TS Gr-2 RRT-09-EM Ans - Modified

TSPSC : Group-2
RRT – 9 (Answers) (24-09-2023)

1. Match the following regarding the Jagirdari and miscellaneous expenditures. These are
System in the Telangana personal Jagirs.
Various names of Jagirdari system
- description 2. Assertion (A): The Bathukamma festival is
i) Surfekhas celebrated for ten days starting from
- Subsidiaries of the Mughal emperors Bhadrapada Amavasya (Ashwayuja Masam
ii) Paigah Jagirs Shudda Padyami).
-These lands were given by the Nizams Reason (R): The first day of the Bathukamma
iii) Jaath Jagirs festival is known as Engili pula bathukamma
- These are not personal jagirs and the last day is Saddula Bathukamma.
How many pairs given above are matched Select the answer using the codes given below
properly? A) Both A and R are true, and R is the
A) Only one pair proper explanation of A
B) Only two pairs B) Both A and R are true, and R is not a
C) All three pairs are given above proper explanation of A
D) None of the above C) Only A is true
Ans: B D) Only R is true
 Surfekhas: Before 1724 AD, under the rule of Ans: D
Mughal kings, the rulers had total  The Bathukamma festival is specific to the
administrative rights on Surfekhas Jagirs. The Telangana region. This festival is the symbol of
Surfekhas area was the one that was ruled by Telangana culture & and traditions. This festival
the subsidiaries of the Mughal emperors with is celebrated for 9 days starting from
complete authority. So, all the income on the Bhadrapada Amavasya (Ashwayuja Masam
Jagir went to the treasury from which he paid Shudda Padyami). The first day of the festival is
various expenses on the administration and for known as Engili pula bathukamma and 9th day
his own family. is Saddula Bathukamma. Bathukamma is not
 Paigah Jagirs: Paigah means Permanent. Nizam played on the 6th day. It is known as Aligina
used to give Paigah Jagirs to the people who Bathukamma (Arrem).
maintained his Military regiments.
 Jaath Jagirs: These Jagirs had very wide areas; 3. Consider the following statements regarding
the Balki Jaath Jagir of Bidar district is a good the Bonalu festival
example. The income obtained from these i) The process of the Bonalu festival is
Jagirs was used for the expenditure of Jagirdars termed “Uradi”.
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ii) Telangana people celebrate bonalu in the demonstration Markandeya Puranam under the
month of Ashadam. name of "Kunapuli Patam Katha." Similarly, the
iii) During bonalu “Garaga” dance is washermen would narrate "Masayya Patam
performed. Katha" to the rich of their caste to narrate
How many statements given above are correct? Madel Puranam. Thus, there were groups of
A) Only one statement artists, in every caste. These artistic pursuits
B) Only two statements vanished in the past 58 years as there were no
C) All three statements are given above patrons in the United States of Andhra Pradesh.
D) None of the above All these art forms might have been influenced
Ans: C by different tribes as the practice of narrating
 The word “Bonam” means “Bhojanam” which stories could be found in their culture from
means a meal or a feast. This festival is the ancient times.
offering of bhojanam to the mother goddess of
villages. The process of the Bonalu festival is 5. Assertion (A): The Cheriyal Scroll Painting is a
termed “Uradi”. Telangana people celebrate stylized version of Nakashi art.
bonalu in the month of Ashadam. During Reason (R): The Cheriyal scrolls are painted in a
bonalu “Garaga” dance is performed. Women narrative format depicting stories from Indian
prepare rice cooked with milk and jaggery in an mythology, and intimately tied to the shorter
earthen pot and lit a lamp on it. The earthen stories from the Puranas and Epics.
pot is adorned with neem leaves, turmeric and Select the answer using the codes given below
vermilion. A) Both A and R are true, and R is the
proper explanation of A
4. Match the following regarding the narrations B) Both A and R are true, and R is not a
of the various castes in the Markandeya proper explanation of A
Puranam C) Only A is true
Name of the Puranam D) Only R is true
- Narrated by which caste in Telangana Ans: A
i) Kunapuli Patam Katha  The Cheriyal Scroll Painting is a stylized version
- Toddy Tappers of Nakashi art, rich in the local motifs peculiar
ii) Masayya Patam Katha to the Telangana. The scrolls are painted in a
- Poor Washerman’s narrative format, much like a film roll or a
iii) Madel Puranam comic strip, depicting stories from Indian
- Rich Washerman’s mythology, and intimately tied to the shorter
Which of the pairs given above is matched stories from the Puranas and Epics.
properly?
A) Only ii and iii 6. Consider the following statements regarding
B) Only iii the culture of the Telangana
C) Only I and ii i) The famous Urdu poet of Hyderabad,
D) All the above Bismilla Latif Khan introduced a variety of
Ans: A bangles using mirrors, pearls and
 The caste system was so strong, that the poor diamonds which shine even in darkness.
people of a caste, under any circumstances, ii) The ‘Gotes’ is the name of the bangles
would not seek help from the rich people of the which are generally thick and are used on
other castes. For example, the poor in the either side of numerous bangles worn on
Padmashali caste used to narrate through the hand.

Which of the statements given above is ii) The "Telia Rumals" were manufactured in
correct? the Gadwal region of Telangana.
A) Only i iii) Pochampalli Sarees are popular for their
B) Only ii traditional geometric patterns in "Ikat"
C) Both and "tie and die" styles of dyeing.
D) None Which of the statements given above is
Ans: B incorrect?
 Hyderabad has been famous for making A) Only I and ii
numerous varieties of attractive bangles. This B) Only ii
art took a definite shape during the times of C) Only I and iii
Quli Qutub Shah which was concentrated in D) None of the above
Laad Bazar near Charminar. The famous Urdu Ans: B
poet, Chandabai Mahallaka introduced a  Pochampalli: Sarees made in Bhudaan,
variety of bangles using mirrors, pearls and Pochampalli village of Nalgonda district,
diamonds which shine even in darkness. These Telangana State are popular for their traditional
bangles which are generally thick are called geometric patterns in "Ikat" and "tie and die"
"Gotes" which are used on either side of style of dyeing. The intricate geometric designs
numerous bangles worn on the hand. find their way through the hands of skilled
weavers and make it to the market as beautiful
7. The word ‘Farni’ was very famous during the sarees and dress materials. The kerchiefs made
reign of the Nizam, it is associated with? of silk thread have earned international fame as
A) The Colourful bangles which were "Teli Rumals" which were exported to many
infused with pearls. foreign countries during the time of Nizams.
B) The woollen carpets which were
imported from Turkey. 9. Consider the following statements regarding
C) The sweet dishes are made from the thin the fairs in Telangana
sheet of gold or silver. i) The Edupayala Jathara is celebrated at
D) It is another name for the Haleem eaten the place where river Manjira breaks into
during the Ramzan month. seven streams;
Ans: C ii) The Edupayala Jathara is celebrated at
 Farni: It has been believed that consuming gold Nagasanpalli village in the erstwhile
and silver in low doses increases the health, Warangal district.
vigour and strength of a person. The Hyderabad Which of the statements given above is
State ruled by the Nizams had this facility of correct?
using a thin sheet of gold or silver on the sweet A) Only i
dishes made which was believed to help B) Only ii
digestion. It is called Farni which is thinner than C) Both
a millimetre and, in Hyderabad, it is made near D) None
Charminar. Ans: A
8. Consider the following statements regarding  Edupayala Jathara: This fair is celebrated at the
the Telia Rumals place where river Manjira breaks into seven
i) The "Telia Rumals" were exported to streams; this is at Nagasanpalli village in Medak
many foreign countries during the time district. A temple was constructed at the place
of Nizams. in the 12th Century. The fair is celebrated on
Shiva Rathri Day; it is preceded by a 3-day fair

in the temple of Durga. The convention is to Ans: D
take the holy dip in the river, sleep for the night  The married Lambadi females will wear bangles
and participate in the Cart festival to their elbows, big earrings, nose pins, and
(Rathothsavam). heavy anklets (kada). Married Lambadi females
wear bangles made up of elephant trunks from
10. Consider the following statements regarding wrist to elbow. This is known as Balia. Lambadis
the culture of Telangana worship nature and different Gods & and
i) Dandari festival is an important festival of Goddess. They treat “Sevalal” as their guru. The
Gonds in Telangana. traditional festivals are Teej, Sithla Bhavani and
ii) The Gonds tribes are hereditary Tulja Bhavani.
storytellers of Pradhans.
iii) In religious processions the Pradhans 12. Consider the following festivals
play Fidel and Trumpet instruments. i) Teej Festival
Which of the statements given above is ii) Sheetla (Sithla) Bhavani Festival
correct? iii) Sri Sri Sri Sevalal Maharaj Jayanthi
A) Only I and ii The festival is celebrated by Banjaras are?
B) Only ii A) Only I and ii
C) Only I and iii B) Only I and iii
D) All the above C) Only ii and iii
Ans: C D) All the above
 The name Gond came from Gondwana. South Ans: D
India is an integral part of Gondwana. The Gond  Teej Festival: This festival is celebrated by
tribes are spread over the Gondwana land. The Banjaras (Lambadas) every year in the month of
majority of Gonds live in Telangana, Shravanam before planting the saplings.
Maharashtra, and Chhattisgarh states. In Celebrated in Shravana masam.
Telangana, the majority are in Komaram Bheem  Sheetla (Sithla) Bhavani Festival: This festival is
Asifabad and Adilabad districts. An important celebrated by Lambadas Every year at the
festival is the Dandari festival. Gond's beginning of the rainy season, 7 stones are
hereditary storytellers are Pradhans. Pradhans installed under the neem tree which are
beg before Gonds. On religious occasions, they treated as the 7 forms of Bhavani goddess and
play Fidel and Trumpet instruments. Bonam is offered to the goddess with green
grams & Bengal gram.
11. Consider the following statements regarding  Sri Sevalal Jayanthi is celebrated by Banjaras on
the Lambada tribal lives 15th February. Sri Sevalal was born during the
i) Balia is a bangle made up of an elephant Bhakti movement. He made many efforts to
trunk from wrist to elbow that Married eradicate the superstitions and for the abolition
Lambadi females wear. of Sara (alcohol).
ii) The tribal Lambadis treat “Sevalal” as
their guru. 13. Consider the following statements regarding
Which of the statements given above is the
incorrect? i) The headship of the Military was given to
A) Only i the hereditary "Serishtadar."
B) Only ii ii) The Salarjung encouraged the modem
C) Both measures that supported the traditional,
D) None

royal, and administrative system and the abolished the Cabinet Council and appointed
traditions of the land. an Executive Council (Babe Hukumath) which
Which of the statements given above is had the responsibility of both taking and
incorrect? implementing the decisions. Report of Roy
A) Only i Balamukund on the Reforms: Roy Balamukund,
B) Only ii the former High Court Justice was appointed to
C) Both prepare a report on the Firmaan. He submitted
D) None the Report, after working on it for 18 months.
Ans: B He suggested increasing the number of
 The headship of the Military was given to the members to 104, out of which 50% should be
hereditary "Serishtadar." Salarjung needed a nominated by the Government and 50% should
person to act as his representative to the British be elected by the people.
residents he needed proficiency in English and
had to be an Advocate. In this post, Salarjung 15. Assertion (A): The Association for Hyderabad
appointed a Tamilian boom in Hyderabad, State Reforms organization was established in
much against the wishes of the North Indian 1925.
Muslim officers. Salarjung Refuses to make Reason (R): The main aim of the Association for
Urdu the Official Language. Salarjung opposed Hyderabad State Reforms organization was to
any modern measure that was against the get the political reforms implemented in the
traditional, royal, administrative system and the Hyderabad state.
traditions of the land. Select the answer using the codes given below
A) Both A and R are true, and R is the
14. Consider the following statements regarding proper explanation of A
the Report of Roy Balamukund on the Reforms B) Both A and R are true, and R is not a
i) Roy Balamukund was the Diwan of the proper explanation of A
sixth Nizam. C) Only A is true
ii) Roy Balamukund was appointed to D) Only R is true
prepare a report on the Political Reforms Ans: D
by Mir Osman Ali Khan, Nizam VII -  Formation of the Association of Hyderabad
Firmaan of 1919. State Reforms: Some educated people of
iii) Roy Balamukund suggested increasing Hyderabad formed an Association for
the number of members to 104 out of Hyderabad State Reforms in 1921. It aimed to
which all the seats should be elected by get the political reforms implemented. It tried
the people. to hold a meeting in Hyderabad, but the
Which of the statements given above is Government did not grant permission.
incorrect? Moreover, they passed a Firmaan that no
A) Only I and iii association can conduct political meetings.
B) Only ii and iii 16. The Nizam Government appointed a
C) Only iii committee in 1922 to look into the Report of
D) None of the above Roy Balamukund. Consider the following
Ans: A members
 Political Reforms by Mir Osman Ali Khan, Nizam i) Nawab Nizamat Jung Bahadur,
VII - Firmaan of 1919: In November 1990, ii) Nawab Tilawath Jung Bahadur,
Nizam VII implemented some political reforms. iii) Nawab Hyder Jung (Akbar Hyderi)
The most important measure was that he iv) Nawab Salahuddin Owaisi

v) Raj Bahadur Krishnamachary Hyderabad from rural areas and neighbouring
The members of the committee are? areas to carry on different vocations and jobs;
A) Only I, ii, iii, and iv The children of the non-Mulki employees who
B) Only ii, iii, and iv came to Hyderabad State in the 19th century
C) Only I, ii, iii, and v and served in the Government; and, the
D) All the above entrants who came to Hyderabad and were
Ans: C certified as Mulkis. Many English medium
 The Hyderabad State Reforms Association Schools were started in Hyderabad City
agitated for the implementation of the between 1900 and 191; Schools by different
suggestions given in the Report of Roy communities and different religions also came
Balamukund. The Nizam Government into existence.
appointed a committee in 1922 to look into the
Report of Roy Balamukund. The members of 18. Assertion (A): The Gussadi dance is performed
the Committee were Nawab Nizamat Jung by men of the “Gond” tribe in the Adilabad
Bahadur, Nawab Tilawath Jung Bahadur, Nawab district.
Hyder Jung (Akbar Hyderi) and Raj Bahadur Reason (R): The Gussadi dance is performed
Krishnamachary. The Report submitted by this before Deepavali from Ashwayuja Shuddha
Committee also was thrown into the dark by Pournami till Ashwayuja Bahula Chaturdashi.
the Government. Select the answer using the codes given below
A) Both A and R are true, and R is the
17. Consider the following statements regarding proper explanation of A
the Mulki definition of the Diwan B) Both A and R are true, and R is not a
i) The people living in the Old City for proper explanation of A
generations. C) Only A is true
ii) The people who migrated to Hyderabad D) Only R is true
from rural areas and neighbouring areas Ans: A
to carry on different vocations and jobs.  Gussadi dance is performed by men of the
iii) The children of the non-Mulki employees “Gond” tribe in Adilabad district. This dance is
who came to Hyderabad State in the performed before Deepavali from Ashwayuja
19th century and served in the Shuddha Pournami till Ashwayuja Bahula
Government. Chaturdashi. Gonds dress in colourful costumes
iv) The entrants who came to Hyderabad and decorate with ornaments to go to
and were certified as Mulkis. neighbouring villages in troupes by singing and
The Definition of Mulki according to Kishan dancing. These troupes will have 15 to 20
Prasad is? members. Such troupes are known as Dandari
A) Only I, ii, and iii troupes. From this big troupe, 5 members each
B) Only ii, iii, and iv from other troupes. These troupes are known
C) Only iii and iv as “Gussadi”.
D) All the above
Ans: D 19. Match the following regarding the folk dances
 Definition of Mulki by Kishan Prasad: Diwan of Telangana
Kishan Prasad defined "Mulki" officials even Name of the dance - Performed by
before Nizam VII assumed his throne. It was as i) Dhemsa Dance - Koya tribes
follows: The people living in the Old City for ii) Bison-horn Dance - Gond tribes
generations; The people who migrated to iii) Kurru Dance - Koya tribes

