BASIC COURSE IN

BIOMEDICAL RESEARCH
Cycle 1, 2, 3, 4 & 5 Answers

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Compiled by
Dr Aisha.T
MMCRI
Assignment 1: Introduction to b) They should be very specific
health research
4) Which of the following are examined
as part of regulatory review?
1) Which of the following areas can be a) Information regarding transfer of
included in health research? funds and utilization of funds
i. Improving the health of the b) Shipment of samples and transfer
population. of data outside the country
ii. Predicting progression of a c) Sharing and protection of
disease in a patient intellectual property
iii. Prevention of various diseases d) All of the above
iv. To explore various societal, d)All of the above
community based and
programmatic interventions for 5) Which of the following statements is
disease prevention and control not true in case of pilot study?
a) i and ii a) They are conducted for
b) i, ii and iv developing and testing adequacy
c) All of the above of research instruments
d) None of the above b) They establish whether the
c) All of the above sampling frame and technique are effective
c) Ethics committee approves the
2) What is appropriate for sample and main study only after successful
sample size? completion of the pilot study
a) Should be representative of the d) They are small scale studies
population [External validity or
generalizability]
c)Ethics committee approves the
b) Should be adequate [power to
main study only after successful
draw meaningful inferences]
completion of the pilot study
c) Both 'a' and 'b'
d) Neither 'a' nor 'b'
6) Before initiating a study involving
c)Both 'a' and 'b'
primary data collection, the Principal
Investigator must ensure that various
3) Which of the following statements
approvals are obtained. Which of the
are correct regarding defining
following approvals is absolutely
inclusion and exclusion criteria in a
mandatory?
study protocol?
a) Scientific committee approval
a) They should be vague because
b) Ethics committee approval
this will allow greater and easy
c) Technical committee approval
enrollment
d) Regulatory authority approval
b) They should be very specific
c) They should be very large in
b) Ethics committee approval
number
d) It is not important to define
7) Which is the best source of
exclusion criteria in a clinical
information on 'effect modifiers'
trial
while exploring cause and effect
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relationship in a research study? conduct or analysis of a study that

a) Deductive thinking results in an erroneous
b) Thorough review of literature estimate of an exposure's effect on
c) Intelligent guessing
the risk of disease is called:
d) Discussing with experienced
researchers a) Confounding
b) Bias
b) Thorough review of c) Interaction
literature d) Stratification

8) The policy makers want to know

b) Bias
whether introduction of pentavalent
vaccine in the national program is
resulting in reduction in the number 12) Which of the following is not part of
of Hemophilus influenza cases. ethics review of a project?
Which of the following studies will a) Informed consent
they have to conduct to find an document and
answer?
procedure
a) Case-control study
b) Competence of researcher and
b) Field trial
c) Ecological study institute conducting research
d) Case series c) Sharing and protection of
intellectual property
b) Field trial d) Care and support during
and after completion of
9) What is true about Confounders? research
a) They affect both study variable
as well as outcome
b) Their effect can be minimized by c) Sharing and protection of
proper study design and through intellectual property
stratified analysis
c) Both 'a' and 'b' 13) A study was conducted to assess the
d) None of the above extrapyramidal side effects of a new
antipsychotic drug in patients with
c) Both 'a' and 'b'
schizophrenia. Many of these
10) Which of the following is not a type patients were smokers and some of
of study design? them were on anticholinergic drugs.
a) Qualitative study What was the role of the
b) Observational study anticholinergic drugs in this study?
c) Retrospective study a) Confounder
d) Pilot study b) Random Variable
c) Effect Modifier
d) Pilot study
d) Independent Variable
11) Any systematic error in the design,

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C) Effect Modifier c) It reduces the random error

14) Before initiating a study involving
primary data collection, the Principal 17) Which of the following will best
Investigator must ensure that various describe the scientific inquiry that
approvals are obtained. Which of the seeks to understand the acceptability
following approvals is absolutely and functionality of a health
mandatory? program?
a) Scientific committee approval a) Basic science research
b) Ethics committee approval b) Translational research
c) Technical committee approval c) Clinical research
d) Regulatory authority approval d) Implementation research

b)Ethics committee approval d) Implementation research

15) The policy makers want to know 18) The following statements describe
whether introduction of a new confounding and effect modification.
rotavirus vaccine in the national Which of the statement is/are
immunization programme is resulting correct?
in reduction of morbidity and a) In a study of relationship
mortality from rotavirus disease. between coffee drinking and
Which of the following studies will oro-pharyngeal cancer; smoking
they have to conduct to find an is a confounder
answer? b) In a study to explore relationship
between hepatitis B infection
and post-infection hepatic
a) Case-control study
sequelae, habit of alcohol
b) Ecological study
drinking acts as an effect
c) Field randomized trial
modifier and patients with this
d) Case-series
habit may be excluded from the
study
C) Field randomized trial
c) ‘a’ and ‘b’ Correct
d) ‘a’ and ‘b’ Wrong
16) What effect does increasing the
c) ‘a’ and ‘b’ Correct
sample size have upon the random
19) Issues regarding shipment of
error?
samples and transfer of data outside
a) It increases the random error
the country are examined by:
b) It has no effect on the random
a) Regulatory review
error
b) Ethics review
c) It reduces the random error
d) None of the above c) Scientific review
d) None

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24) Which of the following statements is

a) Regulatory review NOT correct regarding errors in a
health research?
20) Which of the following disciplines a) Random error is due to chance
contribute to health research? b) Systematic error is due to bias
a) Bio-medical research c) Random errors can be eliminated
b) Biostatistics by improving study design
c) Social science research d) Bias distorts the study results in
d) All of the above one direction

d) All of the above c)Random errors can be

eliminated by improving study
21) Which of the following best
design
describes a study done in a
laboratory setting using animals?
a) Translational research
b) Bench-based research 25) State whether true or false. Assigning
c) Theoretical research roles and responsibilities to the team
d) Preventive research members is one of the fundamental
principles of a research
b) Bench-based research a) True
b) False
22) Which of the following review is
NOT essential before initiating a a) True
clinical trial? 26) Health research is usually focused
a) Scientific review on which of the following areas?
b) Peer review a) Estimation of disease
c) Regulatory review burden in a population
d) Ethics review b) Prevention of common diseases
in the community
b) Peer review c) Evaluation of public health
programs
23) Which of the following is NOT a d) All the above
type of study design?
a) Qualitative study d)All the above
b) Observational study
c) Retrospective study 27) Which of the following is NOT a
d) Translational study component of a research study?
a) Setting up the institute scientific comm
d) Translational study b) Calculating sample size
c) Development of a study tool

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d) Framing the research question data analysis stage

c) Adequate sample size is a
a) Settingup the institute scientific committee
prerequisite

28) A researcher wants to study the 31) A clear research question is required in
order to facilitate the following:
relationship between COVID-19
a) To choose an optimal study design
infection in pregnancy and birth b) To identify the outcomes that need to be
weight. Currently, there is no measured
evidence on this topic. Which of the c) To decide when the outcomes need to be
following options is the scope of this measured
health research? d) All the above
a) Verifying and confirming known information
d) All the above
b) Getting additional or new
information 32) Characteristics of a good hypothesis are
c) Evaluating ongoing programs all, EXCEPT:
d) All of the above a) There should be no ambiguity about the
study variables
b)Getting additional or new b) It should be stated ‘a priori’
information c) It can be revised based on the study
findings
d) It should specify one exposure and one
29) Which of the following is NOT a
outcome
critical consideration in planning a
health research? c) It can be revised based on the study
a) Adequate justification findings
b) Clear and focused research
question 33) Which of the following is NOT an ideal
c) Standard case definitions source of a research question?
a) Reviewing the published literature
d) Financial gain
b) Attending conferences where latest
findings are shared
d)Financial gain c) Observing keenly in the out-patient clinic
d) Mining existing datasets for research
30) Identify the CORRECT question
statement about
implementation of a research d) Mining existing datasets for research
a) Research findings must be question
approved by the funder
34) Which of the following is TRUE for a
b) Research finding must be error ‘Descriptive Research Question’?
free a) Involves observations to measure a
c) Adequate sample size is a quantity
prerequisite b) Involves comparison groups
d) Pilot study can be done during c) Tests the efficacy of interventions

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d) Requires hypothesis testing 39) How can the given study objective be
improved?
a) Involves observations to measure a “To understand the anaemia in
quantity pregnancy”
a) Using appropriate action verb
35) Which of the following characteristics b) Specifying the outcome measure
best describe a good research question? c) Specifying the study setting and time
a) Feasible, Novel, Ethical period
b) Feasible, Noble, Ethical d) All the above
c) Ethical, Novel, Intuitive
d) Fantastic, Novel, Relevant d) All the above

a) Feasible, Novel, Ethical 40) Which of the following is NOT a step in

framing an ideal research question?
36) State whether ‘True’ or ‘False’. A a) Literature review
research study is conducted to estimate the b) Peer review
seroprevalence of COVID-19 in Ahmedabad c) Broadening the initial question
city during April-June 2020. This is an d) Defining measurable outcomes
example of analytical research question.
a) True c) Broadening the initial question
b) False 31) Which of the following best describes a
study done in a laboratory setting using
b) False animals?
a) Translational research
37) Which of the following statement about b) Bench-based research
study objective/s is FALSE? c) Theoretical research
a) Objectives are stated in scientific terms d) Preventive research
b) Objectives can be primary and
secondary b) Bench-based research
c) Each objective is written using multiple
verbs 32) Which of the following review is NOT
d) Objectives should be specific essential before initiating a research study?
a) Scientific review
c) Each objective is written using multiple b) Peer review
verbs c) Regulatory review
d) Ethics review

38) In the life cycle of research, ‘spelling b) Peer review

out the research question’ is followed by-
a) Preparing data collection instrument 33) Which of the following is NOT a type of
b) Formulating study objectives study design?
c) Collecting data a) Qualitative study
d) Formulating recommendations b) Observational study
c) Retrospective study
b) Formulating study objectives d) Translational study

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d) Translational study 38) A researcher wants to study the

relationship between COVID-19 infection in
34) Which of the following statements is pregnancy and birth weight. Currently, there
NOT correct regarding errors in a health is no evidence on this topic. Which of the
research? following options is the scope of this health
a) Random error is due to chance research?
b) Systematic error is due to bias
c) Random errors can be eliminated by a) Verifying and confirming known
random sampling information
d) Bias distorts the study results in one b) Getting additional or new information
direction c) Evaluating ongoing programs
d) All of the above
c) Random errors can be eliminated by
random sampling b) Getting additional or new information

35) State whether the following statement is 39) Which of the following is NOT a critical
true or false. Assigning roles and consideration in planning a health research?
responsibilities to the team members is one a) Adequate justification
of the fundamental principles of a research b) Clear and focussed research question
a) True c) Standard case definitions
b) False d) Financial gain

a) True d) Financial gain

36) Health research is usually focused on 40) Identify the CORRECT statement about
which of the following areas? implementation of a research
a) Estimation of disease burden in a a) Research findings must be approved by
population the funder
b) Prevention of common diseases in the b) Research finding must be error free
community c) Adequate sample size is a prerequisite
c) Evaluation of public health programs d) Pilot study can be done during data
d) All the above analysis stage

d) All the above c) Adequate sample size is a prerequisite

37) Which of the following is NOT a 41) A researcher conducted a study to know
component of a research study? the efficacy of a new chemotherapeutic
a) Setting up the institute scientific agent among mice with renal cell carcinoma.
committee What type of research is this?
b) Calculating sample size a) Translational research
c) Development of a study tool b) Bench side research
d) Framing the research question c) Bed side research
d) Implementation research
a) Setting up the institute scientific
committee b) Bench side research

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42) What is the type of research that takes b) Chance

evidence-based interventions in tobacco c) Instrumental error
cessation for taking informed policy d) Systematic error
decisions? b) Chance
a) Bench side research
b) Bed side research 47) How can systematic errors be
c) Implementation research minimized?
d) Translational research a) By increasing sample size
b) By increasing precision
c) Implementation research c) By calibrating the instrument
d) By stratification
43) A researcher proposed a novel research
question. ‘What are the differences in full c) By calibrating the instrument
genome structure of Sars-CoV-2 variants?’
Which of the following is a scope of this 48) What is the term used to denote ‘a
research? small-scale study with minimal study
a) Getting new information participants which examines the feasibility
b) Verifying available information of procedures intended to be performed in
c) Confirming available information the main study’?
d) Explaining cause and effect relationship a) Pilot study
b) Pre-testing
a) Getting new information c) Case study
d) Cohort study
44) What is the scope of a research in which
the occurrence of one event is followed by a) Pilot study
the occurrence of a subsequent event?
a) Getting new information 49) Choose whether the following statement
b) Verifying available information is true or false. ‘Inclusion and Exclusion
c) Confirming available information criteria should be mutually exclusive”.
d) Explaining cause and effect relationship a) True
b) False
d) Explaining cause and effect
relationship a) True

45) What is the type of study that uses only 50) What is the term used to denote ‘a
the information recorded in the past? variable that can alter the relationship
a) Retrospective between the study variable and outcome by
b) Prospective independently affecting outcome’ called?
c) Randomised clinical trial a) Confounder
d) Ambispective b) Effect modifier
c) Intervening variable
a) Retrospective d) Outcome variable

46) What is another term used for random b) Effect modifier

error?
a) Bias

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5) If your objective is to estimate the

prevalence of a health problem in a
community in 2019, Identify the type of
research question this study is addressing
a) Analytical research question
b) Descriptive research question
c) Hypothetical research question
d) Experimental research question

6) What is the first step in the life cycle of

research?
Assignment 2: Formulating a) Spell out the research question
b) Formulate the objective of the study
research question
c) Identify the data needs
1) Which of the following is an element of d) Choose the study design
life cycle of research?
a) Identify data needs and spell out the 7) A clear research question facilitates to do
research question the following
b) Formulate the objective and design the a) Choose the most optimal design
study b) Identify who should be included as study
c) Draw conclusion and give population
recommendation to stakeholders c) Specify the outcomes that should be
d) All of the above measured
d) All of the above
2) Which of the following verbs is
preferably used in the statement of 8) Which of the following statements is
objectives of an incorrect?
analytical research study? a) A good research question should be
a) Estimate Feasible, Interesting, Novel, Ethical and
b) Determine Relevant
c) Study b) A good research question should be in
d) Describe epidemiological terms
c) A good research question facilitates to
3) Source(s) of research question is/are choose optimal design
a) Published literature d) A good research question will focus on
b) Being alert to new ideas one issue
c) Careful observation and teaching
d) All of the above 9) The verb "estimate" is used in the
objective of analytical research studies
4) Which of the following is stated mainly a) True
for statistical purpose? b) False
a) Research question
b) Objectives 10) The process of refining the "ideas" into
c) Research hypothesis research questions begins with general
d) All of the above uncertainty about a health issue and narrow

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down to a specific, concrete researchable

issue 16) Identify the type of research question if
a) True the objective of a study is "To determine the
b) False effect of tobacco cessation services on
tuberculosis treatment outcomes among
11) Which of the following statement is patients with tuberculosis under National
incorrect about a good research question? Tuberculosis Elimination Program"?
a) Research question should advance a) Descriptive research question
scientific knowledge, improve practice, b) Hypothetical research question
influence policy c) Analytical research question
b) Research question should be approved by d) Experimental research question
the ethics committee
c) Research question should confirms, 17) As per the following objectives a
refutes or extends previous findings hypothesis should be stated for which study?
d) Feasibility should not be a criterion a) To determine the association of
while developing research question maternal smoking during pregnancy with
respiratory infectious disease morbidity
12) All the following are characteristic of and mortality in infants
good research hypothesis EXCEPT b) To estimate the lifetime prevalence of
a) Research hypothesis should be simple mental health morbidities among elderly
b) Research hypothesis should be devoid of people in India
any ambiguity about study participants and c) To describe the pattern of physical
variables activity among school going children aged
c) Research hypothesis should be focused on 6-18 years
primary objective d) To describe the temporal and spatial
d) Research hypothesis should be written trends of mortality due to cardiovascular
once the study is completed diseases, by age and sex in India during
2009-2019.
13) Which of the following verb is used in
the statement of objective of a descriptive 18) All the following are components of
research study? 'FINER ' criteria for a research question
a) Estimate EXCEPT
b) Determine a) Feasible
c) Examine b) Reliable
d) Compare c) Novel
d) Ethical
14) A research question states about what
the results of the study might ultimately 19) Which is the last step in the life cycle of
contribute to that particular field of science research?
a) True a) Spell out the research question
b) False b) Formulate the objective of the study
c) Formulate recommendations
15) Purely descriptive research questions do d) Choose the study design
not require a hypothesis
a) True 20) The following are the steps in framing a
b) False research question.

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I. Review of state-of-art information c) Tests the efficacy of interventions

II. Define measurable exposures & d) Requires hypothesis testing
outcomes
III. Raise a question 25) Which of the following characteristics
IV. Decide worth investigating by best describe a good research question?
peerreview a) Feasible, Novel, Ethical
Choose the correct sequence of framing a b) Feasible, Noble, Ethical
research question from below. c) Ethical, Novel, Intuitive
a) I, II, III, IV d) Fantastic, Novel, Relevant
b) II, IV, III, I
c) I, III, IV, II 26) State whether true or false. A research
d) III, I, II, IV study is conducted to estimate the
seroprevalence of
21) A clear research question is required in COVID-19 in Ahmedabad city during April-
orderto facilitate the following: June 2020. This is an example of analytical
a) To choose an optimal study design research question.
b) To identify the outcomes that need to be a) True
measured b) False
c) To decide when the outcomes need to be
measured 27) Which of the following statement about
d) All the above study objective/s is FALSE?
a) Objectives are stated in scientific terms
22) Characteristics of a good hypothesis are b) Objectives can be primary and secondary
all, EXCEPT: c) Each objective is written using multiple
a) There should be no ambiguity about the verbs
study variables d) Objectives should be specific
b) It should be stated ‘a priori’
c) It can be revised based on the study 28) In the life cycle of research, ‘spelling
findings out the research question’ is followed by
d) It should specify one exposure and one a) Preparing data collection instrument
outcome b) Formulating study objectives
c) Collecting data
23) Which of the following is NOT an ideal d) Formulating recommendation
source of a research question?
a) Reviewing the published literature 29) How can the given study objective be
b) Attending conferences where latest improved? “To understand the anaemia in
findings are shared pregnancy”
c) Observing keenly in the out-patient clinic a) Using appropriate action verb
d) Mining existing datasets for research b) Specifying the outcome measure
question c) Specifying the study setting and time
period
24) Which of the following is TRUE for a d) All the above
‘Descriptive Research Question’?
a) Involves observations to measure a 30) Which of the following is NOT a step in
quantity framing an ideal research question?
b) Involves comparison groups a) Literature review

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b) Peer review
c) Broadening the initial question 36) State whether ‘True’ or ‘False’. A
d) Defining measurable outcomes research study is conducted to estimate the
seroprevalence of COVID-19 in Ahmedabad
31) A clear research question is required in city during April-June 2020. This is an
order to facilitate the following: example of analytical research question.
a) To choose an optimal study design a) True
b) To identify the outcomes that need to be b) False
measured
c) To decide when the outcomes need to be 37) Which of the following statement about
measured study objective/s is FALSE?
d) All the above a) Objectives are stated in scientific terms
b) Objectives can be primary and
32) Characteristics of a good hypothesis are secondary
all, EXCEPT: c) Each objective is written using
a) There should be no ambiguity about the multiple verbs
study variables d) Objectives should be specific
b) It should be stated ‘a priori’
c) It can be revised based on the study 38) In the life cycle of research, ‘spelling
findings out the research question’ is followed by-
d) It should specify one exposure and one a) Preparing data collection instrument
outcome b) Formulating study objectives
c) Collecting data
33) Which of the following is NOT an ideal d) Formulating recommendations
source of a research question?
a) Reviewing the published literature 39) How can the given study objective be
b) Attending conferences where latest improved? “To understand the anaemia in
findings are shared pregnancy”
c) Observing keenly in the out-patient clinic a) Using appropriate action verb
d) Mining existing datasets for research b) Specifying the outcome measure
question c) Specifying the study setting and time
period
34) Which of the following is TRUE for a d) All the above
‘Descriptive Research Question’?
a) Involves observations to measure a 40) Which of the following is NOT a step in
quantity framing an ideal research question?
b) Involves comparison groups a) Literature review
c) Tests the efficacy of interventions b) Peer review
d) Requires hypothesis testing c) Broadening the initial question
d) Defining measurable outcomes
35) Which of the following characteristics
best describe a good research question? 41) A postgraduate researcher wishes to
a) Feasible, Novel, Ethical estimate the prevalence of autism and the
b) Feasible, Noble, Ethical co-morbidities among children referred to
c) Ethical, Novel, Intuitive the outpatient clinics for
d) Fantastic, Novel, Relevant neurodevelopmental disorders. Which of the

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following study designs should be used by INCORRECT regarding a good research

the researcher? question?
a) Descriptive study a) A good research question should be
b) Analytical study Feasible, Interesting, Novel, Ethical and
c) Literature review Relevant
d) Experimental study b) A good research question facilitates the
choice of optimal study design
42) A postgraduate researcher proposes to c) A good research question should focus
investigate the association between on one issue
childhood trauma and psychosis in a d) A good research question should be in
particular area. Identify the type of research epidemiological terms
study.
a) Descriptive study 48) Fill in the blank with the appropriate
b) Analytical study option.Each research study uses a specific
c) Experimental study participant or patient population (P), an
d) Systematic Review intervention or issue of interest (I), a ______
(C) and an outcome of interest (O) or
43) All the following are components of ‘PICO’.
'FINER ' criteria for a research question a) Condition of interest
EXCEPT: b) Comparison of interest
a) Feasible c) Consequence of interest
b) Novel d) Correlation of interest
c) Ethical
d) Reliable 49) State whether true or false. The null
hypothesis states that there is no difference
44) State whether true or false: A single between the experimental and
research study can be designed to answer controlgroups.
both descriptive and analytical questions. a) True
a) True b) False
b) False
50) When we are formulating a research
45) All are source(s) of research question question we should consider the following
EXCEPT: points EXCEPT:
a) Published literature a) Use specific terms to describe the
b) Being alert to new ideas problem
c) Careful observation and teaching b) Preferably focus on multiple issues
d) Personal experiences c) Write in everyday language
d) Use more than one operational verb, if
46) What is the first step in the life cycle of needed
research?
a) Spelling out the research question
b) Identifying the data needs
c) Formulating the objective of the study
d) Choosing the study design

47) Which of the following statements is

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5) In the Boolean search strategy AND tells

that database that you want records that
contain
all the words you specify
a) True
b) False

Assignment 3: Literature review 6) Which of the following is unethical while

writing a Literature Review?
1) The ability to apply the principles of a) The contents from the studies should be
analysis to identify those studies which are presented honestly
unbiased and b) The contents from the studies should not
valid is called as be distorted
a) Critical appraisal c) It is not necessary to address the
b) Information seeking weakness of the study in a scholarly
c) Information management manner
d) Systematic Review d) Sources should be accurately documented

2) A __________ is a collection of articles, 7) Critical appraisal is done in an organized

abstracts, scientific proceedings, books, and systematic manner
citations etc. that is organized so that it can a) True
easily be accessed while doing literature b) False
review
a) Database 8) The process of identifying, within a large
b) Critical appraisal document collection, a subset of documents
c) Hard disk whose content is most relevant to user's need
d) Index is called as
a) Information retrieval
3) Why should we need to do a literature b) Information management
review? c) Systematic Review
a) Save yourself from work d) Narrative Review
b) Know the subject matter better
c) Suggest new research topics, questions 9) The query system in the information
and methods retrieval process of literature review is
d) All of the above a) User defined
b) Provider defined
4) The process of scanning the literature c) Conditional
efficiently using manual or computerized d) Not structured
methods to identify a set of potentially
useful articles and books is called as 10) In the National Library of Medicine
a) Information seeking (NLM), MeSH means
b) Critical appraisal a) Medical Services Heading
c) Database management b) Medical Subject Heading
d) Information retrieval c) Medical Subject Helpline
d) Medicine Services Helpline

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11) In literature review method of b) Citations may include links to full-text

identifying studies which are unbiased and article from PubMed Central
valid is known c) PubMed is developed and maintained by
as critical appraisal. the National Centre for Biotechnology
a) True Information (NCBI), at the U.S. National
b) False Library of Medicine (NLM)
d) PubMed is a paid service provider for
12) Choose the correct sequence of the steps searching of literature
of systematically doing literature search
from 16) All the following are examples of
below databases
a) Organize the information, identify the a) MEDLINE
lacunae, develop the research question, b) EMBASE
synthesize the results c) CINAHL
b) Identify the lacunae, develop the research d) Google scholar
question, synthesize the results, organize
the information 17) Literature searches are important to do
c) Develop the research question, synthesize at the start of a project; and do not need to
the results, organize the information, continue throughout the project.
identify the lacunae a) True
d) Organize information, synthesize the b) False
results, identify the lacunae, develop the
research question 18) Which of the following search query
should be used to find the articles on chest
13) All the following about literature review pain other
is correct EXCEPT than angina?
a) It identifies lacunae in the existing a) Chest pain AND angina
knowledge about a topic b) Chest pain OR angina
b) It saves valuable time for a researcher c) Chest pain NOT angina
c) It helps the researcher in arriving the d) Chest pain EXCEPT angina
conclusion of a study
d) It suggests the researcher about new 19) A researcher wants to assess effects of
research topics polyunsaturated fatty acids (PUFA) on
diabetes prognosis. For this, the researcher
14) While drafting a scientific manuscript, searches related articles in PubMed and
literature review is useful on the following Google scholar. This process is known as
section EXCEPT a) Information retrieval
a) Introduction b) Indexing
b) Methods c) Critical appraisal
c) Results d) Data management
d) Discussion
20) Which of the following about MeSH is
15) Which of the following about PubMed is incorrect?
incorrect? a) MeSH thesaurus is controlled vocabulary
a) PubMed comprises more than 25 million produced by the National Library of
citations for biomedical literature Medicine

16
[Type here]

b) It consists of sets of terms naming a) MeSH thesaurus is controlled vocabulary

descriptors in a hierarchical structure that produced by the National Library of
permits searching at various levels of Medicine
specificity b) It consists of sets of terms naming
c) It is used for indexing and searching of descriptors in a hierarchical structure that
biomedical and health-related information permits searching at various levels of
d) MeSH is used for EMBASE database specificity
c) It is used for indexing and searching of
21) Which of the following is INCORRECT biomedical and health-related information
about literature review for a proposed study? d) MeSH is used for EMBASE database
a) Begins with a systematic literature search
b) Involves critical appraisal of retrieved 21) Which of the following is INCORRECT
studies about literature review for a proposed study?
c) Presents existing knowledge concisely a) Begins with a systematic literature search
d) Guides the findings of the proposed b) Involves critical appraisal of retrieved
study studies
d) Google scholar c) Presents existing knowledge concisely
d) Guides the findings of the proposed
17) Literature searches are important to do study
at the start of a project; and do not need to
continue throughout the project. 22) A researcher conducts a review of
a) True literature to identify a set of potentially
b) False useful articles and books related to their
research topic. This process is known as
18) Which of the following search query a) Indexing
should be used to find the articles on chest b) Critical appraisal
pain other c) Data management
than angina? d) Information seeking
a) Chest pain AND angina
b) Chest pain OR angina 23) Literature review is a well thought out
c) Chest pain NOT angina and organized search for all literature
d) Chest pain EXCEPT angina published on
a particular topic in a library or online
19) A researcher wants to assess effects of database.
polyunsaturated fatty acids (PUFA) on a) True
diabetes prognosis. For this, the researcher b) False
searches related articles in PubMed and
Google scholar. This process is known as 24) Which of the following search query in
a) Information retrieval PubMed will give relevant articles for the
b) Indexing following question? “What is the burden of
c) Critical appraisal gastroenteritis among children?”
d) Data management a) Gastroenteritis OR children
b) Gastroenteritis AND children
20) Which of the following about MeSH is c) Gastroenteritis BUT children
incorrect? d) Gastroenteritis NOT children

17
[Type here]

25) Which of the following Boolean 29) For which of the following purpose is
operator will give the highest number of the Boolean operator ‘OR’ commonly used
results when used in
between two given search terms? literature search?
a) AND a) Connecting synonyms of one key
b) NOT concept
c) OR b) Connecting different key concepts
d) ALL c) Connecting keywords which need to be
excluded
26) A researcher wants to study the effect of d) Connecting keywords to narrow down the
physical activity on reduction of systolic results
blood
pressure among patients with hypertension. 30) Medical Subject Headings is a
The researcher has identified a subset of controlled vocabulary thesaurus used for
document which are most relevant to the indexing
research question within a large document articles in
collection. This process is known as a) PubMed
a) Information management b) Google scholar
b) Critical appraisal c) Scopus
c) Information retrieval d) Health on Net
d) Literature organization
31) Which of the following is INCORRECT
27) The organized collection of articles, about literature review for a proposed study?
abstracts, scientific proceedings, books, and a) Begins with a systematic literature search
citations b) Involves critical appraisal of retrieved
used for the purpose of literature review, is studies
known as c) Presents existing knowledge concisely
a) Database d) Guides the findings of the proposed
b) Data management study
c) Critical appraisal
d) Index 32) A researcher conducts a review of
literature to identify a set of potentially
28) Which of the following does not satisfy useful articles and books related to their
the ethical principles in conducting a research topic. This process is known as-
literature a) Indexing
review? b) Critical appraisal
a) Results of previous studies are presented c) Data management
without distortion d) Information seeking
b) Weaknesses of previous studies are
highlighted 33) Literature review is a well thought out
c) Previous studies are accurately cited and organised search for all literature
d) Reputation of study authors are published on a particular topic in a library or
questioned online database.
a) True
b) False

18
[Type here]

34) Which of the following search query in highlighted

PubMed will give relevant articles for the c) Previous studies are accurately cited
following question? d) Reputation of study authors are
“What is the burden of gastroenteritis among questioned
children?”
a) Gastroenteritis OR children 39) For which of the following purpose is
b) Gastroenteritis AND children the Boolean operator ‘OR’ commonly used
c) Gastroenteritis BUT children in literature search?
d) Gastroenteritis NOT children a) Connecting synonyms of one key
35) Which of the following Boolean concept
operator will give the highest number of b) Connecting different key concepts
results when used between two given search c) Connecting keywords which need to be
terms? excluded
a) AND d) Connecting keywords to narrow down
b) NOT the results
c) OR
d) ALL 40) Medical Subject Headings is a
controlled vocabulary thesaurus used for
36) A researcher wants to study the effect of indexing articles in
physical activity on reduction of systolic a) PubMed
blood pressure among patients with b) Google scholar
hypertension. The researcher has identified a c) Scopus
subset of document which are most relevant d) Health on Net
to the research question within a large
document collection. This process is known 41) State whether true or false. Literature
as- review helps us to understand the gaps in the
a) Information management existing knowledge about the concerned
b) Critical appraisal subject.
c) Information retrieval a) True
d) Literature organization b) False

37) The organized collection of articles, 42) All of the following about literature
abstracts, scientific proceedings, books, and review are correct EXCEPT:
citations used for the purpose of literature a) Literature review saves lot of time in
review, is known as- your research
a) Database b) Critical appraisal is an important step in
b) Data management the process of literature review
c) Critical appraisal c) Literature review is the identification a
d) Index subset of document which are most
relevant to the research question
38) Which of the following does not satisfy d) Literature review helps to develop new
the ethical principles in conducting a research questions
literature review?
a) Results of previous studies are presented 43) The process of identifying relevant
without distortion documents from a large database by a set of
b) Weaknesses of previous studies are queries refers to _______________.

