Software Engineering MCQ's

Software Engineering MCQs
A web blueprint depicts ?

A. the layout of an individual web page
B. the layout of the home page
C. the layout of an index page
D.the layout of a website (Answer)
Information management model involves four steps -------- , --------- , --------- & -------- ?
A. Diagnosis evaluation, design, implementation (Answer)
B. Diagnosis, design, software, hardware
C. Hardware, software, DBMS, Data communication
D. None of these
The ----------- calls for trimming and chopping of these designs so that the cost is reduced,
service is improved and the customer gets higher value at a higher speed?
A. Business process
B. Radical redesign (Answer)
C. The fundamental rethinking
D. None of these
Management information system usually ?

A. serve managers interested in weekly, monthly and yearly results not day to day activities.
(Answer)
B. Help managers make decisions that unique, rapidly changing and not easily speci
C.
D.
In a typical ------------ network, application processing is shared between clients and one more
servers?
A. client server computing (Answer)
B. data computing
C. mobile computing
D. cloud computing
The elements of control will consist of ------------------?

A. Authority, Direction, Management (Answer)
B. Authority, Direction, Information
C. Authority, Application, Management
D. Authority, Application, Information
Optical character recognition ?
A. is less prevalent than optical mark recognition
B. requires the user to carefully handwrite input data on a business form
C. both A and B (Answer)
D. None
Which of the following is NOT a guideline for successfully conducting a Joint Requirements
Planning (JRP) session ?
A. stay on schedule
B. allow for ample breaks
C. brainstorm technical alternatives to problems identified in a JRP session (Answer)
D. None of these
All of the following are phases of systems analysis, except ?

A. decision analysis phase
B. requirements analysis phase
C. design analysis phase (Answer)
D. problem analysis phase
Who are the people that actually use the system to perform or support the work to be
completed ?
A. system analysts
B. system designers
C. system owners
D.None of the above (Answer)
The most important attribute of information quality that a manager requires is ?

A. relevance (Answer)
B. media
C. presentation
D. timeliness
Management is the process of achieving organizational goal by --------- , ---------- , ---------- and
---------- organizational resources?
A. Organizing, dealing, planning, controlling
B. Planning, scheduling, controlling, organizing
C. Planning, organizing, leading, controlling (Answer)
D. None of these
A ----------- process in any area of the business organization performs basic steps such as,
receive input, measure, analyze, document, perform, process, record / store, access, produce
and communicate?
A. Value
B. Decision making
C. Business (Answer)
D. Re-engineering
Mass production of computers started in ----------- , when UNIVAC 1 was delivered?

A. 1951 (Answer)
B. 1952
C. 1953
D. 1954
Critical information for top management is provided by -------------- information system?

A. expert
B. managerial
C. executive (Answer)
D. decision
---------- processing, involves duplicating, sorting and filling data. -------- processing with
electronic scanners involves transforming and entering the data into an electronic form?
A. Manual, electronic (Answer)
B. Electronic, manual
C. Transforming
D. None of the above
A ---------- is a measure, an intangible measure, which is difficult to count in clear terms?

A. Model
B. Business
C. Value (Answer)
D. Organization
Newspaper, magazine, radio, television are example of ---------?

A. Storing information
B. Retrieving information
C. Communication information
D.Acquiring information (Answer)
----------- can occur at the individual, group, organizational or extra-organizational level?

A. Planning (Answer)
B. Controlling
C. Organizing
D. Scheduling
------------is/are the resources are used for DSS to explore decision alternatives?
A. Data
B. Software
C. Hardware
D.People (Answer)
------------- type of testing ensures the system is free of errors and is ready to be placed into
operation?
A. Audit (Answer)
B. General
C. Technical
D. Data
Which of the following is(are) the inputs to the Systems Construction phase ?
A. design prototypes
B. redesigned business processes
C. physical design specifications
D.all of the above (Answer)
The person generally responsible for the program design strategy, standards, and
construction is called a(n) ?
A. program librarian
B. backup chief programmer
C. network designer
D.chief programmer (Answer)
The process of requirements discovery consists of the following activities, except---------------?

A. requirements management
B. sampling of existing documentation, forms and files (Answer)
C. requirements discovery
D. problem discovery and analysis
Which of the following analysis techniques derive system models from existing system or
discovery prototypes ?
A. rapid architected analysis (Answer)
B. object-oriented analysis
C. data modeling
D. discovery prototyping
Which is not a typical business function ?

A. Sales
B. Service
C. Manufacturing
D.Benefits and Compensation (Answer)
Which of the following relates to enterprise interoperability ?

A. DFD
B. Information flow diagram
C. XML (Answer)
D. Entity relationship diagram
To improve the performance of a business process, which of the following is most relevant ?
A. Input
B. Processing
C. Control and feedback (Answer)
D. All of the above
Which of the following is a deliverable of the system implementation phase in a formal system
development process ?
A. technical hardware and software solution for the business problem (Answer)
B. business problem statement
C. statement of the system users’ business requirements
D. techni
The person who ensures that systems are developed on time, within budget, and with
acceptable quality is a--------------?
A. systems designer
B. project manager (Answer)
C. systems owner
D. external system user
Which of the following is not a type of navigation system for a web site ?
A. National
B. Global
C. Contextual
D.Regional (Answer)
---------- development of DSS relies on the creation of a prototype and its progressive
refinement?
A. Iterative (Answer)
B. Traditional
C. Quick hit
D. None of these
Which one of the following is not a business driver for an information system ?
A. business process redesign
B. knowledge asset management
C. proliferation of networks and the Internet (Answer)
D. security and privacy
The cost of information can be -------------------?

A. Costly
B. Valuable (Answer)
C. Processing
D. None of the above
Controls of data communication deal with -----------------?
A. the communication channel
B. the computer
C. terminals
D.All of the above (Answer)
Which of the following steps is/are the implementation plans involved in MIS ?
A. Preparing organizational plans
B. Planning of work flow
C. Training of personnel
The advantage(s) of transistors are they ?

A. Are portable
B. Are more reliable
C. Consume less power
If you need to collect employee status information (e.g., full-time vs. part-time) on a computer
screen, your best choice for a GUI control would be ?
A. drop-down list
B. masked edit control
C. radio buttons (Answer)
D. spin box
Contemporary Information Systems are interfacing with customers and suppliers using ?
A. SCM
B. CRM
C. Both A and B (Answer)
D. BPR
When a bank uses business performance management software to monitor its performance in
differences regions this ?
A. reduces costs
B. manages risks (Answer)
C. adds value
D. creates a new opportunity
----------- systems help to a analyze historical and current data either on demand or
periodically?
A. Data access system
B. Data analysis system (Answer)
C. Fore cast-oriented data analysis system
D. System based on accounting models
The first CMM level at which measurable goals for quality and productivity are established
is--------------?
A. Level 1
B. Level 2
C. Level 3
D.Level 4 (Answer)
Which of the following is the last phase of the Systems Construction phase ?
A. build and test databases
B. write and test new programs (Answer)
C. prepare conversion plan
D. build and test networks
MIS normally found in a manufacturing organization will not be suitable in the -----------------
?
A. Service sector (Answer)
B. Banking sector
C. Agriculture sector
D. All of the above
Which of the following is part of a static view of information ?

A. Logical data model
B. Meta data
C. Data flow model (Answer)
D. Information process model
Which of the following is NOT a feasibility analysis criterion ?

A. technical feasibility
B. schedule feasibility
C. operational feasibility
D.resource feasibility (Answer)
A list of the names of all customers who purchased only one product within a six-month
period would be an example of a(n)--------------?
A. detailed report
B. summary report
C. exception report (Answer)
D. external report
When a bank uses information to launch a personalised credit card product this-------------?
A. manages risks
B. creates a new opportunity
C. adds value (Answer)
D. reduces costs
Language-based, machine-readable representations of what a software process is supposed to
do, or how a software process is supposed to accomplish its task is known as-----------------?
A. prototyping
B. software specifications
C. application programs (Answer)
D. human engineering
Which installation strategy is a variation on the abrupt and parallel conversion ?

A. location conversion
B. staged conversion (Answer)
C. partial conversion
D. hierarchical conversion
Which one of the following fact-finding techniques is an inexpensive means of gathering data
from a large number of individuals ?
A. observations
B. work sampling
C. interviews
Which of the following phases identifies and expresses requirements, prioritizes

requirements, updates project plan, and communications the requirements statement ?
A. logical design phase
B. decisions analysis phase
C. problem analysis phase
An ongoing activity of systems support is----------------?

A. assisting users
B. adapting the system to new requirements
C. recovering the system
D.all of the above (Answer)
A specification of how the user moves from window to window, interacting with the
application programs to perform useful work is called---------------?
A. interface specifications
B. software specifications
C. user dialog (Answer)
D. prototyping specifications
All of the following are examples of requirements problems, except ----------------?

A. missing requirements
B. overlapping requirements
C. costly requirements (Answer)
D. conflicting requirements
All of the following are examples of requirements problems, except ?
A. missing requirements
B. overlapping requirements
C. costly requirements (Answer)
D. conflicting requirements
Which of the tests is a final system test performed by end users using real data over an
extended period of time ?
A. final test
B. complete test
C. systems acceptance test (Answer)
D. parallel test
The task of establishing system improvement objectives is performed in which phase of

systems analysis ?
A. problem analysis phase (Answer)
B. logical design phase
C. scope definition phase
D. physical design phase
Open database connectivity (OBDC) tools are an example of--------------?

A. layerware
B. tool kit
C. interfaceware
D.middleware (Answer)
JAR file contains the compressed version of-----------------?

A. .java file
B. .jsp file
C. .class file (Answer)
D. None of above
------------ tests make sure that new code does not break existing code?
A. Integration tests (Answer)
B. Regression tests
C. Load test
D. Unit tests
How do you get information from a form that is submitted using the “post” method ?
A. Request.QueryString
B. Response.writeln
C. Response.write
D.Request.Form (Answer)
In ASP.NET application the Global.asax file lie in which directory-----------------?
A. System
B. ROOT (Answer)
C. Application
D. None of the Above
Who can access Session state variables ?

A. All users within a single tunnel
B. All Users of an application
C. A Single session (Answer)
D. All of the above
All the following are examples of input devices EXCEPT a--------------------?

A. mouse
B. printer (Answer)
C. keyboard
D. scanner
Which of the following is not a part of bug report ?

A. Test case
B. Output
C. Software Version
D.LOC (Answer)
Which of the following is not a part of Execution Flow during debugging ?

A. Step Over
B. Step Into
C. Step Up (Answer)
D. Step Out
Software mistakes during coding are known as------------------?

A. errors
B. failures
C. bugs (Answer)
D. defects
Name an evaluation technique to assess the quality of test cases ?

A. Mutation analysis (Answer)
B. Validation
C. Verification
D. Performance analysis
Which of the following is one of the steps in the integration testing of OO software ?
A. cluster testing (Answer)
B. thread-based testing
C. use-based testing
D. None of the mentioned
The construction of object-oriented software begins with the creation of------------------?

A. design model
B. analysis model
C. code levels
D.both design and analysis model (Answer)
Which testing is an integration testing approach that is commonly used when “shrink-
wrapped” software products are being developed ?
A. Regression Testing
B. Integration testing
C. Smoke testing (Answer)
D. Validation testing
What is normally considered as an adjunct to the coding step--------------------?

A. Integration testing
B. Unit testing (Answer)
C. Completion of Testing
D. Regression Testing
Test cases should uncover errors like---------------------?

A. Nonexistent loop termination (Answer)
B. Comparison of different data types
C. Incorrect logical operators or precedence
D. All of the mentioned
ITG stands for-------------------?

A. instantaneous test group
B. integration testing group
C. individual testing group
D.independent test group (Answer)
Which of the following errors should not be tested when error handling is evaluated ?
A. Error description is unintelligible (Answer)
B. Error noted does not correspond to error encountered
C. Error condition causes system intervention prior to error handling
D.
In which testing level the focus is on customer usage ?

A. Alpha Testing
B. Beta Testing
C. Validation Testing
D.Both Alpha and Beta (Answer)
By collecting ------------------ during software testing, it is possible to develop meaningful
guidelines to halt the testing process?
A. Failure intensity
B. Testing time
C. Metrics (Answer)
Which of the following is not a software testing generic characteristics ?

A. Different testing techniques are appropriate at different points in time (Answer)
B. Testing is conducted by the developer of the software or an independent test group
C. Testin
D.
Which of the following is not used in measuring the size of the software---------------------?
A. KLOC
B. Function Points
C. Size of module (Answer)
Behavioral testing is------------------?

A. White box testing
B. Black box testing (Answer)
C. Grey box testing
Beta testing is done at-----------------?

A. User’s end (Answer)
B. Developer’s end
C. User’s & Developer’s end
Acceptance testing is also known as--------------------?

A. Grey box testing
B. White box testing
C. Alpha Testing
D.Beta testing (Answer)
Which of the following is black box testing----------------------?

A. Basic path testing
B. Boundary value analysis (Answer)
C. Code path analysis
Unit testing is done by------------------?

A. Users
B. Developers (Answer)
C. Customers
Which of the following is non-functional testing ?

A. Black box testing
B. Performance testing (Answer)
C. Unit testing
Testing done without planning and Documentation is called-----------------?

A. Unit testing
B. Regression testing
C. Adhoc testing (Answer)
Alpha testing is done at----------------?

A. Developer’s end (Answer)
B. User’s end
C. Developer’s & User’s end
What are the various Testing Levels ?

A. Unit Testing
B. System Testing
C. Integration Testing
D.All of the mentioned (Answer)
Exhaustive testing is-------------------?

A. always possible
B. practically possible
C. impractical but possible (Answer)
D. impractical and impossible
Maintenance testing is performed using which methodology ?

A. Retesting
B. Sanity testing
C. Breadth test and depth test (Answer)
D. Confirmation testing
The testing in which code is checked-------------------?

B. White box testing (Answer)
C. Red box testing
D. Green box testing
Boundary value analysis belong to ?
A. White Box Testing
B. Black Box Testing (Answer)
C. White Box & Black Box Testing
Which of the following is/are White box technique ?

A. Statement Testing
B. Decision Testing
C. Condition Coverage
White Box techniques are also classified as-----------------?

A. Design based testing
B. Structural testing (Answer)
C. Error guessing technique
What is Cyclomatic complexity ?

B. White box testing (Answer)
C. Yellow box testing
D. Green box testing
Lower and upper limits are present in which chart ?

A. Run chart (Answer)
B. Bar chart
C. Control chart
Which level of CMM is for process management ?

A. Initial
B. Repeatable
C. Defined
D.Optimizing (Answer)
Software reliability is defined with respect to--------------------?

A. time (Answer)
B. bugs
C. failures
D. quality
Failure In Time (FIT) is another way of reporting ------------------?

A. MTTR
B. MTTF
C. MTSF
D.MTBF (Answer)
In ISO 9126, time behavior and resource utilization are a part of-------------------?
A. maintainability
B. portability
C. efficiency (Answer)
D. usability
MTTF stands for-------------------?

A. Minimum time to failure
B. Mean time to failure (Answer)
C. Maximum time to failure
Which of the following is not a Probabilistic Model ?

A. Error seeding
B. NHPP
C. Input domain
D.Halstead’s software metric (Answer)
IMC Networks is a leading ------------------ certified manufacturer of optical networking and

LAN/WAN connectivity solutions for enterprise, telecommunications and service provider
applications ?
A. Telco Systems (Answer)
B. D-Link
C. Arista Networks
D. ISO 9001
How many levels are present in CMM ?

A. three
B. four
C. five (Answer)
D. six
Exception handling is a type of-----------------?

A. forward error recovery mechanism (Answer)
B. backward error recovery mechanism
C. All of the mentioned
Which one is not a software quality model ?

