if the result is highly positive, the patient may have
invasive aspergillosis.
A Antinuclear antibody (ANA)
Although eosinophil count can also be raised in Churg–Strauss syndrome, a small-to-medium-

vessel vasculitis that presents usually in adults with asthma-like symptoms, this results in a
positive pANCA, not ANA.
B IgE
A high eosinophil count may be due to her atopy and the high pollen count, so her total IgE
would also be raised.
D Peak flow reading
Peak flow readings will likely be low in respiratory diseases like asthma, ABPA and Churg–
Strauss, and therefore not good at excluding causes of wheeze and exacerbation.
E Stool culture for ova, cysts and parasites
Stool culture may be positive in a parasitic cause of eosinophilia pneumonia, but this is
unlikely given the very minor chest X-ray changes.
32448
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MyPastest 01/06/2021, 2:05 PM
A 51-year-old man, while an inpatient for a routine hernia operation, was noted to have a
pneumothorax on his pre-op chest X-ray. He has a history of chronic bronchitis, and a 50
pack-year smoking history. His chest X-ray shows a unilateral pneumothorax of 2.2 cm. He is
not breathless, but has chest pain.
Which of the following would be the ideal management for the clinical scenario
described?
A You decide to aspirate the pneumothorax with a 16G cannula
B You decide to insert a 14 French gauge chest drain
C You decide to give the patient 10 litres of oxygen by mask
D You decide to admit the patient for observation only
E You decide to discharge the patient to outpatient ambulatory clinic in 2 weeks
Explanation 
B You decide to insert a 14 French gauge chest drain
This patient has a secondary pneumothorax as he is over the age of 50 and has a significant
smoking history. The British Thoracic Guidelines suggest you should insert a chest drain 8-14
Fr if the pneumothorax is greater than 2 cm in size or the patient is breathless. The
intrapleural distance should be measured at the level of the hilum.
A You decide to aspirate the pneumothorax with a 16G cannula
An attempt at aspirating a secondary pneumothorax should only be made where the

pneumothorax is between 1 and 2 cm, and the patient is not breathless.
C You decide to give the patient 10 litres of oxygen by mask
MyPastest 01/06/2021, 2:05 PM
High-flow oxygen may be used as a treatment option for secondary pneumothoraces less
than 1 cm in size, provided you do not suspect the patient is at risk of oxygen sensitivity.
D You decide to admit the patient for observation only
Admission without intervention can be considered for patients with secondary

pneumothoraces where the pneumothorax less than 1 cm in size, and the patient
asymptomatic (not breathless).
E You decide to discharge the patient to outpatient ambulatory clinic in 2 weeks
Admission without intervention can be considered for patients with secondary

pneumothoraces where the pneumothorax less than 1 cm in size, and the patient
asymptomatic (not breathless).
7181
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MyPastest 01/06/2021, 2:05 PM
A 39-year-old woman from Zimbabwe presents to the Emergency Department with a 5-day
On examination, she looked unwell. Observations: temperature 38.3 °C, BP 108/72 mmHg,
crackles bi-basally.
Investigations:
Lymphocytes 1.0 × 10 9/l 1.5 - 4.0 × 10 9/l
Platelets (PLT) 439 × 10 9/l 150 - 400 × 10 9/l
pH 7.46
PCO 2 3.44 kPa
PO 2 10.77 kPa
MyPastest 01/06/2021, 2:05 PM
Base excess –3.5
What is the most likely underlying cause?
A Lymphoma
B HIV
C Bronchiectasis
D Sarcoid
E Common variable immune deficiency
Explanation 
B HIV
MyPastest 01/06/2021, 2:05 PM
antibodies.
A Lymphoma
Given the patient is from sub-Saharan Africa and is presenting with a history suggestive of
disseminated lung infection HIV is more a likely cause than lymphoma for the night sweats
and weight loss.
C Bronchiectasis
The patient has a non-productive cough and gives an acute history of pulmonary infection,
making bronchiectasis unlikely.
D Sarcoid
This patient presents with a history of pulmonary infection with fever, sweats and raised CRP.
Sarcoidosis would be expected to present with chronic respiratory symptoms including a dry
cough, and other features such as erythema nodosum.
E Common variable immune deficiency
This condition is present from birth and there would be a history of previous recurrent
infections since childhood.
70100
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MyPastest 01/06/2021, 2:05 PM
MyPastest 01/06/2021, 2:07 PM
A 69-year-old man was taken to the Emergency Department with a reduced GCS score; no
history was available from Accident & Emergency for the patient. The ambulance crew said
that the call was put out by his wife as he had become increasingly short of breath. When
they arrived he looked breathless and cyanosed. He denied any chest pain at that time.
On examination, he had a GCS score of 13, respiratory rate 10/min, BP 130/70 mmHg, pulse
120/min, temperature 36.9 °C, SaO 2 94% on 15 l oxygen. Auscultation of the chest revealed an
expiratory wheeze throughout.
Heart sounds were normal and abdominal examination unremarkable. There was no obvious
focal neurological abnormality and both plantars showed a flexor response.
Investigations:
Normal
Values
135 - 175
Haemoglobin (Hb) 173 g/l
g/l
White cell count 4.0 - 11.0 ×

8.2 × 10 9/l
(WCC) 10 9/l
150 - 400
× 10 9/l
Mean corpuscular
84 fl 80 - 100 fl
volume (MCV)
C-reactive protein
21 mg/l < 10 mg/l
(CRP)
ECG Sinus tachycardia
Hyperinflated lung fields with low, flattened diaphragm;

Chest X-ray
no evidence of a pneumothorax
Renal function &

Unremarkable
liver tests
MyPastest 01/06/2021, 2:07 PM
ABGs on high-flow oxygen on this admission:
pH 7.29
PCO 2 10.91 kPa
PO 2 12.39 kPa
Base excess 10.4
What is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?
A Intubation and invasive ventilation
B Start non-invasive ventilation
C Hydrocortisone 100 mg IV
D Salbutamol 2.5 mg via nebuliser
E Reduce inspired oxygen concentration to 28% and repeat ABG
MyPastest 01/06/2021, 2:07 PM
Explanation 
E Reduce inspired oxygen concentration to 28% and repeat ABG
This patient has an acute on chronic respiratory acidosis. The high bicarbonate and base
excess shows that there is an underlying chronic respiratory acidosis with renal
compensation. The acidosis and high CO 2 indicate an acute respiratory acidosis. If this was
acute without a chronic element then, for a PCO 2 of 10.91 one would expect the pH to be
lower.
This question is about oxygen therapy in COPD. The diagnosis of COPD is suggested from the
CXR and flow-volume curve, which shows the classic shape for COPD. In some patients with
COPD, CO2 retention is more prevalent. Two reasons are now thought to underlie this, 1) there
is greater v/q mismatch in COPD, and secondly, the Haldane effect, a shift in the CO2
dissociation curve occurs.
The immediate management on arrival in the Emergency Department is to reduce the

inspired oxygen concentration and repeat the arterial blood gases. If by doing this the patient
becomes hypoxic or remains acidotic, they should then be referred for non-invasive
ventilation.
National Collaborating Centre for Chronic Conditions. 2004. Chronic obstructive pulmonary
disease. National clinical guideline on management of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease
in adults in primary and secondary care.Thorax, 59 (suppl 1), 1-232
A Intubation and invasive ventilation
An anaesthetic opinion would be warranted for consideration of intubation if he did not

respond to controlled oxygen ± a trial of NIV, but it does not represent the optimal next step
for this patient.
B Start non-invasive ventilation
Non-invasive ventilation (NIV) would be appropriate if controlled oxygen therapy and medical
therapies did not result in clinical improvement including resolution of acidosis, but does not
represent the optimal next step for this patient.
C Hydrocortisone 100 mg IV
While NICE recommend corticosteroids (prednisolone orally for a maximum of 7-14 days) for
patients without contraindications who present to hospital with an exacerbation of COPD, in
this case the patient has become obtunded due to excessive oxygen therapy. Corticosteroids
may play a role in his medical management, but the optimal next step is to provide controlled
oxygen therapy.
D Salbutamol 2.5 mg via nebuliser
MyPastest 01/06/2021, 2:07 PM
Salbutamol (and/or ipratropium) via nebuliser is recommended therapy in the treatment of

COPD exacerbation, but the most pressing concern in this patient’s case is his reduced GCS
secondary to excessive oxygen therapy. The most appropriate next step is to provide
controlled oxygen therapy and repeat an ABG.
70129
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Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease

MyPastest 01/06/2021, 2:07 PM
Overview
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MyPastest 01/06/2021, 2:08 PM
A 41-year-old woman presents with a dry cough, fatigue and multiple joint pains.
Her calcium is elevated at 2.85 mmol/l. She has multiple skin lesions, one of which is shown
on her shin and a biopsy is taken.
What is the most likely histology for this lesion on her shin
A Granuloma with prominent epithelioid cells with sparse lymphocytic infiltrate at the
margins.
B Necrotising granuloma with few immune cells and evidence of haemorrhage
C Necrotic granulomas with a cuff of lymphocytes
MyPastest 01/06/2021, 2:08 PM
D Necrobiotic granuloma (altered collagen surrounded by histiocytes and some

multinucleated giant cells)
E Suppurative granuloma with central neutrophil infiltration
Explanation 
A Granuloma with prominent epithelioid cells with sparse lymphocytic infiltrate at the
margins.
This is typical of sarcoid granuloma, the most likely diagnosis.
B Necrotising granuloma with few immune cells and evidence of haemorrhage
This is the picture you would expect to see in Granulomatosis with polyangiitis.
C Necrotic granulomas with a cuff of lymphocytes
This is typical of the picture seen in tuberculoid granulomas, seen in TB and leprosy.
D Necrobiotic granuloma (altered collagen surrounded by histiocytes and some

multinucleated giant cells)
This is the picture seen in rheumatoid nodules and necrobiosis lipoidica.
E Suppurative granuloma with central neutrophil infiltration
Suppurative granulomas with central neutrophil inflammation are associated with chronic
infection due to diseases such as blastomycosis and cat scratch disease.
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MyPastest 01/06/2021, 2:09 PM
A 55-year-old asthmatic patient presented in December with increasing cough and wheeze.
She described a cough productive of brown sputum. She had no other past medical history.
She was taking a steroid inhaler regularly and increasing doses of beta-agonist with no
alleviation of her symptoms. She worked in a bakery for many years. She is an ex-smoker and
stopped smoking 20 years ago. She has a dog at home.
On examination, she had a temperature of 38 °C. She was breathless at rest. She had reduced
expansion anteriorly on the left side, with corresponding reduced breath sounds. She had a
mild expiratory wheeze.
Investigations:
Neutrophils 7.37 × 10 9/l 1.5 - 7.0 × 10 9/l
Lymphocytes 2.55 × 10 9/l 1.5 - 4.0 × 10 9/l
Monocytes 0.6 × 10 9/l 0.0 - 0.8 × 10 9/l
Basophils 0.05 × 10 9/l < 0.1 × 10 9/l
Mean corpuscular volume (MCV) 87.3 fl 80 - 100 fl
Platelets (PLT) 314 × 10 9/l 150 - 400 × 10 9/l
MyPastest 01/06/2021, 2:09 PM
Chest X-ray on presentation is shown below.
What does the chest X-ray show?
A Left upper lobe consolidation
B Left upper lobe collapse
C Left lower lobe collapse
D Left lower lobe consolidation
E Lingular consolidation
Explanation 
B Left upper lobe collapse
MyPastest 01/06/2021, 2:09 PM
The chest X-ray shows left upper lobe collapse and the ‘veil sign’. This patient has allergic
bronchopulmonary aspergillosis (ABPA).
peripheral blood eosinophilia (in this case, by adding together all the differentials the
eosinophil count is >2). The chest X-ray may show diffuse pulmonary infiltrates, and
pulmonary, lobar or segmental collapse occur as transient features. The most common cause
is sensitivity to Aspergillus fumigatus spores.

The lung and eosinophils:
Loeffler syndrome (eosinophils about 10% of blood WCC), also known as acute
eosinophilic pneumonia/simple eosinophilic pneumonia. Mild self-limiting illness with
transient migratory pulmonary shadows. Associated with parasitic infections, drug
allergies and exposure to inorganic chemicals
Tropical pulmonary eosinophilia (eosinophils >20%) – in tropical countries usually due
to migrating larvae of the filarial worms Wucheria bancrofti and Brugia malayi
Chronic/prolonged pulmonary eosinophilia (eosinophils >20%) – eosinophilic
pneumonia persisting for more than one month. Chronic debilitating illness
characterised by malaise, weight loss, fever and dyspnoea
Allergic bronchopulmonary aspergillosis (eosinophils 5–20%) as in this case
Churg–Strauss syndrome (eosinophils 5–20%) associated with asthma
Hyper-eosinophilic syndrome (eosinophils >20%: eosinophilic infiltrations of various
organs – e.g. lungs, heart, bone marrow. Can be associated with an eosinophilic arteritis
External agents – drugs, toxins, parasitic infection.
A Left upper lobe consolidation
There is no left upper lobe consolidation in the chest radiograph. The left lung appears more
opaque due to left upper lobe collapse.
C Left lower lobe collapse
MyPastest 01/06/2021, 2:09 PM
Left lower lobe collapse presents as ‘sail sign’, a triangular opacification visualised behind the
cardiac shadow.
D Left lower lobe consolidation
There is no evidence of left lower lobe consolidation and the left hemi-diaphragm is clearly
visualised.
E Lingular consolidation
The left cardiac border is clear, making linguar lobe consolidation unlikely.
70093
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MyPastest 01/06/2021, 2:09 PM
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MyPastest 01/06/2021, 2:10 PM
As the medical SHO, you are admitting a 22-year-old asthma patient with an exacerbation of
his asthma with a cough and severe wheeze that has been worsening over the past two days.
He is normally on regular, short-acting β-agonist only and his predicted peak flow is 600
l/min. You are concerned that he may need review by the intensive care team.
On examination in the Emergency Department, his blood pressure (BP) is 110/72 mmHg, with
pulse 110/min and regular. He has severe bilateral wheeze and his respiratory rate is 28/ min.
Investigations:
PaO 2 9.4 kPa 10.5–13.5 kPa
PaCO 2 4.4 kPa 4.6–6.0 kPa
pH 7.37 7.35–7.45
PEFR 180 l/min (600 predicted)
Which of the findings is most concerning?
A Respiratory rate 28/min
B Widespread wheeze
C Heart rate 110/min
D PaCO2 4.4 kPa
E Peak flow of 180 l/min
Explanation 
E Peak flow of 180 l/min
MyPastest 01/06/2021, 2:10 PM
The criteria for life-threatening asthma are well described in the BTS asthma guidelines. From
the clinical scenario listed above, it is only his PEFR of 180 l/min which fits with those criteria,
being less than 200 (33% predicted level). Given his peak flow, however, it’s obviously
important that he is managed aggressively according to the guidelines, including the addition
of IV magnesium if early response to nebulisers isn’t seen.
Criteria for life-threatening asthma:
PEF <33% best or predicted