19
[Type here]

a) Citation keywords, the latter of which needs to be

b) Critical appraisal excluded from searches?
c) Information retrieval a) AND
d) Indexing b) OR
c) NOT
44) All of the following are steps in d) BUT
performing a literature review EXCEPT:
a) Selecting the studies reported in the 49) Which of the following pose an ethical
last 5 years challenge in performing a literature review?
b) Comparing methods of identified studies a) Contents from individual studies are
c) Tabulation of findings from each study presented without distortion
d) Scholarly critical appraisal of studies b) Scholarly appraisal of the weakness of
the studies without being too critical
45) Which among the following is not c) Studies supporting our proposed
generally reported in the table of literature hypothesis are selectively reported and
review? highlighted
a) Study design d) Documenting the source accurately
b) Study population
c) Primary outcomes 50) An investigator is interested to
d) Impact factor summarise the prevalence of hookworm
infections among children. Which among
46) Which among the following is NOT a the following search strategy would yield
search engine for retrieving published the appropriate result?
medical literature? a) “Hookworm infections” AND “Child”
a) PubMed b) “Hookworm infections” OR “Child”
b) Ovid c) “Hookworm infections” NOT “Child”
c) Google Scholar d) “Hookworm infections” BUT “Child”
d) Mendeley

47) An investigator is interested to find

literature on the effectiveness of COVID
vaccination for reducing severe COVID-19
illness that requires ICU care. Which of the
following search strategy will yield the most Assignment 4: Measures of disease
appropriate results?
a) “COVID-19 Vaccine” AND (“Severe
frequency
COVID-19” OR “Intensive Care Units”) 1) Which of the following must be
b) (“COVID-19 Vaccine” OR “Severe considered
COVID-19”) AND “Intensive Care Units” while measuring occurrence of a disease?
c) “COVID-19 Vaccine” AND “Severe a) The number of people affected by the
COVID-19” AND “Intensive Care Units” disease
d) “COVID-19 Vaccine” OR “Severe b) The population size from which the cases
COVID-19” OR “Intensive Care Units” of disease arise
c) The length of the time the population is
48) Which of the following Boolean followed
operators is used for connecting two d) All of the above

20
[Type here]

2) __________ is most useful for evaluating 8) While measuring the frequency of a

the chronic
impact of prevention programme disease in a community in terms of
a) Point prevalence Incidence
b) Period prevalence per 1000 persons per year, and point
c) Case fatality prevalence per 1000 persons, what is the
d) Incidence expected pattern of incidence and
prevalence?
3) Which one of the following statements is a) Low prevalence, high incidence
true? b) High prevalence, low incidence
a) High cure rate can increase the c) Both prevalence and incidence will be
prevalence of a disease similar
b) Low case fatality can reduce the d) None of the above statements are true
prevalence of a disease
c) Both 'a' and 'b' are true 9) In a study among 3400 children aged 5-10
d) High cure rate and high case fatality years, 16 children were diagnosed with
can autistic disorder. Calculate the prevalence of
reduce the prevalence of a disease autism per 1000 children
a) 4.01
4) Measures of disease frequency b) 5.53
a) Incidence c) 3.35
b) Prevalence d) 4.71
c) Birth rate
d) 'a' and 'b' 10) Statistic used to estimate the risk of
acquiring
5) A measure that reflects severity of an a disease
acute a) Prevalence
infectious disease b) Incidence
a) Case fatality ratio c) Mortality rate
b) Incidence rate d) All of the above
c) Prevalence
d) Mortality rate 11) What is the appropriate measure when a
researcher wishes to know the burden of a
6) Incidence data can be used to measure the particular disease in terms of the number of
occurrence of disease with gradual onset deaths it causes in a specified geographical
a) True region and population?
b) False a) Incidence density
b) Case fatality
7) This measure reflects the impact of a c) Attack rate
disease d) Disease specific mortality
on population in terms of death
a) Incidence density 12) If health policy makers want to evaluate
b) Case fatality the
c) Disease specific mortality impact of a prevention program, which is the
d) Attack rate appropriate measure to be considered?

21
[Type here]

a) Period prevalence
b) Incidence 17) When measuring the frequency for an
c) Point prevalence acute
d) Case fatality infectious disease in a community in terms
of
13) Select the correct statement among the incidence per 1000 persons per year and
following point prevalence per 1000 persons, how will
a) Prevalence of a disease will increase the pattern of incidence and prevalence be?
when it has a high cure rate a) High prevalence
b) Prevalence of a disease will decrease b) Low incidence
when it has a low case fatality ratio c) Both prevalence and incidence will be
c) Prevalence of a disease will increase similar
when it has a low cure rate d) Low prevalence and high incidence
d) Prevalence of a disease will increase
when it is acute in nature 18) Among 25000 population in a city, 105
residents were identified with Hepatitis B
14) What is the appropriate epidemiologic infection. Calculate the prevalence of
measure to determine the severity of an Hepatitis B per 1000 population.
acute disease? a) 5.2
a) Incidence rate b) 4.2
b) Prevalence c) 3.2
c) Mortality rate d) 2.2
d) Case fatality ratio
19) Which of the following condition tends
15) Cumulative incidence is otherwise to
known as increase the prevalence of a particular
a) Attack rate disease?
b) Case fatality rate a) High cure rate
c) Mortality rate b) Low case fatality ratio
d) Morbidity rate c) Short duration
d) Emigration of patients
16) The healthcare professionals working in
an 20) Which of the following is true about
intensive care unit were asked whether there incidence density?
has been an increase in the number of new a) Numerator has number of new cases
pneumonia cases. Which of the following b) Also called cumulative incidence
factor(s) is inappropriate in the calculation c) Denominator is number of persons at risk
of d) Numerator has person-years at risk
cumulative incidence?
a) Number of new cases of pneumonia 21) In a rural block with 1,00,000
during a specific period of time population, 250
b) Total number of people at risk of residents were identified with cardiovascular
developing the disease in that population disease. Calculate the prevalence of
during the same period of time cardiovascular disease per 1000 population.
c) Pre-existing cases of pneumonia a) 0.2
d) Both ‘a’ and ‘b’ b) 0.5

22
[Type here]

c) 2.5 suicidal ideation and 20 patients developed

d) 25 it
for the first time. What is the incidence of
22) What is the appropriate epidemiologic suicidal ideation in the study population?
measure to determine the burden of a a) 7% per year
disease in terms of number of cases present b) 20% per year
in a specified geographical area at a specific c) 21.5% per year
point in time? d) 27 per year
a) Cumulative Incidence
b) Point Prevalence 26) In a food poisoning outbreak, 75 people
c) Incidence rate were
d) Case fatality ratio affected. Among them, 50 were hospitalized,
and two died. Calculate the case-fatality
23) In a study, 300 children were followed ratio.
up for a) 1.2%
a period of one year to determine the burden b) 2.7%
of acute respiratory infections (ARI). c) 4%
Calculate the incidence density if the total d) 8%
number of ARI episodes recorded was 1500.
a) 5 episodes per child year 27) Which of the following is NOT required
b) 0.2 episodes per child year for
c) 3 episodes per child year calculating prevalence of a disease?
d) 0.5 episodes per child year a) Pre-existing cases of the disease
b) New cases of the disease
24) A total of 100 people with hypertension c) Total number of people at risk
were d) Total person-time of observation
followed up for 3 years to observe for the
development of myocardial infarction in a 28) Which of the following condition tends
cohort study. At the end of first year, 10 to
people developed myocardial infarction, at reduce the prevalence of a particular
the end of second year, 10 people left the disease?
study and at the end of third year, another 10 a) High cure rate
people developed myocardial infarction. b) Low case fatality ratio
Calculate the total person-years of c) Improved case detection rate
observation in this study? d) Immigration of diseased people
a) 250
b) 260 29) In which of the following conditions,
c) 270 prevalence is an appropriate measure of
d) 280 disease frequency?
a) Common cold episodes in elderly
25) During a one-year follow-up, a b) Number of exacerbations in asthma
psychiatrist patients
determined the burden of suicidal ideation c) Proportion of foot ulcers in Diabetes
among 100 patients with drug addiction. Mellitus
Seven patients had previous history of d) Number of diarrhoea episodes in children

23
[Type here]

30) Which of the following is INCORRECT year another 2 people develop myocardial
about infarction and at the end of five years 3
case fatality? people develop myocardial infarction.
a) It reflects the severity of a disease Calculate the incidence rate of myocardial
b) High case fatality indicates poor infarction.
prognosis a) 10 cases per five person-years
c) It relates the number of deaths to the b) 10 percentage
number of cases of a disease c) 10/481 cases per person-year
d) It is a true rate d) 10/500 cases per person-year

31) In a rural block with 1,00,000 35) During a one-year follow-up, a

population, 250 residents were identified psychiatrist determined the burden of
with cardiovascular disease. Calculate the suicidal ideation among 100 patients with
prevalence of cardiovascular disease per drug addiction. Seven patients had previous
1000 population. history of suicidal ideation and 20 patients
a) 0.2 developed it for the first time. What is the
b) 0.5 incidence of suicidal ideation in the study
c) 2.5 population?
d) 25 a) 7% per year
b) 20% per year
32) What is the appropriate epidemiologic c) 21.5% per year
measure to determine the burden of a d) 27 per year
disease in terms of number of cases present
in a specified geographical area at a specific 36) In a food poisoning outbreak, 75 people
point in time? were affected. Among them, 50 were
a) Cumulative Incidence hospitalized, and two died. Calculate the
b) Point Prevalence case-fatality ratio.
c) Incidence rate a) 1.2%
d) Case fatality ratio b) 2.7%
c) 4%
33) In a study, 300 children were followed d) 8%
up for a period of one year to determine the
burden of acute respiratory infections (ARI). 37) Which of the following is not required
Calculate the incidence density if the total for calculating prevalence of a disease?
number of ARI episodes recorded was a) Pre-existing cases of the disease
1500. b) New cases of the disease
a) 5 episodes per child year c) Total number of people at risk of
b) 0.2 episodes per child year developing the disease at that time
c) 3 episodes per child year d) Total person-time of observation
d) 0.5 episodes per child year
38) Which of the following condition tends
34) 100 people with hypertension are to reduce the prevalence of a particular
followed up for 5 years to observe for disease?
development of myocardial infarction. At a) High cure rate
the end of second year 5 people develop b) Low case fatality ratio
myocardial infarction, at the end of third c) Improved case detection rate

24
[Type here]

d) Immigration of diseased people a) 8.0%

b) 8.3%
39) In which of the following conditions, c) 12.0%
prevalence is an appropriate measure of d) 12.3%
disease frequency?
a) Common cold episodes in elderly 44) Which of the following is FALSE about
b) Number of exacerbations in asthma disease prevalence?
patients a) It is the ratio of existing cases to the total
c) Proportion of foot ulcers in Diabetes population at risk during a specified time
Mellitus point
d) Number of diarrhoea episodes in children b) Total mid-year population is used as an
approximation for population at risk
40) Which of the following is INCORRECT wherever at risk population is not available
about case fatality? c) The multiplier is chosen depending upon
a) It reflects the severity of a disease how rare or common the disease being
b) High case fatality indicates poor studied is.
prognosis d) Prevalence is the appropriate for
c) It relates the number of deaths to the measuring burden of diseases with high
number of cases of a disease fatality
d) It is a true rate
45) Which of the following can decrease the
41) All of the following are measures of prevalence of a disease?
morbidity EXCEPT: a) Increase in the incidence of the disease
a) Incidence b) Improved detection of diseased
b) Probability of experiencing a disease individuals
condition c) High case fatality
c) Population at risk of a disease d) Immigration of persons with the disease
d) Period prevalence into study area

42) The ratio of the number of new cases to 46) Which of the following statement is
the total time the population is at risk of FALSE about incidence of disease?
disease refers to___________. a) It measures the rapidity with which new
a) Cumulative incidence cases are occurring in a population
b) Incidence density b) It is the number of all existing cases
c) Risk (new and old) during a given period in a
d) Incidence proportion specified population
c) It can be expressed as cumulative
43) A cross sectional survey was undertaken incidence or incidence density
to estimate the prevalence of refractive d) Cumulative incidence is also referred to
errors among adults in a village with a as attack rate
population of 10,000. During the survey,
about 400 reported spectacle use for 47) A cohort of women who smoked
refractive error and another 800 individuals cigarettes was followed-up to study the
were identified with refractive error during incidence of cleft lip among the children
the survey. What is the prevalence of born to these women. Of the total 9,500
refractive error? children born to these women, 228 children

25
[Type here]

had cleft clip. What is the risk of cleft lip Assignment 5: Descriptive study
among women who smoke cigarettes? designs
a) 2.4 per 100 persons
b) 0.24 per 100 persons 1. Study design(s) useful for describing
c) 0.24 per lakh persons uncommon clinical manifestations
d) 0.024 per 1000 persons a) Case reports
b) Case series
48) Which of the following is TRUE about c) Both 'a' and 'b'
case fatality? d) Ecological study
a) It reflects the severity of the disease
b) It can be expressed as a rate 2. Cross-sectional studies are used to
c) It cannot be expressed as a proportion a) Estimate prevalence
d) It expresses a relation between the b) Generate hypotheses
number of deaths due to a disease to the c) Describe trends
total number of deaths d) All of the above

49) About 1000 prison inmates were 3. In a cross-sectional study, we can observe
followed up for one year to study the one or more outcomes
occurrence of Tuberculosis (TB) among a) True
them. Of the total, 10 had TB at the b) False
beginning and another 25 persons developed
TB during one year of follow-up. What is 4. Which one of the following is useful to
the period prevalence for that year? measure the burden or magnitude of a
a) 2.5% disease or risk factor?
b) 3.0% a) Case-control study
c) 3.5% b) Cross-sectional study
d) 4.0% c) Case report
d) Case series
50) State whether true or false. Change in
prevalence from one time period to another 5. Which of the following is wrong about
may be the result of changes in incidence descriptive study designs?
rates, changes in the duration of disease, or a) Describe the study outcome for 1
both. group
a) True b) Compare the study outcomes for 2
b) False group
c) Calculate the incidence for
surveillance data
d) Calculate prevalence for crosssectional
study

6. Descriptive epidemiology study designs

can answer all of the following questions
EXCEPT:
a) Who?
b) When?
c) Where?

26
[Type here]

d) Why? c) Case report

d) Case series
7. Which one of the following study designs
does not employ comparison groups to 13. Which of the following study design will
answer the primary study objectives? be helpful if the department of health
a) Cross-sectional study wants to know the burden of a particular
b) Cohort study disease?
c) Ecological study a) Ecological study
d) Clinical trials b) Cross sectional survey
c) Case series
8. Unit of observation in the cross-sectional d) Case report
study is
a) Individual 14. A clinician comes across an unusual
b) Group presentation of a particular neurological
c) Both 'a' and 'b' disorder. If the clinician describes this
d) None of the above single case in detail and publishes the
same in a journal, then it will be called
9. Case reports can include presentation of a) Analytical study
a) Unique features/symptoms of a b) Case report
disease c) Cross sectional survey
b) Rare manifestation of common d) Ecological study
disease
c) New or unfamiliar diseases 15. The advantage of an ecological study is
d) All of the above that
a) It is analytical in nature
10. Advantage of the ecological study is b) It will cover individual level
a) Relate rate of disease and exposure information on risk factors and
b) Useful to test hypothesis disease
c) Useful to study rare diseases c) It will be useful to test hypotheses
d) All of the above d) It will be useful to generate
hypotheses
11. A researcher can assess the following by
conducting a descriptive study EXCEPT 16. In a tertiary care hospital, a surgeon
a) Population in which the disease was collected information on quality of life
prevalent and outcome among a small group of
b) Period in which the disease occurred (about 15) post-operative patients after
c) Risk factors of the disease using a novel surgical device. But this is
d) Place distribution of the disease not sufficient to establish the efficacy of
the surgical device because
12. The following study design provides a) There is no comparison group
group exposure and group b) There is no information of risk factors
response/outcome without knowing the c) We do not have details of the
individual exposure and response for a outcome
specific health problem d) We do not have individual level data
a) Ecological study
b) Cross sectional survey 17. Population census is a

27
[Type here]

a) Cross sectional survey d) It can be used to generate hypothesis

b) Ecological study
c) Analytical study 23. A detailed presentation of a single case
d) None of the above which is rare and unfamiliar, is called
a) Case report
18. One of the major limitations of a b) Case series
crosssectional c) Ecological study
study is that d) Cross-sectional study
a) It is time consuming
b) It has lower validity 24. Which of the following is INCORRECT
c) It does not establish disease etiology about ecological study?
d) It requires a large sample size a) It relates the rate of disease and
frequency of exposure
19. Characteristic of a cross sectional study b) It is an example of observational study
is c) It uses individual level data
that d) It helps in generating hypothesis
a) We can calculate the incidence of a
disease 25. Which of the following is NOT
b) We can test a hypotheses applicable
c) It is difficult to conduct in a case study?
d) Exposure and outcome are assessed a) Clinical features
at the same time b) Laboratory parameters
c) Socio-demographic background
20. If a researcher wishes to estimate the d) Incidence
incidence of Myocardial infarction cases
among a group of women using oral 26. To determine the association between air
contraceptive pills followed up for pollution and male infertility, data on air
10year, the researcher has to carry out quality index and prevalence of male
a) Case series infertility was collected for 183 countries
b) Cohort study for the year 2019. What best describes
c) Cross sectional study the study?
d) Ecological study a) Case report
b) Case series
21. Case series are useful c) Ecological study
a) To estimate burden of a disease d) Cross-sectional study
b) To determine risk factors of a disease
c) To determine efficacy of a new drug 27. In a medical journal, 18 cases of
d) To describe uncommon clinical Creutzfeldt Jakob disease were reported
manifestation from a tertiary care hospital in Sikkim.
The authors of the paper gave a
22. All the following are true about description of the socio-demographic,
crosssectional clinical, and laboratory features of the 18
survey, EXCEPT patients. What best describes this study
a) Individual is the unit of observation design?
b) Involves only incident cases a) Case study
c) Estimate the burden of a disease b) Case series

28
[Type here]

c) Case control study d) Cross-sectional study

d) Ecological study
34) Which of the following is INCORRECT
28. Which of the following is FALSE about about ecological study?
cross-sectional studies? a) It relates the rate of disease and
a) Can be used to generate hypothesis frequency of exposure
b) Can be used to establish temporality b) It is an example of observational study
of association c) It uses individual level data
c) Can be used to estimate disease d) It helps in generating hypothesis
burden
d) Can be used to identify factors 35) Which of the following is not applicable
associated with outcome in a case study?
a) Clinical features
29. State whether true or false. Descriptive b) Laboratory parameters
cross-sectional study does not have a c) Socio-demographic background
comparison group. d) Incidence
a) True
b) False 36) To determine the association between air
pollution and male infertility, data on air
30. Which of the following studies can be quality index and prevalence of male
used to identify the factors associated infertility was collected for 183 countries for
with an outcome? the year 2019. What best describes the
a) Descriptive cross-sectional study study?
b) Analytical cross-sectional study a) Case report
c) Case study b) Case series
d) Case series c) Ecological study
d) Cross-sectional study
31) Case series are useful-
a) To estimate burden of a disease 37) In a medical journal, 18 cases of
b) To determine risk factor of a disease CreutzfeldtJakob disease were reported from
c) To determine efficacy of a new drug a tertiary care hospital in Sikkim. The
d) To describe uncommon clinical authors of the paper gave a description of
manifestation the socio-demographic, clinical, and
laboratory features of the 18 patients. What
32) All the following are true about cross- best describes this study design?
sectional survey, EXCEPT- a) Case study
a) Individual is the unit of observation b) Case series
b) Involves only incident cases c) Case control study
c) Estimate the burden of a disease d) Ecological study
d) It can be used to generate hypothesis
38) Which of the following is FALSE about
33) A detailed presentation of a single case cross-sectional studies?
which is rare and unfamiliar, is called- a) Can be used to generate hypothesis
a) Case report b) Can be used to establish temporality
b) Case series of association
c) Ecological study c) Can be used to estimate disease burden

29
[Type here]

d) Can be used to identify factors associated to an innovative intervention?

with outcome a) Case study
b) Cross sectional study
39) Descriptive cross-sectional study does c) Case control study
not have a comparison group d) Ecological study
a) True
b) False 46) Findings from which of the following
study designs is LEAST generalizable to the
40) Which of the following studies can be population?
used to identify the factors associated with a) Case series
an outcome? b) Cross sectional study
a) Descriptive cross-sectional study c) Case control study
b) Analytical cross-sectional study d) Cohort study
c) Case study
d) Case series 47) Which of the following statement is
(are) referring an ecological study?
41) Which of the following study designs is a) Individual is the unit of study
most appropriate to disseminate information b) Relate the exposure and outcome at
on rare clinical manifestation of a particular the population level
disease? c) It is a detail description of a rare clinical
a) Case series condition of a specific disease
b) Cross sectional study d) It is an interventional study
c) Ecological study
d) Case control study 48) Population census can be classified
under which of the following study design?
42) State whether True or False: Population a) Cohort study
is the unit of observation in an ecological b) Case control study
study. c) Cross sectional study
a) True d) Ecological study
b) False
49) Estimating the disease burden will be
43) State whether True or False. All helpful in which of the following activity?
analytical studies are interventional in a) To develop the treatment protocol
nature. b) To know the causal relationship between
a) True an exposure and an outcome
b) False c) To plan health care service delivery
d) Both ‘b’ and ‘c’
44) Population level information is required
in which of the following study designs? 50) Which of the following is a major
a) Case control study limitation of a cross-sectional study
b) Ecological study compared to a cohort study?
c) Randomized control trial a) Exposure and outcome are examined
d) Cohort study at the same time
b) High attrition rate
45) Which of the following is used to c) Expensive to conduct
provide information on a patient’s response d) It takes a long time to complete

30
[Type here]

Assignment 6: Analytical study a) True

designs b) False

1. Exposure is not assigned by the 7. Cohort study is suitable for rare diseases
investigator in the following study design a) True
a) Cohort b) False
b) Case-control
c) Cross-sectional 8. Which of the following is NOT true
d) All of the above regarding case-control study?
i. Appropriate for study of rare
2. Which of the following statement(s) is outcome
true about the cohort study? ii. More time consuming than cohort
a) It is not suitable for disease with a study
long latency period iii. Multiple exposures can be examined
b) Loss to follow up can introduce bias iv. Relatively expensive compared to
c) Both 'a' and 'b' cohort study
d) None of the above a) Both (i) and (ii)
b) Both (ii) and (iii)
3. Which of the following study design is c) Both (ii) and (iv)
better suited to demonstrate a temporal d) Both (iii) and (iv)
association between exposure and
disease? 9. What is an appropriate measure of
a) Cross-sectional study statistical association in a cohort study?
b) Case-control study a) Prevalence ratio
c) Cohort study b) Risk ratio
d) Ecological study c) Odds ratio
d) Pearson's correlation coefficient
4. Relative risk of more than 1 indicates
a) Incidence in unexposed is higher than 10. The entire population of a given
exposed community is screened and all those
b) Incidence in exposed and unexposed judged as being free of Colon cancer are
are same questioned extensively about their diet.
c) Incidence in exposed is higher than These people are then followed-up for
unexposed several years to see whether their eating
d) Relative risk is significant habits will predict their risk of developing
Colon cancer - This is an example of
5. If the odds of exposure among cases is a) Case-control study
lower than the odds of exposure among b) Clinical trial
the controls, the odds ratio will be c) Cross-sectional study
a) More than 1 d) Cohort study
b) Less than 1
c) It depends on other factors 11. Exposure is assigned by the investigator
d) None of the above in
which of the following epidemiological
6. All babies born in a particular year will study?
form a birth cohort a) Case-control

31
[Type here]

b) Cross-sectional iv. Appropriate for studying rare

c) Experimental diseases
d) Cohort a) Both (i) and (ii)
b) Both (iii) and (iv)
12. When a group of people with defined c) Both (ii) and (iv)
characteristics are followed up to d) Both (ii) and (iii)
determine incidence is known as
a) Case series 17. Which of the following statement
b) Cohort regarding the cohort study is FALSE?
c) Case control a) Suitable to study a disease with long
d) Experimental latency period
b) Loss to follow up can introduce bias
13. Relative risk is a c) Relative risk can be calculated
a) Rate d) Temporal association with the risk
b) Ratio factor can be established
c) Proportion
d) None of the above 18. Odds ratio of more than one indicates
a) Odds of exposure among cases is
14. Relative risk of one in a cohort study lower than the odds of exposure
indicates among the controls
a) Incidence in unexposed is higher than b) Odds of exposure among cases is
exposed equal to the odds of exposure among
b) Incidence in exposed is higher than the controls
unexposed c) Odds of exposure among cases is
c) Relative risk is significant higher than the odds of exposure
d) Incidence in the exposed and among the controls
unexposed groups are same d) Exposure is negatively associated with
the disease
15. Women aged above 35 years were
screened for the HPV (Human papilloma 19. If there is a comparison group in an
virus) infection and those who had HPV epidemiological study design, it is called
infection were then followed for several a) Descriptive
years to predict the risk of developing b) Analytical
cervical cancer. This study is known as c) Ecological
a) Prospective cohort d) None of the above
b) Retrospective cohort
c) Case control 20. Which of the following statements about
d) Cross sectional case control/cohort studies is correct?
a) Case control study always establishes
16. Which of the following is appropriate temporal association
regarding a cohort study? b) Cohort study establishes temporal
i. Multiple exposures can be association
examined c) Cohort has lower level of evidence
ii. Appropriate for studying rare than case-control
exposures d) Do case control for rare exposures
iii. Expensive and time consuming and cohort for rare diseases