How many pairs given above are matched 21. Consider the following statements regarding
properly? the Jangam Stories
A) Only one pair i) Jangam stories are narrated by using a
B) Only two pairs musical instrument “Budige.
C) All three pairs are given above ii) According to the Kridabhiramam book
D) None of the above written by Vinukonda Vallabha Charya
Ans: A Jangam Stories were popular during the
 Dhemsa Dance is performed by males & and Kakatiyas period.
females of the “Raj Gond” clan. This dance is iii) Budige Jangam communities belong to
performed during festivals and marriages, the Vaishnava religion.
according to Music. The Musical instruments Which of the statements given above is
used are Pepre, Dhol, Kalikom, and Tamak. incorrect?
 Koya Dance (Bison-Horn Dance or Permakoki A) Only I and ii
Play): Koya tribe people perform this Bison- B) Only ii and iii
horn dance during festivals and marriages. C) Only iii
 Kurru dance: This is performed by males of the D) None of the above
Koya tribe in Warangal district. Mainly this is Ans: C
performed during Sammakka-Sarakka Jatara.  In Telangana, the people of the Budige Jangam
community will be telling Jangam stories.
20. Consider the following statements regarding Jangam stories are narrated by using a musical
the Oggu katha instrument “Budige”, hence they are named
i) The story narrated by using the Budige Jangams. Other names for Budige are
instrument Oggu (Damarukam) is known Dakki, Dikki and Gammeta. Budige Jangams
as Oggu katha. belong to Veera Shaivam, hence they narrate
ii) The Oggu katha is mainly narrated by the the stories with “Veera Avesham” / Great
Gond tribe community. enthusiasm. According to the Kridabhiramam
Which of the statements given above is book written by Vinukonda Vallabha Charya,
incorrect? this art was popular during the Kakatiyas
A) Only i period.
B) Only ii
C) Both 22. Consider the following statements regarding
D) None the Adi Hindu Social Service League
Ans: B i) The Adi Hindu Social Service League was
 The story narrated by using the instrument established in 1911
Oggu (Damarukam) is known as Oggu katha. ii) The main objective of the Adi Hindu
Oggu is similar to the Damarukam held in Lord Social Service League is to carry on
Shiva’s hand. This art form brought national voluntary services to the Harijans.
recognition to Telangana state. Oggu katha is iii) The members of the Adi Hindu Social
mainly narrated by the Kuruma community, but Service League were only from all the
other communities such as Golla, Yadavas and sections of Harijans.
other BC communities also tell Oggu katha. How many statements given above are correct?
Oggu katha artists are mainly seen in Nalgonda A) Only one statement
and Warangal districts of Telangana. B) Only two statements
C) All three statements are given above
D) None of the above

Ans: A  Adi Hindu Maha Sabha: From 1921 -24, Varma
 Adi Hindu Social Service League: It was formed conducted meetings of Adi Hindu Maha Sabha;
in 1911 to cany on voluntary services to the the first meeting (1921) was chaired by
society. The members of the League were from Papanna, a native of Belgaum; the second
all the sections of the society along with meeting (1922) by Keshava Rao Koratkar, the
Harijans. third meeting (1923) by Vaman Nayak and the
fourth meeting (1924) by Raja Dhanraj Giri.
23. Consider the following languages
i) English, 25. Assertion (A): The first meeting of Andhra Jana
ii) Gujarati Kendra Sangham was held at Osmania
iii) Urdu University in Hyderabad.
iv) Hindi Reason (R): Rao Bahadur Venkat Reddy was
Gandhiji published Harijan throughout his life in elected as the President of Andhra Jana Kendra
which of the languages given above? Sangham in the first meeting.
A) Only I and ii Select the answer using the codes given below
B) Only I, ii and iv A) Both A and R are true, and R is the
C) Only I, ii, and iii proper explanation of A
D) All the above B) Both A and R are true, and R is not a
Ans: B proper explanation of A
 Gandhiji named his weekly, which he started on C) Only A is true
11th February 1932 as "Harijan." As Gandhiji D) Only R is true
repeatedly used that word, it gained popularity Ans: D
throughout the Country as a term for  The newly formed Andhra Jana Kendra
untouchables. Gandhiji published Harijan Sangham had its first meeting on 17th July,
throughout his life in 3 languages, English, 1923 at the house of Madapati Hanumantha
Gujarati and Hindi. Between 1919 and 32, Rao in Hyderabad. Rao Bahadur Venkat Reddy
Gandhiji published another weekly named was elected as president and Madapati
Young India which also extensively published Hanumantha Rao was elected as Secretary
articles on the welfare of Harijans. respectively. The second meeting took place in
Nalgonda on 23rd March 1924 at the office of
24. Match the following regarding the meetings of Shabnavisu Venkatarama Narasimha Rao, Editor
the Adi Hindu Maha Sabha of Nila Giri. It was decided in the meet, that the
Name of the meeting - Chaired by bright students of Osmania University should
i) First meeting - Bhagya Reddy Varma be awarded Gold and Silver medals on behalf of
ii) Second meeting - Keshav Rao Koratkar the society.
iii) Third meeting - Papanna
iv) Fourth meeting - Raja Dhanraj Giri 26. Consider the following members regarding the
How many pairs given above are matched Eleventh Meeting of Andhra Maha Sabha
properly? i) Ravi Narayana Reddy,
A) Only one pair ii) Arutla Ramachandra Reddy,
B) Only two pairs iii) Devulapally Venkateshwar Rao
C) Only three pairs iv) Sarvadevabhatla Ramanandam
D) All four pairs are given above Who among the above took an active part in
Ans: B the Eleventh meeting of Andhra Maha Sabha?
A) Only I, ii, and iv

B) Only I, ii, and iii Select the answer using the codes given below
C) Only I and iii A) Both A and R are true, and R is the
D) All the above proper explanation of A
Ans: D B) Both A and R are true, and R is not a
 Eleventh Meeting at Bhongir: The Eleventh proper explanation of A
Meeting of Andhra Maha Sabha was conducted C) Only A is true
totally under the leadership of the Communists D) Only R is true
in May 1944 at Bhongir. Ravi Narayana Reddy, Ans: C
Arutla Ramachandra Reddy, Devulapally  The Jagirdari (regulation) abolition act was
Venkateshwar Rao & and Sarvadevabhatla enacted on 15th August 1949 by the military
Ramanandam took an active part in the government in the Hyderabad state. Under this
meeting. The Sabha elected Ravi Narayana jagirdari, some of the areas in the state were
Reddy as the President, Baddam Yella Reddy as divided into Jagirs. This arrangement was made
Chief Secretary and Vattikota Alwarswamy as to collect the land revenue and maintain law
Organizing Secretary. and order in the village. The Jagirdari system
was not only prevalent in the erstwhile princely
27. Match the following regarding the Burgula state of Hyderabad under the Nizam but was
Ramakrishna Rao Cabinet Ministers also prevalent in many places in central India.
Name of the Minister’s Office
i) Marri Chennareddy - Home minister 29. Consider the following statements regarding
ii) Konda Venkata Rangareddy the economic reforms in Hyderabad State.
- Civil supplies, Agriculture Minister
i) Then the state government under the
iii) G.S. Melkote - Finance minister
direction of the union appointed a
How many pairs given above are not matched
committee headed by A.D. Gorwala in
properly?
1950.
A) Only one pair
ii) The A.D. Gorwala committee
B) Only two pair
recommended the state government
C) All three pairs are given above
introduce necessary administrative and
economic reforms to modernize
Ans: B
administration.
 Burgula Ramakrishna Rao Cabinet Ministers:
iv) The A.D. Gorwala committee
Burgula Ramakrishna Rao – Chief Minister, G.S.
recommendations were sincerely
Melkote – Finance Minister, Bindu Digambara
implemented by the then revenue
Rao – Home Minister, Marri Chennareddy –
minister Marri Chenna Reddy.
Civil Supplies, Agriculture Minister and Konda
How many statements given above are
Venkara Rangareddy – Excise, Customs, Forest
incorrect?
Minister
A) Only one statement
B) Only two statements
28. Assertion (A): The Jagirdari (regulation)
C) All the three statements
abolition act was enacted on 15th August 1949
by the military government in the Hyderabad
Ans: A
state.
 Based on the direction of the Union
Reason (R): The Jagirdari system was only
government, to rejuvenate the economic
prevalent in the erstwhile princely state of
condition of the Hyderabad state the state
Hyderabad under the Nizam.

government appointed a committee headed by violence, humanitarian values, strong social
A.D. Gorwala in 1950. The committee commitment and a ban on cow slaughter.
recommended the state government introduce Select the answer using the codes given below
necessary administrative and economic reforms A) Both A and R are true, and R is the
to modernize the administration. Gorwala proper explanation of A
committee recommendations were sincerely B) Both A and R are true, and R is not a
implemented by the then revenue minister proper explanation of A
Burgula Ramakrishna Rao. C) Only A is true
D) Only R is true
30. Consider the following statements regarding Ans: A
the Telangana Armed Struggle  Vinobha Bhave began his Bhudan Movement
I. The death of Doddi Komuraiah changed on 18th April 1951 at Pochampally Nalgonda
the psyche of both common people District with the intention that the landlords
and Communist Party leaders. should distribute the uncultivated land to the
II. The death of the Doddi Komuraiah poor people and help them. Along with the
incident made people of Telangana land distribution, Bhave $ propagated the ideas
subjugate themselves to live like of Non-violence, humanitarian values, strong
cowards or flee away to save their lives. social commitment 11 and a ban on cow
III. The Communist Party of Telangana slaughter. For about 13 years, he travelled
prepared the ground for the Armed throughout India on foot. passed away on 15th
Struggle only after the Doddi November 1982 in Wardha. He was awarded
Komuraiah incident. the International Raman Magsaysay Award in
Which of the statements given above is 1958 and was conferred Bharatha Rama
incorrect? posthumously in 1983.
A) Only I and ii
B) Only ii 32. Consider the following statements regarding
C) Only ii and iii the Burgula Ramakrishna Rao
D) All the above i) The Government of Burgula Ramakrishna
Ans: D Rao was formed on 6th March 1952.
 Changed Scenario - Agenda of the Revolution: ii) Burgula Ramakrishna Rao had previously
The death of Doddi Komuraiah changed the worked as Revenue Minister in the
psyche of both common people and Part) Government of Vellodi.
leaders. Instead of subjugating themselves to iii) Burgula Ramakrishna Rao was elected
live like cowards or fleeing away to save their then from Shadnagar Assembly
lives, people decided to fight back. Watching Constituency in Mahbubnagar District.
their mood, the Party prepared the ground for How many statements given above are correct?
the Armed Struggle. They had given up the A) Only one statement
legal fight and started occupying the lands that B) Only two statements
they could cultivate. C) All three statements are given above
31. Assertion (A): Vinobha Bhave began his Bhudan Ans: C
Movement at Pochampally Nalgonda District.  The Government of Burgula Ramakrishna Rao
Reason (R): Bhave along with the Bhudan was formed on 6th March 1952. Ramakrishna
Movement propagated the ideas of Non- Rao had previously worked as Revenue Minister
in the Government of Vellodi. He was elected

then from Shadnagar Assembly Constituency in D) All the above
Mahbubnagar District. Along with Burgula as Ans: A
Chief Minister, 12 members were sworn in as  Dr Shendarkar, Deputy Director of the
Ministers in the Jubilee Hall. All of them were Education Department, conducted an enquiry
given the oath of secrecy by Rajpramukh Mir on 26th July 1952; this was the consequence of
Osman Ali Khan. the continuous complaints against the
atrocities of Parthasaradhi between 28th June
33. Consider the following statements regarding and 15th July given by 9 teachers of the school
the Shanti Yatra and Hayagreeva Chary. Learning about the
i) Vinobha Bhave started a Shanti Yatra enquiry, about 4,000 students had taken a huge
from Shivarampalli village. protest march from Hanamakonda crossroads
ii) Vinobha Bhave started a Shanti Yatra to Subedari where the enquiry was conducted
from the village of Pochampally in raising the slogans "Non-Mulki Go Back" and
Bhuvanagiri taluk of Nalgonda district. "Idly Sambar Go Back". After marching; there,
Which of the statements given above is they conducted a meeting in the public park.
incorrect?
A) Only i 35. Assertion (A): The Mulki agitation was first
B) Only ii started in Warangal.
C) Both Reason (R): The first meeting on the Mulki
D) None agitation was held at Bollaram in Hyderabad on
Ans: B 24th August 1952.
 Vinobha Bhave, an important follower of Select the answer using the codes given below
Gandhi took the responsibility to take forward A) Both A and R are true, and R is the
the programs of Sarvodaya. The Sarvodaya proper explanation of A
Samiti third Meeting was held at Shivarampalli B) Both A and R are true, and R is not a
village near Hyderabad, from 8th-11th April proper explanation of A
1951. Vinobha Bhave attended this meeting. C) Only A is true
On 15 April 1951, he started a Shanti Yatra in D) Only R is true
Shivarampalli village. He was accompanied by Ans: A
Dr. Melcote, Marri Chenna Reddy, and others  Spread of Mulki Agitation to Hyderabad: There
on 18th April 1951 the Vinobha Bhave & team was a meeting of the students at Bollaram in
reached the village of Pochampally in Hyderabad on 24th August 1952. The meeting
Bhuvanagiri taluk of Nalgonda district (present was attended by the students in huge numbers
Yadadri Bhongir district). and all the speakers stressed the appointments
and pointed out that the non-Mulkis were
34. Consider the following statements regarding grabbing the jobs belonging to the Mulkis. Mulk
Mulki Agitation agitation which began in 1952. On the 27th 28th
i) The slogans "Non-Mulki Go Back" and 29th of July, the students boycotted their
ii) The slogan "Idly Sambar Go Back". classes and went on strike.
iii) The slogan Andhra Go Back
Which of the above were the slogans of the 36. Match the following regarding the Tri language
Mulki agitation? principle under the Burgula Ramakrishna Rao
A) Only I and ii government
B) Only iii Language. From Class
C) Only ii and iii i) Mother tongue. - First Class

ii) Hindi. - Fifth Class 38. Consider the following statements regarding
iii) English. - Seventh Class the JVP committee report
How many pairs given above are not matched i)The Madras Cabinet met under the
properly? Presidentship of the Chief Minister;
A) Only one pair Pusapati Swami Kumar Raja did not agree
B) Only two pairs to the Report of the JVP Committee.
C) All the three pairs ii)Pattabhi Seetha Ramayya explained the term,
D) None of the above "Andhra State without Madras"
Ans: B mentioned in the JVP Report.
 The Tri-language principle was introduced in Which of the statements given above is
the education system. Tri language principle: incorrect?
Instruction in the mother’s tongue starts from A) Only i
class – I. Hindi enters as the second language B) Only ii
from 3rd class. English will be introduced as the C) Both
third language in the 5th class. D) None
Ans; A
37. Assertion (A): The Government of India  Neelam Sanjeeva Reddy laid a condition to
appointed the Dhar Commission to study the make the Sribagh Agreement Constitutionally
viability of the formation of linguistic States. valid. Some leaders from the Coastal Andhra
Reason (R): The Dhar Commission mentioned opposed the Agreement stating that it was
that the formation of Linguistic States was written by a few leaders who met at the house
desirable in the existing circumstances. of a friend. The Madras Cabinet met under the
Select the answer using the codes given below Presidentship of the Chief Minister, Pusapati
A) Both A and R are true, and R is the Swami Kumar Raja and agreed to the Report of
proper explanation of A the JVP Committee and requested the Congress
B) Both A and R are true, and R is not a Working Committee to initiate the action in the
proper explanation of A direction of the formation of Andhra State.
C) Only A is true Pattabhi Seetha Ramayya explained the term,
D) Only R is true "Andhra State without Madras" mentioned in
Ans: C the JVP Report.
 India gained Independence on 15th August
1947 and the Government appointed Dhar 39. Assertion (A): The famous book Thoughts on
Commission on 17th June 1948 to study the the Linguistic States was written by Dr. B. R.
viability of the formation of linguistic States. Ambedkar.
The members of the Committee are NK Dhar, a Reason(R): Dr. B. R. Ambedkar welcomed the
retired Judge of Allahabad High Court, Dr. one language and one state formula.
Pannalal and Jagath Narayana. The Commission Select the answer using the codes given below
submitted its Report on 13th December 1948. A) Both A and R are true, and R is the
The Commission mentioned that the formation proper explanation of A
of Linguistic States was not desirable in the B) Both A and R are true, and R is not a
existing circumstances. Neelam Sanjeeva Reddy proper explanation of A
met Dhar along with 20 leaders of Rayalaseema C) Only A is true
and gave a request to postpone the formation D) Only R is true
of Andhra State. Ans: C