SpO 2 <92%
PaO 2 <8 kPa
Normal (or elevated) PaCO 2 (4.6–6.0 kPa)
silent chest
cyanosis
poor respiratory effort
arrhythmia
exhaustion, altered conscious level
A Respiratory rate 28/min
Monitoring respiratory rate is important in asthma even though tachypnoea is not included in
the criteria for life-threatening asthma, as a fall in respiratory rate can be associated with
reduced respiratory effort and exhaustion.
B Widespread wheeze
Widespread wheeze indicates good respiratory effort in an acute asthma attack. If the chest
were to become silent then this would indicate life-threatening asthma.
C Heart rate 110/min
Tachycardia is an unreliable marker in asthma as it can easily occur due to repeat doses of
salbutamol. However, arrhythmia implies a far worse state and should be treated quickly.
D PaCO2 4.4 kPa
Patients with exacerbation of asthma have a high respiratory rate and would be expected to
have a low pCO 2 as they blow off oxygen. When CO 2 starts to rise, this implies that the
patient is becoming tired and that means that the asthma can be classified as life-
threatening.
32379
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MyPastest 01/06/2021, 2:10 PM
MyPastest 01/06/2021, 2:11 PM
unremarkable. His weight and height were 120 kg and 175 cm, respectively
Investigations:
Platelets (PLT) 94 × 10 9/l 150 - 400 × 10 9/l
Which of the following investigations would most aid diagnosis?
A ABG
B Sleep studies
C CXR
D CT thorax
E Body plethysmography
Explanation 
B Sleep studies
This patient has obstructive sleep apnoea (OSA), suggested by insomnia, daytime
somnolence, morning headache and obesity. Other symptoms include poor concentration
during the day, and partners may describe snoring followed by apnoeic episodes.
MyPastest 01/06/2021, 2:11 PM
Diagnosis is made using the Epworth score, which is a measure of daytime somnolence, and
sleep studies, which would show apnoeic/hypopnoeic episodes associated with
desaturations, increase in heart rate and arousal from sleep. Treatment will depend on
severity of symptoms and desaturations. In most cases weight loss is advisable.
In mild OSA syndrome a mandibular advancement device may control symptoms. In

moderate to severe OSA syndrome, nocturnal non-invasive ventilation (NIV) using continuous
positive airway pressure (CPAP) can be considered. Early-morning headaches can be caused
by a transient hypercapnia, which corrects to normal when the patient is awake. If a patient
has hypercapnia in waking hours (and not just on an early morning blood gas) then overlap
syndrome with obesity hypoventilation syndrome should be considered, although severe OSA
may cause persistent hypercapnia in some cases. Patients with persistent hypercapnia should
be considered for bi-level positive airway pressure (BiPAP).
It is important to exclude underlying causes; this patient has a history of gout which, together
with the raised MCV and low platelets, suggests alcohol consumption, which can precipitate
the problem. Hypothyroidism, acromegaly and sedating drugs also need to be excluded.
Retrognathia can cause OSA, and large tonsils may obstruct the airway.
A ABG
Arterial blood gases would be helpful in assessing for hypercapnoea, but are not diagnostic
of OSA.
C CXR
Radiology is usually normal in obstructive sleep apnoea.There are no respiratory symptoms to

suggest an intrathoracic pathology that would require a CXR.
D CT thorax
Radiology is usually normal in obstructive sleep apnoea.There are no respiratory symptoms to

suggest an intrathoracic pathology that would require a CT.
E Body plethysmography
Body plethysmography may reveal restrictive lung function with a normal gas transfer but
this is not a diagnostic test for OSA.
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MyPastest 01/06/2021, 2:11 PM
MyPastest 01/06/2021, 2:12 PM
A 71-year-old man returns from a veterans’ convention in Spain. A few days later he becomes
unwell with high fevers, rigors, a dry cough and severe headaches. On examination his BP is
105/60 mmHg, pulse is 92/min and regular and his temperature is 38. o9C. There is evidence
of left basal consolidation and dullness suggestive of a pleural effusion, and his O 2 saturation
is 93% on air.
Which one of the following features might point towards Legionella infection if
found in this patient?
A Elevated transaminases
B Onset following influenza illness
C Cavitation on chest X-ray
D History of contact with birds
E Warm agglutinins
Explanation 
A Elevated transaminases
Legionella has an incubation period of 2–10 days, and presents with fever, rigors, headache,
myalgia, dry cough, progressively increasing respiratory distress and confusion. Diarrhoea
and vomiting are common, as are non-specific liver function test abnormalities. Relative
bradycardia may be seen in some patients, in contrast to other acute pneumonias. Pleural
effusion may be seen in up to 50% and chest X-ray appearance may take up to four months
to return to normal. Diagnosis is made with serology, or with PCR on urinary Legionella
antigen. Treatment is with quinolones as first-line therapy, with macrolides as a potential
alternative. Complications include pericarditis, encephalitis and kidney disease.
B Onset following influenza illness
MyPastest 01/06/2021, 2:12 PM
Post influenza pneumonia is most typically associated with Staphylococcus aureas. There is
no link with legionella.
C Cavitation on chest X-ray
Cavitation on X-ray may imply necrotising pneumonia, as can occur with any pneumonia. It
would occur following sever sepsis, especially with pneumococcal pneumonia. Cavitating
lesions can also occur with tuberculosis. The acute onset makes this a less likely diagnosis for
this patient.
D History of contact with birds
Contact with birds can lead to infection with Chlamydia sittaci, which causes psittacosiss
following spread from birds, mostly parrots. It presents with headache, fever, dry cough,
arthralgia and diarrhoea and vomiting. The chest X-ray shows patchy consolidation in this
condition.
E Warm agglutinins
Warm agglutinins are seen in patients with infectious mononucleosis. Infective mononucleosis
is caused by EBV. Following spread is by droplets or saliva and incubation over four weeks. In
early childhood it is nearly asymptomatic, but when adolescents are infected they can
develop fever, sore throat, malaise and lympho-adenopathy. Blood films show lymphocytosis
and atypical lymphocytes.
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MyPastest 01/06/2021, 2:13 PM
A 71-year-old patient undergoes radical surgery for an oesophageal adenocarcinoma with

oesophagectomy, gastrectomy and splenectomy. Initially he makes a good recovery but you
are asked to review him a few days later because he is increasingly short of breath. On
examination BP is 142/72 mmHg and pulse 79/min and regular. There is reduced expansion of
the left side of the chest and dullness to percussion over the left lung fields.
Investigations:
Platelets 172 × 10 9/l 150–400 × 10 9/l
Chest X-ray Large left sided pleural effusion
Diagnostic tap milky coloured effusion, protein content 48g/l
Which of the following investigations on the pleural fluid is most likely to

contribute to confirming the underlying diagnosis?
A Triglycerides
B LDH
C Culture and sensitivity
D pH
E Glucose
MyPastest 01/06/2021, 2:13 PM
Explanation 
A Triglycerides
A triglyceride level greater than 1.2 mmol/l indicates a 99% chance that the fluid in the pleural
space is chyle. This is likely to be a complication of surgery, with intra-operative damage to
the duct or one of its tributaries. This can cause up to 4 l of fluid per day to leak into the
pleural space, leading to the classic symptoms of a large pleural effusion. Initial management
is conservative as the thoracic duct leak reduces spontaneously over a few days. If the
effusion persists, imaging is needed, with referral for surgical ligation as indicated.
B LDH
LDH is used to distinguish an exudate from a transudate, and is therefore utilised to elucidate
the cause of pleural effusion when heart failure versus inflammation or infection needs to be
delineated. It is often done as part of the routine tests on pleural fluid, but will not be the
most useful in confirming the underlying diagnosis.
C Culture and sensitivity
This would identify the organism in an infective pleural effusion but would not aid the
diagnosis here.
D pH
Testing the acidity of pleural fluid is used as a guide to treatment in para-pneumonic and
malignant pleural effusions: a pH of <7.2 in the former indicates the need to drain, and <7.3 in
the latter is associated with worse outcome. Neither is relevant in this clinical scenario.
E Glucose
Glucose levels are of value in para-pneumonic effusions and identify causes such as
tuberculosis or malignancy.
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MyPastest 01/06/2021, 2:14 PM
A 39-year-old woman from Zimbabwe presents to the Emergency Department with a 5-day
describes having had night sweats and a poor appetite for two months. Her weight has
On examination, she looked unwell. Observations: temperature 38.3 °C, blood pressure (BP)
108/72 mmHg, pulse 120/min, regular, respiratory rate 30/min. Auscultation of her chest
revealed inspiratory crackles bi-basally.
Investigations:
Platelets (PLT) 439 × 10 9/l 150 - 400 × 10 9/l
Glucose 5.7 mmol/l 3.9 - 7/1 mmol/l
pH 7.46
PCO 2 3.44 kPa
PO 2 10.77 kPa
Base excess –3.5
MyPastest 01/06/2021, 2:14 PM
What treatment should be started?
A Intravenous co-amoxiclav and clarithromycin
B Anticoagulation with warfarin
C Prednisolone
D Intravenous ganciclovir
E Intravenous high-dose co-trimoxazole ± steroids
Explanation 
E Intravenous high-dose co-trimoxazole ± steroids
This lady has HIV – the history of living in Zimbabwe and the low white cell count are the
MyPastest 01/06/2021, 2:14 PM
antibodies.

A Intravenous co-amoxiclav and clarithromycin
This is appropriate treatment for community-acquired pneumonia.
B Anticoagulation with warfarin
This is appropriate treatment for PE. The pulmonary infiltrates seen here count much more
towards an inflammatory process as the underlying cause of her symptoms.
C Prednisolone
Prednisolone may be appropriate in combination with co-trimoxazole in significantly hypoxic

patients with Pneumocystis, but should not be given alone (without appropriate anti-
Pneumocystis cover).
D Intravenous ganciclovir
This is an appropriate treatment for CMV pneumonitis. CMV pneumonitis has a similar
presentation, although other features such as small pulmonary nodules and predominantly
basal consolidation/infiltration may be seen.
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MyPastest 01/06/2021, 2:15 PM
A 41-year-old woman who is known to have brittle asthma was admitted to the Emergency
Department with increased shortness of breath and a severe cough over the past few days,
productive of yellow/green sputum. She was pyrexial 38.4°C, pulse was 90/min and regular,
BP was 85/60 mmHg on admission, but improved with a fluid challenge. You review her on
the ward some 36 h later, with her blood culture results. Her BP is now 105/70 mmHg, with
pulse 75/min and regular. There are right basal crackles consistent with consolidation. She is
still spiking fevers of 39.2°C every few hours.
Investigations:
White cell count (WCC) 15.2× 10 9/l 4.0 - 11.0 × 10 9/l
Platelets (PLT) 203 × 10 9/l 150 - 400 × 10 9/l
Blood cultures Pseudomonas
Which of the following is the most appropriate antibiotic choice?
A IV colistin (polymyxin E)
B IV gentamicin
C IV meropenem
D IV tazocin
MyPastest 01/06/2021, 2:15 PM
E Oral ciprofloxacin
Explanation 
D IV tazocin
The choice here is between oral quinolone and IV therapy for Pseudomonas. Given that this
patient is still spiking fevers and has an elevated urea, IV therapy with tazocin is most
appropriate.
A IV colistin (polymyxin E)
Colistin is generally reserved for serious pseudomonal infections that are resistant to therapy
with other agents.
B IV gentamicin
Gentamicin monotherapy is not recommended for the treatment of respiratory tract

infections.
C IV meropenem
Carbapenems are an option for the treatment of Pseudomonas, although inducible resistance
is a concern. For this reason, tazocin is the preferred option.
E Oral ciprofloxacin
Although oral ciprofloxacin is an option for pseudomonal infection, the severity of this
patient’s pneumonia drives us more towards IV tazocin as the preferred therapy. It is also now
recommended that quinolone treatment is avoided wherever an effective alternative is
available due to a small but significant risk of debilitating adverse effects.
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MyPastest 01/06/2021, 2:16 PM
A 54-year-old man comes to the Respiratory Clinic for review. He attends with his wife who is
extremely worried that he snores heavily every night, and often seems to stop breathing. He
also falls asleep each evening watching the TV, and has had to stop the car on a number of
occasions to take a nap. He drinks 2 pints of beer each day and smokes 5 cigarettes per day.
On examination his BP is 152/85 mmHg, pulse is 80/min and regular. Auscultation of his chest
reveals occasional wheezes with good air entry bilaterally. Abdomen is soft and non-tender,
his BMI is elevated at 32, and his collar size is 18.
Investigations:
Platelets (PLT) 203 × 10 9/l 150 - 400 × 10 9/l
No focal changes,
CXR
evidence of cardiomegaly
Epworth score 15
He plans to diet.
What other initial intervention is most appropriate?
A CPAP
B Gastric banding
C Mandibular advancement device
MyPastest 01/06/2021, 2:16 PM
D Modafinil
E Uvulopalatopharyngoplasty
Explanation 
A CPAP
CPAP is effective in reducing symptoms and is associated with an improvement in

cardiovascular morbidity in patients with hypertension and obstructive sleep apnoea. 40% of
patients however have an elevated Epworth score after CPAP is initiated, and these
individuals should of course be encouraged to take other measures such as weight loss.
B Gastric banding
Gastric banding should be considered for patients who are unable to achieve significant
weight loss.
C Mandibular advancement device
The NICE guidelines recommend mandibular advancement devices in patients with mild OSA
with normal day time alertness as a simple measure to relieve symptoms, in conjunction with
weight loss. This patient however has increased day time somnolence and thus does not fall
into this category.
D Modafinil
Modafinil is used to enhance wakefulness in patients with central sleep disorders.
E Uvulopalatopharyngoplasty
This is considered in patients who are resistant to other interventions, or where there is
significant OSA despite weight loss.
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 External Links
Hypertension in adults: diagnosis and management

nice.org.uk/guidance/cg127
(http://www.nice.org.uk/guidance/cg127)
Obstructive sleep apnoea syndrome

cks.nice.org.uk/obstructive-sleep-apnoea-syndrome#!scenario
(https://cks.nice.org.uk/obstructive-sleep-apnoea-syndrome#!scenario)
Overview
MyPastest 01/06/2021, 2:16 PM
Management
Prognosis
MyPastest 01/06/2021, 2:17 PM
A 62-year-old retired office worker presents to the clinic with progressively increased
shortness of breath on exercise and a chronic non-productive cough.
On examination, he looks tired and a little thin; his body mass index (BMI) is 21. His blood
pressure (BP) is 142/88 mmHg, with pulse 78/min and regular. There are bi-basal end-
inspiratory crackles on auscultation. He is clubbed and there is bilateral peripheral ankle
oedema.
Investigations:
Hb 148 g/l
WCC 7.9 × 10 9/l
PLT 201 × 10 9/l
Na + 141 mmol/l
K+ 4.0 mmol/l
Creatinine 141 µmol/l
Autoimmune profile No specific abnormalities
PaO 2 7.9 kPa
PaCO 2 3.9 kPa
CXR Interstitial shadowing at both lung bases
CTR Suggests lung fibrosis
Which of the following is the most appropriate initial treatment?
A N-acetylcysteine
B High-dose prednisolone
C Low-dose prednisolone
D Cyclophosphamide
MyPastest 01/06/2021, 2:17 PM
E Long-term oxygen replacement therapy
Explanation 
E Long-term oxygen replacement therapy
This man has strong evidence to support a diagnosis of idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis. There
is nothing, in either his occupational history or the blood results, to suggest a diagnosis of
connective tissue disease or occupational lung disease.
Unfortunately, trials of corticosteroids, potential disease-modifying agents such as
cyclophosphamide or methotrexate and novel therapies such as N-acetylcysteine have been
uniformly disappointing, although these agents are often trialled as a small proportion of
patients may respond.
He is significantly hypoxic, and thus home oxygen therapy may offer both symptom relief and
affect prognosis with respect to secondary pulmonary hypertension and right heart failure.
Pirfenidone and nintedanibare currently available agents which are proven to delay
progression of the disease.
A N-acetylcysteine
N-acetylcysteine can be used under limited circumstances for idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis,
but NICE advises that its benefits are uncertain.
B High-dose prednisolone
Prednisolone is specifically advised against in idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis. However, if

