PSY101 - Final Term Notes

Introduction to Psychology
PSY101
Final Term noTes
Made by: Muniba ch

Subscribe to my YouTube channel for more files and
highlighted handouts
MC Learning House
BesT oF luck sTudenTs
1
Lesson 19
ALTERED STATES OF CONSCIOUSNESS
MCQs:
1. What is consciousness?
a) A state of total unawareness
b) The awareness of sensory experiences only
c) The awareness of sensations, thoughts, feelings, and surroundings
d) The awareness of external events only
Answer: c
2. Which psychological approach suggests that consciousness should include even the
mental experiences we are not aware of?
a) Behaviorism
b) Psychoanalysis
c) Cognitive psychology
d) Humanistic psychology
Answer: c
3. Altered states of consciousness refer to:
a) Being fully aware of one's surroundings
b) States when an individual is unaware of their experiences
c) States when an individual is always asleep
d) States when one is highly focused on a task
2
Answer: b
4. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of variations in states of

consciousness?
a) Affected sensations
b) Impaired thinking
c) Enhanced emotional response
d) Impaired physiological processes
Answer: c
5. Sleep is considered a time for:
a) Mental activity and problem-solving
b) Body rest and rejuvenation
c) Emotional processing and expression
d) Learning new skills and information
Answer: b
6. How are the stages of sleep divided?
a) 4 stages of 60 minutes each
b) 5 stages of 45 minutes each
c) Cycles of 90 minutes each with varying stages
d) Cycles of 120 minutes each with consistent stages
Answer: c
7. Which stage of sleep is characterized by rapid eye movement (REM)?
a) Stage 1
b) Stage 2
c) Stage 3
3
d) Stage 4
Answer: a
8. What happens to the brain waves during Stage-2 sleep?
a) They become more rapid and low-voltage
b) They become slower and higher in amplitude
c) They become regular with sleep spindles
d) They become erratic and irregular
Answer: c
9. What is the role of REM sleep?
a) Restoring physical energy
b) Memory consolidation
c) Eliminating irrelevant information
d) Enhancing creativity
Answer: b
10. What is the approximate percentage of REM sleep in an adult's sleep cycle?
a) Less than 5%
b) Around 20%
c) About 50%
d) More than 75%
Answer: b
11. Which theory suggests that dreams are a way of getting rid of accumulated
irrelevant information?
a) Activation Synthesis Theory
b) Reverse Learning Theory
4
c) Freud's Theory of Unconscious Wish Fulfillment
d) Dreams for Survival Theory
Answer: b
12. Hypnosis is characterized by:
a) Complete loss of consciousness
b) Resistance to suggestions
c) High suggestibility and following instructions
d) Reduced brain activity
Answer: c
13. What is the purpose of self-hypnosis?
a) To enter a deep sleep state
b) To induce lucid dreaming
c) To gain control over one's thoughts and behaviors
d) To increase alertness and focus
Answer: c
14. Which physiological changes are associated with meditation?
a) Increased heart rate and blood pressure
b) Decreased brainwave activity
c) Increased oxygen usage
d) Increased muscle tension
Answer: b
15. Which category of drugs produces hallucinations and affects perceptual processes?
a) Stimulants
5
b) Depressants
c) Narcotics
d) Hallucinogens
Answer: d
16. What is the main reason people might take drugs?
a) To enhance their cognitive abilities
b) To improve their physical performance
c) To cope with stress or emotions
d) To conform to societal norms
Answer: c
17. What is the role of REM sleep in a person's life?
a) It's unnecessary and can be skipped without consequences
b) It's essential for physical health but not for mental health
c) It plays a part in both physical and psychological well-being
d) It's only important for memory consolidation
Answer: c
18. Which theory suggests that dreams are a way of processing and reconsidering
important information?
a) Activation Synthesis Theory
b) Dreams for Survival Theory
c) Reverse Learning Theory
d) Freud's Theory of Unconscious Wish Fulfillment
Answer: b
19. What is the purpose of the circadian rhythm?
6
a) To control heart rate
b) To regulate breathing
c) To synchronize biological processes with a 24-hour cycle
d) To determine sleep stages
Answer: c
20. Which of the following is NOT a category of drugs?
a) Stimulants
b) Narcotics
c) Antioxidants
d) Hallucinogens
Answer: c
Q&A:
1. What is the significance of wakefulness and sleep in our lives?
Answer: Wakefulness is productive for daily activities, while sleep is essential for rest
and rejuvenation.
2. Define consciousness. Answer:
Consciousness is the awareness of sensations, thoughts, feelings, emotions, events, and

surroundings that a person experiences. It encompasses the subjective understanding of
both the external environment and the private internal world.
3. How does consciousness vary in terms of awareness?
Answer: Consciousness can range from perceptions during wakefulness to dreams during
sleep, with variations in awareness of external stimuli. Some psychologists argue that
consciousness should also encompass mental experiences we are not aware of.
4. What are altered states of consciousness?
7
Answer: Altered states of consciousness are situations when an individual is partially or
fully unaware of their sensations, thoughts, feelings, emotions, events, and surroundings
due to various reasons.
5. What is the main purpose of sleep in terms of the body?
Answer: Sleep is a time for the body to rest, rejuvenate, and recharge its energy for the
upcoming activities.
6. How are the different stages of sleep organized?
Answer: Sleep stages, including Stage 1, Stage 2, Stage 3, and Stage 4, occur in cycles of
about 90 minutes each. These stages become less deep as the night progresses.
7. What is the function of REM sleep?
Answer: REM sleep is associated with rapid eye movement and is crucial for memory
consolidation and psychological well-being. It constitutes more than twenty percent of an
adult's sleeping time.
8. How does the circadian rhythm affect sleep patterns?
Answer: Circadian rhythm, an internal biological control system, influences sleep

patterns and can vary from person to person, resulting in differences in sleep preferences
and timing.
9. What are the physiological changes associated with meditation?
Answer: Meditation leads to decreased heart rate, lowered blood pressure, reduced
oxygen usage, and altered brainwave patterns. It promotes relaxation, concentration, and
problem-solving.
10. What are the main categories of drugs that induce altered states of consciousness?
Answer: The main categories of drugs are stimulants, depressants, narcotics, and
hallucinogens.
11. What is the purpose of hypnosis?
Answer: Hypnosis induces a highly suggestible state in which a person follows

instructions and suggestions provided by a hypnotist.
12. What are some practical steps to manage sleep disorders?
Answer: Practical steps include avoiding sleeping pills, creating a dedicated sleep space,
avoiding stimulating activities before bed, developing a consistent sleep schedule,
8
learning relaxation techniques, avoiding caffeine and heavy meals before bedtime, and
more.
13. Why do people dream?
Answer: Various psychological theories attempt to explain the significance of dreams,

such as Sigmund Freud's theory of unconscious wish fulfillment, the reverse learning
theory, dreams-for-survival theory, and the activation synthesis theory.
14. How do dreams help with unfulfilled wishes, according to Freud's theory?
Answer: According to Freud's theory, dreams provide an outlet for expressing

unconscious wishes that cannot be fulfilled in reality. The manifest content represents the
latent content in symbolic form.
15. What is the primary function of REM sleep?
Answer: REM sleep serves as a time for deep sleep, characterized by rapid eye
movement, paralysis of major muscles, and intense dreaming. It plays a crucial role in
both physical and psychological well-being.
16. Why might people choose hypnosis as a therapy?
Answer: People may opt for hypnosis to address various issues such as quitting smoking,
alcohol cessation, pain management, improving performance, overcoming fears, and
recalling events.
17. How do meditation and dreams contribute to personal well-being?
Answer: Meditation promotes relaxation, concentration, insight, and problem-solving.

Dreams serve various purposes according to psychological theories, including the
processing of information, wish fulfillment, survival considerations, and biological
processes.
18. What are the main effects of psychoactive drugs?
Answer: Psychoactive drugs can lead to various effects on behavior and mental
processes, including withdrawal effects and overdose effects.
19. How does the activation synthesis theory explain dreams?
Answer: According to the activation synthesis theory, dreams are a result of random
brainwave activity during REM sleep that stimulates memories and forms a
comprehensible storyline.
20. What are some common causes of sleep disorders?
9
Answer: Sleep disorders can be caused by factors such as stress, mental illness, noise
pollution, physical illness, drug abuse, high caffeine intake, and more.
Lesson 20
LEARNING
MCQs:
1. What is the best definition of learning in psychology?
a) The process of acquiring knowledge through formal education
b) The process of gaining skills through practice
c) A relatively permanent change in behavior due to experience
d) A reflexive response to external stimuli
Answer: c) A relatively permanent change in behavior due to experience
2. Which of the following is an example of verbal learning?
a) Learning to ride a bicycle
b) Learning to play the piano
c) Associating a song with a specific memory
d) Solving a complex math problem
Answer: c) Associating a song with a specific memory
3. What type of learning involves practical application of the learned phenomenon?
a) Verbal learning
b) Cognitive learning
10
c) Motor learning
d) Problem-solving
Answer: c) Motor learning
4. Who conducted the experiment with dogs that led to the concept of classical
conditioning?
a) B.F. Skinner
b) Albert Bandura
c) Ivan Pavlov
d) John B. Watson
Answer: c) Ivan Pavlov
5. Classical conditioning involves forming an association between:
a) Two unconditioned stimuli
b) A conditioned stimulus and a neutral stimulus
c) A conditioned response and an unconditioned response
d) A neutral stimulus and a conditioned response
Answer: b) A conditioned stimulus and a neutral stimulus
6. What is the unconditioned response in classical conditioning?
a) The response triggered by the conditioned stimulus
b) The original response to the unconditioned stimulus
c) The response that is gradually extinguished
d) The response that occurs after higher order conditioning
Answer: b) The original response to the unconditioned stimulus
7. In classical conditioning, what is the term used for the gradual disappearance of a
conditioned response?
11
a) Spontaneous recovery
b) Generalization
c) Discrimination
d) Extinction
Answer: d) Extinction
8. What is the term for the reappearance of a conditioned response after a period of
extinction?
b) Stimulus generalization
c) Higher order conditioning
d) Stimulus discrimination
Answer: a) Spontaneous recovery
9. Stimulus generalization in classical conditioning refers to:
a) The weakening of a conditioned response
b) The tendency to discriminate between similar stimuli
c) The extension of a conditioned response to similar stimuli
d) The process of forming higher order associations
Answer: c) The extension of a conditioned response to similar stimuli
10. Which of the following is an example of higher order conditioning?
a) A child develops a fear of all dogs after being bitten by one dog.
b) A tone is associated with food, and then a light is associated with the tone, leading to
salivation in response to the light.
c) A person feels anxious when entering an elevator after a previous bad experience.
d) A student feels nervous during exams due to test anxiety.
12
Answer: b) A tone is associated with food, and then a light is associated with the tone,
leading to salivation in response to the light.
11. Which psychologist is associated with the experiment involving "Little Albert"?
a) B.F. Skinner
b) Albert Bandura
c) John B. Watson
d) Ivan Pavlov
Answer: c) John B. Watson
12. What did John B. Watson and Rosalie Rayner demonstrate through the "Little
Albert" experiment?
a) Classical conditioning can only occur with humans, not animals
b) Fear responses can be conditioned in humans through associative learning
c) Children have an innate fear of rats
d) Fear responses cannot be generalized to other stimuli
Answer: b) Fear responses can be conditioned in humans through associative learning
13. What is the process of unlearning a conditioned response called?
b) Extinction
c) Higher order conditioning
d) Stimulus generalization
Answer: b) Extinction
14. Which of the following is NOT an example of classical conditioning in everyday life?
a) Feeling relaxed at the sight of a favorite vacation spot
b) Associating a brand with positive emotions through advertising
13
c) Feeling hungry at the smell of freshly baked cookies
d) Learning to solve complex mathematical problems
Answer: d) Learning to solve complex mathematical problems
15. Classical conditioning can be applied to explain which of the following phenomena?
a) Fear of heights due to a traumatic experience
b) Genetic inheritance of certain behaviors
c) Innate reflexes such as blinking
d) Absorption of cultural norms and values
Answer: a) Fear of heights due to a traumatic experience
16. What is the primary focus of classical conditioning according to behaviorism?
a) Mental processes and introspection
b) Innate instincts and drives
c) Observable behavior and external stimuli
d) Genetic inheritance and evolution
Answer: c) Observable behavior and external stimuli
17. Which term refers to the process of differentiating between similar stimuli in classical
conditioning?
b) Stimulus generalization
c) Discrimination
d) Higher order conditioning
Answer: c) Discrimination
18. Which type of learning involves the acquisition of motor skills?
a) Verbal learning
14
b) Problem-solving
c) Motor learning
d) Operant conditioning
Answer: c) Motor learning
19. What was the main focus of Ivan Pavlov's initial research before he developed the
concept of classical conditioning?
a) Human memory and cognition
b) Digestive processes in dogs
c) Human emotions and motivations
d) Social learning in children
Answer: b) Digestive processes in dogs
20. Classical conditioning is associated with:
a) The process of forming associations between two neutral stimuli
b) The process of shaping behaviors through reinforcement and punishment
c) The process of developing cognitive schemas and mental models
d) The process of forming associations between a neutral stimulus and an unconditioned

stimulus
Answer: d) The process of forming associations between a neutral stimulus and an

unconditioned stimulus
Q&A:
1. What is learning commonly understood as?
 Answer: Learning is commonly understood as the act, process, or experience of gaining

knowledge or skill.
2. How is learning defined in psychology?
15
 Answer: Learning is defined as the relatively permanent change in behavior and the
frequency of its occurrence, resulting from practice or experience.
3. Does learning always result in positive changes in behavior?
 Answer: No, learning can lead to both positive and negative changes in behavior.
4. How is learning different from behavioral changes due to maturation or illness?
 Answer: Learning is distinct from behavioral changes due to maturation and illness, but
it does apply to motor skills, intellectual skills, and attitudes.
5. What does classical conditioning provide answers to?
 Answer: Classical conditioning provides answers to questions about why certain

reactions or responses occur in specific situations.
6. What is the main focus of classical conditioning?
 Answer: Classical conditioning is a type of learning in which a previously neutral

stimulus elicits a response that was originally produced by a different stimulus.
7. Who is credited with the development of classical conditioning?
 Answer: Ivan Pavlov, a Russian physiologist, is credited with the development of

classical conditioning.
8. What is the process by which a neutral stimulus becomes capable of triggering a

response?
 Answer: The process by which a neutral stimulus becomes capable of triggering a

response is called classical conditioning.
9. Can you explain the concept of extinction in classical conditioning?
 Answer: Extinction refers to the gradual weakening and eventual disappearance of a

conditioned response when the conditioned stimulus is repeatedly presented without the
unconditioned stimulus.
10. How does spontaneous recovery relate to classical conditioning?
Answer: Spontaneous recovery is the reappearance of a previously extinguished conditioned

response after a period of time.
11. What is stimulus generalization in classical conditioning?
16
Answer: Stimulus generalization refers to the tendency for a conditioned response to occur in
response to stimuli that are similar to the conditioned stimulus.
12. How is stimulus discrimination different from stimulus generalization?
Answer: Stimulus discrimination involves learning to respond to only specific stimuli, while
stimulus generalization involves responding to similar stimuli as well.
13. What is higher order conditioning in classical conditioning?
Answer: Higher order conditioning is a process where a conditioned stimulus is paired with a
new neutral stimulus, leading the neutral stimulus to elicit a conditioned response.
14. How did John B. Watson contribute to classical conditioning?
Answer: John B. Watson conducted the famous "Little Albert" experiment, demonstrating how
fear responses can be conditioned in humans through associative learning.
15. What is Little Albert's case known for in classical conditioning?
Answer: Little Albert's case demonstrated the conditioned emotional response, where a child
was made afraid of certain objects through classical conditioning.
16. How does classical conditioning apply to real-world scenarios like advertising?
Answer: Classical conditioning is used in advertising to associate positive emotions with

products, creating favorable emotional responses in consumers.
17. What is the potential application of classical conditioning in psychotherapy?
Answer: Classical conditioning techniques like systematic desensitization are used in

psychotherapy to treat phobias and anxiety disorders.
18. How does classical conditioning influence conditioned drug responses?
Answer: Classical conditioning plays a role in conditioned drug responses, where cues
associated with drug intake trigger physiological responses.
19. Give an example of classical conditioning's influence on everyday behaviors.
Answer: People who are addicted to caffeine and nicotine may feel relaxed and stimulated even
before consuming these substances.
20. How can classical conditioning impact the immune system and health behaviors?
17
Answer: Classical conditioning can influence immune system responses and health
behaviors by associating neutral stimuli with immune-related reactions. For example, a
neutral taste could trigger an immune response due to previous pairings with immune-
suppressant drugs.
Lesson 21
OPERANT CONDITIONING
MCQs:
1. What is operant conditioning primarily based on?
a) Association between a neutral stimulus and a natural response
b) Association between a voluntary response and its consequences
c) Association between an involuntary response and its causes
d) Association between a conditioned stimulus and a conditioned response
Answer: b) Association between a voluntary response and its consequences
2. In operant conditioning, what role does the organism play?
a) Passive observer
b) Unconscious learner
c) Active participant
d) Respondent
Answer: c) Active participant
3. Which type of learning forms an association between a behavior and a consequence?
18
a) Classical conditioning
b) Habituation
c) Operant conditioning
d) Insight learning
Answer: c) Operant conditioning
4. What is the primary requirement for consequences to influence behavior in operant

conditioning?
a) Consequences should be delayed
b) Consequences should be verbalized
c) Consequences should be explained
d) Consequences should be immediate and linked to behavior
Answer: d) Consequences should be immediate and linked to behavior
5. Which of the following is not one of the four possible consequences of behavior?
a) Something good can start or be presented
b) Something good can end or be taken away
c) Something bad can start or be presented
d) Something bad can stay the same
Answer: d) Something bad can stay the same
6. Positive reinforcement involves:
a) Introducing something good to decrease behavior
b) Introducing something good to increase behavior
c) Removing something bad to decrease behavior
d) Removing something bad to increase behavior
Answer: b) Introducing something good to increase behavior
19
7. Negative punishment involves:
a) Introducing something good to decrease behavior
b) Introducing something good to increase behavior
c) Removing something bad to decrease behavior
d) Removing something bad to increase behavior
Answer: c) Removing something bad to decrease behavior
8. What principle is associated with Thorndike's statement that "responses leading to

satisfying outcomes are likely to be repeated"?
a) Law of Response
b) Law of Association
c) Law of Effect
d) Law of Contiguity
Answer: c) Law of Effect
9. Which term refers to the organism forming an association between the response and its
consequences?
a) Contiguity
b) Causality
c) Correlation
d) Reinforcement
Answer: a) Contiguity
10. Burrhus Frederic Skinner is known for founding which type of conditioning?
b) Operant conditioning
c) Observational conditioning
20
d) Habituation
Answer: b) Operant conditioning
11. What is the primary difference between continuous and partial schedules of
reinforcement? –
a) Continuous schedules involve more reinforcement –
b) Partial schedules involve more reinforcement –
c) Continuous schedules are based on time intervals –
d) Partial schedules reinforce only some responses –
Answer: d) Partial schedules reinforce only some responses
12. Which schedule of reinforcement involves reinforcement after a fixed number of

responses? –
a) Fixed Ratio Schedule –
b) Variable Ratio Schedule –
c) Fixed Interval Schedule –
d) Variable Interval Schedule –
Answer: a) Fixed Ratio Schedule
13. A variable interval schedule involves reinforcement after: -
a) A fixed number of responses –
b) Varying number of responses –
c) A fixed time interval –
d) Varying time intervals –
Answer: d) Varying time intervals
14. What is the primary objective of shaping in operant conditioning? –
a) To extinguish unwanted behaviors –
21
b) To establish an immediate connection between stimulus and response –
c) To gradually approximate a desired behavior –
d) To replace voluntary responses with involuntary responses –
Answer: c) To gradually approximate a desired behavior
15. What is the most effective schedule of reinforcement according to the content? –
a) Fixed Ratio Schedule –
b) Variable Ratio Schedule –
c) Fixed Interval Schedule –
d) Variable Interval Schedule –
Answer: b) Variable Ratio Schedule
16. What is a token economy based on? –
a) Using real money as reinforcement –
b) Exchanging tokens for actual items –
c) Providing only verbal praise as reinforcement –
d) Using tokens as an immediate reward for desired behavior –
Answer: d) Using tokens as an immediate reward for desired behavior
17. Contingency contracting involves: -
a) Creating a written agreement between two parties outlining goals and consequences –
b) Using only verbal agreements for behavior change –
c) Employing physical punishments for behavioral modification –
d) Modifying behavior without any agreement or plan –
Answer: a) Creating a written agreement between two parties outlining goals and
consequences
18. Operant conditioning is most effective with which of the following groups? –
22
a) Adults only –
b) Children, animals, and mentally handicapped individuals –
c) Only mentally handicapped individuals –
d) Adults and children with advanced verbal skills –
Answer: b) Children, animals, and mentally handicapped individuals
19. What is one potential application of operant conditioning in real-life situations? –
a) Learning healthy lifestyles –
b) Teaching advanced mathematics –
c) Observing natural animal behavior –
d) Studying historical events –
Answer: a) Learning healthy lifestyles
20. What is a primary focus of behavior modification? –
a) Eliminating all behaviors except those deemed ideal –
b) Increasing undesired behaviors for a balanced approach –
c) Decreasing desired behaviors for better control –
d) Modifying behavior to optimize desired outcomes –
Answer: d) Modifying behavior to optimize desired outcomes
Q&A:
1. What is operant conditioning?
 Answer: Operant conditioning is a type of learning in which a voluntary response

becomes stronger or weaker depending on its positive or negative consequences.
2. How does the organism participate in operant conditioning?
 Answer: The organism plays an active role and 'operates' on the environment to produce
the desired outcome.
23
3. What does operant conditioning associate together?
 Answer: Operant conditioning forms an association between a behavior and a

consequence.
4. Why do consequences need to be immediate or clearly linked to behavior in operant

conditioning?
 Answer: Consequences need to be immediate or clearly linked to behavior because for

verbal humans, the connection between the consequence and the behavior can be
explained even if they are separated in time. For very young children and animals, the
consequence has to be immediate.
5. What are the four possible consequences of any behavior in operant conditioning?
 Answer: The four possible consequences are:

o Something Good can start or be presented
o Something Good can end or be taken away
o Something Bad can start or be presented
o Something Bad can end or be taken away
6. How is positive reinforcement defined in operant conditioning?
 Answer: Positive reinforcement occurs when something good is introduced or presented,

leading to an increase in behavior.
7. What is the outcome of negative punishment in operant conditioning?
 Answer: Negative punishment results in the decrease of behavior when something good
is taken away or ended.
8. According to Thorndike's Law of Effect, what determines whether a response will be

repeated or not?
 Answer: Any response leading to an outcome that is satisfying for the organism is likely
to be repeated, while a response leading to an unsatisfying outcome is not likely to be
repeated.
9. What does association by contiguity in operant conditioning refer to?
 Answer: Association by contiguity is when the organism forms a connection between the
response and its consequences, with the response and outcome being closely linked in
both time and space.
10. What did Thorndike's approach draw attention to in learning new behavior?
24
 Answer: Thorndike's approach drew attention to the significance of reward and
punishment in learning new behavior.
11. What are some points to consider that are prompted by the operant conditioning
approach?
 Answer: Some points to consider include questions like why teachers give stars on
children's workbooks, why horses run faster when whipped, why parents allow children
to watch cartoons after finishing homework, and similar scenarios.
12. Who is credited as the founder of Operant Conditioning?
 Answer: Burrhus Frederic Skinner is credited as the founder of Operant Conditioning.
13. What is the typical procedure in Skinner's operant conditioning experiments?
 Answer: In Skinner's operant conditioning experiments, laboratory animals learn to

perform a behavior to receive a reward in a controlled environment, determining whether
the behavior will be repeated based on consequences.
14. What does reinforcement aim to achieve in operant conditioning?
 Answer: Reinforcement is used to increase the probability of repetition of a behavior

through positive or negative stimuli.
15. What is the role of a positive reinforcer or reward in operant conditioning?
 Answer: A positive reinforcer or reward is a stimulus whose introduction leads to an

increase in the preceding response.
16. How does negative punishment differ from negative reinforcement?
 Answer: Negative punishment involves the removal of something good to decrease

behavior, while negative reinforcement involves the removal of something bad to
increase behavior.
17. What are some examples of partial schedules of reinforcement?
 Answer: Partial schedules of reinforcement include fixed ratio, variable ratio, fixed
interval, and variable interval schedules.
18. What is the primary purpose of shaping in operant conditioning?
 Answer: Shaping involves reinforcing successive approximations of a desired response

until the desired response is fully learned.
25
19. How can shaping be used in different contexts?
 Answer: Shaping can be used for learning alphabets, playing musical instruments,
appropriate classroom behavior, and training mentally handicapped children.
20. What is behavior modification, and what does it aim to achieve?
 Answer: Behavior modification is a therapeutic strategy based on operant principles of

learning, aiming to increase desired behavior and decrease undesired behavior to optimal
levels or extinction.
Lesson 22
COGNITIVE APPROACH
MCQs:
1. What is another name for the cognitive approach?
a) Behavioral perspective
b) Mental conditioning
c) Learning by insight
d) Classical perspective
Answer: a) Behavioral perspective
2. According to the cognitive approach, what is cognition?
a) Physical activity
b) Emotional response
c) Mental processes
d) Reflexive behavior
26
Answer: c) Mental processes
3. What does the cognitive approach emphasize?
a) Stimulus-response association
b) Rewards and punishment
c) Internal states and environmental events
d) Conditioning processes
Answer: c) Internal states and environmental events
4. What are cognitive mediators in operant conditioning?
a) Reinforcers
b) Stimuli
c) Concepts between stimulus and response
d) Unconscious processes
Answer: c) Concepts between stimulus and response
5. Which researcher is associated with the concept of "learning by insight"?
a) B.F. Skinner
b) Ivan Pavlov
c) Albert Bandura
d) Wolfgang Kohler
Answer: d) Wolfgang Kohler
6. What did Wolfgang Kohler's experiments with apes demonstrate?
a) Classical conditioning in animals
b) Operant conditioning in animals
c) Learning by imitation in animals
27
d) Learning by insight in animals
Answer: d) Learning by insight in animals
7. What did Tolman's experiments with rats demonstrate about learning?
a) Learning always requires reward and punishment
b) Learning can occur without actual response
c) Learning is purely instinctive
d) Learning depends on trial and error
Answer: b) Learning can occur without actual response
8. What are cognitive maps in Tolman's research?
a) Neural networks
b) Mental representations of space and directions
c) Behavioral scripts
d) Reflexive pathways
Answer: b) Mental representations of space and directions
9. What is observational learning also known as?
a) Imitative learning
b) Classical conditioning
d) Insightful learning
Answer: a) Imitative learning
10. According to Bandura, what is a major portion of learning based upon?
a) Reward and punishment
b) Direct experience
28
c) Observational learning
d) Operant conditioning
Answer: c) Observational learning
11. What did Bandura's study with children and the doll demonstrate about observational
learning?
a) Children will always copy models' behaviors
b) Children copy models only if they are punished
c) Children copy models' behaviors regardless of consequences
d) Children copy models based on rewards and punishment of the model
Answer: d) Children copy models based on rewards and punishment of the model
12. What is a critical feature of an effective model for observational learning?
a) Being punished for behavior
b) Being socially significant
c) Being a famous celebrity
d) Having no consequences for behavior
Answer: b) Being socially significant
13. In which situations is observational learning particularly useful?
a) When shaping is not possible
b) When classical conditioning is irrelevant
c) When trial and error is the primary method
d) When stimulus-response association is strong
Answer: a) When shaping is not possible
14. What can observational learning help individuals overcome?
a) Physical limitations
29
b) Fear and phobias
c) Memory problems
d) Reflexive behaviors
Answer: b) Fear and phobias
15. What are some negative behaviors that can be learned through observational
learning?
a) Positive behaviors
c) Operant behaviors
d) Drug abuse and violence
Answer: d) Drug abuse and violence
16. Which aspect of learning do cognitive theorists focus on?
a) Internal states of the learner
b) External environmental stimuli
c) Classical conditioning only
d) Immediate responses
Answer: a) Internal states of the learner
17. What does the humanist perspective emphasize in learning?
a) Stimulus-response connections
b) Internal cognitive processes
c) The potential for personal growth
d) Observational learning
Answer: c) The potential for personal growth
18. What is the main focus of the behaviorist approach in learning?
30
a) External stimuli
b) Internal cognitive processes
c) Personal growth and self-actualization
d) Observational learning
Answer: a) External stimuli
19. Which learning approach emphasizes social participation and conversation?
a) Behavioral approach
b) Cognitive approach
c) Humanist approach
d) Social learning approach
Answer: d) Social learning approach
20. What is the main focus of the cognitive approach to learning?
a) Reinforcement and punishment
b) Mental processes and knowledge
c) Social interactions and communication
d) Trial and error learning
Answer: b) Mental processes and knowledge
Q&A:
1. Did we learn everything we know solely through the association of stimulus and
response or reinforcement? Can learning occur through other processes?
Answer: Learning is not solely a result of stimulus-response association or reinforcement. There