 Under this situation, it was very much iii) Communists encouraged the Bhoodhan
necessary to refer to Ambedkar's 1955 book, Yatra.
Thoughts on the Linguistic States. It is proved How many statements given above are correct?
that Ambedkar’s ideas about smaller states in A) Only one statement
the Indian Union after independence were after B) Only two statements
all right. Dr. Ambedkar, the Father of the Indian C) All three statements are given above
Constitution, had very distinct and constructive D) None of the above
opinions on the formation of smaller States. Ans: B
Ambedkar welcomed the suggestions of the  Communists opposed Bhoodan yatra because
State Reorganisation Committee, which government ministers and congress party
suggested the formation of Hyderabad State leaders participated in the Bhoodan movement
including Telangana and a separate Vidarbha which was started by Vinobha Bhave in
State. Telangana. They criticized Vinobha Bhave that
he is a government agent. The Bhoodan Yajna
40. Consider the following statements mandala Vice-President G. Manikya Rao along
i)Hyderabad state was under Part A of the Indian with Bhoodan workers organized a silver jubilee
Union after India got independence. padayatra on the occasion of the 25th
ii)Eight former princely states or groups of Anniversary of the launch of the Bhoodan
smaller princely states were made Part B movement in Telangana. In 1952, Jayaprakash
states. Narayan along with his wife Smt. Prabhavati
Which of the statements given above is Devi made a blood yatra in the Mahbubnagar
incorrect? district. Jayaprakash Narayan’s speeches on this
A) Only i occasion inspired many to donate their lands.
B) Only ii Kethireddi Kodandarami Reddy was in charge of
C) Both his tour too.
D) None
Ans: C 42. Assertion (A): The Government of India
 Hyderabad state was under Part B of the Indian appointed a Committee under the
Union after India gained independence. Nine Chairmanship of Kailasnath Wanchu.
former princely states or groups of smaller Reason (R): The Wanchu Committee was to
princely states were made Part B states. These study the problems of the Capital and Economic
states were governed by a president-appointed condition of the Andhra State given the
rajpramukh and an elected legislature. The division.
Nine Part B states were: Hyderabad, Jammu Select the answer using the codes given below
and Kashmir, Madhya Bharat, Mysore, Patiala A) Both A and R are true, and R is the
and East Punjab, Rajasthan, Saurashtra, proper explanation of A
Travancore-Cochin and Vindhya Pradesh. B) Both A and R are true, and R is not a
41. Consider the following statements regarding C) Only A is true
the Jaiprakash Narayan bhoodhan movement D) Only R is true
i) Jayaprakash Narayan along with his wife Ans: A
Smt. Prabhavati Devi made a bhoodhan  The Government of India appointed a
yatra in Khammam district. Committee under the Chairmanship of
ii) Kethireddi Kodandarami Reddy was in Kailasnath Wanchu, Chief Justice of the
charge of his tour too. Rajasthan High Court. The Committee was to

study the problems of the Capital and Economic Which of the statements given above is
condition of the Andhra State given the incorrect?
division. It toured extensively in Andhra and A) Only i
Madras between the 9th and 27th of January B) Only ii
1953, met the leaders and the people, C) Both
examined their requests and observations and D) None
submitted its Report to the Home Minister on Ans: B
the 7th of February.  The SRC Commission has toured many parts of
the country and has come to know the opinions
43. A Cabinet sub-committee was formally of various groups and organizations. SRC visited
announced on the city college incident during Hyderabad in 1954. When the commission
the Mulki agitation, consider the following visited Hyderabad in June and July of 1954, K.V.
members Ranga Reddy and Marri Chennareddy appealed
i) K.V. Ranga Reddy, in favour of separate Telangana. Students of
ii) Marri Chenna Reddy Karimnagar demanded a Telangana state when
iii) Dr. Melkote, SRC visited Karimnagar district in July 1954.
iv) Phulchand Gandhi When the commission reached Warangal, on
Which of the above were the members of the behalf of the Telangana Writers Association
Cabinet sub-committee? Kaloji Narayana Rao gave a representation
A) Only I, iii, and iv wishing for Vishalandhra.
B) Only ii, iii, and iv
C) Only I, ii, and iii 45. Assertion (A): In the State Reorganization
D) All the above Commission report Andhra state was
Ans: A mentioned in the Sixth Chapter.
 A Cabinet sub-committee was formally Reason (R): The state of Hyderabad was
announced on 7 September 1952. Members mentioned in the sixth chapter of the State
were K.V. Ranga Reddy, Dr. Melkote, Phulchand Reorganization Commission report.
Gandhi and Nawaz Jung Bahadur. Purpose of Select the answer using the codes given below
the committee: To study the Mulki rules and A) Both A and R are true, and R is the
suggest changes and means of effective proper explanation of A
implementation of the Mulki rules in B) Both A and R are true, and R is not a
consultation with the students and other proper explanation of A
stakeholders. C) Only A is true
D) Only R is true
44. Consider the following statements regarding Ans: C
the SRC Commission  On 30th September 1955 Fazal Ali submitted
i)When the commission visited Hyderabad in his report to the central government. On 10
June and July of 1954, K.V. Ranga Reddy October 1955, the central government
and Marri Chennareddy appealed in presented the SRC report before the
favour of separate Telangana. parliament, People. On 31st August 1956, the
ii)When the commission reached Warangal, on President approved the SRC bill. In the SRC
behalf of the Telangana Writers report, Hyderabad state was mentioned in the
Association Kaloji Narayana Rao gave a 5th Chapter and Andhra state in the 6th
representation wishing for a separate chapter.
Telangana.

46. Consider the following statements regarding from Telangana must be reserved for the
the Dr B. R. Ambedkar’s opinion on the development of Telangana itself. The
smaller states arrangement must be reviewed after every five
i) population years if the legislators of Telangana demand it.
ii) geographical area The liquor ban must be implemented in
iii) financial self-reliance Telangana as per the suggestions of the area’s
In the formation of small states, Dr. B. R. legislators.
Ambedkar proposed which of the above-
mentioned metrics? 48. Consider the following statements regarding
A) Only ii and iii the Telangana Regional Committee
B) Only I and ii i) Telangana regional committee consisted
C) Only iii of fifteen members.
D) All the above ii) All the members of the Telangana
Ans: D regional committee were elected by the
 Ambedkar opined that the formation of small members of the legislative assembly
states should balance the morphological from the Telangana region.
characteristics of the states. For this, he iii) The regional committee members can be
proposed three metrics – removed by a special majority.
1. population How many statements given above are
2. geographical area incorrect?
3. Financial self-reliance A) Only one statement
He also suggested that some factors be considered for B) Only two statements
how many states can be divided with one C) All the three statements
language-speaking population. D) None of the above
Ans: A
47. Consider the following statements regarding Telangana regional committee consisted of 20
the Gentlemen’s agreement members and their election procedure was as follows:
i) Liquor consumption must be allowed in  Nine members represent the then-nine
the Telangana region because it is part of districts, they are elected by the Telangana
its culture. Assembly members, district-wise. The Six
ii) The surplus income from Telangana must members are Telangana MLAs or MPs and they
be reserved for the development of should be elected by Telangana Assembly
Telangana itself. Members. Five members will be those who are
iii) The arrangement must be reviewed not members of the Legislative Assembly but
every ten years if the legislators of are elected by Telangana MLAs. Along with
Telangana demand it. them, ministers belonging the to Telangana
How many statements given above are correct? region were also ex-officio members. The
A) Only one statement regional committee members can be removed
B) Only two statements by a special majority.
C) All three statements are given above
D) None of the above 49. Assertion (A): The Andhra Pradesh Bill was
Ans: A approved by the President of India on 31st
 The Telangana and Andhra areas' centralized August 1956.
and general administration expenditure must Reason (R): The ceremony was conducted on
be born on a pro-rata basis. The surplus income the occasion of the newly formed Andhra

Pradesh state at Vijayawada on 1st November Ans: C
1956 by Pt. Nehru.  To look after the welfare measures of Telangana
Select the answer using the codes given below and its overall development, a Regional
A) Both A and R are true, and R is the Committee should be appointed. There will be
proper explanation of A 20 members in the Regional Committee; 9
B) Both A and R are true, and R is not a MLAs from 9 districts and 6 members from
proper explanation of A State Council or Parliament. In addition, there
C) Only A is true will be 5 members from outside who will be
D) Only R is true elected by the representatives of Telangana
Ans: C Assembly. All the Ministers from Telangana will
 “A note on the safeguards proposed for be members of the Regional Committee.
Telangana area” providing, inter-alia, for the
constitution and functions of a regional 51. Consider the following issues
committee of the Legislative Assembly of the i) planning,
Andhra Pradesh state was laid before the ii) Mulki rules
Parliament, in the Lok Sabha, on 10th August, iii) developmental activities,
1956. This agreement was introduced by the iv) irrigation and other agricultural plans,
Central government in the parliament with the v) industrialization and employment
name of “Note on safeguards” (it is an answer The Regional Committee will look after and
to the question of Raj Bahadhur Gaur). But take decisions on the issues of which of the
there is a lot of changes were made to the above?
gentlemen’s agreement to prepare Notes on A) Only I, ii, iv, and v
safeguards (about 10 to 12 changes). B) Only I, iii, iv, and v
Thereafter, the Andhra Pradesh Bill was C) Only ii, iii, iv, and v
approved by the President of India on 31st D) All the above
August 1956. The ceremony was conducted on Ans: B
the occasion of the newly formed Andhra  The Regional Committee will look after and
Pradesh state at Hyderabad on 1st November take decisions on the issues of the planning,
1956 by Pt. Nehru. developmental activities, irrigation, other
agricultural plans, industrialization and
50. Consider the following statements regarding employment. It has legal recognition. A Review
the Gentlemen’s Agreement would be conducted after 10 years. Among the
i) The Regional Committee should be Ministers, 60% should be from Andhra and 40%
appointed to look after the welfare from Telangana.
measures of Telangana and its overall
development. 52. Consider the following statements regarding
ii) The Regional Committee will consist of the gentleman’s agreement
20 members. i) The existing educational facilities in
iii) All the Ministers from Telangana will be Telangana would be reserved for the
members of the Regional Committee. students from the region only.
How many statements given above are correct? ii) It was agreed to continue the Mulki rules
A) Only one statement under which only those with a minimum
B) Only two statements of 6 years of residence in Telangana were
C) All three statements are given above eligible for jobs and admission to
D) None of the above educational institutions in Telangana.

Which of the statements given above are Telangana was eligible to get Rs. 34.09 crore,
correct? Justice Vasishta’s committee decided the same
A) Only i as Rs. 28.34 crore. The Telangana regional
B) Only ii committee chairman prof Ch. Hanumanth Rao
C) Both did not accept the Laith committee and Justice
D) None Bhargava committee.
Ans: A
 On the initiative of the Union Government, the 54. Consider the following statements regarding
leaders of both sides met in Delhi and reached the safeguard’s agreement and violations
what was called the "Gentlemen's Agreement" i) The government of the united Andhra
on 20th February 1956. Expenditure on Pradesh appointed the P. S. Sharma
Administration was to be borne proportionately committee on the issue of surplus funds
by the two regions and surplus revenue from of Telangana.
the Telangana region would be spent only for ii) The first chief minister of the united
the development of Telangana. The existing Andhra Pradesh state was Neelam
educational facilities in Telangana would be Sanjeev Reddy and he gave the position
reserved for students from the region only. It of deputy chief minister to K. V. Ranga
was agreed to continue the Mulki rules under Reddy.
which only those with a minimum of 12 years Which of the statements given above is
of residence in Telangana were eligible for jobs incorrect?
and admission to educational institutions in A) Only i
Telangana. B) Only ii
C) Both
53. Assertion (A): The central government D) None
appointed a high-power committee to calculate Ans: C
Telangana’s surplus funds headed by the Justice  The surplus funds from Telangana were not
Vashista Bhargava committee. spent there and were diverted to Andhra. The
Reason (R): The Lalith committee and Justice Bhargava Committee was appointed to go over
Bhargava committee identified surplus funds the matter of surplus funds of Telangana. The
belonging to Telangana. committee mentioned that the surplus fund of
Select the answer using the codes given below Telangana was diverted to Andhra. The first
A) Both A and R are true, and R is the chief minister of the united Andhra Pradesh
proper explanation of A state was Neelam Sanjeev Reddy, once he took
B) Both A and R are true, and R is not a over as chief minister, he ruled out the position
proper explanation of A of deputy chief minister and ridiculed it as a
C) Only A is true sixth finger and no one was appointed.
D) Only R is true
Ans: A 55. Assertion (A): According to the tenth point of
 The central government appointed a high- the gentlemen’s agreement, the sale and
power committee to calculate Telangana’s purchase of agricultural lands in Telangana shall
surplus funds headed by the Justice Vashista be subject to the Telangana regional
Bhargava committee. The Lalith committee and committee.
Justice Bhargava committee identified surplus Reason (R): According to the gentleman’s
funds belonging to Telangana. According to the agreement, Without the permission of the
Lalith committee between 1956-1968, Telangana regional committee non-Telangana

people cannot purchase agricultural lands in conducted by Telangana Mahasabha on 8th
Telangana. March 1969.
Select the answer using the codes given below Reason (R): The Telangana Mahasabha on
A) Both A and R are true, and R is the violations of Telangana Safeguards meeting was
proper explanation of A chaired by veteran lawyer S. Venkataswamy.
B) Both A and R are true, and R is not a Select the answer using the codes given below
proper explanation of A A) Both A and R are true, and R is the
C) Only A is true proper explanation of A
D) Only R is true B) Both A and R are true, and R is not a
Ans: D proper explanation of A
 The sale and purchase of agricultural lands in C) Only A is true
Telangana shall be subject to the Telangana D) Only R is true
regional committee according to the eighth Ans: D
point of the 1956 gentlemen’s agreement.  Meeting of Telangana Mahasabha on violations
Without the permission of this committee, non- of Telangana Safeguards: Telangana meeting
Telangana people cannot purchase agricultural was conducted by Telangana Mahasabha on 8th
lands in Telangana. March 1958, which was chaired by veteran
lawyer S. Venkataswamy in Pratap girls Kothi,
56. The united Andhra Pradesh conducted an all- Hyderabad. The meeting was attended by
party meeting to solve surplus funds on the about 500 delegates and about two thousand
19th of January 1969. Match the following spectators.
Office Name
i) Then the chief minister 58. Consider the following prominent leaders of
- Neelam Sanjeev Reddy the Telangana region in the early days of
ii) Regional committee chairman Andhra Pradesh formation
- Justice Bhargava Vashista i) Varakantha Gopal Reddy,
iii) Regional committee vice chairman ii) Bojjam Narsimhulu
- J. Chokka Rao iii) Madapati Hanumanth Rao
How many pairs given above are not matched Prominent Leaders of Telangana Mahasabha,
properly? informing the central and state administrators
A) Only one pair about the injustices happening to the
B) Only two pairs Telangana region between 1956-68 were?
C) All the pairs are given above A) Only I and ii
D) None of the above B) Only I and iii
Ans: C C) Only ii and iii
 To solve the surplus fund issue, the state D) All the above
government conducted an all-party meeting on Ans: A
19th January 1969. Before 19th January 1969, on  Prominent Leaders of Telangana Mahasabha,
8th February 1968 the then chief minister Kasu informing the central and state administrators
Brahmadanda Reddy met with regional about the injustices happening to the
committee chairman J. Chokka Rao, and Vice- Telangana region between 1956-68 were –
chairman Kodati Rajamallu. Varakantha Gopal Reddy, and Bojjam
Narsimhulu. Varakantha Gopal Reddy makes his
57. Assertion (A): The Telangana Mahasabha on residence available for Telangana Mahasabha
violations of Telangana Safeguards meeting was Meetings.