extrinsic allergic alveolitis (EAA) was suspected then it could be trialled. EAA would be
suggested be eosinophilia in blood tests and honeycombing on CT scanning. In the absence
of these features and of any known environmental exposure, this would not be helpful.
C Low-dose prednisolone
Prednisolone is specifically advised against in idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis.
D Cyclophosphamide
Cyclophosphamide is specifically advised against in idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis. Had the

diagnosis of a rheumatoid lung condition been suspected, then this could have been
considered.
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 External Links
NICE. Idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis

nice.org.uk/guidance/cg163
(https://www.nice.org.uk/guidance/cg163)
Overview
MyPastest 01/06/2021, 2:17 PM
Management
Prognosis
MyPastest 01/06/2021, 2:18 PM
A 42-year-old publican is admitted with increasing shortness of breath which is relieved by

lying flat. He has been seen on one previous occasion with a haematemesis and admits to
drinking 6–8 pints of strong lager per day. He also smokes 20 cigarettes per day. On
examination he looks unwell; he has signs of chronic liver disease including clubbing, spider
naevi, scratch marks, swollen ankles and ascites. He is tender in the right upper quadrant.
Respiratory examination is suggestive of bilateral pleural effusions. His BP is 95/60 mmHg,
and his pulse is 100/min.
Investgation Result Normal value
Platelets (PLT) 78 × 10 9/l 150–400 × 10 9/l
Alanine aminotransferase (ALT) 140 U/l 5–30 IU/l
pO 2 7.9 kPa 10.5–13.5 kPa
pCO 2 3.9 kPa 4.6–6.0 kPa
A Pulmonary embolus
B Cardiac failure
C Hepatopulmonary syndrome
MyPastest 01/06/2021, 2:18 PM
Explanation 
C Hepatopulmonary syndrome
Given the history of significant liver disease, a link between this and his chest pathology,
hepatopulmonary syndrome is more likely than a pulmonary embolus. Equally, there are no
signs suggestive of either COPD or pulmonary fibrosis. Hepatopulmonary syndrome is due to
arteriovenous shunting and is potentially progressive and life-threatening. It is associated
with gross dilatation of pulmonary pre-capillary and capillary vessels; hypoxia may be
exacerbated by sitting upright because of preferential perfusion of lung bases (with poor
ventilation of these areas in the upright position). Lung bases are better ventilated when the
patient lies flat. Hypoxia may be further worsened by the presence of significant pleural
effusions. Nitric oxide is thought to play a role in the condition, largely as a result of studies in
rodent models, although this is yet to be confirmed in human studies. The syndrome may be
corrected by liver transplantation, and is adequate reason for expedited referral. Platypnoea
is related to this abnormal pulmonary vasodilation, which leads to inappropriate shunting.
Bubbles can be seen appearing late in the left atrium when agitated saline is injected, and the
atrium is observed on echocardiography.
A Pulmonary embolus
Although hypoxia and shortness of breath could be associated with pulmonary embolism, it’s
less likely given decreased hepatic synthetic function and likely abnormal clotting, coupled
with obvious decompensated cirrhosis, meaning hepatopulmonary syndrome is a much more
obvious cause.
B Cardiac failure
Significant left ventricular failure is more likely to be associated with type 2 respiratory failure
rather than the low CO 2 seen here.
Bilateral pleural effusions would not fit with a diagnosis of COPD, and chronic COPD would
usually be associated with an elevated bicarbonate because of metabolic compensation, not
seen here.
MyPastest 01/06/2021, 2:18 PM
Pulmonary fibrosis is associated with crackles on auscultation, and not with the pleural
effusions seen here. Shortness of breath would also not be improved by lying flat.
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MyPastest 01/06/2021, 2:19 PM
This 66-year-old man presented with several months history of dyspnoea and chest pain
which has not responded to inhalers or to medication for angina. He is a retired boilermaker,
who smoked 40 cigarettes per day until 4 years ago. On examination his BP is 152/92, with
pulse 80 and regular. There is wheeze on auscultation of the chest, and pitting oedema of
both ankles.
His chest radiograph is shown below.
What is the most likely cause for the main abnormalities shown?
A Cigarette smoking
MyPastest 01/06/2021, 2:19 PM
B Tuberculosis
C Asbestos exposure
D Silica exposure
E Previous trauma
Explanation 
C Asbestos exposure
The chest radiograph shows a mesothelioma at the left apex which is invading the underlying
rib. There are also calcified pleural plaques on the surface of both hemi-diaphragms. These
appearances are consistent with asbestos exposure. Extensive occupational history is
essential to establish any entitlement to compensation, as mesothelioma can develop up to
40 years after the initial exposure (often presenting with a unilateral pleural effusion). It is
rarely suitable for surgical resection and is not responsive to chemotherapy. Palliative
radiotherapy after thoracoscopic pleurectomy may be indicated. Only pemetrexed and
cisplatin as chemotherapy has demonstrated a positive response. The prognosis is extremely
poor, with an average survival of 1–2 years from diagnosis.
A Cigarette smoking
Cigarette smoking could not account for the mesothelioma seen in the left upper zone on
CXR, nor the calcified pleural plaques.
B Tuberculosis
This leads to fibrotic changes and lymphadenopathy, but could not account for the left upper
zone lesion or the calcified plaques seen here.
D Silica exposure
This leads to ‘eggshell’ calcification rather than pleural plaques, and is not associated with
mesothelioma.
E Previous trauma
MyPastest 01/06/2021, 2:19 PM
Previous trauma is more likely to be associated with evidence of old rib fractures and
calcification, rather than the pleural changes seen here. It would also not account for the
mesothelioma.
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MyPastest 01/06/2021, 2:19 PM
Management
Prognosis
MyPastest 01/06/2021, 2:21 PM
A 58-year-old man presented to the hospital with a 12 h history of acute, severe epigastric
pain which radiated to the back, and profuse vomiting. He had a long history of alcohol
excess and admitted to a drinking binge 24 h prior to the onset of pain. He also smoked 30
cigarettes per day. His past medical history includes stable angina, hypertension and several
admissions to the Emergency Department with alcohol-related problems.
On examination, he was unwell, clammy and distressed with pain. He had a pyrexia of 38°C,
pulse 120/min and regular, blood pressure 92/60 mmHg, Sa(O 2) 91% on air. Heart sounds
were normal, with few basal crepitations on chest auscultation. He was very tender in the
upper abdomen, with rebound and guarding and absent bowel sounds.
Platelets (PLT) 140 × 10 9/l 150–400 × 10 9/l
Corrected calcium (Ca 2+) 1.96 mmol/l 2.20–2.60 mmol/l
Gamma glutamyl-transferase (γGT) 110 IU/l 5–30 IU/l
International normalised ratio (INR) 1.1 < 1.1
Amylase 1320 U/l < 200 U/l
MyPastest 01/06/2021, 2:21 PM
Electrocardiogram (ECG) Sinus tachycardia,

no acute changes
Patchy shadowing lower zones,

Chest X-ray (CXR)
no free air under diaphragm
Arterial blood gases on air reveal the following:
pH 7.160
p a(O 2) 7.8 kPa
p a(CO 2) 3.2 kPa
He was treated with oxygen, intravenous fluids and antibiotics and opiate analgesia. However,
24 h later, he had not improved and was getting progressively more breathless and hypoxic.
His repeat chest radiograph is shown below.
MyPastest 01/06/2021, 2:21 PM
What is the most likely cause for this appearance?
B Bilateral hospital-acquired pneumonia
C Cardiogenic pulmonary oedema
D Pulmonary haemorrhage
E Fat embolism
Explanation 
This man has developed ARDS as a complication of severe acute pancreatitis. It is defined as
acute respiratory failure with non-cardiogenic pulmonary oedema secondary to severe
pulmonary or systemic illness, and may be associated with multi-organ failure. The most
common cause is sepsis. There is increased permeability of the pulmonary micro-circulation
due to inflammation causing leakage of fluid into the lungs. Later features include pulmonary
vasoconstriction and hypertension secondary to hypoxia, and lung exudates which lead to
reduced compliance. ARDS should be managed on an Intensive Care Unit. Supportive
measures include positive-pressure ventilation, circulatory support with inotropes and
treatment of sepsis. Inhaled nitrogen oxide and haemofiltration can also be used. Mortality is
currently around 20–30%.
B Bilateral hospital-acquired pneumonia
The time course is too short to fit with hospital-acquired pneumonia, and the patchy
opacification versus lobar changes would be unusual for acute pneumonia.
C Cardiogenic pulmonary oedema
Cardiogenic pulmonary oedema is a possible differential, although the proximity to acute

pancreatitis is more likely to be associated with ARDS, and the lower lobe changes are more
consistent with ARDS than pulmonary oedema.
D Pulmonary haemorrhage
MyPastest 01/06/2021, 2:21 PM
Pulmonary haemorrhage isn’t associated with pancreatitis, although it is associated with CXR
changes similar to those seen here.
E Fat embolism
Fat embolism is associated with acute-onset shortness of breath, and is usually linked to
repair or displacement of a long bone fracture.
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Overview
Management
Prognosis
MyPastest 01/06/2021, 2:22 PM
A 21-year-old comes to the Emergency Room with symptoms of an upper respiratory tract
infection and sharp stabbing chest pain over his left upper chest when he breathes in. He is
usually well and is doing a degree in physical education. He is a non-smoker who only drinks
small amounts of alcohol.
On examination, his blood pressure (BP) is 135/70 mmHg, his temperature is 37.9 oC, his pulse
is 84/min and regular. Auscultation of the chest is clear, although there are some transmitted
sounds from his upper respiratory tract. He has some limited anterior chest wall tenderness.
150–400 ×
10 9/l
Chest X-Ray (CXR) No abnormalities seen
Electrocardiogram Sinus rhythm with a rate of 84; no acute

(ECG) changes
PO 2 13 kPa 10–14 kPa
PCO 2 4.8 kPa 4.7–6.0 kPa
A Viral pericarditis
B Viral myocarditis
C Viral costochondritis
MyPastest 01/06/2021, 2:22 PM
D Hyperventilation syndrome
E Pleurisy
Explanation 
C Viral costochondritis
In the context of a young, previously well individual with a recent upper respiratory tract
infection, normal ECG, normal CXR and normal ABG the history points towards viral
costochondritis. Adequate analgesia is the most important component of successful
treatment, with simple analgesia such as paracetamol combined with an appropriate non-
steroidal. Without analgesia, the risk of atelectasis and consequent bacterial superinfection is
increased.
A Viral pericarditis
Pericarditis classically presents with sharp, pleuritic chest pain which is relieved by sitting up
and leaning forwards. Additionally, there may be a pericardial friction rub on auscultation.
Classical ECG findings are widespread saddle-shaped ST-elevation. Patients may also develop
a pericardial effusion.
The common viral causes of pericarditis include enteroviruses (e.g. Coxsackieviruses, echo-
viruses); herpesviruses (e.g. Epstein–Barr virus, cytomegalovirus, human herpesvirus 6);
adenoviruses, parvovirus B19. Non-infectious causes of pericarditis include auto-immune,
neoplastic, metabolic, traumatic and drug related. NSAIDs are used in the treatment of
pericarditis.
Reference: Imazio M, Gaita F, LeWinter M. Evaluation and treatment of pericarditis: A

systematic review. JAMA. 2015;314(14):1498–1506. doi:10.1001/jama.2015.12763
B Viral myocarditis
Signs and symptoms of myocarditis include chest pain, general malaise, history consistent
with a recent viral illness, congestive heart failure, arrhythmias, fever and sudden death. ECG
changes include diffuse T-wave inversion and saddle-shaped ST-elevation. There are many
causes of myocarditis, but viral infection is the most common. The gold standard diagnostic
test is myocardial biopsy.
D Hyperventilation syndrome
In hyperventilation syndrome, the patient breathes rapidly causing P aCO 2 to fall. This results
in a respiratory alkalosis. Patients often describe chest pain, and tingling around the mouth
and fingers. These features may accompany a panic attack.
MyPastest 01/06/2021, 2:22 PM
E Pleurisy
Pleurisy describes inflammation of the pleura which causes sharp, stabbing pain when
breathing. On auscultation of the chest it may be possible to hear a pleural friction rub.
Patients often complain of lateral chest pain rather than the anterior upper chest pain seen
here and don't complain of pain on chest wall palpitation as is seen here.
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MyPastest 01/06/2021, 2:22 PM
Management
Prognosis
MyPastest 01/06/2021, 2:31 PM
A 54-year-old man presented with increasing shortness of breath and orthopnoea. He had
noticed these symptoms over the last few years but only went to his GP after he had had a
severe episode of breathlessness when he went wading in the sea on holiday. On further
enquiry, he had also become aware of morning headaches and an increasing tendency to fall
asleep during the day.
On examination he looked well. Auscultation of his chest revealed reduced breath sounds and
percussion note bi-basally.
Investigations:
Platelets (PLT) 289 × 10 9/l 150 - 400 × 10 9/l
Packed cell volume (PCV) 0.51 0.4 - 0.53
Residual volume Erect (% predicted) 105
Total lung capacity Erect (% predicted) 80
Vital capacity Erect (% predicted)/Supine (% predicted) 75/50
TLCO Erect (% predicted) 70
KCO Erect (% predicted) 95
B Nocturnal asthma
C Bilateral diaphragmatic weakness
D Left ventricular failure
MyPastest 01/06/2021, 2:31 PM
E Multiple sclerosis
Explanation 
C Bilateral diaphragmatic weakness
In bilateral diaphragmatic weakness, patients commonly present with breathlessness on