A. ISO 9000 (Answer)
B. McCall model
C. Boehm model
D. ISO 9126
Non-occurrence of improper alteration of information is known as-------------------?

A. Available Dependability
B. Confidential Dependability
C. Maintainable Dependability
D.Integral Dependability (Answer)
All fault-tolerant techniques rely on------------------?

A. Integrity
B. Dependability
C. Redundancy (Answer)
Which of the following Error Detection checks is not a part of Application detection ?
A. Hardware checks (Answer)
B. Timing checks
C. Reversal checks
D. Coding checks
Which of the following approaches are used to achieve reliable systems?

A. Fault prevention
B. Fault removal
C. Fault tolerance
In N-version programming which is the independent generation of N, the value of N is----------

---------?
A. greater than 1
B. less than 1
C. greater than 2 (Answer)
D. less than 2
It is imperative for a communicating processes to reach consistent recovery points to avoid

the ------------------ effect, with backward error recovery mechanism ?
A. Static
B. Dynamic
C. Domino (Answer)
D. Whirlpool
A system maintaining its integrity while accepting a temporary halt in its operation is said to
be in a state of-------------------?
A. Full Fault Tolerance
B. Graceful Degradation
C. Fail Soft
D.Fail Safe (Answer)
What type of fault remains in the system for some period and then disappears ?
A. Permanent
B. Transient (Answer)
C. Intermittent
NHPP stands for------------------?

A. Non Homogeneous Poisson Product
B. Non-Hetrogeneous Poisson Product
C. Non-Hetrogeneous Poisson Process
D.Non Homogeneous Poisson Process (Answer)
Suitability, Accuracy, Interoperability, and security are what type quality attribute of ISO
9126 ?
A. Reliability
B. Efficiency
C. Functionality (Answer)
D. Usability
What is MTTF ?
A. Maximum time to failure
B. Mean time to failure (Answer)
C. Minimum time to failure
How many product quality factors are proposed in McCall quality model ?
A. 2
B. 3 (Answer)
C. 11
D. 8
Which of the following is not a phase of “bathtub curve” of hardware reliability ?

A. Useful Life
B. Burn-in
C. Wear-out
D.Time (Answer)
The CMM model is a technique to--------------------?

A. automatically maintain the software reliability
B. improve the software process (Answer)
C. test the software
D. all of the mentioned
Which one of the following is not a software quality model ?
B. McCall model
C. Boehm model
D. ISO 9126
How is reliability and failure intensity related to each other ?

A. direct relation
B. inverse relation (Answer)
C. no relation
Which of the following term is best define by the statement:”Each object is stored only once,
but is accessible by all CASE tools that need it.”?
A. Non-redundant data storage (Answer)
B. Data independence
C. Transaction control
D. Ad Hoc data queries and reports
BPR stands for------------------?

A. Business process re-engineering (Answer)
B. Business product re-engineering
C. Business process requirements
Reverse engineering of data focuses on---------------------?

A. Internal data structures
B. Database structures
C. ALL of the mentioned (Answer)
What are the problems with re-structuring ?

A. Loss of comments
B. Loss of documentation (Answer)
C. Heavy computational demands
When does one decides to re-engineer a product ?

A. when tools to support restructuring are disabled
B. when system crashes frequently
C. when hardware or software support becomes obsolete (Answer)
D. subsystems of a larger
Which of the following is not an example of a business process ?

A. designing a new product
B. hiring an employee
C. purchasing services
D.testing software (Answer)
Which web app attribute is defined by the statement:”The quality and aesthetic nature of
content remains an important determinant of the quality of a WebApp” ?
A. Availability
B. Data driven
C. Content sensitive (Answer)
D. Continuous evolution
Which of the following is a risk associated with using hypertext in web applications?
A. Loss of sense of locality and direction
B. Cognitive overload for users
C. All of the mentioned (Answer)
What category of web-based system would you assign to discussion groups ?

A. Collaborative work
B. Online communities (Answer)
C. Web portals
D. Workflow-oriented
If the user queries a collection of large databases and extracts information from the webapp,
the webapp is categorized under--------------------?
A. Service oriented app
B. Database access app
C. Portal app
D.Data warehousing app (Answer)
Which analysis is a part of Analysis model of the web engineering process framework ?
A. Content Analysis
B. Interaction Analysis
C. Functional Analysis
Which web app attribute is defined by the statement:”A large number of users may access
the WebApp at one time”?
A. Unpredictable load
B. Performance
C. Concurrency (Answer)
D. Network intensiveness
W3C stands for----------------?

A. World Wide Web Consortium (Answer)
B. World Wide Web Collaboration
C. World Wide Web Community
What category of web-based system would you assign to electronic shopping ?

A. Informational
B. Interactive
C. Transaction-oriented (Answer)
D. Workflow-oriented
Which process model should be used in virtually all situations of web engineering ?
A. Incremental Model (Answer)
B. Waterfall Model
C. Spiral Model
MTTF stands for------------------?

A. mean-time-to-function
B. mean-time-to-failure (Answer)
C. manufacture-time-to-function
RTOS stands for---------------------?

A. real-life operating system
B. real-time operating system (Answer)
C. real-time operating software
D. real-life operating software
Which of the following is not a real-time architectural pattern ----------------------- ?

A. Observe and React
B. Environmental Control
C. Embedded System (Answer)
D. Process Pipeline
The times by which stimuli must be processed and some response produced by the system is
known as--------------------?
A. Compile time
B. Frequency
C. Deadlines (Answer)
D. Execution time
The switch to backup power must be completed within a deadline of----------------------?

A. 50 ms (Answer)
B. 55 ms
C. 70 ms
D. 100 ms
Which of the following is represented as an aspect that requests a login name and password ?
A. Class
B. Object
C. User authentication (Answer)
Which of the following is a key principle of software design and implementation ?

A. Separation of concerns (Answer)
B. Writing aspects
C. Finding code complexity
The average execution time of the power monitor process should be less than------------------?
A. 1ms (Answer)
B. 10ms
C. 100ms
An example of a system that may use a process pipeline is a -------------------------?

A. High-speed data acquisition system (Answer)
B. Failure of a power supply in an embedded system
C. Both High-speed data acquisition system AND Failure of a power supply in an emb
D.
Research and development in aspect-orientation has primarily focused on ---------------------?

A. software re-engineering
B. artificial programming
C. aspect-oriented programming (Answer)
Which of the following is not a type of stakeholder concern ?

A. Functional concerns (Answer)
B. Quality of service concerns
C. Policy concern
D. Non-functional concern
Which of the following is core concern in medical record management system ?

A. maintaining records of patients (Answer)
B. diagnose and treatments
C. consultations
The incorporation of advice code at the specified join points by an aspect weaver is called”----
--------------?
A. aspect
B. join point
C. join point model
D.weaving (Answer)
Which of the following concerns best suits the following statement:”Internet banking system
includes new customer requirements, account Requirements, customer management
requirements, security requirements, recovery requirements etc.” ?
A. Functional concerns
B. Quality of service concerns
C. System concerns
D.Cross-cutting concerns (Answer)
An event in an executing program where the advice associated with an aspect may be
executed is known as-------------------?
A. aspect
B. join point (Answer)
C. join point model
D. pointcut
Which subsystem implements the requirements defined by the application ?

A. UI
B. DBMS
C. Application subsystem (Answer)
Which of the following presentation is explained in the following statement:”An extension of

the distributed presentation approach, primary database and application logic remain on the
server, and data sent by the server is used by the client to prepare the user presentation ” ?
A. Local Presentation
B. Distributed presentation
C. Remote presentation (Answer)
Which of the following term is best defined by the statement:”The client sends structured
query language (SQL) requests to the server which are transmitted as messages across the
net” ?
A. File servers
B. Database servers (Answer)
C. Client servers
Which test do you infer from the following statement: “The coordination and data
management functions of the server are tested.” ?
A. Server tests (Answer)
B. Application function tests
C. Transaction tests
D. Network communication tests
“A client is assigned all user presentation tasks and the processes associated with data
entry”.Which option supports the client‟s situation ?
A. Distributed logic (Answer)
B. Distributed presentation
C. Remote presentation
Which of the following term is best defined by the statement:”When one object invokes
another independent object, a message is passed between the two objects.” ?
A. Control couple
B. Application object
C. Data couple (Answer)
D. Database object
What is used to pass SQL requests and associated data from one component to another ?
A. Client/server SQL interaction (Answer)
B. Remote procedure calls
C. SQL Injection
Which of the following services is not provided by an object ?

A. Activating & Deactivating Objects
B. Security features
C. Files implementing the entities identified within the ERD (Answer)
D. Registering object implementation
CORBA stands for ---------------------?

A. Common Object Request Build Architecture
B. Common Object Request Broker Architecture (Answer)
C. Common Object Request Break Architecture
Which of the following is an essential principle of an architecture ?

A. Consistency
B. Reliability
C. Scalability
Which of the following utilities is not a part of Application Service Layer ?
A. Policy implementation
B. QoS
C. Security
D.Verify invoice (Answer)
How is SOA different from OO Architecture ?

A. Strong coupling among objects
B. Communications are prescriptive rather than being descriptive
C. Data is separated from a service or behavior (Answer)
D. Data and methods
Which of the following utilities is not a part of Business Service Layer ?

A. Task centric service
B. Wrapper Services (Answer)
C. Get account info
D. Entity centric service
Which architecture describes the various elements that support the implementation of
services?
A. The Application Architecture
B. The Service Architecture
C. The Component Architecture (Answer)
Which architecture will be built on top of a SOA ?

A. The Application Architecture (Answer)
B. The Service Architecture
C. The Component Architecture
Service Oriented Architecture (SOA) is------------------?

A. Strongly Coupled
B. Loosely Coupled (Answer)
C. Strongly Cohesive
D. Loosely Cohesive
The ------------- specifies the behavior of a system or a part of a system?

A. Yellow box
B. Clear box
C. White box
D.Black box (Answer)
The transition functions that are implied by the state box are defined in------------------?
A. Yellow box
B. Clear box (Answer)
C. White box
D. Black box
What encapsulates state data and services in a manner that is analogous to objects ?
A. State box (Answer)
B. Clean box
C. White box
D. Black box
Which of the following is required for Certification for clean room software engineering ?
A. Sampling model
B. Component model
C. Certification model
Cleanroom software engineering complies with the operational analysis principles by using a
method called known as----------------?
A. box structure specification (Answer)
B. referential transparency
C. degenerative error correction
Who was first to proposed the Cleanroom philosophy in software engineering ?

A. Mills
B. Dyer
C. Linger
D.All of the Mentioned (Answer)
Which of the following Cleanroom process teams develops set of statistical test to exercise
software after development ?
A. Specification team
B. Development team (Answer)
C. Certification team
Which of the following term is best defined by the statement:”For a component to be

composable, all external interactions must take place through publicly defined interfaces”?
A. Standardized
B. Independent
C. Composable (Answer)
D. Documented
Which of the following is not a dimension of scalability ?

A. Size
B. Distribution
C. Manageability
D.Interception (Answer)
QoS stands for-------------------?

A. Quality of security
B. Quality of system
C. Quality of service (Answer)
In Java,---------------------- are comparable with, though not identical to, RPCs?

A. Remote Method Invocations (Answer)
B. Operating System
C. Client–server computing
Which architecture is used when there is a high volume of transactions to be processed by the
server ?
A. Multi-tier client–server architecture (Answer)
B. Master-slave architecture
C. Distributed component architecture
D. Peer-to-peer architecture
--------------- is a way of providing functionality on a remote server with client access through
a web browser?
A. SaaS (Answer)
B. SOA
C. Configurability
D. Both SaaS and Configurability
---------------- depend on there being a clear separation between the presentation of

information and the computations that create and process that information?
A. Master-slave architectures
B. Client–server systems (Answer)
C. Two-tier client–server architecture
D. Both Master-slave architectures AND Client–server systems
Which architecture are reliant on middle-ware ?

A. Multi-tier client–server architecture
C. Distributed component architecture (Answer)
D. Peer-to-peer architecture
Which of the following is a way of making a statement about the elements of a set that is true
for every member of the set ?
A. Set
B. Sequence
C. Universal quantification (Answer)
D. Both Set and Sequence
Which architecture decentralized architectures in which there are no distinguished clients

and servers ?
A. Multi-tier client–server architecture
C. Distributed component architecture
D.Peer-to-peer architecture (Answer)
Which of the following option is not provided by formal methods ?

A. providing frameworks
B. verifying systems
C. provide investors
D.both providing frameworks and verifying systems (Answer)
What defines the circumstances in which a particular operation is valid ?

A. Contradictions
B. Post-condition
C. Vagueness
D.None of the mentioned (Answer)
The --------------- of a formal specification language is often based on a syntax that is derived
from standard set theory notation and predicate calculus ?
A. semantic domain
B. syntactic domain (Answer)
C. sequence
D. set
Which of the following is essential for success, when formal methods are used for the first
time ?
A. Expert training
B. Consulting
C. Prerequisite knowledge
D.Both Expert training and Consulting (Answer)
The ---------------- of a specification language indicates how the language represents system
requirements?
A. semantic domain (Answer)
B. syntactic domain
C. sequence
D. set
Which of the following provides a concise, unambiguous, and consistent method for
documenting system requirements ?
A. CMM
B. ISO-9001
C. CASE tools
D.Formal methods (Answer)
Which of the following occurs often due to the bulkiness of a system specification document ?
A. Contradictions
B. Ambiguities
C. Vagueness (Answer)
D. Incompleteness
------------------------ are statements that can be interpreted in a number of ways?

A. Contradictions (Answer)
B. Ambiguities
C. Vagueness
D. Comments
Frameworks are an effective approach to reuse, but are ------------- to introduce into software
development processes.
A. difficult
B. expensive
C. unreliable
D.difficult and expensive (Answer)
Which option supports the statement:”Most web frameworks now provide AJAX support” ?
A. Session Management
B. Security
C. User interaction (Answer)
D. Database support
Which framework‟s applications are difficult to deal with ?

A. MVC pattern
B. Web application frameworks
C. Debugging framework (Answer)
MVC framework includes-------------------?

A. Observer pattern
B. Strategy pattern
C. Composite pattern
Which frameworks support the development of system infrastructures such as
communications, user interfaces, and compilers ?
A. Middleware integration frameworks
B. System infrastructure framework (Answer)
C. Enterprise application frameworks
D. Web application frameworks
Which of the following is not a benefit of software reuse ?

A. Standards compliance
B. Increased Reliability
C. Reduced Process risk (Answer)
D. Maintaining a component library
Which category the following statement belongs,”Frameworks don‟t usually include a

database but rather assume that a separate database such as MySQl”?
A. Session management
B. Security
C. User interaction
D.Database support (Answer)
Which category the following statement belongs,”Classes to create and manage sessions are
usually part of a WAF”?
A. Session management (Answer)
B. Security
C. User interaction
D. Database support
The MVC pattern was originally proposed in the 1980s as an approach to----------------?
A. Web application frameworks
B. Middleware integration frameworks
C. Web application frameworks
D.GUI design (Answer)
In which of the following language the frameworks will not work ?

A. C#
B. Ruby
C. PHP (Answer)
D. Java
ERP stands for-----------------?

A. Effective Reuse Planning
B. Enterprise Resource Planning (Answer)
C. Effective Research Planning
Which of the following is a generic structure that is extended to create a more specific
subsystem or application ?
A. Software reuse
B. Object-oriented programming language
C. Framework (Answer)
What are generic application systems that may be designed to support a particular business
type, activity, or sometimes a complete enterprise ?
A. COTS-solution systems (Answer)
B. COTS-integrated systems
C. ERP systems
D. Both COTS-solution and COTS-integrated systems
Which framework class include standards and classes that support component
communication and information exchange?
A. System infrastructure frameworks
B. Middleware integration frameworks (Answer)
C. Enterprise application frameworks
D. MVC
An ordering system may be adapted to cope with a centralized ordering process in one
company and a distributed process in another.” Which category the example belong to ?
A. Process specialization (Answer)
B. Platform specialization
C. Environment specialization
D. Functional specialization
The open source movement has meant that there is a huge reusable code base available at -----
-------------?
A. free of cost
B. low cost (Answer)
C. high cost
D. short period of time
NET are specific to which platform ?