are other processes, such as cognitive processes, that play a role in learning.
2. Why might a soldier resist a strong enemy even when escape is possible?
31
Answer: A soldier might resist a strong enemy due to factors like duty, honor, and a sense of
responsibility, which can override the immediate concern for personal safety.
3. Why would an artist donate paintings to a charity school instead of selling them in the
market for profit?
Answer: The artist's motivation to donate paintings might stem from values like altruism, a
desire to contribute to education, or the satisfaction derived from helping others, which can take
precedence over financial gains.
4. What do human intellectual activities like thinking, problem-solving, and learning

require?
Answer: Human intellectual activities require mental processes and knowledge, which go
beyond mere stimulus-response associations or rewards and punishments.
5. What is the cognitive approach's main focus in learning?
Answer: The cognitive approach focuses on the thought processes underlying learning and
places importance on cognition for understanding and explaining learning.
6. Define cognition in the context of the cognitive approach.
Answer: Cognition refers to the mental processes or the faculty of knowing. It encompasses
thoughts, feelings, thinking patterns, values, and expectations.
7. What does the cognitive approach emphasize besides external stimuli and responses?
Answer: The cognitive approach emphasizes both the internal states of the individual and the
environmental events, highlighting the interplay between them.
8. What are mediators in the cognitive approach?
Answer: Mediators are conceptual processes that come between the stimulus and response,
influencing the way information is processed and responses are generated.
9. How are cognitive mediators different from mediators in classical conditioning?
Answer: Cognitive mediators are conceptual processes that are defined physiologically rather
than conceptually, unlike classical conditioning mediators.
10. Which scientific fields contribute to the cognitive approach, making it a hybrid
science?
Answer: The cognitive approach draws from psychology, linguistics, computer science, and
physiology, creating a multidisciplinary or hybrid science.
32
11. Who were some influential figures in laying the foundation of the cognitive approach?
Answer: Wolfgang Kohler and E.C. Tolman played vital roles in establishing the cognitive
approach through their research on insight and latent learning.
12. What did Wolfgang Kohler's experiments on apes reveal about problem solving?
Answer: Kohler's experiments demonstrated that animals, specifically apes like "Sultan," can
exhibit problem-solving skills based on insight rather than mechanical conditioning.
13. What is Tolman's concept of latent learning?
Answer: Latent learning refers to acquiring behaviors or knowledge that are not immediately
demonstrated but become apparent only when reinforcement or a specific situation occurs.
14. Describe Tolman's maze learning experiments with rats and their results.
Answer: Tolman's experiments involved rats navigating mazes. Group 1 wandered without
rewards, Group 2 received food rewards, and Group 3 initially wandered and later received
rewards. Results showed that rewards influenced performance but did not determine the initial
learning.
15. What is a cognitive map, and how does it relate to Tolman's research?
Answer: A cognitive map is a mental representation of space, locations, and directions,

reflecting learned relationships among stimuli. Tolman's research highlighted that learning can
occur without immediate observable responses, like a cognitive map forming.
16. How do spatial cognitive maps function in humans and animals?
Answer: Spatial cognitive maps help in identifying features of the environment, locating goal
objects, and planning routes through the environment for both humans and animals.
17. How can cognitive maps be used by animals and humans?
Answer: Animals use cognitive maps for navigation, as seen in birds returning after migration or
cats finding their way home. Humans create cognitive maps for surroundings and paths,
especially when familiar with the environment.
18. What is observational learning, and how is it defined?
Answer: Observational learning involves learning through the observation of others' behavior.
It's the process of acquiring behaviors, attitudes, and beliefs by watching and imitating others.
19. How does observational learning relate to social-learning theory?
33
Answer: Observational learning is a central component of social-learning theory. It involves
changes in behavior based on observing and imitating models or influential figures.
20. How can modeling and observational learning have both positive and negative effects?
Answer: Observational learning can lead to both positive behaviors, such as skill acquisition,
and negative behaviors, like imitating aggressive or harmful actions seen in models.
Lesson 23
MEMORY I
MCQs:
1. What does memory refer to?
a) Processes of encoding and retrieval only
b) Processes of encoding, storing, and retrieval
c) Processes of retrieval and understanding
d) Processes of encoding and storing only
Answer: b) Processes of encoding, storing, and retrieval
2. What is a key function of memory in humans and other organisms?
a) Planning future actions
b) Encoding emotions
c) Navigating physical environments
d) Learning new languages
Answer: c) Navigating physical environments
3. Which term is commonly used to describe both the storage and manipulation of
information?
a) Short-term memory
b) Long-term memory
34
c) Working memory
d) Sensory memory
Answer: c) Working memory
4. What process converts sensory information into meaningful forms for memory?
a) Encoding
b) Retrieval
c) Decoding
d) Assimilation
Answer: a) Encoding
5. Which memory system involves the initial, momentary recording of information from
our senses?
a) Short-term memory
b) Long-term memory
c) Sensory memory
d) Working memory
Answer: c) Sensory memory
6. What is iconic memory?
a) Memory for sounds
b) Memory for visual images
c) Memory for smells
d) Memory for touch sensations
Answer: b) Memory for visual images
7. How long does iconic memory typically last?
a) Up to 3-4 seconds
35
b) Less than a second
c) Up to 15-25 seconds
d) Several minutes
Answer: b) Less than a second
8. Which term describes the process of grouping information to be learned into

meaningful sets?
a) Elaborative rehearsal
b) Chunking
c) Encoding
d) Retrieval
Answer: b) Chunking
9. What is the capacity of short-term memory according to George Miller's estimation?
a) Three chunks
b) Five chunks
c) Seven chunks
d) Ten chunks
Answer: c) Seven chunks
10. What technique involves the repetition of material to be learned in order to improve
encoding?
a) Chunking
b) Elaborative rehearsal
c) Mnemonics
d) Retrieval
Answer: b) Elaborative rehearsal
36
11. Which mnemonic strategy involves associating names or objects with familiar places?
a) Method of loci
b) Acrostic mnemonic
c) Acronym mnemonic
d) Rhyming mnemonic
Answer: a) Method of loci
12. Which component of working memory is responsible for coordinating information

during reasoning and decision making?
a) Central Executive
b) Visuospatial Sketch Pad
c) Phonological loop
d) Sensory memory
Answer: a) Central Executive
13. What does the visuospatial sketch pad focus on?
a) Speech and words
b) Visual and spatial information
c) Emotional memories
d) Motor skills
Answer: b) Visual and spatial information
14. What is the primary function of the phonological loop?
a) Coordinating information
b) Holding and manipulating speech and words
c) Processing visual images
d) Managing emotional memories
37
Answer: b) Holding and manipulating speech and words
15. Which memory system involves storing information for a longer duration and allowing
for its retrieval?
a) Sensory memory
b) Short-term memory
c) Long-term memory
d) Working memory
Answer: c) Long-term memory
16. How does long-term memory differ from short-term memory?
a) It holds information briefly and allows for manipulation.
b) It stores information for up to 25 seconds.
c) It focuses on sensory inputs.
d) It primarily deals with visual images.
Answer: a) It holds information briefly and allows for manipulation.
17. What is the main goal of encoding in memory processes?
a) Storing information for a brief period
b) Replicating sensory stimuli
c) Transforming information into meaningful forms
d) Retrieving information from the past
Answer: c) Transforming information into meaningful forms
18. Which memory process refers to the use of stored information and often occurs outside
awareness?
a) Encoding
b) Retrieval
38
c) Sensory processing
d) Short-term memory
Answer: b) Retrieval
19. What does the term "working memory" emphasize compared to "short-term
memory"?
a) The brief storage of information
b) The manipulation of stored information
c) The encoding of sensory stimuli
d) The retrieval of past experiences
Answer: b) The manipulation of stored information
20. What is the process of recoding in memory?
a) Copying information from the environment
b) Converting information from one form to another
c) Retrieving information from long-term memory
d) Storing information briefly for manipulation
Answer: b) Converting information from one form to another
Q&A:
1. What does memory refer to?
A: Memory refers to the processes of encoding, storing, and retrieving information.
2. How does memory impact our daily activities?
A: Memory is crucial for activities like talking, understanding, reading, and socializing as they
depend on stored information.
3. What would life be like without memory?
39
A: Without memory, life would consist of disconnected experiences, and basic tasks would be
impossible.
4. Why is memory a subject of controversy?
A: Memory's accuracy is questioned because people often don't recall events as they happened
and may even remember events that never occurred.
5. How are memory and learning related?
A: Memory and learning are closely related; learning involves acquiring new information, and
memory stores and retrieves that information.
6. According to Woodworth, how is memory defined?
A: Woodworth defined memory as Memory = Learning (L) - Interval (I) - Remembering (R),
highlighting the process of learning, retaining, and recalling.
7. What are the functions of memory?
A: Memory has three main functions: encoding, storage, and retrieval.
8. How does encoding work in memory?
A: Encoding involves perceiving information and converting it from one form to another for
storage.
9. Describe the storage process in memory.
A: In storage, information saved in memory is maintained in an identifiable form.
10. What is retrieval in memory?
A: Retrieval is the process of locating stored information, bringing it into awareness, and using
it.
11. What distinguishes explicit memory from implicit memory?
A: Explicit memory involves conscious recollection of facts or events, while implicit memory
influences behavior without conscious awareness.
12. What are the three main memory storage systems?
A: The memory storage systems are sensory memory, short-term memory, and long-term
memory.
40
13. What is iconic memory?
A: Iconic memory is a brief visual persistence of information captured by our visual senses.
14. How does chunking relate to short-term memory?
A: Chunking involves grouping stimuli into meaningful sets to enhance short-term memory's
capacity, which is around seven chunks on average.
15. How does elaborative rehearsal enhance memory?
A: Elaborative rehearsal involves relating new information to existing knowledge or creating

meaningful associations to aid encoding and retention.
16. What are mnemonics?
A: Mnemonics are strategies that help organize material to be learned, making it easier to encode
and recall.
17. How does the Method of Loci work?
A: The Method of Loci associates information with familiar places to aid recall; it involves
mentally placing items in different locations.
18. What is the purpose of the visuospatial sketch pad in working memory?
A: The visuospatial sketch pad holds and processes visual and spatial information in working
memory.
19. How does the phonological loop function in working memory?
A: The phonological loop holds and manipulates speech-related information, including words
and numbers, in working memory.
20. What is the central executive component in working memory responsible for?
A: The central executive coordinates materials and directs attention during reasoning and
decision-making processes in working memory.
Lesson 24
MEMORY II
41
MCQs:
1. What does long-term memory store?
A: Information on a relatively enduring basis.
2. Long-term memory can include memories of:
a) Events from a few minutes ago
b) Events from many decades ago
c) Skills learned through practice
d) All of the above
A: d) All of the above
3. Which view suggests that short-term memory and long-term memory are arranged in
parallel?
a) Traditional view
b) Sequential view
c) Interference view
d) Parallel view
A: d) Parallel view
4. What are the three main long-term memory systems distinguished by most
researchers?
a) Sensory memory, procedural memory, episodic memory
b) Declarative memory, working memory, implicit memory
c) Episodic memory, semantic memory, procedural memory
d) Short-term memory, explicit memory, implicit memory
A: c) Episodic memory, semantic memory, procedural memory
5. Which type of memory stores factual data, dates, faces, and names?
42
a) Procedural memory
b) Semantic memory
c) Episodic memory
d) Declarative memory
A: d) Declarative memory
6. Procedural memory is associated with:
a) Recalling specific life events
b) General knowledge and facts
c) Skills and habits
d) None of the above
A: c) Skills and habits
7. Semantic memory is responsible for storing:
a) Personal life events
b) General knowledge and facts
c) Procedural skills
d) Sensory information
A: b) General knowledge and facts
8. Episodic memory is characterized by:
a) Skills and habits
b) General knowledge
c) Recollection of specific life events
d) Semantic knowledge
A: c) Recollection of specific life events
43
9. Which type of memory is expressed through performance and doesn't require
conscious effort?
a) Declarative memory
b) Implicit memory
c) Episodic memory
d) Semantic memory
A: b) Implicit memory
10. The levels-of-processing theory suggests that memory is influenced by:
a) The amount of information stored
b) The depth of mental analysis during encoding
c) The speed of information decay
d) The interference of prior memories
A: b) The depth of mental analysis during encoding
11. Which phenomenon involves the inability to retrieve information despite feeling like
you know it?
a) Priming
b) Encoding specificity
c) Flashbulb memory
d) Tip-of-the-tongue
A: d) Tip-of-the-tongue
12. Which theory suggests that stored information decays and disintegrates over time?
a) Interference theory
b) Repression theory
c) Decay theory
44
d) Priming theory
A: c) Decay theory
13. Proactive interference occurs when:
a) Newly learned information interferes with previously learned information
b) Previously learned information interferes with newly learned information
c) Information decays over time d) Memory is blocked intentionally
A: b) Previously learned information interferes with newly learned information
14. What does the keyword technique involve?
a) Associating foreign words with similar-sounding words in your native language
b) Using images to remember information
c) Creating mental maps of information
d) Pairing words with their definitions
A: a) Associating foreign words with similar-sounding words in your native language
15. Which phenomenon suggests that information is best learned and remembered in a
similar environment to where it was initially learned?
a) Encoding specificity
b) Priming
c) Interference
d) Repression
A: a) Encoding specificity
16. What is the main benefit of overlearning?
a) Increased speed of learning
b) Enhanced long-term retention
c) Improved short-term memory
45
d) Better understanding of concepts
A: b) Enhanced long-term retention
17. Which technique involves going through material, asking questions about it, and
reviewing the learned content?
a) Chunking
b) Rhyming
c) SQ3R
d) Priming
A: c) SQ3R
18. What does the interference theory of forgetting suggest?
a) Memories decay over time
b) New information interferes with recalling old information
c) Unpleasant memories are repressed
d) Overlearning improves memory retention
A: b) New information interferes with recalling old information
19. Which type of memory stores skills and habits?
a) Declarative memory
b) Semantic memory
c) Episodic memory
d) Procedural memory
A: d) Procedural memory
20. Which type of memory involves recollections of past life events?
a) Semantic memory
b) Procedural memory
46
c) Declarative memory
d) Episodic memory
A: d) Episodic memory
Q&A:
1. What is the primary characteristic of long-term memory?
A: Long-term memory stores information on a permanent or relatively permanent basis.
2. What does the term "long-term memory" encompass in terms of time span?
A: Long-term memory can refer to facts learned a few minutes ago, personal memories decades
old, or skills learned with practice.
3. What does long-term memory allow individuals to do?
A: Long-term memory allows individuals to draw on information and skills stored within it, such
as playing cricket, recalling past events, and remembering how to perform certain tasks.
4. According to the traditional view, how does information enter long-term memory?
A: According to the traditional view, information enters short-term memory first and may then
be transferred to long-term memory based on processing.
5. What is the alternative view to the traditional sequential process of information

transfer?
A: The alternative view suggests that short-term memory and long-term memory are arranged in
parallel, allowing information to be registered simultaneously in both systems.
6. What are the three main long-term memory systems that most researchers
distinguish?
A: The three main long-term memory systems are episodic memory, semantic memory, and
procedural memory.
7. Which memory system is responsible for storing factual data, dates, faces, and names?
A: Declarative memory is responsible for storing factual data, dates, faces, and names.
8. What is the memory center for skills and habits?
47
A: Procedural memory is the memory center for skills and habits, such as playing cricket or
driving a car.
9. What does semantic memory refer to?
A: Semantic memory refers to the storehouse of facts and general knowledge about the world,
such as historical facts or scientific formulae.
10. What type of memory is associated with recalling specific life events?
A: Episodic memory is associated with recalling specific life events, episodes, and biographical
details.
11. What does implicit memory refer to?
A: Implicit memory refers to the storage of information or memories that affect behavior and
performance but are not consciously recalled.
12. According to the levels-of-processing theory, what determines the likelihood of

remembering new information?
A: The degree to which new information is mentally analyzed determines how likely it is to be
remembered.
13. What is the tip-of-the-tongue phenomenon?
A: The tip-of-the-tongue phenomenon refers to the inability to recall events, details, or

information that one thought was well-known.
14. What is the encoding specificity phenomenon?
A: The encoding specificity phenomenon suggests that information is best remembered when
learned and recalled in similar environments.
15. What are flashbulb memories?
A: Flashbulb memories are clear and vivid memories of specific, important, or surprising events
in our lives.
16. What is the main benefit of overlearning?
A: Overlearning enhances long-term retention and memory recall.
17. How does the interference theory of forgetting explain memory loss?
48
A: The interference theory suggests that memory loss occurs when newly learned information
interferes with the recall of previously learned material.
18. What is repression, according to Freudian theory?
A: Repression involves putting undesirable thoughts, events, and fears into the unconscious mind
to avoid remembering them.
19. What is the SQ3R approach used for?
A: The SQ3R approach is a method for improved learning and recall of material, involving
surveying, questioning, and reading, reciting, and reviewing.
20. How can the method of loci aid in memory improvement?
A: The method of loci involves associating information with specific locations, aiding in
memory recall by linking information to spatial cues.
Lesson 25
MEMORY III
MCQs:
1. What pathological reasons can cause memory impairment known as "Memory
Cognitive Impairment" (MCI)?
a) Aging only
b) Pathological reasons only
c) Both aging and pathological reasons
d) None of the above
Answer: c) Both aging and pathological reasons
2. Amnesia is a condition characterized by:
a) Extreme memory retention
b) Loss of memory without any other mental difficulties
c) Enhanced ability to retrieve recent memories
49
d) An increased capacity for learning new skills
Answer: b) Loss of memory without any other mental difficulties
3. Which of the following is a severe and rare disease that affects people in their 60s and
doubles the risk every 5 years after 60?
a) Amnesia
b) Dementia
c) Alzheimer's disease
d) Huntington's disease
Answer: b) Dementia
4. What are the major symptoms of dementia?
a) Improved memory and recognition skills
b) Increased physical energy and activity
c) Repeating things several times and aggressive behavior
d) Enhanced speech and intellectual skills
Answer: c) Repeating things several times and aggressive behavior
5. Alzheimer's disease primarily affects:
a) Muscular coordination and movement
b) Memory, language, and recognition
c) Blood circulation and respiratory system
d) Hormonal balance and reproductive organs
Answer: b) Memory, language, and recognition
6. Which disease results in involuntary movements and cognitive impairment, often

running in families?
a) Amnesia
50
b) Dementia
c) Huntington's disease
d) ALS
Answer: c) Huntington's disease
7. Which brain region has a vital role in coordinating movement and is mainly affected
by Huntington's disease?
a) Hippocampus
b) Cerebellum
c) Basal ganglia
d) Prefrontal cortex
Answer: c) Basal ganglia
8. Amyotrophic Lateral Sclerosis (ALS) primarily affects:
a) Cognitive functions and memory
b) Motor neurons and muscles
c) Vision and hearing
d) Blood circulation and heart rate
Answer: b) Motor neurons and muscles
9. Korsakoff's Syndrome is associated with:
a) Loss of vision
b) Permanent loss of memory
c) Chronic pain
d) Emotional instability
Answer: b) Permanent loss of memory
10. Korsakoff's syndrome is often observed in individuals who are:
51
a) Long-term alcoholics
b) Athletes
c) Overweight
d) Adolescents
Answer: a) Long-term alcoholics
11. Motivation can be defined as:
a) The ability to recall past events
b) A desire, drive, instinct, or need that directs behavior towards a goal
c) The ability to perform complex cognitive tasks
d) A cognitive impairment resulting from brain damage
Answer: b) A desire, drive, instinct, or need that directs behavior towards a goal
12. What is the primary characteristic of primary motives?
a) They are learned through experience
b) They are mainly psychological in nature
c) They are innate biological needs
d) They are dependent on societal conventions
Answer: c) They are innate biological needs
13. Which type of motivation involves appreciation and appraisal in order to live
successfully in society?
a) Primary motives
b) Unconscious motives
c) Secondary motives
d) Innate motives
Answer: c) Secondary motives
52
14. What happens to motivation once a goal is achieved?
a) It remains constant
b) It intensifies
c) It regresses
d) It disappears completely
Answer: c) It regresses
15. Which primary motive is concerned with avoiding injury and scar?
a) Hunger
b) Thirst
c) Pain
d) Excretion
Answer: c) Pain
16. Which primary motive is essential for the survival and continuation of species?
a) Hunger
b) Thirst
c) Pain
d) Sex Drive
Answer: d) Sex Drive
17. What is the organ responsible for sexual drive in males?
a) Ovary
b) Uterus
c) Testis
d) Prostate
53
Answer: c) Testis
18. The body's set point for weight refers to:
a) The highest weight an individual can reach
b) The lowest weight an individual can reach
c) A certain weight level that the body strives to maintain
d) The optimal weight for athletic performance
Answer: c) A certain weight level that the body strives to maintain
19. Which of the following plays a crucial role in regulating body temperature and
responds to external environmental changes?
a) Cerebellum
b) Hypothalamus
c) Amygdala
d) Medulla oblongata
Answer: b) Hypothalamus
20. Which response occurs in the body when external temperatures drop below normal?
a) Blood vessels constrict
b) Blood pressure decreases
c) Sweating increases
d) Heart rate decreases
Answer: a) Blood vessels constrict
Q&A:
1. Why has memory loss been traditionally associated with aging?
A: Memory loss has long been considered a result of aging due to common observations of
declining memory as people grow older.
54
2. What is "Memory Cognitive Impairment" (MCI) and what causes it?
A: MCI is a condition causing memory impairment. While aging plays a role, physicians now
believe that pathological factors also contribute to memory impairment.
3. What are the two types of amnesia?
A: The two types of amnesia are retrograde amnesia and anterograde amnesia.
4. What are the major symptoms of dementia?
A: Symptoms of dementia include repeating things, speech problems, intellectual difficulties,

and the inability to remember skills learned early in life.
5. What is a common cause of memory loss in elderly individuals?
A: Alzheimer's disease is a common cause of memory loss in elderly people.
6. How does Huntington's disease impact the brain?
A: Huntington's disease affects important brain regions like the basal ganglia, leading to
involuntary movements and cognitive impairment.
7. What are primary motives, and what do they include?
A: Primary motives are innate biological needs such as hunger, thirst, sleep, pain avoidance, sex,
excretion, air, and warmth/cold.
8. What is the role of the hypothalamus in hunger regulation?
A: The hypothalamus is a vital organ that regulates hunger by controlling eating behaviors and
related mechanisms.
9. How do societal rules and conventions affect eating behavior?
A: Societal rules and conventions influence eating patterns and behaviors, contributing to the
regulation of hunger.
10. How does thirst drive operate internally in the body?
A: Thirst is regulated internally through mechanisms triggered by high salt concentration, low
fluid volume, and increased body temperature.
11. Why is restorative sleep important?
55
A: Restorative sleep is important for effective functioning as it allows the body to recover and
recharge after daily activities.
12. What psychological factors can cause fatigue?
A: Factors like frustration, anxiety, tension, and boredom can cause psychological fatigue in
addition to physical exertion.
13. What are some secondary motives and their significance?
A: Secondary motives involve appreciation or appraisal in society. They contribute to mental

satisfaction and provide a means of satisfying primary motives.
14. How does the body maintain a constant temperature?
A: The body regulates temperature through the hypothalamus, adapting to external

environmental changes to maintain homeostasis.
15. What makes pain a drive?
A: Pain serves as a drive to avoid injury, scars, and wounds. Persistent pain triggers a drive to
alleviate it.
16. Why the sex drive is considered essential for species survival?
A: The sex drive is essential for species survival as it ensures reproduction and continuation of
the population.
17. How does toilet training influence personality development?
A: Toilet training in early childhood can influence personality development and security later in
life.
18. Why is a continual supply of oxygen crucial to the brain?
A: Oxygen deprivation, even for a few seconds, can lead to anoxia or neural damage in the brain,
affecting mental functioning.
19. How does the body respond to external temperature changes?
A: The body responds to external temperature changes by adapting blood flow, heart rate, and
other mechanisms through the hypothalamus.
20. What is servo control in relation to body temperature?
56
A: Servo control refers to adjustments made to maintain a constant body temperature, including
using external tools like blankets and air-conditioners, often guided by the hypothalamus.
Lesson 26
SECONDARY/ LEARNT/ PSYCHOLOGICAL
MOTIVES
MCQs:
1. Which category of needs is primarily concerned with biological necessities like hunger,
thirst, and sleep?
a) Meta needs
b) Growth needs
c) Deficiency needs
d) Extrinsic needs
Answer: c) Deficiency needs
2. What psychological motive is characterized by the desire to influence or hold power

over others?
a) Need for achievement
b) Need for affiliation
c) Curiosity
d) Need for power
Answer: d) Need for power
3. What is the concept of maintaining an optimal level of stimulation and activity known
as?
a) Incentive theory
57
b) Arousal theory
c) Drive-reduction theory
d) Expectancy theory
Answer: b) Arousal theory
4. Which type of motivation is driven by internal factors and personal satisfaction?
a) Intrinsic motivation
b) Extrinsic motivation
c) Drive-reduction motivation
d) Incentive motivation
Answer: a) Intrinsic motivation
5. What does Abraham Maslow's hierarchy of needs propose regarding human needs?
a) Needs are solely biological in nature.
b) All needs are met simultaneously.
c) Needs are ranked in order of importance.
d) Psychological needs are irrelevant.
Answer: c) Needs are ranked in order of importance.
6. According to Maslow's hierarchy of needs, which category includes physiological needs