exertion and when lying flat. It can be associated with sleep apnoea, resulting in daytime
somnolence and headaches. The symptoms are due to the paradoxical movement of the
diaphragm during inspiration.
In the supine position, expansion of the ribs results in movement of abdominal contents into
the chest, aided by gravity. Symptoms can be worse when standing up to the waist in water,
as this counteracts the effects of gravity and prevents outward movement of the abdomen
during inspiration and therefore produces a similar situation to being in the supine position.
A chest X-ray may show relatively small lung fields and basal linear shadowing due to sub-
segmental collapse. A SNIF test (diaphragmatic screening on ultrasound) will show
paradoxical movement of the diaphragm, particularly on sniffing. Blood gases may show a
type II respiratory failure, particularly at night. Lung function tests classically show a low vital
capacity, which falls further in the supine position. All lung volumes except the residual
volume are reduced. The gas transfer tends to mildly impaired with a normal KCO. Treatment
is with non-invasive ventilation.
The 15% change in vital capacity when supine alongside breathlessness when submerged in
water and orthopnoea make diaphragmatic weakness more likely.
B Nocturnal asthma
The patient has no symptoms to suggest that asthma is the diagnosis. There is no wheeze or
cough. The breathlessness is progressive and there are several other features in this history to
suggest diaphragmatic weakness.
D Left ventricular failure
Orthopnoea and dull percussion notes bilaterally (due to pleural effusions) in isolation could
be in keeping with LVF, but there is more going on here. The patient has a change in sitting
and supine VC, there is a normal transfer factor when corrected for lung volumes and
haemoglobin is high (you would expect a lower Hb in LVF due to fluid overload and
haemodilution).
E Multiple sclerosis
MyPastest 01/06/2021, 2:31 PM
Patients with MS can experience diaphragmatic weakness, but there are no other clinical
features to suggest an underlying diagnosis of MS.
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MyPastest 01/06/2021, 2:32 PM
A 22-year-old woman with cystic fibrosis attends the chest clinic with her partner. They want
to start a family before her health deteriorates. She has had several admissions to hospital
over the past few years, but currently she feels relatively well. She works at a local estate
agent. During a recent admission to hospital with an exacerbation of her cystic fibrosis, a
sputum culture revealed a heavy growth of Pseudomonas, sensitive to ceftazidime.
Investigations:
Platelets 197 × 10 9/l 150–400 × 10 9/l
FEV 1 72% of that predicted
Which of the following is the correct advice when it comes to getting pregnant?
A She should be advised to never get pregnant
B After treating the acute infection she still has a very high risk of dying/premature
delivery of her child
C After treating the acute infection she has a good chance of a successful pregnancy
D She is unlikely to conceive due to thickening of the cervical mucus
E The fact her periods started late indicates subfertility
Explanation 
MyPastest 01/06/2021, 2:32 PM
C After treating the acute infection she has a good chance of a successful pregnancy
Evidence is difficult to evaluate with respect to cystic fibrosis and successful pregnancy.
Around 98% of men with CF will be infertile, but the effect of CF on fertility in women is not
so clear-cut. The first successful pregnancy in a woman with cystic fibrosis occurred in 1960,
and since then increasing number of children have been born to mothers with CF.
A She should be advised to never get pregnant
Pregnancy can be well tolerated in those with mild disease, but in patients whose lung
function is poor there is increased likelihood of infant prematurity and death. There may also
be loss of maternal lung function with accelerated decline following pregnancy.
B After treating the acute infection she still has a very high risk of dying/premature
delivery of her child
Observational studies suggest that patients with an FEV1 <60% predicted have a much worse
outcome both with respect to their own health status and the viability of the pregnancy, and
that chronic Pseudomonas infection and multiple exacerbations do much worse.
D She is unlikely to conceive due to thickening of the cervical mucus
Despite the fact that cervical mucus is thicker, this does not appear to impact significantly on
ability to become pregnant. CFTR is found in large quantities on the cervix, which means that
cervical mucus remains thick throughout the menstrual cycle.
E The fact her periods started late indicates subfertility
Even though menstruation tends to begin later in CF, this does not appear to impact
significantly on ability to get pregnant.
21536
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 External Links
Women with cystic fibrosis and their potential for reproduction

thorax.bmj.com/content/56/8/649
(http://thorax.bmj.com/content/56/8/649)
Overview
Management
Prognosis
MyPastest 01/06/2021, 2:32 PM
MyPastest 01/06/2021, 2:34 PM
A 70-year-old lady is referred to the Medical Clinic by her general practitioner (GP) following
shortness of breath. She has been seeing her GP over the last couple of months for increasing
shortness of breath on exercise. Her GP had done some investigations but still could not
explain her shortness of breath on exercise. She has had a dry cough which has been on and
off for the last 4 months. On examination, her blood pressure is 135/80 mmHg, pulse 70 bpm
and regular. Her jugular venous pulse is not raised and her heart sounds are normal. Her
breathing is noisy but her chest is clinically clear on auscultation.
Which investigation is likely to be most helpful in determining where any

obstruction lies?
A Chest X-ray
B Bronchoscopy
C Flow volume loop
D Polysomnography
E Arterial blood gases
Explanation 
C Flow volume loop
This patient likely has a partial upper airway obstruction. The causes in this age group would
include: a tumour, a multinodular goitre or an aneurysm. A flow loop volume would show
characteristic patterns with intrathoracic/extrathoracic obstruction.
A Chest X-ray
This patient has signs suggestive of partial upper airway obstruction. A chest X-ray would not
help determining where the upper airway obstruction lies. A significant multinodular goitre
may, however, be an incidental finding on chest X-ray.
MyPastest 01/06/2021, 2:34 PM
B Bronchoscopy
Though bronchoscopy is important in the diagnosis and management of central airway

obstruction, its role in the diagnosis of upper airway obstruction is limited.
D Polysomnography
This test would not help determine the location of the upper airway obstruction.
Polysomnography is used in the diagnosis of sleep disorders.
E Arterial blood gases
In the context of the history given, there is no indication for an arterial blood gas.
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MyPastest 01/06/2021, 2:34 PM
MyPastest 01/06/2021, 2:35 PM
A 43-year-old solicitor with breast carcinoma presents to the A&E department complaining
of a cough and shortness of breath, associated with fever and sharp chest pain. She has only
recently finished her last chemotherapy treatment course. She is currently on no treatment
and has no allergies. She has no other significant past medical history.
On examination, she is dyspnoeic and tachypnoeic at rest and has a fever of 39°C. Pulse
oximetry shows her oxygen saturations to be 90%. Examination of her chest shows a dull
percussion note in the right upper region of the lung associated with increased vocal
resonance and, on auscultation, bronchial breathing can be heard in the same area associated
with coarse crackles. In order to confirm the suspected diagnosis, the patient undergoes a
transbronchial biopsy. The specimen stains with Gomori methenamine silver and
haematoxylin & eosin stains. Galactomannan testing is positive.
A Secondary lung tumour
B Tuberculosis
D Pneumocystis jirovecii pneumonia
E Sarcoidosis
Explanation 
Aspergillus fumigatus is a fungus transmitted to humans via inhalation. Hence, it primarily

affects the lungs, causing five main syndromes: asthma, allergic bronchopulmonary
aspergillosis (ABPA), aspergilloma, invasive aspergillosis and extrinsic allergic alveolitis
(EAA). Asthma is a type-I hypersensitivity reaction to fungal spores whereas ABPA is a type-
III hypersensitivity reaction to A. fumigatus. An aspergilloma is a fungal ball within a pre-
existing lung cavity that may have resulted from tuberculosis, sarcoidosis or another
necrotising pulmonary process. It is usually asymptomatic but may cause cough, torrential
haemoptysis and fever. Invasive aspergillosis typically manifests with fever, cough, dyspnoea
MyPastest 01/06/2021, 2:35 PM
and pleuritic chest pain in patients with prolonged neutropenia or immunosuppression, such
as that which occurs after chemotherapy. The CXR in invasive aspergillosis shows
consolidation, and the patient has rapidly progressing and worsening hypoxaemia. This CXR
appearance progresses despite the use of broad-spectrum antibiotics. The definitive
diagnosis of invasive aspergillosis depends upon the demonstration of the organism in tissue.
Haematoxylin and eosin (H&E) stain does not stain most fungi, except Aspergillus species and
the zygomycetes. In Pneumocystis jirovecii pneumonia the typical chest X-ray appearance
shows a diffuse central alveolar or interstitial infiltrate, although it may appear normal in early
disease.
A Secondary lung tumour
GMS is used to stain fungi and Pneumocystis jirovecii, and would not be expected to stain a
tumour.
B Tuberculosis
We are not given any history of contact with TB, or a history of symptoms such as weight
loss or night sweats. GMS is used to stain fungi and Pneumocystis jirovecii.
D Pneumocystis jirovecii pneumonia
While this does stain with GMS, PJ typically occurs as opportunistic infection in patients with
HIV. The positive galactomannan testing also directs us towards aspergillus as the diagnosis.
E Sarcoidosis
There is no mention of symptoms such as erythema nodosum or bilateral hilar

lymphadenopathy, which is commonly seen on CXR, nor of non-caseating granulomas on
biopsy, which are the hallmark of the disease.
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Overview
Management
Prognosis
MyPastest 01/06/2021, 2:36 PM
A 65-year-old man presents with a 6-week history of anorexia, malaise and breathlessness
which he relates to rapidly worsening asthma. He takes NSAIDs for osteoarthritis of his knees,
paroxetine and also inhalers for mild asthma. He was on lithium carbonate 2–5 years ago.
Examination reveals mild peripheral oedema, bilateral pleural effusions and a skin rash. He is
hypertensive at 210/100 mmHg.
Investigations:
Eosinophils 2.2 × 10 9/l 0.04 - 0.4 × 10 9/l
Serum IgG 8.0 g/l 6.0 - 13.0 g/l
Serum IgA 1.2 g/l 0.8 - 3.0 g/l
Serum IgM 1.5 g/l 0.4 - 2.5 g/l
Serum IgE 200 u/l < 120 u/l
Urinalysis Blood ++, protein ++
Abdominal ultrasound scan (USS) No obstruction, kidneys 11 and 12 cm
The likely diagnosis is:
A Amyloidosis
B Chronic analgesic nephropathy
MyPastest 01/06/2021, 2:36 PM
C Eosinophilic granulomatosis with polyangiitis (EGPA)
D Lithium nephrotoxicity
E Membranous glomerulonephritis
Explanation 
C Eosinophilic granulomatosis with polyangiitis (EGPA)
This man has presented with biochemical evidence of kidney disease. The key to the
diagnosis here is the significantly raised eosinophil count and raised serum IgE both of which
are characteristic of EPGA. EPGA is characterised by asthma and blood eosinophilia together
with an eosinophilic vasculitis. The initial phase of the disorder is one of asthma and allergic
rhinitis, often followed by peripheral blood eosinophilia with eosinophilic tissue disease. The
vasculitic phase that follows is life-threatening; however, it can often be treated effectively
with immunosuppression. Renal disease consists of focal glomerulonephritis in the vasculitic
phase with non-selective proteinuria, haematuria and red cell casts on microscopy.
A Amyloidosis
Amyloidosis is incorrect. Amyloidosis typically presents with a nephrotic picture. Presentation

involves heavy proteinuria in the form of nephrotic syndrome and chronic kidney disease.
There is fatigue, weight loss, bruising and easy bleeding (including the gastrointestinal tract).
AL amyloidosis may affect other organs such as heart to produce cardiomegaly and liver with
hepatomegaly.
B Chronic analgesic nephropathy
Chronic analgesic nephropathy is incorrect. Analgesic nephropathy will not present with
blood and protein in the urine and there is no skin rash. There may be papillary necrosis with
visible blood in the urine and abdominal pain or insidious renal impairment with no blood or
protein in the urine.
D Lithium nephrotoxicity
Lithium nephrotoxicity is incorrect. Lithium nephrotoxicity is associated with nephrogenic

diabetes insipidus and may be associated with tubule-intersitial fibrosis and tubular dilatation.
The presentation would be gradual worsening of renal function over a period of years. There
is no blood in the urine or skin rash.
E Membranous glomerulonephritis
MyPastest 01/06/2021, 2:36 PM
Membranous glomerulonephritis is incorrect. Membranous gomerulonephritis is the most

common cause of nephrotic syndrome in the adult population in the developed world. There
would not be any blood in the urine or any skin rash. Progressive renal impairment with
proteinuria is a common presentation. The diagnosis is by renal biopsy which would show
glomerular basement membrane (GBM) thickening and ‘spikes’ of GBM extending around
subepithelial deposits often best seen on silver stains. There is loss of podocyte foot
processes with a variable degree of acute tubular necrosis and tubule-interstitial fibrosis.
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MyPastest 01/06/2021, 2:36 PM
Overview
Management
Prognosis
MyPastest 01/06/2021, 2:38 PM
A 56-year-old man comes to the clinic for review. He complains of excessive daytime
sleepiness such that he falls asleep a number of times during the day, and is unable to hold
down his job as a taxi driver. He has a history of hypertension for which he takes Ramipril, but
is otherwise well. His wife tells you he snores for most of the night and often stops breathing.
On examination his blood pressure (BP) is 158/88 mmHg, his pulse is 78 beats per minute
(bpm) and his body mass index (BMI) is 38 kg/m 2. He has a collar size of 18.5.
Investigations reveal the following;
Hb 135 g/l
WCC 6.9 x10 9/l
PLT 188 x10 9/l
Na + 137 mmol/l
K+ 4.3 mmol/l
Glucose 8.1 mmol/l (fasting)
Sleep study >10 hypoxic episodes associated with apnoea during the overnight period
Which of the following is the best long-term intervention for this patient?
A Caffeine
B CPAP
C Modafinil
D Uvuloplasty
E Weight loss
Explanation 
MyPastest 01/06/2021, 2:38 PM
E Weight loss
The answer is Weight loss -
This patient has obstructive sleep apnoea (OSA), contributing to excessive day time
sleepiness, and potentially worsening BP and glucose control because of significant
sympathetic activation associated with the night time wakening. Given that fasting glucose is
suggestive of a new diagnosis of type 2 diabetes mellitus, aggressive attempts at weight loss
are the most appropriate intervention here.
A Caffeine
Caffeine, is incorrect because it does not impact on the underlying cause of his excessive
sleepiness, and runs the risk of daytime sleep episodes becoming more unpredictable.
B CPAP
CPAP is incorrect because it is a short-term fix for the apnoeic episodes, but does not impact
significantly with respect to weight reduction.
C Modafinil
Modafinil is incorrect, it is a treatment for narcolepsy / cataplexy, and does not contribute to
weight loss.
D Uvuloplasty
Uvuloplasty is incorrect, it is primarily a treatment for snoring, not for sleep apnoea.
(Option A), Caffeine, is inappropriate because it does not impact on the underlying cause of
his excessive sleepiness, and runs the risk of daytime sleep episodes becoming more
unpredictable.
(Option B) CPAP is inappropriate because it is a short-term fix for the apnoeic episodes, but
does not impact significantly with respect to weight reduction.
(Option C) Modafinil is a treatment for narcolepsy / cataplexy, and does not contribute to
weight loss.
(Option D) Uvuloplasty is primarily a treatment for snoring, not for sleep apnoea.
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MyPastest 01/06/2021, 2:38 PM
MyPastest 01/06/2021, 2:40 PM
A 62-year-old man attends for a chest X-ray as part of a medical prior to emigrating to
Australia. Unfortunately the chest X-ray reveals a number of rounded opacities predominantly
in the left lung field, all less than 3 cm in diameter. He has had 5 kg of unintentional weight
loss over the past year but no other history of note.
Which of the following features would be the strongest pointer to malignancy
when the chest X-ray is reviewed?
A Spiculated margin to one of the nodules, with distortion of neighbouring vessels
B Smaller lesion size
C A rounded appearance to the nodules
D No enhancement with contrast on future CT thorax
E Age 62 at presentation
Explanation 
A Spiculated margin to one of the nodules, with distortion of neighbouring vessels
A spiculated margin to one of the nodules, particularly when there is distortion of

neighbouring vessels, raises the possibility of malignancy. Associated ground-glass
shadowing, or the presence of cavitation or pseudo-cavitation within the lesion, increases the
chances of malignant disease. CT thorax to further characterise the lesions is indicated.
B Smaller lesion size
Lesions larger than 3 cm are more likely to be associated with underlying malignancy.
C A rounded appearance to the nodules
Rounded appearance to the nodules, implying organised growth, is less likely to be