A. Java
B. Mac-OS
C. Microsoft (Answer)
D. LINUX
Consider the example and categorize it accordingly, “A pattern-matching system developed

as part of a text-processing system may be reused in a database management system”?
A. Application system reuse
B. Component reuse (Answer)
C. Object and function reuse
COTS stands for-------------------?

A. Commercial Off-The-Shelf systems (Answer)
B. Commercial Off-The-Shelf states
C. Commercial Off-The-System state
Which of the following is a dynamic model that shows how the system interacts with its
environment as it is used ?
A. system context model
B. interaction model (Answer)
C. environmental model
D. both system context and interaction
Which of the following is a structural model that demonstrates the other systems in the
environment of the system being developed ?
A. system context model (Answer)
B. interaction model
C. environmental model
D. both system context and interaction
Which of the following is not needed to develop a system design from concept to detailed
object-oriented design ?
A. Designing system architecture
B. Developing design models
C. Specifying interfaces
D.Developing a debugging system (Answer)
Which of the following come under system control ?

A. Reconfigure
B. Shutdown
C. Powersave
Which model shows the flow of object interactions?

A. Sequence model (Answer)
B. Subsystem model
C. Dynamic model
D. Both Sequence and Dynamic model
We use --------------- where various parts of system use are identified and analyzed in turn?
A. tangible entities
B. scenario-based analysis (Answer)
C. design-based analysis
If the system state is Shutdown then it can respond to which of the following message?
A. restart()
B. reconfigure()
C. powerSave()
D.all of the mentioned (Answer)
Which model describes the static structure of the system using object classes and their
relationships ?
A. Sequence model
B. Subsystem model
C. Dynamic model
D.Structural model (Answer)
Which message is received so that the system moves to the Testing state, then the
Transmitting state, before returning to the Running state ?
A. signalStatus()
B. remoteControl()
C. reconfigure()
D.reportStatus() (Answer)
A description of each function presented in the DFD is contained in a -------------------------?

A. data flow
B. process specification (Answer)
C. control specification
D. data store
A data model contains-------------------?

A. data object
B. attributes
C. relationships
Which diagram indicates the behaviour of the system as a consequence of external events ?
A. data flow diagram
B. state transition diagram (Answer)
C. control specification diagram
D. workflow diagram
----------------------- defines the properties of a data object and take on one of the three
different characteristics ?
A. data object
B. attributes (Answer)
C. relationships
D. data object and attributes
The -------------- of a relationship is 0 if there is no explicit need for the relationship to occur or
the relationship is optional ?
A. modality (Answer)
B. cardinality
C. entity
D. structured analysis
The ---------------- contains a state transition diagram that is a sequential specification of

behavior?
B. state transition diagram
C. control specification (Answer)
D. workflow diagram
A -------------- is a graphical representation that depicts information flow and the transforms
that are applied as data moves from input to output?
B. state transition diagram (Answer)
D. workflow diagram
The ------------------- enables the software engineer to develop models of the information
domain and functional domain at the same time-------------------?
A. data flow diagram (Answer)
B. state transition diagram
D. activity diagram
-------------------- is a pidgin(simplified version of a language that develops as a means of

communication between two or more groups that do not have a language in common)?
A. program design language
B. structured English
C. pseudocode
Which of the following term is best defined by the statement:”The ability to represent local
and global data is an essential element of component-level design.” ?
A. Data representation (Answer)
B. Logic verification
C. “Code-to” ability
D. Automatic processing
Which diagram evolved from a desire to develop a procedural design representation that
would not allow violation of the structured constructs ?
A. State transition diagram
B. Box diagram (Answer)
C. ER diagram
A --------------- executes the loop task first, then tests a condition and repeats the task until the
condition fails ?
A. repeat until (Answer)
B. condition
C. do while tests
D. if then-else
The--------------- is represented as two processing boxes connected by an line (arrow) of

control ?
A. Repetition
B. Sequence (Answer)
C. Condition
Which of the following is not a design principle that allow the user to maintain control ?
A. Provide for flexible interaction
B. Allow user interaction to be interrupt-able and undo-able
C. Show technical internals from the casual user (Answer)
D. Design for direc
Which of the following term is best defined by the statement “Notation that can be input
directly into a computer-based development system offers significant benefits.” ?
A. Machine readability (Answer)
B. Maintainability
C. Structure enforcement
D. Overall simplicity
Which of the following is golden rule for interface design ?

A. Place the user in control
B. Reduce the user’s memory load
C. Make the interface consistent
Which of the following is not a user interface design process ?

A. User, task, and environment analysis and modeling
B. Interface design
C. Knowledgeable, frequent users (Answer)
D. Interface validation
What incorporates data, architectural, interface, and procedural representations of the
software ?
A. design model (Answer)
B. user’s model
C. mental image
D. system image
When users are involved in complex tasks, the demand on --------------- can be significant?
A. short-term memory (Answer)
B. shortcuts
C. objects that appear on the screen
A software might allow a user to interact via------------------------?

A. keyboard commands
B. mouse movement
C. voice recognition commands
What establishes the profile of end-users of the system ?

A. design model
B. user’s model (Answer)
C. mental image
D. system image
Which of the following is not a part of a test design document ?

A. Test Plan
B. Test Design Specification
C. Test Case Specification
D.Test Log (Answer)
A set of inputs, execution preconditions and expected outcomes is known as a ------------------?

A. Test plan
B. Test case (Answer)
C. Test document
D. Test Suite
What combines the outward manifestation of the computer-based system , coupled with all
supporting information that describe system syntax and semantics ?
A. mental image
B. interface design
C. system image (Answer)
D. interface validation
Which of the following is a black box testing strategy ?
A. All Statements Coverage
B. Control Structure Coverage
C. Cause-Effect Graphs (Answer)
D. All Paths Coverage
Which granularity level of testing checks the behavior of module cooperation ?

A. Unit Testing
B. Integration Testing (Answer)
C. Acceptance Testing
D. Regression Testing
What do you understand by V&V in software testing ?

A. Verified Version
B. Version Validation
C. Verification and Validation (Answer)
D. Version Verification
Which test refers to the retesting of a unit, integration and system after modification, in order
to ascertain that the change has not introduced new faults ?
A. Regression Test (Answer)
B. Smoke Test
C. Alpha Test
D. Beta Test
In which test design each input is tested at both ends of its valid range and just outside its
valid range ?
A. Boundary value testing
B. Equivalence class partitioning (Answer)
C. Boundary value testing AND Equivalence class partitioning
D. Decision tables
When does the testing process stops ?

A. When resources (time and budget) are over
B. When some coverage is reached
C. When quality criterion is reached (Answer)
D. Testing never ends
Specifying a set of test cases or test paths for each item to be tested at that level is known as---
---------------?
A. Test case generation
B. Test case design
C. ALL of the mentioned (Answer)
You want to avoid multiple inheritance. Which design pattern would you choose ?
A. Abstraction-Occurrence Pattern
B. Player-Role Pattern (Answer)
C. General Hierarchy Pattern
D. Singleton Pattern
Which design pattern defines one-to-many dependency among objects ?

A. Singleton pattern
B. Facade Pattern
C. Observer pattern (Answer)
D. Factory method pattern
Which pattern prevents one from creating more than one instance of a variable ?
A. Factory Method
B. Singleton (Answer)
C. Observer
Which of the following is a design pattern?

A. Behavioral
B. Structural
C. Abstract Factory
The recurring aspects of designs are called design--------------------?

A. patterns (Answer)
B. documents
C. structures
D. methods
You want to minimize development cost by reusing methods? Which design pattern would
you choose ?
A. Adapter Pattern
B. Singleton Pattern
C. Delegation pattern (Answer)
D. Immutable Pattern
PRD stands for--------------------?

A. Product Requirement Document (Answer)
B. Project Requirement Document
C. Product Restrictions Document
The use of design patterns for the development of object-oriented software has important
implications for--------------------?
A. Component-based
B. Reusability in general
Which mechanism is applied to use a design pattern in an OO system ?

A. Inheritance
B. Composition
How many diagrams are here in Unified Modelling Language ?

A. six
B. seven
C. eight
D.nine (Answer)
Interaction Diagram is a combined term for---------------------?

A. Sequence Diagram + Collaboration Diagram (Answer)
B. Activity Diagram + State Chart Diagram
C. Deployment Diagram + Collaboration Diagram
Which diagram in UML shows a complete or partial view of the structure of a modeled
system at a specific time ?
A. Sequence Diagram
B. Collaboration Diagram
C. Class Diagram
D.Object Diagram (Answer)
Which of the following UML diagrams has a static view ?

A. Collaboration
B. Use case (Answer)
C. State chart
D. Activity
Which of the following term is best defined by the statement:”a structural relationship that
specifies that objects of one thing are connected to objects of another” ?
A. Association (Answer)
B. Aggregation
C. Realization
D. Generalization
Classes and interfaces are a part of--------------------?

A. Structural things (Answer)
B. Behavioral things
C. Grouping things
D. Annotational things
Which things are dynamic parts of UML models ?

A. Structural things
B. Behavioral things (Answer)
C. Grouping things
D. Annotational things
What is a collection of operations that specify a service of a class or component ?

A. Use Case
B. Actor
C. Interface (Answer)
D. Relationship
What can be requested from any object of the class to affect behavior ?
A. object
B. attribute
C. operation (Answer)
D. instance
Which diagram in UML emphasizes the time-ordering of messages ?

A. Activity
B. Sequence (Answer)
C. Collaboration
D. Class
If you are working on real-time process control applications or systems that involve
concurrent processing, you would use a-------------------?
A. Activity diagram
B. Sequence diagram
C. Statechart diagram (Answer)
D. Object diagram
Which things in UML are the explanatory parts of UML models ?

A. Structural things
B. Behavioral things
C. Grouping things
D.Annotational things (Answer)
What refers to the value associated with a specific attribute of an object and to any actions or
side ?
A. Object
B. State (Answer)
C. Interface
Which diagram shows the configuration of run-time processing elements ?

A. Deployment diagram (Answer)
B. Component diagram
C. Node diagram
D. ER-diagram
What is a physical element that exists at runtime in UML ?

A. A node (Answer)
B. An interface
C. An activity
Which of the following is a building block of UML ?

A. Things
B. Relationships
C. Diagrams
At Conceptual level Class diagrams should include---------------------?

A. operations only
B. attributes only (Answer)
C. both operations and attributes
What is an object----------------?
A. An object is an instance of a class (Answer)
B. An object includes encapsulation of data
C. An object is not an instance of a class
Which of the following are the valid relationships in Use Case Diagrams----------------------?
A. Generalization
B. Include
C. Extend
UML interfaces are used to---------------------?

A. specify required services for types of objects (Answer)
B. program in Java, but not in C++ or Smalltalk
C. define executable logic to reuse across classes
D. define an API
ERP stands for--------------------?
A. Enterprise Research Planning
B. Enterprise Resource Planning (Answer)
C. Enterprise Resource Package
D. Enterprise Research Package
All the operations in a transaction need to be completed before the database changes are
made -----------------?
A. functional
B. available to the users (Answer)
C. permanent
Systems that involve interaction with a shared database can be considered as ?

A. software-based
B. transaction-based (Answer)
C. server-based
D. client-based
A language-processing systems may translate an XML data description into------------------?

A. a machine code
B. an alternative XML representation
C. machine code and alternative XML representation (Answer)
D. a software module
What translates a natural or an artificial language into another representation of that

language and, for programming languages also execute the resulting code ?
A. ERP systems
B. Transaction-based information systems
C. Language processing systems (Answer)
Which of the following is/are commonly used architectural pattern(s) ?

A. Model-View-Controller
B. Layered Architecture
C. Client–server
Transaction processing systems may be organized as a ------------ architecture with system

components responsible for input, processing, and output ?
A. Repository
B. Client–server
C. Model-View-Controller
D.Pipe and Filter (Answer)
Which of the following examples is/are models of application architectures ?
A. a means of assessing components for reuse
B. a design checklist
C. a vocabulary for talking about types of applications
Control systems may make use of the Environmental Control pattern, which is a general
control pattern that includes --------------processes?
A. sensor
B. actuator
C. pipeline
D.both sensor and actuator (Answer)
Which of the following is applicable on software radio ?

A. Environmental Control
B. Process Pipeline (Answer)
C. Distributed system
A monitoring system examines its environment through ------------------?

A. operating system
B. communication
C. set of sensors (Answer)
ETL stands for--------------------?

A. Data Extraction Transformation & Loading (Answer)
B. Data Execution Transformation & Loading
C. Extraction Transformation & Loading
D. Execution Transformation
-------------------- can be associated with a separate processor or core, so that the processing
steps can be carried out in parallel ?
A. Process Pipeline (Answer)
B. Environmental Control
C. Observe and React
An example of a system that may use a process pipeline is a high-speed-----------------?

A. data distributing system
B. data acquisition system (Answer)
C. data collector system
Which of these following sensor is a useful as part of a burglar alarm system for commercial
buildings ?
A. Movement detector
B. Door sensor
C. Window sensor
Which of the following is not real-time architectural patterns that are commonly used ?
A. Asynchronous communication (Answer)
B. Observe and React
C. Environmental Control
D. Process Pipeline
The UML was designed for describing -----------------------?

A. object-oriented systems
B. architectural design
C. SRS
D.Both object-oriented systems and Architectural design (Answer)
What describes how a set of interacting components can share data ?

A. model-view-controller
B. architecture pattern
C. repository pattern (Answer)
Which of the following view shows that the system is composed of interacting processes at run
time ?
A. physical
B. development
C. logical
D.process (Answer)
Which of the following is not included in Architectural design decisions ?

A. type of application
B. distribution of the system
C. architectural styles
D.testing the system (Answer)
Which of the following pattern is the basis of interaction management in many web-based
systems ?
A. architecture
B. repository pattern
C. model-view-controller (Answer)
D. different operating system
Which view in architectural design shows the key abstractions in the system as objects or
object classes ?
A. physical
B. development
C. logical (Answer)
D. process
----------------- view shows the system hardware and how software components are distributed
across the processors in the system ?
A. physical (Answer)
B. logical
C. process
A project usually has a timeline chart which was developed by-----------------?

A. Henry Gantt (Answer)
B. Barry Boehm
C. Ivar Jacabson
What is a collection of software engineering work tasks, milestones, and deliverables that
must be accomplished to complete a particular project ?
A. Task set (Answer)
B. Degree of milestone
C. Adaptation criteria
Every task that is scheduled should be assigned to a specific team member is termed as---------
--------?
A. Compartmentalization
B. Defined milestones
C. Defined responsibilities (Answer)
D. Defined outcomes
Ensuring that no more than the allocated number of people are allocated at any given time in
Software Scheduling is known as ----------------?
A. Time Allocation
B. Effort Validation (Answer)
C. Defined Milestone
D. Effort Distribution
What evaluates the risk associated with the technology to be implemented as part of project
scope ?
A. Concept scoping
B. Preliminary concept planning (Answer)
C. Technology risk assessment
D. Customer reaction to the concept
Which of the following is a project scheduling method that can be applied to software
development ?
A. PERT
B. CPM
C. CMM
D.Both PERT and CPM (Answer)
What is used to determine the recommended degree of rigor with which the software process
should be applied on a project ?
A. Degree of Rigor
B. Adaptation criteria (Answer)
C. Task Set
D. Both degree of Rigor and adaptation criteria
A technique for performing quantitative analysis of progress is known as----------------------?