like food and water?
a) Safety needs
b) Love and belongingness needs
c) Self-actualization needs
d) Physiological needs
Answer: d) Physiological needs
7. Which theory explains motivation in terms of external events that stimulate behavior?
58
a) Drive-reduction theory
b) Incentive theory
c) Arousal theory
d) Expectancy theory
Answer: b) Incentive theory
8. What kind of motivation is focused on enjoyment and personal satisfaction, without

external rewards?
a) Intrinsic motivation
b) Extrinsic motivation
c) Drive-reduction motivation
d) Incentive motivation
Answer: a) Intrinsic motivation
9. What is the fundamental characteristic of the need for achievement?
a) Desire for affiliation
b) Desire for power
c) Striving for excellence and success
d) Curiosity and exploration
Answer: c) Striving for excellence and success
10. Which type of needs are driven by deficiencies and are fulfilled to remove those
deficiencies?
a) Meta needs
b) Growth needs
c) Deficiency needs
d) Intrinsic needs
59
Answer: c) Deficiency needs
11. What is the primary source of satisfaction in the need for achievement?
a) Achieving the goal
b) Striving for the goal
c) Competing with others
d) Desiring social recognition
Answer: b) Striving for the goal
12. Which theory explains motivation in terms of internal cognitive processes like
expectations and values?
a) Instinct theory
b) Drive-reduction theory
c) Arousal theory
d) Cognitive theory
Answer: d) Cognitive theory
13. What role does the hypothalamus play in the arousal theory of motivation?
a) It controls external incentives.
b) It regulates internal biological balance.
c) It determines the hierarchy of needs.
d) It influences social interactions.
Answer: b) It regulates internal biological balance.
14. Which motive involves the desire to maintain social relationships and interact with
others?
b) Need for power
60
c) Need for affiliation
d) Curiosity
Answer: c) Need for affiliation
15. What is the primary factor that determines the level of motivation in the expectancy-
value theory?
a) Biological drives
b) Cognitive processes
c) External incentives
d) Cultural factors
Answer: b) Cognitive processes
16. Which theory emphasizes the importance of biological instincts and species-specific
behaviors?
a) Cognitive theory
b) Instinct theory
c) Arousal theory
d) Incentive theory
Answer: b) Instinct theory
17. What is the term for rewards that energize and drive behavior in the incentive theory?
a) Needs
b) Meta needs
c) Incentives
d) Instincts
Answer: c) Incentives
18. Which psychological motive involves the desire to explore and seek answers?
61
b) Curiosity
c) Need for power
d) Need for affiliation
Answer: b) Curiosity
19. According to Maslow's hierarchy of needs, what category includes the desire for
recognition and respect?
a) Love and belongingness needs
b) Safety needs
d) Esteem needs
Answer: d) Esteem needs
20. In Maslow's hierarchy of needs, which category involves fulfilling one's potential and
striving for personal growth?
a) Safety needs
b) Love and belongingness needs
d) Physiological needs
Answer: c) Self-actualization needs
Q&A:
1. What are the main psychological needs besides basic biological needs, and how are
they expressed?
Answer: The main psychological needs are achievement, curiosity, need for appraisal, need for
affiliation, need for power, and work as a motive. These needs are expressed through society and
culture in which an individual lives.
62
2. How the non-satisfaction of psychological might needs lead to mental illness?
Answer: When psychological needs are not met, it can result in frustration, dissatisfaction, and
emotional distress, which over time could contribute to the development of mental health issues.
3. Describe the characteristic feature of the need for achievement.
Answer: The need for achievement involves striving for excellence and success. It is
characterized by the desire to achieve something, a goal, object of desire, or position/status. The
satisfaction comes not only from achieving the goal but also from the act of working towards it.
4. How does the level of the need for achievement vary among individuals?
Answer: The level of the need for achievement varies from person to person. Some individuals
are high achievers, driven to take on challenges and overcome them, while others are low
achievers who tend to avoid failure and opt for easier tasks.
5. What is the role of competition in achievement motivation?
Answer: Competition is an important element of achievement motivation. It can drive

individuals to push themselves to succeed and overcome challenges, as high achievers thrive on
competitive situations.
6. How can the Thematic Apperception Test (TAT) be used to measure achievement
motivation?
Answer: The TAT presents ambiguous pictures to individuals and asks them to create stories
about the pictures. The stories reflect the person's needs, desires, and motivations to succeed. By
analyzing the content of these stories, psychologists can gauge an individual's achievement
motivation.
7. What are some factors that contribute to the need for achievement?
Answer: Parents who set high standards and encourage independence, as well as having high-
achieving siblings, can contribute to the need for achievement in an individual. These
experiences shape a person's motivation to excel.
8. What is the significance of curiosity as a psychological motive?
Answer: Curiosity drives individuals to explore and seek answers to various puzzles and
questions. It is an inborn but learned motive found in both humans and animals. Curiosity is
encouraged by parents and can be influenced by teaching methodologies in schools.
9. How does the need for affiliation manifest itself in individuals?
63
Answer: The need for affiliation involves the desire to maintain relationships and social contact
with others. Individuals with this need seek out friendships and connections to avoid isolation
and loneliness.
10. What is the primary motivation behind the need for power?
Answer: The need for power is driven by the desire to influence, rule over, or hold authority
over others. Individuals with a high need for power often seek positions of influence in
organizations and professions.
11. How does the intrinsic motivation differ from extrinsic motivation?
Answer: Intrinsic motivation comes from within and is driven by personal enjoyment and
satisfaction. Extrinsic motivation, on the other hand, involves external rewards or incentives like
money or social recognition.
12. How does the Expectancy-Value Theory explain motivation?
Answer: The Expectancy-Value Theory emphasizes cognitive processes like expectations and
values. The level of motivation is determined by the combination of an individual's expectation
that their behavior will lead to a goal and the value they attach to that goal.
13. Explain the concept of Maslow's Hierarchy of Needs.
Answer: Maslow's Hierarchy of Needs is a stage theory that categorizes human needs into
different levels. The lowest level includes physiological needs like food and water, and as each
level is satisfied, individuals progress to higher-order needs, culminating in self-actualization.
14. What is the distinction between meta needs and deficiency needs in Maslow's theory?
Answer: Meta needs are based on a desire for personal growth and self-actualization. Deficiency
needs are based on the absence of certain requirements and include physiological needs, love
needs, and esteem needs.
15. What are the criticisms against Maslow's Hierarchy of Needs theory?
Answer: Despite its comprehensiveness, Maslow's theory has been criticized for its lack of
empirical evidence supporting the ranking of needs and the universality of their order. It's also
questioned whether needs can always be neatly ordered as the theory suggests.
16. How does the arousal theory explain optimal functioning?
Answer: The arousal theory posits that individuals seek to maintain an optimal level of arousal
and stimulation. Too much or too little arousal can negatively affect performance, and a balanced
level of arousal is needed for optimal functioning.
64
17. What role does the drive-reduction theory play in motivation?
Answer: The drive-reduction theory suggests that unfulfilled biological needs create a state of
arousal or tension that motivates individuals to fulfill those needs. Homeostasis, the body's
balanced state, is maintained through reducing drives.
18. How does the incentive theory explain motivation?
Answer: The incentive theory focuses on external stimuli, rewards, and incentives that energize
behavior. While it considers external factors more than internal drives, it's criticized for not fully
explaining behavior in the absence of apparent incentives.
19. What is the significance of cognitive processes in explaining motivation?
Answer: Cognitive theories highlight the role of thoughts, feelings, expectations, and
evaluations in motivating behavior. The Expectancy-Value Theory is an example that
emphasizes the importance of cognitive processes in motivation.
20. What is the main concept behind Maslow's emphasis on self-actualization?
Answer: Maslow believed in looking at the positive side of human beings and their potential for
growth and self-actualization. He rejected the idea that all needs are solely physiological and
emphasized that people have positive needs that can lead to personal growth and fulfillment.
Lecture No. 27
EMOTIONS I
MCQs:
1. What does the term "emotion" mean, derived from the Latin word "Emovere"?
a) To rest
b) To sleep
c) To excite
d) To eat
Answer: c) To excite
2. Which of the following is NOT a component of emotional experience?
65
a) Physiological
b) Behavioral
c) Cognitive
d) Rational
Answer: d) Rational
3. Which component of emotion involves physiological changes such as increased heart

rate?
a) Cognitive
b) Physiological
c) Behavioral
d) Logical
Answer: b) Physiological
4. What is the term for the outward expression of emotions through body language?
a) Physiological component
b) Cognitive component
c) Behavioral component
d) Psychological arousal
Answer: c) Behavioral component
5. Which psychologist divided emotions into three types: primary, secondary, and
derived?
a) Carl Rogers
b) B.F. Skinner
c) Sigmund Freud
d) William McDougall
66
Answer: d) William McDougall
6. What is the cognitive component of emotion concerned with?
a) Physiological changes
b) Facial expressions
c) Behavioral responses
d) Interpretation of situations
Answer: d) Interpretation of situations
7. According to Robert Plutchik's emotional wheel, which of these is NOT a basic

emotion?
a) Fear
b) Anticipation
c) Curiosity
d) Joy
Answer: c) Curiosity
8. Which part of the autonomic nervous system prepares the body for fight or flight
response?
a) Parasympathetic nervous system
b) Sympathetic nervous system
c) Central nervous system
d) Somatic nervous system
Answer: b) Sympathetic nervous system
9. Which hemisphere of the brain is more active in recognizing and expressing

emotions?
a) Left hemisphere
b) Right hemisphere
67
c) Frontal hemisphere
d) Occipital hemisphere
Answer: b) Right hemisphere
10. Which component of emotions involves vocal, verbal, and facial expressions?
a) Physiological
b) Cognitive
c) Behavioral
d) Rational
Answer: c) Behavioral
11. What physiological changes may occur during an emotional response?
a) Decreased heart rate
b) Lowered blood pressure
c) Decreased respiration
d) Increased blood sugar
Answer: d) Increased blood sugar
12. Which nervous system is responsible for controlling and regulating emotional
experiences and expressions?
a) Central nervous system
b) Somatic nervous system
c) Sympathetic nervous system
d) Autonomic nervous system
Answer: d) Autonomic nervous system
13. Who proposed the theory of primary emotions, including anger, love, and fear?
a) B.F. Skinner
68
b) Sigmund Freud
c) John B. Watson
d) Carl Rogers
Answer: c) John B. Watson
14. What is the main role of the parasympathetic nervous system?
a) Arousal for fight or flight
b) Elevation of blood sugar
c) Conservation of energy
d) Enhancement of alertness
Answer: c) Conservation of energy
15. According to Plutchik's emotional wheel, what are the emotions closer to each other
conceptually?
a) Related
b) Opposites
c) Similar
d) Neutral
Answer: a) Related
16. What is the primary function of the physiological component of emotions?
a) Influencing behavior
b) Displaying body language
c) Regulating autonomic responses
d) Interpreting situations
Answer: c) Regulating autonomic responses
17. Which component of emotion involves interpreting situations or stimulations?
69
a) Physiological
b) Behavioral
c) Cognitive
d) Expressive
Answer: c) Cognitive
18. Which hemisphere of the brain is believed to control positive emotions?
a) Left hemisphere
b) Right hemisphere
c) Central hemisphere
d) Occipital hemisphere
Answer: a) Left hemisphere
19. What is the function of the sympathetic nervous system?
a) Conserving energy
b) Slowing heart rate
c) Calming the body
d) Arousing for action
Answer: d) Arousing for action
20. What is the significance of facial expressions in interpreting emotions?
a) They only convey verbal emotions
b) They are universal and culture-independent
c) They only convey physiological arousal
d) They indicate cognitive experiences
Answer: b) They are universal and culture-independent
70
Q&A:
1. What does the term "emotion" mean, derived from the Latin word "Emovere"?
Answer: "to excite, stir up or agitate"
2. What are the three components that make up the amalgamation of emotions?
Answer:
i) Physiological arousal, ii) Expression, and iii) Cognitive experience of the situation
3. According to psychology, how is emotion considered in response to stimuli?
Answer: Emotion is considered a response to stimuli that involves characteristic

physiological changes and tends to motivate the individual toward further activity.
4. What are the three components of emotions that have cognitive, physiological, and
behavioral aspects?
Answer: Cognitive, Physiological, and Behavioral components
5. What is the main role of the physiological component of emotion?
Answer: The physiological component involves psychological arousal that

accompanies the emotion the body is feeling, influencing its intensity.
6. What is the purpose of the behavioral component of emotions?
Answer: The behavioral component is the outward expression of emotions through

body gestures, posture, facial expressions, and tone of voice.
7. According to McDougall, what are the three types of emotions he divided them into?
Answer: i) Primary emotions (simple), ii) Secondary emotions (mixture of instincts),

iii) Derived emotions (learned through experiences)
8. Why might your heart pound and you burst into tears upon hearing dreadful news?
Answer: Emotional responses can trigger physiological changes, such as increased

heart rate and tears, due to the cognitive appraisal of the situation.
9. Why might people become afraid when they see a snake?
71
Answer: The sight of a snake can trigger fear due to the brain's recognition of the
threat and subsequent emotional response.
10. Why does the heart beat at a high speed during jogging or exercise?
Answer: Physical exertion triggers the sympathetic nervous system, preparing the
body for action and increasing heart rate.
11. Why might people's faces turn red when hearing good news?
Answer: Emotional responses, including excitement, can lead to physiological

changes like increased blood flow to the face, causing reddening.
12. Why might the same bodily changes manifest in different emotional experiences?
Answer: The same physiological changes can accompany different emotions, but the
accompanying expressions and cognitive interpretations make the experiences
different.
13. What role do vocal, verbal, and facial expressions play in determining emotions?
Answer: Expressions convey emotions and help in interactions; they reflect intensity,
but cultural influences can impact their interpretation.
14. According to some psychologists, how do memory, cognition, and emotional response
relate?
Answer: Some believe that memory and cognition are separate systems; others argue
that we emotionally respond to situations and then understand them cognitively.
15. What role does the autonomic nervous system play in regulating emotions?
Answer: The autonomic nervous system controls and regulates emotional experiences
and expressions, including the sympathetic and parasympathetic systems.
16. What are the eight fundamental emotions identified by Robert Plutchik?
Answer: joy, anger, sadness, surprise, fear, acceptance, disgust, and anticipation
17. Which part of the autonomic nervous system prepares the body for fight or flight
response?
Answer: Sympathetic Nervous System (SNS)
18. What role does the right hemisphere of the brain play in recognizing and expressing
emotions?
72
Answer: The right hemisphere is active in recognizing and expressing emotions,
responding to body language and tone of voice.
19. What is the significance of the physiological component of emotions?
Answer: The physiological component involves changes in heart rate, respiration,

blood pressure, and more during emotional states.
20. How do the sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous systems work together to
maintain homeostasis?
Answer: They collaborate to keep the body in a steady internal state, with the
sympathetic system arousing for action and the parasympathetic system calming it
afterward.
Lesson 28
EMOTIONS II
MCQs:
1. What major physiological changes occur during emotions that psychologists
believed could be indicators of emotions?
a) Visual changes
b) Auditory changes
c) Respiratory changes
d) Olfactory changes
Answer: c) Respiratory changes
2. What is the primary physiological change observed during emotions?
a) Production and secretion of saliva
b) Pupillary dilation
c) Heartbeat decrease
d) Increase in respiration
73
Answer: d) Increase in respiration
3. What term refers to the phenomenon where the pupil of the eye dilates in response
to favorable stimuli and contracts in response to unfavorable stimuli?
a) Olfactometrics
b) Pupillometrics
c) Auriculometrics
d) Cutanometrics
Answer: b) Pupillometrics
4. Which of the following is a common change in blood pressure and heart rate during
emotional states?
a) Decrease in blood pressure and heart rate
b) No change in blood pressure and heart rate
c) Increase in blood pressure and heart rate
d) Decrease in blood pressure and increase in heart rate
Answer: c) Increase in blood pressure and heart rate
5. Excessive amounts of which hormones are secreted during strong emotional states
like anger or fear?
a) Insulin
b) Melatonin
c) Adrenaline and noradrenaline
d) Estrogen and testosterone
Answer: c) Adrenaline and noradrenaline
6. Which theory of emotions proposes that emotions result from the physiological
arousal as well as cognitive appraisal of the situation?
a) James-Lange theory
74
b) Cannon-Bard theory
c) Schechter-Singer theory
d) Lazarus's cognitive appraisal theory
Answer: c) Schechter-Singer theory
7. According to the Schechter-Singer theory, what determines the title or label of the
emotion?
a) The physiological arousal only
b) The cognitive appraisal only
c) Both the physiological arousal and cognitive appraisal
d) The external environment only
Answer: c) Both the physiological arousal and cognitive appraisal
8. Which theory of emotions proposes that every emotional arousal has an opposite
emotion that suppresses or cancels it out?
c) Opponent-Process theory
d) Activation theory
Answer: c) Opponent-Process theory
9. According to the Activation theory by Lindsley, what part of the brain is responsible
for arousing or exciting the organism?
a) Hippocampus
b) Amygdala
c) Reticular system
d) Thalamus
Answer: c) Reticular system
75
10. The theory of emotions proposed by Albert Ellis suggests that emotions originate
from which three different ways?
a) Sensory, emotional, and cognitive
b) Sensory-motor, biochemical, and cognitive
c) Physiological, cognitive, and social
d) Physical, psychological, and social
Answer: b) Sensory-motor, biochemical, and cognitive
11. The primary appraisal in the Cognitive Appraisal Theory evaluates:
a) The intensity of the emotion
b) The beneficial or harmful nature of the stimulus
c) The physiological changes in the body
d) The cognitive responses of other people
Answer: b) The beneficial or harmful nature of the stimulus
12. Which of the following is NOT one of the physiological changes mentioned as
common bodily changes during emotions?
a) Dryness of throat and mouth
b) Muscle tension
c) Increased appetite
d) Trembling
Answer: c) Increased appetite
13. The James-Lange theory of emotions suggests that:
a) Emotions result from cognitive appraisal only
b) Emotions result from physiological responses only
c) Physiological changes follow emotional experience
76
d) Emotional experience follows physiological responses
Answer: c) Physiological changes follow emotional experience
14. The Cannon-Bard theory of emotions proposes that:
a) Emotional experience follows physiological responses
b) Physiological changes follow emotional experience
c) Emotions are purely cognitive in nature
d) Emotional responses are generated in the thalamus
Answer: b) Physiological changes follow emotional experience
15. According to the Schechter-Singer theory of emotions, what determines the type of
emotion experienced?
a) Cognitive appraisal alone
b) Physiological arousal alone
c) The intensity of the stimulus
d) A combination of physiological arousal and cognitive appraisal
Answer: d) A combination of physiological arousal and cognitive appraisal
16. The Opponent-Process theory suggests that:
a) Physiological responses and emotional experiences are independent
b) Every emotion has an opposite emotion that suppresses it
c) Emotional experiences originate from cognitive evaluations only
d) Emotional experiences result from biochemical reactions
Answer: b) Every emotion has an opposite emotion that suppresses it
17. The Cognitive Labeling Theory (Schachter-Singer theory) emphasizes the

importance of:
a) Physiological arousal only
77
b) Cognitive appraisal only
c) Both physiological arousal and cognitive appraisal
d) External environmental factors only
Answer: c) Both physiological arousal and cognitive appraisal
18. Which theory of emotions suggests that emotional experience cannot be understood
solely on its own and must be evaluated with respect to the environment?
c) Schechter-Singer theory
d) Cognitive Appraisal Theory
Answer: d) Cognitive Appraisal Theory
19. The theory of emotions proposed by Magda Arnold suggests that emotions involve:
a) Sequential perception and interpretation
b) Sensory-motor responses only
c) Purely physiological responses
d) Emotional responses without cognitive input
Answer: a) Sequential perception and interpretation
20. The Opponent-Process theory asserts that emotional arousal:
a) Remains constant and does not change
b) Always results in a positive emotion
c) Has an opposite emotion that balances it
d) Is solely determined by cognitive appraisal
Answer: c) Has an opposite emotion that balances it
78
Q&A:
1. What did psychologists believe could be quantitatively measured to indicate emotions?
A: Psychologists believed that different physiological responses of an individual could be

quantitatively measured to indicate emotions.
2. What is the primary physiological change observed during emotions?
A: The primary physiological change observed during emotions is an increase in respiration.
3. How does the pupil of the eye respond during emotions?
A: The pupil of the eye dilates in response to favorable stimuli and contracts in response to
unfavorable stimuli.
4. What variations in blood pressure and heart rate occur during emotions?
A: Blood pressure and heart rate usually increase during an emotional state.
5. What are the effects of excessive amounts of hormones adrenaline and noradrenaline
during strong emotional states?
A: Excessive amounts of these hormones lead to heightened blood pressure, increased pulse rate,
pupil enlargement, increased sweat production, and elevated skin temperature.
6. How does the Cannon-Bard theory explain the relationship between emotional states
and physiological reactions?
A: The Cannon-Bard theory suggests that emotional states and physiological reactions work
independently but are triggered simultaneously by the same nerve impulse.
7. According to the Schechter-Singer theory, what jointly determines emotional

experience?
A: Emotional experience is jointly determined by nonspecific physiological arousal and the

interpretation of the experience based on environmental cues.
8. What are the two basic types of appraisal in Richard Lazarus's Cognitive Appraisal
Theory?
A: The two basic types of appraisal are primary appraisal, which evaluates whether the situation
is threatening, and secondary appraisal, which involves considering alternatives to deal with the
perceived threat.
79
9. What are some common bodily changes that occur during emotions?
A: Common bodily changes during emotions include dryness of throat and mouth, muscle
tension, weakness or fainting, trembling, and a sinking feeling in the heart or stomach.
10. What is the James-Lange theory of emotions and who developed it?
A: The James-Lange theory, developed by William James and Carl Lange, suggests that
emotional experience occurs in reaction to instinctive bodily events resulting from an external
situation.
11. What is the primary criticism against the James-Lange theory of emotions?
A: The primary criticism is that emotional experiences often occur immediately after a triggering
stimulus, making it unlikely for physiological responses to precede emotions in all cases.
12. According to the Cannon-Bard theory, what triggers emotional states and
physiological reactions?
A: The Cannon-Bard theory proposes that emotional states and physiological reactions are
triggered independently by the same nerve impulse.
13. How does the Schechter-Singer theory explain the role of cognitive appraisal in
emotional experience?
A: The Schechter-Singer theory asserts that emotions result from both physiological arousal and
cognitive appraisal of the situation.
14. What is the Cognitive Appraisal Theory proposed by Richard Lazarus?
A: Richard Lazarus's Cognitive Appraisal Theory maintains that emotional experience cannot
solely be understood on its own and must be evaluated with respect to the environment.
15. How does the Opponent-Process Theory explain emotional arousal?
A: The Opponent-Process Theory suggests that every emotional arousal has an opposite emotion
that works to suppress or cancel it, maintaining emotional arousal at a baseline.
16. What is the Activation Theory proposed by Lindsley?
A: The Activation Theory by Lindsley suggests that emotional arousal is based on the activation
of the reticular system in the brain stem, which excites the organism.
17. What are the three ways in which Albert Ellis proposed emotions originate?
80
A: Albert Ellis proposed that emotions originate from sensory-motor processes, biochemical
stimulation, and cognitive and thinking processes.
18. How does Magda Arnold's Sequential Model explain emotions?
A: Magda Arnold's Sequential Model describes emotions as involving sequential processes,

including perception, appraisal, determining emotions, expressing emotions, and deciding
whether to approach or withdraw from a situation.
19. How does the Opponent-Process Theory explain emotional responses?
A: The Opponent-Process Theory suggests that emotions are accompanied by an opposite

emotion that suppresses or cancels the initial emotional response, maintaining emotional balance.
20. What are some of the important theories of emotions besides the James-Lange,
Cannon-Bard, and Schechter-Singer theories?
A: Other important theories of emotions include the Cognitive Appraisal Theory, Cognitive
Theory, Opponent-Process Theory, Activation Theory, and the Theory of Emotions proposed by
Albert Ellis.
Lesson 29
COGNITION AND THINKING
MCQs:
1. What does cognition refer to?
a) The process of breathing
b) The process of digestion
c) The process of knowing and what is known
d) The process of sleeping
Answer: c) The process of knowing and what is known
2. Which branch of psychology studies cognition and related areas?
a) Social Psychology
b) Behavioral Psychology
81
c) Cognitive Psychology
d) Developmental Psychology
Answer: c) Cognitive Psychology
3. What are mental representations?
a) Physical objects
b) Images captured by cameras
c) Mental images or symbols representing information
d) Concepts that are learned
Answer: c) Mental images or symbols representing information
4. Which of the following is NOT a type of mental representation?
a) Visual images
b) Sound waves
c) Physical objects
d) Words
Answer: c) Physical objects
5. Which process transforms mental representations into a new and different form?
a) Perception
b) Memory
c) Thinking
d) Dreaming
Answer: c) Thinking
6. What is a prototype?
a) A unique concept with specific traits
82
b) A common concept shared by everyone
c) A typical and highly representative example of a concept
d) A complex concept that cannot be defined
Answer: c) A typical and highly representative example of a concept
7. What is deductive reasoning?
a) Drawing conclusions from specific cases
b) Drawing conclusions from general assumptions
c) Drawing conclusions from personal experiences
d) Drawing conclusions from vague concepts
Answer: b) Drawing conclusions from general assumptions
8. What is the process of using reason, logic, and past experiences for decision-making
and problem solving?
a) Dreaming
b) Deductive reasoning
c) Abstract thinking
d) Cognition
Answer: d) Cognition
9. Which type of reasoning draws logical conclusions from a set of assumptions?
a) Inductive reasoning
b) Concrete reasoning
c) Deductive reasoning
d) Creative reasoning
Answer: c) Deductive reasoning
10. What are the fundamental elements of thinking discussed in the text?
83
a) Memory and perception
b) Mental images and concepts
c) Perception and language
d) Logic and intuition
Answer: b) Mental images and concepts
11. Which of the following is NOT a type of concept?
a) Natural concepts
b) Prototype concepts
c) Cultural concepts
d) Artificial concepts
Answer: c) Cultural concepts
12. What is the main purpose of concepts in cognition?
a) To confuse people
b) To categorize and simplify complex phenomena
c) To make things more complicated
d) To replace sensory experiences
Answer: b) To categorize and simplify complex phenomena
13. Which branch of psychology studies cognition and its related areas?
a) Cognitive Psychology
b) Clinical Psychology
c) Behavioral Psychology
d) Social Psychology
Answer: a) Cognitive Psychology
84
14. What is the primary function of concepts?
a) To represent physical objects
b) To confuse people
c) To categorize and organize information
d) To create mental images
Answer: c) To categorize and organize information
15. What is the process of using reason, logic, and past experiences for decision-making
and problem solving?
a) Deductive reasoning
b) Inductive reasoning
c) Cognition
d) Abstract thinking
Answer: c) Cognition
16. Which type of reasoning involves drawing general conclusions from specific cases?
a) Deductive reasoning
b) Inductive reasoning
c) Abstract reasoning
d) Concrete reasoning
Answer: b) Inductive reasoning
17. What is the term for the mental representations of objects and events that we are or
have been in contact with?
a) Visualizations
b) Symbols
c) Mental images
85
d) Prototypes
Answer: c) Mental images
18. Which type of concepts are based on specific traits and features and are easy to define?
a) Natural concepts
b) Prototype concepts
c) Artificial concepts
d) Abstract concepts
Answer: c) Artificial concepts
19. What is the primary function of mental images in thinking?
a) To confuse the thinker
b) To replace language
c) To enhance sensory experiences
d) To manipulate representations
Answer: d) To manipulate representations
20. What distinguishes humans' thinking ability from that of other organisms?
a) Foresight and hindsight
b) Memory capacity
c) Rapid decision-making
d) Improved sensory perception
Answer: a) Foresight and hindsight
Q&A:
1. What does the term "cognition" refer to?
Answer: The term "cognition" refers to the process of knowing as well as what is known.
86
2. How do humans understand the world, make judgments, and communicate knowledge
to others?
Answer: Humans achieve these processes through their mental faculties, known as cognition.
3. What are memory, intelligence, and language in relation to cognition?
Answer: Memory, intelligence, and language are significant aspects of cognition.
4. How is the term "cognition" used in psychology?
Answer: In psychology, the term "cognition" is used to refer to an individual's mental processes,
including beliefs, desires, intentions, and information processing.
5. What does cognitive psychology study?
Answer: Cognitive psychology is the branch of psychology that focuses on the study of
cognition and related areas.
6. How is thinking defined?
Answer: Thinking is defined as the process of manipulating mental representations to transform