32
[Type here]

considered as exposed and

21. To determine the associated factors of nonhypertensives as non-exposed. The
anti-hypertensive drug compliance, an study found an odds ratio of 1.45. Which
investigator selected 384 participants of the following is correct?
with hypertension who were undergoing a) Psoriasis is positively associated with
treatment in a tertiary care hospital. The hypertension
investigator collected the details on the b) Odds of hypertension among
socio-economic background of the psoriasis patients is lower than the
participants and took history regarding odds of hypertension among patients
the consumption of medicines in the past without psoriasis
two weeks. Then the drug compliant c) Odds of psoriasis among hypertensive
group and the non-compliant group were patients is lower than the odds of
compared to identify factors associated psoriasis among non-hypertensives
with drug compliance. What is the type of d) Hypertension is a causative factor of
the study design? psoriasis
a) Case control study
b) Prospective cohort study 24. A prospective cohort study was
c) Case study conducted to determine the association
d) Analytical cross-sectional study between coffee consumption and risk of
pancreatitis among 10000 healthy
22. A gynaecology resident intends to participants. Among the participants
determine the association between 3500 participants consumed coffee,
intrauterine whereas 6500 participants did not. After
device (IUD) use and risk of a follow up of 10 years 85 participants in
extrauterine pregnancy. The investigator the coffee consumption group developed
recruited 100 cases of extrauterine pancreatitis, whereas among the noncoffee
pregnancy and 200 participants who had consumption group 130 in
intrauterine pregnancy as controls from developed pancreatitis. Calculate the
the obstetrics ward of a tertiary care relative risk of pancreatitis due to coffee
hospital over a period of 2 years. Both consumption.
cases and controls were interviewed a) 0.04
about the history of IUD use. Among the b) 0.85
cases, 6 participants had history of IUD c) 1.21
use and among controls, 4 had history of d) 1.50
IUD use. Calculate the odds ratio of
extrauterine pregnancies among women 25. All the following are elements of a
with history of IUD use? cohort
a) 0.32 study, EXCEPT
b) 1.39 a) It involves calculation of incidence
c) 3.12 rate
d) 0.72 b) It proceeds from exposure to
outcome
23. An investigator conducted a case control c) It involves randomization of
study with psoriasis patients as cases and participants
other skin disease patients as controls. d) It involves follow-up of the
Those having hypertension were participants

33
[Type here]

b) Selection of cases should be based on

26. All the following are limitations of a the exposure status
case c) Inclusion of prevalent cases can save
control study, EXCEPT time and money
a) It can introduce recall bias d) Inclusion of prevalent cases may
b) Incidence of disease cannot be introduce survivor bias
determined
c) Selection of appropriate control 30. A multicentric study was conducted to
group may be difficult determine the association between
d) It can introduce attrition bias diabetes and cataract. The investigators
recruited 1000 diabetics and 2500
27. Using medical records from a tertiary nondiabetics.
care The participants were
cancer hospital, a researcher collected examined to exclude presence of cataract
data on occupational exposure and lung at the time of recruitment. They were
carcinoma on patients admitted between followed once yearly for 10 years to
2000 and 2010. He classified the patients document the development of cataract.
who had history of working in coal mines The study found that the incidence of
as exposed and others as unexposed. He cataract among diabetics was more when
then compared the frequency of lung compared with the non-diabetics.
carcinoma among the exposed and the Identify the study design in this study?
unexposed. What best describes the a) Cross-sectional study
study design? b) Case control study
a) Case control study c) Prospective cohort study
b) Retrospective cohort study d) Experimental study
c) Cross-sectional study
d) Analytical cross-sectional study 31) A study was conducted to determine the
factors associated with malnutrition in
28. A paediatrician recruited 120 children under-5 children. The researcher screened
with Crohn’s disease and their matched 350 children from 25 randomly selected
sibling controls. The researcher collected villages. Among them 150 children were
history of exclusive breastfeeding (EBF) either underweight and/or stunted. Socio-
from the mothers. Presence/ absence of demographic characteristics, birth history,
EBF was compared between the diseased and childhood clinical history were recorded
and the non-diseased children. Identify for the screened children. What is the type
the study design in this research? of the study design used here?
a) Case series a) Descriptive cross-sectional study
b) Cross-sectional study b) Analytical cross-sectional study
c) Case control study c) Case control study
d) Cohort study d) Prospective cohort study

29. Which of the following is INCORRECT 32) A gynaecology resident intends to

about selection of cases in case control determine the association between pre-
study? pregnancy weight and the risk of
a) Cases are study participants who had preeclampsia. The investigator recruited 50
the disease in the source population women diagnosed with preeclampsia as

34
[Type here]

cases and 50 women without preeclampsia disease. Among participants with age-
as controls in a tertiary care hospital. Both related macular degeneration, 25 had history
cases and controls were interviewed and of coronary artery disease while among
asked about their pre-pregnancy weight and those without age-related macular
height. The pre-pregnancy body mass index degeneration, only 10 had history of
(BMI) was calculated for all. Among the coronary artery disease. Identify the study
cases, 15 women with preeclampsia and 5 design in this case?
women without preeclampsia had BMI > 25 a) Cross-sectional study
kg/m2. Calculate the odds ratio for the b) Case control study
association between preeclampsia and BMI. c) Prospective cohort study
a) 1.1 d) Experimental study
b) 1.5
c) 2.8 36) A cohort study was conducted to
d) 3.8 examine the association between anemia and
incidence of dementia in patients with newly
33) Which of the following is correct about diagnosed type 2 diabetes mellitus. The
selection of cases in case-control study? study included 4000 participants aged more
a) Cases are the study participants in the than 30 years who were diagnosed with type
source population who are exposed 2 diabetes between 2006 and 2010 and were
b) Selection of cases and controls should be followed up until 2019. Anemia status was
based on the exposure recorded at the time of enrolment into the
c) Including incident cases in case-control study and development of dementia was
study can save time and money recorded between 2011 and 2019. At the end
d) Including prevalent cases may lead to of the study period, 200 diabetics developed
survival bias dementia in total. Among those with
dementia 90 were diagnosed with anaemia
34) Which of the following is an element of while among those without dementia, 1400
a case control study? had anemia. Calculate the measure of
a) It starts with selection of study association between dementia and anemia in
participants who are exposed type 2 diabetics.
b) It involves matching of cases with a) 1.0
controls b) 1.4
c) It includes randomization of cases and c) 2.1
controls d) 2.5
d) It involves prospective follow up of the
cases and controls 37) In 2020, a study was conducted by a
researcher to determine the relationship
35) A study was conducted to determine the between implanted medical devices and
association between coronary artery disease connective tissue diseases. The researcher
and age-related macular degeneration in selected 5000 individuals who had a medical
people aged 60 years or more. The device implanted between 2000 and 2002
investigators included 150 participants with from the medical records department of a
age-related macular degeneration and 150 hospital. These patients’ records were
participants without age-related macular followed upto the year 2019 for a diagnosis
degeneration. The participants were of connective tissue disease. It was observed
interviewed for major risk factors for the that 20% of the individual with medical

35
[Type here]

devices had developed a connective tissue

disease. Identify the study design in this 41) The following are true about a case-
case. control study EXCEPT:
a) Cross-sectional study a) It is suitable for examining rare
b) Case control study exposures
c) Prospective cohort study b) It can be completed in a shorter
d) Retrospective cohort study duration
c) It is relatively inexpensive to
38) All of the following are true about conduct
cohort study EXCEPT d) It is prone to information bias due
a) It is can be expensive and time to problems in recall
consuming
b) It is appropriate for diseases with long 42) A researcher is following up a group of
latency period workers employed in aniline dye industry
c) Incidence of disease can be determined for 20 years to assess development of skin
d) Loss to follow up can introduce bias cancers. The comparison group consisted of
workers employed in clerical job. The
39) All of the following are types of incidence of skin cancers was compared
analytical studies EXCEPT between the study groups. This is an
a) Case study example of _________________.
b) Case control study a) Cross-sectional study
c) Experimental study b) Cohort study
d) Cohort study c) Case-control study
d) Ecological study
40) An investigator conducted a cohort
study to determine the association between 43) A relative risk of one would denote
exposure to second-hand smoke during that ______________.
childhood and asthma in adulthood. The a) The incidence among non-
study reported a relative risk of 2.1 between exposed is higher than the incidence
asthma and exposure to second-hand smoke. among exposed
Which of the following interpretation is b) The exposure is positively
correct? associated with the disease
a) The incidence of asthma in children c) The incidence among exposed is
exposed to second-hand smoke is lower same as the incidence among the
than the children not exposed to second- unexposed
hand smoke d) The incidence among exposed is
b) The incidence of asthma in children higher than the incidence among
exposed to second-hand smoke is higher non-exposed
than the children not exposed to second-
hand smoke 44) Which of the following information
c) The incidence of second-hand smoke is about cohort study is INCORRECT?
lower in children with asthma than in a) Study population can be selected
children without asthma from the general population or
d) The incidence of second-hand smoke is subgroups
higher in children with asthma than in b) Exposure status of the
children without asthma participants is collected at the

36
[Type here]

baseline a) Cohort study

c) Individuals who had outcome b) Case-control study
of interest at the baseline will c) Cross-sectional study
form the cohort d) Retrospective study
d) Follow-up and outcome
ascertainment in the exposed and 48) Persons diagnosed with COVID-19
the unexposed groups should be disease in a hospital were asked for
uniform COVID-19 vaccination status. An
equal number of patients without
45) In a cohort study, 29 out of 1530 COVID-19 disease were asked for
individuals who received COVID- COVID-19 vaccination status, and
19 vaccine and 217 out of 1880 the responses in the two groups
individuals who did not get COVID- were compared. The appropriate
19 vaccine developed severe measure of association in this study
COVID-19. The suitable measure of would be:
association in the above study a) Risk ratio
is_________________. b) Incidence density
a) Relative risk of 0.16 c) Odds ratio
b) Odds ratio of 0.14 d) Prevalence ratio
c) Prevalence ratio of 0.14
d) Relative risk of 0.14 49) A researcher intends to determine
the association between salt intake
46) All of the following are true and hypertension. 100 out of the 600
regarding selection of participants in hypertension patients and 40 out of
a case control study EXCEPT: 600 patients without hypertension
a) Controls should represent the had high salt intake. Calculate the
distribution of exposure in the odds ratio for the association
source population between salt intake and
b) Controls are selected from the hypertension.
same source population that gave a) 2.2
rise to the cases b) 2.5
c) Controls are selected c) 3.3
depending on their exposure d) 3.8
status
d) Controls can be selected from 50) Which among the following is an
population or health care facility or advantage of cohort study compared
from the neighbourhood of cases to a case-control study?
a) Incidence of the disease can be
47) A researcher wants to determine the calculated
risk factors for Mucormycosis b) Less prone to loss to follow-up
among patients who had COVID- of participants
19. Steroid usage was compared c) Less costly and less time
between patients who developed and consuming
those who did not develop d) They are suitable for studying
Mucormycosis. This is an example rare disease
of a ______________

37
[Type here]

6. Double-blinding in a clinical trial

involves
Assignment 7: Experimental study a) Participants before and after study
b) Participants and investigators
designs: clinical trials c) Investigators and analysts
1. One of the cornerstones of the d) Participants and analysis
randomized
controlled trials is 7. The purpose of a double-blinding in a
a) Recruitment clinical
b) Randomization trial is to
c) Blinding a) Achieve comparability of all arms of a
d) Placebo clinical trial
b) Avoid observer and participant bias
2. Randomized clinical trials can be best c) Avoid observer bias and sampling
described as variation
a) Experimental studies d) Avoid subject bias and sampling
b) Analytic studies variation
c) Descriptive studies
d) Observational studies 8. What is the purpose of randomization in a
clinical trial?
3. Which of the following is/are true in a a) Get better power for data analysis
clinical trial? b) Generalizing the study findings to the
a) Sample size determination population which is not studied
b) Approval from regulatory authority c) Achieve balance in baseline
c) Agreement between the investigators characteristics
and sponsors d) Guarantee that the statistical tests have
d) All of the above valid significance levels

4. A pharmacologically inactive agent that 9. Which phase of a clinical trial is referred

investigators administer to participants in to
the control group of a trial as post-marketing surveillance?
a) Comparator drug a) Phase 1
b) Placebo b) Phase 2
c) Conjugate c) Phase 3
d) Drug under investigation d) Phase 4

5. Key methodological components of a 10. Long-term adverse effects and efficacy

Randomized Controlled Trials are of a
a) Use of a control to which the new drug can be tested in which of the
experimental intervention is compared following phases of a clinical trial?
b) Random assignment of participants to a) Phase 1
intervention b) Phase 2
c) Taking informed consent from all study c) Phase 3
participants d) Phase 4
d) All of the above

38
[Type here]

11. Which of the following is incorrect in researchers being able to influence the
case of data due to knowledge of allocated
a clinical trial? groups
a) All clinical trials must be blinded
b) Randomization is a critically important 15. Biased outcome ascertainment results
step in a clinical trial from:
c) All clinical trials must be approved by a) Participants reporting symptoms or
Institutional Ethics Committee before outcomes differently
initiation b) Investigators eliciting symptoms or
d) It is mandatory to register clinical trials outcomes following a standardized
with Clinical Trials Registry of India technique
c) None of the above
12. Which of the following procedures d) Both "a" and "b"
ensure
safety of the clinical trial participants? 16. In a clinical trial, what is the main
a. Adverse events reporting purpose of
b. Serious adverse events reporting randomization?
c. Periodic follow-up a) To get more power for data analysis
d. Review by Data Safety Monitoring Board b) To reduce investigator bias
1) 'a', 'b', 'c', and 'd' c) To get groups with comparable
2) 'a', 'b' and 'd' baseline
characteristics
13. All the following correctly describe a d) To ensure optimum number of
clinical participants in each trial arm
trial, except
a) It has all advantages of a cohort study 17. Which of the following can eliminate the
b) It is possible to analyze the confounders problem of Co-intervention?
c) Loss to follow up of study participants a) Random sampling
does not affect the study outcome b) Allocation concealment
d) Appropriate implemented informed c) Informed consent
consent procedure as well as long-term d) Blinding
care and support to trial participants help
to overcome several ethical concerns 18. Which of the following is not true in
case of
14. Which of the following can be a clinical trial?
considered as a) Clinical trials are planned experiments
an advantage of a double blinding in a designed to assess the efficacy of an
randomized controlled trial? intervention
a) Equally distributes known and unknown b) Clinical trials usually involve comparing
confounders in experiment and control the outcomes in two or more groups of
arm individuals
b) Ensures that participants adhere to the c) Clinical trials are usually free from
protocol selection bias
c) Gives benefits of an intervention to d) Clinical trials are usually prospective in
some of the study participants nature
d) Prevent bias that arises from

39
[Type here]

19. Which of the following trials assesses a) Screening RCT

effectiveness of a new vaccine? b) Diagnostic RCT
a) Phase 1 trial done in healthy volunteers c) Therapeutic RCT
b) Phase 2 trial done in a susceptible d) Prophylactic RCT
population
c) Phase 3 trial done in healthy volunteers 24. In which type of population is a phase-I
d) Phase 3 trial done in a susceptible vaccine trial conducted?
population a) Healthy volunteers
b) High risk group
20. Which of the following is not true about c) Diseased population
a d) Laboratory animals
randomized control trial?
a) Baseline characteristics of intervention 25. State whether true or false.
and control groups must be similar Randomization is
b) Investigator bias can be minimized by a process, where the participants have an
double blinding equal chance of being assigned to any one of
c) The sample size depends on the the study groups.
hypothesis being tested a) True
d) Drop outs should be excluded from the b) False
analysis
26. Which of the following is NOT an
21. State whether true or false. In a advantage
randomized of randomized controlled trials?
controlled trial, the investigator is unaware a) Provides high quality evidence
of the sequence of allocation of the b) Controls for selection and confounding
participants to one of the study arms before bias
and until the assignment is complete. This c) Establishes temporality of association
process is known as allocation concealment. d) Entails minimal ethical issues
a) True
b) False 27. Post-marketing surveillance is done in
which
22. Which of the following is NOT a feature of the clinical trial phases?
of a) Phase 1
randomized controlled trials? b) Phase 2
a) Simple random sampling c) Phase 3
b) Randomization d) Phase 4
c) Allocation concealment
d) Blinding 28. State whether true or false. Randomized
controlled trials are retrospective in nature.
23. A research group from a medical college a) True
in b) False
Lucknow conducted a study to assess the
efficacy of a new herbal medicine for the 29. In a clinical trial conducted by the
prevention of pneumonia in elderly. What Orthopaedic department of a medical
type of randomized controlled trial is this college
study? in Bhubaneshwar, the investigators

40
[Type here]

compared the wound healing time between

conventional suturing technique and stapling 34) In which type of population is a phase-I
technique for open fractures. The vaccine trial conducted?
investigators, patients and data analysts a) Healthy volunteers
were aware about the treatment assignment. b) High risk group
What best describes this study design? c) Diseased population
a) Open-label RCT d) Laboratory animals
b) Single blind RCT
c) Double blind RCT 35) State whether true or false.
d) Triple blind RCT Randomization is a process, where the
participants have an equal chance of being
30. Blinding in a randomized controlled trial assigned to any one of the study groups.
addresses which of the following biases? a) True
a) Ascertainment bias b) False
b) Recall bias
c) Volunteer bias 36) Which of the following is NOT an
d) Attrition bias advantage of randomized controlled trials?
a) Provides the highest level of evidence
31) State whether True or False. In a b) Controls for selection and confounding
randomized controlled trial, the investigator bias
is unaware of the sequence of allocation of c) Establishes temporality of association
the participants to one of the study arms d) Entails minimal ethical issues
before and until the assignment is complete. 37) Post-marketing surveillance is done in
This process is known as allocation which of the clinical trial phases?
concealment. a) Phase 1
a) True b) Phase 2
b) False c) Phase 3
d) Phase 4
32) Which of the following is NOT a
feature of randomized controlled 38) State whether true or false. Randomized
trials? controlled trials are retrospective in nature.
a) Simple random sampling a) True
b) Randomization b) False
c) Allocation concealment
d) Blinding 39) In a clinical trial conducted by the
Orthopaedic department of a medical
33)A research group from a medical college college in Bhubaneshwar, the investigators
in Lucknow conducted a study to assess the compared the wound healing time between
efficacy of a new herbal medicine for the conventional suturing technique and stapling
prevention of pneumonia in elderly. What technique for open fractures. The
type of randomized controlled trial is this investigators, patients and data analysts were
study? aware about the treatment assignment. What
a) Screening RCT best describes this study design?
b) Diagnostic RCT a) Open-label RCT
c) Therapeutic RCT b) Single blind RCT
d) Prophylactic RCT c) Double blind RCT

41
[Type here]

d) Triple blind RCT However, the investigators and data

analysts were aware about the
40) Blinding in a randomized controlled trial treatment allocation. Therefore, this
addresses which of the following biases? randomized controlled trial would be
a) Ascertainment bias considered as __________.
b) Recall bias a) Double blinded
c) Volunteer bias b) Triple blinded
d) Attrition bias c) Single blinded
d) None of the above
41)State whether true or false. In a
randomized controlled trial, the investigator 46) State whether true or false.
is unaware of the sequence of allocation of Participants are randomized in a
the participants to one of the study arms randomized controlled trial to ensure
before and until the assignment is complete. that the groups are similar apart from
This process is known as ‘Blinding’. the intervention.
a) True a) True
b) False b) False
42) The following are a feature of
randomized controlled trials 47) In a randomized controlled trial,
EXCEPT overly restrictive exclusion criteria
a) Randomization may result in which of the
b) Simple random sampling following?
c) Allocation concealment a) Decreased external validity
d) Blinding b) Decreased internal validity
c) Problems with recruitment
43) State whether true or false. d) Both ‘Decreased external
Randomized controlled trials are validity’ and ‘Problems with
prospective in nature. recruitment’
a) True
b) False 48) A pharmacologically inactive agent
that investigators administer to
44) A research group from a medical participants in the control group of a
college in Chandigarh conducted a randomized controlled trial is called
study to assess the efficacy of a new as:
vaccine for the prevention of a) Comparator drug
COVID-19 among children. What b) Conjugate
type of randomized controlled trial is c) Placebo
this study? d) Drug under investigation
a) ScreeningRCT
b) Diagnostic RCT 49) External validity of an experiment
c) Therapeutic RCT refers to which of the following?
d) Prophylactic RCT a) Results have been obtained from
cross cultural studies
45) In a clinical trial of an investigational b) Results are generalizable to the
new drug, the participants were general population
blinded to their treatment allocation. c) Experiments were performed in

42
[Type here]

the laboratory
d) Results are replicable 4. The effect of the exposure of interest on
the
50) In a clinical trial, the study outcome is distorted because of the effect of
investigators compared a new extraneous factors that are related to both
analgesic with placebo for the the exposure and outcome. This
control of pain in arthritis. The phenomenon is called
investigators and patients were not a) Correlation effect
aware about the treatment b) Confounding
assignment. What best describes this c) Recall bias
study design? d) Measurement error
a) Open-label RCT
b) Single blind RCT 5. Biases can occur during which stage of
c) Double blind RCT research study?
d) Triple blind RCT a) Study design
b) Study implementation
c) Data analysis
Assignment 8: Validity of d) At any of the above stages
epidemiological studies
6. All are true regarding measures to reduce
information bias, EXCEPT
1. Obtaining an estimate that is a) Precise operational definitions of all
generalizable to variables
relevant study population in a research study b) Detailed measurement protocols
is c) Adequate sample size
a) External validity d) Training, Certification and re-certification
b) Internal validity of data collectors
c) Bias
d) Confounding 7. Variability in estimation due to
unknown/uncontrollable factors
2. Any process that tends to produce results a) Chance
that depart systematically from true values b) Bias
in c) Confounding
a research study d) Effect modification
a) Chance
b) Bias 8. All are true regarding confounding in an
c) Random error epidemiological study, EXCEPT
d) Effect Modification a) May simulate an association that does
not exist
3. Systematic selection of more number of b) May increase or decrease the strength of
expose participants with the higher risk of association
outcome in a cohort study will result in c) May not reveal an association that does
a) Selection bias exist
b) Information bias d) Always change the direction of effect
c) Confounding
d) Random error 9. The method which can used to alleviate

43
[Type here]

confounding during data analysis in an d) Consistency

epidemiological study
a) Multivariate analysis 15. Bias may distort the association between
b) Restriction exposure and outcome among the study
c) Matching participants
d) Randomization a) True
b) False
10. To reduce selection bias in case-control
studies, all of the following are true 16. A case control study was conducted to
EXCEPT know
a) Use population based design the effect of smoking on lung cancer among
b) Apply different eligibility criteria for hospitalized patients. The controls were
selecting cases and controls recruited from patients admitted to the
c) Both cases and controls undergo the respiratory ward for other conditions. What
same diagnostic procedures type of bias will be introduced by virtue of
d) Avoid hospital based design recruiting controls from the hospital who are
potentially different from the general
11. Obtaining an accurate estimate of population?
disease a) Selection bias
frequency and effect of exposure on health b) Information bias
outcomes in study population pertains to c) Confounding
a) External Validity d) Random error
b) Internal Validity
c) Bias 17. A researcher studied the effect of coffee
d) Confounding drinking on Myocardial Infarction. The
effect
12. Blinding in an epidemiological study is a of coffee drinking on Myocardial Infarction
way was distorted because of the presence of a
to deal with third factor, ie. smoking. This phenomenon
a) Chance is
b) Selection Bias called as
c) Information Bias a) Correlation effect
d) Sampling Error b) Confounding
c) Recall bias
13. Better recall of exposure only among the d) Measurement error
cases in a case control study can result in
a) Information bias 18. Which of the following method is used
b) Confounding to
c) Investigator bias address for known confounders at the
d) Selection bias designing stage of a study
a) Matching
14. The ability of a tool to correctly measure b) Regression
what it is supposed to measure is called as c) Stratification
a) Precision d) Adjusted analysis
b) Validity
c) Reliability

44
[Type here]

19. Systematic distortion of the truth by the exposed group

study b) It can be caused by selecting controls
subjects is called as from the community
a) Plagiarism c) It can be avoided by uniform outcome
b) Chance ascertainment
c) Confounding d) It can be minimised by reducing loss to
d) Prevarication follow-up

20. Crude association in the presence of a 25. Which of the following is NOT a
confounder is the actual causal association systematic
a) True error in an epidemiological study?
b) False a) Random error
b) Confounding
21. Which of the following is the best c) Selection bias
method of d) Information bias
ensuring that the experimental and control
arms in an experimental study are similar 26. Which of the following measure is
with regard to known and unknown related to
confounders at the planning stage? ensuring the internal validity of a study?
a) Matching a) Using a validated study questionnaire to
b) Randomization assess outcomes
c) Stratification b) Including an adequate number of study
d) Multivariate analysis participants
c) Complying strictly with the study
22. When the study finding is generalizable protocol
to the d) All the above
target population, then it is
a) Internally valid 27. Which of the following is FALSE about
b) Reliable confounding in epidemiological studies?
c) Accurate a) Confounding may simulate an association
d) Externally valid when it does not exist
b) Confounding does not increase or
23. Which of the following can introduce decrease the strength of the association
selection bias in a case control study? c) Confounding may hide an association that
a) Differential recall about exposure by the exists
cases d) Confounding may change the direction of
b) Collecting data differently from the an exposure-outcome association
exposed and unexposed
c) Inclusion of controls not representative 28. Systematic collection of data by an
of the target population investigator supporting an expected
d) Systematic distortion of the truth by the conclusion in an epidemiological study may
study participants result in
a) Confounding
24. Which of the following is TRUE about b) Information bias
information bias in a cohort study? c) Selection bias
a) It is caused by higher attrition rate among d) Random error

45
[Type here]

b) Collecting data differently from the

29. Which of the following is NOT a exposed and unexposed
method of c) Inclusion of controls not representative
dealing with confounding during the design of the target population
stage? d) Systematic distortion of the truth by the
a) Restriction study participants
b) Stratification
c) Matching 34)Which of the following is TRUE about
d) Randomization information bias in a cohort study?
a) It is caused by higher attrition rate among
30. A cohort study was conducted to the exposed group
examine the b) It can be caused by selecting controls
association between obesity and from the community
cardiovascular disease. During analysis, c) It can be avoided by uniform outcome
gender was suspected to be a confounder. ascertainment
Which of the following methods will help in d) It can be minimised by reducing loss to
examining the confounding effect due to follow-up
gender?
a) Matching 35)Which of the following is NOT a
b) Restriction systematic error in an epidemiological
c) Randomization study?
d) Multivariate regression a) Random error
b) Confounding
31) Which of the following is the best c) Selection bias
method of ensuring that the d) Information bias
experimental and control arms in a
experiment study are similar with 36) Which of the following measure is
regard to known and unknown related to ensuring the internal validity of a
confounders at the planning stage? study?
a) Matching a) Using a validated study questionnaire to
b) Randomization assess outcomes
c) Stratification b) Including an adequate number of study
d) Multivariate analysis participants
c) Complying strictly with the study
32) When the study findings are protocol
generalizable to the target population, d) All the above
the study is considered to be-
a) Internally valid 37) Which of the following is FALSE about
b) Reliable confounding in epidemiological studies?
c) Accurate a) Confounding may simulate an
d) Externally valid association when it does not exist
b) Confounding does not increase or
33) Which of the following can introduce decrease the strength of the association
selection bias in a case control study? c) Confounding may hide an association
a) Differential recall about exposure by the that exists
cases d) Confounding may change the direction

46
[Type here]

of an exposure-outcome association d) Accuracy

38) Intentional collection of data by an 43) The estimates that researchers produce
investigator supporting an expected are based on samples, and samples may not
conclusion in an epidemiological study may accurately reflect what is really going on in
result in- the population. Which of the following
a) Confounding threats to validity does it results in?
b) Information bias a) Random error
c) Selection bias b) Systematic error
d) Random error c) Confounding
d) Effect modification
39)Which of the following is NOT a method
of dealing with confounding during the 44) A researcher planned a prospective
design stage? study on healthy eating habits among
a) Restriction adolescents. If the people who have healthy
b) Stratification lifestyles and healthy behaviours were more
c) Matching likely to participate in the study, due to the
d) Randomization proposed study method, what bias is likely
to occur?
40)In a cohort study to examine the a) Information bias
association between obesity and b) Selection bias
cardiovascular disease, gender was c) Measurement bias
suspected to be a confounder. Which of the d) Confounding bias
following methods will help in examining
the confounding effect due to gender? 45) Missing data can result in which of the
a) Matching following?
b) Restriction a) Selection bias
c) Randomisation b) Loss to follow up bias
d) Multivariate regression c) Information bias
d) Volunteer bias
41)What is the term used to denote
generalizability of the study results to target 46) What is the term used to denote
population? ‘Association between exposure and outcome
a) Internal validity among the study participants differs from
b) External validity the causal association in the population’?
c) Precision a) Errors in estimation
d) Credibility b) Effect modification
c) Precision
42) A researcher measures blood pressure d) Causal association
using a sphygmomanometer on three
different occasions. The values were found 47) Which of the following method can be
to be close to one another. What is the term used to control confounding at the analysis
used to denote this phenomenon? stage?
a) Reliable a) Restriction
b) Valid b) Matching
c) Precision c) Stratification

