TEST YOUR SELF

Circle a letter corresponding to the correct answer (select one answer or several answers or is
indicated)

1. The sole function of the nurse is to help patients, sick or healthy, to perform those activities which
contribute to health or its recovery (or peaceful death), without assistance, if they had the strength, will, or
knowledge and to do so in a way that helps them gain independence as quickly as possible. This statement
sets out the nursing definition of the following nursing theorist.

a) Nightngale

b) Henderson.

c) Abderah

d) Orems

2. The alleviation of suffering through the diagnosis and treatment of the human response is the central
role of the following health provider

a) Registered Nurse

b) general practitioner

c) medical specialist

d) medical psychologist

3. The essential role of nursing practice is:

a) Provide patient-centered physiological care

b) Provide holistic patient-centered care

c) Provide patient-centered spiritual care

d) Provide patient-centred social care.

4. The patient-centered model of care refers to:

a) Health care Involve the patient in health care decision-making in the medical treatment of her illness

b) Health care Involving the patient's care decisions in medical diagnosis and treatment

c) Healthcare Involvement of patients and caregivers in healthcare decision-making and management of

patient care
d) Health care Involvement of the patient in decision-making regarding care during the surgical procedure
for her illness

5. Long-term care: patient care for a period longer than:

a) 10 days

b) 15 days

c) 20 days

d) 30 days

d) 25 days

6. Critical thinking nursing refers to:

a) Memorize a list of facts or the steps of a procedure

b) The ability to solve problems by making sense of information.

c) Multidisciplinary teamwork

d) Assist the patient to achieve optimal independence

7. The nursing process (approach of nursing care) includes:

a) Two phases

b) Three phases

c) Four phases

d) Five phases

e) Six stages

f) Seven phases

8. The nursing diagnosis phase of the nursing process refers to:

a) Identify the patient's signs and symptoms

b) Writing of the general state of health of the patient

c) Identify and identify human responses to actual or potential health problems or life processes

d) Identifying and labeling independent human patient actions or life processes

9. When planning a phase of the nursing process, a nurse performs the following tasks:

a) Make a nursing diagnosis

b) Develop patient outcomes or goals and identify nursing interventions to achieve diagnosis

c) Develop patient outcomes or goals and identify nursing interventions to obtain subjective and objective
data

d) Develop patient outcomes or goals and identify nursing interventions to achieve the outcomes

10. During the assessment, one phase of the nursing process is for a nurse to:

a) Determine if the patient's diagnosis was made as a result of nursing interventions.

b) Whether the nursing interventions were performed

c) Determines whether the patient's subjective and objective complaints have been alleviated

d) Determines whether patient outcomes have been achieved as a result of nursing interventions.

11.If a nurse predicted that within 24 hours the patient will be pain free. During her assessment after 24
hours, she found that the patient was still in pain, she proceeded as follows:

a) Documenting and calling the doctor to see a patient

b) Ask the patient why the pain persists and call a doctor

c) Repeat procedures and call a doctor

d) Review steps in the nursing process to determine why not

12. Nursing delegation is the transfer of authority or responsibility to unlicensed individuals to perform a
nursing task in a given situation. The following task can be delegated EXCEPT

a) Patient assessment

b) Routine vital signs in stable patients, diet

c) assist patients at mealtimes,

d) outpatient stable patients,

13. To characterize the health status of the community, a nurse would use the following health measures
EXCEPT:

(a) birth and death rates,

b) Life expectancy and access to care

c) Morbidity and mortality rates

d) Families and their financial resources

14. A nurse will ensure that health equity is achieved when:

a) Every woman has the opportunity to realize her health potential and no one is disadvantaged.

b) Every man has the opportunity to realize his health potential and no one is disadvantaged.

c) Every person has the opportunity to realize their health potential and no one is disadvantaged.

d) Every child has the opportunity to realize their health potential and no one is disadvantaged.

15.Nurses play an important role in reducing health disparities. An important mechanism for doing this is
to:

a. Discourage the use of evidence-based practice guidelines.

b. Insist that patients adhere to vision 2020 health guidelines

vs. Teach patients how to use the Internet to find resources related to their health.

d. Actively listen and build relationships with patients and their families.

16.During the course of care, the assessment (examination) of the patient is carried out:

a) At the initial contact with the client to identify the nursing diagnosis

b) At initial contact with the client to identify nursing interventions

c) At initial contact with the client to identify nursing goals

d) At initial contact with the client and continuously throughout the nursing process.

17.To diagnose the human response (problems) of the patient, a nurse should do the following:

a) Physical examination and patient history

b) Physical examination and knowledge of the medical diagnosis

c) Interview and know the medical diagnosis

d) Patient history, interview and physical examination

18. A nurse uses a mnemonic (PQRST) for:

a) Laboratory investigation

b) Imaging survey

c) Symptom investigation

c) diagnosis of the patient

19.The following method can detect symptoms of diseases in the patient.

a) palpation

b) auscultation

c) maintenance

d) inspection

20. The medical history and physical examination of the patient provide the nurse with information
intended primarily to:

a) Diagnose a medical problem.

b) Investigate a patient's signs and symptoms.

c) Classify the patient's subjective and objective data.

d) Identify nursing diagnoses and collaboration issues.

21. The nurse prepares to examine a patient's abdomen. Identify the correct order of steps in the
assessment of the abdomen.

a) Inspection, palpation, percussion, auscultation

b) Inspection, percussion, auscultation, palpation

c) Inspection, auscultation, percussion, palpation

d) Auscultation, percussion, palpation

22. In what situation should the nurse obtain a targeted or focused assessment?

a) A patient denies a current health problem.

b) A patient reports a new symptom during the nurses' round.

c) A previously identified problem should be reassessed.

d) A basic maintenance check is required.

23.Nursing interventions aimed at promoting health in the elderly are mainly focused on:

a. Disease management.

b. Control the symptoms of the disease.

c. Teach positive health behaviors.

d.Teaching nutrition to improve longevity.

24.Pain is described as follows:

a. A creation of a person's imagination.

b. An unpleasant subjective experience.

c. A maladaptive response to a stimulus.

d. A neurological event resulting from the activation of nociceptors.

25. An example of distraction to relieve pain is:

a. sleep with the patient.

b. The music.

c. Exercise.

d. Biofeedback.

26. One of the nursing tasks related to pain is to:

at. Leave the patient alone to rest.

b. Help the patient not appear to be in pain.

c. Believe what the patient says about the pain.

d. Assume responsibility for eliminating the patient's pain.

27.A nurse believes that patients with the same type of tissue damage should experience the same amount
of pain. This statement reflects:

at. A belief that will contribute to appropriate pain management.

b. A specific statement about the mechanisms of pain and an expected goal of pain treatment.

c. A belief that will have no effect on the type of care provided to people with pain.

d. A lack of knowledge about pain mechanisms, which is likely to contribute to poor pain management.

28. Non-opioid analgesics suitable for mild pain relief include:

at. Oxycodone.

b. Ibuprofen (Advil).

c. Lorazepam (Ativan).

D. Acetaminophen (Tylenol).

29. An 80-year-old patient receives palliative care for heart failure. The main objective of his palliative
care is to:

a. Improve your quality of life.

b. Evaluate its ability to adapt to the disease.

c. Take the time to educate the patient and family about the disease.

d. Focus on reducing the severity of disease symptoms.

30. A father with an X-linked recessive disorder and a wife with a normal genotype will:

a. Pass the carrier status to her male children.

b. Pass the carrier to all its children.

c. Pass the carrier status to his daughters.

d. Do not transmit the genetic mutation to any of his children.

31. Immunization with an antigen gives which of the following acquired immunities?

a. Active Acquired Immunity

b. Passive Acquired Immunity

c. Innate immunity.

d. Acquired active and passive immunity

32.The reason newborn babies are protected from bacterial infections for the first six months of life is due
to maternal transmission of:

a. IgG.

b. IgA.

c. IgM.

d. IgE.

33. The nurse is made aware of the possibility of anaphylactic shock immediately after a patient has
received penicillin intramuscularly by the development of

a. Edema and itching at the injection site.

b. Sneezing and itchy nose and eyes.

c. A wheal and flare reaction at the injection site.

d. Chest tightness and production of thick sputum

34.Testing for HIV infection usually involves:

at. Laboratory analysis of blood to detect HIV antigen.

b. Electrophoretic analysis of HIV antigen in plasma.

c. Laboratory analysis of blood to detect HIV antibodies.

d. Lymphatic tissue analysis for the presence of HIV RNA.

35.Antiretroviral drugs are used to

a.Cure acute HIV infection.

b. Decrease the amount of viral RNA.

c. Treat opportunistic diseases.

d. Decreases pain and symptoms of terminal illness.

36. What is the most appropriate nursing intervention to help an HIV-infected patient adhere to a
treatment regimen?

a.Give a box of pills to the patient each week.

b. Give the patient a video and a brochure to watch and read at home.

c. Tell the patient that the side effects of the drugs are harmful but go away after a while.

d. Assess the patient's routines and find cues for adherence appropriate to their situation.