A. BCWS
B. EVA (Answer)
C. BAC
D. CBSE
Which of the following is not an adaptation criteria for software projects ?

A. Size of the project
B. Customers Complaints (Answer)
C. Project staff
D. Mission criticality
Which of the following categories is part of the output of software process ?

A. computer programs
B. documents that describe the computer programs
C. data
Software Configuration Management can be administered in several ways. These include -----
-------------?
A. A single software configuration management team for the whole organization (Answer)
B. A separate configuration management team for each project
C. Software Configuration Manage
D.
What is the recommended distribution of effort for a project ?

A. 40-20-40 (Answer)
B. 50-20-30
C. 30-40-30
D. 50-30-20
Which is a software configuration management concept that helps us to control change

without seriously impeding justifiable change ?
A. Baselines (Answer)
B. Source code
C. Data model
What combines procedures and tools to manage different versions of configuration objects
that are created during the software process ?
A. Change control
B. Version control (Answer)
C. SCIs
Which of the following is the process of assembling program components, data, and libraries,
and then compiling and linking these to create an executable system ?
A. System building (Answer)
B. Release management
C. Change management
D. Version management
Which of the following is not a Software Configuration Management Activity ?

A. Configuration item identification
B. Risk management (Answer)
C. Release management
D. Branch management
What complements the formal technical review by assessing a configuration object for
characteristics that are generally not considered during review ?
A. Software configuration audit (Answer)
B. Software configuration management
C. Baseline
Which of the following option is not tracked by configuration management tools ?

A. Tracking of change proposals
B. Storing versions of system components
C. Tracking the releases of system versions to customers
The definition and use of configuration management standards is essential for quality
certification in------------------?
A. ISO 9000
B. CMM
C. CMMI
Which of the following process ensures that versions of systems and components are recorded
and maintained?
A. Codeline
B. Configuration control (Answer)
C. Version
D. Workspace
What involves preparing software for external release and keeping track of the system
versions that have been released for customer use ?
A. System building
B. Release management (Answer)
C. Change management
D. Version management
Which of the following process is concerned with analyzing the costs and benefits of proposed
changes ?
A. Change management (Answer)
B. Version management
C. System building
D. Release management
Which method recommends that very frequent system builds should be carried out with
automated testing to discover software problems ?
A. Agile method (Answer)
B. Parallel compilation method
C. Large systems method
Which of the following is not a Version management feature ?

A. Version and release identification
B. Build script generation (Answer)
C. Project support
D. Change history recording
Which of the following is not a build system feature ?

A. Minimal recompilation
B. Documentation generation
C. Storage management (Answer)
D. Reporting
Which of the following is a configuration item ?
A. Design & Test specification
B. Source code
C. Log information
A sequence of baselines representing different versions of a system is known as ------------------

--?
A. System building
B. Mainline (Answer)
C. Software Configuration Item(SCI)
Which of the following is a collection of component versions that make up a system ?

A. Version
B. Codeline
C. Baseline (Answer)
Which of the following term is best defined by the statement “The creation of a new codeline
from a version in an existing codeline” ?
A. Branching (Answer)
B. Merging
C. Codeline
D. Mainline
Which activity sits at the core of software requirements analysis ?

A. Problem decomposition
B. Partitioning
C. Problem elaboration
What assess the risk and your plans for risk mitigation and revise these when you learn more
about the risk ?
A. Risk monitoring (Answer)
B. Risk planning
C. Risk analysis
D. Risk identification
Risk management is one of the most important jobs for a------------------?

A. Client
B. Investor
C. Production team
D.Project manager (Answer)
Which of the following term is best defined by the statement: “The underlying technology on
which the system is built is superseded by new technology.” ?
A. Technology change (Answer)
B. Product competition
C. Requirements change
Which of the following risks are derived from the organizational environment where the
software is being developed ?
A. People risks
B. Technology risks
C. Estimation risks
D.Organizational risks (Answer)
Which of the following term is best defined by the statement: “Derive traceability
information to maximize information hiding in the design.” ?
A. Underestimated development time
B. Organizational restructuring
C. Requirements changes (Answer)
Who suggested the four different approaches to the sizing problem ?

A. Putnam
B. Myers
C. Boehm
D.Putnam and Myers (Answer)
Which of the following is not one of the five information domain characteristics of Function
Point (FP) decomposition ?
A. External inputs
B. External outputs
C. External process (Answer)
D. External inquiries
V Programming language experience is a part of which factor of COCOMO cost drivers ?

A. Personnel Factor (Answer)
B. Product Factor
C. Platform Factor
D. Project Factor
PM-CMM stands for-------------------?

A. people management capability maturity model (Answer)
B. process management capability maturity model
C. product management capability maturity model
D. project management
Who defines the business issues that often have significant influence on the project ?
A. Practitioners
B. Project managers
C. Senior managers (Answer)
Which of the following is not a sign that indicates that an information systems project is in
jeopardy?
A. Software people don’t understand their customers needs
B. Changes are managed poorly
C. Sponsorship is gained (Answer)
D. Users are resistant
Which of the following is a collection of project coordination technique ?

A. Formal approaches
B. Formal, interpersonal procedures
C. Informal, interpersonal procedures
Commitments to unrealistic time and resource estimates may result in--------------------?

A. project delay
B. poor quality work
C. project failure
Which of the following is not a project manager‟s activity ?

A. project control
B. project management
C. project planning
D.project design (Answer)
Who delivers the technical skills that are necessary to engineer a product or an application ?
A. Practitioners (Answer)
B. Project managers
C. Senior managers
Which of the following is a people-intensive activity ?

A. Problem solving
B. Organization
C. Motivation
D.Project management (Answer)
Which software engineering team has no permanent leader ?

A. Controlled decentralized (CD)
B. Democratic decentralized (DD) (Answer)
C. Controlled Centralized (CC)
COCOMO stands for--------------------?

A. Constructive cost model (Answer)
B. Comprehensive cost model
C. Constructive cost estimation model
D. Complete cost estimation model
Which one is not a risk management activity ?

A. Risk assessment
B. Risk generation (Answer)
C. Risk control
Which of the following uses empirically derived formulas to predict effort as a function of
LOC or FP ?
A. FP-Based Estimation
B. Process-Based Estimation
C. COCOMO
D.Both FP-Based Estimation and COCOMO (Answer)
Which version of COCOMO states that once requirements have been stabilized, the basic
software architecture has been established ?
A. Early design stage model (Answer)
B. Post-architecture-stage model
C. Application composition model
Which model was used during the early stages of software engineering, when prototyping of
user interfaces, consideration of software and system interaction, assessment of performance,
and evaluation of technology maturity were paramount ?
A. Early design stage model
B. Post-architecture-stage model
C. Application composition model (Answer)
COCOMO was developed initially by --------------------- ?

A. B.Beizer
B. Rajiv Gupta
C. B.W.Bohem (Answer)
D. Gregg Rothermal
COCOMO-II was developed at ---------------------?
A. University of Texas
B. University of Southern California (Answer)
C. MIT
D. IIT-Kanpur
What all has to be identified as per risk identification ?

A. Threats
B. Vulnerabilities
C. Consequences
Which one is not a size measure for software product ?

A. LOC
B. Halstead’s program length
C. Function Count
D.Cyclomatic Complexity (Answer)
Estimation of size for a project is dependent on-------------------?

A. Cost
B. Time
C. Schedule
Which one is not a stage of COCOMO-II ?

A. Early design estimation model (Answer)
B. Application Composition estimation model
C. Comprehensive cost estimation model
D. Post architecture estimation model
Which model assumes that systems are created from reusable components, scripting or
database programming ?
A. An application-composition model (Answer)
B. A post-architecture model
C. A reuse model
D. An early design model
Which model is used during early stages of the system design after the requirements have
been established ?
A. An application-composition model
C. A reuse model
D.An early design model (Answer)
Which model is used to compute the effort required to integrate reusable components or
program code that is automatically generated by design or program translation tools ?
A. An application-composition model
C. A reuse model (Answer)
D. An early design model
Which of the following states that work expands to fill the time available ?
A. CASE tools
B. Pricing to win
C. Parkinson’s Law (Answer)
D. Expert judgement
Which technique is applicable when other projects in the same analogy application domain
have been completed ?
A. Algorithmic cost modelling
B. Expert judgement
C. Estimation by analogy (Answer)
D. Parkinson’s Law
Which of the following costs is not part of the total effort cost ?
A. Costs of networking and communications
B. Costs of providing heating and lighting office space
C. Costs of lunch time food (Answer)
D. Costs of support staff
A --------------- is developed using historical cost information that relates some software metric
to the project cost ?
A. Algorithmic cost modelling (Answer)
B. Expert judgement
C. Estimation by analogy
D. Parkinson’s Law
A number of independent investigators have developed a team-oriented approach to

requirements gathering that can be applied to establish the scope of a project called ?
A. JAD
B. CLASS
C. FAST (Answer)
CLSS stands for---------------------?

A. conveyor line sorting system (Answer)
B. conveyor line sorting software
C. conveyor line sorting speed
D. conveyor line sorting specification
The environment that supports the software project is called-----------------------?
A. CLSS
B. SEE (Answer)
C. FAST
D. CBSE
What is related to the overall functionality of the delivered software ?

A. Function-related metrics (Answer)
B. Product-related metrics
C. Size-related metrics
Which of the following is not achieved by an automated estimation tools ?

A. Predicting staffing levels
B. Predicting software cost
C. Predicting software schedules
D.Predicting clients demands (Answer)
Which of the following are parameters involved in computing the total cost of a software
development project ?
A. Hardware and software costs
B. Effort costs
C. Travel and training costs
What can be used to complement decomposition techniques and offer a potentially valuable
estimation approach in their own right ?
A. Automated estimation tools
B. Empirical estimation models (Answer)
C. Decomposition techniques
D. Both Automated estimation tools and Empirical estimation models
The project planner examines the statement of scope and extracts all important software
functions which is known as-------------------?
A. Association
B. Decomposition (Answer)
C. Planning process
Which of the following is not considered as a risk in project management ?

A. Specification delays
B. Product competition
C. Testing (Answer)
D. Staff turnover
A 66.6% risk is considered as------------------?
A. very low
B. low
C. moderate
D.high (Answer)
Which of the following is/are main parameters that you should use when computing the costs
of a software development project ?
A. travel and training costs
B. hardware and software costs
C. effort costs (the costs of paying software engineers and managers)
Which of the following is an important factor that can affect the accuracy and efficacy of
estimates ?
A. Project size (Answer)
B. Planning process
C. Project complexity
D. Degree of structural uncertainty
What describes the data and control to be processed ?

A. Planning process
B. Software scope (Answer)
C. External hardware
D. Project complexity
Quality planning is the process of developing a quality plan for------------------?

A. team
B. project (Answer)
C. customers
D. project manager
The process each manager follows during the life of a project is known as -------------------?
A. Project Management
B. Manager life cycle
C. Project Management Life Cycle (Answer)
Which of the following is incorrect activity for the configuration management of a software
system ?
A. Internship management (Answer)
B. Change management
C. Version management
D. System management
Cost and schedule are a part of-------------------------?
A. Product Metrics
B. Process Metrics
C. Project Metrics (Answer)
Number of errors found per person hours expended is an example of a--------------------?

A. measurement
B. measure
C. metric (Answer)
Size and Complexity are a part of--------------------?

A. Product Metrics (Answer)
B. Process Metrics
C. Project Metrics
Which of the following is not categorized under Product Operation of McCall‟s Software
Quality Factors ?
A. Flexibility (Answer)
B. Reliability
C. Usability
D. Integrity
Which of the following is not categorized under Component-Level Design Metrics ?

A. Complexity Metrics
B. Cohesion Metrics
C. Morphology Metrics (Answer)
D. Coupling Metrics
MTTC falls the the category of--------------------?

A. correctness
B. integrity
C. maintainability (Answer)
The arc-to-node ratio is given as r = a/n. What does „a‟ represent in the ratio ?
A. maximum number of nodes at any level
B. longest path from the root to a leaf
C. number of modules
D.lines of control (Answer)
Percentage of modules that were inspected is a part of------------------?

A. Product Metrics
B. Process Metrics (Answer)
C. Project Metrics
Usability in metric analysis is defined as the degree to which the software-----------------?

A. stated needs
B. is easy to use (Answer)
C. makes optimal use of system resources
In DFDs, user interactions with the system is denoted by --------------------?

A. Circle (Answer)
B. Arrow
C. Rectangle
D. Triangle
Structured Analysis is based on the principles of-------------------?

A. Top-down decomposition approach
B. Divide and conquer principle
C. Graphical representation of results using DFDs
Function-oriented design techniques starts with functional requirements specified in------------

---?
A. SDD
B. SRS (Answer)
C. All of the mentioned
Choose the option that does not define Function Oriented Software Design ?
A. It consists of module definitions
B. Modules represent data abstraction (Answer)
C. Modules support functional abstraction
Which of the following is the worst type of module cohesion ?

A. Logical Cohesion
B. Temporal Cohesion
C. Functional Cohesion
D.Coincidental Cohesion (Answer)
If all tasks must be executed in the same time-span, what type of cohesion is being exhibited ?
A. Functional Cohesion
B. Temporal Cohesion (Answer)
C. Functional Cohesion
D. Sequential Cohesion
Which of the following is a complementary approach to function-oriented approach ?

A. Object oriented analysis
B. Object oriented design
C. Structured approach
D.Both Object oriented analysis and design (Answer)
In what type of coupling, the complete data structure is passed from one module to another ?
A. Control Coupling
B. Stamp Coupling (Answer)
C. External Coupling
D. Content Coupling
Which of the following is the best type of module cohesion ?

A. Functional Cohesion (Answer)
B. Temporal Cohesion
C. Functional Cohesion (Answer)
D. Sequential Cohesion
Which of the following is the worst type of module coupling ?

A. Control Coupling
B. Stamp Coupling
C. External Coupling (Answer)
D. Content Coupling
------------------ is a measure of the degree of interdependence between modules ?

A. Cohesion
B. Coupling (Answer)
C. None of the mentioned
Java packages and Fortran subroutine are examples of--------------------------?

A. Functions
B. Modules (Answer)
C. Classes
D. Sub procedures
Which of the following is the best type of module coupling ?

A. Control Coupling
B. Stamp Coupling
C. Data Coupling (Answer)
D. Content Coupling
Which of the property of software modularity is incorrect with respect to benefits software
modularity ?
A. Modules are robust
B. Module can use other modules
C. Modules Can be separately compiled and stored in a library
D.Modules are mostly dependent (Answer)
The importance of software design can be summarized in a single word which is-----------------
--?
A. Efficiency
B. Accuracy
C. Quality (Answer)
D. Complexity
Debugging is-----------------?
A. creating program code
B. finding and correcting errors in the program code (Answer)
C. identifying the task to be computerized
D. creating the algorithm
--------------- is the process of translating a task into a series of commands that a computer will
use to perform that task ?
A. Project design
B. Installation
C. Systems analysis
D.Programming (Answer)
Which tool is use for structured designing ?

A. Program flowchart
B. Structure chart (Answer)
C. Data-flow diagram
D. Module
Actual programming of software code is done during the ------------------ step in the SDLC?
A. Maintenance and Evaluation
B. Design
C. Analysis
D.Development and Documentation (Answer)
A step by step instruction used to solve a problem is known as -------------------?

A. Sequential structure
B. A List
C. A plan
D.An Algorithm (Answer)
Which is the first step in the software development life cycle ?
A. Analysis
B. Design
C. Problem/Opportunity Identification (Answer)
D. Development and Documentation
Who designs and implement database structures ?

A. Programmers
B. Project managers
C. Technical writers
D.Database administrators (Answer)
In the Analysis phase, the development of the -------------- occurs, which is a clear statement of
the goals and objectives of the project ?
A. documentation
B. flowchart
C. program specification (Answer)
D. design
In Design phase, which is the primary area of concern ?

