Jee M A
Jee M A
Jee M A
Page
Total
S.No. Particulars Number
Pages
From To
1 How to prepare for the Resonance National Entrance Test (ResoNET) 2 2 1
4 ResoNET Syllabus 5 16 12
Student).
Sample Test Paper (STP)-2: For Class XIth appearing / passed
6 students (For the students applying for course Class XI to XII moving 27 37 11
student).
Sample Test Paper (STP)-3: For Class XIIth appearing / passed
7 students (For the students applying for course Class XII Appeared / 38 48 11
Passed).
8 Sample Test Paper-1: Answer Key (AK) 49 49 1
The sample test papers are only for reference and guidance. The sample papers given in the booklet are actually the papers
of previous year's ResoNET conducted by Resonance for its various courses.
Note : Resonance reserves the right to change the pattern of Resonance National Entrance Test (ResoNET). Pervious year
papers do not guarantee that the papers for this year selection test will be on the same pattern. However, the syllabus of
the test paper will be equivalent to the syllabus of qualifying school/board examination and as given on page nos. 5 to 19.
© Copyright reserved.
All rights reserved. Any photocopying, publishing or reproduction of full or any part of this study material is strictly prohibited.
This material belongs to enrolled student of RESONANCE only. Any sale/resale of this material is punishable under law, subject to
Kota Jurisdiction only.
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SAMPLE TEST PAPER (STP)
ResoNET
Resonance National Entrance Test
How to prepare for ResoNET
Class-X to Class-XI Study thoroughly the books of Science (Physics & Chemistry) and Maths of
XI
Moving Classes IX & X. (NCERT & Respective Board)
Study thoroughly the books of Physics, Chemistry and Maths of Class XI
(Respective Board).
Refer to the following books (only Class-XI syllabus) to increase the level of
competence:
• For Physics :
Concepts of Physics by H.C. Verma Vol. I & II, NCERT Books
• For Chemistry :
Class-XI to Class-XII NCERT Books(XI & XII), A text book of Physical Chemistry (8th Edition), Shishir
XII
Moving Mittal, Disha Publications, Concise Inorganic Chemistry, J.D. Lee, Wiley-India
Edition, Vogel’s Qualitative Analysis for the JEE (7th Edition), G. Svehla &
Shishir Mittal, Pearson Education, Organic Chemistry: Clayden, Greeves,
Warren and Wothers, Oxford University, A guide book to Mechanism In
Organic Chemistry (6th Edition), Peter Sykes, Pearson Education
• For Maths :
Higher Algebra By Hall & Knight; Co-ordinate Geometry By S.L. Loney ; Plane
Trigonometry By S.L. Loney, Problem book in high school by A.I.Prilepko
Study thoroughly the books of Physics, Chemistry and Maths of Classes XI &
XII (Respective Board).
Refer to the following books (Class-XI & Class-XII syllabus) to increase the
level of competence:
• For Physics:
Concepts of Physics by H.C. Verma Vol-I & II
• For Chemistry:
Class-XII to Class- Physical Chemistry By R.K. Gupta, Organic Chemistry By Morrison& Boyd,
XII / XIII
XIII Moving Organic Chemistry By I. L. Finar, Inorganic Chemistry By J.D. Lee, Objective
Chemistry By Dr. P. Bahadur
• For Maths:
Higher Algebra By Hall & Knight; Co-ordinate Geometry By S.L. Loney;
PlaneTrigonometry By S.L. Loney, Differential Calculus By G.N. Berman;
IntegralCalculus By Shanti Narayan; Vector Algebra By Shanti Narayan ; A Das
Gupta
(subjective).
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SAMPLE TEST PAPER (STP)
4. You must bring your own power supply for use during the examination.
5. If failure to comply with these recommendations results in technical problems that cause a delay in your
examination, you cannot expect to be granted extended time.
6. Kindly remember your Resonance Application Form No. as a Roll No.
7. You are not permitted to leave the Venue/any movement from Laptop/Desktop/Mobile screen during
examination.
8. The students just need to click on the Right Choice / Correct option from the multiple choices /options given
with each question. For Multiple Choice Questions, each question has four options, and the candidate has to click
the appropriate option.
Marking Scheme
No. of
S.No. Part Subject Type of Questions
Questions Full Marks Negative
Total
per Qs. Marks Qs.
Single Choice Questions (Only One
1 to 30 I Maths 30 4 0 120
Correct Option) (dsoy ,d fodYi lgh)
Single Choice Questions (Only One
31 to 45 II Physics 15 4 0 60
Correct Option) (dsoy ,d fodYi lgh)
Single Choice Questions (Only One
46 to 60 III Chemistry 15 4 0 60
Correct Option) (dsoy ,d fodYi lgh)
Single Choice Questions (Only One
61 to 75 IV Mental Ability 15 4 0 60
Correct Option) (dsoy ,d fodYi lgh)
Total 75 300
Marking Scheme
No. of
S.No. Part Subject Type of Questions
Questions Full Marks Negative
Total
per Qs. Marks Qs.
Single Choice Questions (Only One
1 to 30 I Maths 30 4 0 120
Correct Option) (dsoy ,d fodYi lgh)
Single Choice Questions (Only One
31 to 45 II Physics 15 4 0 60
Correct Option) (dsoy ,d fodYi lgh)
Single Choice Questions (Only One
46 to 60 III Chemistry 15 4 0 60
Correct Option) (dsoy ,d fodYi lgh)
Single Choice Questions (Only One
61 to 75 IV Mental Ability 15 4 0 60
Correct Option) (dsoy ,d fodYi lgh)
Total 75 300
Marking Scheme
No. of
S.No. Part Subject Type of Questions
Questions Full Marks Negative
Total
per Qs. Marks Qs.
Single Choice Questions (Only One
1 to 25 I Maths 25 4 0 100
Correct Option) (dsoy ,d fodYi lgh)
Single Choice Questions (Only One
26 to 50 II Physics 25 4 0 100
Correct Option) (dsoy ,d fodYi lgh)
Single Choice Questions (Only One
51 to 75 III Chemistry 25 4 0 100
Correct Option) (dsoy ,d fodYi lgh)
Total 75 300
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SAMPLE TEST PAPER (STP)
RESONET SYLLABUS
Motion, Force and Newton’s Laws, Gravitation, Fluid, Work, Energy and
PHYSICS IX
Power, Wave Motion And Sound.
Matter in our Surroundings, Is Matter Around us Pure, Atoms and
CHEMISTRY IX
Molecules, Structure of Atom.
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SAMPLE TEST PAPER (STP)
RESONET SYLLABUS
FOR CLASS XII APPEARED/PASSED
SUBJECT: CHEMISTRY
Syllabus
From Topic Sub-topic
Class
Cooling by evaporation. Absorption of heat. All things accupy space,
X Basic
possess mass. Definition of matter; Elementary idea about bonding.