37.which the statements below describes the pathogenesis of HIV infection:

A. The virus replicates primarily in B cells before spreading to CD4+ T cells.

b. Infection of monocytes can occur, but antibodies rapidly destroy these cells.

c. The immune system is primarily compromised by the widespread destruction of CD4+ T cells.

D. A long period of dormancy develops during which HIV cannot be found in the blood and viral
replication is low.

38. What of the following advice nurse can give to the patient receiving radiotherapy or chemotherapy to
encourage the patient.

a. Effective contraceptive methods must be used for the rest of the patient's life.

b. if nausea and vomiting occur during treatment, the treatment plan will be changed.

c. After successful treatment, a return to the person's previous functional level can be expected.

d. the fatigue-depression-fatigue cycle that can occur during treatment can be reduced by limiting activity.

39. During postoperative care of a 76-year-old patient, the nurse carefully monitors the patient's entry and
exit, knowing that the patient is at risk for fluid and electrolyte imbalance, primarily because:

a. Elderly people have a thirst-altering mechanism and need to be reminded to drink water.

b. Water makes up a higher percentage of body weight in older adults than in younger adults.

c. Older adults are more likely than younger adults to lose extracellular fluid during surgical procedures.
d. Small fluid losses are more important because body fluids make up only about 50% of body weight in
older people.

40. Which of the following manifestations should the nurse be aware of in a patient receiving a diuretic?

a. Restlessness

b. Paresthesias and irritability

c. Weak, irregular pulse and weak muscle tone

d. Increased blood pressure and muscle spasms

41. An elderly woman was admitted to the medical unit with dehydration. The clinical indications of this
problem are:

a. Weight loss. Dry oral mucosa, decreased central venous pressure

b. Dry oral mucosa, total pulse and weight loss

c. Weight loss, dry oral mucosa and engorged neck veins.

d. Decreased central venous pressure, weight loss and total pulse.

42. A patient has the following gaseous gases in arterial blood: pH 7.52, PaCO2 30 mm Hg; HCO3 - 24
mEq/L. The nurse determines that these results indicate

a. Metabolic acidosis.

b. Metabolic alkalosis.

c. Respiratory acidosis.

d. Respiratory alkalosis.

43. Typical fluid replacement for the patient with fluid volume deficit is:

a. Dextran.

b. 0.45% saline solution.

c. Ringer lactate.

d. 5% dextrose in 0.45% saline solution.

44.The lungs act as an acid-base buffer by:

a. Increased respiratory rate and depth when blood CO2 levels are high, reducing acid load.
b. Increased respiratory rate and depth when blood CO2 levels are low, thereby reducing base load.

c. Decreased respiratory rate and depth when blood CO2 levels are high, thereby reducing acid load.

d. Decreased respiratory rate and depth when blood CO2 levels are low, increasing acid load.

45. The nurse prepares the patient for a diagnostic procedure to collect pleural fluid for analysis. The
nurse was preparing the patient for what test?

a. Thoracentesis

b. Bronchoscopy

c. Pulmonary angiography

d. Sputum culture and sensitivity

46. A student nurse asks the nurse what can be measured with arterial blood gases. The RN tells the
student that the following values can be measured except:

a. Acid base balance.

b. oxygenation status.

c. blood acidity.

d. glucose bound to hemoglobin.

e. bicarbonate (HCO3−) in arterial blood.

47. A patient was seen at the clinic for an episode of epistaxis controlled by placement of an anterior
nasal pad. During discharge education, the nurse asks the patient to:

a.Use aspirin for pain relief.

b. Remove compress later in the day.

vs. Skip the next dose of antihypertensive.

d. Avoid blowing your nose and doing strenuous activities.

48. An appropriate nursing intervention for a patient with pneumonia diagnosed by a nurse with
“ineffective airway clearance due to thick secretions and fatigue” would be:
a. Perform postural drainage every hour.

b. Provide analgesics as instructed to improve patient comfort.

c. Administer O2 as prescribed to maintain optimal oxygen levels.

d. Teach the patient how to cough effectively to get secretions into the mouth.

49. The nurse would suspect aspiration as a probable cause of pneumonia in the following patients with
pneumonia EXCEPT:

a. Patient with seizures

b. Patient with head trauma

c. Patient who has had a myocardial infarction

d. Patient receiving nutrition by nasogastric tube

50. The effects of cigarette smoking on the respiratory system are as follows:

a. Hypertrophy of capillaries causing haemoptysis.

b. Goblet cell hyperplasia and increased mucus production.

c. Increased eyelash proliferation and decreased mucus clearance.

d. The proliferation of alveolar macrophages decreases the risk of infection.

51. Important information from the patient's medical history showing hematological system problem
includes:

a. jaundice.

b. bladder surgery.

c. early menopause.

d. multiple pregnancies.

52.You are caring for a male patient whose lab results are: WBC 6.5×103/μL, Hgb 13.4 g/dL, Hct 40%,
Platelets 50×103/μL. What concerns you the most?

A. Your patient is neutropenic.

b. Your patient has an infection.

c. Your patient is at risk of bleeding.

D. Your patient is at risk of falling due to anemia.

53. For a severely anemic patient, the nurse expects to find:

A. Dyspnea and tachycardia.

b. Cyanosis and pulmonary edema.

c. Cardiomegaly and pulmonary fibrosis.

D. Ventricular dysrhythmias and wheezing.

54. The nurse knows that a major difference between Hodgkin lymphoma and non-Hodgkin lymphoma is
that

A. Hodgkin's lymphoma only occurs in young adults.

b. Hodgkin's lymphoma is considered potentially curable.

c. Non-Hodgkin's lymphoma can manifest in several organs.

D. Hodgkin's lymphoma only occurs in young adults.

55. A patient with a tricuspid valve disorder will have impaired blood flow between:

A. Vena cava and right atrium.

b. Left atrium and left ventricle.

c. Right atrium and right ventricle.

D.Right ventricle and pulmonary artery.

55. Which of the following complications will the nurse be able to prevent in a patient who coughs
ineffectively?

a) pulmonary embolism

b) bronchial edema

c) pulmonary edema

d) aspiration pneumonia
56. The following statement is correct for pleurisy:

a) Inflammation of the pleura

b) Fluid in the pleural cavity

c) Collapsed airless cells

d) Accumulation of purulent transduct in the pleural cavity

e) The collection of in the pleura.

57. Myocardial ischemia is a temporary deprivation of blood supply to the myocardium. To better
understand the pathophysiology of this pathology, a nurse will know that the following vessel is blocked.

a) pulmonary artery

b) inferior cava vein

c) coronary artery

d) carotid artery

e) superior vena cava

58. In valve stenosis, the workload of the heart chamber located in front of the diseased valve will be

a)normal

b) decreased

c) increased

d) No correct answer

59.The auscultatory zone in the left midclavicular line at the level of the fifth intercostal space is the best
location to hear sounds from which heart valve?

a. Aortic

b. Mitral

c. Tricuspid
d. Pulmonary

60. When obtaining subjective assessment data from a hypertensive patient, the nurse recognizes that a
modifiable risk factor for the development of hypertension is:

a. A diet low in calcium.

b. Excessive consumption of alcohol.

c. A family history of hypertension.

d. Consumption of a high protein diet.

61. In teaching a patient with hypertension to control their disease, the nurse recognizes that:

a.All patients with elevated BP need medication.

b. Obese people need to reach a normal weight to lower their BP.

c. It is not necessary to limit the amount of salt in the diet if you are taking a diuretic.

d. Lifestyle modifications are indicated for all people with high BP.

62. A patient with recently discovered High Blood Pressure has an average reading of 158/98 mm Hg
after 3 months of physical activity and dietary changes. What management strategy will be a priority for
this patient?

a. Medication will be needed because the TA is not yet on target.

b. Blood pressure monitoring should continue for an additional 3 months to confirm the diagnosis of
hypertension.

c. Lifestyle changes are less important, because they weren't effective, and drugs will be started.

d. More vigorous changes in the patient's lifestyle are needed longer before starting medication.

63. Based on the pathophysiology of hypertension, what is the basic explanation of hypertension?

a. Increased cardiac output and increased stroke volume

b. Increased cardiac output and decreased peripheral vascular resistance

c. Increased stroke volume and heart rate d. Increased stroke volume and vascular resistance
64. The nurse should explain to patients the long-term consequences of rheumatic fever on the possibility
of:

a. valvular heart disease.

b. pulmonary hypertension.

c. superior vena cava syndrome.

d. right ventricular hypertrophy.

65. What is the priority nursing intervention for a patient during the acute phase of rheumatic fever?

a. Administration of antibiotics as prescribed

b. Pain management with opioid analgesics

c. Encouragement of fluid intake for hydration

d. Performing frequent active range of motion exercises

65. What clinical finding would likely indicate decreased cardiac output in a patient with aortic valve
regurgitation?

a. Reduction of peripheral edema and weight

b. Carotid venous distension and recent atrial fibrillation

c. decrease in peripheral pulses

d. Shortness of breath on minimal exertion and a diastolic murmur

66. Which diagnostic study best differentiates the different types of cardiomyopathy?

a. echocardiography

b. Arterial blood gases

c. Cardiac catheterization

d. Endomyocardial biopsy

68. A key aspect of teaching the patient anticoagulant therapy is including what instructions?
a. Monitor and report any signs of bleeding.

b. Do not take acetaminophen (Tylenol) for the headache.

c. Reduce your dietary intake of foods containing vitamin K.

d. Arrange for blood to be drawn regularly to check the level of medication.