Income of Hyderabad (Head Quarters) should
59. Consider the following statements regarding be shown in the income and expenditure of
the Violations of Telangana Safeguards Telangana. The income on the irrigation should
i) The Telangana Regional Committee has be shown separately for the two regions. The
been proposed instead of the Telangana income in the Electricity Department should be
Regional Council mentioned in the shown separately for the two regions based on
gentlemen’s agreement. the use of power in the two regions.
ii) The Telangana Regional Committee’s
powers were limited to issues of 61. Consider the following statements regarding
Agriculture and cooperatives only. the Transfer of Telangana surplus funds
Which of the statements given above is i) According to the gentlemen’s agreement,
correct? the Andhra and Telangana regions have
A) Only i to bear the cost of establishing the
B) Only ii Central and General Governance of the
C) Both State as per the ratio.
D) None ii) The ratio of expenditure was mentioned
Ans: A in the agreement as 1:1
 Telangana should have a regional council with iii) Funds and grants given by the Centre are
extensive powers under the gentlemen’s allocated between Andhra & Telangana
agreement. the Telangana Regional Committee in 2: 1 ratio.
has been proposed instead of the Telangana How many statements given above are
Regional Council mentioned in the gentlemen’s incorrect?
agreement. The committee was weaker than A) Only one statement
the council in its structure and authority. The B) Only two statements
committee’s powers were limited to issues C) All the statements are given above
which were not financially related. D) None of the above
Ans: B
60. Consider the following statements regarding  According to the gentlemen’s agreement the
the System of calculating the income of surplus funds of Telangana i.e., that is the
Telangana region in 1956 remaining amount after expenditure from its
i) Income on the Land Tax and Excise revenue have to be spent in Telangana only. But
should be shown separately for the two the Andhra rulers have diverted Telangana
regions. surplus funds to Andhra. According to the
ii) Income of Hyderabad should be shown in gentlemen’s agreement, Andhra and Telangana
the income and expenditures of Andhra have to bear the cost of establishing the Central
and Telangana. and General Governance of the State as per the
Which of the statements given above is ratio. But the ratio of expenditure was not
incorrect? mentioned in the agreement. Joint expenses
A) Only i and expenses in Hyderabad the Andhra
B) Only ii &Telangana regions have to bear an in 2:1 ratio.
C) Both Funds and grants given by the Centre are
D) None allocated between Andhra & Telangana in 2: a 1
Ans: B ratio.
 The Income on the Land Tax and Excise should
be shown separately for the two regions.

62. Consider the following statements regarding issued the Andhra Pradesh Public Employment
the violations of the Mulki rules regulations in 1959.
i) The local candidates were not available.  When the Andhra people appealed to the court
ii) To implement spouse case condition. that these provisions were not lawful, the
iii) Compassionate ground appointments. Supreme Court gave judgement on 28th March
The non-locals were recruited in context of 1969 that the rules relating to requirements as
which of the above grounds? to residents were invalid. The court’s ruling
A) Only I and ii summarises that residency status should apply
B) Only i to the entire state but not to one area of the
C) Only I and iii state. Telangana youths were disappointed with
D) All the above this verdict, which ignited a separate Telangana
Ans: D movement.
 The government records have shown that up to
May 1963, 1730 exemptions were given and 64. Consider the following statements regarding
appointed non-locals. The government had the violations of the gentlemen’s agreement
shown the following reasons for the i) Telangana meeting was conducted by
exemptions Telangana Mahasabha and was chaired
 The non-locals were recruited on the pretext by Ravi Narayana Reddy in Pratap Girji
that the local candidates were not available, To Kothi, Hyderabad.
implement spouse case conditions ii) Telangana Mahasabha sent a
compassionate ground appointments were also memorandum to external affairs Minister
given a posting to non-locals in Telangana. Govind Vallabh Pant about the
development committed by the rulers
63. Assertion (A): The Supreme Court gave after the formation of Andhra Pradesh.
judgement on the Public Employment Act that iii) Prominent Leaders of Telangana
the rules relating to the requirements as to Mahasabha, informing the central and
residents were valid. state administrators about the injustices
Reason (R): The summary of the court’s ruling happening to the Telangana region were
on the Public Employment Act is that residency – Ravi Narayana Reddy and Marri Chenna
status should apply to the entire state. Reddy.
Select the answer using the codes given below How many statements given above are
A) Both A and R are true, and R is the incorrect?
proper explanation of A A) Only one
B) Both A and R are true, and R is not a B) Only two
proper explanation of A C) All the three
C) Only A is true D) None of the above
D) Only R is true Ans: C
Ans: D  The Prominent Leaders of Telangana
 In 1957 parliament assented the public Mahasabha, informing the central and state
employment act 1957. The act repealed administrators about the injustices happening
residency status in the states and union to the Telangana region between 1956-68 were
territories of the country and continued to – Varakantha Gopal Reddy and Bojjam
provide residency as eligibility in Telangana Narsimhulu. Varakantha Gopal Reddy makes his
region of Andhra Pradesh,Himachal Pradesh, residence available for Telangana Mahasabha
Manipur and Tripura. Under the act,the Center Meetings. Telangana Mahasabha sent a

memorandum to external affairs Minister D) All the above
Govind Vallabh Pant about the injustices Ans: D
committed by the rulers after 17 months of the  Telangana Regional Committee into a big
formation of Andhra Pradesh. Telangana dustbin; the Central Government played the
meeting was conducted by Telangana role of passive audience and never tried to look
Mahasabha on 8th March 1958, which was into the affairs of the State. Hence, the
chaired by veteran lawyer S. Venkataswamy in Telangana Non-Gazetted Officers (TNGO) Union
Pratap girls Kothi, Hyderabad. began its efforts for implementation of
Telangana Safeguards in July, 1968. Day of
65. Consider the following statements regarding Promises for Telangana (Telangana Haameela
the Telangana Safeguards Movement Dhinam): TNGO Union observed the Day of
i) The Telangana movement was first Promises for Telangana on 10th July, 1968
started in Warangal. under the leadership of K R Amos.
ii) The power station named Kothagudem
Thermal Power Station was established 67. Consider the following prominent leaders of
in Palwancha of Khammam District in the Telangana
1961. i) VL Narasimha Rao
Which of the statements given above are ii) Kolishetty Ramadasu
correct? iii) K. Rama Sudhakar Raju
A) Only i Which among the above were the Pioneers of
B) Only ii the 1969 Telangana movement?
C) Both A) Only I and iii
D) None B) Only I and ii
Ans: B C) Only ii
 Telangana Safeguards Movement: The D) All the above
Telangana movement was first started in Ans:D
Palvancha. In 1961, a power station named  The credit for initiating and spreading the
Kothagudem Thermal Power Station was movement in Telangana is given to the below
established in Palwancha of Khammam District. members. VL Narasimha Rao (President of
Palvancha TNGO), Kolishetty Ramadasu
66. Consider the following statements (Resident of Illandu) and K. Rama Sudhakar
i) Telangana Non-Gazetted Officers (TNGO) Raju (Teacher’s union leader).
Union began its efforts for
implementation of Telangana Safeguards 68. Assertion (A): The Hyderabad NGO Union was
in July, 1968. merged into Telangana Non-Gazetted Officers
ii) TNGO Union observed the Day of Union in 1964-65.
Promises for Telangana on 10th July 1968 Reason (R): Annabathula Rama Rao was the
iii) TNGO Union observed the Day of founder President of the Telangana Non-
Promises for Telangana under the Gazetted Officers Union and continued up to
leadership of K R Amos. 1969.
Which of the statements given above is Select the answer using the codes given below
correct? A) Both A and R are true, and R is the
A) Only I and ii proper explanation of A
B) Only iii B) Both A and R are true, and R is not a
C) Only ii and iiii proper explanation of A

C) Only A is true ii) Telangana surplus funds, including Rs 13
D) Only R is true crore of Nizam’s securities, will be spent
Ans: C in Telangana during the third plan.
 After experiencing the non-responsive, and iii) The government has promised to spend
rather unsympathetic, attitude of the Rs 12 crore on special development
Government, K R Amos decided to fight for projects in Telangana.
their rights and changed Hyderabad NGO Union How many statements given above are
into Telangana Non-Gazetted Officers Union in incorrect?
1964-65. He was the founder President of the A) Only one statement
Union and continued up to 1969. SLN Chary, a B) Only two statements
Deputy Tahsildar, was the Associate President C) All the three statements
of the Union. D) None of the above
Ans: A
69. Consider the following statements regarding  In 1960, regional committee president K.
the Telangana movement in 1969 Achutha Reddy criticized the government by
i) Annabathula Rabindranath began an announcing the injustices done to Telangana by
indefinite fast demanding for holding a press meeting. Damodaram
implementation of Telangana safeguards Sanjeevayya understood the injustices that
and separate Telangana on 8th January happened to Telangana and was ready to
1969. correct them. As a result, the government of
ii) Annabathula Rabindranath began an Andhra Pradesh issued a white paper in 1961.
indefinite fast at King Koti Palace in In addition, the government has promised to
Hyderabad. spend Rs 12 crore on special development
Which of the statements given above are projects in Telangana. But after the 1962
correct? elections, the Sanjeevya government was gone
A) Only i and Neelam Sanjeeva Reddy’s government
B) Only ii came back and no promise was fulfilled.
C) Both
D) None 71. Consider the following statements regarding
Ans: A bonded labour in Telangana
 On 8th January 1969, Annabathula i) The Nizam government passed a Farman
Rabindranath, a student leader of the National prohibiting bonded labour on 20th March
Student Union, who was studying BA, began an 1923.
indefinite fast demanding for implementation ii) The system of bonded labour continued
of Telangana safeguards and separate in districts of Karimnagar and Nalgonda
Telangana, at Gandhi Chowk in Khammam even after the Naxalite movement
town. eradicated it during 1978-81.
Which of the statements given above is
70. Consider the following statements incorrect?
i) The government of Andhra Pradesh A) Only i
under Neelam Sanjeev Reddy issued a B) Only ii
white paper on the accusations of the C) Both
regional committee chairman. D) None
Ans: B

 The Nizam passed a Farman on 20th March A) Only i
1923 prohibiting bonded labour. However, B) Only ii
landlords didn't implement it immediately. It C) Both
was only after the People's Movement during D) None
1944-46 that it was practically abolished in Ans: C
some villages. In districts of Karimnagar and  The Andhra Pradesh Government Passed an Act
Adilabad, it continued even thereafter the on 31st March 1988 for the protection of
Naxalite movement eradicated it during 1978- Joginis. A Commission headed by P Raghunatha
81. Rao was appointed by the Government during
1991-92. However due to the superstitions still
72. Assertion (A): The system of Jogini was prevalent in the rural areas, the Jogini system
prevalent during the time of Rashtrakutas and continues in disguise, and many girls are
Chalukyas under the name of Yogini. becoming victims of this age-old system.
Reason (R): The historians believe that the Stringent laws and social enlightenment alone
practice continued under the Vira Shaiva name can eradicate this system.
of Jogini during the time of Kakatiyas and  Raghunath Rao Commission is a single member
Hoyasalas in Telangana. commission
Select the answer using the codes given below
A) Both A and R are true, and R is the 74. Match the following regarding the crafts of
proper explanation of A Telangana
B) Both A and R are true, and R is not an Name of the art region
explanation of A i) Nirmal Art - Originated in Nirmal village.
C) Only A is true ii) Cheriyal Scroll Painting
D) Only R is true - This is a stylized version of Nakashi art.
Ans: A iii) Pembarthi Metal Craft
 The historians believe that even during the 7,8 - Metal handicraft made in Pembarthi of
and 9th Centuries - during the time of Nizamabad district.
Rashtrakutas and Chalukyas - it was prevalent How many pairs given above are matched
under the name of Yogini. They also believe properly?
that the practice continued under the Vira A) Only one pair
Shaiva name of Jogini during the time of B) Only two pairs
Kakatiyas and Hoyasalas in Telangana and C) All three pairs are given above
Karnataka from the 9th to 13th Centuries. D) None of the above
Ans: B
73. Consider the following statements regarding  Nirmal Art: This art originated in Nirmal village,
the Jogini system and has been known worldwide from the time
i) The Andhra Pradesh Government Passed of Kakatiyas; wooden dolls, colourful seats,
an Act for the protection of Joginis on beds, and swings with beautifully carved
31st March 1988. wooden work are famous throughout the
ii) The government of Andhra Pradesh world.
established a single-member commission  Cheriyal Scroll Painting: This is a stylized version
to study the conditions of Jogini which of Nakashi art, rich in the local motifs peculiar
was headed by P Raghunatha Rao. to the Telangana. The scrolls are painted in a
Which of the statements given above is narrative format, much like a film roll or a
correct? comic strip, depicting stories from Indian

mythology, and intimately tied to the shorter B) Only two statements
stories from the Puranas and Epics. C) All three statements are given above
 Pembarthi Metal Craft is a metal handicraft D) None of the above
made in Pembarthi of Warangal district. They Ans: B
are popular for their exquisite sheet metal  During the medieval period, in Telangana,
artworks which are used in making the brass different sub-castes emerged. These sub-castes
pillars erected outside the temples and for earned their livelihood by praising the castes
brass idols. and the genealogy of the castes and used to
beg from the castes present in Telangana.
75. Consider the following statements regarding These sub-castes were known as dependent
the Jagirdari System castes. They were given names based on which
i) Al-Tanga is the type of Jagirdari System. castes they were begging. Village servants were
ii) Al-Tanga implied a stamp of the king or a known as Balothadars. They were in all the
gift from the king. villages. The landlords used to give crop
iii) The gift was always land and was not produce known as “Balotha” to balothadars
permanent and inherited by the based on the quantity of the produce from the
successor of the person who received the given Inam lands.
gift. 77. Consider the following provisions of Mulki
Which of the statements given above is Rules 1919
incorrect? i) Should born in Hyderabad state.
A) Only I and ii ii) Should be a resident of Hyderabad.
B) Only ii and iii iii) By the time of birth of a child, his/her
C) Only iii father must have completed 12 years of
D) None of the above tenure as a government employee.
Ans: C iv) For a woman, she must be a wife of
 The Jagirdari system was in vogue in India even Mulki.
before the advent of Islamic Rule. Jagir is a According to the Firmaan 1919, the Definition
Persian word, which was of 2 types. Al-Tanga, of Mulki is?
which implied the stamp of the king or a gift A) Only I, ii, and iv
from the king; the gift was always a land, it was B) Only I, ii, and iii
permanent and it was inherited by the C) Only I, iii, and iv
successor of the person who received the gift. D) All the above
Ans: A
76. During the medieval period, in Telangana  1919 Firmaan – Definition of Mulki: To protect
different sub-castes emerged, consider the Mulki rules, Mir Osman Ali Khan issued a
following statements Firmaan in 1919. These are called Mulki Rules.
i) The Village servants in Telangana during A person who satisfies any one of the following
the Nizam period were known as conditions is considered a Mulki:
Balothadars. a) Should born in Hyderabad state
ii) The landlords used to give crop produce b) Should be a resident of Hyderabad
known as “Balotha” to balothadars. c) By the time of birth of a child, his/her
iii) Balotha is the share of produce given by father must have completed 15 years of
Balothadars to the landlords. tenure as a government employee.
How many statements given above are correct? d) For a woman, she must be a wife of
A) Only one statement Mulki.