Characteristics-shape, volume, density; change of state - melting,
X Solid, liquid and gas
freezing, evaporation, condensation, sublimation.
Elements, compounds
X Heterogeneous and homogeneous mixtures; Colloids and suspension.
and mixtures
Equivalence - that x grams of A is chemically not equal to x grams of B;
Partical nature, basic units: atoms and molecules; Law of constant
X Mole concept proportions; Atomic and molecular masses; Relationship of mole to
mass of the particles and numbers; Valency; Chemical formulae of
common compounds.
Atoms are made up of smaller particles: electrons, protons, and
X Atomic structure neutrons. These smaller particles are present in all the atoms but their
numbers vary in different atoms. Isotopes and isobars.
Gradations in
X Mendeleev periodic table
properties
X Acids, bases and salts General properties, examples and uses.
Combination, decomposition, displacement, double displacement,
Types of chemical
X precipitation, neutralisation, oxidation and reduction in terms of gain
reactions
and loss of oxygen and hydrogen.
Properties of common metals ; Brief discussion of basic metallurgical
X Extractive metallurgy
processes
Carbon compounds; Elementary idea about bonding; Saturated
X Compounds of Carbon hydrocarbons, alcohols, carboxylic acids (no preparation, only
properties). Soap - cleansing action of soap.
Particulate nature of matter, laws of chemical combination, Dalton’s
atomic theory: concept of elements, atoms and molecules. Atomic and
Some Basic Concepts
XI molecular masses. Mole concept and molar mass; percentage
of Chemistry
composition and empirical and molecular formula; chemical reactions,
stoichiometry and calculations based on stoichiometry.
Discovery of electron, proton and neutron; atomic number, isotopes
and isobars. Thompson’s model and its limitations, Rutherford’s model
and its limitations, concept of shells and sub-shells, dual nature of
matter and light, de Broglie’s relationship, Heisenberg uncertainty
principle, concept of orbitals, quantum numbers, shapes of s, p, and d
XI Structure of Atom
orbitals, rules for filling electrons in orbitals - Aufbau principle, Pauli
exclusion principle and Hund’s rule, electronic configuration of atoms,
stability of half filled and completely filleld orbitals.
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SAMPLE TEST PAPER (STP)
Syllabus
From Topic Sub-topic
Class
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SAMPLE TEST PAPER (STP)
Syllabus
From Topic Sub-topic
Class
s-Block Elements
(Alkali and General introduction, electronic configuration, occurrence, anomalous
Alkaline Earth properties of the first element of each group, diagonal relationship, trends in
XI Metals) : the variation of properties (such as ionization enthalpy, atomic and ionic
Group 1 and radii), trends in chemical reactivity with oxygen, water, hydrogen and
Group 2 halogens; uses.
elements :
Preparation and
properties of Sodium carbonate, sodium chloride, sodium hydroxide and sodium hydrogen
XI
some important carbonate CaO, CaCO3, and industrial use of lime and limestone, Ca.
compounds
Group 13 elements: General introduction, electronic configuration,
occurrence, variation of properties, oxidation states, trends in chemical
reactivity, anomalous properties of first element of the group;
Boron - physical and chemical properties, some important compounds; borax,
General boric acids, boron hydrides. Aluminium: uses, reactions with acids and
XI Introduction to alkalies. Group 14 elements: General introduction, electronic configuration,
p-Block Elements occurrence, variation of properties, oxidation states, trends in chemical
reactivity, anomalous behaviour of first element. Carbon- catenation,
allotropic forms, physical and chemical propeties; uses of some important
compounds: oxides. Important compounds of silicon and a few uses: silicon
tetrachloride, silicones, silicates and zeolites.
Principles of Determinantion of one anion and one cation in a given salt
XI qualitative Cations - Pb2 + , Cu2+, As3+, Al3+, Fe3+, Mn2+, Ni2+, Zn2+, Co2+, Ca2+, Sr2+, Ba2+, Mg2+,
analysis Anions - (Note : Insoluble salts excluded)
Organic General introduction, methods of purification, qualitative and quantitative
chemistry - Some analysis, classification and IUPAC nomenclature of organic compounds.
XI
Basic Principles Electronic displacements in a covalent bond : free radicals, carbocations,
and Techniques carbanions; electrophiles and nucleophiles, types of organic reactions
Alkanes : Nomenclature, isomerism, conformations (ethane only), physical
Classification of
XI propeties, chemical reactions including free radical mechanism of
Hydrocarbons
halogenation, combustion and pyrolysis
Nomenclature, structure of triple bond (ethyne), physical properties,
XI Alkenes methods of preparation, chemical reactions: acidic character of alkynes,
addition reaction of - hydrogen, halogens, hydrogen halides and water
Introduction, IUPAC nomenclature; Benzene: resonance, aromaticity;
chemical properties: mechanism of electrophilic substitution - nitration
Aromatic sulphonation, halogenation, Friedel Craft’s alkylation and acylation; directive
XI
hydrocarbons influence of functional group in mono-substituted benzene; carcinogenicity
and toxicity.
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SAMPLE TEST PAPER (STP)
Syllabus
From Topic Sub-topic
Class
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SAMPLE TEST PAPER (STP)
Syllabus
From Topic Sub-topic
Class
Elementary concepts of adsorption (excluding adsorption isotherms);
Surface
XII Colloids: types, methods of preparation and general properties; Elementary
chemistry
ideas of emulsions, surfactants and micelles (only definitions and examples).
Radioactivity: isotopes and isobars; Properties of rays; Kinetics of radioactive
Nuclear
XII decay (decay series excluded), carbon dating; Stability of nuclei with respect
chemistry
to proton-neutron ratio; Brief discussion on fission and fusion reactions.
Inorganic
Chemistry:
Isolation/prepar Boron, silicon, nitrogen, phosphorus, oxygen, sulphur and halogens;
XII ation and Properties of allotropes of carbon (only diamond and graphite), phosphorus
properties of the and sulphur.
following non-
metals
Oxides, peroxides, hydroxides, carbonates, bicarbonates, chlorides and
sulphates of sodium, potassium, magnesium and calcium; Boron: diborane,
boric acid and borax; Aluminium: alumina, aluminium chloride and alums;
Preparation and Carbon: oxides and oxyacid (carbonic acid); Silicon: silicones, silicates and
properties of the
XII silicon carbide; Nitrogen: oxides, oxyacids and ammonia; Phosphorus: oxides,
following
oxyacids (phosphorus acid, phosphoric acid) and phosphine; Oxygen: ozone
compounds
and hydrogen peroxide; Sulphur: hydrogen sulphide, oxides, sulphurous acid,
sulphuric acid and sodium thiosulphate; Halogens: hydrohalic acids, oxides
and oxyacids of chlorine, bleaching powder; Xenon fluorides.