associated with an underlying malignancy.
MyPastest 01/06/2021, 2:40 PM
D No enhancement with contrast on future CT thorax
Enhancement of nodules with contrast on CT thorax increases the likelihood that they are
malignant in origin.
E Age 62 at presentation
Older age at presentation and history of smoking are associated with increased likelihood of
malignancy.
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MyPastest 01/06/2021, 2:40 PM
Overview
Management
Prognosis
MyPastest 01/06/2021, 2:41 PM
A 17-year-old woman with a history of cystic fibrosis presents to the Emergency Room with
rapidly worsening shortness of breath, and a cough productive of much more sputum than
usual with marked wheeze. She has started to lose weight and is off her food. On examination
her BMI is 21, her BP is 105/72 mmHg and pulse 89/min with a temperature of 37.9 oC.
Auscultation of the chest reveals a mix of crackles and wheeze.
Platelets (PLT) 199 × 10 9/l 150–400 × 10 9/l
Sputum sample Gram-negative rods
Which of the following is the most likely identity of the bacteria found in the
sputum sample?
A Klebsiella
B Mycoplasma
C Pseudomonas
D Bacteroides
E Staphylococcus
Explanation 
MyPastest 01/06/2021, 2:41 PM
C Pseudomonas
Pseudomonas colonisation is associated with deterioration of respiratory symptoms, loss of

appetite and weight loss in patients with CF. It is seen as Gram negative rods on a sputum
sample. Severity of pulmonary disease, including the degree of Pseudomonas colonisation, is
closely related to outcome and prognosis. Inhaled tobramycin given intermittently over a
prolonged period has been shown to delay the deterioration in lung function and improve
prognosis for patients chronically infected with Pseudomonas.
A Klebsiella
Klebsiella are Gram-negative rod-shaped bacteria, but rather than causing chronic infection
they are more likely to be associated with consolidation and abscess formation in patients
who are immunosuppressed or who have chronic alcoholism.
B Mycoplasma
Mycoplasma is a mollicute which lacks a peptidoglycan cell wall; it is most recognised as a

cause of pneumonia in epidemics, often in individuals who reside in close proximity – for
example, soldiers in the army.
D Bacteroides
Bacteroides is generally recognised as part of the normal colonic flora, and colonisation
therefore doesn’t play a key role in deteriorating lung function associated with cystic fibrosis.
E Staphylococcus
Staphylococci are Gram-positive cocci that lead to acute pneumonia, usually after influenza
infection.
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MyPastest 01/06/2021, 2:42 PM
A 24-year-old asthmatic on PRN salbutamol inhaler and budesonide 200 µg inhaler twice per
day is not well controlled and needs his treatment stepping up.
Which of the following would be recommended according to current (2017) NICE

guidelines?
A Add oral cromoglicate
B Increase budesonide to 800 µg BD
C Add oral theophylline (modified release)
D Add montelukast
E Add tiotropium
Explanation 
D Add montelukast
Montelukast is a leukotriene receptor antagonist. The 2017 NICE guidelines say:
"If asthma is uncontrolled in adults (aged 17 and over) on a low dose of ICS as maintenance
therapy, offer a leukotriene receptor antagonist (LTRA) in addition to the ICS and review the
response to treatment in 4–8 weeks."
A Add oral cromoglicate
Cromoglicate is only effective for asthma prophylaxis by inhalation 3–4 times a day and is
generally only considered after patients have failed to gain control on multiple agents,
including inhaled corticosteroids, long-acting beta-agonist and monteleukast.
B Increase budesonide to 800 µg BD
MyPastest 01/06/2021, 2:42 PM
The standard dose of budesonide is 100–400 µg, the high dose is 0.8–2mg. Before using a
high-dose steroid, a long-acting beta-agonist should be tried.
C Add oral theophylline (modified release)
Theophylline would be added if asthma is not controlled after trying high-dose inhaled
steroids.
E Add tiotropium
Tiotropium is a long-acting anti-muscarinic licensed for maintenance treatment for COPD and
for the treatment of asthma in patients not controlled on inhaled corticosteroids and long-
acting beta-agonist.
2324
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MyPastest 01/06/2021, 2:42 PM
 External Links

Overview
Management
Prognosis
MyPastest 01/06/2021, 2:42 PM
An 82-year-old woman living in her own home presents with a 3-day history of confusion, as
noted by her carer. She has had a purulent cough for several days. She has never smoked.
Her other health problems include controlled hypertension, osteoarthritis and venous leg
ulcers, which limit her mobility.
She attends a day centre 3 days per week, where two other patients have recently been
treated for pneumonia with according to the general practitioner (GP), although you have no
further details regarding this.
On examination, she is mildly confused and drowsy, with mild pyrexia of 37.8 °C. Chest
examination is abnormal. Routine bloods reveal a neutrophilia with CRP of 220.
Her chest X-ray shows left lower lobe consolidation.

What is the most likely causative organism?
B Legionella pneumophilia
C Mycoplasma
E Haemophilus influenzae
Explanation 
S. pneumoniae is the commonest cause of community-acquired pneumonia in the elderly.

Bacteraemic S. pneumoniae pneumonia is the number one cause of mortality in community-
acquired pneumonia, representing up to 80% of cases and 70% of all deaths. The short
history of onset and left lower lobe consolidation are entirely consistent with S. pneumoniae
versus an atypical cause.
B Legionella pneumophilia
MyPastest 01/06/2021, 2:42 PM
Legionella is associated with a greater burden of confusion which may be linked to

hyponatraemia, and other features such as diarrhoea and elevated transaminases.
C Mycoplasma
Mycoplasma presents in epidemics often associated with institutionalisation, for instance

amongst recruits in an army barracks. The acute course and lobar pneumonia seen here are
more consistent with S. pneumoniae.
S. aureus pneumonia is typically described as following an episode of influenza, and leads to

focal consolidation with areas of cavitation.
E Haemophilus influenzae
H. influenzae pneumonia is less common in percentage terms than streptococcal infection,

and is more likely to be seen in patients with pre-existing chest disease.
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MyPastest 01/06/2021, 2:43 PM
A 62-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Admission with a cough, which she has had
for the past three days. She was previously well until she got this cough, which is productive
of purulent sputum. She also has right-sided chest pains, fever and some shortness of breath.
On examination, she is confused, febrile with a blood pressure of 89/60 mmHg, pulse rate of
102/min and a respiratory rate of 31/min. Her oxygen saturation is 89%. She has right-sided
upper lobe bronchial sounds on auscultation. Her abdominal examination is unremarkable.
Platelets (PLT) 178 × 10 9/l 150–400 × 10 9/l
Mean Corpuscular Volume (MCV) 89 fl 76–98 fl
C-Reactive Protein (CRP) 59 mg/l < 10 mg/l
Chest X-Ray (CXR) Right upper lobe consolidation
What would be the most appropriate next step in her immediate management?
A Start oral antibiotics
B Intravenous fluids
C Non-rebreather oxygen mask for delivery of 60–80% F iO 2
D Hypertonic saline solution
MyPastest 01/06/2021, 2:43 PM
E Potassium supplements
Explanation 
C Non-rebreather oxygen mask for delivery of 60–80% F iO 2
This woman has severe pneumonia, which has a mortality of about 10% in patients admitted
to hospital. Features of severity include: confusion, urea > 7.0 mmol/l, respiratory rate ≥
30/min, blood pressure (BP) < 90 systolic. A score of > 2 indicates severe pneumonia. She
would of course, as rapidly as possible, need intravenous antibiotics, fluids, oxygen and
analgesia. In this situation the most marked abnormality is the O 2 saturation of 89%, and this
should therefore be addressed first.
A Start oral antibiotics
This would be inappropriate as the patient is septic secondary to a chest infection and needs
intravenous (iv) antibiotics. Sepsis is defined as meeting two or more of SIRS criteria with a
suspected source of infection. SIRS criteria include temperature outside of 36–38°C, heart
rate > 90, respiratory rate > 20 or PaCO 2 < 32 mmHg and WBC outside of 4–12/mm 3. This
patient has at least three of these criteria.
B Intravenous fluids
Whilst iv fluids should be given very urgently, it is of greater importance to ensure that the
patient has good oxygenation.
D Hypertonic saline solution
This is inappropriate. There is only mild hyponatraemia, which does not need to be correct
urgently, and standard crystalloid fluids could be used for resuscitation. Hypertonic saline can
be used in patients with chronic hyponatraemia with symptoms and sodium < 120 mmol/l.
E Potassium supplements
Potassium supplements should be given either as part of fluid management or with oral
supplementation, but are of no immediate urgency for this patient.
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MyPastest 01/06/2021, 2:44 PM
A 27-year-old professional football player is admitted with a fracture of his right tibia, which
he sustained during the course of a match. He is put on traction in the ward and he is
scheduled for theatre two days later. On the eve of the procedure he is seen by the house
officer because of an episode of chest pain. Clinical examination is unremarkable. His
electrocardiogram (ECG) and chest X-ray are reported as normal, and the patient is
prescribed some analgesia.
The following morning the patient is taken to theatre as planned. While in the anaesthetic
room he is noted to have a respiratory rate of 25/min and oxygen saturations of 90% on room
air. His heart rate is 100 beats/min regular and his blood pressure is 90/65 mmHg. His heart
sounds are normal and there are coarse crackles on auscultation of his chest bilaterally. His
jugular venous pressure is raised to 5 cm. There is no peripheral oedema.
His ECG shows right axis deviation with prominent R waves on leads V1–V2.
Which one of the following measures would be the appropriate next step in this
patient’s management?
A IV furosemide
B IV GTN infusion
C IV fluids
D Subcutaneous low-molecular weight heparin
E IV thrombolysis
Explanation 
C IV fluids
This patient has symptoms and signs suggestive of acute pulmonary oedema which s
extremely unlikely to be cardiac in origin in a young athlete. In this case the non cardiac
pulmonary oedema is most likely caused by fat embolism syndrome. The syndrome classically
presents with three main components: a respiratory picture indistinguishable from ARDS,
neurological features (ranging from acute confusion, reduced consciousness to seizure and
MyPastest 01/06/2021, 2:44 PM
focal deficit) and a petechial rash. Usually chest signs appear first, and not all patients will
have all three system features. Treatment is supportive; maintain circulatory pressure with IV
fluids if needed, and to remove the underlying cause if possible.
A IV furosemide
IV furosemide is not recommended in the acute situation because of the importance of

maintaining circulatory pressure.
B IV GTN infusion
Like furosemide, GTN infusion may significantly reduce blood pressure with a consequent
negative impact on outcomes.
D Subcutaneous low-molecular weight heparin
There is no evidence that heparin is of benefit in the management of fat embolism.
E IV thrombolysis
Although thrombolysis is of benefit in massive pulmonary embolism, it is not of use here as

the symptoms are related to ARDS, not to an embolus.
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MyPastest 01/06/2021, 2:46 PM
A 30-year-old patient with grade 3 Medical Research Council (MRC) dyspnoea had a
transthoracic echocardiogram showing severe pulmonary hypertension, with normal left
ventricle size and function and normal function of all his heart valves. His chest X-ray ordered
by the GP showed clear lung fields and his lung function tests were within normal limits. On
examination, his BP is 145/79 mmHg, his pulse is 80/min and regular, and his BMI is 32. His
chest is clear on auscultation. There is bilateral pitting oedema of both legs and marked
varicosities on the left leg. He tells you the legs have been swollen and painful intermittently
over the past year.
Which of the following tests is the most appropriate first line investigation?
A High-resolution CT chest
B Ultrasound abdomen and venous ultrasound lower limbs
C Left heart catheterisation
D Right heart catheterisation
E Sleep study
Explanation 
B Ultrasound abdomen and venous ultrasound lower limbs
It is important to determine whether pulmonary hypertension is primary or secondary,

because any underlying cause of secondary pulmonary hypertension may be treatable.
Primary pulmonary hypertension is associated with connective tissue disease, vasculitis, HIV
infection and use of appetite suppressants (e.g. fenfluramine), but there are no clues in this
question pointing towards any of these associated features.
Given that the question alerts us that the patient has bilateral leg oedema as well as left leg
varicosities, this gives us a clue that this is likely secondary pulmonary hypertension, possibly
due to chronic venous thromboembolism. Therefore, ultrasound scanning of the lower limb to
confirm left leg deep vein thrombosis, and of the abdomen to look for any potential sources
of inferior vena cava obstruction (bilateral leg oedema), would be prudent, as these are
widely available, non-invasive investigations.
MyPastest 01/06/2021, 2:46 PM
A High-resolution CT chest
The commonest cause of secondary pulmonary hypertension is COPD, but this patient has
normal pulmonary function, so this is less likely. This response is a reasonable suggestion, but
it is not necessarily the first-line investigation to be carried out, given that the patient has
normal pulmonary function tests, making a structural abnormality of the lung parenchyma
less likely.
C Left heart catheterisation
Left heart catheterisation is unlikely to give us any further diagnostic evidence. Causes of
secondary pulmonary hypertension include structural problems with the heart, such as mitral
valve disease and left-to-right shunt, but again, this is less likely as the transthoracic
echocardiogram does not demonstrate any of this. We already know from the patient’s
transthoracic echocardiogram that his left heart has normal size and function, so there is
nothing more to be gained from this invasive investigation.
D Right heart catheterisation
The invasive investigation of right heart catheterisation is going to add little more diagnostic
utility. We already know that the patient has pulmonary hypertension from his transthoracic
echocardiogram, and a right heart catherisation is only going to give more detail regarding
pressures. It will not give us more information regarding the aetiology of the patient’s
pulmonary hypertension, which at this stage, we want to ascertain so that any underlying
cause can be treated.
E Sleep study
This is a reasonable option, because we know that the patient is obese (BMI 32) and
obstructive sleep apnoea is a common cause of secondary pulmonary hypertension. However,
given his history of leg oedema and left leg varicosity and the relative availability of lower
limb ultrasound scanning, it would be more prudent to rule out chronic venous
thromboembolism first before moving on to sleep studies.
32380
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MyPastest 01/06/2021, 2:47 PM
A 17-year-old man presents to the Respiratory Clinic for review. He has suffered recurrent
otitis media, gastrointestinal infections and, most recently, four episodes of pneumonia over
the past year. He tells you that he has always been sickly as a child and, as such, is below the
25 th centile with respect to height.
On examination, his blood pressure is 115/82 mmHg; pulse is 80 bpm and regular. You cannot
hear his heart sounds on auscultation and there are crackles at the left base consistent with
consolidation on listening to his chest.
Investigations:
Platelets (PLT) 203 × 10 9/l 150–400 × 10 9/l
Right axis deviation,