Burgula Ramakrishna Rao Cabinet Ministers:
78. Assertion (A): The Nizam government 1. Burgula Ramakrishna Rao – Chief Minister
appointed the Aaravamudam Iyyangar 2. G.S. Melkote – Finance Minister
committee to look into the issue of Mulki rules 3. Bindu Digambara Rao – Home Minister
in 1937. 4. Marri Chennareddy – Civil supplies, Agriculture
Reason (R): By following the recommendations Minister
of the Aaravamudam Iyyangar committee, the 5. Konda Venkata Rangareddy – Excise, Customs,
definition of Mulki was made stringent in Forest Minister
Article 39 in the year 1945. 6. V.B. Raju – Labour and Planning Minister,
Select the answer using the codes given below Information & broadcasting (additional
A) Both A and R are true, and R is the Minister)
proper explanation of A 7. Navaz Jung Bahadur –Public Works Minister
B) Both A and R are true, and R is not a 8. Anna Rao – Local Administration Minister
proper explanation of A Industries & Commerce Minister
C) Only A is true 10. Devisingh Chouhan – Rural Development
D) Ony R is true Minister.
Ans: D
 Bahadur Aaravamudam Iyyangar Committee: 80. Consider the following statements regarding
For political reforms in Nizam state, the Nizam the Progress in the Education Field under
government appointed the Aaravamudam Nizam VII
Iyyangar Committee in 1937. This committee i) The budget for the Education field was
submitted its report in 1938. The following increased from 1920-21 to 1934-35 as
suggestions were made by the committee the amount spent between 14 Lakhs to
regarding employment. Job appointments 75 lakhs of rupees.
should be done by following Mulki Rules ii) The medium of instruction in the primary
strictly. By following the recommendations of and secondary levels of schooling under
the committee, the definition of Mulki has Nizam-VII was changed from Urdu to
been made stringent in article 39 in the year English.
1945. iii) The percentage of literates was very high
in Hyderabad State during the Nizam-VII
79. Match the following regarding the Burgula when compared to the other princely
Ramakrishna Rao Cabinet Ministers states in India.
Name of the Candidate Portfolio Which of the statements given above is
i) Bindu Digambara Rao - Home minister incorrect?
ii) Konda Venkata Rangareddy A) Only I and ii
- Finance minister B) Only ii and iii
iii) Devisingh Chouhan C) Only i
- Rural Development Minister D) All the above
How many pairs given above are matched Ans: D
properly?  Progress in the Education Field under Nizam VII:
A) Only one pair Mir Osman Ali Khan funded many educational
B) Only two pairs institutions along with the Osmania University.
C) All three pairs are given above The number of students increased substantially
D) None of the above in 1920. The budget for the Education field was
Ans: B staggering: from 1920-21 to 1934-35 the

amount spent was between 14 Lakhs to 1 Crore A) Both A and R are true, and R is the
of rupees. Since education was offered through proper explanation of A
the medium of Urdu, most of the Government B) Both A and R are true, and R is not a
jobs were filled by Muslims; this continued till proper explanation of A
1948. The number of gazetted officers in the C) Only A is true
Government during 1947-48 was 999 out of D) Only R is true
which 754 were Muslims. As the medium of Ans: C
instruction in the primary and secondary levels  Madiri Bhagya Reddy Varma declared that
of schooling was Urdu, Muslims had an untouchables were the original Indians and
advantage in education, and subsequently, in named them Adi Hindus. The basis for his
employment. The percentage of literates was activities was the slogans of equity justice and
very low in Hyderabad State compared to the cooperation. He established a Non-
other Estates in India. Only 9% of men were Governmental Organization named "Jagan
educated (1938) here, while in Mysore, Cochin, Mithra Mandali" in 1906. People who had the
Travancore, and Baroda Estates, it was more habits of drinking and smoking were refused
than 17 per cent. membership in His association. In 1910, he
started "Dharma Pracharini Sabha," in
81. Consider the following personalities affiliation with Jagan Mithra Mandali; it was a
i) Ravichettu Ranga Rao publishing house. He used to publish booklets
ii) Adipudi Somanatha Rao, and brochures to enlighten the Adi Hindus and
iii) Komarraju Venkata Laxmana Rao other sections of society. On 1st January 1911,
The founding fathers of the Telangana Library the name of Jagan Mithra Mandali was changed
Movement are? to "Manya Sangham."
A) Only I and ii
B) Only ii and iii 83. Consider the following statements regarding
C) Only iii the Adi Hindu Volunteer Core
D) All the above i) Bhagya Reddy Varma established a group
Ans: D of volunteers numbering 35.
 Along with Ravichettu Ranga Rao, Adipudi ii) The Adi Hindu Volunteer Core was used
Somanatha Rao, Komarraju Venkata Laxmana to help poor people when they were
Rao founded a library in Koti are' which was affected by fevers like Influenza and
named Sri Krishnadevaraya Andhra Bhasha contagious diseases like cholera.
Nilayam. Soon, it became a Cent: for Cultural iii) The Adi Hindu Volunteer Core is used to
and Literary Activities. The trio are considered conduct funerals for orphan corpses.
the founding fathers of the Telangana Library iv) The Humanitarian League started under
Movement. the Presidentship of Bhagya Reddy
Varma in 1913.
82. Assertion (A): The Jagan Mithra Mandali was How many statements given above are correct?
established by Madiri Bhagya Reddy Varma in A) Only one statement
1906. B) Only two statements
Reason (R): The name of Jagan Mithra Mandali C) Only three statements
was changed to Manya Sangham on 1st January D) All four statements are given above
1915. Ans: C
Select the answer using the codes given below  Adi Hindu Volunteer Core: Bhagya Reddy Varma
formed a group of volunteers numbering 35.

This core group used to help poor people when Reason (R): The humiliation of the Hyderabad
they were affected by fevers like Influenza and well-known advocate Allampally Venkata Rama
contagious diseases like cholera; they used to Rao triggered the Andhra Movement in the
conduct funerals for orphan corpses. second half of the 19th century.
Humanitarian League started under the Select the answer using the codes given below
Presidentship of Roy Balamukundh in 1913. A) Both A and R are true, and R is the
That association was called "Raksha Jeeva Gnan proper explanation of A
Prachara Mandali. B) Both A and R are true, and R is not a
84. Consider the following statements regarding C) Only A is true
the Adi Hindu D) Only R is true
i) The British Royal Commission went on Ans: B
touring the Country in 1922. (Both A and R are false)
ii) the All-India Adi Hindu meeting took  The Andhra Movement started in Telangana at
place in Hyderabad in 1922. the beginning of the 20th century as a Cultural
iii) The welfare of the untouchables was Movement and evolved into a Reform
passed in an All-India Adi Hindu meeting Movement, and later, a Political Movement On
that took place at Allahabad. 12th November, -1921, a meeting was
iv) A Committee was formed in the meeting conducted in Viveka Vardhini School of
to prepare a comprehensive report on Hyderabad to discuss the issue of social reforms
the untouchables to submit it to the in the Nizam State. The elite of the society who
Royal Commissiot Bhagya Reddy Varma participated in the meeting spoke Urdu,
was one of the seven members. Marathi and English. Allampally Venkata Rama
Which of the statements given above is Rao, a well-known Advocate of Hyderabad
incorrect? began his speech in Telugu; some of the
A) Only I and ii members, particularly from the Marathwada
B) Only I, ii and iv region disliked it and made him stop his speech
C) Only ii, iii, and iv by clapping loudly. All the Telugu members felt
D) All the above bad; they were in majority, but, were not
Ans: B allowed to use their language. They walked out
 When the British Royal Commission went, of the meeting.
touring in the Country in 1921, the All-India Adi
Hindu meeting took place in Allahabad. In that 86. Match the following regarding the meetings of
meeting, some important resolutions relating Andhra Mahasabha meetings
to the welfare of the untouchables were Name of the meeting - Venue
passed. A Committee was formed in the i) First meeting - Hyderabad
meeting to prepare a comprehensive report on ii) Second meeting - Jogi pet
the untouchables to submit it to the Royal iii) Third meeting - Warangal
Commission Dr. B R Ambedkar was one of the How many pairs given above are not matched
seven members. properly?
A) Only one pair
85. Assertion (A): The Andhra Movement started in B) Only two pairs
Telangana at the beginning of the 20th century C) All three pairs are given above
as a Reform Movement. D) None of the above
Ans: C

 Andhra Maha Sabhas in the Nizam State: After his 100 acres of land. With this Vediri
the formation of Trade and Fan associations Ramachandra Reddy became the first person to
and the commencement of libraries in 1920, donate land to the Bhoodan movement. Thus,
there was a thought to unite all Andhra the Bhoodan movement began on 18 April
associations into a centralized body; the effort 1951 in the village of Pochampally.
began with the first Nizam St. Andhra Maha
Sabha in 1930 at Jogi pet. Second Meeting at 88. Assertion (A): During the government of
Devarakonda: Exactly a year later, the second Burgula Ramakrishna Rao, hundreds of non-
Nizam State Maha Sabha was conducted on the locals were appointed to government jobs from
3rd, 4th and 5th March 1931 at Devarakonda in the combined Madras state and Andhra region.
Nalgonda District. Reason (R): The Gair Mulki movement was first
 Third Meeting at Khammam: The third meeting started in Warangal district in 1952.
of Andhra Maha Sabha was conducted in Select the answer using the codes given below
Khammam, which was a part of Warangal A) Both A and R are true, and R is the
District, at that time on 13th, 14th and 15th proper explanation of A
December 1934. As the resolution was B) Both A and R are true, and R is not a
submitted to the Nizam Government to abolish proper explanation of A
the Gasthi Nishan 53, it took almost 2 years for C) Only A is true
the Maha Sabha to get permission to conduct D) Only R is true
the meeting. Ans: D
87. Consider the following statements regarding  During military rule (J.N. Choudary) and civil
the Bhoodan Movement government rule (M.K. Vellodi) from 1948-52,
i) The Bhoodan movement began in the hundreds of non-mulkis were appointed in
village of Pochampally on 18th April 1951. government jobs from combined madras state
ii) Vediri Ramachandra Reddy became the and Andhra region showing the reason that
first person to donate land in the there were no trained employees in Hyderabad
Bhoodan movement. region. These appointments were done against
iii) The book titled ‘Unto the Last’ inspired Mulki orders issued by Nizam’s government in
Mahatma Gandhi a lot and he translated 1919. In 1952, the Gair Mulki movement was
it into Hindi as Sarvodaya. first started in Warangal district. Parthasarathi
Which of the statements given above is who was appointed as ‘Divisional inspector of
correct? schools’ in Warangal subjected the teachers to
A) Only I and ii many difficulties and transferred them to other
B) Only iii places in the name of discipline and also
C) Only ii and iii appointed non-locals in government jobs.
D) All the above
Ans: A 89. Consider the following statements regarding
 ‘Unto the Last’ was a book written by English the
philosopher, Sir John Ruskin and it inspired i) The Home Department has set up a
Mahatma Gandhi a lot he translated it into judicial inquiry committee under Justice
Gujarati as Sarvodaya. Later Sarvodaya Samiti Pingali Jaganmohan Reddy to investigate
was formed. The word Sarvodaya means social the police firing in Hyderabad city.
reconstruction or everyone’s welfare. Vediri ii) Justice Pingali Jaganmohan Reddy’s
Ramachandra Reddy gave a copy of the autobiography The Judiciary I Served.
document to Vinobha Bhave that he is donating

iii) In the autobiography Justice Pingali Bahadur Yar Jung, Mir Akbar Ali Khan (Editor of
Jaganmohan Reddy’s book, he wrote that a newspaper) and some others. Padmaja Naidu,
the Mulki riots were aroused because of the daughter of Sarojini Naidu, also took an
the failure of the government towards active part in the activities of the Mulki League.
the people of Telangana.
How many statements given above are correct? 91. Assertion (A): S.K. Dhar Commission was
A) Only one statement appointed by the Indian Constitutional Council
B) Only two statements to look into the formation of linguistic states in
C) All three statements are given above June 1948.
D) None of the above Reason (R): The S.K. Dhar Commission in its
Ans: B report stated that new states should be formed
 The Home Department set up a judicial inquiry based on language only.
committee under Justice Pingali Jaganmohan Select the answer using the codes given below
Reddy to investigate the police firing in A) Both A and R are true, and R is the
Hyderabad city on 3rd & 4th September 1952. proper explanation of A
Justice Pingali Jaganmohan Reddy’s B) Both A and R are true, and R is not a
autobiography – The Judiciary I Served In this proper explanation of A
book, he wrote that Mulki riots were aroused C) Only A is true
because of Andhra officials’ misconduct D) Only R is true
towards the Telangana people. The committee Ans: C
inquired about 100 witnesses and presented its  In June 1948, the S.K. Dhar Commission was
comprehensive report to the government on 28 appointed by the Indian Constitutional Council
December 1952. to look into the formation of linguistic states in
response to a nationwide argument over the
90. Consider the following famous personalities reorganization of states based on language.
i) Nawab Ali Nawaz Jung, Committee members were: Jagat Narain Lal and
ii) Sir Nizamat Jung, Panna Lal. This commission submitted its report
iii) Abul Hassan Syed Ali, in December 1948. The S.K. Dhar Commission
iv) Mandumula Narsinga Rao in its report stated that new states should be
The prominent members of the Mulki League formed based on mere governance. The S.K.
Association were? Dhar Commission rejected the formation of
A) Only I, ii, and iii states based on language.
B) Only I and iv
C) Only ii, iii, and iv 92. Consider the following statements regarding
D) All the above the J.V.P Committee.
Ans: D i) The Indian National Congress convened
 The prominent members in Mulki League J.V.P committee for the formation of
Association were Nawab Ali Nawaz Jung (a linguistic states in December 1952.
famous Engineer in the Nizam Government), Sir ii) The main objective of the J.V.P
Nizamat Jung (Minister Political Affairs), Abul Committee is to review the report of the
Hassan Syed Ali (a famous Advocate), Burgula Dhar Committee..
Ramakrishna Rao, Madapati Hanumanth Rao, iii) The J.V.P. committee suggested
Mandumula Narsinga Rao, Jagirdar Vaman postponing the formation of all linguistic
Nayak, Kasinath Vaidya who were prominent states.
leaders of the Hindu Community, Jagirdar