Definition, general characteristics, oxidation states and their stabilities, colour
(excluding the details of electronic transitions) and calculation of spin (only
Transition magnetic moment), Coordination compounds: nomenclature of mononuclear
XII elements (3d
coordination compounds, cis-trans and ionisation isomerisms, hybridization
series)
and geometries of mononuclear coordination compounds (linear, tetrahedral,
square planar and octahedral).
Preparation and Oxides and chlorides of tin and lead; Oxides, chlorides and sulphates of Fe2+,
properties of the
XII Cu2+ and Zn2+; Potassium permanganate, potassium dichromate, silver oxide,
following
silver nitrate, silver thiosulphate.
compounds
Ores and Commonly occurring ores and minerals of iron, copper, tin, lead, magnesium,
XII
minerals aluminium, zinc and silver.
Chemical principles and reactions only (industrial details excluded); Carbon
Extractive reduction method (iron and tin); Self reduction method (copper and lead);
XII
metallurgy Electrolytic reduction method (magnesium and aluminium); Cyanide process
(silver and gold).
Principles of Groups I to V (only Ag+, Hg2+, Cu2+, Pb2+, Bi3+, Fe3+, Cr3+, Al3+, Ca2+, Ba2+, Zn2+,
XII qualitative Mn2+ and Mg2+); Nitrate, halides (excluding fluoride), sulphate and sulphide.
analysis
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SAMPLE TEST PAPER (STP)
Syllabus
From Topic Sub-topic
Class
Hybridisation of carbon; Sigma and pi-bonds; Shapes of simple organic
molecules; Structural and geometrical isomerism; Optical isomerism of
compounds containing up to two asymmetric centres, (R, S and E, Z
nomenclature excluded); IUPAC nomenclature of simple organic compounds
(only hydrocarbons, mono-functional and bi-functional compounds);
Conformations of ethane and butane (Newman projections); Resonance and
Organic hyperconjugation; Keto-enol tautomerism; Determination of empirical and
XII Chemistry:
molecular formulae of simple compounds (only combustion method);
Concepts
Hydrogen bonds: definition and their effects on physical properties of alcohols
and carboxylic acids; Inductive and resonance effects on acidity and basicity
of organic acids and bases; Polarity and inductive effects in alkyl halides;
Reactive intermediates produced during homolytic and heterolytic bond
cleavage; Formation, structure and stability of carbocations, carbanions and
free radicals.
Preparation, Homologous series, physical properties of alkanes (melting points, boiling
properties and points and density); Combustion and halogenation of alkanes; Preparation of
XII
reactions of
alkanes alkanes by Wurtz reaction and decarboxylation reactions.
Physical properties of alkenes and alkynes (boiling points, density and dipole
moments); Acidity of alkynes; Acid catalysed hydration of alkenes and alkynes
Preparation,
(excluding the stereochemistry of addition and elimination); Reactions of
properties and
XII reactions of alkenes with KMnO4 and ozone; Reduction of alkenes and alkynes;
alkenes and Preparation of alkenes and alkynes by elimination reactions; Electrophilic
alkynes
addition reactions of alkenes with X2, HX, HOX and H2O (X=halogen); addition
reactions of alkynes; Metal acetylides.
Structure and aromaticity; Electrophilic substitution reactions: halogenation,
Reactions of nitration, sulphonation, Friedel-Crafts alkylation and acylation; Effect of
XII
Benzene
ortho, meta and para directing groups in monosubstituted benzenes.
Acidity, electrophilic substitution reactions (halogenation, nitration and
XII Phenols
sulphonation); Reimer-Tieman reaction, Kolbe reaction.
Alkyl halides: rearrangement reactions of alkyl carbocation, Grignard
Characteristic reactions, nucleophilic substitution reactions;
reactions of the
following
XII
(including those
mentioned
above):
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SAMPLE TEST PAPER (STP)
Syllabus
From Topic Sub-topic
Class
Amino acids and General structure (only primary structure for peptides) and physical
XII
peptides properties.
Properties and
uses of some
XII Natural rubber, cellulose, nylon, teflon and PVC.
important
polymers
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SAMPLE TEST PAPER (STP)
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SAMPLE TEST PAPER (STP)
Syllabus
From Topic Sub-topic
Class
Thermal expansion of solids, liquids and gases; Calorimetry, latent heat; Heat
conduction in one dimension; Elementary concepts of convection and radiation;
Newton’s law of cooling; Ideal gas laws; Specific heats (Cv and Cp for
Thermal
XI monoatomic and diatomic gases); Isothermal and adiabatic processes, bulk
physics
modulus of gases; Equivalence of heat and work; First law of thermodynamics
and its applications (only for ideal gases); Blackbody radiation: absorptive and
emissive powers; Kirchhoff’s law; Wien’s displacement law, Stefan’s law.
Units and dimensions, dimensional analysis; least count, significant figures;
Methods of measurement and error analysis for physical quantities pertaining
to the following experiments: Experiments based on using Vernier calipers and
screw gauge (micrometer), Determination of g using simple pendulum, Young’s
XII General modulus by Searle’s method, Specific heat of a liquid using calorimeter, focal
length of a concave mirror and a convex lens using u-v method, Speed of sound
using resonance column, Verification of Ohm’s law using voltmeter and
ammeter, and specific resistance of the material of a wire using meter bridge
and post office box.
Kinematics in one and two dimensions (Cartesian coordinates only), Projectile
Motion; Uniform Circular Motion; Relative Velocity. Newton’s laws of motion;
Inertial and uniformly accelerated frames of reference; Static and dynamic
friction; Kinetic and potential energy; Work and power; Conservation of linear
momentum and mechanical energy. Systems of particles; Centre of mass and
its motion; Impulse; Elastic and inelastic collisions. Law of gravitation;
Gravitational potential and field; Acceleration due to gravity; Motion of planets
and satellites in circular orbits; Escape velocity. Rigid body, moment of inertia,
XII Mechanics parallel and perpendicular axes theorems, moment of inertia of uniform bodies
with simple geometrical shapes; Angular momentum; Torque; Conservation of
angular momentum; Dynamics of rigid bodies with fixed axis of rotation; Rolling
without slipping of rings, cylinders and spheres; Equilibrium of rigid bodies;
Collision of point masses with rigid bodies. Linear and angular simple harmonic
motions. Hooke’s law, Young’s modulus. Pressure in a fluid; Pascal’s law;
Buoyancy; Surface energy and surface tension, capillary rise; Viscosity
(Poiseuille’s equation excluded), Stoke’s law; Terminal velocity, Streamline flow,
equation of continuity, Bernoulli’s theorem and its applications.