Electrocardiogram (ECG) positive QRS in aVR,
poor R wave progression
Chest X-ray Evidence of left basal consolidation
B Idiopathic nasal polyposis
C IgA deficiency
D IgG deficiency
MyPastest 01/06/2021, 2:47 PM
E Primary ciliary dyskinesia
Explanation 
E Primary ciliary dyskinesia
Classically, patients present with respiratory tract infections including pneumonia, upper
respiratory tract infections, otitis and sinusitis. Situs inversus is the reversal of the internal
organs which is in keeping with the quiet heart sounds and ECG appearances making the
diagnosis of primary ciliary dyskinesia a strong possibility.
Patients with allergic bronchopulmonary aspergillosis usually present with uncontrollable

asthma despite treatment. A chest X-ray in these patients would typically show changes in
keeping with bronchiectasis, such as ‘tram lines’ and ‘gloved finger shadows’.
B Idiopathic nasal polyposis
The recurrent infections and chest X-ray findings are not consistent with nasal polyposis.
Patients with nasal polyposis may complain of nasal fullness or stuffiness along with difficultly
sleeping due to nasal obstruction.
C IgA deficiency
IgA deficiency is usually associated with increased risk of gastrointestinal infections and
immunoglobulin deficiencies are not consistent with dextrocardia per se.
D IgG deficiency
Isolated IgG deficiency rarely causes such recurrent infections and immunoglobulin
deficiency is not consistent with dextrocardia. Patients with combined IgA and IgG deficiency
are at much greater risk of recurrent infections.
39348
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MyPastest 01/06/2021, 2:48 PM
A 70-year-old man with type 2 diabetes was admitted from a care home with a cough, fever
and chest pain. He has been managed with IV co-amoxiclav for four days but is not
improving. Other medication of note includes ramipril, atorvastatin, aspirin and mixed insulin
BD.
On examination he is pyrexial at 38.5 oC, with BP 100/60 mmHg and pulse 95/min.
Auscultation of the chest reveals coarse crackles at the right base consistent with continuing
pneumonia.
Investigations:
Platelets 231 × 10 9/l 150–400 × 10 9/l
MRSA sensitive to fusidic acid,

gentamycin,
Sputum culture
vancomycin and rifampicin,
resistant to co-amoxiclav
Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment?
A Continue co-amoxiclav
B Add oral fusidic acid
C Switch to oral rifampicin
D Switch to IV vancomycin
MyPastest 01/06/2021, 2:48 PM
E Add IV gentamicin
Explanation 
D Switch to IV vancomycin
This man has nosocomial pneumonia, most likely acquired from his care home. The usual dose
for vancomycin is 1 g BD 12-hourly, or 15 mg/kg. Vancomycin is effective as a single agent. It is
only effective IV for this indication, due to poor absorption from the GI tract. It is implicated
in nephrotoxicity and this patient already has a degree of renal impairment. Along with
commencing vancomycin and careful monitoring during its use, other changes should be
made to his medications and measures to prevent further decline in his renal function should
be taken.
A Continue co-amoxiclav
The patient has failed to improve on this agent and the sputum culture has proven resistance
to it. Persisting with this would be detrimental to the patient and increase the risk of
antibiotic resistance.
B Add oral fusidic acid
Widespread use of topical fusidic acid has encouraged the development of S. aureus
resistance and therefore the use of fusidic acid alone as an anti-staphylococcal agent is not
recommended.
C Switch to oral rifampicin
Oral rifampicin is an option for MRSA, but it is associated with rapid development of
resistance when used as a single agent.
E Add IV gentamicin
Although the sputum culture has shown that the MRSA in this case is sensitive to gentamicin,
this patient already has a degree of kidney disease and therefore gentamicin is
contraindicated. There would also be no sense in continuing the co-amoxiclav.
23313
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MyPastest 01/06/2021, 2:48 PM
MyPastest 01/06/2021, 2:49 PM
An 18-year-old male is brought to the Emergency Department by his parents who are
concerned about the cough and fever that he has developed. The onset of the cough was
about 5 days ago and over this time it has progressively worsened. The patient is also
producing purulent sputum and complains of feeling short of breath. He has no past medical
history and is not on any medication. On examination, he has a fever of 39°C and is visibly
tachypnea. Examination of the chest shows reduced expansion on the right side associated
with a reduced percussion note and bronchial breathing on auscultation. In addition to
bloods, a CXR is taken which demonstrates a lobar consolidation.
What is the most likely cause of this patients symptoms?
A Staphylococcal pneumonia
C Legionella pneumonia
D Haemophilus influenzae pneumonia
E Pneumococcal pneumonia
Explanation 
E Pneumococcal pneumonia
Despite appropriate antimicrobial therapy, pneumococcal pneumonia remains a cause of

significant mortality owing to the ability of the organism to replicate in host tissues.
Young children and elderly adults are particularly prone to infections with Streptococcus
pneumoniae. This organism is also the commonest cause of community-acquired pneumonia.
Clinical symptoms of this condition include fever and rigors, malaise, anorexia, cough,
shortness of breath, production of purulent sputum and pleuritic chest pain. Clinical signs
include tachycardia, hypoxia, fever, tachypnoea and signs of pulmonary consolidation
(diminished expansion, dullness to percussion, bronchial breathing and increased tactile
fremitus).
CXR classically shows lobar consolidation.
MyPastest 01/06/2021, 2:49 PM
A Staphylococcal pneumonia
The CXR in staphylococcal pneumonia typically shows a bilateral cavitating

bronchopneumonia. Primary staphylococcal pneumonia is more commonly seen in children
and young patients, with secondary disease being seen most commonly secondary to
influenza infection.
This is the most common opportunistic infection seen in patients with HIV infection.
C Legionella pneumonia
This is associated with a prodromal period of myalgia and headache, initially dry cough,
confusion and patchy lower lobe consolidation on CXR. Pleural effusion is seen in as many as
30% of cases. It is associated with poorly maintained air conditioning systems, e.g. hotels,
offices, etc.
D Haemophilus influenzae pneumonia
Haemophilus influenzae infections are rare in patients over the age of 6 years, unless
immunocompromised. The most common presentation is with meningitis.
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MyPastest 01/06/2021, 2:50 PM
A 50-year-old housewife is being followed up in the chest clinic for her asthma. Over the past
2 years she has had intermittent low-grade fevers, weight loss, cough and shortness of
breath. On examination she has end-expiratory wheeze with occasional crackles that do not
resolve on coughing. She does not have any clubbing. She is a non-smoker. Her past medical
history includes asthma and atrial fibrillation. Her drug history includes salbutamol inhaler,
high-dose steroid inhaler and amiodarone. Her chest X-ray shows peripheral infiltrates on the
outer two-thirds of the peripheries. Her sputum microbiology is negative but she has a raised
number of eosinophils. Her blood tests show a raised serum eosinophil count, IgG and ESR.
A Amiodarone-induced fibrosis
B Chronic eosinophilic pneumonia (CEP)
C Allergic bronchopulmonary aspergillosis (ABPA)
D Treatment-resistant asthma
E Acute eosinophilic pneumonia (AEP)
Explanation 
B Chronic eosinophilic pneumonia (CEP)
Eosinophilic pneumonia is a rare respiratory pathology characterised by pulmonary infiltrates

and pulmonary eosinophilia. It can be idiopathic or secondary to parasites, drugs or systemic
diseases such as vasculitis. The peripheral eosinophil count is not always raised. The serum
IgG is raised in two-thirds and the ESR is elevated. Sputum and bronchoalveolar lavage often
show an eosinophilia.
This presents over months to years. CEP usually occurs in those aged in their 50s, with a
female:male ratio of 2:1. It can be irreversible. About 60% of patients with CEP have asthma
and 90% are non-smokers. Patients present with constitutional symptoms, cough, wheeze
and fever. Chest X-ray in CEP shows dense, bilateral peripheral infiltrates often ‘opposite to
pulmonary oedema’ with a distribution in the outer two-thirds of the lung. Treatment is with
steroids.
MyPastest 01/06/2021, 2:50 PM
A Amiodarone-induced fibrosis
In this condition, changes are usually seen in the bases. The treatment is to stop the drug, and
steroids may help.
C Allergic bronchopulmonary aspergillosis (ABPA)
There would be an elevated total serum IgE rather than IgG and IgG precipitins to Aspergillus
fumigatus.
D Treatment-resistant asthma
Asthma does not present with intermittent low-grade fevers, and CXR would be normal
rather than show pulmonary infiltrates.
E Acute eosinophilic pneumonia (AEP)
This presents over a few days. Patients with AEP are acutely unwell with temperature,
tachycardia and tachypnoea. AEP chest X-ray may show bilateral diffuse infiltrates associated
with an effusion.
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MyPastest 01/06/2021, 2:51 PM
A tall, 23-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department for review following sudden-
onset left-sided pleuritic chest pain. On examination, he is 198 cm tall with an arm span of 192
cm, and he is tachycardic at 124 bpm. BP is 128/92 mmHg. There is evidence of reduced air
entry on the left-hand side and a ‘click’ on auscultation. His past medical history includes
recurrent shoulder dislocations; he is on no medications.
A Pneumothorax
B Pulmonary embolus
C Pneumonia
D Costochondritis
E Viral pleurisy
Explanation 
A Pneumothorax
This patient is tall and thin, with a history of joint dislocation. The suspicion is that he may
have Marfan’s disease and his symptoms are suggestive of pneumothorax. Management is
determined by appearance on chest X-ray and response to air aspiration. Where patients
have failed air aspiration, chest drain insertion is the next therapy of choice.
B Pulmonary embolus
The history does not feature classical risk factors for pulmonary embolus, such as
immobility/evidence of DVT. The examination finding of reduced air entry also makes this
diagnosis less likely than pneumothorax.
C Pneumonia
MyPastest 01/06/2021, 2:51 PM
We are not given any history of cough/sputum production or fever. Pneumonia would also be
less likely to present with acute chest pain than pneumothorax, and fits less well as an
explanation than pneumothorax, given the presumed history of Marfan’s and systolic click
heard on examination (Hamman’s sign).
D Costochondritis
There is no mention of tenderness to palpation, and this diagnosis would not explain the
auscultation findings. Costochondritis would be expected to produce localised pain and
tenderness.
E Viral pleurisy
There is no mention of a viral prodrome. The auscultation findings and presumed history of
Marfan’s make pneumothorax the most likely diagnosis here.
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MyPastest 01/06/2021, 2:52 PM
A 45-year-old patient presents to his GP with dyspnoea and cough over the past week. He
has also noticed recurrent nose bleeds and crusting around his nose over the past month. He
is a non-smoker, has no past medical history and is not on any medications.
Spirometry is performed and reveals the following:
Forced expiratory volume in 1 second (FEV 1) 80% predicted
Forced vital capacity (FVC) 65% predicted
Total lung capacity (TLC) 70% predicted
Lung CO transfer factor (T LCO) 120% predicted factor
CO transfer coefficient (K CO) 120% predicted coefficient
Urine dip: protein ++, blood +

Blood tests reveal the following:
Platelets (PLT) 540 × 10 9/l 150–400 × 10 9/l
Estimated glomerular filtration rate (eGFR) 41
Which is the most likely diagnosis?
A Pulmonary haemorrhage
B Pneumonectomy
C Left-to-right shunt
MyPastest 01/06/2021, 2:52 PM
D Sarcoidosis
E Neuromuscular defect
Explanation 
A Pulmonary haemorrhage
The spirometry shows a restrictive picture (FEV 1/FVC >80%). This suggests that there is a
restrictive cause of the shortness of breath, such as haemorrhage, sarcoidosis,
pneumonectomy or reduced work of the respiratory muscles due to a neuromuscular defect.
Pulmonary haemorrhage would be a cause of increased K CO and hence is the most likely
diagnosis when taken with the history of nose bleeds, making a vasculitis such as
Granulomatosis with polyangitis (GPA) the likely underlying diagnosis. GPA is also associated
with collapse of the nasal bridge, leading to a ‘saddle nose’ deformity.
B Pneumonectomy
This would be expected to result in a reduced transfer factor due to loss of significant volume
of alveolar membrane, with normal transfer coefficient assuming the residual lung is normal.
C Left-to-right shunt
While this would cause an increased transfer factor, it does not explain the nose bleeds as
adequately as a diagnosis of underlying vasculitis. We are also not given any history of
murmurs such as ASD, VSD or PDA on examination, nor features of underlying pulmonary
hypertension.
D Sarcoidosis
While this would result in a restrictive pattern of PFTs, we are not given any history of other
symptoms such as erythema nodosum, and this does not explain the increased K CO as
adequately as pulmonary haemorrhage.
E Neuromuscular defect
While this would result in a restrictive pattern of PFTs, we are not given any other features to
suggest a neurological aetiology such as motor or sensory deficit. It also fails to adequately
explain the patient’s epistaxis.
7161
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MyPastest 01/06/2021, 2:56 PM
A 56-year-old man presented to his GP with a 4-week history of feeling generally unwell. He
described nasal congestion, with pain under his left eye, flu-like symptoms and lethargy. His
GP made a diagnosis of sinusitis and gave him a course of antibiotics. He did not improve and
developed breathlessness, cough and chest pain. He had previously been fit and his only past
medical history was of an inguinal hernia repair 10 years previously. He worked in a shop. He
smoked 10 cigarettes a day and drank about 10 units of alcohol a week. He was taking no
regular medication.
On examination, he looked unwell and pale. Observations: respiratory rate 34/min, BP 140/85
Urinalysis:
Protein ++
Blood ++
Nitrites -
Leucocytes -
Bilirubin -
Investigations reveal;
Platelets (PLT) 510 × 10 9/l 150 - 400 × 10 9/l
MyPastest 01/06/2021, 2:56 PM
Spirometry:
FEV1 72% predicted
FVC 77% predicted
KCO 122% predicted
A Granulomatosis with polyangiitis (GPA)
B Microscopic polyangiitis
C Goodpasture’s syndrome/anti-GBM disease
D Pulmonary oedema
E Legionella pneumophila
MyPastest 01/06/2021, 2:56 PM
Explanation 
A Granulomatosis with polyangiitis (GPA)

narrow the diagnosis down to a vasculitis, Goodpasture syndrome and SLE.
This patient has Granulomatosis with polyangiitis (GPA). The clinical diagnosis is made by the
triad of upper respiratory tract (nasal polyps and sinusitis), lower respiratory tract and renal
The diagnosis of GPA is suggested by a positive c-ANCA with the presence of an antibody to
proteinase-3. The chest radiograph usually shows single or multiple nodules, fixed infiltrates
or cavities. Pleural effusions and pulmonary infiltrates may also been seen. Diagnosis is
usually confirmed with a biopsy. If untreated the median survival is just five months.
Treatment is with intravenous cyclophosphamide and prednisolone, which reduces mortality
to approximately 10%. Plasmapheresis would be first-line treatment if the disease was
primarily renal.
Systemic diseases:
Others:
Uraemic pneumonitis
glomerulonephritis
cystic fibrosis.
B Microscopic polyangiitis
MyPastest 01/06/2021, 2:56 PM
Microscopic polyangiitis is characterised by a very similar small-vessel vasculitis, but without

granuloma formation and involvement of the upper respiratory tract.
C Goodpasture’s syndrome/anti-GBM disease
Goodpasture syndrome can present with haemoptysis, although it is not associated with
midline sinusitis. It’s important to differentiate from microscopic polyangiitis with granuloma
formation, because only anti-GBM disease responds to plasma exchange.
D Pulmonary oedema
Pulmonary oedema is the least likely diagnosis, as the JVP is not elevated and the KCO would
be reduced.
E Legionella pneumophila
Legionella pneumonia is unlikely as he is afebrile and there is no evidence of foreign travel or