47
[Type here]

d) Randomization observation
b) Focus Group Discussions and In-depth
48) Which of the following is a method to interviews
deal with information bias? c) Participant Observation and focus group
a) Repeated measurements on key discussions
variables d) Structure interviews and surveys
b) Minimize non-response
c) Comparison of baseline variables 2. Which of the following study designs can
d) Sensitivity analysis be
used as a tool a generate ideas/hypotheses?
49) Which of the following is a method to a) Qualitative study
deal with selection bias? b) Case-control study
a) Precise operation definition of variables c) Experimental study
b) Detailed measurement protocols d) Cohort study
c) Training data collectors
d) Apply same eligibility criteria across 3. The qualitative data analysis method in
groups which investigators code text into categories
and build theoretical models
50) A researcher wanted to know if treating a) Content analysis
index osteoporotic vertebral fractures with b) Grounded theory
vertebroplasty increased the risk of c) Schema analysis
subsequent vertebral fractures. A total of d) Hermeneutics
500 patients were included of whom, 250
underwent vertebroplasty while the 4. Open-ended, one-to-one interviews to
remaining underwent the conventional discover interviewee's own framework of
standard of care. The study population was meanings
stratified to check whether the significant a) In-depth Interviews
association (RR=2) found in the study was b) Focus Group Discussions
true or not. On comparison, the participants c) Participant observation
had similar age and gender characteristics. d) Structured interviews
The researchers conducted a stratified
analysis based on smoking. The estimate 5. Audio recordings during Focus Group
(RR=1) was same in both groups. What does Discussions
this indicate? a) Can be done without any prior informed
a) Effect modification written consent
b) Interaction b) Cannot be done
c) Confounding c) Should always be done
d) Random error d) Can be done with prior informed
consent

Assignment 9: Qualitative research 6. All of the following are situations in

which
studies: An overview qualitative research methods can be used,
1)Which methods in qualitative research use EXCEPT
flexible interview guide? a) Familiar and sufficiently researched
a) In depth Interviews and participant matter

48
[Type here]

b) To seek the depth of understanding interpretation of responses

c) Exploration of behaviors d) Objective, credible, inductive and
d) View the social phenomenon holistically interpretation of responses

7. The main methods used in qualitative 12. The research method which is best suited
research method include all EXCEPT for
a) In-depth Interviews collection of information regarding highly
b) Focus Group Discussions sensitive matters such as alcohol use
c) Participant observation a) Focus Group Discussions
d) Structured questionnaire based b) Participant Observation
interviews c) In-Depth Interview
d) Group discussions
8. The observer becomes a part of the group
or 13. Which of the following is not the utility
event in this method of qualitative study of
a) In-depth Interviews qualitative research
b) Focus Group Discussions a) To provide insight to why people behave
c) Participant observation in a certain way
d) Structured interviews b) To estimate the prevalence of disease
c) To help understand the results of a
9. All the statements regarding Participant quantitative study
Observation is true EXCEPT d) For developing a questionnaire
a) Observer becomes a part of the
event/group 14. Which of the following statement is true
b) Systematic collection of data is easy regarding Participant Observation
c) Analytic methods for observation are not a) Observer becomes a part of the
well described event/group
d) Data is very detailed b) Systematic collection of data is easy
c) Analytic methods for observation are well
10. The qualitative data analysis method described
which d) Data is brief as compared to in-depth
uses theoretical framework as the basis for interviews
analysis
a) Content analysis 15. Open ended group interviews that
b) Grounded theory promotes
c) Schema Analysis discussion among participants is called as
d) Hermeneutics a) In depth Interviews
b) Focus Group Discussions
11. Which of the following are c) Participant Observation
characteristics of d) Structured interviews
qualitative research methods?
a) Objective, measurable, reliable and 16. A researcher decided to conduct a study
repeatable to
b) Subjective, measurable, credible and explore the child feeding practices among
repeatable mothers of under five children in a
c) Subjective, credible, inductive and community. Which of the following

49
[Type here]

qualitative techniques can the researcher related to qualitative research data?

employ to gather wide range of information a) Subjective validity
on the topic in a short span of time? b) Data is in text form
a) Structured interview c) Hypothesis testing is a goal
b) In depth Interview d) It involves interpretation of responses
c) Participant Observation
d) Focus Group Discussion 22. Which of the following CANNOT be
done
17. In qualitative research, researchers using qualitative research?
interpret a) Viewing a social phenomenon holistically
the social reality from the participants’ point b) Estimating the burden of a disease
of view. c) Seeking in-depth understanding of a
a) True phenomenon
b) False d) Unfamiliar subject matter

18. Which of the following statements is 23. A researcher wants to estimate the
“Incorrect” about in-depth interviews? prevalence of exclusive breast feeding in a
a) Findings are always generalizable remote tribal population. She also wants to
b) The transcripts are time consuming to understand the myths and taboos
analyze associated with breast feeding. Which of the
c) Helps understand sensitive issues following approaches can be employed in
d) Useful when participants are this scenario?
knowledgeable on a particular topic a) Qualitative study
b) Clinical trial
19. Which of the following statement is c) Mixed-methods study
“False” d) Cross-sectional study
about focus group discussion.
a) Focus group discussions help understand 24. Which of the following is NOT a data
local terminologies collection method used in qualitative
b) Group interaction is integral for an research?
effective discussion a) Interviews
c) Heterogeneity of the group is a b) Sociogram
prerequisite c) Participant observation
d) Audio and video recordings are done with d) Focus group discussion
prior consent
25. Which of the following is NOT a feature
20. Triangulation is the use of multiple of
methods, ‘In-depth interviews’?
multiple theories and or multiple sources for a) It involves two or more participants at
a comprehensive understanding of the topic a
in question time
a) True b) It follows an interview guide
b) False c) It is suitable for a highly sensitive topic
d) It obtains rich contextualized information
21. Which of the following characteristics is
NOT

50
[Type here]

26. Which of the following is an advantage d) It involves interpretation of responses

of
conducting ‘in-depth interviews’? 32) Which of the following cannot be done
a) It expresses the ‘Emic’ perspective using qualitative research?
b) It is generalizable a) Viewing a social phenomenon
c) It is a quick process holistically
d) It uses a systematic sampling approach b) Estimating the burden of a disease
c) Seeking in-depth understanding of a
27. State whether true or false. In a focus phenomenon
group d) Unfamiliar subject matter
discussion, it is easy to obtain personal
behaviors on a sensitive issue 33)A researcher wants to estimate the
a) True prevalence of exclusive breast feeding in a
b) False remote tribal population. She also wants to
understand the myths and taboos associated
28. Which of the following is TRUE with breast feeding. Which of the following
regarding approaches can be employed in this
‘participant observation’ method? scenario?
a) It is easy to analyze the data a) Qualitative study
b) The researcher himself becomes a part b) Clinical trial
of the study group c) Mixed-methods study
c) Data obtained is very concise d) Cross-sectional study
d) The researcher interviews each
participant in detail 34) Which of the following is NOT a data
collection method used in qualitative
29. State whether true or false. Data research?
obtained a) Interviews
from Focus Group Discussion may be b) Sociogram
sensitive to biased analysis. c) Participant observation
a) True d) Focus group discussion
b) False
35)Which of the following is NOT a feature
30. The analytical approach where the of ‘In-depth interviews’?
researcher proceeds to develop a theory a) It involves two or more participants at
based on learnings obtained from the data is a time
called b) It follows an interview guide
a) Grounded theory analysis c) It is suitable for a highly sensitive topic
b) Content analysis d) It obtains rich contextualized information
c) Schema analysis
d) Factor analysis 36) Which of the following is an advantage
of conducting ‘in-depth interviews’?
31) Which of the following characteristics is a) It expresses the ‘Emic’ perspective
NOT related to qualitative research data? b) It is generalizable
a) Subjective validity c) It is a quick process
b) Data is in text form d) It uses a systematic sampling approach
c) Hypothesis testing is a goal

51
[Type here]

37) State whether true or false. In a focus d) To predict

group discussion, it is easy to obtain
personal behaviours on a sensitive issue 43)Which of the following qualitative
a) True techniques requires homogenous
b) False participants?
a) Focus-group discussion
38) Which of the following is TRUE b) In-depth interview
regarding ‘participant observation’ method? c) Participant observation
a) It is easy to analyze the data d) Key informant interview
b) The researcher himself becomes a part
of the study group 44) A researcher decided to conduct a study
c) Data obtained is very concise on domestic abuse among homemakers in a
d) The researcher interviews each village during the COVID 19 pandemic.
participant in detail Which of the following is an appropriate
method to use for data collection?
39)State whether true or false. Data obtained a) Participant Observation
from Focus Group Discussion may be b) In-depth interview
sensitive to biased analysis. c) Focus group discussion
a) True d) Key informant interview
b) False
45)A researcher conducted a study to know
40) The analytical approach where the the local terminologies and forms of tobacco
researcher proceeds to develop a theory used in a particular community of tobacco
based on learnings obtained from the data is users. Which of the following is an
called- appropriate method for data collection?
a) Grounded theory analysis a) Key informant interview
b) Content analysis b) Grounded theory
c) Schema analysis c) In-depth interview
d) Factor analysis d) Focus group discussion

41)Choose the correct option. The point of 46)A researcher planned a study to know the
view captured in qualitative research is reason for non-compliance to follow up in
________________ drug addiction rehabilitation centres among
a) Participant’s adolescent intra-venous drug users. What is
b) Investigator’s the appropriate method to use for data
c) Investigator’s reflections on participants collection?
point of view a) Key informant interview
d) Participant’s reflections on investigators b) Participant Observation
point of view c) In-depth interview
d) Focus group discussion
42)Which of the following is an action verb
commonly used while framing a qualitative 47)What is the logic of inquiry in qualitative
objective? research?
a) To estimate a) Deductive
b) To determine b) Objective
c) To explore c) Inductive

52
[Type here]

d) Statistical c) Mean
d) Range
48)Which of the following is a method of
analysing qualitative data? 3. First quartile (Q1) is equivalent to
a) Regression analysis __________ percentile
b) Content analysis a) 25th
c) Univariate analysis b) 50th
d) Multivariable analysis c) 75th
d) 1st
49)Which of the following is NOT a pre-
requisite for conducting focus group 4. Find the median in the following sample
discussion? of
a) Homogenous participants observations: 12, 26, 10, 29, 48
b) Group interaction a) 29
c) Personal topics b) 48
d) Flexible interview guide c) 26
d) 25
50)A researcher wanted to conduct a
prospective study on the dietary practices of 5. The following measure is not influenced
toddlers admitted to a nutritional by
rehabilitation centre. Which of the following extreme values in a data set
is an appropriate method for data collection? a) Arithmetic Mean
a) Focus group discussion b) Inter-quartile range
b) Document analysis c) Range
c) Participant observation d) 'b' and 'c'
d) Ethnography
6. Which of the following statistic does not
belong with the others?
a) Range
Assignment 10: Measurement of b) Variance
c) Mode
study variables d) Standard deviation
1. In a study on hypertension, patients are
categorized based on their systolic blood 7. 'Number of children per household' is an
pressure as normal, pre-hypertension, stage example of a continuous variable
1 hypertension and stage 2 hypertension. a) True
What type of variable is this? b) False
a) Qualitative
b) Descriptive 8. In a study, researchers are interested in
c) Nominal measuring the cholesterol levels of
d) Ordinal participants. Cholesterol level is a ________
variable
2. Most commonly used measure of central a) Ordinal
tendency is b) Nominal
a) Mode c) Continuous
b) Median d) Discrete

53
[Type here]

sugar level was measured as 110 mg/dl. The

9. In the following set of data, what is the standard deviation was 11 mg/dl. Calculate
mean? 4,1,9,7,3,8,2,6 the coefficient of variance.
a) 5 a) 20%
b) 4.5 b) 14%
c) 9 c) 10%
d) 8 d) 25%

10. Difference between the minimum value 15. A researcher measures the height of 100
and school going children for his study. What
the maximum value of the observations type
a) Variance of variable is ‘height’?
b) Inter-quartile range a) Nominal
c) Range b) Ordinal
d) Standard Deviation c) Continuous
d) Discrete
11. All the following are measures of
dispersion 16. A chest physician observed the
except distribution of
a) Mean forced expiratory volume (FEV) in 100
b) Variance Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary disease
c) Standard deviation (COPD) patients and calculated a median
d) Range value of 2.0 litres. The value of first and
third
12. Which percentile is equivalent to the quartile of the distribution was 1.5 litres and
median? 3.0 litres respectively. Based on this data
a) 25 how
b) 50 many patients in the sample are expected to
c) 75 have a FEV between 1.5 and 3.0 litres?
d) 100 a) 100
b) 50
13. All the following are true for standard c) 25
deviation (SD) EXCEPT d) 75
a) It is the square root of the average of the
squared deviations of the observations 17. The average of the absolute deviations of
from the arithmetic mean the
b) It is the most important measure of observations from the arithmetic mean is
dispersion known as
c) It is expressed in the same units of a) Variance
measurement as the observation b) Inter-quartile range
d) The square of the standard deviation is c) Mean deviation
called mean deviation d) Standard deviation

14. A researcher measures fasting blood 18. In a study, a researcher was interested in
level of measuring the hemoglobin levels of 10
glucose of 100 participants. The mean blood participants. The values are 10.0, 8.5, 12.0,

54
[Type here]

14.0, 11.5, 13.5, 9.0, 12.0, 11.3, 7.5. What is 23. Which of the following is a relative
the mode of this distribution? measure
a) 7.5 of dispersion when comparing variables
b) 12.0 which are measured in different units?
c) 10.9 a) Inter-quartile range
d) 14.0 b) Coefficient of variation
c) Range
19. All the following are examples of a d) Standard deviation
nominal
variable EXCEPT 24. The following scores were obtained by
a) Gender ten
b) Age medical students in a quiz: (5, 3, 6, 8, 7, 8, 3,
c) Place of residence 11, 6, 3) What is the median score of this
d) Colour of eyes group?
a) 3
20. Which of the following is true about b) 6
interquartile c) 8
range? d) 11
a) It describes the middle value of the
distribution 25. ‘Height of the students in a particular
b) It divides the distribution into two halves class
c) It covers the middle 50% of measured in centimeter’ is an example of a
observations continuous variable
d) It is affected by the extreme values in the a) True
distribution b) False

21. When the data set contains too many 26. What is the appropriate measure of
extreme values, the most representative dispersion to report when median is reported
average value is as the measure of central tendency for a
a) Mean given set of data?
b) Mode a) Standard deviation
c) Median b) Inter-quartile range
d) Variance c) Variance
d) Coefficient of variance
22. The age of ten pregnant women who
visited 27. In the NCD clinic of a primary health
an ANC clinic is given. What is the mean Centre,
age fasting blood sugar (in g/dL) of 11 patients
of this group? (26, 31, 25, 26, 30, 27, 25, 32, was measured. The following values were
25 and 33 years). obtained - (85, 93, 104, 108, 105, 120, 129,
a) 45 202, 160, 400, 410). What is the most
b) 28 appropriate measure of central tendency for
c) 25 this data?
d) 32 a) Mean = 120
b) Median = 120
c) Mean = 174.1

55
[Type here]

d) Median = 174.1 mean age of this group?

(26, 31, 25, 26, 30, 27, 25, 32, 25
28. Which of the following about ‘Range’ is and 33 years).
TRUE? a) 45
a) It indicates the way in which values b) 28
cluster about a particular point c) 25
b) It gives the number of observations d) 32
bearing the same value
c) It is the difference between the 33)Which of the following is a relative
minimum and maximum value measure of dispersion when comparing
d) It shows the degree to which the mean variables which are measured in different
value differs from its expected value. units?
a) Inter-quartile range
29. In a survey, socio-economic status (SES) b) Coefficient of variation
was c) Range
collected in the following manner – ‘Lower, d) Standard deviation
Lower Middle, Upper Middle and Upper’.
What type of variable is SES? 34)The following scores were obtained by
a) Ordinal ten medical students in a quiz:
b) Nominal (5, 3, 6, 8, 7, 8, 3, 11, 6, 3) What is the
c) Continuous median score of this group?
d) Discrete a) 3
b) 6
30. Body weights of 11 children who c) 8
attended a d) 11
pediatric OPD was measured. For this
group, 35)‘Height of the students in a particular
the first quartile, median, mean and third class’ is an example of a continuous variable
quartile were 8.5, 12, 11.9 and 16, a) True
respectively. Calculate the Interquartile b) False
Range.
a) 3.5 36)What is the appropriate measure of
b) 7.5 dispersion to report when median is reported
c) 0.1 as the measure of central tendency for a
d) 24.5 given set of data?
a) Standard deviation
31)When the dataset contains too many b) Inter-quartile range
extreme values, the most representative c) Variance
average value is- d) Coefficient of variance
a) Mean
b) Mode 37)In the NCD clinic of a primary health
c) Median centre, haemoglobin (in g/dL) of 10 patients
d) Variance was measured. The following values were
obtained 5,4,9,8,4,8,3,7,7,8. What is the
32)Ages of ten pregnant women who visited mean haemoglobin of this group?
an ANC clinic are given below. What is the a) 5.0

56
[Type here]

b) 6.3 b) 27.9 years

c) 7 c) 25 years
d) 8 d) 30 years

38)Which of the following about ‘Range’ is 43)Variance is always preferred to calculate

TRUE? deviations from____________.
a) It indicates the way in which values a) Mode
cluster about a particular point b) Variance
b) It gives the number of observations c) Median
bearing the same value d) Mean
c) It is the difference between the
minimum and maximum value 44)The following scores were obtained by
d) It shows the degree to which the mean nine medical students in a quiz:
value differs from its expected value 7, 3, 6, 9, 4, 8, 10, 12, 11

39)In a survey, socio-economic status (SES) What is the median score of this group?
was collected in the following manner – a) 3
‘Lower, Lower Middle, Upper Middle and b) 8
Upper’. What type of variable is SES? c) 8.5
a) Ordinal d) 11
b) Nominal
c) Continuous 45)State whether true or false. ‘Height of a
d) Discrete student in a particular class is 60 inches’ is
an example of a continuous variable.
40)Calculate the interquartile range of the a) True
following body weights(in Kg) of children b) False
who attended a paediatric OPD.
(7, 12, 11, 13.5, 8.5, 16, 7, 11, 12) 46)Which one of the following
a) 7, 16 measurements does not divide a set of
b) 8.5, 12 observations into equal parts?
c) 11, 12 a) Quartiles
d) 12, 13.5 b) Standard deviation
c) Percentiles
41)Square root of the average of the squared d) Median
deviations of the observations from the
arithmetic mean is known as___________. 47)In the NCD clinic of a primary health
a) Variance centre, haemoglobin (in g/dL) of 15 patients
b) Inter-quartile range was measured. The following values were
c) Mean deviation obtained:5,4,9,8,4,8,8,7,7,8, 10, 12, 6, 5, 4.
d) Standard deviation What is the mean hemoglobin of this group?
a) 5 g/dL
42)The age of twelve pregnant women who b) 6g/dL
visited an ANC clinic is given. c) 7 g/dL
26, 31, 25, 26, 30, 27, 25, 32, 25, 33,34, 21 d) 8g/dL
What is the mean age of this group?
a) 28 years 48)Which of the following about ‘Range’ is

57
[Type here]

true? 3. A researcher wishing to draw a sample

a) It indicates the way in which values from
cluster about a particular point sequentially numbered houses uses a
b) It gives the number of observations random starting point and then selects every
bearing the same value 6th houses, s/he has thus drawn a ________
c) It is the difference between the sample
minimum and maximum value a) Sequential
d) It shows the degree to which the mean b) Systematic
value differs from its expected value. c) Simple random
d) Stratified
49)If the mean is 25 and the standard
deviation is 5 then coefficient of variation 4. The following statement is correct
is____________ regarding
a) 100% sampling error
b) 25% a) Sampling error is difficult to measure in
c) 20% simple random sampling
d) None of these b) Sampling error is easy to measure in
No, the answer is incorrect. stratified sampling
Score: 0 c) The magnitude of error can be measured
in non-probability samples
50)All the following are examples of a d) The magnitude of error can be
nominal variable EXCEPT measured
a) Gender in probability samples
b) Age
c) Place of residence 5. The only sampling method allows to draw
d) Color of eyes valid conclusions about the population is
a) Non-probability sampling
b) Convenience sampling
c) Probability sampling
Assignment 11: Sampling methods d) Subjective sampling
1) The process by which some members of a
population are selected as representative of 6. All the following are true regarding
the entire population is known as cluster
a) Census sampling EXCEPT
b) Sampling a) It needs a complete list of units
c) Survey b) The sampling unit is group of subjects
d) Randomization c) Sampling error is difficult to measure
d) Resources required are less
2. Sampling based upon equal chance of
selection is called 7. Methods used in probability samples are
a) Stratified random sampling a) Stratified sampling
b) Simple random sampling b) Multi-stage sampling
c) Systematic sampling c) Cluster sampling
d) Subjective sampling d) All of the above

8. All the following statements are true

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[Type here]

regarding simple random sampling EXCEPT a) Multistage sampling

a) Sampling error is easily measurable b) Systematic random sampling
b) It needs a complete list of all units c) Simple random sampling
c) It ensures equal chance of selection for d) Convenience sampling
each unit
d) It always achieves best 13. The magnitude of sampling error can be
representativeness measured in probability sampling.
a) True
9. People who volunteer or who can be b) False
easily
recruited are used in a sampling method 14. All the following statements are true
called regarding stratified sampling EXCEPT
a) Cluster sampling a) It classifies population into homogeneous
b) Multi-stage sampling subgroups
c) Convenience sampling b) The probability of a participant being
d) Systematic sampling selected is unknown
c) The sampling error is difficult to measure
10. Based on the number of cigarettes per d) It allows inclusion of representative
day, a participants from all subgroups
researcher divides the population into three
risk groups for lung cancer (low, moderate, 15. Which of the following is true about
high risk). If the researcher then draws a nonprobability
random sample from each of these risk sampling?
groups independently, s/he has created a a) It removes the possibility of bias in
_________ sample selection of participants
a) Systematic b) Sampling error can be measured
b) Simple random c) Quota sampling is a type of
c) Stratified nonprobability
d) Group data sampling
d) Inferences drawn from non-probability
11. All the following are non-probability sampling can be generalized
sampling
methods EXCEPT 16. Random sampling in probability samples
a) Convenience sampling reduces the possibility of selection bias
b) Snowball sampling a) True
c) Quota sampling b) False
d) Systematic sampling
17. Which of the following statement is true
12. In a study to measure the prevalence of regarding systematic random sampling?
fluorosis in a district, towns are sampled a) Sampling error cannot be measured
first. b) The chance of selection for each sampling
This is followed by a sample of wards unit is unknown
within c) The selected sampling units are likely
the selected towns, and finally a sample of to
households within the selected wards. What be more representative than simple
is the type of the sampling used here? random sampling

59
[Type here]

d) It is a type of non-probability sampling a) It needs a complete list of the units in the

target population
18. A researcher planned a cross-sectional b) Purposive sampling is a type of simple
study random sample
to assess the level of satisfaction of patients c) It draws units from the target population
attending a clinic. For this, the researcher randomly
selected the first 100 patients who visited d) It gives equal chance of selection to every
the unit in the target population
clinic starting from a fixed date. What is the
type of the sampling mentioned in this case? 23. Sampling achieves
a) Snowball sampling a) Efficient utilization of resources
b) Purposive sampling b) Elimination of random error
c) Simple random sampling c) Low non-response rate
d) Stratified random sampling d) Complete enumeration of population

19. The list of all individuals in the study 24. In simple random sampling, the
population from whom study participants in probability of
a research are to be selected is known as selection of each individual is
a) Sampling frame a) Unequal
b) Study population b) Equal
c) Sampling unit c) Unknown
d) Study sample d) One

20. Which of the following is an advantage 25. Which one of the following biases is
of prevented by an appropriate sampling
multistage sampling? technique?
a) Sampling error is easy to measure a) Volunteer bias
b) It does not require a complete list of b) Interviewer’s bias
the c) Social desirability bias
total population d) Recall bias
c) It requires only one sampling list
d) It always achieve the best representative 26. In a neighborhood with 5000 houses, a
sample researcher wants to obtain a systematic
random sample of 50 houses. What will be
21. Which of the following sampling the sampling interval in this case?
method a) 1000
ensures that valid conclusions can be drawn b) 100
about different subgroups in a population? c) 0.1
a) Simple random sample d) 0.01
b) Systematic random sample
c) Stratified random sample 27. Which one of the following statement
d) Cluster random sample about
cluster sampling is FALSE?
22. Which of the following about simple a) Units within a cluster are heterogeneous
random b) Sampling frame of the entire study area is
sampling method is FALSE? not required

60
[Type here]

c) Variability between clusters is assumed c) It draws units from the target population
to be high randomly
d) Sampling error is difficult to measure d) It gives equal chance of selection to
every unit in the target population
28. Which one of the following statements
about 33.Sampling achieves
multistage sampling is TRUE? a) Efficient utilization of resources
a) It saves resources as compared to b) Elimination of random error
simple c) Accurate results
random sampling d) Complete enumeration of population
b) It requires a complete listing of the entire
population 34.In simple random sampling, the
c) It’s sampling error can be easily measured probability of selection of each individual is-
d) It is not suitable for sampling from a large a) Unequal
population b) Equal
c) Unknown
29. Which one of the following about d) One
stratified
random sampling is FALSE? 35.Which one of the following biases is
a) Units within a strata are homogenous prevented by an appropriate sampling
b) Sample is taken from every strata technique?
c) Precision improves with low numbers a) Volunteer bias
sampled in each stratum b) Interviewer’s bias
d) Stratum specific estimates are weighted c) Social desirability bias
to obtain the overall estimate d) Recall bias

30. State whether True or False: Commonly 36.In a neighborhood with 5000 houses, a
used researcher wants to obtain a systematic
statistical inferences have the assumption of random sample of 50 houses. What will be
a probability sample. the sampling interval in this case?
a) True a) 1000
b) False b) 100
31.Which of the following sampling method c) 0.1
ensures that valid conclusions can be drawn d) 0.01
about different subgroups in a population?
a) Simple random sample 37.Which one of the following statement
b) Systematic random sample about cluster sampling is FALSE?
c) Stratified random sample a) Units within a cluster are heterogenous
d) Cluster random sample b) Sampling frame of the entire study area
is not required
32.What of the following about simple c) Variability between clusters is
random sampling method is FALSE? assumed to be high
a) It needs a complete list of the units in the d) Sampling error is difficult to measure
target population
b) Purposive sampling is a type of simple 38.Which one of the following statements
random sample about multistage sampling is TRUE?