Wave motion (plane waves only), longitudinal and transverse waves,
superposition of waves; Progressive and stationary waves; Vibration of strings
XII Waves
and air columns;Resonance; Beats; Speed of sound in gases; Doppler effect (in
sound).
Thermal expansion of solids, liquids and gases; Calorimetry, latent heat; Heat
conduction in one dimension; Elementary concepts of convection and radiation;
Newton’s law of cooling; Ideal gas laws; Specific heats (Cv and Cp for
monoatomic and diatomic gases); Isothermal and adiabatic processes, bulk
Thermal
XII modulus of gases; Equivalence of heat and work; First law of thermodynamics
physics
and its applications (only for ideal gases); Blackbody radiation: absorptive and
emissive powers; Kirchhoff’s law; Wien’s displacement law, Stefan’s law.
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SAMPLE TEST PAPER (STP)
Syllabus
From Topic Sub-topic
Class
Coulomb’s law; Electric field and potential; Electrical potential energy of a
system of point charges and of electrical dipoles in a uniform electrostatic field;
Electric field lines; Flux of electric field; Gauss’s law and its application in simple
cases, such as, to find field due to infinitely long straight wire, uniformly charged
infinite plane sheet and uniformly charged thin spherical shell. Capacitance;
Parallel plate capacitor with and without dielectrics; Capacitors in series and
parallel; Energy stored in a capacitor. Electric current; Ohm’s law; Series and
Electricity and parallel arrangements of resistances and cells; Kirchhoff’s laws and simple
XII
magnetism applications; Heating effect of current. Biot–Savart’s law and Ampere’s law;
Magnetic field near a current-carrying straight wire, along the axis of a circular
coil and inside a long straight solenoid; Force on a moving charge and on a
current-carrying wire in a uniform magnetic field. Magnetic moment of a
current loop; Effect of a uniform magnetic field on a current loop; Moving coil
galvano- meter, voltmeter, ammeter and their conversions. Electromagnetic
induction: Faraday’s law, Lenz’s law; Self and mutual inductance; RC, LR and LC
circuits with d.c. and a.c. sources.
Rectilinear propagation of light; Reflection and refraction at plane and spherical
surfaces; Total internal reflection; Deviation and dispersion of light by a prism;
XII Optics Thin lenses; Combinations of mirrors and thin lenses; Magnification. Wave
nature of light: Huygen’s principle, interference limited to Young’s double-slit
experiment
Atomic nucleus; Alpha, beta and gamma radiations; Law of radioactive decay;
Decay constant; Half-life and mean life; Binding energy and its calculation;
Modern
XII Fission and fusion processes; Energy calculation in these processes.
physics
Photoelectric effect; Bohr’s theory of hydrogen-like atoms; Characteristic and
continuous X-rays, Moseley’s law; de Broglie wavelength of matter waves.
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SAMPLE TEST PAPER (STP)
Nutrition in plants & Animals, Respiration in plants & Animals, Excretion in plants & Animals,
Transportation in plants & Animals, Genetics (Heredity & Variation), Evolution, Ecology (our
X Biology environment), Natural resources, Reproduction in plants & Animals.
Living world, Animal kingdom, Structural Organisation in Animals, Biomolecules, Digestion &
XI Zoology Absorption, Breathing & Exchange of gases
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SAMPLE TEST PAPER (STP)
Marking Scheme
Par No. of
S.No. Subject Type of Question Full Marks Negative
t Questions Total
per Qs. Marking
Single Choice Questions (Only One
1 to 30 I Maths 30 4 0 120
Correct Option) (dsoy ,d fodYi lgh)
Single Choice Questions (Only One
31 to 45 II Physics 15 4 0 60
Correct Option) (dsoy ,d fodYi lgh)
Single Choice Questions (Only One
46 to 60 III Chemistry 15 4 0 60
Correct Option) (dsoy ,d fodYi lgh)
Mental Single Choice Questions (Only One
61 to 75 IV 15 4 0 60
Ability Correct Option) (dsoy ,d fodYi lgh)
Total 75 300
+ y2 dk eku gksxkA E
) P 27 3 9
14
15
(A) (B) 3 –1
9 3
)
13 10
(A) (B) 1
49 49 (A) m = (p – q)
2
3 1
(C) (D) 1
49 49 (B) m = (p + q)
2
x 1
16. If x = 2 + (C) d = (q + p)
3 and xy = 1 then + 2
2 x
1
y (D) d = m
= ............ 2
2– y 21. In an isosceles triangle the equal sides are
x 7 units each and the length of the base is an
;fn x = 2 + 3 vkSj xy = 1 rc + integer. From these a triangle with the
2 x
greatest perimeter is selected. Its perimeter
y is
= ............
2– y ,d lef}ckgq f=kHkqt esa leku Hkqtkvksa dh yEckbZ;k¡
(A) 2 (B) 3 7 bdkbZ vkSj vk/kkj dh yEckbZ ,d iw.kkZad la[;k
(C) 1 (D) None of these gSA bu lc esa vf/kdre ifjeki dk f=kHkqt pquk
buesa ls dksbZ ugha tkrk gSA bldk ifjeki gksxkA
(A) 23 (B) 25
17. The degree of the algebraic expression (C) 27 (D) 29
14y5 – 3y2 + 15x2y4 is :
22. Two parallel sides of a trapezium are 60 cm
fn, x;s chtxf.krh; dFku 14y5 – 3y2 + 15x2y4 and 77 cm and other sides are 25 cm and
dh dksfV D;k gksxh & 26 cm. Find the area of the trapezium.