Which of the statements given above is i) Justice Kailashnath Wanchoo Committee
correct? was set up to solve the problems caused
A) Only ii by forming a new Andhra state from the
B) Only ii and iii partition of Madras state in 1953.
C) Only I and ii ii) The Wanchoo Committee suggested that
D) All the above Madras be kept as a joint capital for ten
Ans: A years.
 After the Dhar Commission report, those who Which of the statements given above is
wanted a separate state based on language correct?
became disgruntled. In December 1948, the A) Only i
Indian National Congress convened a J.V.P. B) Only ii
committee for the formation of linguistic states. C) Both
J.V.P - Jawar Lal Nehru, Vallabhai Patel, Pattabhi D) None
Sitaramayya. The main objective of this Ans: A
committee is to review the report of the Dhar  Wanchoo Committee: Justice Kailashnath the
Committee. The J.V.P committee suggested Wanchoo Committee was set up in 1953 to
postponing the formation of linguistic states solve the problems caused by forming a new
but it said that Andhra state could be formed. Andhra state from the partition of Madras
state. The committee suggested that Madras be
93. Consider the following personalities kept as a joint capital for four years. But the
i) Swami Sitaram then CM of Madras state C. Raja Gopala Chari
ii) Potti Sriramulu did not agree to this. Subsequently, according
iii) Bulusu Sambamurti to the Sribhag Agreement capital was
Who among them started his hunger strike established at Kurnool.
demanding a separate Andhra state?
A) Only I and iii 95. Consider the following statements regarding
B) Only I and ii the recommendations of the Iyyangar
C) Only ii and iii Committee on Reforms
D) All the above i) There should be a special constitutional
Ans: B body that must be constituted for the
 On 15th August 1951, Swami Sitaram began his appointment of Government employees.
fast unto death with a demand for a separate ii) They should be appointed from all the
Andhra state and relented after 35 days on the common people so that the government
advice of Acharya Vinobha Bhave. After that, on would grasp the pulse of the people.
19th October 1952, Potti Sriramulu started a iii) There should not be favouritism in the
fast unto death at the Bulusu Sambamurti appointments and no recommendation
house in Madras City for the formation of a should be entertained.
separate Andhra state. Potti Sriramulu died on How many statements given above are
15th December 1952 after 58 days of fasting. incorrect?
His death made to erupt violence in Andhra and A) Only one statement
on 19th, December 1952 PM Nehru announced B) Only two statements
the formation of Andhra state in parliament. C) All three statements are given above
94. Consider the following statements regarding Ans: B
the wanchoo committee

 Suggestions of the Iyyangar Committee on the slogan “Dismantle the Hyderabad Empire
Reforms: A Firmaan was passed on 22nd and clean up the traces of royalty”.
September 1937 regarding the political reforms
of the Nizam. Following the Firmaan, the 97. Consider the following statements regarding
Iyyengar Committee was formed to prepare a the gentleman agreement
report on the political reforms of the Nizam. i) According to the gentleman’s agreement,
The Committee submitted its Report to Babe it was agreed to set up a Regional
Hukumat on 31st August 1938. The report was Council.
printed in a special gazette on 29th July 1939. ii) The Regional Council is a statutory body
The Suggestions of the Committee: A special consisting of 50 members from the
system must be evolved for the appointment of Legislative Assembly to oversee the
Government employees. They should be needs and development of Telangana.
appointed by the common local people so that Which of the statements given above is
the Government would grasp the pulse of the incorrect?
people. There should not be favouritism in the A) Only i
appointments and no recommendation should B) Only ii
be entertained. Only the character and C) Both
capability of the aspirants should be D) None
considered. Ans: B
 The existing educational facilities in Telangana
96. Consider the following statements regarding would be reserved for the students from the
the state’s reorganization commission region only. It was agreed to continue the Mulki
i) Burgula Ramakrishna Rao, Ramananda rules under which only those with a minimum
Tirtha and others appealed in favour of of 12 years of residence in Telangana were
separate Telangana. eligible for jobs and admission to educational
ii) Swami Ramananda Tirtha gave the slogan institutions in Telangana. It was agreed to set
to the state’s reorganization commission up a Regional Council, a statutory body
“Dismantle the Hyderabad Empire and consisting of 20 members from the Legislative
clean up the traces of royalty. Assembly to oversee the needs and
Which of the statements given above is development of Telangana. The sale of
incorrect? agricultural land in Telangana would be
A) Only i controlled by the Regional Council.
B) Only ii
C) Both 98. Consider the following statements regarding
D) None the Telangana Regional Committee
Ans: A i) Telangana Regional Committee approval
 The State Reorganisation Commission visited is a must for the sale of agricultural lands
Hyderabad in 1954. When the commission in the Telangana region.
visited Hyderabad in June and July of 1954, K.V. ii) The Telangana Regional Committee
Ranga Reddy and Marri Chennareddy appealed examines the development of only
in favour of separate Telangana. Burgula primary education in the Telangana
Ramakrishna Rao, Ramananda Tirtha and region and formulates the required
others appealed in favour of Vishalandra. On development plan.
this occasion, Swami Ramananda Tirtha gave

iii) The Telangana Regional Committee town. Rabindranath was the first person to go
regulates admissions in educational on a fast unto death in the 1969 Telangana
institutions of the Telangana region. movement. He was accompanied by Shri Kavi
How many statements given above are correct? Rajamurthy, who was Vice-President of
A) Only one statement Khammam Municipality and was also a poet.
B) Only two statements
C) All three statements are given above 100. Match the following regarding the Telangana
D) None of the above Praja Samithi
Ans: B Post in the Praja Samithi - Post held by
st
 The Telangana Regional Commission looks into i) 1 President - Madan Mohan
the following matters: The Telangana Regional ii) Chief Secretary - Venkatrami Reddy
Committee’s approval is a must for the sale of iii) Treasurer - Nagari Krishna
agricultural lands in the Telangana region. All How many pairs given above are matched
land sales are under the control of this properly?
Committee. Examines the development of A) Only one pair
primary and secondary education in the B) Only two pairs
Telangana region and formulates the required C) All three pairs are given above
development plan. Regulates admissions in D) None of the above
educational institutions of the Telangana Ans: C
region. The Telangana People’s Convention, which was
99. Consider the following statements formed in February 1969, was converted to Telangana
i) Annabathula Rabindranath a student Praja Samithi on 25th March 1969. Telangana Praja
leader of the National Student Union Samithi.
began an indefinite fast demanding for  1st President - Madan Mohan (Siddipet Lawyer)
implementation of Telangana safeguards  Chief Secretary - Venkatrami Reddy
and separate Telangana at Osmania  Treasurer - Nagari Krishna
University.  Ad Hoc committee was formed with 17
ii) Annabathula Ravindranath was the first members.
person to go on a fast unto death in the
1969 Telangana movement. 101. Consider the following statements with
iii) Annabathula Ravindranath was reference to Registration of Births and Deaths
accompanied by Shri Kaloji Narayana. (Amendment) Bill, 2023?
Which of the statements given above is 1. It proposes to create digital birth
correct? certificates that will serve as
A) Only I and ii comprehensive documents for various
B) Only ii and iii purposes.
C) Only ii 2. It provides for the appointment of a
D) All the above Registrar General of India for issuing
Ans: C general directions for registration of
 On 8th January 1969, Annabathula births and deaths.
Rabindranath, a student leader of the National 3. It allows the sharing of data with other
Student Union, who was studying BA, began an authorities dealing with databases such
indefinite fast demanding for implementation as population register, electoral rolls,
of Telangana safeguards and separate ration cards, and property registration
Telangana, at Gandhi Chowk in Khammam records.

How many of the statements given above 1. It allows auction of minerals mined
is/are correct offshore, except for atomic minerals,
a) Only One which will be reserved for government
b) Only Two companies or corporations.
c) All Three 2. It exempts registered AYUSH
d) None practitioners from intimating biodiversity
Answer : c boards before accessing biological
Explanation : resources for their practice.
 The bill aims to eliminate the need for multiple 3 . It provides for benefit sharing based on
documents to prove the date and place of birth terms agreed between the user and the
by creating digital birth certificates that will be National Authority under the Biological
used for admission to educational institutions, Diversity Act 2002.
driving licenses, government jobs, passports, 4. It criminalises all offences under the Act
Aadhaar, voter enrollment, and marriage and provides for imprisonment and fine
registration. as penalties.
 The bill introduces the term “Registrar General How many of the statements given above
of India” to replace the existing term is/are correct
“Registrar-General” in the Registration of Births a) Only One
and Deaths Act, 1969. The Registrar General of b) Only Two
India will be responsible for issuing general c) Only Three
directions for registration of births and deaths, d) All four
maintaining the national database of registered Answer : c
births and deaths, and sharing the data with Explanation :
other authorities as per the conditions  Bill proposes to introduce a transparent,
specified in the bill. auction-based regime for allocation of mineral
 The bill allows the Registrar General of India to resources in offshore areas, except for atomic
share the data of registered births and deaths minerals, which are strategic and sensitive in
with other authorities dealing with databases nature and will be exclusively mined by
such as population register, electoral rolls, government entities.
ration cards, and property registration records,  Bill proposes to exempt practitioners of
subject to the prior approval of the Central traditional systems of medicine such as
Government and the proviso to sub-section (1) Ayurveda, Yoga, Naturopathy, Unani, Siddha
of section 17 of the Registration of Births and and Homeopathy from the requirement of
Deaths Act, 1969. informing the state or national biodiversity
 The proviso states that no person shall be boards before using any biological resources
compelled to give any information relating to for their practice. This is intended to facilitate
his religion or caste. The bill also requires the access to biological resources and traditional
authorities receiving the data to inform the knowledge by the Indian traditional medicine
action taken to the Central Government within sector.
a notified period.  Bill proposes to change the mechanism of
benefit sharing arising from the utilisation of
102. Consider the following statements with biological resources and associated traditional
reference to Offshore Areas Mineral knowledge. Instead of following the guidelines
(Development and Regulation) Amendment issued by the central government, the benefit
Bill 2023 sharing will be based on terms mutually agreed

between the user and the local management dentistry, provide quality and affordable
committee represented by the National dental education.
Biodiversity Authority under the Biological 2. While clearing the National (Exit) Test
Diversity Act 2002. would be sufficient in granting a license
to practice dentistry, the practice would
103. Consider the following statements with have to be registered in the
reference to Biological Diversity (Amendment) state/national register before
Bill, 2021 commencement.
1. The Bill seeks to amend the Biological Which among the statements mentioned above
Diversity Act, 2002 is/are correct?
2. It aims to encourage the Indian system of A. 1 only
medicine and cultivation of wild B. 2 only
medicinal plants, C. Both 1 and 2
3. It facilitate fast-tracking of processes for D. Neither 1 nor 2
research, patent application, and Correct answer: B
transfer of research results, Explanation:
4. The Bill also amends the Act to include  The National Dental Commission Bill, 2023
references to the Nagoya Protocol. seeks to repeal the Dentists Act, 1948 to
How many of the statements given above regulate the profession of dentistry, provide
is/are correct quality and affordable dental education, and
a) Only One make accessible high-quality oral healthcare.
b) Only Two While clearing the National (Exit) Test would be
c) Only Three sufficient in granting a license to practice
d) All four dentistry, the practice would have to be
Answer : d registered in the state/national register before
Explanation : commencement.
 In December 2021, the Biological Diversity
(Amendment) Bill, 2021 was introduced in Lok 105. Consider the following statements about the
Sabha, and was subsequently referred to a Mission Amrit Sarovar:
Joint Parliamentary Committee. 1. The Bhaskaracharya National Institute
 The Bill seeks to amend the Biological Diversity for Space Application and Geo-
Act, 2002 to: (i) encourage the Indian system of informatics (BISAG-N) has been
medicine and cultivation of wild medicinal appointed as the technical partner for
plants, (ii) facilitate fast-tracking of processes this mission.
for research, patent application, and transfer of 2. Under the Mission Amrit Sarovar, more
research results, (iii) decriminalise offences, than 63,000 waterbodies were
and (iv) encourage foreign investment in the developed in just about a year.
sector. The Bill also amends the Act to include Which among the statements mentioned above
references to the Nagoya Protocol. is/are correct?
A. 1 only
104. Consider the following statements about the B. 2 only
National Dental Commission Bill, 2023: C. Both 1 and 2
1. The Bill seeks to repeal the Dentists Act, D. Neither 1 nor 2
1973 to regulate the profession of Correct answer: C
Explanation:

 Bhaskaracharya National Institute for Space (Development and Regulation) Amendment
Application and Geo-informatics (BISAG-N) has Bill, 2023?
been appointed as the technical partner for the 1. The exploration licence will be issued for
Mission Amrit Sarovar. Underlining that India’s five years.
initiatives were powered by people’s 2. The exploration licence will be issued for
participation, Mr. Modi recently said that under 29 minerals specified in the Seventh
Mission Amrit Sarovar, more than 63,000 Schedule. These include gold, silver,
waterbodies were developed in just about a copper, cobalt, nickel, lead, potash, and
year. rock phosphate
3. The Bill allows activities under a single
106. Consider the following statements about the exploration licence in an area up to 1,000
passes in the Western Ghats: square kilometres
1. Thal Ghat Pass: connects Mumbai to How many of the statements given above is
Nashik. /are correct
2. Amba Ghat Pass: connects Sawantwadi a) Only One
of Maharashtra to Belgaum of Karnataka. b) Only Two
3. Naneghat Pass: connects Pune district c) All three
with Junnar city. d) None
4. Amboli Ghat Pass: connects Ratnagiri Answer : c
district to Kolhapur. Explanation :
How many among the pairs mentioned above  The exploration licence will be issued for five
is/are correct? years. A licencee may request for extension of
A. Only 1 pair up to two years by making an application to the
B. Only 2 pairs state government. The application may be
C. Only 3 pairs made after three years of issuance of licence
D. None of the above but before its expiry.
Correct answer: B  The exploration licence will be issued for 29
Explanation: minerals specified in the Seventh Schedule.
The following are the passes in the Western Ghats: These include gold, silver, copper, cobalt,
 Thal Ghat Pass (Kasara Ghat): connects Mumbai nickel, lead, potash, and rock phosphate.
to Nashik These also include six minerals classified as
 Bhor Ghat Pass: connects Mumbai to Pune via atomic minerals under the Act: (i) beryl and
Khopoli beryllium, (ii) lithium, (iii) niobium, (iv)
 Palakkad Gap (Pal Ghat): connects Coimbatore, titanium, (v) tantallium, and (vi) zirconium. The
Tamil Nadu to Palakkad, Kerala Bill declassifies them as atomic minerals. Unlike
 Amba Ghat Pass: connects Ratnagiri district to other minerals, the prospecting and mining of
Kolhapur. atomic minerals is reserved for government
 Naneghat Pass: connects Pune district with entities under the Act.
Junnar city.  Under the Act, a prospecting licence allows
Amboli Ghat Pass: connects Sawantwadi of activities in an area up to 25 square kilometres,
Maharashtra to Belgaum of Karnataka. and a single reconnaissance permit allows
activities in an area up to 5,000 square
107. Consider the following statements with kilometres. The Bill allows activities under a
reference to Mines and Minerals single exploration licence in an area up to 1,000
square kilometres. After the first three years,