61
[Type here]

a) It saves resources as compared to c) To study all units in the population

simple random sampling d) To ensure internal validity
b) It requires a complete listing of the entire
population 44.Which of the following is a type of
c) It’s sampling error can be easily probability sampling?
measured a) Simple random sampling
d) It is not suitable for sampling from a b) Consecutive sampling
large population c) Convenience sampling
d) Purposive sampling
39.Which one of the following about
stratified random sampling is FALSE? 45.Which of the following is a type of non-
a) Units within a strata are homogenous probability sampling?
b) Sample is taken from every strata a) Systematic sampling
c) Precision improves with low numbers b) Stratified sampling
sampled in each stratum c) Cluster sampling
d) Stratum specific estimates are weighted d) Respondent driven sampling
to obtain the overall estimate
46.A researcher wanted to study the hand
40.State whether True or False: Commonly hygiene practices among health care
used statistical inferences have the workers in a hospital. A list of all 100
assumption of a probability sample. workers was readily available. The
a) True researcher wanted to ensure that each
b) False individual had an equal chance of being
chosen. Which of the following sampling
41.What is the term used to denote ‘the methods would the researcher use?
procedure by which only some members of a) Simple random sampling
the population are chosen for a study’ due to b) Systematic sampling
feasibility? c) Cluster sampling
a) Randomization d) Snow-ball sampling
b) Allocation
c) Sampling 47.What is the sampling technique used
d) Complete enumeration when researchers draw conclusions from
different sub-groups within the population?
42.A researcher conducted a study and a) Systematic sampling
wants to extrapolate the findings of the b) Cluster sampling
study to which of the population? c) Subjective sampling
a) Target population d) Stratified sampling
b) Accessible population
c) Sample 48.The sampling unit is a group of
d) Universe individuals rather than a single individual in
which of the following sampling types?
43.A sample is taken for which of the a) Stratified sampling
following reasons? b) Cluster sampling
a) To obtain information from small c) Simple random sampling
populations d) Systematic sampling
b) To ensure the efficiency of a study

62
[Type here]

49.Which of the following sampling it is true

methods are used in qualitative research? d) The null hypothesis is rejected when it is
a) Stratified sampling true
b) Cluster sampling
c) Simple random sampling 4. Exact calculation of design effect for a
d) Purposive sampling study
parameter can take place you after study
50.Which of the following statements is completion
TRUE about multi-stage sampling? a) True
a) Commonly done for small populations b) False
b) Sampling error can be measured
c) Complete enumeration of the population 5. Population variance can be estimated
is needed from
d) Is often done when it is expensive to a) A pilot study
cover the entire population b) Reports of previous studies
c) Guessing
d) 'a' and 'b'
Assignment 12: Calculating sample
6. The recommended minimum level of
size and power power
1. Statistical power is defined as the for an analytical study
probability a) 5%
of b) 95%
a) Accepting a null hypothesis when it is c) 80%
false d) 0.05%
b) Rejecting a null hypothesis when it is true
c) Rejecting a null hypothesis when it is 7. In general, sample size formula takes into
false account the crude association between
d) Failing to reject a null hypothesis when it exposure and outcome as well as the
is false confounders
a) True
2. Steps in the estimation of sample size b) False
included all of the following EXCEPT
a) Identify major study variable 8. Design effect of 'more than 1' needs to be
b) Decide on the desired precision of the considered in studies involving
estimate a) Cluster sampling
c) Adjust for population size b) Simple random sampling
d) Adjust for selection bias c) Stratified random sampling
d) Non-probability sampling
3. A type-II error occurs when
a) The null hypothesis is rejected when it is 9. Which of the following is necessary in
false sample
b) The null hypothesis is not rejected size determination?
when a) Desired confidence level
it is false b) Desired precision
c) The null hypothesis is not rejected when c) Magnitude of the population variance

63
[Type here]

d) All of the above 14. For each confounder/variable added in

the
10. Which one of the following statements is study empirically 10% increase in the
false? sample
a) Design effect is a relative change in the size should be made.
variance due to use of clusters a) True
b) As the magnitude of the expected effect b) False
increases, the required sample size
increases 15. The design effect should be calculated
c) The population variance is unknown in after
general and has to be estimated completion of the study and it, need not be
d) Larger the sample size, smaller the counted at the design stage.
sampling error a) True
b) False
11. A type-I error occurs when
a) The null hypothesis is rejected when it is 16. When estimating sample size for a
false crosssectional
b) The null hypothesis is not rejected when study, we need to account for
it is false a) Expected proportion of characteristic of
c) The null hypothesis is not rejected when interest
it is true b) Estimated design effect, in case of cluster
d) The null hypothesis is rejected when it sampling
is c) Population size
true d) All the above

12. Which of the following is true about β 17. The power of a study
error? a) Does not influence the sample size
a) It is the probability of correctly rejecting b) Represented as ‘α’
the null hypothesis when it is false c) Can be defined as the probability of
b) It is the probability of accepting the correctly rejecting null hypothesis when
null it is false
hypothesis when it is false d) Represented as the probability of making
c) It is the probability of rejecting the null a Type I error
hypothesis when it is true
d) It is the probability of making a Type I 18. The following are needed to calculate
error sample
size for analytical studies using simple
13. All the following are essential statistical random sampling method EXCEPT
considerations for sample size calculation a) Desired value for the probability of α
EXCEPT b) Magnitude of the expected effect based
a) Desired precision on previous studies
b) Anticipated proportion of factor of c) Desired value for the probability of β
interest d) Estimated design effect
c) Sampling method
d) Allocated budget 19. A researcher wants to estimate the

64
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prevalence of surgical site infection 23. Adjustments to a calculated sample size

following need
cesarean section at a tertiary care hospital. NOT be done for which of the following
What would be the minimum number of reasons?
sample size to estimate the magnitude of a) Non-response rate
surgical site infection following cesarean b) Finite population size
section if it is estimated that the proportion c) Cluster design
of surgical site infection will be 10% in the d) Hospital-based study
hospital considering 5% absolute precision
and 95% confidence level (Z α/2 = 1.96). 24. State whether true or false. A pilot study
a) 100 can
b) 138 be conducted to get an estimate of the
c) 148 expected prevalence of the disease being
d) 158 studied to calculate the minimum required
sample size.
20. Precision is described as a measure of a) True
how b) False
close an estimate is to the true value of a
population parameter. 25. A cross-sectional study aims to estimate
a) True the
b) False prevalence of Hydatid liver disease among
patients undergoing Ultrasonography in a
21. In a cross-sectional study, a group of tertiary care hospital. Which of the
researchers wanted to estimate the following
prevalence of cephalosporin-resistant E.coli is NOT required for calculating the
among adult males with urinary tract minimum
infections. From previous literature, the required sample size for this objective?
prevalence was found to be 6.5%. If the a) Significance level
researchers want to estimate the prevalence b) Assumed prevalence
with a 20% relative precision and 95% c) Precision
significance level, what is the minimum d) Population variance
sample size required?
a) 1042 26. What is Type I error?
b) 1381 a) The probability of accepting the null
c) 6 hypothesis when it is false
d) 600 b) The probability of rejecting the null
hypothesis when it is true
22. Which of the following factors is NOT c) The probability of rejecting the null
essential for calculating sample size for a hypothesis when it is false
single mean estimation? d) The probability of accepting the null
a) Need for statistical significance hypothesis when it is true
b) Assumptions about population standard
deviation 27. Ability of a study to detect correctly the
c) Precision presence of an association is known as
d) Significance level a) Precision
b) Power

65
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c) Confidence 32.Which of the following factors is NOT

d) Significance essential for calculating sample size for a
single mean estimation?
28. Standard deviation of a sampling a) Need for statistical significance
distribution b) Assumptions about population standard
is called systematic error deviation
a) True c) Precision
b) False d) Significance level

29. Design effect is considered for which of 33.Adjustments to a calculated sample size
the need NOT be done for which of the
following sampling strategy? following reasons?
a) Cluster sampling a) Non-response rate
b) Simple random sampling b) Finite population size
c) Stratified random sampling c) Cluster design
d) Non-probability sampling d) Study setting (hospital/community)

30. In a hospital based cross-sectional study, 34.State whether true or false. Findings from
it is a pilot study can be generalized to the entire
planned to estimate the mean D-dimer level population.
among COVID-19 patients. From previous a) True
literature, the standard deviation was found b) False
to be 200 ng/mL. If the researchers want to
estimate the mean with a 50 ng/mL 35.A cross-sectional study aims to estimate
precision the prevalence of Hydatid liver disease
and 95% significance level, what is the among patients undergoing Ultrasonography
minimum sample size required? in a tertiary care hospital. Which of the
a) 62 following is parameters is NOT required?
b) 16 a) Significance level
c) 31 b) Assumed prevalence
d) 248 c) Precision
31.In a cross-sectional study, a group of d) Population variance
researchers wanted to estimate the
prevalence of cephalosporin-resistant E.coli 36.What is Type I error?
among adult males with urinary tract a) The probability of accepting the null
infections. From previous literature, the hypothesis when it is false
prevalence was found to be 6.5%. If the b) The probability of rejecting the null
researchers want to estimate the prevalence hypothesis when it is true
with a 20% relative precision and 95% c) The probability of rejecting the null
significance level, what is the minimum hypothesis when it is false
sample size required? d) The probability of accepting the null
a) 1042 hypothesis when it is true
b) 1342
c) 6 37.Ability of a study to detect correctly the
d) 600 presence of an association is known as-
a) Precision

66
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b) Power a) The probability of rejecting a null

c) Confidence hypothesis when it is false
d) Significance b) The probability of failing to reject a null
hypothesis when it is false
38.Standard deviation of a sampling c) The probability of rejecting null
distribution is called systematic error hypothesis when it is true
a) True d) The probability of failing to reject a null
b) False hypothesis when it is true

39.Design effect is considered for which of 44.Which of the following statements is

the following sampling strategy? INCORRECT about sample size estimation
a) Cluster sampling for a study?
b) Simple random sampling a) Precision is a measure of how close an
c) Stratified random sampling estimate is to the true value of a population
d) Non-probability sampling parameter
b) A smaller value of absolute precision
40.In a hospital based cross-sectional study, yields a lower sample size
it is planned to estimate the mean D-dimer c) Alpha error is usually fixed at 5% for
level among COVID-19 patients. From biomedical research
previous literature, the standard deviation d) Beta error needs to be specified in
was found to be 200 ng/mL. If the comparative studies
researchers want to estimate the mean with a
50 ng/mL precision and 95% significance 45.An investigator is interested to study the
level, what is the minimum sample size prevalence of Hepatitis –B among patients
required? attending Sexually Transmitted Diseases
a) 62 Clinic. For calculation of the sample size for
b) 16 the study, the knowledge about the expected
c) 31 proportion can come from all of the
d) 248 following EXCEPT:
a) Estimates from a preliminary/pilot study
41.The sample size required for a study will b) Estimates from previous studies
depend on the following EXCEPT: c) Assuming ‘p’=0.5 to yield maximum
a) Type of estimate used to measure the value of sample size
outcome d) Assuming highest possible value for
b) Desired precision of the estimate ‘p’
c) Study design
d) Blinding of participants 46.Following are assumptions for
calculating the sample size for a study
42.State whether true or false. The EXCEPT
probability of rejecting the null hypothesis a) The sample is obtained by means of
when it is true is known as Type II error. probability sampling technique
a) True b) The population is sufficiently large to
b) False ignore finite population correction
c) The expected proportion ‘p’ is normally
43.Power of a study refers to distributed
___________________. d) The sampling is done with

67
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replacement b) Acceptable cost

c) Adequate size
47.An investigator is intending to estimate d) All of the above
the prevalence of Anaemia in a selected
district. The expected prevalence is 28%. 2. Target population is determined by
The required sample size to estimate the a) Demographic characteristics
prevalence with a relative precision of 10% b) Temporal characteristics
and alpha error of 5% would be c) Clinical characteristics
a) 514 d) 'a' and 'c'
b) 806
c) 1029 3. Study sample is a subset of accessible
d) 1526 population
a) True
48.The sample size estimation for a cohort b) False
study requires the following EXCEPT
a) Proportion of outcome in the exposed 4. Representativeness of a study sample
group refers to
b) Proportion of outcome in the non- a) The extent to which the characteristics
exposed group of
c) Desired level of alpha and beta error the sample accurately reflect the
d) Desired precision of the outcome characteristics of the population
b) The size of the sample which is large
49.In a study to estimate the mean enough
haemoglobin levels (g/dL) among under-five c) Volunteering nature of the subjects from
children, the expected standard deviation the population
was found to be 2.5 g/dL. If the researcher d) The extent to which the characteristics of
wants to estimate the mean with a precision exposed population accurately reflect the
of 0.5 g/dL and 95% significance level, what characteristics of unexposed sample
is the minimum sample size required?
a) 100 5. Non-response in a study can be
b) 200 minimized by
c) 300 a) Repeat contact of the study participants
d) 400 b) Providing compensation for participants
time
50.Which of the following requires inflation c) Less invasive and less sensitive
of the sample size using design effect? questionnaires
a) Stratified random sampling d) All of the above
b) Cluster sampling
c) Block randomization in RCT 6. External validity means
d) Adjustments for multiple confounders a) The degree to which the inferences
drawn
from a study can be generalized to a
Assignment 13: Study population broader population beyond the study
population
1. Selection of study participants depends on b) The degree to which the observed
a) Representativeness findings

68
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lead to correct inferences about c) Refusals for follow-up

phenomena taking place in the study d) All of the above
sample
c) The degree to which a test actually 11. The population defined by clinical and
measures what it is designed to measure demographic characteristics is called
d) The degree to which the findings are a) Target population
reliable b) Accessible population
c) Subset
7. Participants may be excluded from the d) Study sample
study
because of 12. The population defined by geographical
a) Interference with the success of study and
follow-up temporal characteristics is called as
b) Ethical concerns a) Target population
c) Interference with the quality of data b) Accessible population
collection or non-acceptance to participate c) Subset
in the study d) Sample size
d) All of the above
13. Random errors can be effectively
8. While choosing the accessible population handled by
and a) Randomisation
the sampling approach for selection of study b) Representativeness
population, an important factor that we need c) Adequate sample size
to consider is d) All of the above
a) Simplicity
b) Technology 14. A researcher found an inference about a
c) Feasibility particular disease of interest. If he/she wants
d) Reliability to generalize the results, it is important to
have
9. If your research question is related to a) Internal validity
diagnosis, treatment or prognosis of a severe b) External validity
medical condition, then it is an easy and c) Feasibility
costeffective d) Accuracy
way to recruit the study population
from the community 15. Reasons for interference with the
a) True success of
b) False follow-up in a study may include
a) Out-migration of some study participants
10. Reasons for interference with the from the study area
success of b) Marriage of some of the female study
follow-up in a study may include participants because of which they might
a) Migration of some study participants from move out of the study area
the study area c) Refusals for follow-up
b) Marriage of some of the female study d) All of the above
participants because of which they might
move out of the study area

69
[Type here]

16. Less invasive and less sensitive a) Interference with the success of study
questionnaires follow-up
will b) Ethical concerns
a) Increase the power c) Interference with the quality of data
b) Decrease the power collection
c) Improve the significance d) All of the above
d) Reduce the non-response
21. Which of the following helps to
17. The external validity in a research study minimize the
means random error in a research study?
a) The degree to which the observed a) Limited study duration
findings b) Adequate sample size
lead to correct inferences about c) Adequate budget
phenomena taking place in the study d) More than six investigators
sample
b) The degree to which a test actually 22. Representativeness of the study
measures what it is designed to measure participants
c) The degree to which the inferences similar to the population of interest can help
drawn in
from a study can be generalized to a which of the following aspects of a research
broader population beyond the study study?
population a) Generalizability of the findings
d) The degree to which the findings are b) Internal validity
reliable c) Reduce information bias
d) Minimize recall bias
18. The degree to which the observed
findings lead 23. An investigator intends to estimate the
to correct inferences about phenomena of prevalence of Urinary Tract Infection (UTI)
interest in the study sample is among circumcised children (<5 years old)
a) Reliability in
b) Feasibility Jaipur city. However, the researcher selects
c) Internal validity the
d) External validity study participants from one government
hospital. Which of the following is the target
19. Which factor is important to consider population in this study?
while a) All children aged <5 years in the city
choosing the accessible population and the b) All circumcised children aged <5 years
sampling approach? in
a) Feasibility the city
b) Sensitivity c) All circumcised children aged <5 years
c) Specificity attending the government hospital
d) Reliability d) All children having UTI in the city

20. The participants may be excluded from 24. Which of the following is the accessible
the population in the above study?
study because of a) All children aged <5 years in the city

70
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b) All circumcised children aged <5 years in 29. In a community based vaccine trial,
the city which aims
c) All circumcised children aged <5 years to compare the 1 year incidence of
attending the government hospital intussusception in children receiving/not
d) All children having UTI in the city receiving rotavirus vaccine, which of the
following can be a likely exclusion
25. State whether true or false. High non- criterion?
response a) Children who may leave the study area
rate in a study may affect the internal within a month
validity. b) Children aged 0 months to 24 months
a) True c) Children without pre-existing intestinal
b) False anomalies
d) Children who have not received rotavirus
26. Which of the following is TRUE about vaccine previously
study
validity? 30. In a cohort study planned to estimate the
a) An internally valid study result is always incidence of birth defects among Zika virus
generalizable to the target population infected pregnant women in Chennai city,
b) An internally valid study result may or which of the following CANNOT be an
may inclusion
not be generalizable to the target criterion?
population a) First trimester pregnant women with
c) An externally valid study result is not labconfirmed
generalizable to the target population Zika virus infection
d) A study without internal validity can be b) Pregnant women who are permanent
generalized to the target population residents of Chennai city
c) Pregnant women aged above 18 years
27. Which of the following statements on d) Pregnant women taking drugs known
study to
populations is TRUE? cause birth defects
a) Study sample is a subset of the
accessible 31.Which of the following helps to
population minimize the random error in a research
b) Target population is a subset of the study?
accessible population a) Limited study duration
c) Accessible population is a subset of the b) Adequate sample size
study sample c) Adequate budget
d) Target population is a subset of the study d) More than six investigators
sample
32.Representativeness of the study
28. State whether true or false. Biases can participants similar to the population of
affect interest can help in which of the following
both internal and external validity. aspects of a research study?
a) True a) Generalizability of the findings
b) False b) Internal validity
c) Reduce information bias

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d) Minimize recall bias a) Study sample is a subset of the

accessible population
33.An investigator intends to estimate the b) Target population is a subset of the
prevalence of Urinary Tract Infection (UTI) accessible population
among circumcised children (<5 years old) c) Accessible population is a subset of the
in Jaipur city. However, the researcher study sample
selects the study participants from one d) Target population is a subset of the study
government hospital. Which of the sample
following is the target population in this
study? 38.State whether true or false. Biases can
a) All children aged <5 years in the city affect both internal and external validity.
b) All circumcised children aged <5 years a) True
in the city b) True
c) All circumcised children aged <5 years
attending the government hospital 39.In a community based vaccine trial,
d) All children having UTI in the city which aims to compare the 1 year incidence
of intussusception in children receiving/not
34.Which of the following is the accessible receiving rotavirus vaccine, which of the
population in the above study? following can be a likely exclusion
a) All children aged <5 years in the city criterion?
b) All circumcised children aged <5 years a) Children who may leave the study area
in the city within a month
c) All circumcised children aged <5 years b) Children aged 0 months to 24 months
attending the government hospital c) Children without pre-existing intestinal
d) All children having UTI in the city anomalies
d) Children who have not received rotavirus
35.State whether true or false. High non- vaccine previously
response rate in a study may affect the
internal validity 40.In a cohort study planned to estimate the
a) True incidence of birth defects among Zika virus
b) False infected pregnant women in Chennai city,
which of the following CANNOT be an
36.Which of the following is TRUE about inclusion criterion?
study validity? a) First trimester pregnant women with lab-
a) An internally valid study result is always confirmed Zika virus infection
generalizable to the target population b) Pregnant women who are permanent
b) An internally valid study result may residents of Chennai city
or may not be generalizable to the target c) Pregnant women aged above 18 years
population d) Pregnant women taking drugs known
c) An externally valid study result is not to cause birth defects
generalizable to the target population
d) A study without internal validity can be 41.All of the following are attributes of
generalized to the target populatioin exclusion criteria for selecting study
population EXCEPT
37.Which of the following statements on a) Loss to follow up
study populations is TRUE? b) Quality of data

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c) Specifying population relevant to sample can be obtained by all of the

research following steps EXCEPT:
d) Being at high risk of adverse effects a) Choosing the population and sampling
methods wisely
42.An investigator intends to estimate the b) Guarding against errors in applying the
incidence of long COVID among adult inclusion criteria
patients who recovered from COVID-19 in c) Monitoring adherence to the criteria as
Bengaluru. However, the researcher selects the study progresses
the participants from a tertiary care hospital d) Number of vaccine vials supplied to
XYZ in the city. The accessible population that district
in this case would be_________.
a) Adult individuals in the city 46.State whether true or false. External
b) Adult COVID-19 patients in the city validity of a study refers to the extent to
c) Adult patients who were managed and which the results of the study can be
recovered from COVID-19 in the tertiary generalised to the target population.
care hospital XYZ in the city a) True
d) Adult COVID-19 patients managed in b) False
the tertiary care hospital XYZ in the city
who developed long COVID 47.All of the following are guiding
principles for selecting suitable study
43.Which among the following is population EXCEPT
INCORRECT about non-response while a) The selected study population should be
collecting data for a research study? representative of the target population
a) It is generally higher in observational b) It is better to select the entire target
studies population wherever feasible
b) It compromises the generalizability of c) The cost and time involved in selection
the study should be reasonable
c) Can be minimized by study method that d) The number of participants selected
avoids discomfort to participants should be sufficient to account for random
d) It tends to change the objective of the error
study
48.Which of the following is true about
44.All of the following participants can be study population?
considered as inclusion criteria for a trial a) Study sample is a subset of the
evaluating the efficacy of drug treatments accessible population
for Polycystic Ovarian disease (PCOD) b) Target population is a subset of the
EXCEPT accessible population
a) Females in the reproductive age group c) Accessible population is a subset of the
b) Females with mild PCOD study sample
c) Female with severe PCOD d) Target population is a subset of the study
d) Females with PCOD and under sample
treatment
49.All of the following are important factors
45.An investigator wants to study the to be considered while choosing study
coverage of COVID-19 vaccination program sample and sampling approach EXCEPT:
in a selected district. A representative a) Feasibility

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b) Representativeness of the target d) All of the above

population
c) Sufficient numbers to test proposed 3. Which of the following can improve
hypothesis efficiency of a research study?
d) Identification details of individuals of a) Time management
the target population b) Planning and scheduling activities
c) Budgeting
50.Which among the following is d) All of the above
INCORRECT about selection of sample for
conducting a research study? 4. Which of the following represents the
a) Demographic and clinical criteria are correct sequence in a life cycle of a study?
applied to identify the target population a) Identifying data needs, formulating study
b) Exclusion criteria are applied to objectives, planning analysis, spelling out
eliminate subset of accessible population research question
who may not be appropriate to be included b) Formulating study objectives, planning
c) Random sampling is not possible for analysis, spelling out research question,
hospital-based selection of study identifying data needs
participants c) Identifying data needs, spelling out
d) Non-responses in a study affects the research question, formulating study
generalizability of the study objectives, planning analysis
d) Formulating study objects, spelling out
research question, identifying data
needs, planning analysis
Assignment 14: Study plan and
5. It should be ensured that
project management products/deliverables of health research
1. Which of the following statements projects are delivered within the
regarding a) Defined timeframe
study objectives is correct? b) Defined budget
a) Objectives should be defined at the c) Expected quality standards
planning stage of study d) All of the above
b) Objectives can be defined at any time of
the study 6. Which of the following statements best
c) Objectives can be changed even at the describes the study objectives?
end of the study a) They should be minimum, achievable
d) Objectives should be defined before and clear
identifying the research question b) They can be primary and / or secondary
c) Adding objectives during study
2. Which of the following is (are) required implementation is a good practice
to d) 'a' and 'b'
determine the key indicators for planned
research study? 7. Principles to be followed while collecting
a) Frame study objectives the
b) Identify parameters needed for the key information elements are
indicators a) Use the variables that will best reflect
c) Choose the right study design the information element

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b) Adopt standardize case definitions and research study?

laboratory criteria/normal ranges a) Its advantages are the low development
c) Choose the most accurate ways of effort and possibility of getting results
collecting information on various in a short time span
elements b) Its advantage is that the accuracy of the
d) All of the above results is usually high
c) Only 'a'
8. Study conducted following an ad hoc d) Both 'a' and 'b'
approach may lead to the following
consequences 13. A cross sectional study is carried out to
a) Generation of useful data in programs or examine whether naval medical personnel of
for policy making a higher rank have more positive copying
b) Efficient utilization of resources skills than those of a lower rank. Which of
c) Serious difficulties in analysis and the following statement is true of this study?
interpretation a) Neither variable is dependent as the
d) All of the above researcher cannot manipulate them
b) The independent variable is rank and
9. Common reasons for research study the dependent variable is copying skills
failures c) The independent variable is copying skills
a) Poorly defined research question and the dependent variable is rank
b) Vague timelines d) None of the above
c) Lack of supervision
d) All of the above 14. Indicators are considered positive when
they
10. Sample size for a cross-sectional study is have a direct relationship (association,
decided based on the following correlation) with the state of health. Which
a) Assumed/reported prevalence of the following are the examples of positive
b) Confidence interval indicators?
c) Acceptable precision a) The proportion of cured tuberculosis
d) All of the above cases
b) Incidence of AIDS
11. Which of the following is a criterion for c) Life expectancy at birth
a d) 'a' and 'c'
good research question? e) 'b' and 'd'
a) Long and self-explanatory question using f) 'a', 'b', 'c' and 'd'
complex terms
b) A question based on ill-defined 15. Which of the following techniques is
hypothesis preferentially used when the population is
c) A question based on strong hunch on finite?
part of the investigator a) Purposive sampling technique
d) A question based on established theory b) Area sampling technique
and some research evidence c) Systematic sampling technique
d) None of the above
12. Which of the following can be
considered 16. A study began in 1980 with enrollment
true in case of ad hoc approach to conduct a of a

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group of 7000 adults in Pondicherry who to be be specific, measurable, achievable,

were asked about their alcohol relevant and time-bound. Which of the
consumption, smoking, diet, environmental following is an illustration of nonmeasurable
risk factors etc. All the participants were objective?
periodically examined and evaluated for a) Incidence of colorectal cancers in Indian
evidence of various types of cancers adult men
between 1990-1995. Which of the following b) Experiences shared by victims of
study designs was used by the investigators? domestic violence
a) Case-control study c) To determine if regular skin emollients
b) Prospective cohort study applied from 2 weeks of age reduced
c) Ecological study development of atopic dermatitis by age
d) Retrospective cohort study 12 months in the general infant
population
17. An increased number of postoperative d) None of the above
wound infections were recorded in patients
who underwent incision appendectomy 20. Validity of a research can be improved
compared with those who had a by:
laparoscopic procedure. Which of the a) Taking the true representative sample of
following statement/s is/are true in such a the population
scenario? b) Eliminating extraneous factors and
a) This association may simply be owing to collecting detailed information on
the presence of a confounding factor confounding factors
b) Association between the two can be c) 'a' and 'b'
better studied in randomized controlled d) None of these
clinical trials
c) Both 'a' and 'b' 21. Which of the following is ideally the
d) None first
step in developing a study?
18. In a study to evaluate the effectiveness a) Fixing the title
of a b) Formulating the research question
new medication, which of the following will c) Writing the background
generate a stronger evidence? d) Planning for analysis
a) Comparing outcomes among those
receiving medication with those not 22. Which of the following is a reason for
receiving the same. the
b) Comparing outcomes among those failure of a study?
receiving higher doses of medication a) Poorly stated research question
with those receiving lower doses b) Unrealistic timeline
c) Comparing adverse events and drug c) Inadequate supervision
reactions among those receiving d) All the above
medication and those not receiving
medication 23. Which of the following represents the
d) All of the above correct sequence in the life cycle of a study?
i. Developing research question
19. Smart objectives are goals that are ii. Planning the data analysis
designed iii. Data collection

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iv. Data analysis 29. Which of the following can be used to

a) i, iii, iv, ii represent the duration, timeline and
b) i, ii, iii, iv sequence of activities and milestones of a
c) i, iii, ii, iv research project?
d) ii, iii, iv, i a) Bar chart
b) Histogram
24. Which of the following factor is NOT c) Gantt chart
essential for effective planning and d) Pie chart
management of a study?
a) Time management 30. Who is primarily responsible for
b) Financial management resource
c) Reduction of sample size allocation and time management in a study?
d) Team work a) Institute where the research is
conducted
25. Which of the following is to be followed b) Principal investigator
while collecting the information elements? c) Funding agency
a) Use of variables that best reflect the d) Scientific committee
information element
b) Standardized case definitions 31.Which of the following is ideally the first
c) Use of validated and standardized step in developing a study?
methods a) Fixing the title
d) All the above b) Formulating the research question
c) Writing the background
26. State whether true or false. Framing d) Planning for analysis
several
study objectives improves the study 32.Which of the following is a reason for the
planning and management failure of a study?
a) True a) Poorly stated research question
b) False b) Unrealistic timeline
c) Inadequate supervision
27. State whether true or false. Selection of d) All the above
study design should be related to the
objectives. 33.Which of the following represents the
a) True correct sequence in the life cycle of a study?
b) False i. Developing research question
ii. Planning the data analysis
28. A postgraduate wants to do a community iii. Data collection
based thesis. Which of the following is a iv. Data analysis
part a) i, iii, iv, ii
of the planning and program management b) i, ii, iii, iv
of the study? c) i, iii, ii, iv
a) Calculating sample size d) ii, iii, iv, i
b) Arranging transport to community
c) Writing thesis 34.Which of the following factor is NOT
d) All the above essential for effective planning and
management of a study?