them into new and different forms.
7. How does thinking transform mental representations?
Answer: Thinking transforms mental representations through processes such as finding answers,
solving problems, and exploring reality.
8. Give examples of mental images.
Answer: Mental images can be in the form of visual images, sounds, and various sensory
experiences.
9. How are mental images used to improve thinking skills?
Answer: Mental images can be enhanced through exercises that sharpen thinking capacity,
problem-solving skills, and creative thinking.
10. How can mental images be applied to improve other skills besides thinking?
Answer: Mental images, when used as mental rehearsals, can be beneficial in enhancing skills
such as jogging, athletics, dancing, and public speaking.
11. What is the purpose of concepts in cognition?
87
Answer: Concepts categorize and organize objects, events, and people that share common
properties, making complex phenomena simpler to understand.
12. How do concepts help in organizing information?
Answer: Concepts enable the establishment of cognitive categories and aid in organizing
complex phenomena into manageable forms.
13. What are the three main types of concepts?
Answer: The three main types of concepts are artificial concepts, natural concepts, and
prototype concepts.
14. Define artificial concepts.
Answer: Artificial concepts are concepts with a unique set of traits and features that can be
clearly defined and elaborated.
15. How do natural concepts differ from artificial concepts?
Answer: Natural concepts are familiar, relatively simple concepts with loose features that can
vary from person to person and are not universal.
16. What is a prototype concept?
Answer: A prototype concept is a highly representative example of a concept that is used to

define and explain objects and ideas.
17. How do prototypes assist in communicating concepts?
Answer: Prototypes help in communicating ideas, thoughts, and feelings even when the actual
object is not present.
18. How do humans utilize thinking and reasoning?
Answer: Humans have the unique ability to contemplate, analyze, recollect, plan, and carry out
behaviors through thinking and reasoning.
19. What is deductive reasoning?
Answer: Deductive reasoning involves drawing logical conclusions and inferences from a set of
assumptions, which are thought to be true.
20. How does cultural background influence deductive thinking?
88
Answer: Cultural backgrounds can influence deductive thinking by shaping individuals' abstract
and logical thinking skills based on their educational experiences and society's pressure to think
logically and independently.
Lesson 30
THINKING, REASONING, PROBLEM- SOLVING
AND CREATIVITY
MCQs:
Inductive Reasoning:
1. What is a characteristic of inductive reasoning?
a) It relies on deductive logic.
b) It uses general principles to draw specific conclusions.
c) It uses specific cues to draw inferences.
d) It avoids observation and experience.
Answer: c) It uses specific cues to draw inferences.
2. Inductive thinking involves drawing inferences based on:
a) Abstract concepts.
b) General principles.
c) Personal bias.
d) Observation, knowledge, and experience.
Answer: d) Observation, knowledge, and experience.
Problem Solving:
3. What are the three major steps involved in problem-solving?
89
a) Introduction, analysis, conclusion.
b) Preparation, production, evaluation.
c) Observation, brainstorming, resolution.
d) Reading, writing, arithmetic.
Answer: b) Preparation, production, evaluation.
4. An ill-defined problem is characterized by:
a) Clear solutions available.
b) Lack of specific definition and solutions.
c) A straightforward approach to solving.
d) Multiple well-formed criteria.
Answer: b) Lack of specific definition and solutions.
Creativity and Thinking:
5. What is creativity defined as?
a) Sticking to established norms.
b) Replicating existing ideas.
c) Generating innovative responses and ideas.
d) Following strict rules.
Answer: c) Generating innovative responses and ideas.
6. What are the two means by which creativity can be fostered?
a) Repetition and imitation.
b) Inspiration and imitation.
c) Hard work and conformity.
d) Inspiration and hard work.
90
Answer: d) Inspiration and hard work.
Lateral Thinking:
7. Lateral thinking involves:
a) Seeking absolutes.
b) Finding new perspectives.
c) Ignoring creativity.
d) Following established patterns.
Answer: b) Finding new perspectives.
8. What does lateral thinking avoid?
a) Analyzing ideas.
b) Looking for right or wrong solutions.
c) Considering irrelevant information.
d) Challenging established norms.
Answer: b) Looking for right or wrong solutions.
Creative Problem Solving:
9. The "Reversal Technique" involves:
a) Solving problems step by step.
b) Turning a problem around and examining it differently.
c) Ignoring potential solutions.
d) Using only algorithms.
Answer: b) Turning a problem around and examining it differently.
10. What is the purpose of the "Analogy Technique" in creative problem-solving?
a) Developing similarities between objects.
91
b) Sticking to conventional solutions.
c) Analyzing complex relationships.
d) Avoiding creative solutions.
Answer: a) Developing similarities between objects.
11. Inductive reasoning involves:
a) Applying algorithms for problem-solving.
b) Drawing conclusions based on specific cues.
c) Using only observation without any prior knowledge.
d) Focusing solely on deductive logic.
Answer: b) Drawing conclusions based on specific cues.
12. What is the major shortcoming of inductive thinking?
a) Biased conclusions and insufficient evidence.
b) Overreliance on deductive reasoning.
c) Strict adherence to logical algorithms.
d) Dependence on creative thinking.
Answer: a) Biased conclusions and insufficient evidence.
Problem Solving:
13. What are the three major steps in problem-solving?
a) Insight, evaluation, execution.
b) Analysis, synthesis, implementation.
c) Preparation, production, appraisal.
d) Observation, deduction, validation.
92
Answer: c) Preparation, production, appraisal.
14. A well-defined problem is characterized by:
a) Unclear objectives and solutions.
b) Indefinite criteria for success.
c) Clear goals and available means of solving.
d) Lack of relevance to real-life situations.
Answer: c) Clear goals and available means of solving.
15. What is creativity defined as?
a) Repeating established patterns.
b) Generating novel and innovative ideas.
c) Relying solely on hard work.
d) Following conventional methods.
Answer: b) Generating novel and innovative ideas.
16. Which of the following fosters creativity?
a) Repetition and imitation.
b) Inspiration and hard work.
c) Rigid adherence to rules.
d) Avoidance of challenges.
Answer: b) Inspiration and hard work.
Lateral Thinking:
17. Lateral thinking involves:
a) Seeking absolutes and continuity.
93
b) Analyzing ideas to find the "right" solution.
c) Finding new perspectives and avoiding obvious solutions.
d) Utilizing only established patterns.
Answer: c) Finding new perspectives and avoiding obvious solutions.
18. Vertical thinking focuses on:
a) Avoiding the irrelevant.
b) Analyzing multiple solutions.
c) Discovering new ways of looking at things.
d) Seeking absolutes and rejecting creative solutions.
Answer: d) Seeking absolutes and rejecting creative solutions.
9. What does the "Reversal Technique" involve?
a) Solving a problem in a conventional manner.
b) Exchanging problems with peers.
c) Completely changing the perspective of a problem.
d) Ignoring the solution and focusing on the problem.
Answer: c) Completely changing the perspective of a problem.
10. Which technique involves seeking solutions from experts in unrelated fields?
a) Sub-goal analysis.
b) Cross Fertilization Technique.
c) Trial and error problem solving.
d) Convergent thinking.
Answer: b) Cross Fertilization Technique.
94
Q&A:
1. What is the role of specific cues in inductive reasoning?
A: Specific cues are used to draw inferences in inductive reasoning.
2. How does inductive thinking utilize observation, knowledge, and experience?
A: Inductive thinking draws different inferences about a phenomenon by using

observation, knowledge, and experience.
Problem Solving:
3. What are the three major steps involved in solving a problem?
A: The three major steps in problem-solving are preparation, production, and evaluation.
4. How does an ill-defined problem differ from a well-defined problem?
A: An ill-defined problem lacks a specific definition and clear solutions, while a well-
defined problem has clear parameters and available means of solving.
5. Define creativity in your own words.
A: Creativity involves generating novel and innovative ideas that come together in a
harmonious way.
6. How can creativity be fostered according to the lesson?
A: Creativity can be fostered through inspiration and hard work.
Lateral Thinking:
7. What is the primary focus of lateral thinking?
A: Lateral thinking seeks new perspectives and ways of looking at things.
8. What does lateral thinking avoid when analyzing ideas?
A: Lateral thinking avoids looking for right or wrong solutions.
95
9. Explain the "Reversal Technique" in creative problem-solving.
A: The "Reversal Technique" involves examining a problem by turning it around or

looking at it from a different angle.
10. What is the purpose of the "Analogy Technique"?
A: The "Analogy Technique" involves finding similarities between objects, persons, or

situations to develop new ideas.
Factors Influencing Creativity:
11. Name two factors that contribute to enhancing creativity.
A: Divergent thinking and convergent thinking are factors that enhance creativity.
12. What does divergent thinking involve?
A: Divergent thinking involves generating varied thoughts and solutions to a problem.
Impediments to Problem Solving:
13. Define "functional fixedness."
A: Functional fixedness is the tendency to think about something in its most typical or
conventional use.
14. What is "mental set" in problem-solving?
A: Mental set refers to the tendency to approach a problem using old, patterned ways of
thinking.
Stages in Creative Thinking:
15. List the stages of creative thinking.
A: The stages of creative thinking are preparation, incubation, illumination, verification,

and revision.
16. What happens during the "illumination" stage of creative thinking?
A: During illumination, innovative ideas are generated suddenly, often referred to as

insights.
96
Concept Challenge:
17. What is the purpose of a concept challenge in creative thinking?
A: A concept challenge involves questioning established ideas to find new solutions.
18. Provide an example of a concept challenge related to gender roles.
A: Challenging the idea that "women should do housework" encourages thinking beyond
traditional roles.
Cognitive Complexity:
19. What is cognitive complexity, and how does it relate to thinking patterns?
A: Cognitive complexity involves using philosophical and abstract thinking patterns,

often seen in those who appreciate complex stimuli and humor.
20. How does cognitive complexity differ from conventional thinking?
A: Cognitive complexity goes beyond conventional thinking by exploring intricate and

abstract concepts, as seen in humor and abstract reasoning.
Lesson 31
PERSONALITY I
MCQs:
1. When we say someone has a "gorgeous personality," we are referring to:
A) The person's physical appearance.
B) The overall impression the person leaves on our mind.
C) The way the person behaves with us.
D) The way others treat the person.
Answer: B
2. The primary focus of the psychodynamic approach is on:
97
A) Observational learning and conditioning.
B) Conscious thoughts and rational decision-making.
C) Unconscious determinants of personality.
D) Biological factors influencing behavior.
Answer: C
3. Which approach emphasizes the stability in a person's behavior across different

situations?
A) Humanistic approach
B) Cognitive approach
C) Behavioral approach
D) Trait approach
Answer: D
4. Which theorist disagreed with Freud's emphasis on sexual needs and instead focused on
the striving for superiority?
A) Sigmund Freud
B) B.F. Skinner
C) Carl Jung
D) Alfred Adler
Answer: D
5. According to Freud's psychoanalytic approach, the part of personality that operates

under the "pleasure principle" is:
A) Ego
B) Super ego
C) Id
D) Libido
98
Answer: C
6. Which defense mechanism involves attributing one's unwanted thoughts and impulses to
others?
A) Projection
B) Displacement
C) Rationalization D) Repression
Answer: A
7. Erik Erikson's theory of psychosocial development emphasizes:
A) The role of unconscious desires in personality development.
B) The importance of biological instincts in shaping behavior.
C) The impact of social interactions and cultural influences on personality.
D) The significance of genetic factors in personality traits.
Answer: C
8. The primary motivation according to Carl Jung's analytical psychology is:
A) Striving for superiority
B) Pleasure seeking
C) Unconscious desires
D) Aggressive instincts
Answer: A
9. Which trait theory suggests that personality can be described by a set of enduring
dimensions?
A) Humanistic approach
B) Trait approach
C) Behavioral approach
99
D) Cognitive approach
Answer: B
10. Gordon Allport's concept of "cardinal traits" refers to:
A) Basic traits that form the core of someone's personality.
B) The overall impression a person leaves on others.
C) Dominant traits that influence a person's entire life.
D) Traits that are secondary to a person's central traits.
Answer: C
11. According to Karen Horney, what can lead to the development of "basic anxiety"?
A) Overindulgence by parents
B) Proper parental nurturing
C) Strict discipline and punishment
D) Lack of social interaction
Answer: A
12. Which approach to personality emphasizes the role of social environment combined
with biological maturation?
A) Psychodynamic approach
B) Behavioral approach
C) Trait approach
D) Humanistic approach
Answer: A
13. What is the primary focus of the Neo-Freudian theorists' disagreements with Sigmund
Freud?
A) The role of unconscious desires
100
B) The importance of childhood experiences
C) The impact of social variables
D) The influence of biological instincts
Answer: C
14. Which term describes the energy for personal growth and development, as proposed by
Carl Jung?
A) Eros
B) Thanatos
C) Libido
D) Cathexis
Answer: C
15. Which theorist emphasized the role of birth order in influencing personality
development?
A) Carl Jung
B) Alfred Adler
C) Karen Horney
D) Erik Erikson
Answer: B
16. What is the central concept in Erik Erikson's theory of psychosocial development?
A) Basic anxiety
B) Libido
C) Birth order
D) Trust vs. mistrust
Answer: D
101
17. What is the primary focus of trait theories in understanding personality?
A) The role of unconscious desires
B) The impact of social interactions
C) Identifying basic enduring dimensions
D) The influence of genetics on behavior
Answer: C
18. Which approach is known for focusing on the "WHAT," "HOW," and "WHEN" of
personality characteristics?
A) Psychodynamic approach
B) Cognitive approach
C) Humanistic approach
D) Trait approach
Answer: D
19. According to Sigmund Freud, the unconscious mind:
A) Contains only thoughts and feelings of which we are immediately aware.
B) Can be accessed through conscious choice.
C) Contains instinctual drives and infantile wishes.
D) Operates under the "reality principle."
Answer: C
20. Which defense mechanism involves reverting back to a previous stage of development
that was satisfying?
A) Repression
B) Displacement
C) Regression
102
D) Rationalization
Answer: C
Q&A:
1. What is meant when someone says, "She has got a gorgeous personality!"?
A: They are referring to the overall impression and characteristics that make the person stand out
positively.
2. How would you describe a person with a "powerful personality"?
A: A person with a powerful personality is someone who exudes confidence, influence, and
strong presence.
3. What does it mean when someone is said to have a "dull personality"?
A: When someone is described as having a dull personality, it means they lack vibrancy and
interest in their behavior and interactions.
4. What does it imply when someone's personality is described as "vibrant"?
A: Describing someone's personality as vibrant means they have an energetic, lively, and
engaging presence.
5. When describing someone's personality, are we primarily talking about their looks?
A: No, when describing someone's personality, we are referring to the overall impression and
characteristics that define their behavior and interactions.
6. According to the lesson, what does personality consist of?
A: Personality consists of relatively enduring characteristics that shape a person's behavior and
make them act consistently in various situations.
7. In terms of personality, what are the "psychological makeup" and "cognitions"

referring to?
A: "Psychological makeup" and "cognitions" refer to a person's mental processes, thoughts,

feelings, emotions, and ways of perceiving and understanding the world.
8. What is the primary focus of the psychodynamic approach to understanding

personality?
103
A: The psychodynamic approach focuses on the unconscious determinants of personality and
believes that unconscious forces play a significant role in shaping behavior.
9. According to Sigmund Freud, where do unconscious instinctual drives reside?
A: Unconscious instinctual drives, including infantile wishes, desires, and needs, are hidden in
the unconscious mind.
10. What is the significance of the Oedipal conflict in psychodynamic theory?
A: The Oedipal conflict involves a child's positive feelings toward the opposite-sex parent and
negative feelings toward the same-sex parent, leading to a resolution through identification.
11. What is the role of the ego in psychodynamic theory?
A: The ego mediates between the id's demands for immediate gratification and the superego's
moral constraints, allowing the individual to navigate reality and make decisions.
12. What is the main goal of Erik Erikson's theory of psychosocial development?
A: Erikson's theory aims to explain how individuals develop their personalities through a series
of psychosocial stages that involve resolving crises related to social interactions and personal
growth.
13. How do trait theories of personality differentiate individuals?
A: Trait theories suggest that individuals possess enduring dimensions of personality

characteristics, called traits that differentiate them from one another.
14. According to Gordon All port, what are cardinal traits?
A: Cardinal traits are single personality traits that dominate a person's behavior and activities,
influencing their entire life.
15. What are central traits in All port's theory?
A: Central traits are major characteristics that form the core of a person's personality and are
usually around 5 to 10 in number.
16. How does Karen Horney's theory differ from Freud's on the role of motives?
A: Karen Horney disagreed with Freud's emphasis on biological instincts as the main motivation
and instead focused on social influences and interpersonal growth.
17. What is Erik Erikson's view on the key driver of human behavior?
104
A: Erikson believed that social interaction, combined with biological maturation, is the primary
force driving human behavior and personality development.
18. What role does the ego play in the psychodynamic model of personality?
A: The ego mediates between the demands of the id and the moral constraints of the superego,
helping individuals navigate reality and make decisions.
19. How does the Neo-Freudian approach differ from Freud's original psychodynamic
theory?
A: Neo-Freudians, such as Carl Jung and Alfred Adler, emphasized social variables, ego
functions, and interpersonal relationships more than Freud's focus on unconscious drives.
20. How does the concept of "basic anxiety" relate to Karen Horney's theory of
personality?
A: Basic anxiety refers to a major concept in Horney's theory, arising from hostile environments
and resulting in feelings of loneliness, isolation, and fear. It influences personality development
and interpersonal interactions.
Lesson 32
PERSONALITY II
MCQs:
1. What did Gordon All port identify after skimming an unabridged dictionary?
a) 18000 personality traits
b) 4500 personality traits
c) 16 personality traits
d) 5 basic personality traits
Answer: b) 4500 personality traits
2. Which of the following is an example of a cardinal trait?
a) Kindness
105
b) Affection
c) Extroversion
d) Greed
Answer: d) Greed
3. Central traits are:
a) The most basic and fundamental traits
b) Traits that influence behavior in specific situations
c) Less influential than cardinal traits
d) Traits that have the least impact on personality
Answer: b) Traits that influence behavior in specific situations
4. According to Raymond Cattell, source traits are:
a) Surface traits that are easily observed
b) The same as cardinal traits
c) Traits that are less influential on behavior
d) Basic dimensions underlying multiple surface traits
Answer: d) Basic dimensions underlying multiple surface traits
5. The "Big Five" personality factors include all of the following EXCEPT:
a) Extroversion
b) Neuroticism
c) Surgency
d) Conscientiousness
Answer: c) Surgency
6. B.F. Skinner's approach to personality emphasizes:
106
a) Unconscious motives and desires
b) Inherited personality traits
c) Observable behaviors and learned responses
d) Genetic factors
Answer: c) Observable behaviors and learned responses
7. Albert Bandura's concept of self-efficacy refers to:
a) A person's basic goodness
b) The interaction between environment and behavior
c) Learned expectations of one's ability to perform certain behaviors
d) Genetic predispositions to specific traits
Answer: c) Learned expectations of one's ability to perform certain behaviors
8. The humanistic approach to personality emphasizes:
a) The role of unconscious motives
b) Genetic determinants of personality
c) Conscious self-motivated growth and self-actualization
d) Observable behaviors
Answer: c) Conscious self-motivated growth and self-actualization
9. Carl Rogers emphasized the importance of:
a) Conditional positive regard
b) Unconditional positive regard
c) Obsessive self-concept
d) Genetic influences on behavior
Answer: b) Unconditional positive regard
107
10. Temperament is best described as:
a) Learned patterns of behavior
b) Surface traits
c) Basic, innate dispositions that emerge early in life
d) Genetic mutations affecting behavior
Answer: c) Basic, innate dispositions that emerge early in life
11. According to the information provided, which dimension is emphasized in Eysenck's

approach to personality?
a) Surgency
b) Neuroticism-stability
c) Conscientiousness
d) Agreeableness
Answer: b) Neuroticism-stability
12. In the context of humanistic approach, self-actualization refers to:
a) An unconscious drive to fulfill basic needs
b) Achieving a state of optimal potential and self-fulfillment
c) Conforming to societal expectations
d) Suppressing one's natural tendencies
Answer: b) Achieving a state of optimal potential and self-fulfillment
13. What does Albert Bandura's concept of reciprocal determinism emphasize?
a) The influence of genetics on behavior
b) The role of unconscious motives in personality
c) The interaction between environment, behavior, and individual factors
d) The importance of unconscious conflicts
108
Answer: c) The interaction between environment, behavior, and individual factors
14. Which of the following approaches emphasizes the role of learned responses to
external environment in personality development?
a) Humanistic approach
b) Biological approach
c) Learning approach
d) Social cognitive approach
Answer: c) Learning approach
15. What is the main focus of the social cognitive approach to personality?
a) Genetic factors influencing behavior
b) The influence of unconscious conflicts
c) The role of innate tendencies in behavior
d) The role of people's cognitions in determining personality
Answer: d) The role of people's cognitions in determining personality
16. According to the humanistic approach, what is the ultimate goal of personality
growth?
a) Conforming to societal norms
b) Achieving a state of self-fulfillment and happiness
c) Suppressing natural tendencies d) Fulfilling unconscious desires
Answer: b) Achieving a state of self-fulfillment and happiness
17. The concept of self-efficacy refers to a person's belief in their:
a) Unconscious desires
b) Genetic predisposition
c) Ability to change their personality
109
d) Ability to perform certain behaviors and achieve desired outcomes
Answer: d) Ability to perform certain behaviors and achieve desired outcomes
18. The biological approach to personality emphasizes the role of:
a) Unconscious motives
b) Inherited traits
c) Environmental influences
d) Learned behaviors
Answer: b) Inherited traits
19. Which dimension of personality did Eysenck's approach identify as ranging from
introversion to extroversion?
a) Conscientiousness
b) Neuroticism
c) Surgency
d) Agreeableness
Answer: c) Surgency
20. What is the primary focus of the social cognitive approach to personality?
a) Genetic factors
b) Innate tendencies
c) Unconscious motives
d) Cognitions and interactions between individuals and their environment
Answer: d) Cognitions and interactions between individuals and their environment
Q&A:
1. What did Gordon All port identify after skimming an unabridged dictionary?
110
A: Gordon Allport identified 18000 separate terms that could be used to describe personality.
2. What were the three classic categories of traits identified by Allport's Basic Traits
Categories?
A: The three classic categories of traits were Cardinal traits, Central traits, and Secondary traits.
3. How does a Cardinal Trait influence a person's behavior?
A: Cardinal Traits refer to a single personality trait that directs most of the person's behaviors
and activities. The person's whole life or behavior is influenced by this trait.
4. What are Central Traits in terms of personality?
A: Central Traits are major characteristics that make up the core of someone's personality. They
usually number from 5-10 in a person and form the core of their personality.
5. What is the primary focus of trait theories based upon factor analysis?
A: The primary focus of trait theories based upon factor analysis is to identify patterns in
relationships between a large numbers of variables and summarize them into fewer general
patterns.
6. How did Raymond Cattell categorize traits in his factor analysis?
A: Raymond Cattell categorized traits into two types: Surface traits and Source traits.
7. What is the purpose of the 16 Pf (Sixteen Personality Factor Questionnaire)?
A: The 16 Pf is a measure developed by Cattell that provides a score for each of the 16 source
traits he identified.
8. What are the two major dimensions of personality according to Eysenck?
A: The two major dimensions of personality according to Eysenck are Introversion-extroversion

and Neuroticism-stability.
9. What is the role of cognitions in determining personality in the social cognitive

approach?
A: The social cognitive approach emphasizes the role of people's cognitions, including thoughts,
feelings, expectations, and values, in determining their personalities.
10. What is self-efficacy and how does it influence behavior?
111
A: Self-efficacy is learned expectations that one is capable of performing a certain behavior or
producing a desired outcome. It influences behavior by affecting a person's confidence and
persistence in that behavior.
11. What does reciprocal determinism suggest about behavior?
A: Reciprocal determinism suggests that behavior is influenced by the interaction between the
environment, behavior, and the individual. It highlights the bidirectional relationship between
these factors.
12. According to the humanistic approach, what is the ultimate goal of personality growth?
A: According to the humanistic approach, the ultimate goal of personality growth is self-
actualization, which is a state of self-fulfillment where people realize their optimal potential.
13. How does the humanistic approach view people's basic nature?
A: The humanistic approach views people as possessing a basic goodness and a natural tendency
to grow to higher levels of functioning.
14. What is unconditional positive regard in the humanistic approach?
A: Unconditional positive regard refers to an attitude of total acceptance and respect from
another person without any conditions. It allows for personal growth and development.
15. How does temperament play a role in the biological approaches to personality?
A: Temperament is considered one of the main ingredients of personality in the biological

approaches. It is the basic, innate disposition that emerges early in life.
16. What is the difference between inhibited and uninhibited children according to Kagan's
research?
A: Inhibited children are unusually fearful of unfamiliar adults, objects, or new settings. They
tend to be emotionally restrained and shy in unfamiliar situations.
17. What does the social cognitive approach emphasize in terms of personality?
A: The social cognitive approach emphasizes the role of people's cognitions, such as thoughts,
feelings, expectations, and values, in determining their personalities.
18. What is the significance of reciprocal determinism in the social cognitive approach?
A: Reciprocal determinism suggests that behavior is influenced by the interaction between the
environment, behavior, and the individual, leading to a continuous cycle of influence.
112
19. How does Albert Bandura explain the process of observational learning?
A: Albert Bandura explains that people can learn behaviors by observing the outcomes of others
(models) performing those behaviors in similar situations.
20. What is the core belief of the biological approaches to personality?
A: The core belief of the biological approaches to personality is that important components of
personality are inherited or genetically determined, including traits like temperament.
Lesson 33
PERSONALITY III
MCQs:
1. Which assessment method involves direct face-to-face interaction with the subject?
A) Observation and behavioral assessment
B) Psychological tests
C) Self-report measures
D) Interview
Answer: D) Interview
2. Which type of assessment involves studying and describing personality characteristics

through direct observation?
A) Psychological tests
B) Self-report measures
C) Projective tests
113
D) Observation and behavioral assessment
Answer: D) Observation and behavioral assessment
3. Which type of psychological assessment involves asking subjects questions about their
behavior using paper and pencil tools?
A) Projective tests
B) Psychological tests
C) Observation and behavioral assessment
D) Self-report measures
Answer: D) Self-report measures
4. Which personality test was initially developed to identify specific psychological

difficulties but can predict a variety of behaviors?
A) Rorschach test
B) TAT (Thematic Apperception Test)
C) MMPI (Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory)
D) MBTI (Myers-Briggs Type Indicator)
Answer: C) MMPI (Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory)
5. Which projective test involves showing subjects an ambiguous stimulus and having
them describe it or tell a story about it?
A) TAT (Thematic Apperception Test)
B) Rorschach test
C) MMPI (Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory)
D) EQ (Emotional Quotient) Test
Answer: B) Rorschach test
6. Who proposed the theory of "general intelligence" (g) and "specific intelligence" (s)
based on factor analysis?
114
A) Sigmund Freud
B) Carl Rogers
C) Charles Spearman
D) B.F. Skinner
Answer: C) Charles Spearman
7. Which theory of intelligence divides it into social intelligence, abstract intelligence, and
concrete intelligence?
A) Galton's theory
B) Thorndike's theory
C) Thurston’s theory
D) Guilford's theory
Answer: B) Thorndike's theory
8. Which theory of intelligence proposes the concepts of "crystalline intelligence" and