(A) 3 (B) 8 (C) 5 (D) 6
leyEc prqHkZqt dh lekarj Hkqtkvksa dh yEckbZ;k¡
60 lseh vkSj 77 lseh gS rFkk ckdh nks Hkqtkvksa dh
18. The point (4, –6) belongs to yEckbZ;k¡ 25 lseh vkSj 26 lseh gsA leyEc prqHkqZt
(A) first quadrant (B) second quadrant dk {ks=kQy gksxkA
(C) third quadrant (D) fourth quadrant (A) 1644 cm2 (B) 1624 cm2
fcUnq (4, –6) fuEu esa ls lEcfU/kr gS & (C) 1636 cm 2 (D) 1625 cm 2
(A) izFke prqFkk±'k (B) f}rh; prqFkk±'k 23. If the point (-1,-5) lies on the graphs of
(C) r`rh; prqFkk±'k (D) prqFkZ prqFkk±'k 3x = ay+7 and y=bx+7, then the value of a+b
is
1 ;fn fcUnq (– 1 , – 5) , 3x = ay + 7 vkSj y=bx+7
19. If x 2 3 then x
2
=
x2 ds oØ ij mifLFkr gks rFkk a + b dk eku gksxkA
1 (A) 10 (B) 11
;fn x 2 3 gks rks x 2 = (C) 12 (D) 14
x2
(A) 14 2 (B) 12 2
(C) 12 (D) 14
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01 SAMPLE TEST PAPER (STP) | CLASS: X TO XI MOVING
24. ABCD is a parallelogram and AP and CQ are 29. In a class of 100 students there are 70 boys
the perpendiculars from A and C on its whose average marks in a subject are 75. If
diagonal BD, respectively. Then AP is equal the average marks of the complete class are
to : 72, then what are the average marks of the
girls :
ABCD ,d lekarj prqHkqZt gS] vkSj AP rFkk CQ,
100 fo|kfFkZ;ksa dh d{kk esa 70 yM+dks ds uEcjks dk
fod.kZ BD ij Øe'k% A vkSj C ls yEc gS] rc AP vkSlr 75 gS] vkSj iwjh d{kk ds uEcjks dk vkSlr
cjkcj gksxkA 72 gS] rc yM+fd;ksa ds uEcjks dk vkSlr D;k gksxk&
(A) DP (B) CQ (A) 73 (B) 65
(C) PQ (D) AB (C) 68 (D) 74
25. In quadrilateral ABCD, diagonals AC and BD 30. The probability for a leap year to have
intersect at point E. Then 52 Mondays and 53 Sundays is :
prqHkqZt ABDC esa] fod.kZ AC vkSj BD, fcUnq E ij ,d yhi o"kZ esa 52 lkseokj vkSj 53 jfookj gksus dh
izkf;drk gksxh &
izfrPNsn djrs gS] rc (A) 1/52 (B) 1/26
(A) ar (AED) + ar (BCE) = ar (ABE) + ar (C) 1/7 (D) 2/7
(CDE)
(B) ar (AED) – ar (BCE) = ar (ABE) – ar (CDE) PART-II (Hkkx -II):
(C) ar (AED) ÷ ar (BCE) = ar (ABE) ÷ ar PHYSICS (HkkSfrd foKku)
(CDE)
(D) ar (AED) × ar (BCE) = ar (ABE) × ar
SECTION: (Maximum Marks : 60)
(CDE) [kaM : (vf/kdre vad : 60)
This section contains FIFTEEN (15) questions.
26. In the given figure, the value of x is Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C)
fn;s x;s fp=k esa x dk eku gksxk & and (D). ONLY ONE of these four option is
correct
Marking scheme :
Full Marks : +4 If only the bubble
corresponding to the correct option is
darkened
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the bubble is
darkened
bl [kaM esa iUnzg (15) iz'u gSaA
(A) 108º (B) 72º izR;sd iz'u esa pkj fodYi (A), (B), (C) rFkk (D) gSaA
(C) 60º (D) 36º
bu pkj fodYiksa esa ls dsoy ,d fodYi lgh gSaA
27. If x = 3 + 3 , then what is the value is of vadu ;kstuk :
9
x2 + 2 ? iw.kZ vad % +4 ;fn flQZ lgh fodYi gh pquk x;k
x
9 gSA
;fn x = 3 + 3 gks rc x2 + 2 dk eku gksxkA
x 'kwU; vad % 0 ;fn dksbZ Hkh fodYi ugha pquk x;k
(A) (15 +3 3 ) (B) (18 + 3 3 ) gS ¼vFkkZr~ iz'u vuqÙkfjr gS½A
(C) (27 + 3 ) (D) None of these
buesa ls dksbZ ugha 31. A body starting from rest and has uniform
28. If the curved surface area of a cylinder acceleration 8 m/sec2. The distance travelled
by it in 5th second will be
4224 cm2 and its height is 21 cm, then its
,d oLrq fojkekoLFkk ls pyuk izkjEHk djrh gS
diameter is____.
fdlh csyu ds oØkdkj Hkkx dk {ks=kQy 4224 cm2 ftldk Roj.k 8 m/sec2 gSA oLrq }kjk 5osa lsd.M
gS] vkSj bldh ÅpkbZ 21 cm gS] rc csyu dk O;kl esa r; dh xbZ nwjh gksxh&
gksxk & (A) 36 m (B) 40 m
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01 SAMPLE TEST PAPER (STP) | CLASS: X TO XI MOVING
57. Valency of an element is the number of PART-IV (Hkkx-IV) :
electron
MENTAL ABILITY (ekufld ;ksX;rk)
(A) in the inner shell.
(B) participating in a chemical reaction. SECTION: (Maximum Marks : 60)
(C) which are ionisable.
[kaM : (vf/kdre vad : 60)
(D) that are in the nucleus.
This section contains FIFTEEN (15) questions.
rRoksa dh la;kstdrk] bySDVªku dh la[;k gS Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C)
(A) tks vkarfjd d{kk esa gSa and (D). ONLY ONE of these four option is
(B) tks jklk;fud vfHkfØ;k esa Hkkx ysrs gSa correct
Marking scheme :
(C) tks fd vk;uhdkjd gSa Full Marks : +4 If only the bubble
(D) tks ukfHkd esa gksrs gSa corresponding to the correct option is
darkened
58. The state of matter which consists of super Zero Marks : 0 If none of the bubble is
energetic and super excited particles in the darkened
form of ionized gases is bl [kaM esa iUnzg (15) iz'u gSaA
(A) Solid. izR;sd iz'u esa pkj fodYi (A), (B), (C) rFkk (D) gSaA
(B) Liquid.
bu pkj fodYiksa esa ls dsoy ,d fodYi lgh gSaA
(C) Plasma.
(D) Bose Einstein Condensate.
vadu ;kstuk :
vkosf'kr xSl ds :i esa vR;f/kd ÅtkZoku vkSj vR;f/kd iw.kZ vad % +4 ;fn flQZ lgh fodYi gh pquk
x;k gSA
mÙksftr d.kksa dks j[kus okyh nzO; dh voLFkk gS
'kwU; vad % 0 ;fn dksbZ Hkh fodYi ugha pquk x;k
(A) Bksl
gS ¼vFkkZr~ iz'u vuqÙkfjr gS½A
(B) nzo
(C) IykTek Direction (61 to 63) : Find the missing term ?
(D) cksl vkUblVkbZu dUMsulsV funsZ'k (61 ls 63) % fuEu Js.kh esa yqIr in D;k gksxk \
61. 4, 6, 9, 14, 21, ?
59. The condition required for separating the
(A) 30 (B) 29
components of a mixture of two or more
miscible liquids by fractional distillation is (C) 31 (D) 33
(A) their boiling points should be same. 62. IRC, QZK, YHS, GPA, ?
(B) their boiling points should be less than (A) JYR (B) OXI
373 K. (C) XPJ (D) JVH
(C) their boiling points should differ by a
certain value. 63.