the licencee will be allowed to retain up to 25% Research and Technology) consortium ARCADE
of the originally authorised area. The licencee carries an iodine-based solid propellant
must also submit a report to the state propulsion module, based on Hall effect
government stating reasons for retention of thruster for orbit maintenance during the low
the area. altitude mission.
108. Consider the following statements with 109. Arrange the following Indian tiger reserves in
reference to PSLV-C56 rocket launched by chronological order based on their tiger
ISRO recently abundance, from highest to lowest
1. PSLV-C56 / DS-SAR, is the Dedicated a) Corbett, Bandipur, Nagarhole,
Commercial Mission of NewSpace India Bandhavgarh, Dudhwa
Limited (NSIL) for ST Engineering, b) Bandipur, Corbett, Nagarhole,
Singapore Bandhavgarh, Dudhwa
2. DS-SAR, a Radar Imaging Earth c) Nagarhole, Bandipur, Corbett,
Observation satellite, is the primary Bandhavgarh, Dudhwa
satellite for the mission d) Dudhva, Corbett, Bandipur, Nagarhole,
3. It carried an iodine-based solid Bandhavgarh,
propellant propulsion module, based on Answer : a
Hall effect thruster for orbit Explanation :
maintenance. The largest tiger population of 785 is in Madhya
How many of the statements given above is Pradesh, followed by Karnataka (563) &
/are correct Uttarakhand (560), and Maharashtra (444).
a) Only One  The tiger abundance within the Tiger Reserve
b) Only Two is highest in Corbett (260), followed by
c) All three Bandipur (150), Nagarhole (141), Bandhavgarh
d) None (135), Dudhwa (135), Mudumalai(114), Kanha
Answer : c (105), Kaziranga (104), Sundarbans (100),
Explanation : Tadoba (97), Sathyamangalam (85), and Pench-
 PSLV-C56 / DS-SAR, is the Dedicated MP (77).
Commercial Mission of NewSpace India Limited
(NSIL) for ST Engineering, Singapore. DS-SAR, a
Radar Imaging Earth Observation satellite, is 110. Consider the following statements with
the primary satellite for the mission. In addition reference to Resource Efficiency Circular
to this, there are six co-passenger customer Economy Industry Coalition (RECEIC)
satellites also belonging to Singapore. PSLV-C56 1. It is an industry-driven initiative that
is configured in its core-alone mode, similar to aims to promote resource efficiency and
the previous C55 mission. All satellites are circular economy practices globally.
injected into a 535 km circular with 5 orbital 2. It involves 39 multinational corporations
inclination. SAR carries a Synthetic Aperture from various sectors, such as steel,
Radar (SAR) payload Hoped by Israel Aerospace FMCG, and electronics.
Industries (IAI) 3. It has three guiding principles:
 ARCADE is a 27U microsatellite designed and Partnerships for impact, Technology
built by Nanyang Technological University Cooperation and Finance for scale.
(NTU), Singapore, in collaboration with the How many of the statements given above
INSPIRE (International Satellite Program in is/are correct

a) Only One The engine is fired up when the Chandrayaan is
b) Only Two at a distance of 236 km from the Earth. Perigee
c) All three is the point in Moon’s orbit closest to the Earth,
d) None whereas Apogee is the point in orbit farthest
Answer : c from the Earth.
Explanation :
 The Resource Efficiency Circular Economy 112. Consider the following statements about the
Industry Coalition (RECEIC) is an industry-driven Index of Eight Core Industries (ICI):
initiative that aims to promote resource 1. Coal, Refinery Products, Crude Oil,
efficiency and circular economy practices Cement are among the eight core
globally industries.
 . It was launched by the Union Minister of 2. The compilation and releasing of the
Environment, Forest and Climate Change of index are done by the Office of the
India on July 27, 2023, as part of India’s G20 Economic Adviser, Ministry of Finance.
Presidency. Which among the statements mentioned above
 The coalition involves 39 multinational is/are incorrect?
corporations from various sectors, such as A. 1 only
steel, FMCG, and electronics. B. 2 only
 The coalition has three guiding principles: C. Both 1 and 2
Partnerships for impact, Technology D. Neither 1 nor 2
Cooperation and Finance for scale. The Correct answer: B
coalition is envisioned to be a self-sustaining Explanation:
entity that will continue to operate beyond  Index of Eight Core Industries (ICI) refers to a
India’s G20 Presidency, making a lasting impact production volume index that measures the
on environmental sustainability. collective and individual production
performances of eight selected core industries.
111. Consider the following statements: These industries are Natural Gas, Coal, Refinery
1. For translunar injection, Chandrayaan's Products, Crude Oil, Cement, Electricity, Steel,
speed should be more than Earth's and Fertilizers. The compilation and releasing
escape velocity. of the index are done by the Office of the
2. Perigee is the point in Moon’s orbit Economic Adviser (OEA), Department of
farthest from the Earth. Industrial Policy and Promotion (DIPP), Ministry
Which among the statements mentioned above of Commerce and Industry. The eight core
is/are correct? sectors constitute 40.3% of the Index of
A. 1 only Industrial Production.
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2 113. Consider the following statements about Indo-
D. Neither 1 nor 2 Sri Lanka relations:
Correct answer: A 1. India is Sri Lanka’s third largest export
Explanation: destination.
 For translunar injection, Chandrayaan's speed 2. India and Sri Lanka conduct joint Military
should be more than Earth's escape velocity. exercise bearing the name SLINEX.
Earth's escape velocity is 40 thousand 270 Which among the statements mentioned above
kilometers per hour meaning that the is/are correct?
Chandrayaan's speed should be more than this. A. 1 only

B. 2 only 115. Consider the following statements:
C. Both 1 and 2 The Mangalyaan launched by ISRO (2016)
D. Neither 1 nor 2 1. is also called the Mars Orbiter Mission
Correct answer: A 2. made India the second country to have a
Explanation: spacecraft orbit the Mars after USA
 India is Sri Lanka’s third largest export 3. made India the only country to be
destination, after the US and UK. More than successful in making its spacecraft orbit
60% of Sri Lanka’s exports enjoy the benefits of the Mars in its very first attempt
the India-Sri Lanka Free Trade Agreement. India Which of the statements given above is/are
is also a major investor in Sri Lanka. India and correct?
Sri Lanka conduct joint Military exercise (a) 1 and 2 only
bearing the name Mitra Shakti and Naval (b) 2 and 3 only
exercise known as SLINEX. (c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
114. Consider the following statements about Deep Answer: C
Tech:  Mars Orbiter Mission (MOM), India's first
1. It refers to a class of startup businesses interplanetary mission to planet Mars was
that develop new offerings based on launchedonboard PSLV-C25 on November 05,
tangible engineering innovation or 2013. ISRO has become the fourth after NASA,
scientific discoveries and advances. Roscosmos and European Space agency,to
2. In the last decade India’s deep tech successfully send a spacecraft to Mars orbit.
ecosystem has grown 53%.  The objectives of this mission are primarily
Which among the statements mentioned above technological and include design, realisation
is/are incorrect? and launch of a Mars Orbiter spacecraft
A. 1 only capable of operating with sufficient autonomy
B. 2 only during the journey phase; Mars orbit insertion /
C. Both 1 and 2 capture and in-orbit phase around Mars.
D. Neither 1 nor 2  India has become the first nation to send a
Correct answer: D satellite into orbit around Mars on its first
Explanation: attempt, and the first Asian nation to do so.
 Deep tech or deep technology refers to a class 116. Consider the following statements with
of startup businesses that develop new reference to GOBARdhan initiative
offerings based on tangible engineering 1. It is implemented under the Swachh
innovation or scientific discoveries and Bharat Mission Gramin-Phase 2 by the
advances. The Draft National Deep Tech Department of Drinking Water and
Startup Policy (NDTSP) is strategically Sanitation under Jal Shakti Ministry
formulated to stimulate innovation, spur 2. It aims to augment the income of
economic growth, and promote societal farmers by converting biodegradable
development through the effective utilization waste into compressed biogas and
of deep tech research-driven innovations. In organic fertiliser.
the last decade India’s deep tech ecosystem 3. It provides incentives ranging from Rs. 5
has grown 53% and is at par with that in lakh to Rs. 15 lakh for different models
developed markets like the US, China, Israel, and household sizes.
and Europe.

4. It has a unified portal for registration, grievances. The portal also provides a
monitoring and grievance redressal of dashboard for displaying key indicators such as
biogas projects. number of projects registered, completed,
How many of the statements given above is operational, etc.
/are correct
a) Only One 117. Consider the following statements with
b) Only Two reference to ULLAS mobile app
c) Only Three 1. The ULLAS app can be used for
d) All three registration of learners and volunteers
Answer : c either through self-registration or by
Explanation : surveyors
 The Swachh Bharat Mission Gramin-Phase 2 is a 2. It imparts basic education, digital and
programme launched by the Government of financial literacy and critical life skills to
India in 2020 to achieve universal sanitation citizens aged 15 and above who lost on
coverage, improve solid and liquid waste the opportunity to go to school
management, and promote rural hygiene and Which of the above statements is/are correct
cleanliness. The Department of Drinking Water a) 1 only
and Sanitation under the Jal Shakti Ministry is b) 2 only
the nodal agency for implementing this c) Both 1 and 2
programme. The GOBARdhan scheme is one of d) Neither 1 nor 2
the key initiatives under this programme. Answer : c
 he GOBARdhan scheme supports villages to Explanation :
convert their cattle waste, agricultural waste  ULLAS mobile application marks a significant
and other organic waste into compressed milestone in harnessing the potential of
biogas (CBG) and organic fertiliser using technology to facilitate widespread access to
decentralised systems. CBG is a renewable and basic literacy. This user-friendly and interactive
clean fuel that can be used for cooking, app available both on android and ios and will
lighting, heating and transportation. Organic serve as a digital gateway for learners to
fertiliser is a natural and eco-friendly product engage in diverse learning resources through
that can enhance soil health and crop the DIKSHA portal of NCERT.
productivity. By producing and selling these  The ULLAS app can be used for registration of
products, farmers can increase their income learners and volunteers either through self-
and reduce their dependence on fossil fuels registration or by surveyors,
and chemical fertilisers.  ULLAS will focus on promoting functional
 The scheme provides incentives ranging from literacy, vocational skills, and many important
Rs. 7 lakh to Rs. 20 lakh for different models life skills like financial literacy, legal literacy,
and household sizes. digital literacy, and empowerment of citizens to
 In June 2023, the Ministry of Jal Shakti involve in nation-building of the country. It also
launched a unified portal for GOBARdhan to fosters a culture of continuous learning and
ensure smooth implementation of biogas knowledge-sharing in communities across
schemes/initiatives and their real-time India,
tracking. The portal allows users to register 118. The key objectives of the National Tourism
their projects, access information on various Policy are to
schemes, apply for loans, subsidies and grants, 1. To enhance the contribution of tourism
monitor their progress and report any issues or in Indian economy by increasing the

visitation, stay and spend and making  Ministry of Tourism, Government of India
India a year-round tourist destination, has launched the “Adopt a Heritage: Apni
2. To create jobs and entrepreneurial Dharohar, Apni Pehchaan” project for
opportunities in tourism sector and
developing tourism amenities at
ensure supply of skilled work force,
heritage/natural/tourist sites spread across
3. To enhance the competitiveness of
India for making them tourist friendly, in a
tourism sector and attract private sector
investment, planned and phased manner. The project
4. To preserve and enhance the cultural aims to encourage companies from public
and natural resources of the country, sector, private sector, trusts, NGOs,
5. To ensure sustainable, responsible and individuals, and other stakeholders to
inclusive development of tourism in the become ‘Monument Mitras’ and take up
country the responsibility of developing and
How many of the above statements is/are upgrading the basic and advanced tourist
correct amenities at these sites as per their interest
a) Only One
and viability in terms of a sustainable
b) Only Two
investment model under CSR and other
c) Only Four
funds.
d) All Five
Answer : d
119. Consider the following statements about
Explanation :
Justice G. Rohini Commission:
The Ministry of Tourism has drafted a National
1. The Commission was set up in 2015
Tourism Policy incorporating suggestions
under Article 340 of the Constitution.
received from Central Ministries, State 2. It was tasked with sub-categorization of
Governments/UT Administrations and Industry the Other Backward Classes (OBCs) and
Stakeholders. The key strategic objectives of the equitable distribution of benefits
Policy are: reserved for them.
i. To enhance the contribution of tourism in Which among the statements mentioned above
Indian economy by increasing the is/are correct?
visitation, stay and spend and making India A. 1 only
a year-round tourist destination, B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
ii. To create jobs and entrepreneurial
D. Neither 1 nor 2
opportunities in tourism sector and ensure
Correct answer: B
supply of skilled work force,
Explanation:
iii. To enhance the competitiveness of tourism  Justice G. Rohini Commission was set up on 2nd
sector and attract private sector October, 2017 under Article 340 of the
investment, Constitution. It was tasked with sub-
iv. To preserve and enhance the cultural and categorisation of the Other Backward Classes
natural resources of the country, (OBCs) and equitable distribution of benefits
v. To ensure sustainable, responsible and reserved for them.
inclusive development of tourism in the
country.