exposure. In addition, this does not have a predilection for the upper respiratory tract.
70088
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MyPastest 01/06/2021, 2:57 PM
A young paint-sprayer who works in a car shop complains of shortness of breath and
tiredness over last 2 months. He was prescribed inhalers by GP, but eventually needed a
course of steroids for resolution of symptoms. It was found that after a 2-week holiday to
Marbella his symptoms had resolved. He then saw GP on return as his symptoms had once
again worsened. On examination his BP was 122/72 mmHg, pulse was 75/min and regular and
there was scattered wheeze on auscultation of the chest. A peak flow diary revealed a
significant reduction, which progressed during the working week and then improved over the
weekend.
Which of the following would be the most appropriate intervention?
A Change of career
B Oral Monteleukast during the working week
C Regular inhaled beclomethasone
D Regular inhaled salmeterol/fluticasone
E Review of the work environment to ensure exposure to paint fumes is minimised
Explanation 
E Review of the work environment to ensure exposure to paint fumes is minimised
The most likely cause of this man’s symptoms is occupational asthma. A number of
substances such as paint spray (isocyanates) and soldering kit (colophony fumes) used on
cars are possible causes of the illness. In the first instance his working environment should be
examined to ensure that exposure to fumes is minimised, both for his own health and for
others in the same work environment. If changes do not improve his symptoms then he
should be offered alternative work, as a commitment to regular asthma therapy is suboptimal
in this situation.
A Change of career
MyPastest 01/06/2021, 2:57 PM
A change of career is only appropriate if despite minimising exposure to paint fumes,

symptoms persist. A career change is preferable versus starting regular asthma therapy.
B Oral Monteleukast during the working week
Oral Monteleukast is a treatment option for patients who fail to respond to high-dose inhaled
corticosteroids or to the combination of inhaled corticosteroids and a long-acting beta
agonist. It should not be used in lieu of a review of the working environment.
C Regular inhaled beclomethasone
Regular inhaled beclomethasone is the initial intervention for patients with asthma not related
to precipitating factors in the work environment and who do not respond to PRN salbutamol.
D Regular inhaled salmeterol/fluticasone
Combination inhaled corticosteroid and long-acting beta agonist preparations are used for
patients who fail to respond to inhaled corticosteroids alone.
32433
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MyPastest 01/06/2021, 2:58 PM
unremarkable. His weight and height were 120 kg and 175 cm, respectively.
Investigations:
Weight 120 kg
Height 175 cm
Platelets (PLT) 94 × 10 9/l 150 - 400 × 10 9/l
What underlying cause should be suspected in this patient?
A Acromegaly
B Alcohol excess
C Hypothyroidism
D Cushing’s disease
E Enlarged tonsils
Explanation 
B Alcohol excess
MyPastest 01/06/2021, 2:58 PM
This patient has obstructive sleep apnoea (OSA), the symptoms of which include insomnia,
daytime somnolence, morning headache and obesity. Other symptoms include poor
concentration during the day and partners may describe snoring followed by apnoeic
episodes.
Diagnosis is made using the Epworth score which is a measure of daytime somnolence and
sleep studies, which would show apnoeic/hypopnoeic episodes associated with
desaturations, an increase in heart rate and arousal from sleep. Treatment will depend on
severity of symptoms and desaturations. In most cases, weight loss is advisable.
In mild OSA syndrome, a mandibular advancement device may control symptoms in mild to
severe OSA syndrome nocturnal non-invasive ventilation (NIV) using continuous positive
airway pressure (CPAP). Early morning headaches can be caused by a transient hypercapnia.
This normal corrects to normal when the patient is awake. If a patient has hypercapnia in
waking hours (and not just on an early morning blood gas) then overlap syndrome with
obesity hypoventilation syndrome should be considered, although severe OSA may cause
persistent hypercapnia in some case. Patients with persistent hypercapnia should be
considered for bilevel positive airway pressure (eg BiPAP).
It is important to exclude underlying causes. This patient has a history of gout which,
together with the raised MCV and low platelets, suggests alcohol consumption, which can
precipitate the problem. Hypothyroidism, acromegaly and sedating drugs also need to be
excluded. Retrognathia can cause OSA and large tonsils may obstruct the airway.
A Acromegaly
Acromegaly is associated with OSA but there are no features in the history to suggest this
over the more likely diagnosis of alcohol excess.
C Hypothyroidism
The patient’s TSH is not raised, making this an unlikely diagnosis.
D Cushing’s disease
Cushing’s disease may be associated with OSA, but there are no features in the history or
blood tests to suggest this as the more likely diagnosis versus alcohol excess.
E Enlarged tonsils
Enlarged tonsils may be associated with OSA, but the history and blood tests are more
strongly suggestive of alcohol excess.
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MyPastest 01/06/2021, 3:00 PM
A 35-year-old African female presents with a 6-months history of night sweats, shortness of
breath on exertion and dry cough. She also gives a history of weight loss and arthralgia over
the same period of time. She had been intermittently unwell for 1 year before the
development of these symptoms. She recalls a painful rash on her shins 3 months ago, which
resolved spontaneously. She gives no history of eye problems, polyuria or polydipsia. She
denies chest pain or tightness. She denies any past medical problems and is not on any
medications. On examination she appears well at rest. There is no joint swelling or redness.
Cardiovascular, respiratory and abdominal examinations are normal. A high resolution CT of
the thorax has revealed bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy with evidence of early fibrosis.
Which investigation is most likely to help confirm the diagnosis?
A Serum angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) concentration
B Pulmonary function tests
C Quantiferon gamma
E Transbronchial lung biopsy
Explanation 
E Transbronchial lung biopsy
In this patient of African ethnicity with a description of probable erythema nodosum and a
dry cough, the most likely diagnosis is sarcoidosis. Sarcoidosis is a multi-system
granulomatous disorder of unknown aetiology and is characterised pathologically by the
presence of non-caseating granulomas in involved organs. As with the diagnosis of
tuberculosis, a tissue diagnosis is the only completely specific way that a confirmed diagnosis
can be made, as all the other diagnostic tests are non-specific to sarcoidosis.
A Serum angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) concentration
MyPastest 01/06/2021, 3:00 PM
In this patient of African ethinicity with a description of probable erythema nodosum and a
dry cough, the most likely diagnosis is sarcoidosis. Serum angiotensin-converting enzyme
(ACE) activity is elevated in 60% of patients, presumably reflecting macrophage activity. It
can also be elevated in patients with histoplasmosis, acute miliary tuberculosis (TB),
Gaucher’s hepatitis or lymphoma, and is non-specific. Liver disease slows the metabolic
excretion of serum ACE and results in increased ACE activity.
B Pulmonary function tests
dry cough, the most likely diagnosis is sarcoidosis. However, pulmonary function tests are
non-specific in making this diagnosis. Pulmonary function tests show restriction, decreased
compliance and impaired diffusing capacity. However, serial pulmonary function tests are
important for assessing disease progression and guiding treatment.
C Quantiferon gamma
This is an African patient with a dry cough and what sounds like erythema nodosum. Whilst
tuberculosis would be in the differential diagnosis, given that she is having night sweats and
is systemically unwell, a quantiferon gamma would not confirm or refute a diagnosis of active
tuberculosis, as it cannot differentiate between active or latent disease.
dry cough, the most likely diagnosis is sarcoidosis. Bronchoalveolar lavage (BAL) can be used
as an adjunctive measure to support the diagnosis of sarcoidosis. Bronchoalveolar lavage
shows lymphocytosis in most patients with active sarcoidosis, but is rarely indicated because
patients with hypersensitivity pneumonitis show similar lymphocytosis.
32403
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Overview
Management
Prognosis
MyPastest 01/06/2021, 3:02 PM
A 36-year-old woman who has visited her GP four times in the past year for sinusitis, and has
been feeling that she has begun to develop a nose deformity, visits her GP complaining of
shortness of breath. Additionally, she has suffered one episode of haemoptysis. On
examination her facial appearance suggests a saddle-nose deformity.
Urine Blood+, protein+
cANCA +
A chest X-ray (CXR) is shown below:
MyPastest 01/06/2021, 3:02 PM
Given the likely diagnosis, which of the following is the most appropriate
treatment for her?
A Prednisolone
B Cyclosporine
C Pulsed methylprednisolone and cyclophosphamide
D Azathioprine
E Methotrexate
Explanation 
C Pulsed methylprednisolone and cyclophosphamide
This woman has a classical picture of Granulomatosis with polyangiitis (GPA) with sinusitis
initially, now progressing to pulmonary infiltration with haemoptysis and renal involvement as
evidenced by urinary blood and protein signifying glomerulonephritis. The anaemia seen here
and positive c-ANCA serve to further support the diagnosis. Initial preferred therapy for GPA
is with pulsed IV methylprednisolone and cyclophosphamide, although azathioprine or
methotrexate may both be used for maintenance therapy or when there is not significant
pulmonary vasculitis or renal impairment. Prognosis generally depends on early diagnosis and
intervention, so recognising the features seen here is crucial.
A Prednisolone
Prednisolone alone is inadequate with respect to controlling Granulomatosis with polyangiitis

(GPA), where use of a steroid-sparing agent allows the dose of prednisolone to be reduced
and improves outcomes.
B Cyclosporine
Cyclosporine is an alternative to cyclophosphamide where it is not tolerated or is unsuitable.

It is, however, used in combination with steroid therapy.
D Azathioprine
MyPastest 01/06/2021, 3:02 PM
Azathioprine is an option as oral maintenance therapy for Granulomatosis with polyangiitis, or

when there is mild disease.
E Methotrexate
Like azathioprine, methotrexate is an oral option for maintenance therapy in stable

Granulomatosis with polyangiitis.
20543
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MyPastest 01/06/2021, 3:02 PM
Overview
Management
Prognosis
MyPastest 01/06/2021, 3:03 PM
An 18-year-old male patient with cystic fibrosis is admitted to hospital with an infective
exacerbation of his condition. His latest sputum grew Burkholderia cepacia. His sister also has
cystic fibrosis and has problems with abdominal pains. He has previously been relatively well,
plays for a local football team and is in the first year of a law course at university. He has
maintained his weight so far.
Which of the following would you most expect to find?
A Severe restrictive pattern on spirometry
B Exocrine pancreatic insufficiency
C Diabetes mellitus
D Low thiamine and vitamin B 12
E Symptoms of chronic constipation
Explanation 
B Exocrine pancreatic insufficiency
Exocrine pancreatic insufficiency is a feature of cystic fibrosis and occurs long before
evidence of dysglycaemia and frank diabetes mellitus. Pancreatic exocrine supplements and
fat-soluble vitamins (A, D, E and K) are a key feature of treatment.
A Severe restrictive pattern on spirometry
There is good evidence of maintained respiratory function seen here (continuing to play in a
football team). An obstructive picture is more likely to be seen on spirometry in CF in this
situation.
C Diabetes mellitus
MyPastest 01/06/2021, 3:03 PM
Endocrine pancreatic dysfunction leading to diabetes mellitus occurs later in the disease and
is associated with weight loss and symptoms of dysglycaemia.
D Low thiamine and vitamin B 12
Small bowel malabsorption leading to low thiamine and B 12 is unlikely, given pancreatic
enzyme supplementation.
E Symptoms of chronic constipation
Although patients with cystic fibrosis may present with symptoms of constipation, the
tendency to constipation in adults is modulated by pancreatic enzyme insufficiency.
71073
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MyPastest 01/06/2021, 3:03 PM
Overview
Management
Prognosis
MyPastest 01/06/2021, 3:05 PM
A 69-year-old gentleman was taken to the Emergency Department with a reduced GCS
score; no history was available from relatives for the patient in A&E. The ambulance crew said
that the call was put out by his wife as he had become increasingly short of breath. When
they arrived he looked breathless and cyanosed. He denied any chest pain at that time.
On examination he had a GCS score of 10 (M5, V2, E3), respiratory rate 10/min, BP 130/70
mmHg, pulse 120/min, temperature 36.9°C, SaO 2 94% on 15 l oxygen. Auscultation of the
chest revealed an expiratory wheeze throughout.
Heart sounds were normal and abdominal examination unremarkable. There was no obvious
focal neurological abnormality and both plantars showed a flexor response.
Investigations:
4.0 - 11.0 ×
White cell count (WCC) 8.2 ×10 9/l
10 9/l
150 - 400 ×
Platelets (PLT) 400 ×10 9/l
10 9/l

84 fl 80 - 100 fl
(MCV)
Echocardiogram (ECG) Sinus tachycardia
Hyperinflated lung fields with low,

Chest X-ray flattened diaphragm; no evidence of a
pneumothorax
In his notes you find a flow-volume curve from 1 year ago shown below.
MyPastest 01/06/2021, 3:05 PM
ABGs on high-flow oxygen on this admission:
pH 7.29
PCO 2 10.91 kPa
PO 2 12.39 kPa
Base excess 10.4
What does the arterial blood gas analysis show?
A Mixed respiratory and metabolic acidosis
B Acute respiratory acidosis
C Metabolic acidosis
D Acute on chronic respiratory acidosis
MyPastest 01/06/2021, 3:05 PM
Explanation 
D Acute on chronic respiratory acidosis
This patient has an acute on chronic respiratory acidosis. The high bicarbonate and base
excess show that there is an underlying chronic respiratory acidosis with renal compensation.
The acidosis and high CO 2 indicate an acute respiratory acidosis. If this was acute without a
chronic element then, for a PCO 2 of 10.91 one would expect the pH to be lower.
The diagnosis of COPD is suggested from the CXR and flow-volume curve, which shows the
classic shape for COPD. In some patients with COPD, respiratory drive depends on their
degree of hypoxia, rather than the usual dependence on hypercapnia. Although it is
important to prevent life-threatening hypoxia, uncontrolled oxygen therapy should be used
with caution. This patient has a suppressed respiratory drive and carbon dioxide narcosis
secondary to high-flow oxygen. He was able to tell the ambulance crew that he had no chest
pain at home; he was then given high-flow oxygen and his GCS dropped. Note on arrival at
the Emergency Department that he scored 2/5 for verbal response and therefore would not
be able to give any information. The immediate management is therefore to reduce the
inspired oxygen concentration and repeat the arterial blood gases. If by doing this the patient
becomes hypoxic or remains acidotic, they should then be referred for non-invasive
ventilation.
A Mixed respiratory and metabolic acidosis
The ABG would be expected to show low bicarbonate and base excess if a metabolic
component to the acidosis were present.
B Acute respiratory acidosis
In acute respiratory acidosis, one would expect the bicarbonate and base excess to be lower.
The raised bicarbonate implies a chronicity to the respiratory acidosis with renal
compensation.
C Metabolic acidosis
The raised CO 2 implies a respiratory component to the acidosis. In a metabolic acidosis, the
bicarbonate and base excess would be expected to be low.
The ABG demonstrates a low pH and raised CO 2, neither of which is in keeping with
metabolic alkalosis. The bicarbonate and base excess are raised, likely representing renal
compensation to a chronic respiratory acidosis.
70128
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Overview
Management
Prognosis
MyPastest 01/06/2021, 3:05 PM
MyPastest 01/06/2021, 3:07 PM
A 54-year-old farmer’s wife with a history of rheumatoid arthritis presents to the clinic with
increasing shortness of breath, cough and intermittent pleuritic chest pain. Previous agents
have included corticosteroids and hydroxychloroquine, and she has commenced
methotrexate, with appropriate folic acid replacement 2 years ago. On examination her BP is
135/85, with pulse 73 and regular. She has scattered crackles throughout both lung fields on
auscultation, and there is no pitting oedema of the ankles. Lung function tests reveal a
restrictive lung defect and chest X-ray reveals pulmonary infiltrates. Lung function tests were
normal some 4 years ago.
What diagnosis fits best with this clinical picture?
A Extrinsic allergic alveolitis
B Methotrexate-related lung toxicity
C Hydroxychloroquine-related lung toxicity
D Obliterative bronchiolitis
Explanation 
B Methotrexate-related lung toxicity
In this case the time course of lung disease (commencement of methotrexate 2 years ago,
against a background of normal lung function 4 years ago) helps to point to methotrexate-
related lung toxicity as the most likely cause of her symptoms. A spectrum of disease may
occur with methotrexate toxicity, from interstitial pneumonitis to cough, pleuritic chest pain
and shortness of breath related to subacute lung infiltration, associated with bilateral pleural
effusions. Histology may demonstrate alveolitis, pneumonitis, epithelial cell hyperplasia,
eosinophil infiltration and granuloma formation, and is more useful than when investigating
other drug toxicities. Treatment is methotrexate withdrawal - in this case substitution with an
anti-TNF or anti-CD20 antibody would be the next most logical step.
MyPastest 01/06/2021, 3:07 PM
A Extrinsic allergic alveolitis
Extrinsic allergic alveolitis typically presents with fever, fatigue, shortness of breath and
cough. The symptoms are usually seen in the context of a trigger and resolve after removal of
the trigger before reoccurring on re-exposure.
C Hydroxychloroquine-related lung toxicity
Hydroxychloroquine toxicity primarily involves the eye, leading to retinal damage which may
be permanent, and to deposition of the drug within the cornea.
D Obliterative bronchiolitis
Obliterative bronchiolitis is characterised by fixed airways obstruction, rather than the