69. A patient has an elevated blood level of indirect (unconjugated) bilirubin. One of the reasons for this
observation is that:

a. The gallbladder is unable to contract to release stored bile.

b. Bilirubin is not conjugated or excreted into bile by the liver.

c. Liver cells are unable to remove bilirubin from the blood.

d. An obstruction in the bile ducts prevents the flow of bile into the small intestine.

70. When examining the abdomen, the nurse should

a. Place the patient in the supine position with the bed flat and the knees straight.

b. Listen in the epigastrium and all four quadrants for 2 minutes to hear bowel sounds.

c. Use the following techniques: inspection, palpation, percussion, auscultation.

d. Describe bowel sounds as absent if no sound is heard in the lower right quadrant after 2 minutes.

71. Which statement best describes the etiology of obesity?

a. Obesity results mainly from a genetic predisposition.

b. Psychosocial factors may negate the effects of genetics on the etiology of obesity.

c. Obesity is the result of complex interactions between genetic and environmental factors.

d. Genetic factors are more important than environmental factors in the etiology of obesity.

72. The nurse who teaches young adults the behaviors that put them at risk for oral cancer includes:

a. Discourage the use of chewing gum.

b. Avoid using lip gloss

c. Avoid using tobacco.

d.Discourage the consumption of soft drinks.

73. The nurse teaches the patient and his family that peptic ulcers are:

a. Caused by a stressful lifestyle and other acid-producing factors such as H. pylori.

b. Inherited within families and enhanced by the bacterial spread of Staphylococcus aureus in children.

c. caused by factors that tend to cause excessive acid secretion, such as excess dietary fat, smoking, and
H. pylori.

d. caused by a combination of factors that can lead to erosion of the stomach lining, including certain
medications and alcohol.

74. Appropriate collaborative therapy for the patient with acute diarrhea caused by a viral infection is to:

a. Increase fluid intake.

b. Administer an antibiotic.

c. Administer anti-motility drugs.

d. Quarantine the patient to prevent the spread of the virus.

75. Assessment findings suggestive of peritonitis include

a. Rebound abdominal pain. (abdominal pain after palpation)

b. A soft and distended abdomen.

c. Dull, continuous abdominal pain.

d. Observing that the patient is agitated.-

76.A patient with acute hepatitis B is discharged from hospital two days later. In the discharge teaching
plan, the nurse should include instructions for:

a. Avoid alcohol for the first 3 weeks.

b. Use a condom during sex.

c. Ask family members to receive an injection of immunoglobulin.

d.Follow a diet low in protein, moderate carbohydrates and moderate fat.

77. The patient with advanced cirrhosis asks why his abdomen is so swollen. The nurse's response is
based on the knowledge that:

a. A lack of clotting factors promotes blood collection in the abdominal cavity.

b. Portal hypertension and hypoalbuminemia cause fluid sliding in the peritoneal space.

c. Decreased peristalsis in the gastrointestinal tract contributes to gas formation and distention of the
intestine.

d. Bile salts in the blood irritate the peritoneal membranes, causing edema and fluid pockets.

78.In informing a patient with pyelonephritis of this disorder, the nurse informs him that the organisms
that cause pyelonephritis most often reach the kidneys through:

a. Blood flow.

b. The lymphatic system

c. A descending infection.

d. An ascending infection.

79. A patient admitted to hospital with severe renal colic. The first priority of the nurse in the care of the
patient is to:

a. administer opioids as prescribed.

b. Obtain supplies to filter all urine.

c. Encourage a fluid intake of 3-4 L/day.

d. Save the patient's gastric nasal tube in preparation for su

80. If a patient is in the diuretic phase of acute kidney disease, should the nurse monitor serum electrolyte
imbalances?

a. Hyperkalemia and hyponatremia

b. Hyperkalemia and hypernatremia

c. Hypokalemia and hyponatremia

d. Hypokalemia and hypernatremia

81.A patient hospitalized for chronic kidney disease is admitted to the hospital. The nurse understands
that this condition is characterized by:

a. Progressive and irreversible destruction of the kidneys.

b. Rapid decrease in urine output with high BUN.

c. An increasing creatinine clearance with a decrease in urine output.

d. Prostration, drowsiness and confusion with coma and impending death. Nurses should educate patients
at risk of developing

82. People with chronic kidney disease considered to be at high risk are:

a. Patients over 60 years old.

b. Those with a history of pancreatitis.

c. Those with a history of hypertension.

d. Those with a history of type 2 diabetes.

83. A kidney transplant recipient complains of fever, chills and dysuria in the past 2 days. What is the
first action the nurse should take?

a. Evaluate temperature and to rule out infection.initiate workup

b. Reassure the patient that this is common after transplantation.

c. Provide a warm blanket to the patient and give acetaminophen 1 g by mouth.

d. Notify the nephrologist that the patient has developed symptoms of acute rejection.

84. Polydipsia and polyuria related to diabetes mellitus are mainly due to:

a. The release of ketones from cells during fat metabolism.

b. Fluid shifts resulting from the osmotic effect of hyperglycemia.

c. Kidney damage from exposure to high levels of glucose.

d. Changes in red blood cells resulting from the attachment of excess glucose to hemoglobin.

85. You are caring for a patient with newly diagnosed type 1 diabetes. What information is essential to
include in the information given to your patient before discharge from the hospital?

a. Insulin administration

b. Elimination of sugar from the diet

c. Need to reduce physical activity

d. No use of a portable glucometer

86. A patient with diabetes has a serum glucose level of 824 mg/dL (45.7 mmol/L) and is unresponsive.
After assessing the patient, the nurse suspects diabetic ketoacidosis rather than hyperosmolar
hyperglycemia syndrome based on the finding of

a. Polyuria.

b. Severe dehydration.

c. Rapid and deep breaths.

d. Decrease in serum potassium.

87. To control the side effects of corticosteroid therapy, the nurse teaches the patient on corticosteroid
therapy to:

A. increase calcium intake to 1500 mg/day.

b. perform glycemic monitoring for hypoglycemia.

c. get vaccinated because of the high risk of infections.

d. avoid sudden changes in position due to orthostatic hypotension.

88. To assess the patient’s breasts, the nurse would use the breast examination technique

a. Palpation, inspection and auscultation

b. Percussion and palpation

c. Inspection and palpation

d. Inspection, percussion, palpation and auscultation.

89. An abnormal finding found on physical assessment of the male reproductive system is:

a. Descended testicles.

b. Symmetrical scrotum.

c. Slight clear urethral discharge.

d. The glans covered with foreskin

90. To prevent infection and transmission of sexually transmitted diseases, the nurse's education plan
would include an explanation of:

a. Appropriate use of oral contraceptives.

b. Sex positions that can be used to avoid infection.

c. The need for annual testing for HPV patients.

d. Sexual practices considered high-risk behaviors.

91. 1. Which of the following patients are at high risk of developing heart failure? More than one answer
is applicable?

A. A 69-year-old man with a history of alcohol abuse recovering from myocardial infarction.

B. A 55-year-old woman with a medical history of asthma and hypoparathyroidism.

C. 30-year-old man with a history of endocarditis and severe mitral stenosis.

D. A 45-year-old woman with stage 2 lung cancer.

E. A 58-year-old woman with uncontrolled hypertension treated for influenza.

92. Which of the following terms describes the body's ability to maintain its normal state?

a. anabolism

b. catabolism

c. Tolerance
d. Homeostasis

e. Metabolism

93. Which of the following statements best describes the human body's defense mechanism against
environmental bacteria?

a. hair in nose

b. The mucous membranes

c. Osteoblasts

d. Saliva

e. Tears

94. Which cells in the blood do not have a nucleus?

a. lymphocyte

b. Monocyte

c. erythrocyte

d. Basophil

e. neutrophil

95. Which of the following is flexible connective tissue that attaches to bones at joints?

a. adipose

b. Cartilage

c. epithelial

d. muscular

e. nerve

96. Which of the following allows air to pass through the lungs?

a. aorta

b. Esophagus

c. heart
d. Pancreas

e. Trachea

97. Which of the following is the body cavity that contains the pituitary gland?

a. abdominal

b. Cranial

c. Plural

d. Spinal

e. thoracic

98. Which of the following closes and seals the lower airways during ingestion?

a. Alveoli

b. epiglottis

c. Larynx

d. uvula

e. Vocal cords

99. Which of the following is located below the diaphragm in the left upper quadrant of the abdominal
cavity?

a. Annex

b. Duodenum

c. the gallbladder

d. Pancreas

e. Spleen/spleen

100. Which of the following anatomical regions of the abdomen is located just distal to the sternum?

a. epigastric
b. Hypochondriac

c. hypogastric

d. lumbar

e. Umbilical

101. Which of the following cavities are separated by the diaphragm?

at. abdominal and pelvic

b. skull and spine

vs. dorsal and ventral

d. pericardial and pleural

e. chest and abdominal

102. Which of the following terms describes the movement of the forearm flexing towards the body?

a. Removal

b. Eversion

c. flexion

d. Pronation

e. supination

103) In which of the following positions is a patient lying face down?