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a) Time management a) Institute where the research is conducted

b) Financial management b) Principal investigator
c) Reduction of sample size c) Funding agency
d) Team work d) Scientific committee

35.Which of the following is to be followed 41.State whether True or False: The amount
while collecting the information elements? of funding is the factor which decides the
a) Use of variables that best reflect the study design to conduct a health research.
information element a) True
b) Standardized case definitions b) False
c) Use of validated and standardised
methods 42.Which of the following stage is most
d) All the above appropriate to define the responsibilities to
conduct a health project?
36.State whether true or false. Framing a) During the planning
several study objectives improves the study b) During initiation
planning and management c) During conducting
a) True d) Any time of the study
b) False
43.Inadequate supervision of field activity
37.State whether true or false. Selection of will result in which of the following?
study design should be related to the a) Forceful revision of study objectives
objectives. b) Generation of low-quality data
a) True c) Saving in allocated fund
b) False d) Both ‘a’ and ‘b’

38.A postgraduate wants to do a community 44.All of the following are advantages of

based thesis. Which of the following is a having an analysis plan EXCEPT.
part of the planning and program a) Analyzable information is collected
management of the study? b) Early dissemination of study results
a) Calculating sample size c) Helps to avoid comparison not related to
b) Arranging transport to community the objectives
c) Writing thesis d) Good quality data can be obtained
d) All the above
45.Gantt chart is useful in the following
39.Which of the following can be used to aspect (s) with respect to the study plan and
represent the duration, timeline and project management.
sequence of activities and milestones of a a) Develop the initial project schedule
research project? b) Report study progress
a) Bar chart c) Demonstrate milestone
b) Histogram d) All of these
c) Gantt chart
d) Pie chart 46.State whether True or False: ‘Ad hoc’
method is a best method in project
40.Who is primarily responsible for resource implementation and management.
allocation and time management in a study? a) True

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b) False Assignment 15: Designing data

collection tools
47.Which of the following is NOT TRUE
about project implementation? 1. Which component of the data collection
a) Having a standard operating instrument is constituted by open, closed
procedures in not a prerequisite for and semi-open items?
multi-centric studies a) Introduction
b) Collecting analyzable information should b) Identifier
be a prerequisite c) Questions
c) Validated methods should be used for d) Concluding statement
data collection
d) Conducting regular project review 2. Self-administered questionnaire can be
meetings improves project implementation a) Paper-based or computer-assisted
b) Used in face-to-face interviews
48.Which of the following is NOT a part of c) Used in telephonic interviews
project management? d) All of the above
a) Time management
b) Resource allocation 3. While formulating the questions, all the
c) Monitoring and supervision following need to be followed, EXCEPT
d) Protocol development a) Short and clear questions
b) Avoid ambiguities
49.Which of the following is FALSE c) Avoid words of every-day language
regarding the project management? d) Avoid negatives and double negatives
a) The timeline for the project should not be
too long or too short 4. Structured observation guide
b) Having high budget will always result a) Is useful to document certain processes
in successful project completion b) Use checklist of items
c) Lack of training to filed investigators is c) Can be used for in-depth interviews
one of the reasons for study failure d) 'a' and 'b'
d) Having vague objectives will result in
project failure 5. The interviewer does not provide options
for responses in
50.In the ‘Research cycle’. which of the a) Open-ended questions
following step lies between formulating the b) Close-ended questions
study objectives and preparing data c) Semi-open questions
collection instruments? d) All of the above
a) Data collection
b) Data cleaning 6. What is the disadvantage of closed
c) Data analysis plan questions with dichotomous options in a
d) Data analysis study questionnaire?
a) Detailed information available
b) Oversimplifies the issues
c) Forces an unclear position
d) May not be useful for key well framed
issues

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7. The information about participant's b) Closed questions with dichotomous

attitudes for behaviors such as wearing options
helmets, washing hands before eating, c) Closed question with multiple options
constitute d) Closed question with quantitative
a) Facts answers
b) Knowledge
c) Judgments 12. A researcher has framed a question in
d) Texts the
research tool as- “What is the monthly
8. The type of questions in which there is a income of the family?” This information
possibility to add other answer in addition constitutes
to the options suggested i. Facts
a) Open questions ii. Knowledge
b) Semi-open questions iii. Judgments
c) Closed questions iv. Healthy Life styles
d) Close questions with multiple options
13. Which of the following is correct in
9. The type of questions in a questionnaire relation
which allow creation of continuous to an open question?
variables as responses a) Answers are suggested
a) Closed questions with quantitative b) Stimulate memory
answers c) Easy to code and analysis
b) Open questions with quantitative d) Freedom to respond is compromised
answers
c) Both of the above 14. Glasgow coma Scale (GCS) is a scoring
d) None of the above system to understand the consciousness
level of a person. The score varies between
10. All are true regarding the order of 3 and 15. A researcher has included a
questions in a data collection tool EXCEPT question in research tool- “What is the GCS
a) From intimate to casual score during admission?” This question is
b) From general to specific an example of:
c) From simple to complicate a) Open question
d) In chronological order, if questions b) Closed question with dichotomous
related to sequence of events option
c) Closed question with multiple option
11. A question was framed by an d) Closed question with quantitative
ophthalmologist as a part of data collection answers
tool for her research- “Which of the
following symptoms you had in the last one 15. An investigator wanted to study the
week?” The options were 1. Eye pain 2. clinical
Redness of eye 3. Watering of eye 4. Low profile of patients presented with foreign
vision body in nose, attended in the emergency
Given that a study participant may have department in the last 2 years in a hospital.
multiple complaints, which of the following Which of the following is the most suitable
best describes the type of question? way to collect data?
a) Open question a) Review of records

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b) Cohort study a) Informed consent

c) Randomized trial b) Concluding statements
d) Focus group discussion c) Identifiers
d) Tabulated results
16. Order of a question should be all, except
a) From simple to complicated 22. Which of the following is TRUE about a
b) From general to specific data
c) From intimate to casual abstraction form?
d) In chronological order a) It is used to collect data by going
through records
17. Structured observation guide b) It is more valid than a questionnaire
a) Is useful to document certain process c) It can be self-administered by the
b) Uses checklist of items participants
c) Both 'a' and 'b' d) It is also called an observational checklist
d) None of the above
23. Which of the following is FALSE about
18. Which of the following factors related to a
data collection may lead to study failures? questionnaire?
a) Poorly defined research question a) It can contain instructions or prompts for
b) Vague timelines data collectors
c) Lack of supervision b) It should contain unique participant
d) All of the above identifiers
c) It should avoid skip patterns
19. In which of the following type of d) It can contain a mix of open and closed
question questions
the interviewer does not provide options
for responses? 24. Identify the type of the question given
a) Open-ended questions below. “How do you spend your leisure
b) Close-ended questions time?_____________
c) Semi-open questions a) Open ended
d) Closed question with multiple options b) Closed
c) Semi-open
20. 'Age in years' is commonly a continuous d) Open question with closed answers
variable. However, a resident doctor
decided to ask age as a closed question 25. Which of the following is TRUE about
with dichotomous options (If age>65 years ‘Open
or <65 years). What is the disadvantage of question with closed answers’?
such type of ques in a study questionnaire? a) Its answers are not suggested to the
a) Detailed information available participants
b) Oversimplifies the issues b) It can be used in a self-administered
c) Forces an unclear position questionnaire
d) It is easy to convert a dichotomous c) It is analyzed like an open ended
variable to a continuous variable question
d) It is expressed as a closed question to
21. Which one of the following is NOT a the participants
component of a data collection tool?

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26. What is the type of the question given interview

below? d) Changes are made to the questionnaire
From where do you usually get healthrelated based on its findings
information?
i. Television 31.Which one of the following is NOT a
ii. Radio component of a data collection tool?
iii. Newspaper a) Informed consent
iv. Magazine b) Concluding statements
v. Others (specify)________________ c) Identifiers
a) Open ended d) Tabulated results
b) Closed
c) Semi-open 32.Which of the following is TRUE about a
d) Open question with closed answers data abstraction form?
a) It is used to collect data by going
27. Which of the following is FALSE about through records
formulating questions in a study tool? b) It is more valid than a questionnaire
a) They must be concise and precise c) It can be self-administered by the
b) They must use scientific terms participants
c) They must use a neutral tone d) It is also called an observational checklist
d) They must avoid double negatives
33.Which of the following is FALSE about a
28. Which rule is NOT followed in the questionnaire?
framing a) It can contain instructions or prompts for
of the question given below? "When and data collectors
where did you get tested for COVID-19 b) It should contain unique participant
infection?" identifiers
a) Using a neutral tone c) It should avoid skip patterns
b) Avoiding use of double negatives d) It can contain a mix of open and closed
c) Asking a single question at a time questions
d) Using simple words of everyday language
34.Identify the type of the question given
29. State whether true or false. Before using below.
a “How do you spend your leisure
data collection tool in the study, it will be time?_____________ (Write any two
useful to get it reviewed by a statistician. activities)”
a) True a) Open ended
b) False b) Closed
c) Semi-open
30. What is FALSE about pilot testing of a d) Open question with closed answers
study
questionnaire? 35.Which of the following is TRUE about
a) It checks the tool for clarity and ‘Open question with closed answers’?
acceptability a) Its answers are not suggested to the
b) It is conducted among persons who will participants
be included in the study b) It can be used in a self-administered
c) It provides an estimate of the duration of questionnaire

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c) It is analyzed like an open ended acceptability

question b) It is conducted among persons who
d) It is expressed as a closed question to the will be included in the study
participants c) It provides an estimate of the duration of
interview
36.What is the type of the question given d) Changes are made to the questionnaire
below? based on its findings
From where do you usually get health-
related information? 41.A researcher decided to use an abstract
i. Television form for collection of data by review of
ii. Radio records for a proposed study. Which of the
iii. Newspaper following can be a source of information?
iv. Magazine a) Clinical registers
v. Others (specify)________________ b) Checklist of items
a) Open ended c) Face to face interviews
b) Closed d) Computer-assisted interviews
c) Semi-open
d) Open question with closed answers 42.A questionnaire can be of the following
types, EXCEPT?
37.Which of the following is FALSE about a) Interviewer-administered
formulating questions in a study tool? b) Self-administered
a) They must be concise and precise c) Checklist
b) They must use scientific terms d) Computer-assisted
c) They must use a neutral tone
d) They must avoid double negatives 43.Which of the following items are placed
in the body of the study instrument?
38.Read the question given below. Which of a) Identifiers
the following rule is NOT followed in its b) Open questions
framing? c) Instructions with prompts
“When and where did you get tested for d) Informed consent
COVID-19 infection?”
a) Using a neutral tone 44.Identify the type of question.
b) Avoiding use of double negatives ‘What disease can you acquire if you
c) Asking a single question at a time consume alcohol? _________________’
d) Using simple words of everyday a) Closed question
language b) Open question with closed ended
answers
39.State whether true or false. Before using c) Open question
a data collection tool in the study, it will be d) Semi-open question
useful to get it reviewed by a statistician.
a) True 45.Identify the type of question.
b) False ‘Did you have any of the symptoms
following COVID disease?
40.What is FALSE about pilot testing of a 1. None
study questionnaire? 2. Breathlessness
a) It checks the tool for clarity and 3. Fatigue

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4. Chest pain
5. Cough 49.Which of the following is the CORRECT
6. Other, specify:__________’ order of questions in a study tool?
a) Closed question a) Simple to complicated
b) Open question with closed-ended b) Specific to general
answers c) Intimate to casual
c) Open question d) Different topics within a single group
d) Semi-open question
50.The data collection tool can be finalised
46.Identify the type of question. ‘How by all the following methods ‘EXCEPT’?
would you describe your pain on a scale of a) Checking instrument against objectives
1-10 where, 1 would be the minimum and and analysis plan
10 would be the maximum? b) Reviewing of the instrument by experts
a) Closed question c) Formulation in English for non-
b) Open question with closed ended English speaking population
answers d) Pilot testing
c) Open question
d) Semi-open question

47.Identify the type of question. Assignment 16: Principles of data

‘What are the practices that may increase
your risk of getting COVID infection collection
(Instruction for data collector - Do not 1.Reliability denotes
propose any options for an answer and a) Precision
simply note the response as given by the b) Repeatability
participant) c) Reproducibility
1. Wearing a mask (Yes/ No/ Not sure) d) All of the above
2. Following social distancing (Yes/
No/ Not sure) 2. This should not be done in data collection
3. Coming in contact with a COVID a) Training of staff members
positive patient (Yes/ No/ Not sure) b) Review of collected data for quality and
4. Socialising indoors (Yes/ No/ Not completeness
sure) c) Manipulation of data
a) Closed question d) Validation
b) Open question with closed-ended
answers 3. Supportive supervision is essential for a
c) Open question good data collection process
d) Semi-open question a) True
b) False
48.Which of the following characteristics is
TRUE about formulating a question in a 4. The collected data should be
questionnaire? a) Complete
a) Scientific language b) Readable
b) Double negatives c) Consistent
c) Precise question d) All of the above
d) General question

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5. Which of the following is (are) true about result in dilution of data quality
the training of data collection staff? a) True
a) Conduct on-site training b) False
b) Conduct mock training sessions
c) Training is always optional 11. A data collection tool should be
d) 'a' and 'b' _____________
a) Valid
6. Which one of the following is the proper b) Reliable
way c) Both 'a' and 'b'
of validating the data? d) None
a) Repetition of full data collection in the
same population 12. A neurosurgeon is planning for a
b) Data collection in new population hospitalbased
c) Repetition of data collection in a study on the patients coming to the
randomly selected subset in the same emergency department with head injury.
population The collected data should be
d) Repeat data collection is not required a) Complete
b) Readable
7. Appropriate means to troubleshoot the c) Consistent
difficulties in data collection process d) All of the above
a) Regular review meetings
b) Facilitate the discussion to identify issues 13. Which of the following should not be
during the review done
c) Clarify the issues experienced by staff in relation to data collection?
during data collection a) Training of staff members
d) All of the above b) Review of collected data for quality and
completeness
8. There is no need to present the study and c) Validation
its d) None of the above
objectives to the field investigators
a) True 14. State whether true or false: Piloting a
b) False data
collection tool should be done under
9. Which of the following statement is (are) supervision
true regarding data collection for an a) True
epidemiological study? b) False
a) Reliability refers to consistency of
information 15. All of the following are true about a
b) Accuracy is the ability of a measurement ‘question by question guide’, except
to be correct on an average a) It is a document for the data collectors
c) Feasibility is the ability of investigator to b) It helps in maintaining uniformity of the
understand the data data collection
d) 'a' and 'b' c) It helps participants on how to respond
d) It clarifies doubts on data collection
10. Time pressure during data collection
may

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16. Time pressure during data collection 21. The ability of an instrument to produce
may similar results on repeated measurement is
result in dilution of the data quality called
a) True a) Validity
b) False b) Reliability
c) Accuracy
17. Which one of the following is the proper d) Sensitivity
way
of validating the data? 22. The mean value of fasting blood sugar
a) Repetition of full data collection in the among 50 healthy volunteers in a
same population community was found to be 90 g/dL with a
b) Data collection in a new population standard deviation of 5 mg/dL using a new
c) Repetition of data collection in a diagnostic test. In the same volunteers, the
randomly selected subset in the same gold standard test found a mean of 88 g/dL
population with standard deviation of 4.7 g/dL. What
d) Repeat data collection not required can be said about the new diagnostic test?
a) The new diagnostic test is valid
18. Which of the following statement is true b) The new diagnostic test is reliable
regarding data collection for an c) The new diagnostic test is valid and
epidemiological study? reliable
a) Reliability refers to consistency of d) The new diagnostic test is invalid and
information unreliable
b) Accuracy is the ability of a measurement
to be correct on an average 23. Which of the following is NOT used as a
c) Both ‘a’ and ‘b’ criterion to judge the quality of data
d) None of the above collected in a study?
a) Accuracy
19. Who is mainly responsible to check the b) Repeatability
accuracy of data collection instruments c) Precision
before leaving the location? d) External validity
a) Field investigator
b) Field supervisor 24. Which of the following should NOT be
c) Principle investigator done
d) Study participant during data collection in a study?
a) Referring to the data collection guide
20. All the following statements are true b) Checking the quality of data
about c) Modifying the study objectives
training of the data collectors, except d) Validating the data collection process
a) Essential to ensure good quality data
b) The investigators should choose the right 25. State whether true or false. Accuracy of
people an
c) Communication skill is important for the instrument is the ability to measure what it
data collectors intends to measure.
d) Onsite training is not essential for data a) True
collectors b) False

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[Type here]

26. Which of the following is the correct investigator

sequence of steps of data collection? b) Continue the interview with the
i. Preparation of data collection guide remaining questions
ii. Checking the collected data for c) Seek the answer to that question from
completeness family members
iii. Training of the data collector d) Try to persuade the participant to
iv. Validating the collected data answer the question somehow
a) i, iv, iii, ii 31.The ability of an instrument to produce
b) ii, iii, iv, i
c) i, iii, ii, iv similar results on repeated measurement is
d) iii, i, iv, iii called
a) Validity
27. State whether true and false. A data
collection guidebook can be revised time to b) Reliability
time as issues in the data collection process c) Accuracy
are identified. d) Internal validity
a) True
b) False
32.The mean value of fasting blood sugar
28. Which of the following should NOT be among 50 healthy volunteers in a
done community was found to be 90 mg/dL using
during training of data collectors?
a) Simulating the data collection procedure a new diagnostic test. In the same
b) Discussing the study objectives with volunteers, the gold standard test found a
them mean of 88 mg/dL. What can be said about
c) Using an early version of the
questionnaire for training the new diagnostic test?
d) Revising the question guide according to a) The new diagnostic test is valid
queries b) The new diagnostic test is reliable
29. Which of the following does NOT apply c) The new diagnostic test is valid and
in reliable
checking the quality of filled forms during d) The new diagnostic test is invalid and
data collection?
unreliable
a) Completeness
b) Consistency
c) Readability 33.Which of the following is NOT used as a
d) Statistical significance criteria to judge the quality of data collected
30. During data collection in a study, a data in a study?
collector is faced with a situation where the a) Accuracy
participant refuses to answer a particular b) Repeatability
question in the middle of the interview.
What is the appropriate action in this c) Precision
situation? d) External validity
a) End the interview and report to the

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[Type here]

34.Which of the following should NOT be them

done during data collection in a study? c) Using an early version of the
a) Referring to the data collection guide questionnaire for training
b) Checking the quality of data d) Revising the question guide according to
c) Modifying the study objectives queries
d) Validating the data collection process
39.Which of the following does not apply in
35.State whether true or false. Accuracy of checking the quality of filled forms during
an instrument is the ability to measure what data collection?
it is intended to measure. a) Completeness
a) True b) Consistency
b) False c) Readability
d) Statistical significance
36.Which of the following is the correct
sequence of steps of data collection? 40.During data collection in a study, a data
i. Preparation of data collection guide collector is faced with a situation where the
ii. Checking the collected data for participant refuses to answer a particular
completeness question in the middle of the interview.
iii. Training of the data collector What is the appropriate action in this
iv. Validating the collected data situation?
a) i, iv, iii, ii a) End the interview and report to the
b) ii, iii, iv, i investigator
c) i, iii, ii, iv b) Continue the interview with the
d) iii, i, iv, iii remaining questions
c) Seek the answer to that question from
37.State whether true and false. A data family members
collection guidebook can be revised time to d) Try to persuade the participant to answer
time as issues in the data collection process the question somehow
are identified.
41.Consistency of information in health
a) True research is otherwise known as ----------.
b) False a) Accuracy
b) Validity
c) Reproducibility
38.Which of the following should NOT be
d) Sensitivity
done during training of data collectors?
a) Simulating the data collection procedure 42.State True or False: Ability of a
measurement to give the same result with
b) Discussing the study objectives with
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[Type here]

repeated measurements of the same thing is 48.All the following checks to be conducted
known as accuracy. in the data collection forms EXCEPT?
a) True a) Consistency
b) False b) Readability
c) Completeness
43.Which of the following is an ideal d) Significance
situation in a health research with respect to
the study results? 49.Which of the following statement is
a) Not reliable, accurate TRUE about validation of data collection
b) Not accurate, reliable process?
c) Not accurate, not reliable a) All the study participant should be
d) Accurate, reliable interviewed
b) A subset of study participants can be
44.Which of the following is considered as a interviewed on convenience
roadmap for good data collection? c) Randomly selected subset of study
a) Training participants can be interviewed
b) Monitoring d) Interview a different population with the
c) Question by question guide same tool
d) Validation
50.State True or False: Question by question
45.When a researcher planning to conduct a guide can be revised as and when the issues
field based study which is the foremost arise during the data collection process.
important criteria to be satisfied with the a) True
field investigator? b) False
a) Familiarity with the local language
b) Well qualified
c) Should know clinical terms
d) All of the above Assignment 17: Data management
46.Conducting a ----------------will be 1. Steps in data management include
helpful for the field investigator to a) Defining a variable, creating a study
understand the complete process and of data database and dictionary
collection activity. b) Enter data, correct errors and create
a) Training data set for analysis
b) Discussion c) Backup and archive data set
c) Pilot study d) All of the above
d) Review meeting
2. When we are creating variable name, it
47.Which is the ideal time to check the should be
completeness of data during the data a) Clearly understandable and should refer
collection activity? to the questionnaire
a) At the end of data collection b) Long and can have spaces
b) Before the respondent leaves c) Consistent and without duplicates
c) During data cleaning d) 'a' and 'c'
d) Both ‘b’ and ‘c’
3. In a data management system, each row

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represents a databases and link when necessary

a) Variable a) True
b) Record b) False
c) Heading
d) Appendix 10. Which of the following is (are) not true
about normalized database?
4. What is (are) the specifications that we a) Normalized database facilitates further
need to check before doing data entry? aggregation
a) Minimum and maximum values, legal b) It has only one count by record
codes, skip patterns c) Normalized database does not facilitate
b) Record name and description of record further data aggregation
c) Automatic coding, coping data from d) 'a' and 'b'
preceding record and calculations
d) 'a' and 'c' 11. A post-graduate researcher has
completed
5. Identifier in the database is (are) the data collection for her thesis. During
a) Unique data management, she should do all the
b) Maintained by a computerized index following, except
c) Secured by quality assurance procedures a) Applying for the ethics committee
d) All of the above clearance
b) Create study database
6. Key elements of data management c) Create dataset for analysis
a) Data structure and data entry d) Back-up dataset
b) Individual and aggregated databases
c) Mother and daughter databases 12. Data documentation includes
d) All of the above information
about the following items
7. The design of data collection instrument a) Structure (Name, number of records etc)
a) Data entry friendly alone
b) Outline of major data collection b) Storage information (Media, location,
topics/items backup information)
c) Auto coding function c) Structure (Name, number of records
d) All of the above etc), Variables (Name, values, coding),
History (Creation, modification), and
8. When we are coding for data entry, we Storage information (Media, location,
should backup information)
a) Prefer numerical coding d) Structure (Name, number of records
b) Use highly complex codes etc), Storage information (Media,
c) Decide on the codes for 'missing values' location, backup information), and
and 'not applicable' items Variables (Name, values, coding)
d) 'a' and 'c'
13. A variable name should be
9. When information is available at various a) Clearly understandable and should refer
levels (e.g. at Village, Household, Individual to the questionnaire
and Illness episode), we can store b) Short, no space
information at each level in separate c) Consistent and without duplicates

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d) All of the above

19. Which of the following is incorrect in
14. Design of data entry can be broadly relation to the data catalogue?
outlined as a) It describes all the variable for any future
a) Identifier, Demographics, Outcome, reference
and b) It is useful if we share the data with
Exposure others
b) Informed consent, Identifier, and c) It is useful to know how a variable has
Demographics been coded
c) Identifier, Demographics, Outcome and d) It is advisable to exclude the missing
data analysis plan values from data catalogue
d) Informed consent, Identifier,
Demographics, Outcome and data 20. Which of the following is incorrect
analysis plan about
normalized database?
15. All of the following are true about a) Normalized database facilitates further
‘Coding’ aggregation
a new variable, except b) It has only one count by record
a) Prefer numerical coding c) Normalized database does not facilitate
b) Decide on missing values while coding further data aggregation
c) Avoid cumbersome codes d) Both ‘b’ and ‘c’
d) Coding with ‘0’ and ‘1’ should be
avoided for dichotomous variables 21. Which of the following is FALSE about
Unique Identifier (ID)?
16. Data entry can be considered as an a) It can be same for more than one
opportunity to partially clean the data participant in a study
a) True b) It can be alphanumeric
b) False c) It can be a composite number
d) It can be used to maintain the anonymity
17. A researcher in diabetes expected that of participants
that
the fasting blood sugar levels may take any 22. Which of the following is NOT a quality
value between 50 and 150 gm/dL. In this assurance measure in designing a data
research any coding of missing value as 99 entry form?
may lead to an erroneous result. a) Using legal values
a) True b) Using minimum and maximum values
b) False c) Avoiding skip patterns
d) Use of automatic coding
18. While documenting the storage
information 23. In a data management system each
of the database, we need to document column
a) Investigators information represents a(n)-
b) Time, place, person information a) Variable
c) Media, location and backup b) Record
information c) Heading
d) Hardware configuration d) Appendix

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a) Nominal
24. Which of the following is FALSE about b) Ordinal
Mother-Daughter databases? c) Categorical
a) Information is collected at various levels d) Continuous
b) Information of each level is stored in a
different database 29. In a study with 100 participants, age was
c) They can be linked by a common index recorded as a continuous variable. During
identifier data entry, it was seen that age was missing
d) Each database cannot have its own in the forms for 13 people. Which of the
unique identifier system following is TRUE in this situation?
a) Missing values can be coded as ‘999’
25. State whether true or false. Coding with b) Age variable should be removed from
‘0’ the study
and ‘1’ should be avoided for dichotomous c) An arbitrary value can be assigned by the
variables. data entry operator
a) True d) Participants with missing age should be
b) False removed from the study

26. Which of the following is FALSE about 30. State whether true or false. While
data entering
dictionary? the systolic blood pressure (expected value
a) It is created after the data entry is 60 to 200) value in a database, coding the
started missing value as 99 may lead to an
b) It contains the values assigned to the erroneous result.
variables a) True
c) It gives a brief description of the b) False
variables
d) It links the variables in the database to 31.Which of the following is FALSE about
the questionnaire Unique Identifier (ID)?
a) It can be same for more than one
27. Identify the type of variable in this participant in a study
question. “Have you ever smoked b) It can be alphanumeric
cigarettes? c) It can be a composite number
i. Yes d) It can be used to maintain the anonymity
ii. No of participants
a) Categorical
b) Ordinal 32.Which of the following is NOT a quality
c) Continuous assurance measure in designing a data entry
d) Discrete form?
a) Using Legal values
28. In a study on cancer, the ‘stage of b) Using minimum and maximum values
cancer’ c) Avoiding skip patterns
was recorded as Stage I, Stage II, Stage III d) Use of automatic coding
and Stage IV. Which of the following
variable types best describes the ‘stage of 33.In a data management system each
cancer’? column represents a(n)-

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[Type here]

a) Variable cancer’?
b) Record
c) Heading a) Nominal
d) Appendix b) Ordinal
c) Categorical
34.Which of the following is FALSE about d) Continuous
Mother-Daughter databases?
a) Information is collected at various levels 39.In a study with 100 participants, age was
b) Information of each level is stored in a recorded as a continuous variable. During
different database data entry, it was seen that age was missing
c) They can be linked by a common index in the forms for 13 people. Which of the
identifier following is TRUE in this situation?
d) Each database cannot have its own a) Missing values can be coded as ‘999’
unique identifier system b) Age variable should be removed from the
study
35.State whether true or false. Coding with c) An arbitrary value can be assigned by the
‘0’ and ‘1’ should be avoided for data entry operator
dichotomous variables. d) Participants with missing age should be
a) True removed from the study
b) False
40.State whether true or false. While
36.Which of the following is FALSE about entering the systolic blood pressure
data dictionary? (expected value 60 to 200) value in a
a) It is created after the data entry is database, coding the missing value as 99
started may lead to an erroneous result.
b) It contains the values assigned to the a) True
variables b) False
c) It gives a brief description of the
variables 41.State whether true or false. Data entry
d) It links the variables in the database to can be viewed as a mechanism to clean up
the questionnaire the data to some extent.
a) True
37.Identify the type of variable in this b) False
question.
“Have you ever smoked cigarettes? 42.In a database management system, the
1. Yes dictionary contains information about the
2. No” following EXCEPT
a) Categorical a) Questionnaire item
b) Ordinal b) Variable name
c) Continuous c) Variable type
d) Discrete d) Number of records

38.In a study on cancer, the ‘stage of cancer’ 43.A post graduate researcher is designing a
was recorded as Stage I, Stage II, Stage III data entry module for his thesis project. All
and Stage IV. Which of the following the following are essential for maintaining
variable types best describes the ‘stage of quality of data EXCEPT

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[Type here]

a) Use of legal value and range checks 2. No”

b) Pilot test of the data entry module before a) Categorical
data collection b) Ordinal
c) Use of sample size calculation c) Continuous
software d) Discrete
d) Use of experienced data entry operators
49.In a study on cancer, the ‘stage of cancer’
44.State whether true or false. While was recorded as Stage I, Stage II, Stage III
entering the systolic blood pressure and Stage IV. Which of the following
(expected value 60 to 200) value in a variable types best describes the ‘stage of
database, coding the missing value as 99 cancer’?
may lead to an erroneous result. a) Nominal
a) True b) Ordinal
b) False c) Categorical
d) Continuous
45.Which of the following is a disadvantage
of the statistical software ‘EpiInfo’?(O)
a) Enables questionnaire design 50.In a study with 100 participants, age was
b) It is built for WINDOWS OS only recorded as a continuous variable. During
c) Useful for data entry and validation data entry, it was seen that age was missing
d) Displays locationdata on map in the forms for 13 people. Which of the
following is truein this situation?
46.While documenting the storage a) Missing values can be coded as ‘999’
information of the database, we need to b) Age variable should be removed from the
document which of the following? study
a) Investigators information c) An arbitrary value can be assigned by the
b) Time, place, person information data entry operator
c) Media, location and backup d) Participants with missing age should be
information removed from the study
d) Hardware configuration

47.Which of the following is FALSE about

data dictionary? Assignment 18: Overview of data
a) It is created after the data entry is
started analysis
b) It contains the values assigned to the 1.The three stages of data analysis are in the
variables following order
c) It gives a brief description of the a) Descriptive stage, analytical stage and
variables recoding stage
d) It links the variables in the database to b) Recoding stage, descriptive stage and
the questionnaire analytical stage
c) Analytical stage, descriptive stage and
48.Identify the type of variable in this recoding stage
question. d) Descriptive stage, coding stage, recoding
“Have you ever smoked cigarettes? stage
1. Yes