"fluid intelligence"?
A) Spearman's theory
B) Thurston’s theory
C) Cattell and Horn's theory
D) Gardner's theory
Answer: C) Cattell and Horn's theory
9. According to Guilford's theory of the Structure of Intellect (SOI), what are the three
components of intelligence?
A) Operations, Subjects, Processes
B) Content, Methods, Applications
C) Operations, Contents, Products
D) Thoughts, Feelings, Behaviors
115
Answer: C) Operations, Contents, Products
10. Which theory emphasizes the idea that intelligence is a complex phenomenon made up
of various components?
B) Thorndike's theory
C) Guilford's theory
D) Gardner's theory
Answer: C) Guilford's theory
11. According to Francis Galton's view, what did "hereditary genius" imply?
A) Intelligence is solely determined by one's education
B) Gifted individuals tend to come from families with other gifted individuals
C) Intelligence is not influenced by genetics
D) Intelligence is entirely a result of environmental factors
Answer: B) Gifted individuals tend to come from families with other gifted individuals
12. Which theorist introduced the concepts of crystalline and fluid intelligence?
A) Sigmund Freud
B) B.F. Skinner
C) Raymond Cattell
D) Erik Erikson
Answer: C) Raymond Cattell
13. Which intelligence theory suggests that there are several distinct mental abilities that
make up intelligence?
B) Thurston’s theory
116
C) Gardner's theory
D) Guilford's theory
Answer: B) Thurston’s theory
14. What is the main focus of Thurston’s theory of intelligence?
A) "g" factor
B) "Fluid intelligence"
C) "Primary mental abilities"
D) "Concrete intelligence"
Answer: C) "Primary mental abilities"
15. Which theory of intelligence is associated with the concept of "social intelligence"?
A) Galton's theory
B) Spearman's theory
C) Thorndike's theory
D) Gardner's theory
Answer: C) Thorndike's theory
16. Who developed the Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory (MMPI)?
A) Raymond Cattell
B) Carl Rogers
C) B.F. Skinner
D) James McKeen Cattell
Answer: D) James McKeen Cattell
17. Which assessment method involves asking subjects to write stories based on ambiguous
pictures?
A) MMPI (Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory)
117
B) Rorschach test
C) TAT (Thematic Apperception Test)
D) EQ (Emotional Quotient) Test
Answer: C) TAT (Thematic Apperception Test)
18. According to Charles Spearman's theory, what is "g" factor?
A) General intelligence
B) Specific intelligence
C) Genetic factor
D) Group intelligence
Answer: A) General intelligence
19. What is the primary purpose of the Rorschach inkblot test?
A) Measuring intelligence
B) Assessing emotional intelligence
C) Evaluating creativity
D) Exploring personality traits
Answer: D) Exploring personality traits
20. Which intelligence factor involves solving novel problems and is influenced by
neurological development?
A) Crystalline intelligence
B) Fluid intelligence
C) Social intelligence
D) Abstract intelligence
Answer: B) Fluid intelligence
118
Q&A:
1. What is the main advantage of using interviews as an assessment method for
personality?
Answer: Interviews provide direct face-to-face interaction, allowing psychologists to gather both
verbal and non-verbal information from the interviewee.
2. How can behavioral assessment contribute to studying personality?
Answer: Behavioral assessment involves direct observation to study and describe personality
characteristics, providing valuable insights into a person's behaviors and reactions in various
situations.
3. What is the purpose of psychological tests in personality assessment?
Answer: Psychological tests are devised to objectively assess personality and behavior. They
need to be valid, reliable, and based on norms to ensure accurate measurement.
4. How are self-report measures used in assessing personality?
Answer: Self-report measures involve asking subjects questions about their behavior using paper
and pencil tools or tests, providing insights into the subject's self-perception and behaviors.
5. What is the Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory (MMPI) commonly used for?
Answer: The MMPI is a widely used personality test initially developed to identify specific
psychological difficulties. It can also predict a variety of other behaviors and tendencies.
6. Describe the Rorschach test and its administration procedure.
Answer: The Rorschach test involves showing subjects inkblot patterns and asking them to
describe what they see. The responses are recorded and used for complex clinical judgments to
classify subjects into different personality types.
7. What is the Thematic Apperception Test (TAT) used for?
Answer: The TAT involves showing subjects ambiguous pictures and having them write a story
about what is happening in the scene. This story is considered a reflection of the subject's
personality and thinking.
8. How does intelligence impact an individual's capacity to understand the world and
solve challenges?
119
Answer: Intelligence, as defined by Feldman, is the capacity to understand the world, think
rationally, and effectively use resources when faced with challenges.
9. What factors contribute to a person's intelligence according to modern psychology?
Answer: Intelligence is influenced by both environmental factors and inherited potentials, and
modern psychology emphasizes the interaction between these two factors.
10. How does intelligence develop according to psychological studies?
Answer: Intellectual development occurs intermittently and in bursts rather than following a
smooth trajectory. The pattern of development varies from person to person.
11. What did early Greeks believe about the location of intellect in the body?
Answer: Early Greeks believed that the soul resided in the brain and that intellect was associated
with the lungs.
12. What did recent research reveal about the brain's activity during problem-solving?
Answer: Recent research indicated that the flow of blood in the lateral prefrontal cortex is
highest when individuals engage in solving puzzles or problems.
13. How does the left hemisphere of the brain differ from the right hemisphere in terms of
function?
Answer: The left hemisphere is more active in analytical functioning and language, while the
right hemisphere is more involved in visual and spatial skills, working holistically.
14. What concept did Francis Galton introduce in his study of intelligence?
Answer: Francis Galton introduced the concept of "hereditary genius," suggesting that gifted
individuals tend to come from families with other gifted individuals.
15. What were the main areas of focus in James Mc Keen Cattell's work on intelligence
assessment?
Answer: James Mc Keen Cattell emphasized mental processes and developed tasks to measure
reaction time, keenness of vision, and weight discrimination to assess intelligence.
16. According to Charles Spearman's theory, what are "g" and "s" factors in intelligence?
Answer: "g" factor represents general intelligence common to all people, while "s" factor
represents specific abilities that differ between individuals.
17. How did Thorndike's view of intelligence differ from Spearman's?
120
Answer: Thorndike proposed that intelligence is not a single "g" factor but is influenced by a
variety of factors, dividing intelligence into social, abstract, and concrete aspects.
18. How did Louis L. Thurston contribute to our understanding of intelligence?
Answer: Thurston introduced the concept of "primary mental abilities" and identified seven
distinct mental abilities, including verbal comprehension, word fluency, and memory.
19. What are the main differences between crystalline intelligence and fluid intelligence
according to Cattell and Horn's theory?
Answer: Crystalline intelligence is influenced by education and culture and involves using
learned information. Fluid intelligence relies on neurological development and is essential for
solving novel problems.
20. What is the basis of Guilford's theory of the Structure of Intellect (SOI)?
Answer: Guilford's theory suggests that intelligence results from the interaction of operations,
contents, and products. He developed a model with over 100 factors representing different
components of intelligence.
Lesson 34
INTELLIGENCE
MCQs:
1. Who introduced the theory of multiple intelligences in 1985?
a) Alfred Binet
b) Lewis Terman
c) Robert Sternberg
d) Howard Gardner
Answer: d) Howard Gardner
2. According to Gardner's theory of multiple intelligences, how many independent

intelligences are there?
a) 3
121
b) 6
c) 8
d) 10
Answer: c) 8
3. According to Sternberg's triarchic theory, what are the three main components of
intelligence?
a) Verbal, mathematical, and spatial
b) Analytic, creative, and practical
c) Logical, emotional, and social
d) Linguistic, logical, and interpersonal
Answer: b) Analytic, creative, and practical
4. Who proposed the concept of "mental age"?
a) Lewis Terman
b) Robert Sternberg
c) Alfred Binet
d) Howard Gardner
Answer: c) Alfred Binet
5. What is the formula for calculating the Intelligence Quotient (IQ)?
a) IQ score = Mental Age (MA) x Chronological Age (CA)
b) IQ score = MA / CA x 100
c) IQ score = CA / MA
d) IQ score = MA + CA
Answer: b) IQ score = MA / CA x 100
6. What do Deviation IQ scores consider when calculating intelligence?
122
a) Mental Age
b) Chronological Age
c) Average score of a group
d) Socioeconomic status
Answer: c) Average score of a group
7. Which of the following is NOT one of Gardner's multiple intelligences?
a) Logical-mathematical
b) Naturalistic
c) Emotional
d) Musical
Answer: c) Emotional
8. The Stanford-Binet test was first developed by which psychologist?
a) Robert Sternberg
b) David Wechsler
c) Theodore Simon
d) Alfred Binet
Answer: d) Alfred Binet
9. Which type of intelligence involves making right decisions that benefit oneself and
others?
a) Social intelligence
b) Emotional intelligence
c) Creative intelligence
d) Moral intelligence
Answer: d) Moral intelligence
123
10. What is the purpose of culture-fair IQ tests?
a) To measure creativity
b) To overcome bias against particular cultural groups
c) To assess musical abilities
d) To evaluate emotional intelligence
Answer: b) To overcome bias against particular cultural groups
11. What is the main purpose of the Wechsler Adult Intelligence Scale (WAIS)?
a) Assess physical abilities
b) Measure moral intelligence
c) Evaluate musical talents
d) Measure intelligence in adults
Answer: d) Measure intelligence in adults
12. Which component of Sternberg's triarchic theory focuses on practical problem-solving?
a) Analytic intelligence
b) Creative intelligence
c) Practical intelligence
d) Emotional intelligence
Answer: c) Practical intelligence
13. What concept did Gardner and Sternberg both agree upon regarding intelligence?
a) Intelligence is a single, general factor
b) Intelligence is a mix of many specific abilities
c) Intelligence is solely determined by genetics
d) Intelligence is primarily related to academic performance
124
Answer: b) Intelligence is a mix of many specific abilities
14. The concept of "g" factor is associated with which theorist's model of intelligence?
a) Howard Gardner
b) Robert Sternberg
c) Charles Spearman
d) Lewis Terman
Answer: c) Charles Spearman
15. Which theory of intelligence emphasizes the ability to understand and deal with people?
a) Emotional intelligence
b) Moral intelligence
c) Social intelligence
d) Practical intelligence
Answer: c) Social intelligence
16. What is the primary criticism of traditional intelligence tests?
a) They are too short
b) They focus too much on emotional intelligence
c) They are biased against certain cultural groups
d) They are not based on any scientific research
Answer: c) They are biased against certain cultural groups
17. What are the two major parts of the Wechsler Adult Intelligence Scale (WAIS)?
a) Logical and artistic
b) Verbal and performance
c) Abstract and practical
125
d) Moral and emotional
Answer: b) Verbal and performance
18. Who proposed the hierarchical theory of intelligence, which includes "g" factor,
primary mental abilities, and specific abilities?
a) Howard Gardner
b) Alfred Binet
c) Carroll and Vernon
d) Robert Sternberg
Answer: c) Carroll and Vernon
19. What are Deviation IQ scores based upon?
a) Mental Age (MA)
b) Chronological Age (CA)
c) Average score of a group
Answer: c) Average score of a group
20. Which type of intelligence involves understanding and dealing with one's own and
others' emotions?
a) Social intelligence
b) Logical-mathematical intelligence
c) Emotional intelligence
Answer: c) Emotional intelligence
Q&A:
1. Who introduced the theory of multiple intelligences and when?
126
Answer: Howard Gardner introduced the theory of multiple intelligences in 1985.
2. What is the main idea behind Gardner's theory of multiple intelligences?
Answer: Gardner's theory suggests that intelligence consists of multiple specific abilities rather
than a single factor.
3. How many independent intelligences are proposed by Gardner's theory?
Answer: Gardner's theory proposes eight independent intelligences.
4. List three of the eight intelligences proposed by Gardner's theory.
Answer: Linguistic, Logical-mathematical, spatial intelligence
5. What are the three main components of intelligence in Sternberg's triarchic theory?
Answer: The three components are Analytic intelligence, Creative intelligence, and Practical
intelligence.
6. According to Sternberg, why do mental tests sometimes fail to predict real-world

success?
Answer: Sternberg observed that mental tests may not accurately predict success because they
often ignore practical problem-solving skills.
7. What are the four stages of cognitive development proposed by Piaget?
Answer: The four stages are sensorimotor, preoperational, concrete operational, and formal
operational.
8. What is the main focus of Piaget's theory of cognitive development?
Answer: Piaget's theory emphasizes the qualitative changes in thinking that occur in children as
they develop.
9. Who proposed the hierarchical theory of intelligence, and what are the three levels in
this hierarchy?
Answer: Carroll and Vernon proposed the hierarchical theory. The levels are general
intelligence (g), primary mental abilities, and specific abilities.
10. What is the concept of "mental age" in intelligence testing?
Answer: Mental age refers to the average age of individuals who perform at the same level as
the test taker.
127
11. What was the primary purpose of developing the first intelligence test by Alfred Binet
and Theodore Simon?
Answer: The test was developed to identify "dull" students in the Paris school system who
needed remedial assistance.
12. Why did Binet develop tasks that improved with age in his intelligence test?
Answer: Binet believed that tasks improving with age could differentiate between more and less
intelligent children within specific age groups.
13. What concept did Binet introduce to address the problem of comparing individuals of
different age groups?
Answer: Binet introduced the concept of "mental age" to compare individuals' intelligence
regardless of their chronological age.
14. What is the formula for calculating the Intelligence Quotient (IQ)?
Answer: IQ score = Mental Age (MA) / Chronological Age (CA) x 100
15. How Deviation IQ scores calculated are and what do they consider?
Answer: Deviation IQ scores consider how a person's IQ deviates from the average score of a
reference group using statistical techniques.
16. What is the typical IQ range for the majority of the population, based on available
statistics?
Answer: Around two-thirds of the population fall within a range of 15 IQ points from the
average IQ score of 100 (between 85 and 115).
17. What is the purpose of using culture-fair IQ tests?
Answer: Culture-fair IQ tests aim to reduce bias and discrimination against specific cultural or
minority groups.
18. What are the two major parts of the Wechsler Adult Intelligence Scale (WAIS)?
Answer: The two parts are the Verbal scale and the Performance scale.
19. What is the key focus of emotional intelligence (EI)?
Answer: Emotional intelligence focuses on understanding, managing, and using emotions for
better decision-making and relationships.
128
20. Name three alternative formulations of intelligence mentioned in the text.
Answer: Moral intelligence, Social intelligence, Emotional intelligence
Lesson 35
PSYCHOPATHOLOGY
MCQs:
1. What is the primary focus of psychopathology?
a) Studying normal behavior
b) Treating physical illnesses
c) Understanding abnormal behavior
d) Exploring cultural traditions
Answer: c) Understanding abnormal behavior
2. What term is used to describe abnormal behavior or mental illness?
a) Psychology
b) Mentalism
c) Pathogenesis
d) Psychopathology
Answer: d) Psychopathology
3. Which branch of psychology describes, explains, and identifies abnormal behavior?
a) Developmental psychology
b) Clinical psychology
c) Cognitive psychology
d) Social psychology
129
Answer: b) Clinical psychology
4. Which perspective of psychopathology focuses on the development of mental disorders?
a) Evolutionary
b) Cognitive
c) Biological
d) Developmental
Answer: d) Developmental
5. What are the main practitioners who treat mental disorders?
a) Neurologists
b) Anthropologists
c) Psychiatrists and clinical psychologists
d) Social workers
Answer: c) Psychiatrists and clinical psychologists
6. Which approach considers past history and variables contributing to mental illness?
a) Cognitive approach
b) Biological approach
c) Behavioral approach
d) Psychodynamic approach
Answer: d) Psychodynamic approach
7. Trephining, a historical method for treating mental disorders, involved:
a) Casting out evil spirits through exorcism
b) Using magnetic therapy
c) Making holes in the skull
130
d) Administering herbal remedies
Answer: c) Making holes in the skull
8. According to Hippocrates, what caused mental disorders?
a) Evil spirits
b) Supernatural forces
c) Imbalances in bodily humors
d) Divine intervention
Answer: c) Imbalances in bodily humors
9. Which of the following was NOT one of the four temperaments proposed by
Hippocrates?
a) Sanguine
b) Melancholic
c) Choleric
d) Phlegmatic
Answer: b) Melancholic
10. What was Philippe Pinel's contribution to the treatment of mental patients?
a) Promoting exorcism as a treatment
b) Advocating for shackling and beating of patients
c) Introducing the concept of Moral Treatment
d) Using mesmerism for therapy
Answer: c) Introducing the concept of Moral Treatment
11. Which physician established the York Retreat and provided compassionate treatment
to mental patients?
a) William Tuke
131
b) Hippocrates
c) Socrates
d) Mesmer
Answer: a) William Tuke
12. Who introduced the concept of animal magnetism and mesmerism for treating mental
illnesses?
a) Philippe Pinel
b) William Tuke
c) Hippocrates
d) Franz Friedrich Anton Mesmer
Answer: d) Franz Friedrich Anton Mesmer
13. Which century is considered the "age of reason" and brought significant changes to
psychology?
a) 15th century
b) 18th century
c) 10th century
d) 19th century
Answer: b) 18th century
14. According to Wilhelm Griesinger, what is the primary cause of mental disorders?
a) Supernatural forces
b) Imbalances in humors
c) Psychological conflicts
d) Brain pathology
Answer: d) Brain pathology
132
15. Who introduced the first system of classification of mental diseases?
a) Philippe Pinel
b) Wilhelm Griesinger
c) Socrates
d) Kraepelin
Answer: d) Kraepelin
16. Which perspective assumed that mental disorders are caused by brain pathology?
a) Cognitive perspective
b) Biological perspective
c) Behavioral perspective
d) Psychodynamic perspective
Answer: b) Biological perspective
17. Which physician was known for observing and treating hysterical patients and
inducing hysterical symptoms?
a) Wilhelm Griesinger
b) Jean M. Charcot
c) Kraepelin
d) Philippe Pinel
Answer: b) Jean M. Charcot
18. What is the primary focus of the statistical definition of abnormality?
a) Deviation from ideal
b) Unusual behavior
c) Deviation from the norm
d) Non-conforming behavior
133
Answer: c) Deviation from the norm
19. Which perspective on abnormality defines abnormal behavior as not striving toward
the ideal?
a) Statistical perspective
b) Evolutionary perspective
c) Humanistic perspective
d) Biological perspective
Answer: c) Humanistic perspective
20. How do people define and understand abnormality according to the text?
a) Solely based on psychological theories
b) Purely according to cultural traditions
c) Exclusively through professional knowledge
d) Based on past experience, cultural tradition, and other factors
Answer: d) Based on past experience, cultural tradition, and other factors
Q&A:
1. What is psychopathology primarily concerned with?
Answer: Psychopathology is primarily concerned with the origin, development, and

manifestation of behavioral and mental disorders.
2. How is abnormal behavior defined in psychopathology?
Answer: Abnormal behavior is behavior that deviates from the norm and is considered outside
the range of typical behavior.
3. What is the main focus of abnormal psychology?
Answer: Abnormal psychology focuses on studying, describing, explaining, and identifying

abnormal behavior and mental disorders.
134
4. How can observable behavior and mental experiences provide cues for the
development of mental disorders?
Answer: Observable behavior and mental experiences can indicate the presence of a mental or
psychological disorder based on deviations from expected norms.
5. Who are the professionals responsible for treating mental disorders?
Answer: Psychiatrists and clinical psychologists are the professionals responsible for treating
mental disorders.
6. In addition to treatment, what else are psychiatrists and clinical psychologists

interested in?
Answer: They are also interested in studying and researching the factors and events that
contribute to mental disorders, such as a person's past history and other variables.
7. What was the historical practice of trephining in relation to mental disorders?
Answer: Trephining involved making holes in the skull to treat conditions like headaches
and convulsive attacks, with the belief that it would release evil spirits causing abnormal
behavior.
8. What were some ancient explanations for abnormal behavior?
Answer: Ancient explanations included the influence of supernatural forces like gods, evil
spirits, and demons that were thought to cause strange and troubled behaviors.
9. Who were some practitioners of methods like exorcism for treating abnormal behavior
in ancient times?
Answer: Shamans or medicine men used techniques like exorcism, black magic, chanting, and
prayer to cast out evil spirits and treat abnormal behavior.
10. According to Hippocrates, what were the causes of abnormal behavior and mental
disorders?
Answer: Hippocrates believed that abnormal behavior was caused by imbalances of bodily
humors and that perfect health resulted from a proportional mixture of these humors.
11. How did Hippocrates classify personality traits based on humors?
Answer: Hippocrates classified personality traits into four temperaments: Sanguine,

Melancholic, Choleric, and Phlegmatic.
12. What did Hippocrates propose as the cause of epilepsy?
135
Answer: Hippocrates suggested that epilepsy was caused by insufficient air carried by the veins
to the brain and limbs.
13. What was Socrates' perspective on the importance of the soul in relation to abnormal
behavior?
Answer: Socrates believed that the soul was essential and needed proper care, and that problems
with the soul could lead to abnormal behavior.
14. What was Plato's approach to treating mentally ill patients?
Answer: Plato advocated for the humane treatment of mentally ill patients and believed that
disorders arose from conflicts between emotions and reason.
15. How did Aristotle's views on mental disorders compare to Hippocrates' views?
Answer: Aristotle mainly followed Hippocrates' theory of mental disorders and provided
insights into emotional states like anger, fear, and courage.
16. What did Asclepiades contribute to the field of mental health?
Answer: Asclepiades was the first to distinguish between acute and chronic mental disorders and
differentiated between delusions, hallucinations, and illusions.
17. Who was Philippe Pinel, and what were his contributions to the treatment of mental
patients?
Answer: Philippe Pinel was a chief physician who advocated for the humane treatment of mental
patients, condemning chaining and shackling. He introduced the concept of Moral Treatment.
18. Who established the York Retreat, and what was its significance?
Answer: William Tuke established the York Retreat, providing compassionate treatment for
mental patients and serving as a model for future care facilities.
19. What was Wilhelm Griesinger perspective on the causes of mental disorders?
Answer: Wilhelm Griesinger believed that mental disorders were primarily caused by brain
pathology rather than psychological factors.
20. Who introduced the first system of classifying mental diseases, and what did it involve?
Answer: Emil Kraepelin introduced the first system of classifying mental diseases,
distinguishing between disorders like schizophrenia and depressive psychosis based on severity
and organic causes.
136
Lesson 36
ABNORMAL BEHAVIOR I
MCQs:
1. According to the text, a person is seen as abnormal if:
a) They display creativity
b) They experience happiness
c) Their thoughts and behavior cause them discomfort
d) They are highly functional
Answer: c) Their thoughts and behavior cause them discomfort
2. The inability to function effectively in the context of abnormal behavior includes:
a) Overachievement in all areas of life
b) Difficulty in adapting to social requirements
c) Perfect alignment with societal norms
d) Unwavering self-confidence
Answer: b) Difficulty in adapting to social requirements
3. The legal definition of abnormality is primarily concerned with:
a) Determining individual preferences
b) Differentiating between sanity and insanity
c) Identifying criminal tendencies
d) Exploring genetic predispositions
Answer: b) Differentiating between sanity and insanity
137
4. Which perspective on abnormality suggests that psychological problems are caused by
physiological factors?
a) Psychodynamic perspective
b) Behavioral perspective
c) Medical perspective
d) Humanistic perspective
Answer: c) Medical perspective
5. According to the psychodynamic perspective, what is the root cause of mental

disorders?
a) Childhood experiences
b) Genetic predisposition
c) Neurotransmitter imbalances
d) Social factors
Answer: a) Childhood experiences
6. The behavioral perspective suggests that abnormal behavior is primarily:
a) Genetic in origin
b) Learned through interactions with the external world
c) Influenced by unconscious desires
d) Resulting from cognitive distortions
Answer: b) Learned through interactions with the external world
7. Which perspective emphasizes a person's cognitions, thoughts, and beliefs as factors

causing mental disorders?
a) Humanistic perspective
b) Medical perspective
c) Cognitive perspective
138
d) Psychodynamic perspective
Answer: c) Cognitive perspective
8. According to the humanistic perspective, what plays a central role in abnormal

behavior?
a) Genetic factors
b) Childhood experiences
c) External environmental influences
d) The individual's need for self-actualization and responsibility
Answer: d) The individual's need for self-actualization and responsibility
9. The sociocultural perspective emphasizes the importance of which factors in the onset
and treatment of mental illness?
a) Biological factors
b) Genetic predispositions
c) Social milieu and cultural influences
d) Neurotransmitter imbalances
Answer: c) Social milieu and cultural influences
10. Which classification system is recognized as the most widely used all over the world?
a) DSM-III
b) ICD
c) DSM-IV-TR
d) DSM-V
Answer: c) DSM-IV-TR
11. Which axis of the DSM-IV-TR focuses on clinical disorders?
a) Axis I
139
b) Axis II
c) Axis III
d) Axis IV
Answer: a) Axis I
12. According to DSM-IV-TR, which axis includes information about a person's

psychosocial or environmental problems?
a) Axis I
b) Axis II
c) Axis III
d) Axis IV
Answer: d) Axis IV
13. The DSM-IV-TR system organizes mental disorders into how many major categories?
a) 10
b) 15
c) 17
d) 20
Answer: c) 17
14. Anxiety disorders are characterized by:
a) A state of constant happiness
b) Inability to experience fear
c) Anxiety that affects daily functioning
d) A strong aversion to social situations
Answer: c) Anxiety that affects daily functioning
140
15. Which category of anxiety disorder involves irrational and intense fear of specific
objects or situations?
a) Generalized anxiety disorder
b) Panic disorder
c) Phobic disorder
d) Obsessive-compulsive disorder
Answer: c) Phobic disorder
16. Panic attacks are unpredictable and are characterized by:
a) Extreme happiness
b) Vague anxiety and worry
c) Delusional thoughts
d) Hallucinations
Answer: b) Vague anxiety and worry
17. A phobia is defined as a paralyzing fear of specific objects or situations that:
a) Is easily explainable
b) Has an obvious external cause
c) Occurs without any actual cause
d) Is common in most individuals
Answer: c) Occurs without any actual cause
18. Which of the following disorders involves long-term anxiety and worry?
a) Panic disorder
b) Obsessive-compulsive disorder
c) Generalized anxiety disorder
d) Phobic disorder
141
Answer: c) Generalized anxiety disorder
19. In which axis of the DSM-IV-TR would you find long-standing problems like
personality disorders?
a) Axis I
b) Axis II
c) Axis III
d) Axis IV
Answer: b) Axis II
20. Which classification system is recognized as a universally accepted diagnostic system

today?
a) DSM-III
b) ICD
c) DSM-IV-TR
d) DSM-V
Answer: c) DSM-IV-TR
Q&A:
1. What is one criterion for considering someone's behavior as abnormal?
Answer: A person's thoughts and behavior causing discomfort to themselves.
2. How is the inability to function effectively defined in the context of abnormal

behavior?
Answer: Inability to function as effectively as one should, including adjusting and adapting to
social requirements.
3. What is the primary purpose of the legal definition of abnormality?
Answer: To differentiate between sanity and insanity, especially in the context of criminal acts.
4. According to the text, how might abnormality be viewed from a legal standpoint?
142
Answer: It might involve an inability to foresee and understand the consequences of a criminal
act or an inability to control one's own thoughts and behaviors.
5. What role does the sociocultural perspective play in understanding abnormality?
Answer: It emphasizes the importance of the social milieu, family, society, and culture in the
onset and treatment of mental illness.
6. Which perspective attributes psychological problems to physiological factors?
Answer: Medical Perspective.
7. What is the significance of childhood experiences according to the psychodynamic

perspective?
Answer: Childhood experiences are seen as the root cause of mental disorders.
8. According to the behavioral perspective, how is abnormal behavior acquired?
Answer: Abnormal behavior is learned through interactions with the external world.
9. In the context of abnormality, what factors are highlighted by the cognitive

perspective?
Answer: A person's cognitions, thoughts, and beliefs are considered as factors causing mental
disorders.
10. What is emphasized by the humanistic perspective in understanding abnormal

behavior?
Answer: People's need for self-actualization and their responsibility for their own actions.
11. According to the text, what are the major categories of disorders in the DSM-IV-TR
classification system?
Answer: Anxiety disorders, Somatoform disorders, Dissociative disorders, Mood disorders,