A. Architecture
B. Data
C. Interface
Static Analysis involves executing a program ?

A. True
B. False (Answer)
C.
D.
Which of the following is a technique covered in Static Analysis ?

A. Formal verification
B. Model checking
C. Automated program analysis
Which of the following is incorrect with respect to Model Checking ?

A. Model checking is particularly valuable for verifying concurrent systems
B. Model checking is computationally very inexpensive (Answer)
C. The model checker explores all possibl
D.
The records of each patient that is receiving or has received treatment resembles which
security concept ?
A. Asset (Answer)
B. Threat
C. Vulnerability
D. Control
Choose the fault class in which the following automated static analysis check would
fall:”Variables declared but never used”?
A. Control Faults
B. Data Faults (Answer)
C. Input/Output Faults
D. Interface faults
Choose the fault class in which the following automated static analysis check would fall:”Non-
usage of the results of functions”?
A. Storage management faults
B. Data Faults
D.Interface faults (Answer)
Which level of Static Analysis allows specific rules that apply to a program to be checked ?
A. Characteristic error checking
B. User-defined error checking (Answer)
C. Assertion checking
Choose the fault class in which the following automated static analysis check would fall:
“Unreachable code”?
A. Control Faults (Answer)
B. Data Faults
D. Interface faults
Static analysis is now routinely used in the development of many safety and security critical
systems?
A. True (Answer)
B. False
C.
D.
Choose the fault class in which the following automated static analysis check would
fall:”Pointer Arithmetic” ?
A. Storage management faults (Answer)
B. Data Faults
D. Interface faults
An impersonation of an authorised user is an example of a security threat ?
A. True
B. False (Answer)
C.
D.
Circumstances that have potential to cause loss or harm is known as-------------------?

A. Attack
B. Threat (Answer)
C. Vulnerability
D. Control
A system resource that has a value and has to be protected is known as ------------------------?
A. Asset (Answer)
B. Control
C. Vulnerability
What is Life cycle risk assessment ?

A. Risk assessment before the system has been deployed
B. Risk assessment while the system is being developed
Security engineering is only concerned with maintenance of systems such that they can resist
malicious attacks ?
A. True
B. False (Answer)
C.
D.
Controls that are intended to ensure that attacks are unsuccessful is analogous to --------------
in dependability engineering?
A. Fault avoidance (Answer)
B. Fault tolerance
C. Fault detection
D. Fault Recovery
Which of the following is a layer of protection for Security ?

A. Platform-level protection
B. Application-level protection
C. Record-level protection
Which of the following is a bad practice of Dependable programming ?
A. Limit the visibility of information in a program
B. Check array bounds (Answer)
C. Check all inputs for validity
Which of the following is not a Protection system ?

A. System to stop a train if it passes a red light
B. System to indicate not returning of the library book (Answer)
C. System to shut down a reactor if temperature/pressure are too
D.
Exception handling is a mechanism to provide some fault avoidance ?

A. True
B. False (Answer)
C.
D.
What is a Range check ?

A. Check that the input does not exceed some maximum size e.g. 40 characters for a name
B. Check that the input falls within a known range (Answer)
C. Use information about the inp
D.
The use of a well-defined, repeatable process is essential if faults in a system are to be

minimized ?
A. True (Answer)
B. False
C.
D.
What is the term for a system that is designed such that the faults in the delivered software do
not result in system failure ?
A. Fault Avoidance
B. Fault detection
C. Fault tolerance (Answer)
What is the term for development process organised such that faults in the system are
detected and repaired before delivery to the customer ?
A. Fault Avoidance (Answer)
B. Fault detection
C. Fault tolerance
Which of the following is a Strategy to achieve Software diversity ?
A. Different programming languages
B. Different design methods and tools
C. Explicit specification of different algorithms
Which process characteristic with respect to Dependability Engineering is mentioned by the

statement: “The process should be understandable by people apart from process
participants” ?
A. Diverse
B. Documentable
C. Auditable (Answer)
Which of the following examples does not involve dependability engineering ?

A. Medical Systems
B. Power Systems
C. Library Management (Answer)
D. Telecommunications
Consider a case where the failure of the system causes damage to the system itself or it data.
What type of failure is being described here ?
A. Loss of service
B. Incorrect service delivery
C. System/data corruption (Answer)
Consider a case where the system is unavailable and cannot deliver its services to users. What
type of failure is being described here ?
A. Loss of service (Answer)
B. Incorrect service delivery
C. System/data corruption
At which stage of risk analysis specification, the additional security requirements take
account of the technologies used in building the system and system design and
implementation decisions ?
A. Preliminary risk analysis
B. Life-cycle risk analysis (Answer)
C. Operational risk analysis
Which reliability metric sets out the probable number of system failures that are likely to be
observed relative to a certain time period ?
A. POFOD
B. ROCOF (Answer)
C. AVAIL
To specify security requirements, one should identify the risks that are to be dealt with ?
A. True
B. False (Answer)
C.
D.
Which reliability requirements are concerned with maintaining copies of the system ?
A. Checking requirements
B. Recovery requirements (Answer)
C. Redundancy requirements
D. Ambiguous requirements
Which of the following is not a functional reliability requirement for a system ?

A. Checking requirements
B. Recovery requirements
C. Redundancy requirements
D.Ambiguous requirements (Answer)
POFOD stands for-------------------?

A. Possibility of failure of data
B. Probability of failure of data
C. Possibility of failure on demand
D.Probability of failure on demand (Answer)
How many stages are there in Risk-driven requirements specification ?

A. three
B. four (Answer)
C. five
D. six
An event that occurs at some point in time when the system does not deliver a service as
expected by its users is called ------------------?
A. Human error or mistake
B. System fault
C. System error
D.System failure (Answer)
A weakness in a computer-based system that may be exploited to cause loss or harm is known
as ?
A. Vulnerability (Answer)
B. Attack
C. Threat
D. Exposure
A password checking system that disallows user passwords that are proper names or words
that are normally included in a dictionary is an example of ---------------- with respect to
security systems?
A. risk
B. control (Answer)
C. attack
D. asset
An assessment of the worst possible damage that could result from a particular hazard is
known as -----------------?
A. Risk
B. Hazard probability
C. Hazard severity (Answer)
D. Mishap
An erroneous system state that can lead to system behavior that is unexpected by system
users is known as----------------?
B. System fault
C. System error (Answer)
D. System failure
The safety of a system is a system attribute that reflects the system‟s ability to operate,
normally or abnormally, without injury to people or damage to the environment ?
A. True (Answer)
B. False
C.
D.
A chemical plant system may detect excessive pressure and open a relief valve to reduce these
pressures before an explosion occurs. What kind of dependability and security issue the
example states ?
A. Hazard avoidance
B. Damage limitation
C. Hazard detection
D.Hazard detection and removal (Answer)
An aircraft engine normally includes automatic fire extinguishers.What kind of dependability

and security issue the example states ?
A. Hazard avoidance
B. Damage limitation (Answer)
C. Hazard detection
D. Hazard detection and removal
A characteristic of a software system that can lead to a system error is known as ----------------
----- ?
B. System fault (Answer)
C. System error
D. System failure
Which of the following terms is a measure of the probability that the system will cause an
accident ?
A. Risk (Answer)
B. Hazard probability
C. Accident
D. Damage
What is a software patch ?

A. Required or Critical Fix
B. Emergency Fix (Answer)
C. Daily or routine Fix
What does ACT stands for in In Boehm model for software maintenance ?
A. Actual change track
B. Annual change track
C. Annual change traffic (Answer)
D. Actual change traffic
The process of generating analysis and design documents is known as -------------------?

A.
B. Software re-engineering
C. Reverse engineering (Answer)
D. Re-engineering
--------------- measures the ability of a regression test selection technique to handle realistic
applications ?
A. Efficiency
B. Precision
C. Generality (Answer)
D. Inclusiveness
Selective retest techniques may be more economical than the “retest-all”technique.How many
selective retest techniques are there?
A. two
B. three (Answer)
C. four
D. five
The modification of the software to match changes in the ever changing environment, falls
under which category of software maintenance ?
A. Corrective
B. Adaptive (Answer)
C. Perfective
D. Preventive
Software Maintenance includes ?

A. Error corrections
B. Enhancements of capabilities
C. Deletion of obsolete capabilities
What are the two ways to view the human error of a sociotechnical system ?
A. hardware and software approach
B. management and users approach
C. person and systems approach (Answer)
How many phases are there in Taute Maintenance Model ?

A. six
B. seven
C. eight (Answer)
D. nine
Maintenance is classified into how many categories ?

A. two
B. three
C. four (Answer)
D. five
Human and organizational factors such as organizational structure and politics have a
significant effect on the operation of sociotechnical systems ?
A. True (Answer)
B. False
C.
D.
Sociotechnical systems are deterministic ?

A. True
B. False (Answer)
C.
D.
In a sociotechnical system, you need to consider reliability from perspectives namely ?

A. only software reliability
B. only hardware reliability
C. hardware and software reliability
D.hardware, software and operator reliability (Answer)
Which property of a sociotechnical system varies depending on how the component

assemblies are arranged and connected ?
A. security
B. usability
C. volume (Answer)
D. reliability
There are --------------- overlapping stages in the lifetime of large and complex sociotechnical
systems?
A. two
B. three (Answer)
C. four
D. five
Which property of a sociotechnical system depends on the technical system components, its
operators, and its operating environment ?
A. security
B. usability (Answer)
C. volume
D. reliability
Consider an example of a system which has a police command and control system that may
include a geographical information system to provide of the location of incidents. What kind
of system the example represents ?
A. Complex System
B. Technical computer-based system
C. Sociotechnical System
D.Both Complex and Sociotechnical System (Answer)
Reverse engineering is the last activity in a re-engineering project ---------------------?

A. True
B. False (Answer)
C.
D.
The cost of re-engineering is often significantly less than the costs of developing new software
?
A. True (Answer)
B. False
C.
D.
The Incremental Model is combination of elements of---------------------?

A. Build & FIX Model & Waterfall Model
B. Linear Model & RAD Model
C. Linear Model & Prototyping Model (Answer)
D. Waterfall Model & RAD Model
Processes for evolving a software product depend on ------------------?

A. Type of software to be maintained
B. Development processes used
C. Skills and experience of the people involved
Model preferred to create client/server applications is -----------------------?

A. WINWIN Spiral Model
B. Spiral Model
C. Concurrent Model (Answer)
D. Incremental Model
Spiral model was developed by -------------------?

A. Victor Bisili
B. Berry Boehm (Answer)
C. Bev Littlewood
D. Roger Pressman
Which technique is applied to ensure the continued evolution of legacy systems ?

A. Forward engineering
B. Reverse Engineering
C. Reengineering
D.Reverse Engineering and Reengineering (Answer)
A sociotechnical system is a system that includes-------------------?

A. people
B. software
C. hardware
The two dimensions of spiral model are ----------------------?

A. diagonal, angular
B. radial, perpendicular
C. radial, angular (Answer)
D. diagonal, perpendicular
Identify the correct statement with respect to Evolutionary development ?

A. Evolutionary development usually has two flavors; exploratory development, and throw-away
prototypi
B. Very large projects are usually done using evolutionary development b
C.
D.
Program modularization and Source code translation are the activities of --------------------?
A. Forward engineering
B. Reverse Engineering
C. Reengineering (Answer)
D. Reverse Engineering and Reengineering
Software evolution does not comprises ?

A. Development activities
B. Negotiating with client (Answer)
C. Maintenance activities
D. Re-engineering activities
Activity diagrams are used to model the processing of data ?

A. True (Answer)
B. False
C.
D.
Model-driven engineering is just a theoretical concept. It cannot be converted into a

working/executable code ?
A. True
B. False (Answer)
C.
D.
A data object can encapsulates processes and operation as well -----------------?

A. True
B. False (Answer)
C.
D.
---------------- classes are used to create the interface that the user sees and interacts with as
the software is used ?
A. Controller
B. Entity
C. Boundary (Answer)
D. Business
One creates Behavioral models of a system when you are discussing and designing the system
architecture?
A. True
B. False (Answer)
C.
D.
---------------- & ---------------- diagrams of UML represent Interaction modeling?

A. Use Case, Sequence (Answer)
B. Class, Object
C. Activity, State Chart
Which of the following diagram is not supported by UML considering Data-driven modeling
?
A. Activity
B. Data Flow Diagram (DFD) (Answer)
C. State Chart
D. Component
Which model in system modelling depicts the dynamic behaviour of the system ?
A. Context Model
B. Behavioral Model (Answer)
C. Data Model
D. Object Model
Which perspective in system modelling shows the system or data architecture ?

A. Structural perspective (Answer)
B. Behavioral perspective
C. External perspective
The Unified Modeling Language (UML) has become an effective standard for software
modelling.How many different notations does it have ?
A. Three
B. Four
C. Six
D.Nine (Answer)
Which level of Entity Relationship Diagram (ERD) models all entities and relationships ?
A. Level 1
B. Level 2 (Answer)
C. Level 3
D. Level 4
Which model in system modelling depicts the static nature of the system ?
A. Behavioral Model
B. Context Model
C. Data Model
D.Structural Model (Answer)
The UML supports event-based modeling using --------------- diagrams?

A. Deployment
B. Collaboration
C. State chart (Answer)
------------------ allows us to infer that different members of classes have some common
characteristics ?
A. Realization
B. Aggregation
C. Generalization (Answer)
D. dependency
-------------- and -------------- are the two view points discussed in Controlled Requirements
Expression (CORE) ?
A. Functional, Non-Functional (Answer)
B. User, Developer
C. Known, Unknown
Which one of the following is not an actor in JAD sessions ?

A. User
B. Tester (Answer)
C. Scribe
D. Sponsor
Which of the following Requirement Elicitation Techniques removes the poor understanding
of application domain and lack of common terminology between the users and the analysts ?
A. FODA (Answer)
B. CORE
C. IBIS
D. Prototyping
IBIS is a more structured approach than CORE ?

A. True (Answer)
B. False
C.
D.
What of the following is not an output of a JAD session ?

A. Context Diagrams
B. DFDs
C. ER model
D.UML diagrams (Answer)
Considering the example of issue/return of a book, cataloging etc. in a library

management.What type of management requirement is being depicted here ?
A. Enduring (Answer)
B. Volatile
C. Both Enduring & Volatile
Requirements Management is a prerequisite for Quality-Oriented Development ?

A. True (Answer)
B. False
C.
D.
Which two requirements are given priority during Requirement Management of a product ?
A. User and Developer
B. Functional and Non-functional
C. Enduring and Volatile (Answer)
Why is Requirements Management Important ? It is due to the changes-------------------?

A. to the environment
B. in technology
C. in customer’s expectations
D.in all of the mentioned. (Answer)
Requirements traceability is one of the most important part requirement management. It

may also be referred to as the heart of requirement management?
A. True (Answer)
B. False
C.
D.
Which of the following is not a Requirement Management workbench tool ?

A. RTM
B. DOORS
C. Rational Suite (Answer)
D. RDD 100
What functionality of Requirement Management Tool (RMT) is depicted by the statement:

“the tool should be able to automatically detect relations between artifacts. For example
information retrieval techniques, monitoring of change history, naming schemas or model
transformations------------------------?
A. Automatic Link Detection (Answer)
B. Documentation Support
C. Graphical Representation
D. Automatic Link Creation and Change
Requirements Management has a high initial start-up cost but does not need ongoing funding
throughout a project ?
A. True
B. False (Answer)
C.
D.
Which of the following is a requirement management activity ?