120. Consider the following statements about the  The Biological Diversity (Amendment) Bill, 2021
Multi-State Cooperative Societies also proposes to decriminalise offences under
(Amendment) Bill, 2023: the Act and substitute them with penalties
1. The Multi-State Cooperative Societies (between ₹1 lakh and ₹50 lakh and continuing
(Amendment) Bill, 2023 amends the violations can attract an additional penalty of
Multi-State Co-operative Societies Act, up to ₹1 crore) with no imprisonment. Users of
2014. codified traditional knowledge and AYUSH
2. The Bill seeks to establish a ‘Cooperative practitioners will be exempted from sharing
Election Authority’ with a view to benefits with local communities.
introducing electoral reforms in the
cooperative sector. 122. Consider the following statements about
Which among the statements mentioned above online games:
is/are incorrect? 1. Real money online games are where the
A. 1 only user deposits cash or kind with the
B. 2 only expectation of earning winnings on that
C. Both 1 and 2 deposit.
D. Neither 1 nor 2 2. Fantasy sports involves choosing real-life
Correct answer: A sports players and winning points based
Explanation: on players’ performance.
 The Multi-State Cooperative Societies Which among the statements mentioned above
(Amendment) Bill, 2023 amends the Multi- is/are incorrect?
State Co-operative Societies Act, 2002. The Bill a) 1 only
seeks to establish a ‘Cooperative Election b) 2 only
Authority’ with a view to introducing electoral c) Both 1 and 2
reforms in the cooperative sector. d) Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer: D
121. Consider the following statements about the Explanation:
Biological Diversity (Amendment) Bill, 2021:  Real money online games are where the user
1. The Bill proposes to decriminalise deposits cash or kind with the expectation of
offences under the Act and substitute earning winnings on that deposit. The types of
them with penalties between ₹1 lakh and online gaming include:
₹50 lakh. i.E-sports (well-organized electronic sports
2. Users of codified traditional knowledge which include professional players) ex.
and AYUSH practitioners will be Chess
exempted from sharing benefits with ii.Fantasy sports (choosing real-life sports players
local communities. and winning points based on players’
Which among the statements mentioned above performance) ex. MPL cricket
is/are correct? iii.Skill-based (mental skill) ex. Archery Gamble
A. 1 only (based on random activity) ex. Playing
B. 2 only Cards, Rummy
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2 123. Consider the following statements about the
Correct answer: C Vivad se Vishwas II (Contractual Disputes)
Explanation: scheme:

1. The Union Finance Ministry has come up equipment. It is a soft, ductile transition metal
with this scheme. which is resistant to corrosion due to the
2. The scheme will apply presence of an oxide layer on its surface.
to all domestic contractual
disputes where one of the 125. What is/are the most likely advantages of
parties is either the Government of India implementing Goods and Services Tax (GST)?
or an organisation working under 2017
its control. 1. It will replace multiple taxes collected by
Which among the statements mentioned above multiple authorities and will thus create
is/are correct? a single market in India.
A. 1 only 2. It will drastically reduce the Current
B. 2 only Account Deficit of India and will enable it
C. Both 1 and 2 to increase its foreign exchange reserves
D. Neither 1 nor 2 3. It will enormously increase the growth
Correct answer: C and size of economy of India and will
Explanation: enable it to overtake China in the near
 The Union Finance Ministry has come up with a future.
draft scheme known as Vivad se Vishwas II Select the correct answer using the code given
(Contractual Disputes) scheme, with the aim of below
resolving pending disputes related to (a) 1 only
government contracts. The scheme will apply (b) 2 and 3 only
to all domestic contractual (c) 1 and 3 only
disputes where one of the (d) 1, 2 and 3
parties is either the Government of India or an Correct answer: A
organisation working under its control.
126. Which number will replace the question mark
124. Consider the following statements about (?) in the following number series
minerals: 25, 45, 73, 111, 161 ?
1. Niobium is used in the manufacturing of a) 246
MRI scanners and NMR equipment. b) 225
2. Lithium (Li) is sometimes also referred c) 232
as ‘Green gold’. d) 292
Which among the statements mentioned above Answer: b
is/are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer: A
127. "Crime" is related to "punishment,". In the
Explanation:
same way, what is "Hard work" related to?
 Lithium (Li) is sometimes also referred
a) Rest
as ‘White gold’ due to its high demand for
b) Reward
rechargeable batteries, is a soft and silvery-
c) Challenge
white metal. Niobium is used in the
d) Procrastination
manufacturing of MRI scanners and NMR

Answer: b
Explanation:
 First leads to second. Crime ensures
punishment .Similarly hard work leads to
Reward.]
130. In a code language AGENDA is coded as

128. In a family with the following relationships: C
2672214231 then how will DOMAIN be coded
is the father of L, L is the brother of G, G is the
in the same language?
daughter of D, M is the granddaughter of D.
a) 23151411817
and N is the father of M. What is the
b) 23151421818
relationship between N and L?
c) 23151418116
a) N is Uncle of L
d) 23151411814
b) N is Brother of L
Answer: d
c) N is Brother in Law of L
d) N is Grandfather of L
Answer: c
129. Anitha walks 40 m towards the north and 131. If 22nd January 2011 was a Saturday, then
then turns right and walks 60 m. Then she what was the day of the week on 23rd January
turns left and walks 50 m. After that she turns 2015?
right and walks 60 m. From there, she turns a) Friday
right and walks 130 m. Then she again turns b) Sunday
left and walks 80 m. She finally turns left and c) Thursday
walks 40 m. How far is she from her home d) Monday
now and in which direction with reference to Answer: a
her home?
a) 140 m, South
b) 200 m, East
c) 80 m, East
d) 100 m, West
Answer: b
132. Two statements are given a statement

followed by Three conclusions numbered I,II
and III. Assuming statements to be true then

consider the three conclusions together and 134. Who lives on the 5th floor?
decide which of them logically follows beyond a) Bhavya
a reasonable doubt from the information b) Swapna
given in the statement. c) Madhu
Statements: d) Anitha
All vegetables are plants Answer: c
All fruits are plants
Conclusions:
I.Some plants are vegetables
II.Some vegetables are fruits
III.No vegetable is fruit
a) All the conclusions follow
b) Conclusion I and either conclusion II or III
follow
c) Only conclusions I and II follow
d) Only conclusions I and III follow
Answer: b
135. In the following question, some part of the

sentence may have errors. Find out which part
Direction (133-134) : Seven people i.e. Anitha, of the sentence has an error and select the
Bhavya, Chandini, Divi, Hima, Madhu, and Swapna appropriate option. If a sentence is free from
live in a seven-floor building. The lowermost floor is error, select 'No error'.
numbered as 1, floor above it numbered as 2 so up to He was angry (1)/ on me for being late (2)/ to
the topmost floor is numbered as 7. All the the meeting. (3)/No Error (4)
information is not necessarily in the same order. a) 1
Hima lives on an odd numbered floor. Anitha lives b) 2
four floors below Swapna. Number of people living c) 3
above Anitha is the same as the number of people d) 4
living below Swapna. Bhavya lives just below Madhu. Answer: b
Chandini lives two floors above Madhu. Three people Explanation:
live between Madhu and Divi. He was angry with me for being late to the
meeting.
133. How many people are living between Chandini The preposition on is used to indicate the
and Hima? position of something or someone above and
a) Three touching another thing or person.
b) Two For example:
c) Four The book is on the table.
d) None of the above He put a hat on his head.
Answer: a She leaned on him for support.

The preposition with is used to indicate the  To be concise means to express much in few
accompaniment, association, or connection of words, or to be brief and clear. This word fits
something or someone. For example: the context of the sentence, as the teacher was
He went to the park with his friends. very impressed by the student’s short and clear
She works with a multinational company. essay on environmental issues
He was angry with me for being late.
138. In the following question, out of the four
136. In the following question, some part of the alternatives, select the word similar in
sentence may have errors. Find out which part meaning to the word given.
of the sentence has an error and select the Eccentric
appropriate option. If a sentence is free from a) Normal
error, select ‘No error’. b) Odd
She is very good (1)/ in singing and dancing c) Rational
(2)/ as well as painting. (3)/No Error (4) d) Conventional
Options: Answer : b
a) 1 [Explanation:
b) 2  Eccentric means deviating from the recognized
c) 3 or customary character, practice, etc.; irregular;
d) 4 erratic; peculiar; odd. Odd means differing in
Answer: d nature from what is ordinary, usual, or
Explanation: expected. Both words imply a sense of being
 The sentence is free from error and does not unusual or strange. The other options are not
need any correction. The sentence is similar in meaning to eccentric.
grammatically and semantically correct. The
preposition in is used to indicate the skill or 139. In the following question, out of the four
ability of someone or something. alternatives, select the word similar in
For example: meaning to the word given.
She is very good in mathematics. Frugal
He excels in playing chess. a) Wasteful
They are proficient in speaking English. b) Extravagant
c) Thrifty
137. In the following question, the sentence given d) Lavish
with blank to be filled in with an appropriate Answer: c
word. Select the correct alternative out of the Explanation:
four and indicate it by selecting the  The word similar in meaning to the word frugal
appropriate option. is thrifty. Frugal means sparing or economical
The teacher was very impressed by the with regard to money or food. Thrifty means
student’s __________ essay on environmental using money and other resources carefully and
issues. not wastefully. Both words imply a sense of
a) verbose being careful or prudent with one’s resources
b) concise
c) obscure 140. In the following question, out of the four
d) redundant alternatives, select the word opposite in
Answer: b meaning to the word given.
Explanation: Candid

a) Frank says “Stop beating around the bush and tell me
b) Honest what you want”, it means that they are
c) Deceitful impatient with the other person’s indirect or
d) Sincere vague speech and want them to get to the
Answer : c point.
Explanation:
 The word candid means truthful and 143. In the following question, out of the four
straightforward, or frank. The word opposite in alternatives, select the alternative which best
meaning to candid is deceitful, which means expresses the meaning of the idiom/phrase.
dishonest or misleading. To have a chip on one’s shoulder
a) To have a grudge or resentment against
141. In the following question, out of the four someone or something
alternatives, select the word opposite in b) To have a piece of wood or metal on
meaning to the word given. one’s clothing or body
Placid c) To have a lot of confidence or pride in
a) Calm oneself
b) Turbulent d) To have a small amount of money or
c) Peaceful resources
d) Serene Answer: a
Answer: b Explanation:
Explanation:  The correct answer is option a) To have a
 The word placid means not easily upset or grudge or resentment against someone or
excited, or calm and peaceful . The word something. The idiom “to have a chip on one’s
opposite in meaning to placid is turbulent, shoulder” means to have an angry or
which means characterized by conflict, unpleasant attitude or way of behaving caused
disorder, or confusion by a belief that one has been treated unfairly in
the past. It comes from the literal sense of
142. In the following question, out of the four placing a chip of wood on one’s shoulder,
alternatives, select the alternative which best challenging others to knock it off, as a sign of
expresses the meaning of the idiom/phrase. readiness for a fight. For example, if someone
To beat around the bush says “He has a chip on his shoulder about being
a) To avoid talking about the main point or passed over for promotion”, it means that he is
issue bitter and resentful about not getting the job
b) To hit someone or something repeatedly he wanted]
c) To wander aimlessly in a forest or jungle 144. In the following question, out of the four
d) To make a lot of noise or fuss alternatives, select the alternative which is the
Answer: a best substitute for the words/sentence.
Explanation: A feeling of intense happiness and excitement
 The idiom “to beat around the bush” means to a) Ecstasy
talk about irrelevant or trivial matters instead b) Melancholy
of addressing the main problem or question. It c) Apathy
comes from the literal sense of hitting the d) Desolation
bushes with a stick to scare out the birds or Answer: a
animals that are hiding inside, instead of going Explanation:
straight to the hunt. For example, if someone

 The best substitute for the words “a feeling of b) Accommodate
intense happiness and excitement” is ecstasy. c) Acomodate
This word is derived from Greek and means d) Accomodate
“standing outside oneself” or “literally”. It is Answer: b
often used to describe a state of emotion so [Explanation:
intense that one is carried beyond rational  The correctly spelt word is accommodate. It
thought and self-control. means to provide with something desired,
For example: needed, or suited; to make room for; to bring
He felt a surge of ecstasy as he crossed the into agreement or concord; or to adapt to
finish line.
She was in ecstasy when she saw her favorite 147. In the following question, a sentence has been
band perform live. given in Active/Passive voice. Out of the four
They experienced a moment of ecstasy during alternatives suggested, select the one which
their meditation. best expresses the same sentence in
Passive/Active voice.
145. In the following question, out of the four The teacher praised him for his honesty.
alternatives, select the alternative which is the a) He was praised by the teacher for his
best substitute for the words/sentence. honesty.
Having or showing a strong or unreasoning b) He praised the teacher for his honesty.
desire for revenge c) His honesty was praised by the teacher.
a) Vindictive d) His honesty praised the teacher.
b) Vengeful Answer: a
c) Malicious Explanation:
d) Spiteful  He was praised by the teacher for his honesty.
Answer: b This is because the sentence given in the
[Explanation: question is in the active voice, where the
 The best substitute for the words/sentence is subject (the teacher) performs the action
vengeful. Vengeful means seeking to harm (praised) on the object (him). To convert it to
someone in return for a perceived injury. the passive voice, we need to make the object
Vindictive means having or showing a strong or (him) the subject of the sentence, and use the
unreasoning desire for revenge, but it also past participle form of the verb (praised) with a
implies a tendency to bear a grudge or a desire suitable form of the verb to be (was). The
to punish someone. Malicious means intending original subject (the teacher) becomes the
or intended to do harm , but it does not agent of the action and is introduced by the
necessarily imply a motive of revenge. Spiteful preposition by. The phrase for his honesty
means showing or caused by malice , but it also remains unchanged as it modifies the subject.
suggests pettiness or meanness. Therefore, Therefore, the passive voice of the sentence is
vengeful is the most suitable word to describe He was praised by the teacher for his honesty
having or showing a strong or unreasoning
desire for revenge. 148. In the following question, a sentence has been
given in Direct/Indirect speech. Out of the four
146. In the following question, four words are given alternatives suggested, select the one which
out of which one word is correctly spelt. Select best expresses the same sentence in
the correctly spelt word. Indirect/Direct speech.
a) Acommodate

She said to her friend, “I am going to the b) PQR
library.” c) QRSP
a) She told her friend that she was going to d) PSRQ
the library. Answer: d
b) She told her friend that she is going to Explanation:
the library. The correct combination of parts to form a coherent
c) She told her friend that I am going to the passage is option d) PSRQ
library. 1. The company is planning to launch a new
d) She told her friend that she had gone to product next month.
the library. P. Marketing teams are working on
Answer: a strategies to promote it effectively.
Explanation: S. The competitors are closely watching the
She told her friend that she was going to the library. company’s moves in the market.
 This is because we have to change the tense of R. A significant budget has been allocated
the verb from present continuous to past for the product launch campaign.
continuous, if the reporting verb is in past Q. Customers’ feedback has been taken into
tense. In this case, the reporting verb is “said”, consideration during the product
which is in past tense, so we have to change development phase.
“am” to “was”. We also have to keep the 6. It is crucial for the company to stay
pronoun as “she”, because it is the same ahead of its rivals in this competitive
person who is speaking and being reported industry.]
150. Given below are four jumbled sentences.
149. In the following questions, the 1st and the last Select the option that gives their correct order.
sentences of the passage are numbered 1. and A. The researchers found that the
6. The rest of the passage split into four parts participants who ate more than 50 grams
and named P, Q, R and S. These four parts are of chili per day had a 26% relative
not giver in their proper order. Read the reduction in cardiovascular mortality
sentence and find out which of the four compared to those who ate less than 6
combinations is correct. Then find the correct grams per day.
answer B. Chili peppers are a common ingredient in
1. The company is planning to launch a new many cuisines, and they may also have
product next month. health benefits, according to a new
P. Marketing teams are working on study.
strategies to promote it effectively. C. “An interesting fact is that protection
Q. Customers' feedback has been taken into from mortality risk was independent of
consideration during the product the type of diet people followed,” said
development phase. study co-author Licia Iacoviello, head of
R. A significant budget has been allocated the Laboratory of Molecular and
for the product launch campaign. Nutritional Epidemiology at Neuromed.
S. The competitors are closely watching the D. The study, published in the Journal of the
company's moves in the market. American College of Cardiology, analyzed
6. It is crucial for the company to stay data from more than 22,000 people in
ahead of its rivals in this competitive Italy over an average of eight years.
industry. a) BDAC
a) QSRP b) BADC

c) DABC who ate less than 6 grams per day. “An
d) DBAC interesting fact is that protection from
Answer: A mortality risk was independent of the type of
[Explanation: diet people followed,” said study co-author
The correct order of the sentences is BADC. Licia Iacoviello, head of the Laboratory of
 Chili peppers are a common ingredient in many Molecular and Nutritional Epidemiology at
cuisines, and they may also have health Neuromed]
benefits, according to a new study. The study,
published in the Journal of the American
College of Cardiology, analyzed data from more
than 22,000 people in Italy over an average of
eight years. The researchers found that the
participants who ate more than 50 grams of
chili per day had a 26% relative reduction in
cardiovascular mortality compared to those

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TSPSC : Group-2

RRT – 9 (Answers) (24-09-2023)

Call: 93929 57733 KPSIR UPSC Universe - ( 1 )

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130. In a code language AGENDA is coded as

132. Two statements are given a statement

Call: 93929 57733 KPSIR UPSC Universe - ( 43 )

135. In the following question, some part of the

Call: 93929 57733 KPSIR UPSC Universe - ( 44 )

Call: 93929 57733 KPSIR UPSC Universe - ( 45 )

Call: 93929 57733 KPSIR UPSC Universe - ( 46 )

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