Schizophrenia, Personality disorders, Sexual disorders, Substance-related disorders, Delirium,
dementia, amnesia, and other cognitive disorders.
12. What is the main purpose of classification systems for mental disorders?
Answer: To assist clinicians in diagnosing mental disorders and determining the extent of the
problem.
13. Which classification system is considered the most widely used all over the world?
143
Answer: DSM-IV-TR (Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders).
14. What is the ICD in the context of classification systems for mental disorders?
Answer: ICD stands for International Classification of Diseases, a comprehensive system

including psychological and psychiatric illnesses.
15. What is the main advantage of DSM-IV-TR over ICD, according to the text?
Answer: DSM-IV-TR has an edge over ICD in many respects, particularly in terms of revised
and improved versions.
16. What does Axis I represent in the DSM-IV-TR classification system?
Answer: Clinical disorders.
17. What type of information does Axis II in DSM-IV-TR focus on?
Answer: Long-standing problems such as personality disorders and mental retardation.
18. What does Axis IV in DSM-IV-TR encompass?
Answer: Psychosocial or environmental problems a person is facing, which can affect the
diagnosis, treatment, or course of mental disorders.
19. What role does DSM-IV-TR play in the context of classifying mental disorders?
Answer: It contains definitions of over 200 mental disorders, organized into 17 major categories.
20. How are anxiety disorders characterized in the text?
Answer: Anxiety disorders are characterized by anxiety becoming a hindrance to a person's

routine functioning, resulting in uneasiness, worry, and apprehension.
Lesson 37
ABNORMAL BEHAVIOR II
MCQs:
1. Which disorder involves the uncontrollable urge to perform unreasonable acts
repeatedly?
144
a) Anxiety disorder
b) Panic disorder
c) Obsessive-Compulsive disorder
d) Somatoform disorder
Answer: c) Obsessive-Compulsive disorder
2. What term describes unwanted, recurrent, and persistent thoughts that can be
intrusive and inappropriate?
a) Compulsion
b) Mania
c) Phobia
d) Obsession
Answer: d) Obsession
3. What type of disorder involves physical symptoms without an apparent physical

cause?
a) Dissociative disorder
b) Bipolar disorder
c) Schizophrenia
d) Somatoform disorder
Answer: d) Somatoform disorder
4. Hypochondriasis is a type of somatoform disorder characterized by:
a) Fear of heights
b) Fear of closed spaces
c) Fear of germs
d) Persistent fear of illness and preoccupation with health concerns
145
Answer: d) Persistent fear of illness and preoccupation with health concerns
5. Conversion disorder involves:
a) Experiencing actual, genuine physical problems with a psychological cause
b) Selective memory loss due to extreme stress
c) Unwanted, recurrent thoughts and compulsive behaviors
d) Alternating between periods of depression and mania
Answer: a) Experiencing actual, genuine physical problems with a psychological cause
6. Which disorder involves critical personality facets becoming separate, allowing stress
avoidance and anxiety reduction?
a) Schizophrenia
b) Dissociative disorder
c) Mood disorder
d) Obsessive-Compulsive disorder
Answer: b) Dissociative disorder
7. Dissociative amnesia involves:
a) Wild elation and euphoria
b) Sudden impulsive trips
c) Selective memory loss due to extreme stress
d) Fear of illness and preoccupation with health concerns
Answer: c) Selective memory loss due to extreme stress
8. What is the term for psychological and affective disturbances characterized by

emotional extremes that disrupt daily living?
a) Schizophrenia
b) Bipolar disorder
146
c) Mood disorders
Answer: c) Mood disorders
9. Which mood disorder involves severe lack of concentration, decision-making,

withdrawal from others, and feelings of worthlessness?
a) Major depression
b) Mania
c) Bipolar disorder
d) Schizophrenia
Answer: a) Major depression
10. What is the main characteristic of schizophrenia that distinguishes it from other
disorders?
a) Mood swings
b) Distorted reality
c) Compulsions and obsessions
d) Panic attacks
Answer: b) Distorted reality
11. Which type of schizophrenia is characterized by inappropriate giggling, incoherent

speech, and infantile behavior?
a) Paranoid schizophrenia
b) Disorganized schizophrenia
c) Catatonic schizophrenia
d) Undifferentiated schizophrenia
Answer: b) Disorganized schizophrenia
147
12. Which type of schizophrenia involves disturbances in motor activity and muscular
control?
Answer: c) Catatonic schizophrenia
13. Which type of schizophrenia involves delusions of grandeur and erratic behavior?
Answer: a) Paranoid schizophrenia
14. What does residual schizophrenia consist of?
a) Minor signs of schizophrenia after a major episode
b) Major depressive episodes alternating with mania
c) Delusions of persecution and hallucinations
d) Selective memory loss due to extreme stress
Answer: a) Minor signs of schizophrenia after a major episode
15. Which disorder alternates between periods of extreme euphoria and bouts of
depression?
a) Major depression
b) Mania
c) Bipolar disorder
148
Answer: c) Bipolar disorder
16. Delusions are characterized by:
a) Uncontrollable urges
b) Recurrent, unwanted thoughts
c) Unshakable, firm, and deeply believed beliefs
d) Sensory experiences that ordinary people have
Answer: c) Unshakable, firm, and deeply believed beliefs
17. What term describes the sense that one's own body is affected in schizophrenia?
a) Hallucination
b) Delusion
c) Mania
d) Withdrawal
Answer: a) Hallucination
18. What type of hallucinations are usually based on delusions?
a) Visual hallucinations
b) Auditory hallucinations
c) Tactile hallucinations
d) Olfactory hallucinations
Answer: b) Auditory hallucinations
19. Which neurotransmitters have been found to be related to mood disorders?
a) Dopamine and serotonin
b) Acetylcholine and GABA
149
c) Glutamate and norepinephrine
d) Endorphins and cortisol
Answer: a) Dopamine and serotonin
20. What does bipolar disorder consist of?
a) Alternating between periods of depression and mania
b) Delusions and hallucinations
c) Uncontrollable urges and compulsions
d) Selective memory loss and fugue states
Answer: a) Alternating between periods of depression and mania
Q&A:
1. What are some characteristics of abnormal behavior mentioned in Lesson 37?
Answer: Some traumatic event or disaster, hereditary component, prevalent equally in men
and women, anxiety, panic attacks.
2. What is the term for an unwanted, recurrent, and persistent thought that can be
intrusive and inappropriate?
Answer: Obsession
3. What is a compulsion in the context of Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder?
Answer: An uncontrollable urge to perform a seemingly strange and unreasonable act

repeatedly.
4. What are some symptoms of Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder (OCD)?
Answer: Distress, frustration, anxiety, etc.
5. What are some possible causes of Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder?
Answer: Risk factors, stereotype behaviors, brain abnormalities, unpleasant thoughts,

traumatic incidents, etc.
6. What is the prognosis for Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder?
150
Answer: It is a chronic illness, and while total removal of symptoms is not possible,
improvement through medication and therapy is achievable.
7. What are the two types of somatoform disorders mentioned?
Answer: 1) Hypochondriasis, 2) Conversion disorders.
8. Describe the symptoms of Hypochondriasis.
Answer: Persistent fear of illness, preoccupation with health concerns, interpreting minor
pains as symptoms of serious diseases, doctor shopping, etc.
9. What are the symptoms of Conversion Disorders?
Answer: Unexplainable neurological symptoms, partial blindness, loss of voluntary

control over motor and sensory functions, sudden emotional displays, etc.
10. What are some causes of Conversion Disorders?
Answer: Hereditary component, severe stress, observational learning, prior knowledge of

disease and symptoms.
11. What is Dissociative Disorder characterized by?
Answer: Critical personality facets becoming separate, allowing stress avoidance and
anxiety reduction through escape.
12. How is Dissociative Disorder treated?
Answer: Psychotherapy, self-induced trance, minimizing stress.
13. What is Dissociative Amnesia characterized by?
Answer: Selective loss of memory often due to extreme stress, inability to recall specific
events.
14. Define Dissociative Fugue.
Answer: A form of amnesia involving sudden impulsive trips, often with a new identity
assumed, forgetting one's previous identity.
15. What is Dissociative Identity Disorder (Multiple Personality Disorder)?
Answer: A rare disorder where a person takes on two or more entirely different
personalities.
151
16. Describe Major Depression and its symptoms.
Answer: A severe form of depression characterized by lack of concentration, decision-

making, withdrawal from others, persistent sadness, fatigue, and more.
17. What is Bipolar Disorder characterized by?
Answer: Alternating between periods of extreme euphoria (mania) and bouts of

depression.
18. What are some potential causes of Mood Disorders like depression and bipolar
disorder?
Answer: Hereditary factors, chemical imbalances in the brain, low self-esteem, stressful
life events, etc.
19. What is schizophrenia characterized by?
Answer: Severe distortion of reality, disturbances of thought and language, significant

decline in functioning.
20. Describe the symptoms of schizophrenia, particularly delusions and hallucinations.
Answer: Delusions are unshakable beliefs, while hallucinations involve sensory

experiences that others do not perceive.
Lesson 38
PSYCHOTHERAPY I
MCQs:
1. According to Engler and Goleman (1992), when should one consider seeking
psychotherapy?
a) Short-term distress that doesn't affect daily life
b) Occasional high stress without coping difficulties
c) Prolonged depression without a known cause
d) Mild withdrawal from social situations
Answer: c) Prolonged depression without a known cause
152
2. Which of the following is NOT a major psychotherapeutic orientation?
a) Psychodynamic
b) Behavioral
c) Cognitive
d) Analytical
Answer: d) Analytical
3. Who among the following can prescribe medication as part of psychotherapy

treatment?
a) Clinical Psychologists
b) Counseling Psychologists
c) Psychiatrists
d) Psychoanalysts
Answer: c) Psychiatrists
4. Which psychotherapeutic orientation focuses on unconscious unresolved conflicts as

the root cause of abnormal behavior?
a) Behavioral
b) Humanistic
c) Cognitive
d) Psychodynamic
Answer: d) Psychodynamic
5. Which technique involves the patient talking aloud without considering whether the
thoughts are relevant or sensible?
a) Dream analysis
b) Transference analysis
c) Free association
153
d) Aversion therapy
Answer: c) Free association
6. Which psychotherapeutic approach is heavily based on classical conditioning

techniques?
a) Psychodynamic
b) Behavioral
c) Cognitive
d) Humanistic
Answer: b) Behavioral
7. Which behavior therapy technique involves directly confronting a fear-provoking

stimulus?
a) Token economy
b) Countertransference
c) Systematic desensitization
d) Implosive therapy
Answer: d) Implosive therapy
8. Which psychotherapeutic approach focuses on changing irrational beliefs and faulty

patterns of thinking?
a) Humanistic approach
b) Psychodynamic approach
c) Cognitive approach
d) Behavioral approach
Answer: c) Cognitive approach
9. Who developed Rational-Emotive Behavior Therapy (REBT)?
a) Sigmund Freud
154
b) Aaron Beck
c) Albert Ellis
d) Ivan Pavlov
Answer: c) Albert Ellis
10. What is the primary goal of Cognitive Therapy for Depression?
a) Uncover unconscious conflicts
b) Modify irrational beliefs
c) Reinforce positive behaviors
d) Induce catharsis
Answer: b) Modify irrational beliefs
11. What distinguishes Rational-Emotive Behavior Therapy (REBT) from other

approaches?
a) Focusing on unconscious desires
b) Changing irrational beliefs into rational ones
c) Using aversive stimuli for behavior change
d) Analyzing dream content
Answer: b) Changing irrational beliefs into rational ones
12. What is the primary focus of Behavioral approach in psychotherapy?
a) Uncovering unconscious conflicts
b) Modifying thought patterns
c) Altering the belief system
d) Changing observable behavior
Answer: d) Changing observable behavior
155
13. Which psychotherapy approach is most focused on unconscious motivation and
desires?
a) Behavioral
b) Cognitive
c) Humanistic
d) Psychodynamic
14. Which psychotherapeutic orientation focuses on the relationship between behavior and
environmental stimuli?
a) Humanistic
b) Psychodynamic
c) Cognitive
d) Behavioral
Answer: d) Behavioral
15. What does Systematic Desensitization involve?
a) Exposing patients to their fears all at once
b) Using punishment for behavior change
c) Gradually pairing pleasant feelings with anxiety-provoking stimuli
d) Analyzing dreams to understand unconscious motives
Answer: c) Gradually pairing pleasant feelings with anxiety-provoking stimuli
16. Which psychotherapist approach emphasizes a special relationship between the

therapist and the patient?
a) Behavioral
b) Cognitive
c) Humanistic
156
d) Psychodynamic
17. What distinguishes Cognitive Therapy from other approaches in psychotherapy?
a) Focusing on observable behavior
b) Exploring unconscious motives
c) Modifying faulty thought patterns
d) Using aversive stimuli
Answer: c) Modifying faulty thought patterns
18. Who is primarily responsible for altering irrational beliefs in Rational-Emotive

Behavior Therapy (REBT)?
a) Therapist
b) Patient's family
c) Medication
d) Environment
Answer: a) Therapist
19. Which technique involves rewarding desired behaviors with tokens that can be
exchanged for rewards?
a) Dream analysis
b) Countertransference
c) Token economy
d) Aversion therapy
Answer: c) Token economy
20. What does Aversive therapy involve?
a) Rewarding desired behaviors with tokens
157
b) Directly confronting a fear-provoking stimulus
c) Changing irrational beliefs through reasoning
d) Associating undesirable behavior with an aversive stimulus
Answer: d) Associating undesirable behavior with an aversive stimulus
Q&A:
1. When does one need to go to a psychotherapist?
Psychotherapy might be needed when experiencing long-term distress that affects well-
being, high stress with an inability to cope, prolonged depression without a clear cause,
withdrawal from others, chronic unexplained physical problems, phobias hindering daily
activities, feelings of persecution, and difficulties in forming relationships.
2. How many psychotherapies are available?
There are about 400 psychotherapies available.
3. What are the four major psychological approaches underlying psychotherapies?
The four major psychological approaches are: psychodynamic, behavioral, cognitive, and
humanistic.
4. Who can provide psychotherapy?
Psychotherapy can be provided by clinical psychologists, counseling psychologists,

psychiatrists, psychoanalysts, licensed professional counselors, and clinical or psychiatric
social workers.
5. What qualifications do clinical psychologists typically hold?
Clinical psychologists generally have a Ph.D. or Psychology degree and complete a

postgraduate internship before practicing.
6. What is the primary focus of counseling psychologists?
Counseling psychologists typically focus on helping individuals solve routine-life

adjustment problems and often work in university mental health clinics.
7. What sets psychiatrists apart from other psychotherapy providers?
158
Psychiatrists are medical doctors with an M.D. or equivalent degree, and they can
prescribe medication for mental disorders in addition to providing therapy.
8. What is the primary assumption of the psychodynamic approach?
The psychodynamic approach assumes that unresolved past conflicts and unacceptable
unconscious impulses contribute to abnormal behavior.
9. What is the main goal of psychoanalysis?
The main goal of psychoanalysis is to explore unconscious motivations, conflicts, and

desires in order to establish intra-psychic harmony.
10. What technique is used in psychoanalysis to allow patients to express their thoughts?
The technique of free association is used, where patients talk aloud about any thoughts
that come to their mind, without filtering or censoring.
11. How do psychotherapists analyze dreams in the Freudian approach?
Psychotherapists analyze dreams to uncover unconscious needs, desires, and conflicts.

Dreams have manifest content (surface interpretation) and latent content (hidden
meaning).
12. What is the purpose of dream censorship in dream analysis?
Dream censorship ensures that unconscious desires are presented in a socially acceptable
form, allowing the individual to sleep peacefully.
13. What is resistance in psychoanalysis?
Resistance refers to barriers or inhibitions that patients may experience when facing
unpleasant thoughts or feelings, hindering their progress in therapy.
14. How does transference play a role in psychoanalysis?
Transference involves the patient's emotional response towards the therapist, often
mirroring their past relationships, providing insights into unresolved conflicts.
15. What criticism is often directed at Freudian psychodynamic theory?
Some criticisms include the lack of scientific proof for unconscious constructs,
deterministic approach, overemphasis on early childhood experiences, and controversial
interpretations of gender dynamics.
16. What is the primary focus of behavior therapy?
159
 Behavior therapy focuses on changing observable behaviors by using principles of
learning, conditioning, and reinforcement.
17. What does systematic desensitization involve?
Systematic desensitization is a technique where anxiety-provoking stimuli are paired with

relaxation to alleviate anxiety, starting with the least fear-provoking stimuli.
18. How does aversive therapy work?
Aversive therapy pairs undesirable behaviors with aversive stimuli to decrease their
occurrence. For example, an aversive substance can be added to cigarettes to help with
smoking cessation.
19. What is observational learning in behavior therapy?
Observational learning involves learning from others through modeling and imitation,
often used to teach new skills and alleviate fears.
20. What is the goal of cognitive therapy for depression?
The goal of cognitive therapy for depression is to help individuals identify and change
faulty patterns of thinking that contribute to their depressive symptoms.
Lesson39
PSYCHOTHERAPY II
MCQs:
1. What is the therapeutic strategy used for modifying behavior based on learning
principles?
a) Cognitive therapy
b) Psychoanalysis
c) Behavior modification
d) Existential therapy
Answer: c) Behavior modification
160
2. Which approach emphasizes that people are capable of shaping their own destiny and
achieving self-fulfillment?
a) Psychodynamic approach
b) Cognitive approach
c) Humanistic approach
d) Behavioral approach
Answer: c) Humanistic approach
3. What is the primary technique used in Carl Rogers' person-centered therapy?
a) Hypnosis
b) Reflection
c) Confrontation
d) Role-playing
Answer: b) Reflection
4. Which therapeutic approach aims to integrate an individual's thoughts and feelings

into a cohesive whole?
a) Gestalt therapy
b) Family therapy
c) Cognitive therapy
d) Existential therapy
Answer: a) Gestalt therapy
5. Which cognitive therapist formulated the therapy for depression patients?
a) Sigmund Freud
b) Albert Ellis
c) Aaron Beck
161
d) Carl Rogers
Answer: c) Aaron Beck
6. Which therapeutic approach focuses on changing the irrational beliefs into more
acceptable ones?
a) Existential therapy
b) Behavioral therapy
c) Rational-Emotive Behavior Therapy
d) Psychodynamic therapy
Answer: c) Rational-Emotive Behavior Therapy
7. What is the main goal of family therapy?
a) To analyze dreams and unconscious thoughts
b) To modify behavior through rewards and punishments
c) To integrate thoughts and feelings into a cohesive whole
d) To find solutions to problems by involving family members
Answer: d) To find solutions to problems by involving family members
8. What is the term for the process of reinforcing successive approximations of a desired
response?
a) Desensitization
b) Cognitive restructuring
c) Shaping
d) Role-playing
Answer: c) Shaping
9. According to cognitive theory, what affects an individual's motivation and behavior?
a) Past traumatic experiences
162
b) Environmental factors only
c) Beliefs and attitudes
d) Genetic predispositions
Answer: c) Beliefs and attitudes
10. What is the primary technique used in Rogerian therapy?
a) Hypnosis
b) Role-playing
c) Reflection
d) Exposure therapy
Answer: c) Reflection
11. Which therapeutic approach emphasizes the importance of the "here and now" and
personal growth?
a) Psychodynamic therapy
b) Behavioral therapy
c) Humanistic therapy
d) Cognitive therapy
Answer: c) Humanistic therapy
12. According to the cognitive approach, what is used to modify negative and unacceptable
behavior?
a) Reinforcement techniques
b) Hypnosis
c) Free association
d) Dream analysis
Answer: a) Reinforcement techniques
163
13. What term is used for the built-in motivation present in every life form to develop its
potentials to the fullest extent possible?
a) Unconscious mind
b) Actualizing tendency
c) Defense mechanisms
d) Self-fulfillment
Answer: b) Actualizing tendency
14. Which therapeutic approach emphasizes personal freedom and the potential for self-
fulfillment?
a) Behavioral therapy
b) Existential therapy
c) Psychoanalytic therapy
d) Psychosurgery
Answer: b) Existential therapy
15. What is the main focus of Rational-Emotive Behavior Therapy?
a) Reinforcing desired behavior
b) Altering irrational belief systems
c) Analyzing dreams and unconscious thoughts
d) Identifying early childhood experiences
Answer: b) Altering irrational belief systems
16. In Gestalt therapy, what is the goal of expressing frustrating and conflicting emotions?
a) To achieve congruence
b) To integrate thoughts and feelings
c) To develop new behaviors
164
d) To achieve self-actualization
Answer: b) To integrate thoughts and feelings
17. What therapeutic approach uses techniques like challenging ill beliefs, evaluating
causes of depression, and finding alternative solutions?
a) Gestalt therapy
b) Cognitive therapy
c) Family therapy
d) Humanistic therapy
Answer: b) Cognitive therapy
18. What is the primary focus of biomedical therapies?
a) Changing thought patterns
b) Modifying behavior
c) Treating psychological disorders with medication
d) Promoting self-fulfillment
Answer: c) Treating psychological disorders with medication
19. What term is used to reinforce each success, no matter how small, in the early stages of
behavior modification?
a) Shaping
b) Reinforcement hierarchy
c) Exposure
d) Systematic desensitization
Answer: a) Shaping
20. Which therapeutic approach involves discussing problems with a group of individuals,
often with the guidance of a therapist?
a) Individual therapy
165
b) Cognitive therapy
c) Group therapy
d) Biomedical therapy
Answer: c) Group therapy
Q&A:
1. What is the goal of a therapeutic strategy based on modifying behavior through
learning principles?
Answer: The goal is to increase the frequency of desired behavior to an optimal level while
minimizing or extinguishing undesired behavior.
2. What is "shaping" in behavior modification?
Answer: Shaping involves reinforcing successive approximations of a desired response until the
response is fully learned.
3. What are the steps in behavior modification?
Answer: The steps include identifying target behavior goals, designing the intervention,
implementing the program while monitoring progress, and evaluating the program's
effectiveness.
4. How does shaping work in behavior modification?
Answer: Shaping reinforces small successes initially and progresses toward reinforcing the
desired response fully. Once learned, behaviors can become self-reinforcing.
5. What percentage of patients have behavior therapy found to be effective for,

especially in treating phobias and anxiety disorders?
Answer: Behavior therapy has been effective for 50-90% of patients, particularly in treating
phobias, anxiety disorders, smoking, and drug abuse.
6. What is a criticism of behavior therapy?
Answer: Behavior therapy is criticized for focusing on overt observable behavior and neglecting
inner thoughts and experiences.
7. How does the cognitive approach modify negative behavior?
166
Answer: The cognitive approach modifies negative behavior through changing beliefs and
attitudes, utilizing reinforcement techniques, and employing realistic strategies with continuous
feedback.
8. What is the focus of Aaron Beck's cognitive theory for depression?
Answer: Aaron Beck's theory focuses on changing faulty thought patterns in depressive
individuals using problem-solving techniques.
9. What are the four tactics used by therapists to address unfounded depression?
Answer: The tactics include challenging ill beliefs, evaluating the cause of depression,
attributing the cause to environmental situations rather than personal income potencies, and
finding alternative solutions.
10. What is the primary technique used in Rational-Emotive Behavior Therapy?
Answer: The primary technique involves altering irrational beliefs into more acceptable ones,
using confrontation techniques based on rational reasoning.
11. What is the central theme of humanistic therapy?
Answer: The central theme is that individuals are capable of shaping their own destiny,
overcoming environmental influences, and achieving personal growth and self-fulfillment.
12. According to Carl Rogers, what qualities must a therapist possess?
Answer: A therapist must have congruence (genuineness), empathy, and respect (unconditional
positive regard) toward the client.
13. What is the aim of Carl Rogers' person-centered therapy?
Answer: The aim is to help a person grow and achieve self-actualization by reflecting the
patient's statements back to them, enabling them to find solutions.
14. How does existential therapy differ from humanistic therapy?
Answer: Existential therapy focuses on the challenges individuals face when dealing with their
freedom, emphasizing the importance of making free choices and taking responsibility.
15. What is the goal of Gestalt therapy?
Answer: The goal is to integrate an individual's thoughts and feelings into a cohesive whole by
expressing and acting out conflicting emotions.
16. What is the primary focus of family therapy?
167
Answer: Family therapy aims to find solutions to problems by involving family members and
altering rigid roles and patterns of behavior.
17. What are some examples of biomedical therapies?
Answer: Biomedical therapies include medication, psychosurgery, and lifestyle changes as