A. Investigation
B. Design
C. Construction and Test
According to a statistical report: “over 30% of all software projects are cancelled before
completion and over 70% of the remainder fail to deliver expected features”. What must be
the reason for such a situation ?
A. Poor change management
B. Poor requirements management (Answer)
C. Poor quality control
How many steps are involved in Feature Oriented Domain Analysis (FODA) ?
A. Two
B. Three (Answer)
C. Four
D. Five
How is CORE different from IBIS ?

A. Iterative in nature
B. Redundancies are removed
C. It is simple and an easier method to use
D.Consistency problems are addressed in CORE (Answer)
What is the major drawback of CORE ?
A. Requirements are comprehensive
B. NFRs are not given enough importance
C. Role of analyst is passive (Answer)
Narrative essay is one of the best types of specification document ?

A. True
B. False (Answer)
C.
D.
How many Scenarios are there in elicitation activities ?

A. One
B. Two
C. Three
D.Four (Answer)
Why is Requirements Elicitation a difficult task ?

A. Problem of scope
B. Problem of understanding
C. Problem of volatility
Requirements elicitation is a cyclic process-----------------?

A. True (Answer)
B. False
C.
D.
Which of the following property of SRS is depicted by the statement : “Conformity to a

standard is maintained” ?
A. Correct
B. Complete (Answer)
C. Consistent
D. Modifiable
Consider the following Statement: “The data set will contain an end of file character.”What
characteristic of SRS is being depicted here ?
A. Consistent
B. Non-verifiable (Answer)
C. Correct
D. Ambiguous
Which of the following is included in SRS ?
A. Cost
B. Design Constraints (Answer)
C. Staffing
D. Delivery Schedule
Consider the following Statement: “The product should have a good human interface.”What
characteristic of SRS is being depicted here ?
A. Consistent
B. Non-Verifiable (Answer)
C. Correct
D. Ambiguous
Consider the following Statement: “The output of a program shall be given within 10 secs of
event X 10% of the time.”What characteristic of SRS is being depicted here ?
A. Consistent
B. Verifiable (Answer)
C. Non-verifiable
D. Correct
The SRS document is also known as ---------------- specification ?

A. black-box (Answer)
B. white-box
C. grey-box
Which of the following property does not correspond to a good Software Requirements
Specification (SRS) ?
A. Verifiable
B. Ambiguous (Answer)
C. Complete
D. Traceable
What requirement gathering method developed at IBM in 1970s is used for managing
requirement elicitation ?
A. JAD
B. Traceability
C. FAST
D.Both JAD and Traceability (Answer)
What are the kinds of actors used in OOSE ?

A. Primary
B. Secondary
C. Ternary
D.Both Primary and Secondary (Answer)
What are the types of requirement in Quality Function Deployment (QFD) ?
A. Known, Unknown, Undreamed
B. User, Developer
C. Functional, Non-Functional
D.Normal, Expected, Exciting (Answer)
What is the first step of requirement elicitation ?

A. Identifying Stakeholder (Answer)
B. Listing out Requirements
C. Requirements Gathering
What kind of approach was introduced for elicitation and modelling to give a functional view
of the system ?
A. Object Oriented Design (by Booch)
B. Use Cases (by Jacobson) (Answer)
C. Fusion (by Coleman)
D. Object Modeling Technique (by Rumbaugh)
Which one of the following is a requirement that fits in a developer‟s module ?

A. Availability
B. Testability (Answer)
C. Usability
D. Flexibility
Which of the following statements explains portability in non-functional requirements ?

A. It is a degree to which software running on one platform can easily be converted to run on
another
B. It cannot be enhanced by using languages, OS’ and tools that ar
C.
D.
Which one of the following is a functional requirement ?

A. Maintainability
B. Portability
C. Robustness
“Consider a system where, a heat sensor detects an intrusion and alerts the security
company.” What kind of a requirement the system is providing ?
A. Functional (Answer)
B. Non-Functional
C. Known Requirement
Functional requirements capture the intended behavior of the system?
A. True (Answer)
B. False
C.
D.
How many classification schemes have been developed for NFRs ?

A. Two
B. Three
C. Four
D.Five (Answer)
What are the four dimensions of Dependability ?

A. Usability, Reliability, Security, Flexibility
B. Availability, Reliability, Maintainability, Security
C. Availability, Reliability, Security, Safety (Answer)
D. Security,
Which of the following is not a diagram studied in Requirement Analysis ?

A. Use Cases
B. Entity Relationship Diagram
C. State Transition Diagram
D.Activity Diagram (Answer)
How many phases are there in Requirement Analysis ?

A. Three
B. Four
C. Five (Answer)
D. Six
Requirements analysis is critical to the success of a development project ?

A. True (Answer)
B. False
C. Depends upon the size of project
The requirements that result from requirements analysis are typically expressed from one of
three perspectives or views.WhaT is that perspective or view ?
A. Developer
B. User
C. Non-Functional
D.Physical (Answer)
Coad and Yourdon suggested --------------- selection characteristics that should be used as an
analyst considers each potential object for inclusion in the requirement analysis model ?
A. Three
B. Four
C. Five
D.Six (Answer)
Requirements should specify „what‟ but not „how‟?

A. True (Answer)
B. False
C.
D.
Requirements Analysis is an Iterative Process ?

A. True (Answer)
B. False
C.
D.
----------- and ----------- are the two issues of Requirement Analysis?

A. Performance, Design
B. Stakeholder, Developer (Answer)
C. Functional, Non-Functional
Traceability is not considered in Requirement Analysis ?

A. True
B. False (Answer)
C.
D.
How many feasibility studies is conducted in Requirement Analysis ?

A. Two
B. Three (Answer)
C. Four
According to components of FURPS+, which of the following does not belong to S ?

A. Testability
B. Speed Efficiency (Answer)
C. Serviceability
D. Installability
How many phases are there in Brainstorming ?

A. Two
B. Three (Answer)
C. Four
Who controls the FAST (Facilitated Application Specification Techniques) meeting ?

A. System Analyst
B. Scribe
C. Facilitator (Answer)
D. Manager
Choose the disadvantage of using SSM as an elicitation technique ?

A. It incorporates human element into design
B. SSM is in its infant stage (Answer)
C. SSM is suitable for new systems
D. Standard methodologies like Role Exploration, Issue
Which of the following Requirement Elicitation Techniques is applicable to messy, changing

and ill-defined problem situations ?
A. Quality Function Deployment (QFD)
B. Prototyping
C. Soft Systems Methodology (SSM) (Answer)
D. Controlled Requirements Expression (CORE)
Keeping the requirements of QFD in mind which of the following is not an example of an
Expected Requirement ?
A. Ease of software installation
B. Overall operational correctness and reliability
C. Specific system functions (Answer)
D. Quality graphical display
To ensure that a given root definition is rigorous and comprehensive, The Lancaster team
proposed several criteria that are summarized in the mnemonic CATWOE in Soft Systems
Methodology (SSM).Which of the following alphabet is representing an entirely different
meaning to SSM ?
A. C – Customer
B. A – Actor
C. T – Transformation
D.E – ER Model (Answer)
QFD works best if it has management commitment?

A. True (Answer)
B. False
C.
D.
How is throwaway prototype different from evolutionary prototype ?
A. It involves successive steps
B. It involves just one task (Answer)
C. The prototype is built with the idea that it will eventually be converted into final system
D. It has
Select the developer-specific requirement ?

A. Portability
B. Maintainability
C. Availability
D.Both Portability and Maintainability (Answer)
FAST stands for-------------------?

A. Functional Application Specification Technique
B. Fast Application Specification Technique
C. Facilitated Application Specification Technique (Answer)
D. None of the menti
How is brainstorming different from JAD ? Brainstorming sessions ?

A. last for about 2-3 hours (Answer)
B. last for about 2-3 days
C. cover the technology used for the development
Which one of the following is not a step of requirement engineering ?

A. elicitation
B. design (Answer)
C. analysis
D. documentation
A Use-case actor is always a person having a role that different people may play?
A. True
B. False (Answer)
C.
D.
Conflicting requirements are common in Requirement Engineering, with each client

proposing his or her version is the right one?
A. True (Answer)
B. False
C.
D.
QFD stands for ----------------?

A. quality function design
B. quality function development
C. quality function deployment (Answer)
The user system requirements are the parts of which document ?

A. SDD
B. SRS (Answer)
C. DDD
D. SRD
Which is one of the most important stakeholder from the following ?

A. Entry level personnel
B. Middle level stakeholder
C. Managers
D.Users of the software (Answer)
A stakeholder is anyone who will purchase the completed software system under development
?
A. True
B. False (Answer)
C.
D.
How many phases are there in Scrum ?

A. Two
B. Three (Answer)
C. Four
D. Scrum is an agile method which means it does not have phases
Which three framework activities are present in Adaptive Software Development(ASD) ?

A. analysis, design, coding
B. requirements gathering, adaptive cycle planning, iterative development
C. speculation, collaboration, learning (Answer)
User requirements are expressed as --------------- in Extreme Programming?

A. implementation tasks
B. functionalities
C. scenarios (Answer)
Programmers prefer programming to testing and sometimes they take shortcuts when
writing tests. For example, they may write incomplete tests that do not check for all possible
exceptions that may occur ?
A. True (Answer)
B. False
C.
D.
In XP an automated unit test framework is used to write tests for a new piece of functionality
before that functionality itself is implemented --------------------?
A. True (Answer)
B. False
C.
D.
Is a customer involved test development and validation in XP ?

A. Yes
B. No
C. It may vary from Customer to Customer (Answer)
Which four framework activities are found in the Extreme Programming(XP) ?

A. analysis, design, coding, testing
B. planning, analysis, design, coding
C. planning, design, coding, testing (Answer)
D. planning, analysis, coding, testing
Purpose of process is to deliver software----------------?

A. in time
B. with acceptable quality
C. that is cost efficient
D.both in time & with acceptable quality (Answer)
--------------- & ---------------- are two kinds of software products ?

A. CAD, CAM
B. Firmware, Embedded
C. Generic, Customised (Answer)
Which one of the following is not a software process quality ?

A. Productivity
B. Portability (Answer)
C. Timeliness
D. Visibility
Which one of the following is not an application of embedded software product ?

A. keypad control of a security system
B. pattern recognition game playing (Answer)
C. digital function of dashboard display in a car
The work associated with software engineering can be categorized into three generic
phases,regardless of application area, project size, or complexity namely the------------- phase
which focuses on what, the-------------- phase which focuses on how and the------------- phase
which focuses on change ? i. support ii. development iii. definition
A. 1, 2, 3
B. 2, 1, 3
C. 3, 2, 1 (Answer)
D. 3, 1, 2
Which one of the following is not an Umbrella Activity that complements the five process
framework activities and help team manage and control progress, quality, change, and risk ?
A. Reusability management
B. Risk management
C. Measurement
D.User Reviews (Answer)
Which of the following activities of a Generic Process framework provides a feedback report
?
A. Communication
B. Planning
C. Modeling & Construction
D.Deployment (Answer)
Four types of change are encountered during the support phase . Which one of the following
is not one that falls into such category ?
A. Translation (Answer)
B. Correction
C. Adaptation
D. Prevention
Which of the following does not apply to agility to a software process ?

A. Uses incremental product delivery strategy
B. Only essential work products are produced
C. Eliminate the use of project planning and testing (Answer)
D. All of the mention
Agile Software Development is based on-----------------?

A. Incremental Development
B. Iterative Development
C. Linear Development
D.Both Incremental and Iterative Development (Answer)
Which of the following model has a major disadvantage in terms of the coding phase of a
software life cycle model ?
A. Spiral Model
B. Waterfall Model
C. Rad Model
D.4GT Model (Answer)
Select the option that suits the Manifesto for Agile Software Development----------------?
A. Individuals and interactions
B. Working software
C. Customer collaboration
What is a major advantage of using a 4GT Model for producing small scale products,
applications or programs ?
A. Improved productivity of software engineers
B. Reduction in software development time (Answer)
C. 4GT helped by CASE tools and code generators offers a credible solution to many
D.
Which of the following is not a type of a 4GL? One originating -----------------?

A. on Lisp machine (Answer)
B. on report generators
C. from database query languages
D. from GUI creators
If you were to create client/server applications, which model would you go for ?
A. WINWIN Spiral Model
B. Spiral Model
C. Concurrent Model (Answer)
D. Incremental Model
Identify the disadvantage of Spiral Model?

A. Doesn’t work well for smaller projects (Answer)
B. High amount of risk analysis
C. Strong approval and documentation control
D. Additional Functionality can be added at a
The spiral model has two dimensions namely --------------- and ---------------?
A. diagonal, angular
B. radial, perpendicular
C. radial, angular (Answer)
D. diagonal, perpendicular
The Incremental Model is a result of combination of elements of which two models?
A. Build & FIX Model & Waterfall Model
B. Linear Model & RAD Model
C. Linear Model & Prototyping Model (Answer)
D. Waterfall Model & RAD Model
RUP stands for-------------- created by a division of --------------?

A. Rational Unified Program, IBM
B. Rational Unified Process, Infosys
C. Rational Unified Process, Microsoft
D.Rational Unified Process, IBM (Answer)
Which two models doesn‟t allow defining requirements early in the cycle?
A. Waterfall & RAD
B. Prototyping & Spiral (Answer)
C. Prototyping & RAD
D. Waterfall & Spiral
Which of the following 4GLs invented at IBM and subsequently adopted by ANSI and ISO as
the standard language for managing structured data?
A. SQL (Answer)
B. PROLOG
C. C
D. JAVA
Arrange the following activities for making a software product using 4GT. i. Design strategy
ii. Transformation into product iii. Implementation iv. Requirement gathering ?
A. 1, 4, 3, 2
B. 4, 3, 1, 2
C. 4, 1, 3, 2 (Answer)
D. 1, 3, 4, 2
The 4GT Model is a package of -----------------?

A. CASE Tools
B. Software tools (Answer)
C. Software Programs
4GL is an example of ---------------- processing?

A. White Box
B. Black Box
C. Functional
D.Both Black Box & Functional (Answer)
Identify a fourth generation language(4GL) from the given below-----------------?
A. FORTRAN
B. COBOL
C. Unix shell (Answer)
D. C++
If you were a lead developer of a software company and you are asked to submit a
project/product within a stipulated time-frame with no cost barriers, which model would you
select ?
A. Waterfall
B. Spiral
C. RAD (Answer)
D. Incremental
A company is developing an advance version of their current software available in the

market, what model approach would they prefer ?
A. RAD
B. Iterative Enhancement
C. Both RAD & Iterative Enhancement (Answer)
D. Spiral
Which two of the following models will not be able to give the desired outcome if user‟s
participation is not involved?
A. Waterfall & Spiral
B. RAD & Spiral
C. RAD & Waterfall
D.RAD & Prototyping (Answer)
Which of the following life cycle model can be chosen if the development team has less
experience on similar projects ?
A. Spiral (Answer)
B. Waterfall
C. RAD
D. Iterative Enhancement Model
Selection of a model is based on---------------------?

A. Requirements
B. Development team & Users
C. Project type and associated risk
The longer a fault exists in software------------------?

A. the more tedious its removal becomes
B. the more costly it is to detect and correct
C. the less likely it is to be properly corrected
Which one of the following is not a fundamental activity for software processes in software
engineering ?
A. Software Verification (Answer)
B. Software Validation
C. Software design and implementation
D. Software evolution
Which phase of the RUP is used to establish a business case for the system ?
A. Transition
B. Elaboration
C. Construction
D.Inception (Answer)
The RUP is normally described from three perspectives-dynamic, static & practice.What
does static perspective do ?
A. It shows the process activities that are enacted (Answer)
B. It suggests good practices to be used during the process
C. It shows the phases of the model over time
D. All
Choose an internal software quality from given below------------------------?

A. scalability
B. usability
C. reusability (Answer)
D. reliability
The spiral model was originally proposed by--------------------?