a)dorsal

(B) erect

(C) lateral

(D) Prone

(E) Supine

104) If the foot is abducted, it is moved in which direction?

a. Interior

b. Outside

c. To the top

d. on the decline

105) The anatomical location of the spinal canal is

a. caudal

b. dorsal

c. frontal

d. transverse

e. ventral

106. Which of the following is a structural fibrous protein found in the dermis?

a. collagen

b. Heparin

c. lipocyte

d. melanin

e. sebum

107. A patient has a fracture in which the radius is bent but not displaced and the skin is intact. This type
of fracture is called which of the following cases?

a. closed greenstick

b. Complex, ground

c. compound, transverse

d. open, spiral

e. Simple, pathological

108) Which of the following bones is the large bone found superior to the patella and inferior to the
ischium?

a. Calcaneus
b. the femur

c. Symphysis

d. Tibia

e. Ulna

109) The doctor asks the medical assistant to complete a fibula x-ray request form. The procedure will be
performed on which of the following structures?

a. heel

b. leg

c.arm

d. Thigh

e. Bowl

110. Which of the following is a disorder characterized by uncontrollable episodes of falling asleep
during the day?

a. dyslexia

b. epilepsy

c. Hydrocephalus

d. narcolepsy

e. Shingles

111. Which of the following is the point at which an impulse is transmitted from one neuron to another
neuron?

a. Dendrite

b. glial cell

c. nerve center

d. Synapse

e. Terminal board

112. Which of the following controls body temperature, sleep, and appetite?

a. the adrenal glands

b. Hypothalamus

c. Pancreas

d. Thalamus

e. thyroid

113. Which of the following cranial nerves is related to smell?

a. Abducens

b. Hypoglossal

c. Olfactory

d. Trochlear

e. Vagus

114. Which of the following substances is a substance that facilitates the transmission of nerve impulses
to muscles?

a. acetylcholine

b. Cholecystokinin

c. deoxyribose

d. Oxytocin

e. prolactin

115. Which of the following statements best describes where the carotid pulse can be found?

a. in front of the ears and just above eye level

b. In the antecubital space

c. In the middle of the groin

d. on the front of the neck

e. On the medial aspect of the wrist

116. A patient sustains severe trauma to the left upper abdomen and requires surgery. Which of the
following organs is most likely to be involved?

a. Annex

b. the gallbladder

c. Pancreas

d. the bladder

e. spleen

117. Where is the sinoatrial node located?

a. Between the left atrium and the left ventricle

b. Between the right atrium and the right ventricle

c. In the interventricular septum

d. In the upper wall of the left ventricle

e. In the upper wall of the right atrium

118. Blood flowing from the right ventricle of the heart will continue from which of the following
structures?

a. the inferior vena cava

b. left ventricle

c. pulmonary arteries

d. pulmonary veins

e. right atrium

119. Which of the following structures carries oxygenated blood to the heart?

a. aorta

b. the carotid arteries

c. Inferior vena cava

d. pulmonary veins

e. Superior vena cava

120. The rib cage is an important structural unit for which of the following functions?

a. Food

b. menstruation

c. Breathing

d. urination

121. Which of the following substances is found in greater quantities in exhaled air?

at. carbon dioxide

b. carbon monoxide

c. Nitrogen

d. oxygen

e. Ozone

122. Which of the following allows gas exchange in the lungs?

a.Alveoli

b. bronchi

c. bronchioles

d. capillaries

e. Pleurae

123. Where does bile enter the digestive tract?

a. gastroesophageal sphincter

b. Duodenum

c. Ileocecum
d. Jejunum

e. pyloric sphincter

124. Which of the following structures is part of the small intestine?

a.colon ascending

b.Cecum

c. Ileum

d. sigmoid colon

e. transverse colon

125. Which of the following conditions is characterized by incompetence of the esophageal sphincter?

a. Crohn's disease

b. esophageal varices

c. Gastroesophageal reflux

d. Pyloric stenosis

e. Stomatitis

126. Which of the following organs takes bilirubin from the blood, manufactures plasma proteins and
participates in the production of prothrombin and fibrinogen?

a. the gallbladder

b. kidney

c. liver

d. missed

e. stomach

127. Which of the following organs is an accessory organ of the gastrointestinal system responsible for
the secretion of insulin?

a. Adrenal gland
b. the gallbladder

c. liver

d. Pancreas

e. Spleen

128. Which of the following lymphoid organs is a reservoir of red blood cells and filters organisms from
the blood?

a. Annex

b. the gallbladder

c. Pancreas

d. missed

e. Thymus

129. Which of the following statements best describes the process by which the muscles of the stomach
contract to propel food through the digestive tract?

a. absorption

b. emulsion

c. Peristalsis

d. Regurgitation

e. Secretion

130 Saliva contains an enzyme that acts on which of the following nutrients?

a. Starches

b. Proteins

c. Fats

d. Minerals

e.Vitamins

131. In men, specimens for gonococcal cultures are most often obtained from which of the following
structures?
a. Anus

b. the bladder

c. skin

d. testicle

e. urethra

132. Which of the following statements describes the group of blood capillaries present in each nephron
of the kidney?

a. afferent arteriole

b.Glomerulus

c. Henle Loop

d. renal pelvis

e. renal tubule

133. Which of the following conditions is characterized by the presence of kidney stones (kidney stones)?

a. Glomerulonephritis

b. Interstitial nephritis

c. Nephrolithiasis

d. polycystic kidney

e. Pyelonephritis

134. Which of the following statements best describes the structure that collects urine in the body?

a. the bladder

b. kidney

c. Ureter

d. urethra

e. urethral meatus
135. In humans, which of the following structures is located at the neck of the bladder and surrounds the
urethra?

a. epididymis

b. prostate

c. Scrotum

d. Seminal Vesicle

e.vas deferens

136. Male hormones are produced by which of the following?

a. glans penis

b. Foreskin

c. prostate

d. testicles

e. you will defer

137) Which of the mucus-producing glands are located on either side of the vaginal opening?

a. adrenal

b. bartholin

c. Bulbourethral

d. Corpus luteum

e. Parotid

138. Fertilization of an egg by a sperm occurs in which of the following structures?

a. the cervix

b. fallopian tube

c. Ovary

d. uterus
e. Vagina

139. Calcium, potassium and sodium are classified among the following:

a.Androgens

b. Catecholamines

c.electrolytes

d. estrogen

e. Prostaglandins

140. Which of the following is the master gland of the endocrine system?

a. adrenal

b. Pancreas

c. pineal

d. pituitary

e. thyroid

141. Patients with which of the following diseases are treated with vitamin B-12 injections?

a. Bell's palsy

b. Crohn's disease

c. diabetes mellitus

d. Graves disease

e. pernicious anemia

142. A patient is discharged home after hospitalization for left ventricular systolic dysfunction. As a
discharge nurse, which statement is NOT a correct statement about this condition?

at. "Signs and symptoms of this type of heart failure may include: dyspnea, persistent cough, difficulty
breathing when lying down, and weight gain."
b. "It's important to monitor your daily weight, fluid and salt intake."

c."Left heart failure can lead to right heart failure if left untreated."

d."This type of heart failure can create pressure in the hepatic veins and clog them with fluid leading to
peripheral edema.

143. Which of the following are NOT typical signs and symptoms of right-sided heart failure? Select all
related:

A. Jugular venous distension

B. persistent cough

C. Weight gain

D.Crackles

E. Nocturia

F. Orthopnea

144. What type of heart failure does this statement describe? The ventricle is unable to fill with blood
properly because it is too stiff. Consequently, blood accumulates in the lungs, causing shortness of breath.

A. Left ventricular systolic dysfunction

B. Dysfunction on the left ventricular turn side

C. Right ventricular diastolic dysfunction

D. Left ventricular diastolic dysfunction

145. A patient with left heart failure has difficulty breathing. Which of the following interventions is the
most appropriate nursing intervention?

A. Encourage the patient to cough and breathe deeply.

B. Place the patient in the Semi-Fowler/Semi-sitting position

C. Assist the patient in the High Fowler/sitting position

D. Perform chest percussion therapy.

146. Which of the following symptoms is a late sign of heart failure?

A. Shortness of breath

B. Orthopnea

C. Edema

D. Sputum tinged with frothy blood

147. These drugs are used as first-line treatment for heart failure. They work by allowing more blood to
flow to the heart, which decreases the heart's workload and allows the kidneys to secrete sodium.
However, some patients may develop a persistent cough with these types of medications. This description
describes?