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2. We need to avoid the following while 7. In case of descriptive studies, which of

performing data analysis the
a) Post hoc analysis following is wrong?
b) Data drenching a) We describe the study outcome for 1
c) Stratified data analysis group
d) 'a' and 'b' b) We compare the study outcome for 2
groups
3. In the descriptive stage of analysis, we c) We calculate the incidence for cohort or
use surveillance data
logistic regression models d) We calculate prevalence for cross
a) True sectional survey
b) False
8. If we are doing an analytical study and the
4. "Epi-Info" is a software used for data study outcome is of acute nature and rare
entry condition what is the appropriate (i) study
and data analysis design and (ii) measure of association?
a) True a) Cohort study - Relative risk
b) False b) Case-control study - Odds ratio
c) Cross-sectional study - Prevalence ratio
5. In analytical stage of data analysis, we d) Surveillance - Incidence
perform the following in order
a) Stratified analysis, univariate analysis 9. Analysis plan depends on
and multivariate analysis a) Objectives of the study
b) Univariate analysis, stratified analysis b) Budget
and multivariate analysis c) Study type (Descriptive or analytical)
c) Multivariate analysis, univariate analysis d) 'a' and 'c'
and stratified analysis
d) Frequency analysis and univariate 10. Use of spreadsheets, such as Excel,
analysis should
be avoided for data management and
6. Among the seven steps of data analysis analysis
strategy, the sequence of data analysis is as a) True
follows b) False
A. Conduct advanced analysis
B. Identify main variables 11. Multivariate regression models are used
C. Become familiar with the data during the descriptive stage of analysis
D. Identify study type a) True
E. Examine outcome/exposure b) False
association
F. Characterize study population 12. “Epi-Info” is a software that can be used
G. Create additional two-way tables to
a) A, B, C, D, E, F, G create data collection instrument format
b) G, E, F, D, A, B, C a) True
c) D, B, C, F, E, G, A b) False
d) E, F, G, C, A, B, D
13. In a research study the analysis plan

95
[Type here]

depends on c) Multivariate analysis is done before

a) Objectives and study type doing a univariate analysis
b) Allocated budget d) Data drenching is acceptable
c) Availability of the statistician
d) Existing time for analysis 19. Which of the following is the correct
sequence for data analysis
14. At the time of data cleaning, which of i. Multivariate analysis
the ii. Recoding
following is not done? iii. Measures of association
a) Checking and removing duplicates iv. Frequency distribution
b) Dealing with missing observations a) ii, iii, iv, i
c) Calculating strength of association b) i, iii, iv ii
d) Checking range and legal values c) ii, iv, iii, i
d) iii, iv, i, ii
15. To describe the study population
characteristics we need to 20. Spreadsheets are ideal tools for data
a) Calculate the frequency distribution entry
b) Calculate measures of association and analysis
c) Look for correlation between variables a) True
d) perform multivariable regression b) False

16. While examining the association 21. All the following are done to
between characterize
exposure and outcome based on a priori the study population EXCEPT
hypotheses, we compare frequency of a) Provide frequency distribution of age
exposures between cases and controls b) Provide percentages of gender
using appropriate measure of association c) Compare baseline characteristics of
a) True study groups
b) False d) Conduct logistic regression analysis

17. If we are doing an analytical study and 22. Which of the following is the
the appropriate
study outcome is of acute nature and a measure of association in a case-control
frequent condition what is the appropriate study?
(i) study design and (ii) measure of a) Odds ratio
association? b) Prevalence ratio
a) Cohort study - relative risk c) Relative risk
b) Case-control study – odds ratio d) Incidence
c) Cross sectional study - Prevalence
d) Surveillance - Incidence 23. State whether true or false. Prevalence
ratio is one of the measures of association
18. Which of the following statements are calculated in an analytical cross-sectional
CORRECT study.
a) Plan for data analysis is made at the end a) True
of the study b) False
b) Recoding can be done for key variables

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24. State whether true or false. Hypothesis

testing is conducted in an analytical 29. In a case-control study to examine the
epidemiological study. association between mobile phone use and
a) True acoustic neuroma, 24 cases of acoustic
b) False neuroma and 72 hospital controls were
recruited from the ENT department of a
25. Identify the correct sequence in the steps medical college in Gilgit. History of mobile
of data analysis. phone use (>6 hours/day) was ascertained
i. Identify exposure, outcome and using a standard questionnaire. Exposure
other variables was present among 16 cases and 18
ii. Check data for consistency, controls. Calculate the measure of
duplicates and missing values association.
iii. Examine association between a) Odds ratio 1.5
outcome and exposure b) Relative risk 1.5
iv. Examine baseline characteristics of c) Odds ratio 6
the study population d) Relative risk 6
a) i, ii, iii, iv
b) i, ii, iv, iii 30. In a case control conducted taking 100
c) ii, iv, i, iii autism children and 200 normal children in
d) iii, i, ii, iv Bhopal city, it was found that 90 autism
children and 60 normal children had a
26. Which of the following is NOT done history of instrumental delivery. Calculate
during the measure of association between
the analytic stage of data analysis? instrumental delivery and autism.
a) Calculating frequency of the outcome in a) 12
one group b) 21
b) Calculating frequency of the outcome by c) 6
age and gender d) 9
c) Calculating odds ratio between
exposure and outcome 31.All the following are done to characterize
d) Applying logistic regression the study population EXCEPT
a) Provide frequency distribution of age
27. Relative risk is calculated in which of b) Provide percentages of gender
the c) Compare baseline characteristics of study
following study designs? groups
a) Cross-sectional study d) Conduct logistic regression analysis
b) Cohort study
c) Case study 32.Which of the following is the appropriate
d) Case control study measure of association in a case-control
study?
28. State whether true or false. Risk ratio a) Odds ratio
can b) Prevalence ratio
be calculated in a descriptive crosssectional c) Relative risk
study. d) Incidence
a) True
b) False 33.State whether true or false. Prevalence

97
[Type here]

ratio is one of the measures of association study.

calculated in an analytical cross-sectional a) True
study. b) False
a) True
b) False 39.In a case-control study to examine the
association between mobile phone use and
34.State whether true or false. Hypothesis acoustic neuroma, 24 cases of acoustic
testing is conducted in an analytical neuroma and 72 hospital controls were
epidemiological study. recruited from the ENT department of a
a) True medical college in Gilgit. History of mobile
b) False phone use (>6 hours/day) was ascertained
using a standard questionnaire. Exposure
35.Identify the correct sequence in the steps was present among 16 cases and 18 controls.
of data analysis. Calculate the measure of association.
i. Identify exposure, outcome and other a) Odds ratio 1.5
variables b) Relative risk 1.5
ii. Check data for consistency, c) Odds ratio 6
duplicates and missing values d) Relative risk 6
iii. Examine association between
outcome and exposure 40.In a nutritional survey conducted among
iv. Examine baseline characteristics of 300 adolescent girls in Bhopal city, it was
the study population found that the mean energy intake was 1400
a) i, ii, iii, iv Kcal/day. Also, it was seen that 1/3rd of the
b) i, ii, iv, iii girls were consuming <1300 Kcal/day (low
c) ii, iv, i, iii energy intake). Half of the study population
d) iii, i, ii, iv belonged to lower social-economic class and
among them 90 were found to have low
36.Which of the following is NOT done energy intake. Calculate the measure of
during the analytic stage of data analysis? association between lower socio-economic
a) Calculating frequency of the outcome class and low energy intake.
in one group a) 12
b) Calculating frequency of the outcome by b) 21
age and gender c) 6
c) Calculating odds ratio between exposure d) 9
and outcome
d) Applying logistic regression 41.The plan for data analysis depends on
_____________.
37.Relative risk is calculated in which of the a) Objective of the study
following study designs? b) Study design
a) Cross-sectional study c) Type of outcome variable
b) Cohort study d) All of these
c) Case study
d) Case control study 42.Association between cervical cancer and
use of Intra uterine contraceptive device is
38.State whether true or false. Risk ratio can analysed separately among persons with
be calculated in a descriptive cross-sectional multiple sexual partners and persons with

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[Type here]

single sexual partner. This analysis is an c) Recoding of data is done following

example of _______________. descriptive and analytical data analysis
a) Multivariable adjusted analysis d) Multivariable analysis is done to adjust
b) Stratified analysis for potential confounders
c) Regression analysis
d) Dose-response analysis 48.The preferred measure of association for
a case-control study is _____________.
43.The first important step to be done before a) Risk ratio
data analysis is to______________. b) Odds ratio
a) Identify main variables c) Prevalence ratio
b) Become familiar with the data d) Prevalence odds ratio
c) Identify the study design
d) Examine the outcome/exposure analysis 49.State whether true or false. Spreadsheets
are preferred tools for data management and
44.Analytical study is used for analysis of large quantity of data.
___________. a) True
a) Testing of hypothesis b) False
b) Estimation of a parameter
c) Hypothesis formulation 50.In a cohort study to examine the
d) Describing a population association between use of Oral
contraceptive pills (OCP) and development
45.Prevalence ratio is the preferred measure of breast cancer, 35 out of 8,000 women
of association in _______________. who used OCP and 33 out of the 22,000
a) Analytical cross-sectional study women who did not use OCP had developed
b) Cohort study breast cancer over 10 years of follow-up.
c) Case-control study Calculate the measure of association.
d) Descriptive cross-sectional study a) 1.3
b) 1.5
46.What is the correct sequence of data c) 1.8
analysis strategy? d) 2.0
i. Characterizing the study population
ii. Conducting stratified analysis
iii. Identifying study variables
iv. Creating additional two-way tables Assignment 19: Ethical framework
v. Identifying study design
a) i, v, iii, iv, ii for health research
b) v, iii, i, iv, ii 1. In which of the following guidelines,
c) v, i, iii, ii, iv discussion on rationale and justification of
d) iii, v, i, ii, iv risk benefit analysis of research and
voluntary consent in research was initiated?
47.The following are true about data a) Belmont report
analysis EXCEPT b) Helsinki declaration
a) Data analysis plan should be prepared in c) Nuremberg code
advance d) CIOMS guidelines
b) Post hoc analysis which was not part of
the original plan should be avoided

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2. In which type of the following participation

study/studies c) Lack of adherence to study protocol
is (are) informed consent not necessary? d) 'b' and 'c'
a) Investigation of an outbreak
b) Analysis of mortality data of 2001-2010 7. "Do no harm" concept was emphasized in
c) Using verbal autopsy to determine the which of the following ethical principles?
cause of death a) Justice
d) All of the above b) Autonomy
c) Beneficence
3. In which of the following type of d) Non-Maleficence
research,
ethical review is (are) mandatory? 8. Genetic research that involves human
a) Prevalence of HIV infection using blood participants and conducted by a private
investigation research institute should follow
b) Awareness about diabetes using a) ICMR Guidelines
questionnaire only b) Genome Policy and Genetic Research
c) Calculate out of pocket expenditure [2000]
using secondary data c) Both 'a' and 'b'
d) All of the above d) Neither 'a' nor 'b'

4. Which of the following is not important in 9. While conducting research among tribal
the context of an informed consent populations, which of the following is
document? recommended?
a) Detailed description of study procedures a) Consent from the tribal head (Group
b) Budget of the study consent) is desirable
c) Details regarding compensation and b) Group consent can replace individual
post-trial access to care consent
d) Contact details of the Principal c) Women can be excluded from informed
Investigator consent process
d) Confidentiality not required
5. In the middle of a clinical trial, one
participant decides to withdraw from the 10. In a clinical research, the researcher
trial. But, the investigator pressurizes the knowingly excludes recruitment of female
participant to continue in the study till it participants without any compelling
completes. Which of the following ethical indications. Which of the following ethical
principles does the investigator violate? principle does the investigator violate?
a) Justice a) Justice
b) Autonomy b) Autonomy
c) Beneficence c) Beneficence
d) Non-Maleficence d) Non-Maleficence

6. Which of the following are not ethical 11. In which of the following situations is
practices in health research? ethics
a) Taking informed consent from review essential?
participants prior to study participation a) When already available or archived data
b) Giving lot of money to increase study are used for research

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[Type here]

b) Involving some risk when some 16. Which of the following have the
questions are asked, some samples are guidance in
collected or some drugs are given the Belmont report?
c) ‘a’ and ‘b’ a) The procedure of ‘informed consent’
d) Only ‘b’ b) The basic ethics principles of autonomy,
justice and beneficence
12. A study participant can be forced by the c) Review by ethics committee
investigator to continue in a trial against his d) All of the above
will. This is in conflict with which of the e) None of the above
following ethical principles?
a) Autonomy 17. Which of the following is typically not
b) Justice within
c) Beneficence the domain of ethical review of the
d) None of the above proposed research?
a) Novelty of research
13. The physician should do what is b) Competence of researchers
medically c) Relevance of research
indicated, do good than possible harm. This d) To advocate for the study in the
principle is encompassed in the ethical community
dimension of:
a) Beneficence 18. The process of Informed consent can be
b) Justice repeated several times during the research
c) Nonmaleficence study if necessary.
d) Autonomy a) True
b) False
14. Study monitors, regulators and ethics
committee members have an authority to 19. As part of evaluation of a new vaccine
verify the consent documentation of which
research participants. requires taking a daily oral dose of a
a) True refrigerated vaccine, the research team
b) False offers to provide a refrigerator to families of
participants who don’t have one. Which of
15. Which of the following is not true about the following ethical issues the Institutional
an Ethics Committee will have to deal with
Informed Consent? while reviewing the research study?
a) IC helps participants take an informed a) Undue inducement
decision about participation in the b) Coercion
research study c) Compromising principle of justice
b) IC has information on potential risks and d) None of the above
benefits of the study
c) IC process intends to protect the study 20. In an observational study on menstrual
participants hygiene among school going girls aged 14 to
d) IC taken by coercion is considered 16 years, informed assent will be required to
valid be taken from the adolescent girls. In
addition, informed consent will be required
from:

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[Type here]

a) Parent of adolescent girls participant has provided informed consent,

b) Institutional Head it cannot be withdrawn.
c) Both a) True
d) None of the above b) False

21. State whether true or false. Review of 27. Which of these is NOT a part of
health informed
records for research does NOT require consent process?
approval of institute ethics committee a) Confidentiality
a) True b) Disclosure of risks and benefits
b) False c) Compensation for lost wages
d) Encouraging the person to consent
22. A participant wants to withdraw from a
study before its completion. Which of the 28. Which of the following statement is
following principles of ethics entitles NOT
him/her to do so? correct?
a) Autonomy a) Compensation for participants is offered
b) Justice for trial related injury
c) Beneficence b) Research participants can be paid for
d) Non-maleficence travel expenses
c) Payment can be offered to encourage
23. Which of the following does NOT participation
describe d) Wage loss of the participants can be
ethical principles in research? compensated
a) Nuremberg code
b) Helsinki declaration 29. Which of the following is NOT a
c) Council for International Organization responsibility of the Institutional Ethics
and Medical Sciences Committee?
d) Bhore report a) Evaluate the potential benefit from the
study to the community
24. When a research study is planned among b) Protect the rights of the study
adolescents (12-15 years), the following is participants
NOT required? c) Sanction funding for the study
a) Assent from participant d) Re-evaluate the study if and when
b) Consent from participant modified
c) Consent from parent
d) Consent from legally accepted 30. When a particular ethnic group is
representative excluded
from a research study without any valid,
25. Non-Maleficence means scientific reason(s), this is breach of -
a) Self-respect a) Autonomy
b) Do no harm b) Justice
c) Fair and correct c) Beneficence
d) Doing good d) Non maleficence

26. State whether true or false. Once a 31.Review of health records for research

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[Type here]

does not require approval of institute ethics b) Disclosure of risks and benefits
committee c) Compensation for lost wages
a) True d) Encouraging the person to consent
b) False
38.Which of the following statement is NOT
32.A participant enrolled in a study wants to correct?
withdraw from the study half way through a) Compensation for participants is offered
the study. Which of the following principles for trial related injury
of ethics entitles him/her to do so? b) Research participants can be paid for
a) Autonomy travel expenses
b) Justice c) Payment can be offered to encourage
c) Beneficence participation
d) Non-maleficence d) Wage loss of the participants can be
compensated
33.Which of the following does NOT
describe ethical principles in research? 39.Which of the following is NOT a
a) Nuremberg code responsibility of the Institutional Ethics
b) Helsinki declaration Committee?
c) Council for International Organization a) Evaluate the potential benefit from the
and Medical Sciences study to the community
d) Bhore report b) Protect the rights of the study
participants
34.When a research study is planned among c) Sanction funding for the study
adolescents (12-18 years), the following is d) Re-evaluate the study if and when
NOT taken? modified
a) Assent from participant
b) Consent from participant 40.When a particular ethnic group is
c) Consent from parent excluded from a research study without any
d) Consent from legally accepted valid, scientific reason(s), this is breach of -
representative a) Autonomy
b) Justice
35.Non-Maleficence means- c) Beneficence
a) Self-respect d) Non maleficence
b) Do no harm
c) Fair and correct 41.State whether True or False: An
d) Doing good interview-based research is exempted from
ethics committee review.
36.State whether true or false. Once a a) True
participant has provided informed consent, it b) False
cannot be changed.
a) True 42.Which of the following study primarily
b) False lead to the establishment of Belmont report?
a) Nuremberg trial
37.Which of these is NOT a part of b) Tuskegee syphilis study
informed consent process? c) Doctors trial
a) Confidentiality d) Scopes monkey trial

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advisable to repeat the informed consent

43.Which of the following context will fall process during the study.
under the breach of ‘Justice’, one of the a) True
basic ethical principles? b) False
a) Disclosing personal identity of the study
participants 49. which of the following statement is
b) Conveying insufficient information about INCORRECT about informed consent?
the study
c) Excluding a particular gender from a) Informed consent process can be
participation in a study without any valid repeated if required during the conduct of
reason the study
d) Failing to provide the required ‘safety b) Individual consent is not required in
measures’ of the participant presence of a group consent is obtained
from a study group
44.‘Do no harm’ implies to which of the c) Informed consent must have the
following ethical principle? complete details of the proposed research
a) Beneficence d) Contact information of the principal
b) Non maleficence investigator is a must in the information
c) Autonomy sheet
d) Justice
50.Which of the following is recommended
45.Which of the following ethical principle when a study participant is illiterate and
insists the voluntary decision of an cannot sign the informed consent form?
individual to participate in a research? a) Informed consent process can be skipped
a) Beneficence b) Need to have an impartial witness
b) Non maleficence c) Exclude the individual from participation
c) Autonomy d) Field investigator can sign the form
d) Justice

46.Which of the following ethical principles

suggests that the research plan should be fair Assignment 20: Conducting clinical
and correct to everyone irrespective of any trials
socio, demographic, and cultural factors?
a) Justice 1.A study design that randomly assigns
b) Autonomy participants into an experimental group or
c) Beneficence a control group is call as
d) Non maleficence a) Cohort study
b) Case-control study
47.Informed consent primarily deals with c) Randomized controlled trials
which of the following ethical principle? d) Cross-sectional study
a) Autonomy
b) Justice 2. Which of the following statements is (are)
c) Beneficence true in case of adverse events in a clinical
d) Non maleficence trial?
a) An unexpected clinical/familial/social
48.State whether True or False: It is not problem that occurs during treatment

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with a drug or other therapy is termed as

adverse event 7. The primary responsibilities of the Data
b) Adverse events do not have to be caused Safety Monitoring Body (DSMB) are to
by the drug or therapy under trial a) Periodically review and evaluate the
c) Temporal relationship between study accumulated study data for participant
product administration and adverse safety, study conduct and progress of
events is critically important trial
d) All of the above b) Periodically review and evaluate the
accumulated study data for participant
3. To ensure that safety and welfare of the safety, study conduct and progress and
research participants is adequately make recommendation concerning the
protected, it is important that the clinical continuation, modification, or
trial protocol is critically reviewed for the termination of the trial
following c) Periodically make recommendations
a) Scientific content concerning the continuation,
b) Ethical issues modification, or termination of the trial
c) Regulatory norms d) Decide the randomization sequence
d) All of the above
8. Which of the following best describes the
4. Informed consent is provided after advantages of conducting a Randomized
explanation of controlled trial?
a) All study procedures a) It is only effective design for
b) Risks overcoming selection bias of
c) Benefits participants
d) All of the above b) The result can be readily generalized
c) It is a simple, uncomplicated and
5. Bodies like Drug Controller General of nonregulated study design
India d) It requires small sample size
(DCGI) and Health Ministry Screening
Committee (HMSC) are concerned with the 9. When is the Informed consent obtained
following from the subjects in a clinical trial?
a) Regulatory review a) Prior to participation in the trial
b) Scientific review b) Just after the trial has started
c) Ethics review c) At any point during the conduct of a trial
d) All of the above d) At the end of the trial

6. Which of the following is (are) monitored 10. Investigators are required to report
in adverse
a clinical trial? events occurring during a clinical trial to
a) Adherence to Good Clinical Practice which of the following agencies?
(GCP) a) Regulatory authority
b) Documentation of informed consent, b) Sponsor
randomization and study product c) Institutional Ethics Committee
administration d) All of the above
c) Adverse events reporting
d) All of the above

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11. A method of allocating treatment such 15. Clinical trials require review at various
that levels as per the in-country guidelines.
each subject has an equal chance of State whether true or false.
receiving any of the possible treatments in a) True
a clinical trial is known as: b) False
a) Blinding
b) Randomization 16. The most common method of preventing
c) Allocation concealment potential harm to study participants is by
d) None of the above. adhering to ‘trial stoppage rules’ based on
evidence on unacceptable toxicity or
12. Which of the following statements adverse effects rates seen during
regarding document storage and archival monitoring. State whether true or false.
after the conclusion of a trial; is correct? a) True
a) If the data is computerized, there is no b) False
need to archive paper based records.
b) The investigator has a right to refuse to 17. Which of the following is true about
show the data even to regulatory screening protocol of a clinical trial?
authorities a) Those who are interested in participating
c) Archival for a period of 5 - 15 years as in the trial participate in an interview
per the requirement of the sponsor may may have to undergo medical
be necessary examination
d) All of the above b) Eligibility of the potential participant is
determined in screening
13. Which of the following is not true? c) Information on study related procedures
a) Data Safety Monitoring Body (DSMB) is and inclusion and exclusion criteria are
an independent entity. provided by the study investigators to
b) DSMB is appointed by the the potential participants
Investigators d) All the above three statements are true
c) DSMB periodically reviews and e) None of the above is true
evaluates the accumulated study data f) Only ‘a’ is true
for participants’ safety
d) DSMB assures that the scientific 18. Reimbursements for which of the
integrity of the trial is maintained following
during the period of interim analysis raise no ethical questions?
a) Compensating for the time spent in
14. An unexpected clinical/ familial/ social coming over and the loss of daily wages
problem that occurs while on treatment due to participation
with a drug or other therapy during b) For the travel cost involved
participation in a clinical trial without any c) For food expenses
judgment about causality or relationship to d) Only ‘a’ and ‘b’
the drug is known as: e) ‘a’, ‘b’ and ‘c’
a) Serious adverse event
b) Adverse event 19. Which of the following statements is
c) Reportable event wrong?
d) None of the above a) Drug Controller General of India is a
Regulatory Authority in India

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b) Institutional Governing Board is a) Baseline characteristics of participants

responsible for scientific review of should be compared across study arms
projects b) Interim analysis can be performed if
c) Institutional Ethics Committee is prestated
responsible for ethics review of a in the protocol
proposal c) Analyses in clinical trials are only
d) None of the above descriptive in nature
d) People who are lost to follow up can be
20. Which of the following are NOT included in the analysis
methods
for identifying and preventing potential 25. Which of the following is FALSE when
harm to study participants? dealing with serious adverse events in a
a) Adverse and serious adverse events clinical trial?
reporting a) Making provision for free treatment
b) Periodic review of the project by Data b) Informing the regulatory authorities
Safety Monitoring Board c) Taking action only if 1% are affected
c) Close watch on enrolment targets by
d) Regular monitoring of the trial by a the adverse events
preidentified d) Withdrawing the implicated intervention
monitoring agency for the affected

21. State whether true or false. The scientific 26. A trial can be pre-maturely stopped if
advisory committee examines the safety a) A significant unanticipated risk is
and welfare of the research participants in demonstrated
a trial. b) The investigators lose interest
a) True c) The principal investigator retires
b) False d) Minor adverse events are reported

22. If the project is getting funded 27. Data Safety Monitoring Body (DSMB)
internationally, which of the following is
committees looks at the regulatory affairs? primarily responsible for which of the
a) Health ministry screening committee following?
b) Genetic engineering approval committee a) Periodically review and evaluate the
c) Ethics committee accumulated study data for participant
d) All the above safety
b) Periodically review and evaluate the
23. State whether true or false. In order for a study conduct and progress
clinical trial to be ethically appropriate, c) Make recommendations concerning the
participants must give their informed continuation, modification, or
voluntary consent. termination of a clinical trial
a) True d) All of the above
b) False
28. Which of the following is NOT an
24. Which of the following is FALSE with advantage
regard of a Randomized Controlled Trial?
to data analysis in clinical trials? a) Controls for confounding bias effectively

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b) Provides high level of evidence

c) Can be conducted in the community or 34.Which of the following is FALSE with
hospital regard to data analysis in clinical trials?
d) Blinding in trial eliminates selection bias a) Baseline characteristics of participants
should be compared across study arms
29. Which of the following statement is b) Interim analysis can be performed if pre-
FALSE stated in the protocol
with regards to a Randomized Controlled c) Analyses in clinical trials are only
Trial? descriptive in nature
a) Adverse events should be reported to d) People who are lost to follow up can be
the Data Safety Monitoring Board included in the analysis
b) Trial related documents must be
archived after the trial is over 35.Which of the following is FALSE when
c) Drug trials ideally should have a dealing with serious adverse events in a
predefined clinical trial?
stoppage rule a) Making provision for free treatment
d) Ethics committee clearance cannot be b) Informing the regulatory authorities
withdrawn after initial approval c) Taking action only if 1% are affected
by the adverse events
30. State whether true or false. It is unethical d) Withdrawing the implicated intervention
to use a placebo for the control arm instead for the affected
of the current standard of care in a clinical
trial. 36.A trial can be pre-maturely stopped if
a) True a) A significant unanticipated risk is
b) False demonstrated
b) The investigators lose interest
31.State whether true or false. The scientific c) The principal investigator retires
advisory committee examines the safety and d) Minor adverse events are reported
welfare of the research participants in a trial.
a) True 37.Data Safety Monitoring Body (DSMB) is
b) False primarily responsible for which of the
following:
32.If the project is getting funded a) Periodically review and evaluate the
internationally, which of the following accumulated study data for participant safety
committees looks at the regulatory affairs? b) Periodically review and evaluate the
a) Health ministry screening committee study conduct and progress
b) Genetic engineering approval committee c) Make recommendations concerning the
c) Ethics committee continuation, modification, or termination of
d) All the above a clinical trial
d) All of the above
33.State whether true or false. In order for a
clinical trial to be ethically appropriate, 38.Which of the following is NOT an
participants must give their informed advantage of a Randomized Controlled
voluntary consent. Trial?
a) True a) Controls for confounding bias effectively
b) False b) Provides high level of evidence

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c) Can be conducted in the community or control group is called _______________.

hospital a) Cohort study
d) Blinding in trial eliminates selection b) Randomized controlled trials
bias c) Case-control study
d) Cross-sectional study
39.Which of the following statement is
FALSE with regards to a Randomized 44.Investigators are required to report
Controlled Trial? adverse events occurring during a clinical
a) Adverse events should be reported to the trial to all the following agencies EXCEPT?
Data Safety Monitoring Board a) Regulatory authority
b) Trial related documents must be archived b) Sponsor
after the trial is over c) Institutional Ethics Committee
c) Drug trials ideally should have a pre- d) Scientific Advisory Committee
defined stoppage rule
d) Ethics committee clearance cannot be 45.A randomized controlled trial can be pre-
withdrawn after initial approval maturely stopped if:
a) The investigators lose interest
40.State whether true or false. It is unethical b) A significant unanticipated risk is
to use a placebo for the control arm instead demonstrated
of the current standard of care in a clinical c) When results show no justification for
trial. exposing participants to additional potential
a) True risk
b) False d) Both “b” and “c” are correct

41.State whether true or false. A clause 46.A post graduate researcher conducted a
regarding the collection, storage and use of clinical trial to compare the effect of a new
biological samples for research purposes drug over a standard drug given for control
should be mentioned in the participant of ‘Type-2 Diabetes Mellitus ’. During the
information sheet. trial, the participant and the investigators
a) True were kept unaware of the group allocation.
b) False What level of blinding was adopted here?
a) Open labelled
42.Which of the following is CORRECT b) Double blinding
with regard to the process of informed c) Single blinding
consent for an illiterate person? d) Triple blinding
a) Cannot be witnessed by members of the
research team 47.The primary function of the scientific
b) Can be witnessed by illiterate family review committee is_____________.
member a) Checking if the safety and welfare of the
c) Can be witnessed by any literate research participants is adequately protected
person who is not part of the study b) Checking whether the research
d) Illiterate persons cannot be included in methods are appropriate
the study c) Confirming if the participants are
available for the study
43.A study design that randomly assigns d) Identifying eligibility for funding
participants into an experimental group or a