forms of treatment.
18. What is the primary goal of behavior modification?
Answer: The primary goal of behavior modification is to modify behavior by increasing the
frequency of desired behaviors and decreasing the frequency of undesired behaviors.
19. What are the steps involved in behavior modification?
Answer: The steps in behavior modification include identifying goals, designing interventions,
implementing the program, and carefully monitoring progress.
20. What is shaping in behavior modification?
Answer: Shaping involves reinforcing successive approximations of a desired response until the
response is fully learned.
21. How is behavior shaped in the early stages?
Answer: In the early stages of shaping, each and every small success is reinforced with a reward,
no matter how small the success.
22. What is the usefulness of behavior therapy?
Answer: Behavior therapy is effective for treating various conditions, with success rates ranging
from 50-90%, including phobias, anxiety disorders, smoking, and drug abuse.
23. Why behavior therapy is considered cost-effective?
Answer: Behavior therapy is cost-effective because it directly targets the specific problem
behavior, making it a relatively economical approach.
24. What is the focus of cognitive approach in behavior modification?
Answer: The cognitive approach focuses on modifying negative behavior through strategies that
address an individual's beliefs and attitudes.
25. How is the cognitive approach used to modify behavior?
168
Answer: In the cognitive approach, reinforcement techniques are used to modify behavior, and
realistic strategies are implemented with continuous feedback.
26. What is the main goal of altering the belief system in therapy?
Answer: The main goal of altering the belief system is to change irrational beliefs that contribute
to psychological problems and maladaptive behaviors.
27. Who formulated the cognitive theory for depression?
Answer: The cognitive theory for depression was formulated by Aaron Beck.
28. What are the four tactics used by therapists to address unfounded depression?
Answer: The four tactics include challenging ill beliefs, evaluating the causes of depression,
attributing the cause to environmental situations, and finding alternative solutions for complex
problems.
29. What is Rational-Emotive Behavior Therapy (REBT)?
Answer: REBT, developed by Albert Ellis, focuses on altering irrational beliefs and attitudes
using confrontation techniques and rational reasoning.
30. What are the central themes of the humanistic approach?
Answer: The central themes of the humanistic approach include the belief that individuals can
shape their own destinies, achieve personal growth, and fulfill their potential.
31. What does it mean to be fully functioning according to Rogers' approach?
Answer: Being fully functioning means experiencing optimal psychological adjustment,

maturity, congruence, and openness to experience.
32. What is the primary technique used in Carl Rogers' person-centered therapy?
Answer: The primary technique is "reflection," where the therapist mirrors emotional
experiences to help the client find solutions.
33. What is the goal of Gestalt therapy?
Answer: The goal of Gestalt therapy is to integrate an individual's thoughts and feelings into a
cohesive whole.
34. How does group therapy function?
169
Answer: In group therapy, unrelated individuals discuss psychological problems with each other
and provide emotional support and suggestions.
35. What is the purpose of family therapy?
Answer: Family therapy involves family members to find solutions to problems, focusing on
changing roles and behavior patterns.
36. What are biomedical therapies used for?
Answer: Biomedical therapies, such as medication, psychosurgery, and lifestyle changes, are
used to treat psychological disorders.
37. What is the aim of existential therapy?
Answer: Existential therapy aims to help individuals effectively use their freedom and value
systems to cope with anxiety and concerns.
Lesson 40
POPULAR AREAS OF PSYCHOLOGY
MCQs:
1. What is the most popular social science today?
a) Anthropology
b) Sociology
c) Psychology
d) Economics
Answer: c) Psychology
2. How many divisions does the American Psychological Association have?
a) 35
b) 45
c) 55
170
d) 65
Answer: c) 55
3. Which area of psychology deals with how people's thoughts, feelings, and actions
are affected by others?
a) Cognitive psychology
b) Developmental psychology
c) Organizational psychology
d) Social psychology
Answer: d) Social psychology
4. What is the ABC model in psychology?
a) A model for behavior change
b) A model for cognitive processing
c) A model for attitudes, behavior, and cognition
d) A model for social interactions
Answer: c) A model for attitudes, behavior, and cognition
5. What is the affect component of an attitude?
a) How one feels about the object
b) A predisposition to act in a certain way
c) The beliefs and thoughts about the object
d) The potential benefits of the object
Answer: a) How one feels about the object
6. Which type of information processing involves thoughtful consideration of the issues

and arguments in a persuasive message?
a) Central route processing
171
b) Peripheral route processing
c) Emotional processing
d) Implicit processing
Answer: a) Central route processing
7. What is the term for the conflict experienced when an individual holds
contradictory attitudes or thoughts?
a) Cognitive distortion
b) Social dissonance
c) Cognitive inconsistency
d) Cognitive dissonance
Answer: d) Cognitive dissonance
8. What is the main process involved in forming an overall impression of another

person?
a) Impression management
b) Impression diffusion
c) Impression formation
d) Impression reconciliation
Answer: c) Impression formation
9. According to attribution theory, what are situational causes based on?
a) Internal traits
b) Environmental factors
c) Personality factors
d) Biological influences
Answer: b) Environmental factors
172
10. What is the tendency to attribute the behavior of others to dispositional causes
called?
a) Situational attribution
b) Dispositional attribution
c) Fundamental attribution error
d) Halo effect
Answer: c) Fundamental attribution error
11. What is the process through which our behavior is affected by the actions of others?
a) Socialization
b) Persuasion
c) Conformity
d) Obedience
Answer: a) Socialization
12. What term refers to going along with people and changing one's behavior or
attitudes to follow the beliefs or standards of others?
a) Obedience
b) Compliance
c) Conformity
d) Social influence
Answer: c) Conformity
13. What is the negative behavior directed toward members of a particular group
called?
a) Prejudice
b) Stereotype
c) Discrimination
173
d) Bias
Answer: c) Discrimination
14. Which term describes a schema in which beliefs and expectations about a group are
held solely based on their membership in that group?
a) Bias
b) Prejudice
c) Discrimination
d) Stereotype
Answer: d) Stereotype
15. What is the tendency to hold more favorable opinions about groups to which we
belong and less favorable opinions about groups to which we do not belong?
a) Ingroup-outgroup bias
b) Confirmation bias
c) Stereotype bias
d) Social bias
Answer: a) Ingroup-outgroup bias
16. What type of schema involves sets of cognitions about people and social
experiences?
a) Stereotype
b) Impression
c) Bias
d) Schema
Answer: d) Schema
17. What type of messages are more effective than one-sided messages?
a) Negative messages
174
b) Fear-inducing messages
c) Two-sided messages
d) Emotional messages
Answer: c) Two-sided messages
18. Which tactic involves presenting a large request followed by a smaller request to
increase compliance?
a) Foot-in-the-door
b) Door-in-the-face
c) That's-not-all
d) Not-so-free sample
Answer: a) Foot-in-the-door
19. What is the central trait in impression formation?
a) The most recent behavior
b) The most distinctive behavior
c) A major trait influencing overall impression
d) A minor trait influencing overall impression
Answer: c) A major trait influencing overall impression
20. What is the process of changing attitudes by linking a product with a positive feeling
or event?
a) Operant conditioning
c) Vicarious learning
Answer: b) Classical conditioning
175
Q&A:
1. What is the most popular social science today?
Answer: Psychology.
2. How many divisions does the American Psychological Association have?
Answer: 55 divisions.
3. Name three of the most popular areas of psychology today.
Answer: Clinical psychology, Health psychology, Organizational psychology.
4. Provide examples of major subfields of psychology.
Answer: Behavioral Neuroscience, Clinical psychology, Cognitive Psychology, Cross-cultural

Psychology, Developmental Psychology, Educational Psychology, Environmental Psychology,
Experimental psychology, Forensic Psychology, Industrial/Organizational Psychology,
Personality psychology, Social Psychology, and more.
5. What is the main focus of social psychology?
Answer: Social psychology is concerned with how people’s thoughts, feelings, and actions are
influenced by others.
6. What term describes learned predispositions to respond favorably or unfavorably to

a particular object?
Answer: Attitudes.
7. What are the three components of the ABC model of attitudes?
Answer: Affect (feelings), Behavior (predisposition to act), and Cognition (beliefs and
thoughts).
8. How do advertisers use classical conditioning to influence attitudes?
Answer: They associate a product with a positive feeling or event to create a positive attitude
towards it.
9. What is the process through which people's attitudes are changed called?
Answer: Persuasion.
176
10. What factors can affect attitude change?
Answer: Message source, Characteristics of the message, Characteristics of the target audience.
11. What does the fundamental attribution error refer to?
Answer: People's tendency to attribute others' behavior to dispositional causes rather than
situational ones.
12. What is the difference between central route processing and peripheral route
processing?
Answer: Central route processing involves thoughtful consideration of arguments, while

peripheral route processing relies on cues like the source of the message.
13. What is cognitive dissonance?
Answer: It's the discomfort arising from holding contradictory attitudes or thoughts.
14. What is the process of forming an overall impression of someone based on available
information called?
Answer: Impression formation.
15. How does the in-group-out-group bias influence perceptions of groups?
Answer: It leads to more favorable opinions about groups one belongs to and less favorable
opinions about groups one doesn't belong to.
16. What is conformity?
Answer: Conformity is changing behavior or attitudes to match those of others due to social
pressure.
17. What is the key element in obedience?
Answer: Obedience involves following the commands of others.
18. What is compliance?
Answer: Compliance is conforming behavior resulting from direct social pressure.
19. How can stereotypes lead to prejudice and discrimination?
Answer: Stereotypes are simplified beliefs about groups that can lead to unfair judgments and
negative behaviors towards those groups.
177
20. What is a self-fulfilling prophecy?
Answer: It's an expectation about an event or behavior that influences behavior in a way that
makes the expectation come true.
Lesson 41
HEALTH PSYCHOLOGY
MCQs:
1. What is the primary focus of health psychology?
a) The study of neurological disorders
b) The role of genes in physical health
c) The relationship between psychological factors and illness
d) The impact of environmental factors on mental health
Answer: c) The relationship between psychological factors and illness
2. According to the World Health Organization (WHO), health is defined as:
a) The absence of disease
b) Physical well-being only
c) A state of complete physical, mental, and social well-being
d) The presence of happiness
Answer: c) A state of complete physical, mental, and social well-being
3. Which psychological theory emphasizes that a person's health depends on their

perception of control over their life and health?
a) Health-Belief Model
b) Self-Efficacy Theory
c) Protection Motivation Theory
178
d) Theory of Planned Behavior
Answer: b) Self-Efficacy Theory
4. What is the belief that one has no control over the environment and aversive stimuli
cannot be controlled?
a) Self-Efficacy
b) Self-Perception
c) Learned Helplessness
d) Locus of Control
Answer: c) Learned Helplessness
5. Which theory suggests that health-related behaviors can be acquired through

observing others?
a) Self-Efficacy Theory
b) Observational Learning Theory
c) Operant Conditioning Theory
d) Classical Conditioning Theory
Answer: b) Observational Learning Theory
6. Which class of stressors includes daily hassles?
a) Cataclysmic Events
b) Personal Stressors
c) Background Stressors
d) Chronic Stressors
Answer: c) Background Stressors
7. Which physiological condition is associated with chronic stress?
a) Increased immune system functioning
179
b) Decreased hormonal activity
c) Elevated blood pressure
d) Reduced psycho physiological conditions
Answer: c) Elevated blood pressure
8. The General Adaptation Syndrome Model consists of how many stages? a) One b)
Two c) Three d) Four
Answer: c) Three
9. What is the primary focus of health psychology?
a) Understanding the human mind
b) Studying the development of cognitive abilities
c) Examining psychological factors in illness and health promotion
d) Analyzing the effects of social media on mental health
Answer: c) Examining psychological factors in illness and health promotion
10. Which psychological intervention focuses on helping individuals manage stress

through controlled muscle relaxation?
a) Biofeedback
b) Cognitive Therapy
c) Hypnosis
d) Relaxation Techniques
Answer: d) Relaxation Techniques
11. What is the emphasis of the Health-Belief Model?
a) The impact of social support on health
b) The role of genes in health and disease
c) The relationship between stress and chronic illness
180
d) Individual beliefs about health and the likelihood of taking preventive measures
Answer: d) Individual beliefs about health and the likelihood of taking preventive measures
12. What is the main goal of health psychology?
a) Treating physical diseases
b) Identifying the genetic causes of health conditions
c) Enhancing physical fitness
d) Understanding the role of psychological factors in health and well-being
Answer: d) Understanding the role of psychological factors in health and well-being
13. The "fight or flight" response is associated with which stage of the General
Adaptation Syndrome Model?
a) Alarm and mobilization
b) Resistance
c) Exhaustion
d) Recovery
Answer: a) Alarm and mobilization
14. Which class of stressors involves natural disasters?
d) Daily Hassles
Answer: a) Cataclysmic Events
15. Which theory suggests that health-related behaviors are influenced by the
individual's perception of their ability to achieve desired outcomes?
a) Self-Efficacy Theory
181
b) Theory of Planned Behavior
c) Observational Learning Theory
d) Health-Belief Model
Answer: a) Self-Efficacy Theory
16. What is the term for unconscious strategies people use to reduce anxiety by
concealing its source?
a) Learned Helplessness
b) Self-Efficacy
c) Coping Mechanisms
d) Defense Mechanisms
Answer: d) Defense Mechanisms
17. Which strategy involves changing goals or perceptions to make a stressful situation
less threatening?
a) Problem-focused coping
b) Emotion-focused coping
c) Defensive coping
d) Avoidance coping
Answer: a) Problem-focused coping
18. Which psychological theory emphasizes the importance of social support in coping
with stress?
a) Health-Belief Model
b) Social Support Theory
c) Self-Efficacy Theory
d) Observational Learning Theory
Answer: b) Social Support Theory
182
19. What is the main goal of health psychology?
a) Treating physical diseases
b) Identifying the genetic causes of health conditions
c) Enhancing physical fitness
d) Understanding the role of psychological factors in health and well-being
Answer: d) Understanding the role of psychological factors in health and well-being
20. Which class of stressors includes minor irritations that have no long-term effects
unless they continue or are compounded?
d) Chronic Stressors
Answer: c) Background Stressors
Q&A:
1. What is health psychology's primary focus?
Answer: Health psychology focuses on the role of psychological factors in the development and
prevention of illness, coping with disease, and health promotion.
2. How does health psychology contribute to the field of psychology?
Answer: Health psychology includes psychology's contribution to enhancing health, preventing

and treating disease, identifying health risk factors, improving the healthcare system, and
shaping public opinion about health.
3. What areas does a health psychologist work in?
Answer: A health psychologist works in areas such as enhancing health, preventing disease,
treating disease, identifying risk factors, improving the healthcare system, and shaping public
opinion about health.
4. According to the World Health Organization (WHO), how is health defined?
183
Answer: According to the WHO, health is "a state of complete physical, mental, and social well-
being and not merely the absence of disease or infirmity."
5. Why has health psychology gained importance in recent times?
Answer: Health psychology gained importance due to the shift from infectious diseases to
lifestyle-related diseases as leading causes of death, the rising costs of healthcare that emphasize
preventive strategies, and dissatisfaction with the existing medical model.
6. What is the common theme among different psychological theories explaining

health-related beliefs and behaviors?
Answer: All explanations agree that a person's health and feeling of well-being depend largely
on how much control they feel they have over their life, circumstances, and health.
7. What is "learned helplessness" proposed by Martin Seligman?
Answer: Learned helplessness is the belief that one has no control over the environment, leading
individuals to conclude that unpleasant or aversive stimuli cannot be controlled.
8. How do classical conditioning and operant conditioning contribute to health-related

behaviors?
Answer: Classical conditioning associates health behaviors with certain stimuli (e.g., fear of
doctors) while operant conditioning associates behaviors with consequences (e.g., overeating due
to encouragement).
9. What are the three stages of the General Adaptation Syndrome Model proposed by
Hans Selye?
Answer: The three stages are: a) Alarm and mobilization stage, b) Resistance stage, and c)
Exhaustion stage.
10. How does stress impact health and well-being?
Answer: Stress can have direct physiological effects like high blood pressure and immune
system suppression, harmful behaviors like smoking and poor nutrition, and indirect effects like
poor compliance with medical advice.
11. What are some practical strategies for coping with stress?
Answer: Practical strategies include turning threats into challenges, changing goals, taking
physical action, and preparing for stress through stress inoculation.
12. How does a positive state of mind impact health?
184
Answer: A positive state of mind has been associated with longevity of life and recovery from
disease.
13. How does health psychology define health?
Answer: Health psychology defines health as a state of complete physical, mental, and social
well-being, going beyond the absence of disease.
14. What are the primary areas of focus for a health psychologist's work?
Answer: A health psychologist's work includes enhancement of health, prevention of disease,

treatment of disease, identification of risk factors, improvement of the healthcare system, and
shaping public opinion about health.
15. What factors influence an individual's sense of control over their health?
Answer: Psychological variables like health locus of control, perceived control, and self-
perceptions of wellness can influence an individual's sense of control over their health.
16. What is the significance of understanding the nature of stressors?
Answer: Understanding different classes of stressors helps in managing stress and its effects on
health. These include cataclysmic events, personal stressors, and background stressors.
17. How can background stressors impact an individual's well-being?
Answer: Background stressors, although minor, can lead to daily hassles and, if they continue,
contribute to long-term negative effects on well-being.
18. How do psychological factors impact health-related behaviors?
Answer: Psychological factors like self-efficacy, perceived control, and learned helplessness can
influence health-related behaviors and coping mechanisms.
19. How can psychological interventions help individuals cope with stress?
Answer: Psychological interventions like relaxation techniques, biofeedback, behavior therapy,

cognitive therapy, hypnosis, and meditation can help individuals develop coping mechanisms for
stress.
20. How does the General Adaptation Syndrome Model explain the course of stress?
Answer: The General Adaptation Syndrome Model proposes three stages: alarm and
mobilization, resistance, and exhaustion, which represent the body's response to stressors and
adaptation over time.
185
Lesson 42
INDUSTRIAL/ORGANIZATIONAL PSYCHOLOGY
MCQs:
1. What is the primary focus of industrial/organizational psychology?
a) Investigating the psychology of the workplace
b) Studying clinical psychology
c) Exploring cognitive development in children
d) Analyzing personality traits
Answer: a) Investigating the psychology of the workplace
2. What does industrial/organizational psychology study?
a) The emotions of artists
b) The cognition of children
c) The behaviors of people in the workplace
d) The nature of dreams
Answer: c) The behaviors of people in the workplace
3. Which major aspect is NOT a focus of interest for industrial/organizational

psychologists?
a) Fitting the right person to a given job
b) Fitting the job to the person
c) Enhancing personal hobbies
d) Understanding job satisfaction
Answer: c) Enhancing personal hobbies
186
4. What is the purpose of job analysis?
a) To prepare a detailed description of the job
b) To create a general summary of the organization
c) To predict future stock market trends
d) To analyze market competition
Answer: a) To prepare a detailed description of the job
5. Which step is involved in job analysis?
a) Selecting the best applicant
b) Making decisions regarding retention
c) Determining performance criteria
d) Monitoring worker motivation
Answer: c) Determining performance criteria
6. What are "hard" criteria in personnel selection?
a) Objective criteria obtained from data
b) Subjective criteria based on personal opinions
c) Criteria that are difficult to measure
d) Criteria related to artistic skills
Answer: a) Objective criteria obtained from data
7. Which type of interview is preferred in personnel selection?
a) Unstructured interviews
b) Random interviews
c) Structured interviews
d) Impromptu interviews
187
Answer: c) Structured interviews
8. What is a purpose of psychological tests in personnel selection?
a) To provide medical diagnoses
b) To assess personality traits
c) To measure artistic abilities
d) To evaluate taste preferences
Answer: b) To assess personality traits
9. What is training in the context of industrial/organizational psychology?
a) The process of altering employees' behaviors
b) The process of creating complex job descriptions
c) The process of hiring new employees
d) The process of changing organizational goals
Answer: a) The process of altering employees' behaviors
10. Which theory focuses on workers making logical choices based on expected
outcomes?
a) Maslow's hierarchy of needs
b) Equity theory
c) Expectancy theory
d) Reinforcement theory
Answer: c) Expectancy theory
11. What is the goal of molding the job and workplace?
a) To maximize profits
b) To achieve perfect employee attendance
c) To enhance efficiency and productivity
188
d) To eliminate all challenges in the job
Answer: c) To enhance efficiency and productivity
12. What is job satisfaction?
a) An attitude toward one's job
b) A measure of work hours
c) An index of salary level
d) A measure of workplace accidents
Answer: a) An attitude toward one's job
13. What type of decision-making is related to job satisfaction?
a) Centralized decision-making
b) Automatic decision-making
c) Decentralized decision-making
d) Hierarchical decision-making
Answer: c) Decentralized decision-making
14. What is a significant factor affecting job satisfaction?
a) Employee age and gender
b) Employee favorite color
c) Employee home address
d) Employee star sign
Answer: a) Employee age and gender
15. What is an example of a subjective criterion in job satisfaction?
a) Salary and job security
b) Academic record
189
c) Number of units sold
d) Number of sick leaves taken
Answer: a) Salary and job security
16. What is a recommended approach for enhancing job satisfaction in a collective

culture?
a) Implement centralized decision-making
b) Avoid setting specific goals
c) Promote individual competition
d) Involve employees in goal setting
Answer: d) Involve employees in goal setting
17. What is the main purpose of assessing training needs?
a) To create complex job descriptions
b) To maximize organizational profit
c) To develop evaluation criteria
d) To alter employee behaviors
Answer: c) To develop evaluation criteria
18. What is the final step in assessing training needs using Goldstein's system?
a) Conducting training
b) Monitoring training
c) Evaluating training transfer
d) Developing evaluation criteria
Answer: c) Evaluating training transfer
19. Which theory suggests that workers aim to match their inputs and outcomes with
those of fellow workers?
190
a) Equity theory
b) Expectancy theory
c) Reinforcement theory
d) Maslow's hierarchy of needs
Answer: a) Equity theory
20. What is the primary function of personnel selection?
a) Making decisions regarding promotion
b) Making decisions regarding training
c) Making decisions regarding organizational structure
d) Making decisions regarding weather forecasts
Answer: a) Making decisions regarding promotion
Q&A:
1. What is industrial/organizational psychology focused on?
A: Industrial/organizational psychology focuses on investigating the psychology of the

workplace.
2. How do industrial/organizational psychologists study behaviors in work settings?
A: Industrial/organizational psychologists use scientific methods and knowledge to study the

behaviors, affects, and cognitions of people in work settings.
3. What is a major focus of interest in industrial/organizational psychology?
A: A major focus of interest is determining how best to fit the right person to a given job and
how to fit the job to the person.
4. How is "doing a good job" typically defined?
A: "Doing a good job" refers to performing work tasks effectively and efficiently in a given job.
5. What are the primary areas of focus within personnel selection?
191
A: Personnel selection involves selecting people who do the job well, training them to perform
well, and motivating them for optimal job performance.
6. What is the purpose of job analysis in personnel selection?
A: Job analysis involves preparing a specific description of a job, including the qualities and
behaviors required of a person to perform the job properly.
7. What is the goal of determining performance criteria in job analysis?
A: The goal of determining performance criteria is to translate the specified duties and
responsibilities of a job into measurable personal characteristics needed for effective job
performance.
8. What are "hard" criteria and "soft" criteria in personnel selection?
A: "Hard" criteria are objective measures obtained from data, such as salary and sales numbers.
"Soft" criteria are subjective measures with a personal touch, like sense of humor and creativity.
9. What is the primary task of personnel selection?
A: The primary task of personnel selection is to select the best applicant for a job, making
decisions about retention, promotion, and termination.
10. How do structured interviews differ from unstructured interviews in personnel

selection?
A: Structured interviews consist of carefully phrased, prescribed, and uniform questions for all
applicants, while unstructured interviews lack this organization.
11. How can psychological tests be used in personnel selection?
A: Psychological tests, such as intelligence and personality tests, may supplement data from
application forms and interviews to assess an applicant's abilities and potential.
12. What is the primary purpose of training in industrial/organizational psychology?
A: Training aims to systematically alter employees' behaviors to enhance organizational

effectiveness and increase job performance.
13. Describe Goldstein's system for assessing training needs.
A: Goldstein's system involves assessing instructional needs, deriving training objectives,

selecting methods, conducting training, developing evaluation criteria, pretesting trainees,
monitoring training, and evaluating transfer.
192
14. How can the effectiveness of training be evaluated?
A: Training effectiveness can be evaluated through methods such as trainees' ratings and
organizational assessments based on training objectives.
15. What theories explain what motivates individuals to work according to