(D) the boiling point of one of the component 7 5 6
should be 373 K. 4 6 5
feJ.k ds vO;oksa ds i`Fkddj.k esa fy, t:jh ifjfLFkfr gS 2 12 ?
(A) muds Xyukad fcUnq leku gksus pkfg,A
(A) 6 (B) 8
(B) muds DoFkukad fcUnq 298 K ls de gksus pkfg,A (C) 7 (D) 10
(C) muds DoFkukad fcUnq dk eku de ls de 25°C
64. If RPGYLEJC is coded as QQFZKFID, then
ls fHkUu gksuk pkfg,A QOSYPC would be
(D) fdlh ,d ?kVd dk DoFkukad fcUnq 298 K gksuk ;fn RPGYLEJC dks QQFZKFID ls dksM+ fd;k
pkfg,A tk;s rks QOSYPC dks fdlls dksM+ fd;k tk;sxk&
60. The molecular mass of HNO 3 is (A) PPIASF (B) PPVZSF
HNO3 dk vkf.kod nzO;eku gS (C) PRTBQF (D) PPRZOD
(A) 65. (B) 63 u.
(C) 43. (D) 21
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01 SAMPLE TEST PAPER (STP) | CLASS: X TO XI MOVING
Directions : (65) Read the following information Directions (67) : A person went to market and
and answer the questions given below it. purchased four pencils , four erasers and one
Five players are standing in a cricle facing the sharpner. He had to divide these things into
his sons X , Y , Z. Every son got atleast one
centre. A is between B and C. D is to the right pencil and atleast one eraser. X did not get
of B. sharpner.
funsZ'k : (65) fuEufyf[kr lwpuk ds vk/kkj ij iwNs x;s funsZ'k : (67) ,d O;fDr cktkj x;k vkSj pkj iSafUly]
iz'uksa ds mÙkj nhft;sA pkj jcj vkSj ,d dVj [kjhnsaA mls bu phtksa dks
ik¡p f[kykM+h fdlh xksys esa dsUnz dh vkSj eq¡g djds rhu csVksa X , Y , Z esa ck¡Vuk FkkA izR;sd csVs dks
de ls de ,d iSafUly vkSj de ls de ,d jcj
[kMs+a gSA A] C o D ds e/; esa gSA D] B ds nk;ha izkIr gqvkA X dks dVj izkIr ugha gqvkA
vksj gSA
67. Who had the Sharpner ?
65. Who is to the left of C if E is the fifth player ? dVj fdlds ikl gSa \
;fn ik¡poka f[kykM+h E gS rks C ds ck;sa dkSu cSBk (A) X (B) Y
gS? (C) Z (D) Y or ¼;k½ Z
(A) D (B) A 68. How many leap year and ordinary year are
(C) B (D) E there in the 200 years (From 301 to 500)
A.D.?
Directions (66) : In the question below are given dys.Mj o"kZ ds 200 o"kksZ (301 ls 500) esa fdrus
two statements followed by two conclusions yhi o"kZ rFkk lk/kkj.k o"kZ Fks ?
numbered I and II. You have to take the given (A) 45, 155 (B) 40, 160
two statements to be true even if they seem (C) 49, 151 (D) 51, 149
to be at variance from commonly known Directions : (69) The figure (X) given below is the
facts. Read the conclusion and then decide unfolded position of a cubical dice. In each of
which of the given conclusions logically the following questions this unfolded figure is
followed by four different figures of dice. You
follows from the two given statements,
have to select the figure which is identical to
disregarding commonly known facts. the figure (X).
funsZ'k (66): uhps fn;s x;s iz'u esa nks dFku vkSj muds funsZ'k : (69) vkd`fr (X) ,d ?kuh; ikls ds lHkh Qydks
ckn nks fu"d""kZ fn;s gq, gSA dFkuksa ds vuqlkj dkSuls dks [kksydj fn[kk;k x;k gSA fuEu izR;sd iz'u esa
fu"d"kZ lgh gksaxsA ikls dh ;g [kqyh vkd`fr pkj fofHkUu iklks dks
iznf'kZr djrh gSA vkidks ml ikls dk pquko djuk
66. Statements : All B are C.
All F are C.
gS tks vkd`fr (X) vuqlkj lgh gksA
Conclusions : I. Some F are B. 69. J
II. No F is B.
(A) if only conclusion I follows
(B) if only conclusion II follows
(C) if neither conclusion I nor II follows
(D) if both conclusions I and II follow. (A) (B) J
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01 SAMPLE TEST PAPER (STP) | CLASS: X TO XI MOVING
71. C – 9, E – 25, G – 49, ?
Direction (75): There are two statements
(A) H – 64 (B) I – 81
followed by four conclusions. Read the
(C) J – 100 (D) H – 81
conclusion and then decide which of the
72. given conclusions logically follows from the
12 4 21 two given statements.
10 1 11 funZs'k (75): fups fn;s x;s iz'u esa nks dFku vkSj muds
64 ? 46 ckn pkj fu"d”"kZ fn;s gq, gSA dFkuksa ds vuqlkj
(A) 18 (B) 28 dkSuls fu"d"kZ lgh gksxsA
(C) 64 (D) 48 75. Statements : Some UPS are SPU. All SPU
73. If air is called water, water is called green, are CCD.
‘green’ is called ‘dust’, ‘dust’ is called ‘yellow’ Conclusions: I. Some UPS are CCD.
and ‘yellow’ is called ‘cloud’, which of the II. Some CCD are SPU.
following does fish live in ? III. All SPU are UPS.
(A) Air (B) Water IV. All CCD are SPU.
(C) Green (D) Dust (A) Only I and II follow
;fn gok dks ikuh dgk tk;s, ikuh dks gjk dgk tk;s, (B) Only II and III follow
gjs dks /kwy dgk tk;s, /kwy dks ihyk dgk tk;s rFkk (C) Only II and IV follow
(D) Only III and IV follow
ihys dks ckny dgk tk;s rks fuEu esa ls fdlesa dFku : dqN UPS SPU gSA lHkh SPU CCD gSA
eNyh thfor jgrh gSaA fu"d”"kZ : I. dqN UPS CCD gS
(A) gok (B) ikuh II. dqN CCD SPU gSA
(C) gjk (D) /kwy
III. lHkh SPU UPS gSA
74. In question number 65 If A and D IV. lHkh CCD SPU gSA
interchange their positons, who will be fourth (A) dsoy I vkSj II lgh gSA
to the left of E? (B) dsoy II vkSj III lgh gSA
iz'u la[;k 65 esa ;fn A o D ijLij viuh fLFkfr
(C) dsoy II vkSj IV lgh gS
cny ysa rks E ds ck;ha vkSj pkSFksa LFkku ij dkSu
(D) dsoy III vkSj IV lgh gSA
gksxk?