• A. Beta-blockers

• B. vasodilators

• C. Angiotensin II receptor antagonists

• D. angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitors

148. What blood pressure classification would 120/80 be in?

A.normal

B. Prehypertensive

C. Hypertensive 3

D. Optima

149. What is the blood pressure classification between 130-139 / 85-89?

A. Hypertensive 1

B. Prehypertensive

C.Norma

D. Hypertensive 3

150. If your blood pressure is 145/95, it falls into the classification of

A. Hypertensive 1

B. Prehypertensive

C.Norma

D.Hypetension 2

151. During systole, the ventricles contract. Which causes :

a.the four heart valves to be closed.
b. the four heart valves to open.
c. the atrioventricular (AV) valves to close and the semilunar valves to open.
d. the AV valves to open and the semi-lunar valves to close.

152. The pressure the ventricle must generate to overcome the higher pressure in the aorta refers
to:
a. stroke volume.
b. contractility.
vs. preload/ preload
d. POSTLOAD./ Afterload
153. The layer of the heart responsible for contraction is the
a. myocardium.
b. endocardium.
vs. pericardium.
d. epicardium

154. When evaluating a patient for jugular vein distension, you should position him:
a.sit straight.
b. lying on the back.
d. lying on your back with the head of your bed elevated 30 to 45 degrees.
d. lying on the left side.

155. Capillary refill time is normally

a.15 seconds.
b. 7 to 10 seconds.
c. 4 to 6 seconds.
d. 1 to 3 seconds.

156. Which test provides the best way to standardize prothrombin time (PT) measurement to
monitor oral anticoagulant therapy?
a. plasma thrombin time
b. International Normalized Ratio (INR)
vs. partial thromboplastin time
d. bleeding time activated

157. The most specific test for myocardial damage is

a. CK.
b. troponin I.
c. CK-MB.
d.myoglobin.

158. The nursing process (procedure of nursing care) is used to:

a) Provide a systemic, organized and comprehensive approach to meeting client needs.
b) Encourage the family to make decisions about the patient's care.
c) Increase the participation of allied health professionals in decision-making
d) None of the above
159. Objective data may include:
a) chest pain.
b) Complaint of vertigo.
C) A blood pressure assessment.
d) None of the above

160. According to Maslow's Hierarchy of Human Needs, the highest level is

a) Physiological needs
b) Security and safety
c) Belonging and affection, self-esteem and self-respect
d) Self-actualization
161. All of the following are physical signs of poor nutrition, except
a) Tooth decay, mottled appearance (fluorosis), poorly positioned
b) fragile, depigmented, easy to pluck; fine and sparse hair
c) Tongue - dark red in appearance; superficial papillae present
d) Spongy, bleeds easily, marginal redness, receding gums

162. The development of an infection occurs in a cycle that depends on the presence of all of the
following except:
a) Causal agent, a portal of entry
b) Source of pathogen growth
c) healthcare worker
d) An exit portal, a mode of transmission, a susceptible host
163. All of the following are essential standard precautions used in the care of all patients,
whether diagnosed as infectious or not, except one
a) Hand hygiene
b) Improper disposal of sharps and waste
c) Personal protective equipment
d) Aseptic techniques

164. What is the proper route of administration for insulin?

a) intramuscular
b) intradermal
c) subcutaneous
d) intravenous

165. The nurse orients a new nurse to the unit and reviews the source-focused charts. Which
nurse statement best describes the graphic representation by source?
a) Separates the medical file according to the discipline
b) organizes documentation around patient issues
c) highlights the patient's concerns, problems and strengths
d) is designed to streamline documentation

167. - What is the meaning of PRN?

at. When advice
b) When necessary
c) Immediately
d) now

168. The main purpose of documentation is: except

a) Communication
b) Reimbursement
c) Quality assurance
d) To ensure comfort

169. At the end of the shift, the nurse realizes that she forgot to document a dressing change
performed for a patient. What action should the nurse take?
a) Complete an occurrence report before leaving.
b) do nothing; the next nurse will document that this has been done.
c) Write the dressing change note in a previous note.
d) Make a late entry in addition to the narrative notes.
170. A client has been admitted to a nursing home and the nurse is completing an assessment.
What discovery could lead the nurse to suspect a nutritional alteration?
a) light eyes
b) shiny hair
b) Ridged nails
d) Moist conjunctiva
171. A patient asks you which vitamin is best for eyesight. Your answer is:
a) Vitamin C
b) Vitamin A
c) Vitamin B6
d) Vitamin B12

172. Mr. Ahmed has just been admitted to your floor with disruptive behavior of unknown
origin. She is now prescribed 2.5 mg of haloperidol intramuscularly. The pharmacy dispenses
haloperidol for injection as 5 mg/mL. How much medicine do you take to give Mr. Ahmed?
a) 2 ml.
b) 5ml.
C) 0.5ml.
d) 12.5ml.

173. To assess the immobilized patient, focus on the following points

a) range of motion
b) activity tolerance
c) body alignment
d) psychological state

174. Changes which occur in the musculoskeletal system due to immobility is;
a) decrease muscular endurance, strength and mass
b) Altered calcium metabolism with excess calcium leads to kidney stones
c) Alteration of calcium, fluids and electrolyte
d) None of the above

175. Non-verbal massage is a mode of communication that includes the following except
a) Tone and pitch of voice
b) Facial expression
c) the gesture
d) touching it

176. Commonly used independent nursing interventions for immobilized patients include all of
the following except:
at. Active or passive ROM exercises, body repositioning and activities of daily living (ADL) as
tolerated
b. Deep breathing and coughing exercises with position change every 2 hours
vs. Diaphragmatic and abdominal breathing exercises and increased hydration
d. Weight gain on a tilt table, total parenteral nutrition and vitamins

177. An instrument placed against the patient's chest to hear lung and heart sounds.
a) stethoscope
b) otoscope
c) tensiometer
d) telescope

178. Which of the following mechanisms is responsible for acute gastritis?

a. Excessive alcohol causes gastric mucosal injury
b. Infection especially H.pyrorus is responsible for acute gastritis
vs. Taking more spices induce the destruction of gastric mucosa
d. imbalance between aggressive and defensive factors that maintain the integrity of the gastric
mucosa

179. Which of the following chemicals is responsible for maintaining the mechanisms that
protect the mucous membrane from the harmful effects of stomach acid?
a.Histamines
b. cytokines
c. Prostaglandins
d. Hcl secreted by the gastric mucosa

180. The pathophysiological conditions of gastric ulcer is as follows: (select all that apply)
a. H. pylori is responsible for the hypersecretion of hydrochloric acid by stimulating the
production of gastrin.
b. Smoking is responsible for the hypersecretion of hydrochloric acid by stimulating the
production of gastrin.
c. Decreased mucosal synthesis of prostaglandins by histamine release,
d. The use of ulcerogenic drugs

181. Which of the following is considered good treatment for the patient complaining of
heartburn and epigastric pain beginning 2-3 hours after eating (ulcer doudenale)
a. Amoxycillin, metronidazole and “Al(OH)3” antacid
b. Amoxycillin, metronidazole and “omeprazole” antiproton pump
c. Amoxycillin, “Al(OH)3” antacid and “Omeprazole” antiproton pump
d. cimetidine
182. Portal hypertension is related to which of the following conditions?
a. Accumulation of fluid in the peritoneal cavity
b. Hepatocyte hyperfunction
c. Inflammation and fibrosis of hepatocytes
d. take more than 2 liters of alcohol per day.

183. Hepatic encephalopathy is a condition related to which of the following?

at. Presence of ammonia in the blood which reaches the brain.
b. Presence of amino acid in the blood that reaches the brain.
vs. Presence of toxic CO in the blood that reaches the brain
d. Presence of carbohydrate catabolic residues in the blood that reaches the brain

184. Dyspnea in ascites is related to:

a. Fluid in the abdomen moves the diaphragm down and decreases lung capacity
b. Fluid in the abdomen moves the diaphragm down and increases lung capacity
c. Fluid in the abdomen moves the diaphragm up and increases lung capacity
d. Fluid in the abdomen moves the diaphragm up and decreases lung capacity

185. Which of these jobs is that of the respiratory system?

A. Hold the body in place and give it support and shape.
B. Gas exchange between the external environment and the circulatory system of the body.
C. Breaking down food for use by the body.
D. oxygen circulating in cells for their cellular functioning
186. When the patient suffers from asthma, which of these organs of the respiratory system is
impaired?
A. Lungs
b. Pleura
vs. Trachea
D. Bronchus

187. Although asthma is diagnosed in the patient, what is the best nursing diagnosis that the
nurse will diagnose?
a. Impaired gas exchange related to bronchospasm, as evidenced by dyspnea and crackles
b. ineffective airway clearance due to bronchospasm, evidenced by dyspnoea and crackles
c. Impaired gas exchange related to bronchospasm as evidenced by dyspnea and wheezing.
d. ineffective airway clearance due to bronchospasm evidenced by dyspnea and wheezing
188. When the patient suffers from pneumonia, the problem lies in which of the following
respiratory organs:
A. Bronchioles
b. lung parenchyma
c. Pleural cavity
d. alveoli
189. As the patient is diagnosed with pneumonia, the following should be the best nursing
diagnosis:
a. Impaired gas exchange related to lung infection, as evidenced by dyspnea and rare crackles
b. ineffective airway clearance due to lung infection evidenced by dyspnea and crackles
vs. Impaired gas exchange linked to lung infection, as evidenced by dyspnea and wheezing
d. ineffective airway clearance due to lung infection evidenced by dyspnea and wheezing