industrial/organizational psychologists?
A: Need theories, cognitive theories, and reinforcement theories explain what motivates
individuals to work.
16. What is the basis of need theories of work motivation?
A: Need theories, based on Maslow's hierarchy of needs, suggest that individuals fulfill basic
needs first and then move towards more sophisticated needs.
17. How do cognitive theories explain work motivation?
A: Cognitive theories focus on how people's thoughts, feelings, understanding, and expectations
about their job and workplace influence motivation.
18. What is the central idea of equity theory in work motivation?
A: Equity theory suggests that workers are motivated to match their inputs and outcomes with
those of fellow workers in similar positions.
19. How does reinforcement theory explain work motivation?
A: Reinforcement theory asserts that motivation is influenced by the level and type of
reinforcement given to workers, with positive reinforcement increasing motivation and
punishment decreasing it.
20. What is the role of goal setting in motivating workers?
A: Goal setting can motivate workers by providing specific and achievable goals, regular
feedback, and employee involvement, while considering cultural differences in goal acceptance.
Lesson 43
CONSUMER PSYCHOLOGY
MCQs:
1. What is the main focus of consumer psychology?
193
a) Studying mental disorders in consumers
b) Investigating consumer hobbies and interests
c) Analyzing the stock market's impact on consumers
d) Understanding consumers' buying behavior and advertisement effects
Answer: d) Understanding consumers' buying behavior and advertisement effects
2. What is the primary goal of consumer psychology?
a) To promote products through aggressive advertising
b) To predict consumer behavior without any influence from advertisements
c) To describe, predict, influence, and explain consumer responses
d) To increase the prices of products to maximize profit
Answer: c) To describe, predict, influence, and explain consumer responses
3. Which of the following is NOT an area of focus for consumer psychologists?
a) Studying consumer decision making
b) Analyzing the impact of advertisements on attitudes
c) Investigating the stock market's fluctuations
d) Researching purchase decisions and consumption practices
Answer: c) Investigating the stock market's fluctuations
4. What does "soft sell appeal" in advertising emphasize?
a) The functional qualities of the product
b) The lifestyle and emotions associated with the product
c) The discounted price of the product
d) The scientific research supporting the product's claims
Answer: b) The lifestyle and emotions associated with the product
194
5. Which psychological principle is associated with advertisers using models to create a
positive feeling for a product?
Answer: a) Classical conditioning
6. What does "hard sell appeal" in advertising focus on?
a) The lifestyle and emotions associated with the product
b) The physical appearance of the model
c) The functional qualities of the product
d) The social interactions depicted in the advertisement
Answer: c) The functional qualities of the product
7. What is "psychographics" in consumer psychology?
a) The study of mental disorders affecting consumers
b) A technique for dividing people into lifestyle profiles related to purchasing patterns
c) A research method for analyzing stock market trends
d) An analysis of the impact of advertisements on consumers' buying behavior
Answer: b) A technique for dividing people into lifestyle profiles related to purchasing patterns
8. Which type of consumers make purchases to satisfy basic, elemental needs?
a) Inner-directed consumers
b) Emulator consumers
c) Sustainer consumers
d) Need-driven consumers
195
Answer: d) Need-driven consumers
9. What does "cognitive dissonance" refer to in the context of consumer psychology?
a) The discrepancy between brand beliefs and product quality
b) The pleasant feelings experienced after making a purchase
c) The consistent behavior of consumers across various situations
d) The motivation behind purchasing products impulsively
Answer: a) The discrepancy between brand beliefs and product quality
10. What is the final stage in the consumer cognitive processing model?
a) Problem recognition
b) Information search
c) Post-purchase evaluation
d) Brand beliefs evaluation
Answer: c) Post-purchase evaluation
11. What is the primary focus of consumer psychology?
a) Analyzing stock market trends
b) Understanding consumers' buying behavior and the impact of advertisements
c) Investigating the emotional states of consumers
d) Predicting future product innovations
Answer: b) Understanding consumers' buying behavior and the impact of advertisements
12. What term is used for dividing people into lifestyle profiles related to purchasing
patterns?
a) Demographics
b) Psychographics
c) Market research
196
d) Ethnography
Answer: b) Psychographics
13. What does "soft sell appeal" in advertising emphasize?
a) The functional qualities of the product
b) The lifestyle and emotions associated with the product
c) The discounted price of the product
d) The scientific research supporting the product's claims
Answer: b) The lifestyle and emotions associated with the product
14. Which psychological principle is associated with advertisers using models to create a
positive feeling for a product?
Answer: a) Classical conditioning
15. What is the main goal of consumer psychology?
a) To maximize profit by increasing product prices
b) To predict consumer behavior without considering advertisements
c) To describe, predict, influence, and explain consumer responses
d) To discourage consumers from making unnecessary purchases
Answer: c) To describe, predict, influence, and explain consumer responses
16. Which type of consumers make purchases primarily to satisfy basic needs?
a) Inner-directed consumers
b) Emulator consumers
197
c) Sustainer consumers
d) Need-driven consumers
Answer: d) Need-driven consumers
17. Which stage of the consumer cognitive processing model involves comparing
different alternatives?
a) Problem recognition
b) Information search
c) Evaluations of alternatives
d) Purchase
Answer: c) Evaluations of alternatives
18. What are "brand beliefs" in the context of consumer behavior?
a) Consumers' assumptions about a product's reputation
b) The emotions consumers experience after purchasing a product
c) The functional qualities of the product
d) The reasons consumers choose to buy a particular brand
Answer: a) Consumers' assumptions about a product's reputation
19. What is the final stage in the decision-making process in the marketplace?
a) Purchase
b) Evaluations of alternatives
c) Problem recognition
d) Information search
Answer: a) Purchase
20. What role does "psychographics" play in understanding consumer behavior?
a) It helps analyze stock market trends
198
b) It divides consumers into different age groups
c) It provides insight into different lifestyle profiles related to purchasing patterns
d) It focuses solely on the functional qualities of products
Answer: c) It provides insight into different lifestyle profiles related to purchasing patterns
Q&A:
1. Why do manufacturers advertise their products?
Answer: Manufacturers advertise their products to create awareness, attract potential consumers,
and persuade them to make purchasing decisions.
2. Why do advertisers use models in advertisements?
Answer: Advertisers use models in advertisements to create a positive emotional appeal,

associate desirable traits with the product, and attract consumer attention.
3. Why do advertisers use cartoons rather than human models in advertisements of

children’s products?
Answer: Cartoons are used in advertisements of children's products because they can engage
children's imagination, create a fun and relatable experience, and capture their attention
effectively.
4. Why do manufacturers introduce only one new model in a year?
Answer: Manufacturers may introduce only one new model in a year to maintain consumer
interest, create anticipation, and avoid overwhelming the market with too many choices.
5. How would we decide what to buy if there were no advertisements?
Answer: Without advertisements, purchasing decisions would likely be influenced by personal

recommendations, word-of-mouth, past experiences, and product reviews.
6. What is the main focus of consumer psychology?
Answer: Consumer psychology focuses on understanding consumers' buying behavior and the
impact of advertisements on their attitudes, thoughts, and behavior in the marketplace.
7. What does the term "soft sell appeal" refer to in advertising?
199
Answer: Soft sell appeal in advertising refers to an approach that emphasizes the lifestyle and
emotional aspects of a product, aiming to create a positive image and association.
8. What is the primary goal of consumer psychology?
Answer: The primary goal of consumer psychology is to describe, predict, influence, and
explain consumer responses to advertisements and buying decisions.
9. Who are consumer psychologists, and what is their role?
Answer: Consumer psychologists are experts educated in understanding consumer habits and the
influence of advertisements on consumers' attitudes and behavior. They conduct research,
educate, train, and analyze consumer behavior.
10. What role did J.B. Watson play in the history of consumer psychology?
Answer: J.B. Watson was a prominent psychologist who applied principles of psychology to
advertising. He believed in demonstrating psychology's practical utility through real-life
applications and designed ads to target emotions and anxieties in consumers.
11. What is the significance of psychographics in consumer psychology?
Answer: Psychographics involve dividing people into lifestyle profiles related to purchasing
patterns. It helps advertisers understand different consumer needs, tailor campaigns, and select
appropriate advertising mediums.
12. What factors affect product preference according to consumer psychology?
Answer: Product preference can be influenced by factors such as personality type, brand loyalty,
peer pressure, product price, reputation, packaging, quality, advertisement, and individual needs.
13. What are the two main techniques used in making advertisements?
Answer: The two main techniques used in making advertisements are soft sell appeals, which
emphasize emotions and lifestyle, and hard sell appeals, which focus on the functional qualities
of the product.
14. How does self-monitoring impact consumer behavior?
Answer: Self-monitoring refers to the tendency to adjust behavior to present oneself effectively
in different social situations. High self-monitors are more flexible and influenced by
advertisements, while low self-monitors are more consistent in their behavior.
15. What is the purpose of using classical conditioning in advertising?
200
Answer: Classical conditioning is used in advertising to create positive associations between a
product and a desirable emotional response, often achieved by using models that evoke positive
feelings.
16. What is the focus of the cognitive processing model in consumer psychology?
Answer: The cognitive processing model focuses on understanding how consumers make
decisions in the marketplace, involving stages such as problem recognition, information search,
evaluations of alternatives, brand beliefs, purchase, and post-purchase evaluation.
17. How do brand beliefs influence consumer decisions?
Answer: Brand beliefs are assumptions consumers hold about a product's reputation. They
influence purchasing decisions based on prior experiences, knowledge, and the perceived quality
of the brand.
18. What is cognitive dissonance in consumer psychology?
Answer: Cognitive dissonance is the discomfort or tension felt by consumers when there's a
discrepancy between their beliefs and their actions, often occurring after a significant purchase.
Reduction strategies are used to alleviate this discomfort.
19. What role do subcultures play in consumer behavior?
Answer: Subcultures within the general population have distinct purchasing patterns due to
differences in values, interests, and socio-economic factors. Understanding these differences
helps advertisers tailor products and advertisements to specific groups.
20. How does micro marketing influence consumer behavior?
Answer: Micro marketing involves targeting marketing efforts at specific buyers on a local or
individual store level. It helps reach consumers with tailored messages, reflecting their needs and
preferences.
Lesson 44
SPORT PSYCHOLOGY
MCQs:
1. What does exercise and sport psychology focus on?
a) Understanding brain function
201
b) Analyzing physical health only
c) Predicting weather patterns
d) Understanding psychological variables affecting athletic performance
Answer: d) Understanding psychological variables affecting athletic performance
2. Who is considered the father of Sport Psychology in North America?
a) Norman Triplett
b) Coleman Roberts Griffith
c) James-Lange
d) Abraham Maslow
Answer: b) Coleman Roberts Griffith
3. What is one of the primary tasks of a sport psychologist?
a) Analyzing weather conditions for outdoor sports
b) Improving the diet of athletes
c) Enhancing and maximizing sport performance
d) Managing team finances
Answer: c) Enhancing and maximizing sport performance
4. What is the role of arousal level in sport psychology?
a) It doesn't affect sport performance
b) It has a negative impact on motivation
c) It's essential for optimal sport performance, but too much or too little is detrimental
d) It only affects psychological well-being, not performance
Answer: c) It's essential for optimal sport performance, but too much or too little is detrimental
5. What is arousal in the context of sport psychology?
202
a) An elevated emotional state unrelated to physical changes
b) A state of complete relaxation
c) A neutral physiological state with no impact on performance
d) A physiological state accompanied by increased heart rate and metabolism
Answer: d) A physiological state accompanied by increased heart rate and metabolism
6. How does mental practice help improve sport performance?
a) It reduces arousal levels to a minimum
b) It enhances physical strength
c) It creates unrealistic expectations
d) It provides a vivid image of the scenario and reduces negative thoughts
Answer: d) It provides a vivid image of the scenario and reduces negative thoughts
7. What does the phenomenon of "home field advantage" suggest?
a) Athletes perform better when away from home
b) Athletes perform equally well in all conditions
c) Athletes perform better and are more relaxed when playing on home ground
d) Athletes perform worse when playing on home ground
Answer: c) Athletes perform better and are more relaxed when playing on home ground
8. What percentage of athletic performance is considered to be mental, according to

Mahoney?
a) 10% mental, 90% physical
b) 50% mental, 50% physical
c) 20% mental, 80% physical
d) 80% mental, 20% physical
Answer: d) 80% mental, 20% physical
203
9. Which technique is effective for overcoming self-consciousness in sports?
a) Visualization
b) Deep breathing
c) Assertiveness training
d) Physical conditioning
Answer: c) Assertiveness training
10. What is the primary focus of operant conditioning in sport psychology?
a) Enhancing arousal levels
b) Improving physical strength
c) Reinforcing positive behaviors for peak performance
d) Eliminating negative thoughts
Answer: c) Reinforcing positive behaviors for peak performance
11. Which learning approach is most beneficial in learning a sport?
b) Observational learning
d) Vicarious learning
Answer: b) Observational learning
12. What is the primary goal of stress management techniques in sport psychology?
a) Increasing arousal levels
b) Causing physical exhaustion
c) Enhancing pain tolerance
d) Reducing anxiety and enhancing performance
204
Answer: d) Reducing anxiety and enhancing performance
13. What does self-talk involve in sport psychology?
a) Reciting poetry during competition
b) Positive or negative thoughts athletes have about themselves
c) Shouting instructions to teammates
d) Engaging in casual conversation with opponents
Answer: b) Positive or negative thoughts athletes have about themselves
14. What role does arousal level play in optimal sport performance?
a) It's not relevant to sport performance
b) Higher arousal levels are always better
c) Optimal performance requires finding the right balance of arousal
d) Lower arousal levels are always better
Answer: c) Optimal performance requires finding the right balance of arousal
15. Who established the first sport psychology laboratory in North America?
a) Norman Triplett
b) Coleman Roberts Griffith
c) James-Lange
d) Ivan Pavlov
Answer: b) Coleman Roberts Griffith
16. What did Norman Triplett's research on cyclists reveal?
a) The presence of other competitors hindered cycling performance
b) Cyclists performed equally well regardless of the presence of competitors
c) The presence of other competitors facilitated better cycling performance
205
d) Cyclists were not affected by social factors
Answer: c) The presence of other competitors facilitated better cycling performance
17. What athletes more tolerant are of compared to non-athletes?
a) Depression
b) Anxiety
c) Fatigue
d) Pain
Answer: d) Pain
18. Which area of sport psychology focuses on raising the level of performance?
a) Injury prevention
b) Social facilitation
c) Stress management
d) Enhancing motivation
Answer: d) Enhancing motivation
19. What is the primary purpose of mental practice involving imagery?
a) Achieving instant physical results
b) Reducing physical effort
c) Overcoming anxiety
d) Learning skills and improving performance
Answer: d) Learning skills and improving performance
20. What is the common observation regarding athletes' performance on their home
ground?
a) They perform worse due to pressure
b) They perform equally well in all conditions
206
c) They perform better and are more relaxed
d) They perform better due to less pressure
Answer: c) They perform better and are more relaxed
Q&A:
1. Why is it often difficult to predict consistent performance among cricketers?
Answer: Consistent performance in cricket can be influenced by various psychological factors

such as pressure, anxiety, and focus, which can vary from game to game.
2. Why might a cricketer not perform as expected, even when poised to score a
century?
Answer: Factors like anxiety, pressure, or lapses in concentration can affect a cricketer's
performance, leading to unexpected outcomes despite their skill level.
3. What might lead to sportsmen experiencing sprains or pulled muscles during crucial
matches?
Answer: High levels of stress and anxiety before crucial matches can result in heightened
muscle tension, increasing the likelihood of injuries like sprains and pulled muscles.
4. Why do spectators have a significant impact on athletes' behavior and performance?
Answer: Spectators' reactions can affect athletes' emotions, leading to changes in arousal levels,
aggression, and focus, which can ultimately influence their performance.
5. How does sport psychology contribute to understanding these issues in sports?
Answer: Sport psychology examines the psychological variables influencing athletes' behavior,
emotions, and performance, shedding light on the reasons behind these issues.
6. What is the focus of exercise and sport psychology?
Answer: Exercise and sport psychology studies and predicts how psychological factors impact
athletic performance, aiming to improve performance and boost athletes' confidence.
7. How does sport psychology apply psychological principles to sports performance?
Answer: Sport psychology utilizes psychological knowledge and principles to understand and
enhance various factors affecting sports performance, including mental preparation, motivation,
and focus.
207
8. Who is often credited as the "father" of Sport Psychology in North America?
Answer: Coleman Roberts Griffith is considered the father of Sport Psychology in North
America for his contributions to establishing the field.
9. What did Coleman Roberts Griffith study in the field of Sport Psychology?
Answer: Griffith focused on understanding psychomotor skills, motor learning, and the
relationship between personality variables and physical performance.
10. What distinguishes the formative years of sport psychology?
Answer: The period from 1950 to 1980 marked the formative years of sport psychology, during
which it emerged as a distinct discipline separate from exercise physiology and motor learning.
11. What are the primary areas of focus in the subject matter of sport psychology?
Answer: The subject matter of sport psychology encompasses education, training, research, and
understanding the factors influencing sport performance.
12. How can understanding the psychological characteristics of athletes benefit sports
psychologists?
Answer: Understanding athletes' personality traits helps predict their performance and identify
psychological indicators that contribute to their success or challenges.
13. What psychological characteristics are athletes likely to score higher on?
Answer: Athletes often score higher on tests of assertion, dominance, aggression, and the need
for achievement compared to non-athletes.
14. Why do athletes tend to score lower on anxiety, depression, and fatigue?
Answer: Athletic training and performance can contribute to lower anxiety, depression, and
fatigue levels, particularly among highly skilled athletes.
15. What role does arousal level play in sport performance?
Answer: Arousal level, which represents physiological activation, influences an athlete's focus,
motivation, and performance, with an optimal level being essential for peak performance.
16. How can sport psychologists help athletes manage their arousal levels?
Answer: Sport psychologists help athletes become aware of their arousal levels, teaching them
to maintain an appropriate level that enhances concentration and performance.
208
17. What is the concept of "mental practice" in sport psychology?
Answer: Mental practice involves imagining oneself performing a task, helping athletes enhance
skills, reduce negative thoughts, and prepare for actual performance.
18. How does the phenomenon of "home field advantage" impact athletes' performance?
Answer: Athletes often perform better and feel more relaxed when playing on their home ground
due to familiar surroundings and supportive fans.
19. How do sport psychologists assist athletes in overcoming self-consciousness?
Answer: Sport psychologists apply assertiveness training techniques to help athletes overcome
self-consciousness and build confidence.
20. What is the significance of stress management techniques in sport psychology?
Answer: Stress management techniques, including relaxation, good nutrition, cognitive

interventions, and positive self-talk, help athletes reduce anxiety and optimize performance.
Lesson 45
FORENSIC PSYCHOLOGY
MCQs:
1. What is the primary focus of forensic psychology?
a) Applying psychological principles to marketing

b) Applying psychological principles to the legal system
c) Applying psychological principles to education
d) Applying psychological principles to healthcare
Answer: b) Applying psychological principles to the legal system
2. Forensic psychology involves the intersection of psychology and which system?
a) Healthcare system
b) Financial system
c) Legal system
d) Educational system
Answer: c) Legal system
209
3. What is the main area of concern for forensic psychology?
a) Providing therapy for anxiety

b) Studying cognitive development in children
c) Investigating causes of road accidents
d) Examining aspects of human behavior related to the legal process
Answer: d) Examining aspects of human behavior related to the legal process
4. Which definition accurately describes forensic psychology?
a) The study of psychological disorders in criminals

b) The use of psychology to understand forensic evidence
c) The professional practice of psychology in the legal system
d) The use of psychology for marketing and advertising
Answer: c) The professional practice of psychology in the legal system
5. What is the role of forensic psychologists in assessing accused individuals?
a) Providing counseling for trauma victims

b) Offering legal advice to accused individuals
c) Assessing and reporting on psychological damage
d) Providing medical treatment for physical injuries
Answer: c) Assessing and reporting on psychological damage
6. Which area of psychology is closely related to forensic psychology?
a) Positive psychology
b) Clinical psychology
c) Developmental psychology
d) Industrial-organizational psychology
Answer: b) Clinical psychology
7. What is one of the primary functions of forensic psychologists in the legal system?
a) Delivering medical treatment to inmates

b) Conducting psychological experiments on jurors
c) Providing counseling for lawyers
d) Offering expert testimony in court
Answer: d) Offering expert testimony in court
8. What is the historical origin of the term "forensic"?
a) It comes from the Latin word "forensicus" meaning "expert"

b) It refers to a medical procedure
c) It originates from the French term "forensique" meaning "criminal"
210
d) It derives from the Greek word "foros" meaning "court"
Answer: d) It derives from the Greek word "foros" meaning "court"
9. Who is regarded as the first forensic psychologist?
a) Sigmund Freud
b) Alfred Binet
c) Hugo Munsterberg
d) Lewis Terman
Answer: c) Hugo Munsterberg
10. What contribution did Alfred Binet and Sigmund Freud make to forensic
psychology?
a) Developed psychological tests for job recruitment

b) Introduced the concept of forensic profiling
c) Developed psychological tests for use in legal proceedings
d) Pioneered psychological treatment for criminals
Answer: c) Developed psychological tests for use in legal proceedings
11. What is the main focus of forensic psychology's contribution in the judicial system?
a) Divorce and child custody

b) Jury selection
c) Criminal profiling
d) Forensic anthropology
Answer: b) Jury selection
12. What does forensic psychology primarily emphasize in the context of psychological
expertise?
a) Counseling individuals involved in court cases

b) Providing legal representation for individuals
c) Offering expert testimony in court
d) Conducting physical examinations
Answer: c) Offering expert testimony in court
13. Which term refers to the evaluation of an individual's mental state in relation to
criminal responsibility?
a) Criminal profiling
b) Insanity defense
c) Expert testimony
d) Psychological intervention
Answer: b) Insanity defense
211
14. What is the main role of forensic psychologists in assessing individuals' psychological
fitness for law enforcement work?
a) Providing therapy to law enforcement personnel

b) Offering expert testimony in court
c) Conducting interviews for jury selection
d) Advising police departments on crisis intervention
Answer: b) Offering expert testimony in court
15. What does the American Psychology-Law Society emphasize about forensic
psychology?
a) Its focus on criminal profiling

b) Its intersection with clinical psychology
c) Its role in forensic anthropology
d) Its provision of expert psychological expertise to the judicial system
Answer: d) Its provision of expert psychological expertise to the judicial system
16. What is the primary purpose of forensic psychologists offering expert testimony?
a) To provide legal advice to judges

b) To share personal opinions
c) To educate jurors about psychological concepts
d) To advocate for the rights of the accused
Answer: c) To educate jurors about psychological concepts
17. Which ethical principle emphasizes the responsibility of forensic psychologists to

provide accurate and reliable information?
a) Competence
b) Responsibility
c) Confidentiality
d) Relationships
Answer: a) Competence
18. What is a key skill required for a forensic psychologist?
a) Computer programming
b) Public speaking
c) Physical fitness
d) Patience
Answer: d) Patience
19. Which sub-field of psychology focuses on studying the differences and similarities
between genders?
212
a) Clinical psychology
b) Cognitive psychology
c) Developmental psychology
d) Psychology of women
Answer: d) Psychology of women
20. What is the role of forensic psychologists in understanding the roles and challenges
of women?
a) Providing legal representation to women

b) Offering psychological interventions to women
c) Investigating cases of domestic violence
d) Studying the psychological, social, and biological aspects of women's lives
Answer: d) Studying the psychological, social, and biological aspects of women's lives
Q&A:
1. What is the primary focus of forensic psychology?
Answer: The primary focus of forensic psychology is applying psychological principles and
methods to various areas of the legal system.
2. How is forensic psychology defined?
Answer: Forensic psychology is defined as the research endeavor that examines aspects of
human behavior related to the legal process and the professional practice of psychology within
the legal system.
3. What role does a forensic psychologist play in the legal system?
Answer: A forensic psychologist's role includes assessment of the accused, providing testimony,
psychological intervention for those under trial, rehabilitation of the convicted, and researching
criminal psychology.
4. What are some contributions of forensic psychology in the judicial system?
Answer: Forensic psychology contributes to areas like divorce and child custody, determining
criminal responsibility, jury selection, providing expert opinions, assessing response
receptiveness, and developing treatment programs for offenders.
5. What is the American Psychology-Law Society's emphasis on forensic psychology?
Answer: The American Psychology-Law Society emphasizes forensic psychology's provision of

professional psychological expertise to the judicial system through investigations, studies,
evaluations, advice, opinions, and testimony.
213
6. What is the historical origin of the term "forensic"?
Answer: The term "forensic" comes from the Latin word "forum," referring to public places
where debates about legal processes took place in Roman city-states.
7. Who is regarded as the first forensic psychologist?
Answer: Hugo Munsterberg is regarded as the first forensic psychologist.
8. What did Alfred Binet and Sigmund Freud contribute to forensic psychology?
Answer: They developed psychological tests for judicial proceedings and emphasized the
importance of response time in estimating culpability.
9. How did Lewis Terman contribute to forensic psychology?
Answer: In 1916, Lewis Terman applied psychological tests for law enforcement and used
intelligence tests to assess the intelligence of applicants for police and firefighter jobs.
10. What is the American Board of Forensic Psychology's definition of forensic

psychology?
Answer: The American Board of Forensic Psychology defines forensic psychology as the
professional practice of psychologists providing expertise to the judicial system, involving
clinical, counseling, neuropsychology, and school psychology.
11. What are some important sub-fields of forensic psychology?
Answer: Important sub-fields of forensic psychology include clinical-forensic psychology,

developmental psychology, social psychology, cognitive psychology, and criminal investigative
psychology.
12. What are some ethical principles followed by forensic psychologists?
Answer: Forensic psychologists adhere to ethical principles including responsibility,

competence, relationships, confidentiality, use of scientific methods, and communication
harmony.
13. What skills are essential for becoming a good forensic psychologist?
Answer: Essential skills for a forensic psychologist include patience, adaptability, comfort with
working with people, and a research-oriented mind.
14. What is the focus of psychology of women?
214
Answer: Psychology of women focuses on studying psychological, biological, social, and
lifespan differences and similarities between genders, particularly emphasizing major life events
of women.
15. How does forensic psychology contribute to jury selection?
Answer: Forensic psychology helps in selecting juries by providing expert point of view and
opinions on psychological questions, ensuring a fair trial process.
16. What role does forensic psychology play in explaining psychological disorders and
illnesses?
Answer: Forensic psychology helps in explaining the causes and effects of psychological
disorders and illnesses in legal contexts.
17. How do forensic psychologists contribute to workplace safety?
Answer: Forensic psychologists provide consultation to develop and maintain workplace safety
and violence debriefing procedures.
18. What is the role of forensic psychologists in assessing individuals' psychological

fitness for law enforcement work?
Answer: Forensic psychologists evaluate individuals' psychological fitness for law enforcement
work, ensuring that they are mentally prepared for their duties.
19. How does forensic psychology contribute to the rehabilitation of convicted

individuals?
Answer: Forensic psychologists play a role in the rehabilitation of convicted individuals by

developing and applying treatment programs to offenders and those at risk.
20. What is the main objective of forensic psychologists providing expert testimony?
Answer: The main objective of forensic psychologists providing expert testimony is to educate
courts and juries about psychological concepts relevant to legal cases.
215

PSY101 - Final Term Notes

Uploaded by

Copyright:

Available Formats

PSY101 - Final Term Notes

Uploaded by

Document Information

Original Title

Copyright

Available Formats

Share this document

Share or Embed Document

Sharing Options

Did you find this document useful?

Is this content inappropriate?

Copyright:

Available Formats

PSY101 - Final Term Notes

Uploaded by

Copyright:

Available Formats

Introduction to Psychology

Final Term noTes

Made by: Muniba ch

BesT oF luck sTudenTs

ALTERED STATES OF CONSCIOUSNESS

a) A state of total unawareness

b) The awareness of sensory experiences only

c) The awareness of sensations, thoughts, feelings, and surroundings

d) The awareness of external events only

3. Altered states of consciousness refer to:

a) Being fully aware of one's surroundings

b) States when an individual is unaware of their experiences

c) States when an individual is always asleep

d) States when one is highly focused on a task

4. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of variations in states of

c) Enhanced emotional response

d) Impaired physiological processes

5. Sleep is considered a time for:

a) Mental activity and problem-solving

b) Body rest and rejuvenation

c) Emotional processing and expression

d) Learning new skills and information

6. How are the stages of sleep divided?

a) 4 stages of 60 minutes each

b) 5 stages of 45 minutes each

c) Cycles of 90 minutes each with varying stages

d) Cycles of 120 minutes each with consistent stages

7. Which stage of sleep is characterized by rapid eye movement (REM)?

8. What happens to the brain waves during Stage-2 sleep?

a) They become more rapid and low-voltage

b) They become slower and higher in amplitude

c) They become regular with sleep spindles

d) They become erratic and irregular

9. What is the role of REM sleep?

a) Restoring physical energy

c) Eliminating irrelevant information

d) More than 75%

a) Activation Synthesis Theory

b) Reverse Learning Theory

d) Dreams for Survival Theory

12. Hypnosis is characterized by:

a) Complete loss of consciousness

c) High suggestibility and following instructions

d) Reduced brain activity

13. What is the purpose of self-hypnosis?

a) To enter a deep sleep state

b) To induce lucid dreaming

c) To gain control over one's thoughts and behaviors

d) To increase alertness and focus

14. Which physiological changes are associated with meditation?

a) Increased heart rate and blood pressure

b) Decreased brainwave activity

c) Increased oxygen usage

d) Increased muscle tension

16. What is the main reason people might take drugs?

a) To enhance their cognitive abilities

b) To improve their physical performance

c) To cope with stress or emotions

d) To conform to societal norms