(A) B (B) A
(C) C (D) D
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02 SAMPLE TEST PAPER (STP) | CLASS: XI TO XII MOVING STUDENTS
Marking Scheme
Par No. of Full
S.No. Subject Type of Question Negative
t Questions Marks per Total
Marking
Qs.
Single Choice Questions (Only One
1 to 30 I Maths 30 4 0 120
Correct Option) (dsoy ,d fodYi lgh)
Single Choice Questions (Only One
31 to 45 II Physics 15 4 0 60
Correct Option) (dsoy ,d fodYi lgh)
Single Choice Questions (Only One
46 to 60 III Chemistry 15 4 0 60
Correct Option) (dsoy ,d fodYi lgh)
Mental Single Choice Questions (Only One
61 to 75 IV 15 4 0 60
Ability Correct Option) (dsoy ,d fodYi lgh)
Total 75 300
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02 SAMPLE TEST PAPER (STP) | CLASS: XI TO XII MOVING STUDENTS
PQ 7 10. ABC is a field in the form of an equilateral
5. In PQR , XY || QR, and PR = 6.3 cm. triangle. Two vertical poles of heights 15 m
XQ 3
and 60 m are erected at A and B respectively.
Find YR. The angles of elevation of the tops of the two
PQ 7 poles from C are complementary to each
PQR esa XY || QR, rFkk PR = 6.3 cm gS]
XQ 3 other. There is a point D on AB such that from
it, the angles of elevation of the tops of the
rc YR dk eku Kkr dhft, two poles are equal. Then AD is equal to :
(A) 2.5 cm (B) 2.7 cm ABC ,d leckgq f=kHkqft; [ksr gSA nks m/okZ/kj [kEcs
(C) 3.7 cm (D) 4.7 cm ftudh ÅpkbZ 15 m vkSj 60 m gS fcUnq A vkSj B
6. The average mark scored by girls is 70 and ij yxs gSaA fcUnq C ls buds [kEcks ds 'kh"kZ fcUnqvksa
that of the boys is 78. The average marks of ds mUu;u dks.k ,d&nwljs ds iwjd gSA AB ij ,d
the whole class is 74. The ratio of the girls fcUnq D bl izdkj gS fd blls nksuks [kEcks ds
and boys in the class is : mUu;u dks.k leku gS] rc AD dh yEckbZ gksxh &
yM+dh;ksa vkSj yM+dksa ds vkSlr izkIrkad Øe'k% (A) 7 m (B) 6 m (C) 8 m (D) 9 m
70 vkSj 78 gSA vkSj iwjh d{kk ds vkSlr izkIrkad 74 11. In the given figure, O is the centre of a circle
gS] rks yM+fd;ksa vkSj yM+dksa dh la[;k dk vuqikr and BD is a diameter. AB and AC are
gS & tangents touching the circle at B & C
respectively. If BAC = 70º then OBC is :
(A) 1 : 1 (B) 1 : 2
fn;s x;s fp=k esa O dsUnz okys o`r] ftles BD o`r
(C) 2 : 3 (D) 3 : 5
dk O;kl gS] AB vksj AC o`r dks B vkSj C ij Li'kZ
7. If one root of a quadratic equation is
1 djrk gS] ;fn BAC = 70º rks OBC dk eku
4 3 gksxk &
, then the quadratic equation can be
1
;fn fdlh f}?kkr lehdj.k dk ,d ewy
4 3
gS] rks f}?kkr lehdj.k gS &
(A) x2 – 2 4x+1=0
(A) 30º (B) 35º (C) 40º (D) 45º
(B) x2 – 4x–1=0
12. The figure shows the rectangle ABCD with a
(C) x2 + 2 4x+1=0 semicircle and a circle inscribed inside in it as
(D) x2 – 2 3x+1=0 shown. What is the ratio of the area of the
circle to that of the semicircle ?
8. If x + 2, x2 – 2, 3x, ........... is an arithmetic uhps fn;s x;s fp=kkuqlkj ABCD ,d vk;r gS]
progression, then the 5 th term will be : ftlds vUnj ,d o`r vkSj v)Zo`r cuk gS] rks o`r
;fn x + 2, x2 – 2, 3x, ........... ,d lekUrj Js.kh vkSj v)Zo`r ds {ks=kQyksa dk vuqikr gksxk &
gS] rc bldk ik¡pok in D;k gksxk &
A B
(A) – 7 or 13 (B) – 1 or 3
(C) 13 or 15 (D) – 5 or – 7
(A) – 7 ;k 13 (B) – 1 ;k 3 C D
(C) 13 ;k 15 (D) – 5 ;k – 7
2 2
9. The ratio in which the line segment joining (A) 2 1 :1 (B) 2 2 1 :1
A(3, – 5) and B(5, 4) is divided by x-axis is :
(C) 2 1
2
:2 (D) None of these
fcUnqvksa A(3, – 5) vkSj B(5, 4) dks tksM+us okys
js[kk[k.M dks x-v{k fdl vuqikr es dkVsxk & buesa ls dksbZ ugha
(A) 4 : 5 (B) 6 : 5
(C) 5 : 7 (D) 5 : 4
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02 SAMPLE TEST PAPER (STP) | CLASS: XI TO XII MOVING STUDENTS
13. If a right circular cone, with slant height , and 18. A test has 50 questions. A student scores
a right circular cylinder have the same radius 1
1 mark for a correct answer, from a wrong
r, same total surface area and heights h and 3
h' respectivley, then
–r
= 1
answer, and for not attempting a
r 6
;fn ,d yac o`Ùkh; 'kadq] ftldh fr;Zd ÅapkbZ gS question. If the net score of a student is 32,
vkSj ,d leku f=kT;k r dk yEc o`Ùkh; csyu ftuds the number of questions answered wrongly
by that students cannot be less than :
dqy i`"Bh; {ks=kQy leku gS vkSj mudh Åapkb;k¡
fdlh ijh{kk es 50 iz'u gSA lgh mÙkj ds fy, +1]
–r
Øe'k % h vkSj h' gS] rc = 1 1
r xyr mÙkj ds fy, vkSj mÙkj ugh nsus ij
3 6
(A) h/h (B) 2h/h'
(C) 3.33h/2h' (D) 2h'/h uEcj feyrs gSaA ;fn fdlh fo|kFkhZ ds vkSlr uEcj
32 gS] rks fo|kFkhZ ds xyr mÙkj nsus okys iz'uks dh
14. A bag contains 15 balls of which x are black and
remaining are red. If the number of red balls are la[;k uhps fn;s x;s fodYiks esa ls fdlls de ugha
increased by 5, the probability of drawing the gks ldrh &
red balls doubles, then the probability of (A) 6 (B) 12
drawing red ball is : (C) 3 (D) 9
,d csx esa 15 xsan gS] ftles ls x dkyh vksj ckdh dh
19. For two real number x and y which satisfy the
yky gSaA ;fn yky xsanks dh la[;k dks 5 c<+k fn;k tk,
equation – sec2x + tan2y = a2 and tan2x – sec2y
rc yky xsan feyus dh izkf;drk nwxuw h gks tkrh gS] rc 5
= a – 3. Then the value of ‘a’.