190. Which of the following is the cause of pulmonary embolism?

a. Blockage of the coronary artery by thrombus
b. Blockage of the aorta artery by a thrombus
c. Pulmonary vein blockage by thrombus
d. Pulmonary artery blockage by thrombus

191. Which of the following are signs of a pulmonary embolism

a. Sudden onset of dyspnea, bradpnea, tachycardia, and unexplained anxiety
b. Sudden onset of dyspnea, bradcardia, tachpnea, and unexplained anxiety
c. Sudden onset of dyspnea, tachypnea, and unexplained anxiety
d. Sudden onset of unexplained dyspnea, tachypnea, tachycardia, and anxiety

192. What is the true definition of acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS)?
a. Clinical syndrome of severe dyspnea with rapid onset, hypoxemia and diffuse pulmonary
infiltrates leading to respiratory failure.
b. Clinical syndrome of rapidly onset severe dyspnoea, hyperxemia and diffuse pulmonary
infiltrates leading to respiratory failure
c. Clinical syndrome of severe chronic dyspnea, hypoxemia and diffuse pulmonary infiltrates
leading to respiratory failure
d. Clinical syndrome of severe chronic dyspnoea, hypoxemia and diffuse pulmonary infiltrates
leading to respiratory failure.

193. Which of the following definitions describes pneumothorax?

a. The presence of fluid in the pleural space.
b. Air collecting in the pleura, causing the lungs to collapse
c. Collection of fluid and air in the pleural space
d. Obstruction of the bronchioles

194. What causes Chronic Obstructive Disease (COPD?) (What are the possible answers?)
a.a productive cough that lasts 3 months for 2 consecutive years in a patient whose other causes
of cough have been ruled out. (Chronic bronchitis)
b. Destruction of the alveolar walls and hyperinflation of the alveoli (emphysema)
c. Destruction of the alveolar capillary walls (emphysema)
d. Irreversible asthma (chronic asthma does not respond to treatment)

195. You are responsible for administering insulin to the patient. You will find below which
steps you should take before administering insulin to prevent hypoglycemia (check all that
apply).
a. Blood sugar check
b. Check if the patient has food
c. Checking the types of syringes available to deliver insulin
d. Verification of the insulin plan (medical prescription)

196. Which of the following causes is the main cause of acute prerenal kidney failure?
a. Pyeronephlitis
b. Cystitis
c. Hypotension
d. UTI

197. Which of the following types of diabetes mellitus is insulin dependent?

a. Type 1 diabetes
b. Type 2 diabetes
c. a and b
d. no answer

198. the reason the patient was fed prior to insulin administration is that:
a. A diabetic patient may have high blood sugar after insulin administration
b. A diabetic patient may feel hungry after insulin administration
c. A diabetic patient may experience hypoglycemia after insulin administration
d. Reducing food increases the effect of insulin

199. During clinical practice, you are required to monitor 24 hours of urine. Which of the
following value you will take as normal reference.
a.≥ 30ml/h
b. <30ml/h
c. 20-25ml/h
d. <15ml/h
199. Obese people are at risk of type 2 diabetes because:
a. An obese person has high blood pressure and lots of insulin receptors
b. An obese person always has high blood sugar from fat
c. An obese person releases free fatty acids from adipocytes which block insulin receptors.
d. an obese person is unable to move
200. A nurse reviews a client's plan of care. At what stage of the nursing process (nursing
process) does such a review take place?
A. Assessment
B. Planning
C. Implementation
D. Assessment

201. What intervention should the charge nurse try first for a client with signs of sleep
disturbance?

A. Administer sleeping pills before bedtime

B. Ask the client each morning to describe the amount of sleep the night before
C. Teach the client relaxation techniques, such as guided imagery and progressive muscle
relaxation
D. Provide the client with normal sleeping pills, such as pillows, back ointments and snacks

202. When two nursing diagnoses seem closely related, what should the nurse do to determine
which diagnosis best matches a patient's needs?
A. Reassess the patient
B. Consider related factors
C. Analyze the secondary factor
D. Review the defining characteristic (data collected)
203. After assessing the client, the nurse formulates the following diagnoses. Place them in order
of priority, starting with the most important (ranked as high).
1. constipation
2. Anticipatory grief
3. Ineffective Airway Clearance
4. Ineffective tissue perfusion.
a. 3,4,2,1
b.4,3,2,1
c.1,3,2,4
d.3,4,1,2
204. Which of the following statements is an example of an optimal outcome expected for a
patient with pain?
a. The client will have less pain after the administration of the drug
b. The client will be painless
c. After 15 minutes, client will report pain less than 4 on a scale of 0 to 10
d. The client will take 500mg of paracetamol three times a day for three days

205. Does the planning stage of nursing care processes include any of the following activities?
at. Assessment and diagnosis
b. Evaluation of the achievement of objectives
vs. Carry out nursing actions and document them
D. Setting objectives and selecting interventions

206. What are the parts of neurons?

A) brain, spinal cord and vertebral column
It is the right answer.
B) dendrite, axon and cell body
C) sensory and motor
D) cortex, medulla and sheath
E) sympathetic and parasympathetic

207. A dendrite conducts nerve impulses which way to the cell body.
A) away from the cell body
B) to the cell body
C) both towards and away from the cell body
D) around, bypassing the cell body
E) only inside the cell body

208. An axon conducts nerve impulses which way to the cell body.
A) away from the cell body
B) to cell body
C) both towards and away from cell body
D) around, bypassing cell body
E) only inside cell body

209. Which of the following is a type of neuron?

A. sensory
b.motor
C. interneurons
d. All are correct
210. In the cells that are supported and nourished by neuroglial cells
A) muscle cells
B) glands
It is the right answer.
C) neurons
D) nephrons
211. A sensory neuron of the peripheral nervous system picks up nerve impulses from sensory
receptors to which of the following.

A) motor neurons
B) interneurons
C) autonomic nervous system
It is the right answer.
d) central nervous system

212. which of the following diseases is disease of the myelin sheath.

A) leprosy
B) Alzheimer's disease
C) multiple sclerosis
D) Polio

213. The resting potential indicates how the inside of the neuron is compared to the outside?

A) under ionic pressure

B) positive
C) negative
D) inactive

214. In humans, the transmission of nerve impulses through a synaptic cleft is ensured by:
A) sodium ions
B) potassium ions
It is the right answer.
C) neurotransmitter molecules
D) Ranvier's nodes
215. The peripheral nervous system includes nerves, which are neurons with cell bodies that
occur in the in which the following:

A) sympathetic nervous system

B) brain, spinal cord or in the ganglia
c) motor system
d) autonomous system

216. How many pairs of cranial nerves does man have?

A) 4
B) 12
C) 16
D) 21
E) 31

217. When a person needs more than one drug to still feel strong, they are called:
A) dependency
B) clearing
C) tolerance
D) withdrawal
E) dysphoria

218. Diabetes occurs because of which of these?

A. Your liver is not making enough blood sugar
B. Your muscles are using too much blood sugar
C. Your body cannot use blood sugar as it should
D. Your body produces more insulin than it needs

219. A certain gland or organ does not work properly in a person with type 1 diabetes. Which
gland or organ is it?
A. Pituitary
B. Pancreas
C. Adrenal glands
D. Kidneys
220. Why is insulin important for your body to use blood sugar?
A. It helps your blood sugar get into your cells
B. It lowers your blood pressure
C. It raises your cholesterol level
D. It keeps your sucrose levels normal
221. Keeping your diabetes under control early on will help prevent complications that may arise
later. People with diabetes have an increased risk of developing which of these symptoms?
A. Heart disease
B.Cancer
C. Nerve damage
D.A and C

222. Why is a healthy diet and regular exercise so important if you have diabetes?
A. They keep depression at bay
B. Eating raises blood sugar; exercise decreases it
C. Excess weight can be dangerous for people with diabetes
D.B and C

223. Type 1 diabetes occurs when your insulin-producing cells, called beta cells in the pancreas,
are destroyed. What destroys them?
A. Your immune system
B. Toxins in your environment
C. Free radicals
D. Bacteria

224. A diabetic condition can become a side effect of certain medications. Which of these can
raise blood sugar?
A. Ibuprofen
B. Antidepressants
C. Thyroid medications
D. Oral steroid medications

234. Which of the following definitions is biochemical DKA(diabetic acidosis)?

a. Increase in serum ketone concentration >2 mEq/L, blood glucose level >200 mg/dL and blood
pH <8
b. Increase in serum ketone concentration >3 mEq/L, blood glucose >225 mg/dL and blood pH
<7.5
c. Increase in serum ketone concentration >5 mEq/L, blood glucose >250 mg/dL and blood pH
<7.
d. Increase in serum ketone concentration >7 mEq/L, blood glucose >300 mg/dL and blood pH
<7

235. Which of the following statements is not a sign or symptom of diabetic ketoacidosis?
a. Positive ketones in urine
b. Oliguria
c. Polydipsia
d. polyuria
236. A patient is admitted with diabetic ketoacidosis. The physician orders intravenous solutions
containing 0.9% normal saline and 10 units of intravenous bolus insulin IV, then begins an
insulin infusion per protocol. The patient's labs are: pH 7.25, glucose 455, potassium 2.5. Which
of the following is the most appropriate nursing intervention to perform?

a. Start intravenous solutions and administer the bolus of insulin and regulate it according to the
instructions.
b. Hold the insulin and tell the doctor about the potassium level of 2.5
c. Withhold intravenous solutions and administer insulin as instructed
d. Recheck glucose level

237. Which patient is MOST likely to develop diabetic ketoacidosis?

A. A 25-year-old woman newly diagnosed with Cushing's disease taking glucocorticoids.

B. A 36-year-old man with diabetes mellitus who has not been able to eat for the past 2 days due
to gastrointestinal illness and has been unable to take insulin.
C. A 35-year-old woman newly diagnosed with type 2 diabetes.
D .None of the options are correct.