A. IBM
B. Barry Boehm (Answer)
C. Pressman
D. Royce
The fundamental notions of software engineering does not account for ?

A. Software processes
B. Software Security
C. Software reuse
D.Software Validation (Answer)
SDLC stands for---------------------?

A. Software Development Life Cycle (Answer)
B. System Development Life cycle
C. Software Design Life Cycle
D. System Design Life Cycle
RAD Model has------------------?

A. 2 phases
B. 3 phase
C. 5 phases (Answer)
D. 6 phases
Which one of the following is not a phase of Prototyping Model ?

A. Quick Design
B. Coding (Answer)
C. Prototype Refinement
D. Engineer Product
Which model can be selected if user is involved in all the phases of SDLC ?
A. Waterfall Model
B. Prototyping Model
C. RAD Model (Answer)
D. both Prototyping Model & RAD Model
Build & Fix Model is suitable for programming exercises of -------------- LOC (Line of Code)?
A. 100-200 (Answer)
B. 200-400
C. 400-1000
D. above 1000
Which one of the following models is not suitable for accommodating any change ?
A. Build & Fix Model
B. Prototyping Model
C. RAD Model
D.Waterfall Model (Answer)
Which of these does not affect different types of software as a whole ?

A. Heterogeneity
B. Flexibility (Answer)
C. Business and social change
D. Security
Which of these software engineering activities are not a part of software processes ?
A. Software dependence (Answer)
B. Software development
C. Software validation
D. Software specification
Which of these does not account for software failure ?
A. Increasing Demand
B. Low expectation
C. Increasing Supply (Answer)
D. Less reliable and expensive
The reason for software bugs and failures is due to ---------------------?

A. Software companies
B. Software Developers
C. Both Software companies and Developers (Answer)
As per an IBM report, “31%of the project get cancelled before they are completed, 53%
overrun their cost estimates by an average of 189% and for every 100 projects, there are 94
restarts”.What is the reason for these statistics ?
A. Lack of adequate training in software engineering (Answer)
B. Lack of software ethics and understanding
C. Management issues in the company
Explain what is meant by PRODUCT with reference to one of the eight principles as per the
ACM/IEEE Code of Ethics ?
A. The product should be easy to use
B. Software engineers shall ensure that their products and related modifications meet the highest
prof
C. S
D.
Software engineers should not use their technical skills to misuse other people‟s
computers.”Here the term misuse refers to -------------------?
A. Unauthorized access to computer material
B. Unauthorized modification of computer material
C. Dissemination of viruses or other malware
What is a Software -------------------- ?

A. Software is set of programs
B. Software is documentation and configuration of data
C. Software is set of programs, documentation & configuration of data (Answer)
D. No
What are attributes of good software ?

A. Software maintainability
B. Software functionality
C. Software development
D.Software maintainability & functionality (Answer)
Which of these are not among the eight principles followed by Software Engineering Code of
Ethics and Professional Practice ?
A. PUBLIC
B. PROFESSION
C. PRODUCT
D.ENVIRONMENT (Answer)
In terms of Issues related to professional responsibility--------------------?

A. Confidentiality
B. Intellectual property rights
C. Both Confidentiality & Intellectual property rights (Answer)
D. Managing Client Relationships
Identify an ethical dilemma from the situations mentioned below ?

A. Your employer releases a safety-critical system without finishing the testing of the system
(Answer)
B. Refusing to undertake a project
C. Agreement in principle with the polici
D.
Efficiency in a software product does not include --------------------?

A. responsiveness
B. licensing (Answer)
C. memory utilization
D. processing time
Which of the following denote page code model in ASP.NET ?

A. single-file
B. code-behind
C. Both A and B (Answer)
D. None of the Above
Which command is used to change directory to the name beginning with a „p‟ ?
A. cd p
B. cd p?
C. cd p* (Answer)
D. cd [p]
The chmod ugo+rw note command can be represented in octal notation as-----------------?
A. chmod 555 note
B. chmod 666 note (Answer)
C. chmod 444 note
D. chmod 333 note
The first set of the three permissions (rw) pertains to the owner of the file, indicating that the
owner has---------------?
A. executable permission only
B. write and executable permissions
C. both read and executable permissions.
D.both read and write permissions (Answer)
Which of the following special shell variables is used to process number of the current shell ?
A. $!
B. $$ (Answer)
C. 0
D. $*
Which of the following shell‟s wildcards are used to match any number of characters
including None ?
A. [ijk]
B. [!ijk]
C. ?
D.* (Answer)
Which command is used to terminate all processes in your own system except the login shell ?
A. kill 1
B. kill 0 (Answer)
C. cancel all
D. cancel 1
What command is used to remove files ?

A. dm
B. rm (Answer)
C. delete
D. erase
Which of the following is not a communication command ?

A. grep (Answer)
B. mail
C. mesg
D. write
Which of the following command is used to see the services running in NFS server ?
A. rpcinfo (Answer)
B. serverinfo
C. NFSinfo
D. infserv
What type of addressing format is used by Class A network ?

A. Net.Net.Net.Node
B. Net.Net.Node.Node
C. Net.Node.Net.Node
D.Net.Node.Node.Node (Answer)
What command is used to assign executable permission to all of the files named “report” ?
A. chmod ugo + x report (Answer)
B. chmod u + x report
C. chmod ugo + rw report
D. chmod ugo + r report
What command is used to display and create files ?

A. lyrix
B. ed
C. vi
D.cat (Answer)
What allows different projects to use the same source files at the same time ?
A. Version Control (Answer)
B. Access control
C. CM Process
D. Version Control and Access control
Which of the following is not a change management process ?

A. Log the changes
B. Estimate impact on effort and schedule
C. Review impact with stakeholders
How are baselines verified ?

A. By reviews
B. By inspections
C. By testing of code (Answer)
Quality also can be looked at in terms of user satisfaction which includes---------------------?

A. A compliant product
B. Good quality output
C. Delivery within budget and schedule
Which of the following is a example of Configuration Items ?
A. SCM procedures
B. Source code
C. Software design descriptions
CCB stands for------------------?

A. Change Control Board (Answer)
B. Change Control Baseline
C. Cumulative Changes in Baseline
Inspections and testing are what kinds of Quality Costs ?

A. Prevention
B. Internal Failure
C. External Failure
D.Appraisal (Answer)
Quality Management in software engineering is also known as---------------------?

A. SQA (Answer)
B. SQM
C. SQI
D. SQA and SQM
What information is required to process a change to a baseline ?

A. Reasons for making the changes
B. A description of the proposed changes
C. List of other items affected by the changes
According to Pareto‟s principle, x% of defects can be traced to y% of all causes. What are the
values of x and y ?
A. 60, 40
B. 70, 30
C. 80, 20 (Answer)
D. No such principle exists
Which of the following is not a core step of Six Sigma ?

A. Define
B. Control (Answer)
C. Measure
D. Analyse
What kind of quality cost is incurred when an error is detected in a product prior to
shipment ?
A. Prevention
B. Internal Failure (Answer)
C. External Failure
D. Appraisal
Non-conformance to software requirements is known as-------------------?

A. Software availability
B. Software reliability
C. Software failure (Answer)
The degree to which the design specifications are followed during manufacturing is known as-
---------------?
A. Quality of design
B. Quality of conformance (Answer)
C. Quality of testing
According to ISO 9001, inspection and testing comes under which management responsibility
?
A. Process control (Answer)
B. Document control
C. Control of nonconforming products
D. Servicing
When code is made available to others, it goes in a/an--------------------?

A. hard drive
B. access-controlled library (Answer)
C. servers
D. access control
Which of the following is not a main phase in Configuration Management (CM) Process ?
A. CM Planning
B. Executing the CM process
C. CM audits
SCM stands for-----------------?

A. Software Control Management
B. Software Configuration Management (Answer)
C. Software Concept Management
What is validating the completeness of a product ?

A. Identification
B. Software
C. Auditing and Reviewing (Answer)
D. Status Accounting
What is a collection of software elements treated as a unit for the purposes of SCM ?
A. Software Configuration Item (Answer)
B. Baseline
C. Configuration
D. Configuration Control Board
What is one or more software configuration items that have been formally reviewed and
agreed upon and serve as a basis for further development ?
A. Configuration
B. Baseline (Answer)
C. Software
What is group with the responsibility for reviewing and approving changes to baselines ?
A. Software Configuration Item
B. Baseline
C. Configuration
D.Configuration Control Board (Answer)
What is a specific instance of a baseline or configuration item ?

A. Software
B. Configuration
C. Version (Answer)
Which of the following is not a part of Software Configuration Management Basics ?

A. Identification
B. Version (Answer)
C. Auditing and Reviewing
Which of the following is a software process ?

A. Analysis and design
B. Configuration and management
C. Business modeling
Which of the following is not included in Issues Meetings ?

A. Issues gathered the day before
B. Regular schedule of meeting
C. Discussion with business (Answer)
D. Attendance
Which of the following is not a conflict in software development team ?

A. Simultaneous updates
B. Shared and common code
C. Versions
D.Graphics issues (Answer)
Which of the following is not a typical environment in communication facilitation ?

A. Multiple teams
B. Multiple user groups
C. Multiple fests (Answer)
D. Multiple locations
Why is software difficult to build ?

A. Controlled changes
B. Lack of reusability
C. Lack of monitoring (Answer)
Beta Testing is done by--------------------?

A. Developers
B. Testers
C. Users (Answer)
Execution Verifier is a dynamic tool that is also known as---------------------?

A. Test File Generator
B. Coverage Analyzer (Answer)
C. Output Comparator
D. Test Harness System
Which testing tool is responsible for documenting programs ?

A. Test/File Generator
B. Test Harness System
C. Test Archiving Systems (Answer)
D. Coverage Analyzer
Software Testing with real data in real environment is known as---------------------?

A. alpha testing
B. beta testing (Answer)
C. regression testing
Many applications using static analysis find 0.1-0.2% NCSS. NCSS stands for--------------------
--?
A. Non-Code Source Statement
B. Non Comment Source Sentence
C. Non-Comment Source Statement (Answer)
Which of the following testing tools examine program systematically & automatically ?
A. Code Inspector
B. Static Analyzer (Answer)
C. Standard Enforcer
D. Coverage Analyzer
Which testing tool does a simple job of enforcing standards in a uniform way of many
programs ?
A. Static Analyzer
B. Code Inspector
C. Standard Enforcer
D.Both Code Inspector & Standard Enforcer (Answer)
Standard Enforcer is a-------------------?

A. Static Testing Tool (Answer)
B. Dynamic Testing
C. Static & Dynamic Testing
Test should be conducted for every possible-----------------------?

A. data
B. case
C. variable
Which is a black box testing technique appropriate to all levels of testing ?

A. Acceptance testing
B. Regression testing
C. Equivalence partitioning (Answer)
D. Quality assurance
Effective testing will reduce ------------------ cost?

A. maintenance (Answer)
B. design
C. coding
D. documentation
Cyclomatic Complexity method comes under which testing method ?
A. Yellow box
B. White box (Answer)
C. Gray box
D. Black box
Which of the following is the way of ensuring that the tests are actually testing code ?
A. Control structure testing
B. Complex path testing
C. Code coverage (Answer)
D. Quality assurance of software
Which of the following is a common pointwer problem ?

A. Data sharing errors
B. Accessing data elements of the wrong type
C. Attempting to use memory areas after freeing them
Which of the following is not a type of CASE tool ?

A. Lower
B. Classic
C. Real
D.Middle (Answer)
What stores all changes and info related to the project from development through
maintenance in CASE tools ?
A. Database
B. Repository (Answer)
C. Registers
CASE stands for-------------------?

A. Cost Aided
B. Computer Aided Software Engineering (Answer)
C. Control Aided
What kind of support is provided by the Code Generation CASE tool ?

A. Cross referencing queries and requirements tracing
B. Transformation of design records into application software (Answer)
C. Compiling, interpreting or applying interactive debu
D.
Which of the following is a drawback of using CASE tool ?

A. Standardization of notations and diagrams
B. Communication between development team member
C. Costs associated with the use of the tool (Answer)
D. Reduction of time and e
CASE tools are mainly used while developing which of the following methodologies?
A. RAD
B. JAD
C. OO Approach
Which of the following term is best defined by the statement: “CASE tools and the target
applications are isolated from physical storage so they are not affected when the hardware
configuration is changed.” ?
A. Non-redundant data storage
B. Data independence (Answer)
C. Data dependence
D. Ad Hhoc data queries and reports
Which tools are used to modify online database systems ?

A. Reverse engineering specification tools
B. Code restructuring and analysis tools
C. Test management tools
D.online system re-engineering tools (Answer)
Which is the definition of objects in the database that leads directly to a standard approach
for the creation of software engineering documents ?
A. Document standardization (Answer)
B. Data integrity
C. Information sharing
D. Data/data integration
--------------------tools assist in the planning, development, and control in CASE ?

A. Dynamic measurement
B. Data acquisition
C. Test management (Answer)
D. Cross-functional tools
Which environment demands specialized testing tools that exercise the graphical user
interface and the network communications requirements for client and server ?
A. Dynamic analysis
B. Client/Server (Answer)
C. Re-engineering
D. Test management
Database management software serves as a foundation for the establishment of a CASE
database (repository) that we call------------------?
A. project database (Answer)
B. system database
C. analysis and design tools
D. prototyping tools
Which tools cross the bounds of the preceding categories ?

A. Data acquisition
B. Dynamic measurement
C. Cross-functional tools (Answer)
D. Simulation
What enables a software engineer to defined screen layout rapidly for interactive applications
?
A. Analysis and design tools
B. Tool kit
C. Screen painters (Answer)
D. PRO/SIM tools
Extracting data items and objects, to get information on data flow, and to understand the
existing data structures that have been implemented is sometimes called------------------?
A. data analysis (Answer)
B. directionality
C. data extraction
D. client applications
Transformation of a system from one representational form to another is known as-------------

---?
A. Re-factoring
B. Restructuring
C. Forward engineering
D.Both Re-factoring and Restructuring (Answer)
Reverse engineering is the process of deriving the system design and specification from its-----
---------------?
A. GUI
B. Database
C. Source code (Answer)
Much of the information necessary to create a behavioral model can be obtained by observing
the external manifestation of the existing ------------------------?
A. candidate keys
B. interface (Answer)
C. database structure
Which of the following is not an objective of reverse engineering ?

A. to reduce maintenance effort
B. to cope with complexity
C. to avoid side effects
D.to assist migration to a CASE environment (Answer)
Which of the following steps may not be used to define the existing data model as a precursor
to re-engineering a new database model ?
A. Build an initial object model
B. Determine candidate keys
C. Refine the tentative classes
D.Discover user interfaces (Answer)
What have become de rigueur for computer-based products and systems of every type ?
A. GUIs (Answer)
B. Candidate keys
C. Object model
In reverse engineering process, what refers to the sophistication of the design information
that can be extracted from the source code ?
A. interactivity
B. completeness
C. abstraction level (Answer)
D. direction level
Forward engineering is also known as-----------------?

A. extract abstractions
B. renovation
C. reclamation
D.both renovation and reclamation (Answer)
The core of reverse engineering is an activity called----------------?

A. restructure code
B. directionality
C. extract abstractions (Answer)
D. interactivity
Which of these benefits can be achieved when software is restructured ?

A. Higher quality programs
B. Reduced maintenance effort
C. Software easier to test
The amount of time that the software is available for use is known as-----------------?
A. Reliability (Answer)
B. Usability
C. Efficiency
D. Functionality
SMI stands for---------------?

A. Software Mature Indicator
B. Software Maturity Index (Answer)
C. Software Mature Index
D. Software Maturity Indicator
Function Points in software engineering was first proposed by---------------?