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48.State whether true or false. Researchers d) Conclusion

who have no institutional affiliation can use
the independent ethics committees that 3. Which of the following is NOT true about
function outside institutions. references in the concept paper?
a) True a) We can cite references in Introduction
b) False and Methods section
b) It is important to write references
49.Which of the following is INCORRECT following standard guidelines
about the study participants of randomized c) Statements should be linked to
controlled trials? references
a) All trial participants are reimbursed d) We can have as many references as
irrespective of the damages possible
b) Verbal consent of trial participants is
sufficient for conducting the trial 4. The "Background and Justification"
c) Compensation to the trial participants is section
given only if the damage has occurred in the concept paper should be written in
d) One copy of informed consent is given to the following sequence
the trial participants a) Known and unknown aspects of the
problem, information that needs to be
50.In randomized controlled trials, matters generated to address the problem in an
related to reimbursement and compensation effective manner and statement of
for research participants are reviewed by objectives
the_____________. b) Known and unknown aspects of the
a) Scientific committee problem, Importance of the study
b) Ethics committee problem and information that needs to
c) Study Investigator be generated to address the problem in
d) Research participants an effective manner
c) Importance of the study problem,
known and unknown aspects of the
Assignment 21: Preparing a problem and information that needs to
be generated to address the problem in
concept paper for research projects an effective manner
1. If there are many study objectives, it may d) Information that needs to be generated
be to address the problem in an effective
necessary to differentiate the objectives into manner, known and unknown aspects of
primary and secondary or general and the problem and statement of objectives
specific objectives
a) True 5. Advantages of writing a concept paper
b) False include
a) You may be able to organize your ideas
2. Which among the following is not a b) It gives an opportunity to stand out and
component of concept paper? receive a positive response from
a) Background and Justification reviewers
b) Objectives and Methods c) You are sure to get funding
c) Expected benefits, Key references and d) 'a' and 'b'
Budget

110
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6. The elements of the methods section in 11. Immediately after identification of

the research
concept proposal needs to be adopted topic and statement of objectives, it may be
according to the study design chosen preferable to
a) True a) Write protocol
b) False b) Outline one-page concept paper
c) Prepare dummy tables as per the
7. The ethics section of the concept proposal analysis plan
should include information about d) Seek review by an institutional ethics
a) Key measures taken to protect the study committee
participants
b) The ethics committee to which the study 12. References need to be written following
will be submitted for approval standard guidelines such as International
c) Scientific committee that will review the Committee of Medical Journal Editors
study (ICMJE)
d) 'a' and 'b' a) True
b) False
8. Which of the following needs to be spelt
out 13. Which of the following is the guideline
in "Expected benefits" section of the that
concept proposal? can be used for drafting protocols for a
a) Expected outputs that the study will clinical trial?
generate with timeline a) SPIRIT
b) Proposed immediate action based on b) PRISMA
research findings c) CARE
c) How this research may set agenda for d) STROBE
further research
d) All of the above 14. Why is concept paper necessary for a
research project?
9. Budget estimate is not mandatory in the a) It helps to finish the data collection
concept proposals. However, it would be rapidly
very useful to prepare the indicative budget b) It helps to organize the ideas
for key items c) It helps to get instant approval of ethics
a) True committee
b) False d) It helps to publish the research quickly

10. While writing the concept papers for 15. Which of the following components are
intervention studies, the methods section included in the background and justification
must have the following details section of the concept paper
a) Primary and secondary outcome a) Context of the study problem
definitions b) Operational definitions
b) Randomization, sequence allocation and c) Sampling technique
allocation concealment d) Study procedure
c) Dose, frequency, nature of Intervention
d) All of the above 16. Which of the following information is
not

111
[Type here]

addressed in the ethics section of the d) Knowledge gap in that topic

concept paper?
a) Information about sample and data 22. The methods section of the concept
storage paper
b) Key measures taken to protect the study contains the following:
participants a) Key operational definitions
c) The ethics committee to which the study b) Conclusions
will be submitted for approval c) Context of study
d) Budget for salary of the projects staff d) Novelty of the study

17. Which of the following is a component 23. Which of the following best describes
of the
concept paper? ‘Expected Benefits’ section of a concept
a) Abstract paper?
b) Objectives and Methods a) Financial benefit to the funding agency
c) Conclusion b) Policy changes based on the study
d) Discussion findings
c) Financial benefit to the researcher
18. What is the basis for writing a one page d) Academic improvement of the
concept paper? researchers
a) Lack of time to draft a complete protocol
b) Overcomes inhibitions in drafting a 24. Which of the following are components
complete protocol of a
c) It is mandatory for scientific committee concept paper?
protocol a) Study title and references
d) For ethics committee approval b) Study title, abstract and references
c) Abstract and references
19. The indicative budget in a concept paper d) Study title, results and references
includes salaries, per diem, travel,
equipment and supplies 25. Sampling strategy is discussed in which
a) True of
b) False the following section of a concept paper?
a) Background
20. The concept paper helps agencies for b) Objectives
a) Screening the proposal for funding c) Methodology
b) Scientific committee approval d) Results
c) Ethics committee approval
d) Publishing the manuscript 26. Which of the following statement is true
about the ‘Reference’ section of a concept
21. Which of the following is NOT included paper?
in a) References must be written following
the background section of a concept paper? standard guidelines
a) Importance of a health problem b) Unlimited references are preferred in a
b) Known fact about the health problem concept paper
c) Prior contribution of the researcher in c) Reference section is usually an optional
the topic component

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d) References are usually required for the b) Known fact about the health problem
results section c) Prior contribution of the researcher in
the topic
27. A post graduate has mentioned the d) Knowledge gap in that topic
estimated budget for her thesis to be 50,000
INR in the concept paper. Which of the 32.The methods section of the concept paper
following components of the budget may outlines the following:
not be justified? a) Key operational definitions
a) Salary for data collectors b) Conclusions
b) Travel cost for data collection c) Context of study
c) Equipment cost d) Novelty of the study
d) Remuneration for the thesis guide
33.Which of the following best describes the
28. Identify the INCORRECT statement ‘Expected Benefits’ section of a concept
about paper?
protocol writing? a) Financial benefit to the funding agency
a) A protocol is a must for obtaining the b) Policy/practice changes based on the
ethics committee approval study findings
b) A well-written protocol is often helpful c) Financial benefit to the researcher
to draft a one-page concept proposal d) Academic improvement of the
c) All known facts in a protocol must be researchers
supported by appropriate reference
d) Peer review helps in improving the 34.Which of the following are components
quality of a protocol of a concept paper?
a) Study title and references
29. All the followings are recommended b) Study title, Abstract and references
while c) Abstract and references
writing a concept paper, EXCEPT d) Study title, results and references
a) Preparing a concise document
b) Presenting mostly in bullet forms 35.Sampling strategy is discussed in which
c) Describing the methods section in detail of the following section of a concept paper?
d) Restricting the number of objectives a) Background
b) Objectives
30. Which of the following is a c) Methodology
consideration in d) Results
framing the objectives of a concept paper?
a) Choosing appropriate action verbs 36.Which of the following statement is true
b) Calculating sample size based on the about the ‘Reference’ section of a concept
secondary objectives paper?
c) Stating broad objectives a) References must be written following
d) All the above standard guidelines
b) Unlimited references are preferred in a
31.Which of the following is NOT included concept paper
in the background section of a concept c) Reference section is usually an optional
paper? component
a) Importance of a health problem d) References are usually required for the

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methods section b) What is known about the problem in

37.A post graduate has mentioned the relation to the local context
estimated budget for her thesis to be 50,000 c) What is unknown in the literature
INR in the concept paper. Which of the d) What could be the policy implications
following components of the budget may not
of the study
be justified?
a) Salary for data collectors
b) Travel cost for data collection 42.Ethics section of the concept paper has
c) Equipment cost
all the following components EXCEPT
d) Remuneration for the thesis guide
a) Information about sample and data
38.Identify the INCORRECT statement storage
about protocol writing? b) Salary of the project staff
a) A protocol is a must for obtaining the
ethics committee approval c) Key measures taken to protect the study
b) A well-written protocol is often helpful participants
to draft a one-page concept proposal d) Name of ethics committee to which the
c) All known facts in a protocol must be
supported by appropriate references study will be submitted for approval
d) Peer review helps in improving the
quality of a protocol 43.‘Agenda for further research’ is described
in which of the following sections of the
39.All the following are recommended while
writing a concept paper, EXCEPT- concept paper?
a) Preparing a concise document a) Methods
b) Presenting mostly in bullet forms b) Results
c) Describing the results in detail
d) Restricting the number of objectives c) Expected Benefits
d) Context of study
40.Which of the following is a consideration
in framing the objectives of a concept
paper? 44.The ‘methods’ section of the concept
a) Choosing appropriate action verbs paper outlines the following EXCEPT:
b) Calculating sample size based on the a) Key operational definitions
secondary objectives
b) Sampling strategy
c) Stating broad objectives
d) All the above c) Context of study
d) Analysis plan
41.While writing the concept paper on a
research topic, researcher should include all 45.Which of the following are components
the following in the background and of a concept paper?
justification section EXCEPT : a) Abstract
a) Why the research problem is important b) Objectives and Methods
c) Conclusion
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d) Discussion a) Preparing a concise document

b) Presenting mostly in bullet forms
46.It is important to mention what is known c) Discussion of the study finding
and unknown about the problem to be d) Restricting the number of objectives
addressed through the proposed research. In
which section of the concept paper is this
described?
Assignment 22: Elements of a
a) Background and justification protocol for research studies
b) Objectives
1.Description of the intervention is essential
c) Expected benefits, Key references and
in a research protocol for
Budget a) Experimental study
d) Methods b) Case-control study
c) Cohort study
d) Cross-sectional study
47.While writing the concept papers for
intervention studies, the methods section 2. Inclusion and exclusion criteria should be
must have the following details: included under the following section in the
protocol
a) Randomization a) Sampling
b) Sequence allocation b) Study population
c) Allocation concealment c) Study design
d) Sample size
d) All of the these
3. The details regarding data quality
48.State whether true or false. Reference assurance
should be written in the following section in
section is usually an optional component in
the protocol
a concept paper. a) Data collection
a) True b) Data analysis
b) False c) Project implementation
d) Data entry

49.The initial outline of the research 4. The following annexure in the study
protocol is also called______________. protocol deals with toxicity management
a) Study management forms
a) Concept paper b) Standard operating procedures
b) Abstract c) Consent forms
c) Poster presentation d) Adverse event management form
d) Summary
5. Study population, sample size and
sampling
50.All the followings are recommended are included in the following section of the
protocol
while writing a concept paper EXCEPT :
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a) Introduction b) The concept paper can be used as an

b) Methods outline for drafting the first draft of the
c) Objectives protocol.
d) Expected Benefits c) Background with justification, method of
conducting the study and expected
6. First step for writing a successful protocol benefits are stated briefly as in the
a) Write a one page concept paper concept paper.
b) Identify topic, research question and d) Additional references must not be
objectives added.
c) Write a draft protocol
d) Seek ethics approval 12. It is ideal that the first draft of the
protocol
7. Key outcomes and exposures should be a) Exceeds >2000 words
explained under b) Does not exceed >2000 words
a) Data analysis c) Exceeds >3000 words
b) Data collection tools d) Does not exceed >3000 words
c) Sampling
d) Operational definitions 13. Data collection paragraph in the protocol
should specify all, EXCEPT
8. Human participant protection paragraph a) The kind of data that will be collected
addresses all except b) Information about the data collector
a) Confidentiality involved in data collection
b) Risks c) The detailed manner in which the data
c) Compensation collector is going to collect the data
d) Sample size calculation d) The details of how the collected data
will be used for policy
9. Willingness of 'study participants' to recommendations
participate in the study is obtained by
a) Informed consent 14. Mode of data entry, software for data
b) Oral commitment analysis and plan for data analysis are
c) Willingness not necessary included in the following section of the
d) None of the above protocol
a) Introduction
10. The section that guides how the b) Methods
objectives c) Objectives
lead to indicators d) Expected Benefits
a) Introduction
b) Study design 15. Which of the following is a step for
c) Budget drafting
d) Objectives a successful protocol?
a) Writing an abstract
11. Which of the following statements is b) Submitting for peer review
True c) Seeking consent from participants
regarding the first draft of the protocol d) Data analysis
a) The draft is the final document and has
to be adhered to as it is.

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16. Which of the following statements is a) Development of research question

true? b) Preparation of the analysis plan
a) It is sufficient to mention whether the c) Development of study tool
study is quantitative or qualitative in d) Initiation of data collection
study design section
b) The concept paper can contain more 22. In which of the following section of a
than 20 references relating to the study protocol, is the analysis plan written?
c) Sample size calculation is not necessary a) Objective
for conducting research b) Results
d) Human subject protection statement c) Budget
should be included in the methods d) Methods
section
23. State whether true or false. Study
17. The introduction can be 40% of the population and the study sample are same.
content a) True
of the protocol b) False
a) True
b) False 24. Which of the following is CORRECT
about
18. Which of the following sections operational definitions in a study protocol?
mentions a) It is part of the background section
about the detailed plan for conducting the b) It spells out the key research gaps
study c) It should be broad and non-specific
a) Introduction d) It may be supported by appropriate
b) Results references
c) Methods
d) Discussion 25. Which of the following component is
LEAST
19. Which of the following is a part of appropriate for a project implementation
introduction section of the protocol? plan?
a) Inclusion and Exclusion criteria a) Calculating sample size
b) Detailed budget b) Coordinating project activities
c) Participant safety and protection c) Assigning job responsibilities
d) Background with justification d) Preparing project timeline

20. Informed consent, procedures for 26. Human subjects are protected by all the
minimizing participant risk and following mechanisms, EXCEPT
compensations are included in which of the a) Obtaining informed consent from the
following sections participants
a) Introduction b) Reviewing proposal by the ethics
b) Abstract committee
c) Human subject protection c) Incentivizing target population for
d) Study procedure participation
d) Compensating participants for loss of
21. Which of the following is NOT an wages
appropriate step of protocol development?

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27. Which section of a protocol describes

the 33.State whether true or false. Study
need to maintain anonymity of study population and the study sample are same.
participants while sharing data to others? a) True
a) Human subject protection b) False
b) Data collection methods
c) Data analysis plan 34.Which of the following is CORRECT
d) Expected benefits about operational definitions of a study
protocol?
28. In the methods section of a protocol, a a) It is part of the background section
researcher can include all the following, b) It spells out the key research gaps
EXCEPT c) It should be broad and non-specific
a) Analysis plan d) It may be supported by appropriate
b) Supportive reference references
c) Expected benefits
d) Quality assurance 35.Which of the following component is
LEAST APPROPRIATE for a project
29. The number of study participants implementation plan?
required a) Calculating sample size
for a research study can be decided by b) Coordinating project activities
a) Pilot study c) Assigning job responsibilities
b) Sample size calculation d) Preparing project timeline
c) Sampling procedure
d) All the above 36.Human subjects are protected by all the
following mechanisms, EXCEPT-
30. State whether true or false. Researchers a) Obtaining informed consent from the
can amend a research protocol after participants
reobtaining b) Reviewing proposal by the ethics
the ethics committee clearance committee
for the amendments made. c) Incentivizing target population for
a) True participation
b) False d) Compensating participants for loss of
wages
31.Which of the following is NOT an
appropriate step of protocol development? 37.Which section of a protocol describes the
a) Development of research question need to maintain anonymity of study
b) Preparation of the analysis plan participants while sharing data to others?
c) Development of study tool a) Human subject protection
d) Initiation of data collection b) Data collection methods
c) Data analysis plan
32.In which of the following section of a d) Expected benefits
protocol, is the analysis plan written?
a) Objective 38.In the methods section of a protocol, a
b) Results researcher can include all the following,
c) Budget EXCEPT-
d) Methods a) Analysis plan

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b) Supportive reference b) False

c) Expected benefits
d) Quality assurance 45.Randomization process of a proposed
clinical trial is explained in which of the
39.The number of study participants following section and subsection of a study
required for a research study can be decided protocol?
by- a) Introduction-rationale
a) Pilot study b) Methods – Sampling procedure
b) Sample size calculation c) Methods –Sample size
c) Sampling procedure d) Methods- Inclusion criteria
d) All the above
46.Which of the following factors decide the
40.State whether true or false. Researchers sample size of a study?
can amend a research protocol after re- a) Study objective and sampling method
obtaining the ethics committee clearance for b) Study population and study design
the amendments made. c) Data analysis plan and expected outcome
a) True d) Inclusion and exclusion criteria
b) False
47.State whether True or False: Detailed
41.Written plan for a research is known as -- analysis plan is not required in a study
----------------- protocol.
a) Manuscript a) True
b) Protocol b) False
c) Commentary
d) Critical appraisal 48.Which of the following subsection of
‘Methods’ will have the information on
42.Which of the following section is NOT a possible risk minimizing measures in a
section in a study protocol? research?
a) Introduction a) Methods-Informed consent
b) Objectives b) Methods- Human participant
c) Expected benefits protection
d) Discussion c) Methods-Expected benefit
d) Methods-Data collection procedure
43.A researcher developed a protocol based
on an experimental study. Which section of 49.In a study protocol on an interventional
the protocol will have the description of study, adverse event management plan
interventions? should be documented in detail in which
a) Introduction section of the study protocol?
b) Objectives a) Methods
c) Analysis plan b) Introduction
d) Methods c) Objective
d) Results
44.State whether True or False: Study
population and the study sample are not 50.Match the following:
same. (i) CONSORT – (A). Meta-analysis
a) True (ii) STROBE – (B). Randomised trials

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(iii) PRISMA – (C). Observational study authorship

a) (i)-B, (ii)-C, (iii)-A c) It is mandatory to declare the
b) (i)-A, (ii)-B, (iii)-C contribution of each author
c) (i)-C, (ii)-A, (iii)-B d) It is not mandatory that all authors
d) (i)-A, (ii)-C, (iii)-B should approve the final version of the
manuscript

Assignment 23: Publication Ethics 4. Which of the following is false about

plagiarism?
1.All of the following statements regarding a) It can be copying and pasting of contents
research publications are correct, Except from a published manuscript
a) Publishing paper is important for getting b) It can be copying someone's idea
promotion in academic institutions c) It is not considered as a serious
b) Publishing research findings help to publication misconduct
identify the research gaps d) 'Urkund' is one of the software used to
c) Negative findings in a research should check plagiarism
not be published
d) Publishing research findings improves 5. Which of the following is (are) the
the credibility of a researcher consequence(s) of plagiarism of
manuscript?
2. A senior resident of Psychiatry a) The journal can retract the manuscript
department b) Institute can take action on the
of a medical college wrote a manuscript author/researcher
based on his thesis work. He has put his c) The researcher loses professional
wife's name as a co-author who is working reputation
in the Physiology department of the same d) All of the above
college. Which of the following statements
supports the act of the senior resident in 6. You have finished writing a manuscript
providing authorship to his wife? and
a) He can give authorship to anyone since it plan to publish it. Which of the following is
is his research work the best practice?
b) The guide should decide on who should a) Submit to multiple journals at the same
be the authors time
c) His wife has contributed in designing b) Submit to a journal and wait for the
the residents’ thesis work journal's response
d) It is not a good practice to include c) Submit to many journals; once it gets
researcher from different department as published in one journal, withdraw it
authors from the other journals
d) Submit the same manuscript in different
3. Which of the following is incorrect about languages to different journals
authorship?
a) Authorship confers credit, implies 7. A researcher conducted a study to identify
responsibility and accountability of the risk factors for exacerbation of bronchial
published work asthma. The researcher was due for job
b) International Committee of Medical promotion. However, the researcher was
Journal Editors recommends criteria on lacking enough publications to ensure

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promotion. Hence, in order to have if they have not contributed to that

maximum number of publications from the study
work, the researcher decided to produce
three different manuscripts instead of one 11. Which of the following is incorrect
manuscript comprehensively covering all about
aspects of the study. What is this act publishing a research work?
called? a) Publishing paper is important for getting
a) Plagiarism promotion in academic institutions
b) Falsification b) Publishing research findings helps to
c) Salami slicing identify the research gaps
d) Fabrication c) Common people should not read such
research findings
8. Which of the following organizations d) None of the above
directly deals with publication ethics?
a) Indian Medical Association (IMA) 12. All clinical trials in India should be
b) Committee on Publication Ethics registered with Clinical Trial Registry of
(COPE) India.
c) World Health Organization (WHO) a) True
d) Joint National Committee (JNC) b) False

9. A group of researchers submitted a 13. A neonatologist planned to conduct a

manuscript for publication based on a drug clinical trial to explore the effect of
trial. Because they did not register under intervention X on hypothermia of the
the clinical trial registry of India (CTRI), newborn children (Age <7 days) over
one intervention A (The current practice). All
reputed journal rejected the paper. The the following are true about the trial,
researcher resubmitted the paper in a except
different journal and this journal published a) Ethics Committee approval is a must to
it without asking any queries. Which of the conduct the trial
following is the correct statement? b) The trial should be registered under the
a) It is necessary to register all drug trials Clinical Trial Registry of India
under CTRI c) Informed consent should be taken from
b) The journal which published the paper is either of the parents
likely to be a predatory journal d) Age appropriate assent is a must in this
c) Both 'a' and 'b' are correct trial
d) None of the above
14. Manipulating data is known as
10. Among the following which is the best fabrication
practice for determining the authorship? a) True
a) Authorship can be based on the criteria b) False
given by ICMJE
b) Authorship should be decided after 15. Which of the following is correct about
submission to a journal determining the authorship?
c) It is necessary to include head of the a) The investigators can follow ICMJE
department/institution as a co-author guideline to determine authorship
d) Authorship can be gifted to friends even b) The sequence should always be based on

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alphabetical orders d) Readers can determine the influence of

c) The investigators should include the COI on conclusion of the paper
head of the institution’s name
irrespective of his/ her contribution 20. An editor of a reputed journal found that
d) None of the above most of the finding of a manuscript
matches with a previously published paper
16. A group of researchers submitted a by different authors. The editor considered
manuscript in a reputed journal. Even after it as a case of plagiarism. Which of the
5 months of submission, they did not following about plagiarism is true?
receive the peer review comments from the a) The journal can retract the article, if
journal. The authors decided to submit the already published
manuscript to a different journal without b) The editor can inform the authors’
informing the editor of the previous institute about it
journal. Which of the following term c) The researchers may lose their
describes the situation best? reputation
a) Duplicate publication d) All of the above
b) Simultaneous submission
c) Self-citation 21. Which of the following is TRUE
d) Breach of confidentiality regarding a
clinical trial?
17. Dr. D has copied the idea of Dr. A for a) It is mandatory to register the trial under
his ‘Clinical Trials Registry of India’ after
thesis. Copying an idea shouldn’t be completing it.
considered as plagiarism. b) Ethical issues are considerably low in
a) True clinical trials when compared with
b) False descriptive studies.
c) Informed consent is a must for
18. Dr. A is in the process of writing review recruiting a study participant in a
of clinical trial
literature for her thesis. Her guide has d) Both ‘a’ and ‘c’
instructed her to avoid plagiarism. Dr. A
should take all the following measures to 22. Altering the original data to obtain a
avoid plagiarism, except statistically significant result by the
a) Avoid copying and pasting researcher is known as
b) Acknowledge original sources a) Fabrication
c) Take help of anti-plagiarism software b) Falsification
d) Copy from her own previous work c) Fascination
d) Fasciation
19. Which of the following is correct in
relation 23. All the following help in reducing
to the conflict of interest? ethical
a) Conflict of interest is always financial issues associated with research publication,
b) Conflict of interest necessarily changes EXCEPT
the outcome of interest a) Obtaining the institutional ethics
c) It is recommended to hide the COI committee permission
during submission of a manuscript

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b) Including a guest author to improve committee of the institute. The committee

the found that the proposal is a near copy of an
acceptance of the manuscript earlier proposal from the same
c) Obtaining permission from the copyright department. This act of the PG can be best
holder to reproduce a figure termed as
d) Declaring familial relationship between a) Fabrication
an author and the CEO of the funding b) Falsification
agency c) Plagiarism
d) Breach of confidentiality
24. Which of the following is INCORRECT
about 29. State whether true or false. Unpublished
publishing research finding? work must be acknowledged in a
a) Publication often helps in career manuscript.
progression and academic promotion a) True
b) It is a way to communicate research b) False
findings with the peer groups
c) Conflicts of interest can be suppressed 30. Direct or indirect influence of which of
as it has implication in study findings the
d) It identifies research gaps following aspect is considered ‘conflict of
interest’?
25. State whether true or false. The first a) Financial
author b) Personal
is mostly responsible for addressing the c) Social
comments received from the reviewers of d) All the above
the journal.
a) True 31.Which of the following is TRUE
b) False regarding a clinical trial?
a) It is mandatory to register the trial under
26. Submitting a manuscript to more than ‘Clinical Trials Registry of India’ after
one completing it.
journal at the same time is known as b) Ethical issues are considerably low in
a) Duplicate publication clinical trials when compared with
b) Self-citation descriptive studies.
c) Simultaneous publication c) Informed consent is a must for
d) Peer review recruiting a study participant in a clinical
trial
27. Which of the following is NOT an d) Both ‘a’ and ‘c’
essential
criterion for authorship? 32.Altering the original data to obtain a
a) Conceptualizing the study statistically significant result by the
b) Drafting the manuscript researcher is known as
c) Approval of the final manuscript a) Fabrication
d) Being departmental head b) Falsification
c) Fascination
28. A Post Graduate in a medical college d) Fasciation
submitted a proposal to the ethics

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33.All the following help in reducing ethical submitted a proposal to the ethics committee
issues associated with research publication, of the institute. The committee found that
EXCEPT- the proposal is a near copy of an earlier
a) Obtaining the institutional ethics proposal from the same department. This act
committee permission of the PG can be best termed as-
b) Including a guest author to improve a) Fabrication
the acceptance of the manuscript b) Falsification
c) Obtaining permission from the copyright c) Plagiarism
holder to reproduce a figure d) Breach of confidentiality
d) Declaring familial relationship between
an author and the CEO of the funding 39.State whether true or false. Unpublished
agency work must be acknowledged in a
manuscript.
34.Which of the following is INCORRECT a) True
about publishing research finding? b) False
a) Publication often helps in career
progression and academic promotion 40.Direct or indirect influence of which of
b) It is a way to communicate research the following aspect is considered ‘conflict
findings with the peer groups of interest’?
c) Conflicts of interest can be suppressed a) Financial
as it has implication in study findings b) Personal
d) It identifies research gaps c) Social
d) All the above
35.State whether true or false. The first 41.During which of the following stage(s)
author is mostly responsible for addressing the researcher can publish their scientific
the comments received from the reviewers work?
of the journal. a) Protocol
a) True b) Methodology description
b) False c) All of these
d) Conclusions and recommendations
36.Submitting a manuscript to more than
one journal at the same time is known as- 42.Why publishing a research finding is
a) Duplicate publication considered as an important activity for a
b) Self-citation researcher?
c) Simultaneous publication a) Promotion of business, Fame
d) Peer review b) Marketing of drugs, Create awareness to
public
37.Which of the following is NOT a c) Academic promotion, Change in
criterion for authorship? practice
a) Conceptualizing the original study d) Promotion of business, Academic
b) Drafting the manuscript promotion
c) Agreeing to contribute during peer
review process 43.Which of the following is NOT an
d) Being departmental head example of publication misconduct?
a) Plagiarism
38.A Post Graduate in a medical college b) Ghost authorship

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c) Data fabrication a) Substantial contributions to the

d) Conflict of interest conception or design of the work; or the
acquisition, analysis, or interpretation of
44.State whether True or False: During data for the work
review of a research proposal the Ethics b) Drafting the work or revising it critically
Committee does not review the publication for important intellectual content
with the research plan. c) Final approval of the version to be
a) True published
b) False d) Only by providing financial support to
conduct the research
45.A postgraduate student has conducted a
research study and collected the data. But 48.State whether True or False: To be
he/she found difficulty in data analysis. eligible for authorship in a research
Which of the following practice is NOT publication, drafting manuscript is a
advised at this stage? sufficient criterion.
a) Seeking help from friends a) True
b) Requesting guidance from the mentor b) False
c) Sharing data with friends belong to a
different institution for data analysis 49.Which of the following is recommended
d) Learning by themselves and attempting to avoid plagiarism in a research
to complete publication?
a) Give compensation to the original author
46.According to the National Ethical b) Cite the reference
guidelines for Biomedical and Health c) Do not acknowledge an unpublished
research involving human participants, work
2017, how long a researcher should preserve d) Rephrase the content without reference
the case report forms for an observational
study? 50.When you read a research publication
a) 1 year why it is important to check the conflict of
b) 3 years interest section?
c) 5 years a) To know the list of authors
d) 10 years b) To have an idea about the methodology
used
47.Which of the following is NOT a c) To determine the researcher-level
criterion for authorship as per International factors that may influence the conclusion
Committee of Medical Journal Editors d) To check the software used for data
guidelines? analysis.

125