238. Which of the following statements are INCORRECT about diabetic ketoacidosis?
a.Extreme hyperglycemia associated with blood glucose levels above 600 mg/dL
b.Ketones are present in urine
c.Metabolic acidosis is present with Kussmaul respiration
d.Potassium levels should be at least 3.3 or higher while treating DKA with insulin therapy

239. A patient diagnosed with diabetes mellitus is sent home and you teach him how to prevent
DKA. What statement from the patient demonstrates understanding of your teaching about this
disease?
a."I shouldn't be concerned about the presence of ketones in my urine, as this is expected during
illness."
b."It is normal for my blood sugar to be between 250 and 350 mg/dL while I am sick."
c."I will stop taking my insulin while I am sick."
d."It is important that I check my blood sugar every 3-4 hours when I am sick and consuming
fluids."

240.What does the notion of therapeutic index refer to?

a.To the proven efficacy of a drug
b.The cost of the product according to its effectiveness
c.As the resolution of adverse drug reactions
d. The difference between the therapeutic dose and the toxic dose of a drug
241.Which of these products are considered medicines? (multiple correct answers are possible)
a. Homeopathic products
b. Products for dental prostheses
c..Brain imaging contrast agents
d.Vitamins (in high doses)

242. Which of these propositions are varied? (multiple correct answers are possible)
a.The excipients have no therapeutic effect
b.Vaccines are considered medicines
c.Excipients are rarely the cause of side effects
d. A drug always consists of an active ingredient and an excipient

243. What is included under the term "pharmaceuticals in galenic form"? (multiple correct
answers are possible)
a. Capsules
b. Transfusions
c.Bulbs
d. Suppositories
244. Which of these routes of administration does not "bypass" the liver?
a.The sublingual route
b. The rectal route
c.The intravenous route
d. The oral route

245. From what moment can a medicine be "genericable"? (multiple correct answers are
possible)
a.About 10 years after patent filing
b.About 20 years after patent filing
c.When the patent fell
d.When more than 10,000 originator drugs have been sold

246.Which statements are true about the regulatory classification of drugs: the ATC?
a. The drug name is determined according to 5 classification levels
b.The first level determines the main therapeutic group
c.The first level is designated by a letter
d.The third level is designated by a letter

247.Concerning cardiac-tropic drugs, what are the correct associations? (multiple correct
answers are possible)
a. The pumping function of the heart can be regulated by anti-arrhythmics
b.The rate of pumping can be regulated by antiarrhythmics
c. Neuro-vegetative control is regulated by beta-blockers
d.The pumping function of the heart can be regulated by digitalis

248.Concerning cardiac (electro)physiology, which statements are true? (multiple correct

answers are possible)
a.The contraction of the heart begins on the left
b.The contraction of the heart begins with the tip
c.The contraction of the heart is linked to the calcium cycle in the myofiber
d.The whole heart contracts at the same time

249.Concerning cardiac (electro)physiology, which statements are true?

a. Atrial arrhythmia increases the risk of heart failure
b.Ventricular arrhythmia can cause cardiac arrest
c. Extrasystole is immediately lethal
d. Ventricular fibrillation is immediately lethal

250. Which statements about digitalis are true? (multiple correct answers are possible)
a. They block a Na / Mg exchanger
b. They slow down the heart rate
c.They have a narrow therapeutic index
d.They are only made from the digoxin molecule

251. Which statements about digitalis are true?

a. They strengthen the contraction of the heart
b. They allow the heart to fill up better
c.There is a risk of death if administered while the patient is taking intravenous calcium
d.Among their undesirable effects is the increase in the feeling of fatigue in daily life
252. Which statements about antiarrhythmics are true? (multiple correct answers are possible)

a.Their adverse effects are less dangerous than those of digitalis

b.They are classified into 3 classes
c.They aim to reduce mortality related to ventricular and supraventricular arrhythmias
d. They are never associated: monotherapy is the rule

253. Which statements about antiarrhythmics are true? (multiple correct answers are possible)

a.Each class is supposed to target an arrhythmia genesis

b. Class 3 includes drugs that reduce the duration of ventricular repolarization
c. Class 1 antiarrhythmics block the fast sodium channel
d. Amiodarone is an effective class 3 molecule of anti-arrhythmics but with many adverse effects

254. Which statements regarding angina pectoris are true? (multiple correct answers are
possible)

a.It is also called angina

b.It results in a chest burning sensation
c.This pain only occurs during exertion
d.It is a symptom of the onset of myocardial ischemia

255.Concerning the physiology of the heart and the pathophysiology of myocardial ischemia,
which statements are wrong? (multiple correct answers are possible)

a. Inotropy is the force of ejection/contraction of the heart

b. Cardiac output depends on 4 factors: heart rate, pre-load, after-load and arterial resistance
c. In 50% of cases, ischemia is due to an imbalance between intake and need
d. The supply/needs balance is managed by the neurovegetative system
256. Which statements are true about nitrates, one of the classes of angina drugs? (multiple
correct answers are possible)

a. Nitrates are the drugs for myocardial ischemic emergency

b. Nitrates have a vasodilating effect, especially on the veins
c. Nitrates have no major hepatic metabolism
d. They are used in the form of a patch in prevention

257. Which statements are true about calcium antagonists, one of the classes of drugs for angina?
(multiple correct answers are possible)
a. Adverse effects are more numerous with non-specific calcium antagonists
b. They are always taken with meals
c. They cause venous rather than arterial vasodilation
d.They have the cardiac effect of increasing the heart rate

258. Which statements are true about beta-blockers, one of the classes of angina drugs? (multiple
correct answers are possible)
a.They promote adrenergic transmission
b. They inhibit the sympathetic system
c.They are mainly administered orally
d. They can be prescribed in high blood pressure (HTA) and heart failure at very low doses

259. Which statements are true about beta-blockers, one of the classes of angina drugs? (multiple
correct answers are possible)

a. Their pharmacodynamics has 4 main effects: dromotropic effect, psychotropic effect, inotropic
effect, chronotropic effect
b.The chronotropic effect consists of a decrease in heart rate
c. They reduce arrhythmia and therefore oxygen consumption
d. They oppose the effects of asthma medications

260. Which statements are true about beta-blockers, one of the classes of angina drugs? (multiple
correct answers are possible)
a.Some beta-blockers are cardio-selective by acting only on B1 receptors
b.Some beta-blockers are cardio-selective by acting only on B2 receptors
c. Lipophilic beta-blockers are shorter acting than hydrophilic beta-blockers
d. Their administration is done on waking

261. Which statement about diabetes is wrong?

a. In type 1 diabetes, there is an absence of insulin
b.In type 2 diabetes there may be hyperglycaemia
c.In the case of type 2 diabetes, there may be hypoglycaemia
d. Incretins are hormones that inhibit the release of insulin

262.Which information about insulin and blood sugar is true? (multiple correct answers are
possible)
a.They should be given insulin before meals to prevent blood sugar levels from dropping
b. There are more glycemic factors than hypoglycemic factors
c.The insulin given is more effective than the insulin normally produced by the pancreas
d. Insulin will bring in the glucose

263.Concerning the absorption and effects of insulin, which statements are true? (multiple
correct answers are possible)

a.Exercise increases insulin absorption

b.Tobacco can reduce insulin depot absorption
c.Counterregulatory hormones (glucagon, catecholamines) lower blood sugar
d. The effect of insulin is all the more effective if the insulin peak corresponds to the glycemic
peak

264. In type 1 diabetes, insulin is therefore an exogenous drug. What is its main side effect?
a. Hyperglycemia
b.Hypoglycemia
c.Hypercalcemia
d.Hypotension

265. Regarding type 2 diabetes, which statements are true? (multiple correct answers are
possible)
a.There is often an overproduction of insulin by the pancreas until exhaustion
b. Anti-diabetic drugs are oral
c. Antidiabetic drugs have the effect of increasing insulin sensitivity (metformin)
d. Antidiabetic drugs have the effect of slowing down the release of insulin

266.Which molecule/hormone is not involved in the drug treatment of type 2 diabetes?

