Kants Metaethics
Kants Metaethics
Kants Metaethics
PHIL-3409-A
Kant’s Metaethics
world as intuitive knowledge which is independent from experience. In his writing from
explaining his own interpretations about how we ought to live in order to exist in a moral
society. In doing so, Kant willingly subjects himself to a metaethical stance within which
he has no choice but to operate. However, Kant's metaethics, when developed out into
their entirety, may merit some criticism. Kant's ability to convincingly establish a
metaphysical basis for his conceptual morality comes into question when we consider
Nearly every behavior can be credited to a motivation other than morality. This is
because moral principles come from reason, not from experience. Kant himself admits
“How do we learn that the world in general behaves in a lawlike way - that every event
has a cause? This judgment is not based on experience, for we can have no experience
of every possible event; nor is it an analytic judgment, for it is not part of the concept of
an event that it has a cause.” (Kant, 9) Indeed, all experience based knowledge
must have absolute validity born from “Synthetic a priori knowledge.” (Kant, 9) Morality
is not concerned with the laws that govern society as it exists today, but with the natural
laws which govern metaphysical reality. Because empirical knowledge can only be
drawn from a society which is governed under arbitrary law, it cannot by itself provide
The categorical imperative is the essential tool with which Kant builds his
morality. He uses the example of the dishonest money lender, who lies about his means
to pay the borrower back, in order to demonstrate the moral value of the categorical
imperative. “His decision about what to say to you is entirely determined by what he
thinks will work to get the result he wants. In that sense he treats your reason, your
capacity for making decisions, as if it were merely an instrument for his own use. This is
a violation of the respect he owes to you and your humanity.” (Kant, 22) When people
violate the categorical imperative they apply a different standard to their own behavior
than they would want applied to everyone else in the form of a universal law. In Kant's
Kant's metaethical view, if he has one, must be a moral absolutist view. That is,
Kant's moral theory consists entirely of unbreakable universal principles. This differs
from most ethical positions, like in the case of utilitarianism, where there are universal
principles which often, but do not always, stay consistent. The principle that an innocent
man should not be killed for a crime he did not commit is true in the utilitarian view only
up until the greater aggregate benefit of killing the innocent man outweighs the benefit
of letting him live I.e. if there is the risk a riot breaks out save he is convicted. Kant with
his categorical imperative could make no such exception as there exists no possible
morally subjective viewpoint, such that every action can be prescribed the character of
‘goodness’ or ‘evilness’ based on its content alone. As in the case of convicting the
innocent man, the aggregate good of killing one man instead of allowing for the deaths
of many men in a riot is on its own a means to allow the act the property of goodness. In
his essay on the moral problem with absolutist metaethics, E. W. Hurst states “If, then,
conduct is concerned alone with the content of action, and if the character of that
content does not in itself determine the difference between good and evil, that difference
can lie only in the extent to which such content is systematized.” (Hurst, 426)
Kantian ethics are systematized to the extent that good and evil cannot be
prescribed to an action on the basis of its results, but instead on the basis of its
intention. Death is not an inherent evil, but a subjective one, differentiated by the arbiter
of the action. Upon failing an operation, a surgeon becomes no less of a murderer than
a serial killer, but the intentions behind their actions are vastly different and thus morally
uncomparable. As Kant himself states “It is impossible to conceive anything at all in the
world, or even out of it, which can be taken as good without qualification, except a good
will.” (Kant) But goodwill and intentionality are often considered phenomenal concepts,
Rational beings are simultaneously the authors and the subjects of the story they
that we obey the laws which would exist in a "kingdom of ends.” That is, a community in
which all rational beings are at once the makers and subjects of all laws. So it must be
the basis for Kant's moral intentionality that we have freedom. Freedom, in Kant's view,
is the ability to give your own law to your will. When we follow the demands of some
basal instinct or desire we are allowing our will to be determined by something outside
of ourselves. By contrast, when we choose maxims that could be universal laws, we use
reason to determine our own law for ourselves. We are free from our instincts and we
Of course, this theory holds little metaphysical weight. The concept of freedom
perspective, we know all causes have effects which interlink with one another in an
infinite chain of causality. This renders choice, and by extension intentions, an arbitrary
behaviors. If we don't really have freedom to make decisions, the intentions of our
actions do not belong to us, by which logic all wills are essentially equivalent, and
goodwill does not exist in the metaphysical reality. Still, there is no doubt intentionality,
and for that matter goodwill, do exist phenomenally, and for good reason. Our conviction
that we own our intentions is rational, that we’ve adapted to maintain such beliefs
speaks to their value on its own. By virtue of their practical, phenomenal applications,
both goodwill and intentionality have moral value, insofar as they appeal to our natural,
basal instincts.
References:
Hurst, E.W. (1914) Absolutism and the Ethical Problem; International Journal of Ethics,
Kant, Immanuel (1785) Groundwork for the Metaphysics of Morals; Yale University