A. Booch
B. Boehm
C. Albrecht (Answer)
D. Jacobson
Which of the following is not a web engineering project metric ?

A. Number of Static Content Objects
B. Number of Dynamic Content Objects
C. Number of Inherited Objects (Answer)
D. Word Count
Which of the following is not a metric for design model ?

A. Interface design metrics
B. Component-level metrics
C. Architectural metrics
D.Complexity metrics (Answer)
How many Information Domain Values are used for Function Point Computation ?
A. three
B. four
C. five (Answer)
D. six
Architectural Design Metrics are -------------- in nature ?

A. Black Box (Answer)
B. White Box
C. Gray Box
D. Green Box
SMI = [Mt – (Fa + Fc + Fd)]/Mt. Here Mt is the number of modules--------------?
A. in the current release (Answer)
B. in the current release that have been changed
C. from the preceding release that were deleted in the current release
D. None of the ment
Structural complexity of a module i is given as S(i) = f*f (i). What does f symbolizes here ?
A. “fan check-out” of module i
B. “fan check-in” of module i
C. “fan in” of module i
D.“fan out” of module i (Answer)
Function Point Computation is given by the formula-------------------?

A. FP = [count total * 0.65] + 0.01 * sum(Fi)
B. FP = count total * [0.65 + 0.01 * sum(Fi)]. (Answer)
C. FP = count total * [0.65 + 0.01] * sum(Fi)
D. FP = [count total * 0.6
Statement and branch coverage metrics are part of----------------------?

A. Analysis Model
B. Testing (Answer)
C. Design Model
D. Source Code
Which of the following is not a classification of the web engineering metric, Web Page
Similarity ?
A. Content based
B. Link based
C. Usage based
D.Traffic based (Answer)
How is the complexity of a web page related to link count ?

A. Directly (Answer)
B. Indirectly
C. No relation
Which metric gives the idea about the contents on a web page ?
A. Word Token
B. Word Count (Answer)
C. Word Size
D. Word Length
Number of dynamic web pages provides an idea about------------ for a web page that is to be
built?
A. size
B. complexity
C. effort
Link based measures rely on ------------- structure of a web graph to obtain related pages?
A. Embedded
B. Hyperlink (Answer)
C. Dynamic
Which of the following web engineering metric measures the extent of relatedness between
two or more web pages ?
A. Number of Static Content Objects
B. Number of Dynamic Content Objects
C. Web Page Similarity (Answer)
D. Number of Internal Page Links
Usability can be measured in terms of-----------------?

A. Intellectual skill to learn the system
B. Time required to become moderately efficient in system usage
C. Net increase in productivity
Which of the following is not a direct measure of SE process ?

A. Efficiency (Answer)
B. Cost
C. Effort Applied
Which of the following does not affect the software quality and organizational performance ?
A. Market (Answer)
B. Product
C. Technology
D. People
Which of the following is an indirect measure of product ?

A. Quality
B. Complexity
C. Reliability
D.All of the Mentioned (Answer)
A graphical technique for finding if changes and variation in metrics data are meaningful is
known as-----------------?
A. DRE (Defect Removal Efficiency)
B. Function points analysis
C. Control Chart (Answer)
In size oriented metrics, metrics are developed based on the ---------------------?

A. number of Functions
B. number of user inputs
C. number of lines of code (Answer)
D. amount of memory usage
Defects removal efficiency (DRE)depends on ----------------------?

A. E – errors found before software delivery
B. D – defects found after delivery to user
C. Both E and D (Answer)
D. Varies with project
Which of the following is the task of project indicators ?

A. help in assessment of status of ongoing project
B. track potential risk
C. help in assessment of status of ongoing project & track potential risk (Answer)
D. None of t
Which of the following is not an information domain required for determining function point
in FPA ?
A. Number of user Input
B. Number of user Inquiries
C. Number of external Interfaces
D.Number of errors (Answer)
Object that collects data on request rather than autonomously is known as-----------------?
A. Active Object
B. Passive Object (Answer)
C. Multiple instance
Which of the following is a disadvantage of OOD ?

A. Easier maintenance
B. Objects may be
C. Objects are potentially reusable components
How is generalization implemented in Object Oriented programming languages ?

A. Inheritance (Answer)
B. Polymorphism
C. Encapsulation
D. Abstract Classes
Which of the following is a mechanism that allows several objects in an class hierarchy to
have different methods with the same name ?
A. Aggregation
B. Polymorphism (Answer)
C. Inheritance
Objects are executed ---------------------?

A. sequentially
B. in Parallel
C. sequentially & Parallel (Answer)
How many layers are present in the OO design pyramid ?

A. three
B. four (Answer)
C. five
D. one
Grady Booch, James Rumbaugh, and Ivar Jacobson combined the best features of their
individual object-oriented analysis into a new method for object oriented design known as ----
-----------------?
A. HTML
B. XML
C. UML (Answer)
D. SGML
Which of the following is conceptually similar to objects ?

A. PACKAGE (Answer)
B. PROC
C. PRIVATE
Which of the following early OOD methods incorporates both a “micro development process”
and a “macro development process.” ?
A. Booch method (Answer)
B. Rumbaugh method
C. Wirfs-Brock method
D. Coad and Yourdon method
A design description of an object is known as a class------------------?

A. instance
B. object
C. case
D.both instance and object (Answer)
A design description in OOD includes-------------------?

A. Protocol Description
B. Implementation Description
C. Type Description
D.both Protocol and Implementation Description (Answer)
Which of the following is not an operation as per OOD algorithms and data structures ?
A. operations that manipulate data in some way
B. operations that perform a computation
C. operations that check for syntax errors (Answer)
D. operations that monitor an obje
What encapsulates both data and data manipulation functions ?

A. Object (Answer)
B. Class
C. Super Class
D. Sub Class
Data Store Symbol in DFD represents a---------------?

A. Physical file
B. Data Structure
C. Logical file
A directed arc or line in DFD represents-----------------?

A. Data Store
B. Data Process
C. Data Flow (Answer)
Which of the following is a function of CASE Tool ?

A. Supporting Structured analysis and design (SA/SD) (Answer)
B. Maintaining the data dictionary
C. Checking whether DFDs are balanced or not
The context diagram is also known as ------------------?

A. Level-0 DFD (Answer)
B. Level-1 DFD
C. Level-2 DFD
To arrive at a form which is suitable for implementation in some programming language is
the purpose of---------------?
A. Structured Analysis (SA)
B. Structured Design (SD) (Answer)
C. Detailed Design (DD)
SA/SD features are obtained from which of the methodologies ?

A. Constantine and Yourdon methodology
B. DeMarco and Yourdon methodology
C. Gane and Sarson methodology
What DFD notation is represented by the Rectangle ?

A. Transform
B. Data Store (Answer)
C. Function
What type of software testing is generally used in Software Maintenance ?

A. Regression Testing (Answer)
B. System Testing
C. Integration Testing
D. Unit Testing
Which selective retest technique selects every test case that causes a modified program to
produce a different output than its original version?
A. Coverage
B. Minimization
C. Safe (Answer)
D. Maximization
Regression testing is a very expensive activity?

A. True (Answer)
B. False
C.
D.
Which regression test selection technique exposes faults caused by modifications ?

A. Efficiency
B. Precision
C. Generality
D.Inclusiveness (Answer)
Which of the following is not an appraisal cost in SQA ?
A. inter-process inspection
B. maintenance
C. quality planning (Answer)
D. testing
The primary objective of formal technical reviews is to find ----------------- during the process
so that they do not become defects after release of the software?
A. errors (Answer)
B. equivalent faults
C. failure cause
According to ISO 9001, the causes of nonconforming product should be--------------------?

A. deleted
B. eliminated
C. identified
D.eliminated and identified (Answer)
In CMM, the life cycle activities of requirements analysis, design, code, and test are described
in-------------------------?
A. Software Product Engineering (Answer)
B. Software Quality Assurance
C. Software Subcontract Management
D. Software Quality Management
The CMM emphasizes--------------------?

A. continuous process improvement
B. the need to record information (Answer)
C. the need to accept quality system
ISO 9001 is not concerned with --------------- of quality records?

A. collection
B. maintenance
C. verification (Answer)
D. dis-positioning
CMM stands for---------------------?

A. Capability Management Module
B. Conservative Maturity Model
C. Capability Maturity Module
D.Capability Maturity Model (Answer)
Who identifies, documents, and verifies that corrections have been made to the software ?
A. Project manager
B. Project team
C. SQA group (Answer)
Which of the following is not included in External failure costs ?

A. testing (Answer)
B. help line support
C. warranty work
D. complaint resolution
Which requirements are the foundation from which quality is measured ?

A. Hardware
B. Software (Answer)
C. Programmers
Degree to which design specifications are followed in manufacturing the product is called------
-----------?
A. Quality Control
B. Quality of conformance (Answer)
C. Quality Assurance
Which of the following is not included in failure costs ?

A. rework
B. repair
C. failure mode analysis
The Capability Maturity Model (CMM) is a continuous model ?

A. True
B. False (Answer)
C.
D.
What is not included in prevention costs ?

A. quality planning
B. formal technical reviews
C. test equipment
D.equipment calibration and maintenance (Answer)
The ISO 9000 series of standards is a program that can be used for external quality assurance
purposes ?
A. True
B. False (Answer)
C.
D.
Which of the following is not a maturity level in CMM ?

A. Design
B. Repeatable
C. Managed (Answer)
D. Optimizing
Which of the following requires design control measures, such as holding and recording
design reviews and qualification tests ?
A. CMM
B. ISO 9001
C. ISO 9000-3 (Answer)
------------ states that, where appropriate, adequate statistical techniques are identified and
used to verify the acceptability of process capability and product characteristics?
B. ISO 9000-4
C. CMM
Which of the following is not a SQA plan for a project ?

A. evaluations to be performed
B. amount of technical work (Answer)
C. audits and reviews to be performed
D. documents to be produced by the SQA group
The CMMI assessment is based on a x-point scale. What is the value of x ?

A. 0
B. 2
C. 4
D.6 (Answer)
It is always best to start process analysis with a new test model ?

A. True
B. False (Answer)
C.
D.
Which of the following is not a part of process change ?

A. Introducing new practices, methods or processes
B. Introducing new team members to existing project (Answer)
C. Introducing or removing deliverable
D. Introducing new role
What is a tangible output of an activity that is predicted in a project plan ?

A. Deliverable (Answer)
B. Activity
C. Condition
D. Process
Process improvement is the set of activities, methods, and transformations that developers use
to develop and maintain information systems ?
A. True
B. False (Answer)
C.
D.
How many stages are there in process improvement ?

A. three (Answer)
B. four
C. five
D. six
Prototypes and 4GL business systems are categorized under which process ?
A. Informal (Answer)
B. Managed
C. Methodical
D. Supported
What is often undefined and is left to the ingenuity of the project managers and engineers ?
A. Role
B. Exception (Answer)
C. Activity
D. Process
The documentation of a process which records the tasks, the roles and the entities used is
called------------------?
A. Process metric
B. Process analysis
C. Process modelling (Answer)
“Understandability” answers which of the following description ?

A. The extent to which the process is explicitly defined (Answer)
B. Process errors are avoided or trapped before they result in product errors
C. Defined process is acceptable and
D.
National Voluntary Laboratory Accreditation Program approve accreditation in ----------------

---?
A. Environmental standards
B. Computers and electronics
C. Product testing
CSQA stands for ------------------?

A. Certified Software Quality Analyst (Answer)
B. Certified Software Quality Approved
C. Certified Software Quality Acclaimed
Which of the following companies provide certifications for their own products ?
A. CISCO
B. ORACLE
C. Microsoft
CSTE stands for --------------------?

A. Certified Software Technology
B. Certified Software Tester (Answer)
C. Certified Software Trainee
How many levels, does the DO-178B certification targeted by RTCADO-178B has ?
A. two
B. three
C. four
D.five (Answer)
Which of the following manuals is not a user documentation ?

A. Beginner’s Guide
B. Installation guide
C. Reference Guide
D.SRS (Answer)
The process of transforming a model into source code is known as-------------------?

A. Forward engineering (Answer)
B. Reverse engineering
C. Re-engineering
D. Reconstructing
Which of the following is a field related to certification ?
A. Person
B. Process
C. Product
Which standard is followed in aviation industry ?

A. CTRADO-172B
B. RTCADO-178B (Answer)
C. RTRADO-178B
D. CTCADO-178B
Third Party Certification for software standards is based on -------------------?

A. Ul 1998, Second Edition (Answer)
B. UT 1998, Second Edition
C. Ul 1992, Second Edition
D. Ul 1996, Second Edition
Which of the following is a software process certification ?

A. JAVA Certified
B. IBM Certified
C. ISO-9000 (Answer)
D. Microsoft Certified
How many stages are there in Iterative-enhancement model used during software
maintenance ?
A. two
B. three (Answer)
C. four
D. five
Which of the following manuals is a user documentation ?

A. SRS -Software Requirement Specification
B. SDD -Software Design Document
C. System Overview (Answer)
What are legacy systems ?

A. new systems
B. old systems (Answer)
C. under-developed systems
Which one of the following is not a maintenance model ?

A. Waterfall model (Answer)
B. Reuse-oriented model
C. Iterative enhancement model
D. Quick fix model
Choose the suitable options with respect to regression testing ?

A. It helps in development of software
B. It helps in maintenance of software
C. It helps in development & maintenance of software (Answer)

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Software Engineering MCQs

A web blueprint depicts ?

Management information system usually ?

The elements of control will consist of ------------------?

All of the following are phases of systems analysis, except ?

The most important attribute of information quality that a manager requires is ?

Mass production of computers started in ----------- , when UNIVAC 1 was delivered?

Critical information for top management is provided by -------------- information system?

A ---------- is a measure, an intangible measure, which is difficult to count in clear terms?

Newspaper, magazine, radio, television are example of ---------?

----------- can occur at the individual, group, organizational or extra-organizational level?

The process of requirements discovery consists of the following activities, except---------------?

Which is not a typical business function ?

Which of the following relates to enterprise interoperability ?

The cost of information can be -------------------?

The advantage(s) of transistors are they ?

Which of the following is part of a static view of information ?

Which of the following is NOT a feasibility analysis criterion ?

Which installation strategy is a variation on the abrupt and parallel conversion ?

Which of the following phases identifies and expresses requirements, prioritizes

An ongoing activity of systems support is----------------?

All of the following are examples of requirements problems, except ----------------?

The task of establishing system improvement objectives is performed in which phase of

Open database connectivity (OBDC) tools are an example of--------------?

JAR file contains the compressed version of-----------------?

Who can access Session state variables ?

All the following are examples of input devices EXCEPT a--------------------?

Which of the following is not a part of bug report ?

Which of the following is not a part of Execution Flow during debugging ?

Software mistakes during coding are known as------------------?

Name an evaluation technique to assess the quality of test cases ?

The construction of object-oriented software begins with the creation of------------------?

What is normally considered as an adjunct to the coding step--------------------?

Test cases should uncover errors like---------------------?

ITG stands for-------------------?

In which testing level the focus is on customer usage ?

Which of the following is not a software testing generic characteristics ?

Behavioral testing is------------------?

Beta testing is done at-----------------?

Acceptance testing is also known as--------------------?

Which of the following is black box testing----------------------?

Unit testing is done by------------------?

Which of the following is non-functional testing ?

Testing done without planning and Documentation is called-----------------?

Alpha testing is done at----------------?

What are the various Testing Levels ?

Exhaustive testing is-------------------?

Maintenance testing is performed using which methodology ?

The testing in which code is checked-------------------?

Which of the following is/are White box technique ?

White Box techniques are also classified as-----------------?

What is Cyclomatic complexity ?

Lower and upper limits are present in which chart ?

Which level of CMM is for process management ?

Software reliability is defined with respect to--------------------?

Failure In Time (FIT) is another way of reporting ------------------?

MTTF stands for-------------------?

Which of the following is not a Probabilistic Model ?