restrictive lung defect seen here.
The fact that lung function was normal 4 years ago anchors the defect seen here to the
initiation of methotrexate, making this far more likely to be the cause of the restrictive lung
defect seen.
32440
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Session Progress
MyPastest 01/06/2021, 3:08 PM
A 41-year-old woman is admitted with a rash and shortness of breath.
On examination, she is tachycardic at 118 bpm and her oxygen saturations are 92% on air,
while a painful purpuric rash is noted across both legs. She is visibly dyspnoeic and is
complaining of coughing up blood.
She has no past medical history of note and takes no regular medication. She has three
children and is not planning to have any more.
Investigations:
Creatinine (Cr) 251 µmol/l (50–120 µmol/l)
MPO antibodies Negative
PR3 antibodies Positive
First sputum sample Negative
MyPastest 01/06/2021, 3:08 PM
The patient is started on prednisolone.
What is the most appropriate addition to the management of this patient?
A Azathioprine orally
B Pulsed intravenous (IV) cyclophosphamide
C Methotrexate orally
D No addition required
E IV rituximab
Explanation 
MyPastest 01/06/2021, 3:08 PM
B Pulsed intravenous (IV) cyclophosphamide
With a purpuric sounding rash, joint pain, evidence of possible pulmonary haemorrhage and
positive PR3 antibodies, the diagnosis here is likely to be granulomatosis with polyangiitis.
This is severe and here presents with end-organ damage to the lungs and kidneys. Therefore,
cyclophosphamide is required to achieve remission. This is given IV and pulsed because of its
potential for renal toxicity.
A Azathioprine orally
This patient has evidence of ANCA-positive vasculitis – specifically, granulomatosis with

polyangiitis. These patients need to be started on pulsed cyclophosphamide to help achieve
remission. After remission, cyclophosphamide may be replaced by azathioprine or
methotrexate.
C Methotrexate orally
In patients with a diagnosis of granulomatosis with polyangiitis, without symptoms or

evidence of organ damage, immunosuppression may not be required and methotrexate may
be offered instead. However, there is clear evidence of end-organ damage in this case. If
methotrexate was being considered as a treatment, female patients must be counselled
regarding family planning, due to its teratogenicity.
D No addition required
In granulomatosis with polyangiitis, oral steroids alone are insufficient, and guidelines suggest
they must be accompanied by pulsed IV cyclophosphamide.
E IV rituximab
In granulomatosis with polyangiitis, rituximab may be offered in place of cyclophosphamide if

it is not tolerated, if the patient’s family is incomplete, if there is a history of uroepithelial
malignancy or if the patient has already reached their maximum cumulative
cyclophosphamide dose.
71777
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 External Links
Guidance: Rituximab
nice.org.uk/guidance/TA308/chapter/1-guidance
(https://www.nice.org.uk/guidance/TA308/chapter/1-guidance)
Overview
Management
Prognosis
MyPastest 01/06/2021, 3:08 PM
MyPastest 01/06/2021, 3:10 PM
A 28-year-old man who is currently prescribed highly active anti-retroviral therapy (HAART)
comes to the clinic for review. He is extremely worried as he has been working in a homeless
shelter with a man who has recently been identified as having active pulmonary tuberculosis.
He is currently feeling well.
On examination, his BP is 122/72 mmHg, pulse is 80/min and regular and he is apyrexial. His
chest is clear. His BMI is 25 and has been stable over the past six months at least. His CD4
count is 420, and an interferon gamma screen for TB is positive.
A Quadruple anti-tuberculous therapy with rifampicin, pyrazinamide, ethambutol and

isoniazid for six months
B Dual anti-tuberculous therapy with rifampicin and pyrazinamide for two months
C Dual anti-tuberculous therapy with rifampicin and isoniazid for three months
D Monotherapy with isoniazid for six to nine months
E Monotherapy with isoniazid for one year
Explanation 
D Monotherapy with isoniazid for six to nine months
Monotherapy with isoniazid for six months can be associated with poor compliance but is the
regime of choice as per the WHO guidelines on treatment of latent TB in patients with HIV on
HAART. This man will hopefully engage with treatment as he seems to have a stable lifestyle.
This will give his the best chance of both treating the latent TB and avoiding dangerous drug
interactions if a rifampicin containing regime was used.
A Quadruple anti-tuberculous therapy with rifampicin, pyrazinamide, ethambutol and

isoniazid for six months
Quadruple anti-tuberculous therapy is the intervention for patients suffering from active TB.
MyPastest 01/06/2021, 3:10 PM
B Dual anti-tuberculous therapy with rifampicin and pyrazinamide for two months
In an attempt to improve adherence, a 2-month rifampicin and pyrazinamide regime was

considered but this is not widely used because of reported cases of hepatotoxicity.
C Dual anti-tuberculous therapy with rifampicin and isoniazid for three months
This patient fits the criteria for a diagnosis of latent TB and, in this situation, against a
background of HIV, anti-tuberculous chemotherapy is considered. A commonly used option is
rifampicin and isoniazid for a 3-month period, but this has high incidence of harmful drug
interactions with HAART and this patient likely does not have a chaotic lifestyle as he works,
so would hopefully engage with monotherapy treatment.
E Monotherapy with isoniazid for one year
One year of monotherapy with isoniazid is not a commonly recognised regime. The 2015
WHO guidelines on treatment of latent TB discuss monotherapy for up to 36 months in high
incidence areas, in lower incidence areas the usual course is six to nine months.
71624
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MyPastest 01/06/2021, 3:10 PM
Session Progress
 External Links
BHIVA guidelines for the treatment of TB/HIV coinfection 2011

bhiva.org/TB-HIV-coinfection-guidelines.aspx
(http://www.bhiva.org/TB-HIV-coinfection-guidelines.aspx)
Overview
Management
Prognosis
MyPastest 01/06/2021, 3:11 PM
As the medical registrar, you are asked on the phone by your FY1 to review a 26-year-old
male patient who she has just examined. The patient has presented with progressively
worsening dyspnoea and chest discomfort over the previous 24 h. He had been given a
salbutamol inhaler by his general practitioner (GP) some three months earlier for exercise-
induced wheeze and shortness of breath.
On examination, he is tachycardic at 120 bpm and tachypnoeic at 30 bpm, with bilateral
wheeze on auscultation. On examination of the supraclavicular areas and neck, there is
palpable cutaneous emphysema.
B Asthma
C Gas gangrene
E Lung malignancy
Explanation 
B Asthma
Surgical emphysema, also known as subcutaneous emphysema, is a pathological

accumulation of air or gas in the subcutaneous tissues of the body. It is a rare condition, but it
can occur from air tracking from the lungs (pneumothorax, COPD, asthma), from trauma –
particularly barotrauma (pneumo-mediastinum, mechanical ventilation) or, rarely, a rupture of
the oesophagus. However, it can also occur from the production of gas within a tissue by an
infection such as in gas gangrene. It causes a crackling sensation felt on palpation of the skin
of the neck and chest but it may also cause a diffuse swelling of the chest wall and neck.
MyPastest 01/06/2021, 3:11 PM
This is most commonly associated with procedures such as bronchoscopy, with spontaneous
rupture occurring most often in association with vomiting. There may be dysphagia,
tachycardia, dyspnoea and fever.
C Gas gangrene
While this can cause cutaneous emphysema, patients are usually significantly unwell, with
evidence of sepsis or septic shock and visible necrotic tissue on examination.
This is not commonly associated with cutaneous emphysema, and we are not given any
classical risk factors for DVT/PE.
E Lung malignancy
While lung malignancy can lead to cutaneous emphysema, it is a relatively rare complication;
the patient’s young age and absence of risk factors for lung malignancy also make this a less
likely option.
6805
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Overview
Management
Prognosis
MyPastest 01/06/2021, 3:12 PM
You are asked to review a 71-year-old man on the Respiratory Ward where he was admitted
with a lower respiratory tract infection some five days earlier. Sodium levels and osmolalities
on admission were consistent with syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH).
The nurses are concerned that, despite fluid restriction over the past 72 hours, his sodium
level is still low at 125 mmol/l and he is drowsy and confused. Examination reveals a blood
pressure of 143/85 mmHg and a pulse of 80 bpm and regular. He has chest signs consistent
with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). The abdomen is soft and non-tender,
and there are no signs of fluid overload. He is drowsy and believes he is being held against his
will in a prison hospital.
Investigations:
Platelets (PLT) 181 × 10 9/l 150–400 × 10 9/l
C-reactive protein (CRP) 85 mg/l (down from 190 on admission) < 5 mg/l
A Continued fluid restriction only
B Demeclocycline
C Furosemide
D Intravenous (IV) 0.9% saline
E IV 1.8% saline
MyPastest 01/06/2021, 3:12 PM
Explanation 
B Demeclocycline
Given that this man’s fluid restriction will have been well observed by nursing staff and, if
anything, his fluid consumption is likely to have been reduced further by his drowsiness and
confusion, continuing it is unlikely to drive rapid enough recovery of his serum sodium levels.
Demeclocycline is the preferred option because it leads to partial nephrogenic diabetes
insipidus and therefore drives the correction of serum sodium levels more rapidly than fluid
restriction alone.
A Continued fluid restriction only
Given this patient has already had a number of days of fluid restriction and his sodium level is
still low at 125 mmol/l, further action is required, with demeclocycline as the preferred
intervention here.
C Furosemide
Furosemide may be of value but only really drives improvement if urine osmolality is over
twice plasma osmolality. It may also drive excess volume depletion and is therefore not the
preferred option here.
D Intravenous (IV) 0.9% saline
Normal saline (0.9%) may actually worsen hyponatraemia when urine osmolality exceeds
plasma osmolality and so should be avoided here.
E IV 1.8% saline
IV saline solutions of 1.8% and 3% should only be considered in the event of life-threatening
hyponatraemia (for instance, when there is significant neurological depression and/or
seizures). Concentrated saline must be given in a High Dependence setting. In severe
hyponatraemia, correction of > 8–10 mmol/day risks central pontine myelinolysis.
38377
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MyPastest 01/06/2021, 3:12 PM
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MyPastest 01/06/2021, 3:13 PM
A 62-year-old man who works in a factory which sorts and recycles metals, comes to the
clinic for review. He has progressive shortness of breath and a dry cough, which has
worsened significantly over the last 6 months. He smokes 5 cigarettes per day. His GP has
trialled a Salbutamol inhaler for him with no improvement. On examination his BP is 132/88
mmHg; pulse is 80/min and regular. He has inspiratory crackles on auscultation, worse in the
mid- and lower zones.
Investigations;
Hb 131 g/l
WCC 9.4 x10 9/l
PLT 201 x10 9/l
Na + 137 mmol/l
K+ 4.5 mmol/l
Glucose 5.4 mmol/l
FEV 1 65% of predicted
FVC 70% of predicted
CXR Interstitial shadowing affecting both lung fields
A Berylliosis
B COPD
C Colophony lung
E Silicosis
MyPastest 01/06/2021, 3:13 PM
Explanation 
A Berylliosis
The answer is Berylliosis -

Berylliosis is a granulomatous lung disorder, which in chronic form leads to restrictive lung
disease. One occupation known to be associated with beryllium exposure is metal recycling.
The beryllium lymphocyte proliferation test (BeLPT) is the laboratory investigation of choice.
High resolution CT reveals ground glass changes consistent with pulmonary fibrosis, and
nodule formation. Lung biopsy reveals granuloma formation indistinguishable from
sarcoidosis. Prevention is key, given the similarities of this disorder to sarcoidosis. Some
response to corticosteroids is often seen.
B COPD
COPD is incorrect, it is associated with an obstructive, rather than the restrictive lung disease
pattern seen here, and his tobacco exposure is relatively modest.
C Colophony lung
Colophony lung is incorrect, it is associated with a primarily asthmatic type picture, and we
are not given information that active soldering is taking place at the metal recycling plant.
Idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis is incorrect, it is unlikely given the history of potential exposure
to heavy metals.
E Silicosis
Silicosis is incorrect, it is associated with occupations where exposure to silica dust is likely,
such as in patients who work as stone masons.
40404
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MyPastest 31/05/2021, 9:47 AM

Investigation Result Normal value

Haemoglobin 121 g/l 135–175 g/l

White cell count (WCC) 5.9 × 10 9/l 4–11 × 10 9/l

Platelets 210 × 10 9/l 150–400 × 10 9/l

Sodium (Na +) 139 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l

Potassium (K +) 4.9 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l

Creatinine 139 µmol/l 50–120 µmol/l

Bicarbonate 30 mmol/l 24–30 mmol/l

P aO 2 10.1 kPa 10.5–13.5 kPa

P aCO 2 6.4 kPa 4.6–6.0 kPa

Which would best improve his exercise tolerance?

Your answer was incorrect

Low-dose inhaled corticosteroids have no impact on disease progression in COPD, although it

His P aO 2 is too high for portable oxygen to be of benefit.

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Pulmonary rehabilitation in chronic obstructive pulmonary disease

Links to NICE guidelines/CKS

A 56-year-old man is referred to the outpatients department with a 2-year history of

PCO 2 4.7 kPa

Lung function tests:

FEV 1 70% predicted

FVC 64% predicted

KCO 53% predicted

TLCO 55% predicted

His CXR is shown below;

Which of the following would help make a diagnosis?

Your answer was incorrect

A Aspergillus fumigatus precipitins

B Avian serum precipitins

B Avian serum precipitins

The diagnosis of extrinsic allergic alveolitis is made by:

Identifying a potential source of antigen

Other causes of EAA include:

Causes of upper-zone fibrosis:

Progressive massive fibrosis/coal worker's pneumoconiosis

A Aspergillus fumigatus precipitins

This is a test for Aspergillus lung disease.

There is nothing to suggest sepsis here.

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FEV 1 (L/min) 1.4 2.0 - 2.8

VC (L) 1.6 2.4 - 3.4

FEV 1/VC 88%

TLCO (ml/min/mmHg) 2.8 3.5 - 7.3

KCO 0.9 1.2 - 1.8

Your answer was incorrect

B Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)

D Idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis (IPF)

E Inherited thrombophilia with multiple pulmonary emboli

B Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)

D Idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis (IPF)

E Inherited thrombophilia with multiple pulmonary emboli

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