a. Glinids
b. Leukotrienes
c.Sulphonylureas
d.Incretin

267.Concerning the thyroid, which statements are correct? (( several correct answers are
possible)
a.3 hormones are made in the thyroid
a.2 hormones are made in the thyroid
b.During hyperthyroidism, TSH (thyroid stimulating hormone) decreases in the blood
c.Basdene and Neo-Mercazole are two medications for hyperthyroidism

268. What information about the RAAS (renin angiotensin aldosterone system) is wrong?
a.The RAAS helps regulate blood pressure
b.The kidney modulates blood pressure through renin secretion
c.Renin converts angiotensin I to angiotensin II
d.There is a vasodilating effect by blocking the converting enzyme

269. Which of the multiple roles of angiotensin II are wrong?

a. Causes vasodilation in the arteries
b.Causes ventricular hypertrophy in the heart
c.Stimulates the feeling of thirst
d.Stifles the sympathetic system

270. What is the difference between HIV and AIDS

A. HIV is a virus and AIDS is a bacterial disease
b. No differences between them
c.HIV is a virus that causes AIDS
D. No Response

271. Which clinical condition of Kaposi's sarcoma is associated with which category indicated
by AIDS?
B.Clinical Category A
C.Clinical Category B
D.Clinical Category C

272. Which clinical condition of Pneumocystis carinii is associated with which category
indicated by AIDS?
A.Clinical Category A
B.Clinical category B
C.Clinical Category C
D.Clinical category D

273. Clinical condition of bacillary angiomatosis listed is associated with which category
indicated by AIDS
A.Clinical Category A
B.Clinical category B
C.Clinical Category C

274. Which clinical condition listed below is associated with which category indicated by AIDS?
persistent generalized lymphadenopathy (PGL)
a.Clinical Category A
b.Clinical category B
c.Clinical Category C

274. Classify the following antiretroviral agent by its action: abacavir

a. Nucleoside analogue reverse transcriptase inhibitors
b.Non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors
c. Protease inhibitors

275. Classify the following antiretroviral agent by its action: AZT

a. Nucleoside analogue reverse transcriptase inhibitors
b.Non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors
c. Protease inhibitors

276. Classify the following antiretroviral agent by its action: efavirenz

a. Nucleoside analogue reverse transcriptase inhibitors
b. Non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors
c. Protease inhibitors

277. Classify the following antiretroviral agent by its action: indinavir

a. Nucleoside analogue reverse transcriptase inhibitors
b.Non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors
c. Protease inhibitors
278. Classify the following antiretroviral agent by its action: nevirapine
a. Nucleoside analogue reverse transcriptase inhibitors
b. Non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors
c. Protease inhibitors

279. A patient with advanced AIDS suffers from diarrhea and wasting syndrome. An appropriate
nursing diagnosis for the patient is:
a. Diarrhea due to opportunistic infection
b.Risk of fluid volume deficit due to diarrhoea.
c.Risk of infection due to immunosuppression.
d.Risk of damage to the integrity of the skin linked to an alteration in nutritional status and
frequent bowel movements.
280. A patient with advanced AIDS has a nursing diagnosis of altered thought processes related
to neurological changes. In planning care for the patient, the nurse places the highest priority on:
a.Provide a calm, non-stressful environment to avoid over-stimulation.
b.Use memory cues such as calendars and clocks to improve orientation.
c.Provide written instructions for direction to promote understanding and orientation.
d.Maintain a safe patient environment

281. What is most important in the case of a patient diagnosed with AIDS who expresses death
wishes?
a. refer the patient immediately for confirmatory HIV testing.
B Start antiretroviral therapy (ART) immediately.
c. Send patient for CD4 count test.
d. Treat the patient for depression and suicidal thoughts

282. Oral candidiasis in AIDS is treated with:

a.Trimethoprim + sulfimethaxazole
b. Fluconazole
c.Acyclovir
d.Zidovudine

283. Human papilloma virus in AIDS patients is manifested by:

a. Cough, evening fever, night sweats, weight loss and anemia
b. Persistent fever, tachypnea, hypoxia, cyanosis and tachycardia.
c.Genital warts, flat warts, cutaneous warts, neoplasia of the cervix, vagina and penis
d. Watery diarrhea, abdominal pain, nausea and vomiting
284. In the diseases according to which is the most common neurological complication related to
HIV
a.Tuberculosis
b. Kaposi's sarcoma
c.Toxoplasmosis
d. Lymphoma

285. The objectives of ART include all, EXCEPT;

a.Prolongation of life and improvement of quality of life.
b.As great as possible reduction in viral load for as long as possible.
c. Rational drug sequencing, limiting drug toxicity and facilitating compliance.
d.Elimination of HIV entirely from the body
286. Which statement about the ART regimen is TRUE?
a.Antiretroviral treatment must be administered in combination of 3 drugs.
b.Use AZT + 3TC + NVP in patients with Hb
c. Give only one or two ARVs if intolerance is present.
d. Give only one ARV in asymptomatic patients (WHO stage 1)

287.Which of the following ART drugs should be avoided in AIDS patients receiving
antiretroviral therapy within the first 2 months of Rifampicin ATT due to drug interactions.

a.Zidovudine
b.Efavirenz
c. Lamivudine
d.Neviparin
288. Which antiretroviral drug to avoid in pregnancy is:
a.Efavirenz
b.Indinavir
c. Lamivudine
d.Zidovudine

289. Antiretroviral treatment with Neviparin is generally avoided in:

a. Hepatitis / chronic liver disease (CLD)
b. Pregnancy
c.Clinical stage 1 of AIDS infection.
d.Clinical stage 4 of AIDS infection.
290. A toxicity syndrome associated with the use of nevirapine in antiretroviral therapy is:
a.Steven-Jhonson syndrome
b.Lipoatrophy
c.Hematologic Toxicity.
d.Red neck syndrome
291. Factors contributing to antiretroviral treatment failure are:
a.Suboptimal ARV treatment.
b.Suboptimal drug levels.
c. Lack of adherence to treatment.
d.All of the above.

292. When counseling a patient on ART, what statement does the nurse indicate that she needs
further training?
a.Always take the medication as prescribed
b. If a dose is missed, take a double dose.
c.ART is all of life. If the drug is stopped, the symptoms will return over the course of months.
d.Antiretroviral drugs should never be shared with anyone.
293. Giardiasis, an occasional infection in AIDS patients, is a:
a. Parasitic infection.
b. Bacterial infection.
c. Viral infection.
d. Fungal infection
294. Which of the following diagnostic tests can be used to diagnose drug-resistant tuberculosis?

a) Sputum smear microscopy

b) Liquid culture
c) Interferon-gamma release assay (IGRA)
d) Chest X-ray
295. The ideal clinical specimen for the diagnosis of pulmonary tuberculosis is:

a) blood
b) sputum
c) urine
d) Cloth
296. What is the ideal place for sputum collection?

a) Inside the doctor's clinic

b) inside the laboratory
c) outdoors or in a well-ventilated area
d) The patient's bathroom with the door closed

297. For a two-year-old child with suspected tuberculosis, the best clinical specimen for the
diagnosis of pulmonary tuberculosis is:

a) blood
b) sputum
c) gastric aspirate
d) bronchoalveolar lavage (BAL)
298. What is the recommended minimum number of specimens for the diagnosis of pulmonary
tuberculosis and when?

a) Three early morning sputum specimens

b) Two sputum samples collected one hour apart
c) Three sputum samples taken on the same day
 d) A morning sputum plus a blood sample

299. The most common radiological finding in tuberculosis is:

a) pleural effusion
b) Consolidation of the upper lobe with or without cavities
c) pericardial effusion
d) Pulmonary nodule

300. What is the correct treatment regimen for a patient newly diagnosed with pulmonary
tuberculosis?
a.2 months of streptomycin, rifampin, isoniazid, pyrazinamide and ethambutol followed by 4
months of rifampin and isoniazid
b. 8 months of rifampicin, isoniazid and ethambutol
c. 2 months of rifampin, isoniazid, pyrazinamide and ethambutol followed by 4 months of
rifampin and isoniazid
d) 6 months of rifampicin, isoniazid, pyrazinamide and ethambutol

301. Which of the following tests should be used to monitor the success of treatment in a patient
with pulmonary tuberculosis?

a) Chest X-ray
b) Examination of sputum smears
c) Anti-TB IgG, anti-IgM antibodies
d) TB Gold test (interferon-gamma release test)
302. When should the possibility of drug-resistant tuberculosis be suspected?
a) When the patient has been treated for tuberculosis in the past
b) When the patient is in close contact with a patient with drug-resistant tuberculosis
c) When the patient discontinued treatment before the current illness
d. All the foregoing
303. Which of the following statements is false regarding adverse reactions to TB drugs?
a) Jaundice is a common side effect and is self-limiting
b) Nausea is a common side effect; it is usually self-limiting and can be treated with
symptomatic treatment.
c) Joint pain is an adverse reaction to pyrazinamide and generally responds well to nonsteroidal
anti-inflammatory drugs
d) Older people and those with pre-existing liver disease are more susceptible to drug-induced
hepatitis