yky xsna feyus dh izkf;drk igys D;k Fkh \ 6
(A)
1
(B)
4 nks okLrfod la[;k,sa x vkSj y tks fd lehdj.kksa
5 5 5
– sec2x + tan2y = a2 vkSj tan2x – sec2y = a–3
3 2 6
(C) (D)
5 5 dks larq"V djrh gSA rc ‘a’ dk eku gksxk&
15. In a right angled triangle ABC, BAC = 90°
2 2 2 3
and AD BC. Then, (A) , (B) ,
3 3 3 2
,d ledks.k f=kHkqt ABC, BAC = 90° rFkk
2 3
AD BC gSA rc] (C) , (D) None of these
3 2
AC AC buesa ls dksbZ ugha
(A) AD = (B) BD =
2 2
(C) AD = BD (D) BD. CD = AD2 20. In the given figure, EF || AD and ED || AC. If
BF = 4 cm, FD = 6 cm and BE = 8 cm, then
16. How many rational numbers exist between
BC = _______.
any two distinct rational numbers ?
fn xbZ vkd`fr esa EF || AD vkSj ED || AC. ;fn
nks vyx&vyx ifjes; la[;kvksa ds e/; fdruh
BF = 4 cm, FD = 6 cm rFkk BE = 8 cm, rc
ifjes’; la[;k,sa fLFkr gS \
BC = _______.
(A) 2 (B) 3
(C) 11 (D) Infinite vUur
17. If the polynomial P(x) = x 1000 + ax + 9 is
divisible by (x + 1), then a equals :
;fn cgqin P(x) = x1000 + ax + 9, (x + 1) ls iw.kZr%
foHkkftr gks] rc a dk eku gksxk &
(A) 9 (B) 10 (A) 12 cm (B) 15 cm
(C) – 10 (D) None of these (C) 25 cm (D) none of these
buesa ls dksbZ ugha buesa ls dksbZ ugha
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02 SAMPLE TEST PAPER (STP) | CLASS: XI TO XII MOVING STUDENTS
21. The average weight (in kg) of all the students 25. A person on the top of a tower observes a
in a class equals the number of students in scooter moving with uniform velocity towards
the class. The increase in the average weight the base of the tower. He finds that the angle
when a teacher of 21 kg is included equals of depression changes from 30º to 60º in 20
the decrease in average weight when a minutes. The scooter will reach the base of
student of 19 kg is included. The strength of the tower in next :
the class is (A)10 minutes
fdlh d{kk esa Nk=kksa ds otu dk vkSlr d{kk ds (B) 18 minutes
Nk=kksa dh la[;k ds cjkcj gSA 21 fdyksxzke ds f'k{kd (C) 6 3 minutes
dks 'kkfey djus ij vkSlr otu esa o`fð (D) the time depends upon the height of the
19 fdyksxzke ds Nk=k dks 'kkfey djus ij vkSlr tower
otu esa gqbZ deh ds cjkcj gS] rc d{kk esa Nk=kksa dh ,d vkneh fdlh Vkoj ds Åij ls ,d LdwVj dks
la[;k gS ,d leku osx ls Vkoj ds vk/kkj dh vksj vkrs gq,
(A) 15 (B) 10 ns[krk gSA og ns[krk gS fd 20 feuV esa mldk
(C) 20 (D) 17 voueu dks.k 30º ls 60º gks tkrk gS] rc Kkr
22. If is a root, repeated twice, of the quadratic dhft, fd LdwVj vc fdrus feuV ckn Vkoj ds
equation (a – d) x2 + ax + (a + d) = 0 then
d2 vk/kkj rd vk tk;sxkA
a2 (A) 10 feuV
has the value equal to : (B) 18 feuV
f}?kkr lehdj.k (a – d) x2 + ax + (a + d) = 0dk
,d ewy gks] rFkk ;g nks ckj nksgjk;k tkrk gS] (C) 6 3 feuV
d2 (D) le; Vkoj dh ÅpkbZ ij fuHkZj djsxk
rc 2
dk eku gksxk :
a 26. Two circles of radii a and b (a > b) touch each
(A) sin290º (B) cos260º other externally. ST is a common tangent
(C) sin245º (D) cos230º touching the circles at S and T respectively,
then ST2 is equal to :
23. The sum of n terms of two A.Ps. are in rati
nks o`r ftudh f=kT;k,sa a o b (a > b) gS] ,d&nwljs
7n 1
. Find the ratio of their 11 th terms. dks ckgjh :i ls Li'kZ dj jgh gS] ST ,d Li'kZ
4n 27
js[kk gS tks nksuks o`r dks S o T ij Øe'k% Li'kZ
nks lekUrj Js.kh ds n inksa ds ;ksx dk vuqik
djrh gSA rc ST2 cjkcj gksxk &
7n 1 (A) a + b (B) ab
gSA rks Jsf.k;ksa ds 11 osa inksa dk vuqikr
4n 27 (C) 2 ab (D) 4 ab
gksxk
27. A thin wire is bent into the form of a circle of
(A) 4/3 (B) 1/3 radius 7 cm. If a square is made out of this
(C) 5/3 (D) none of these wire, the side of the square would be :
buesa ls dksbZ ugha ,d iryk rkj o`rkdkj :i esa gS] ftldh f=kT;k
7 lseh gSA ;fn bl rkj ls ,d oxZ cuk;k tkrk gS
24. Find the type of quadrilateral formed by rc bl oxZ dh Hkqtk dh yEckbZ gksxh :
joining the following points, in order, (A) 7 cm (B) 14 cm
A(–2, 2), B(3, 2), C(0, –1) and D(–5, –1) : (C) 11 cm (D) 22 cm
(A) square (B) rectangle
(C) parallelogram (D) None of the above 28. The ratio of the volume of a cube to that of a
fuEu fcUnqvksa] Øe esa] A(–2, 2), B(3, 2), C(0, –1) sphere which exactly fits inside the cube is :
rFkk D(–5, –1) dks feykus ls fufeZr prqHkqZt dk ?ku vkSj xksys ds vk;ru dk vuqikr D;k gksxk ;fn
izdkj crkb,A xksyk ?ku ds vUnj iw.kZr;k% cuk gqvk gSA
(A) oxZ (B) vk;r (A) 1 : 1 (B) 2 :
(C) : 5 (D) 6 :
(C) lekUrj prqHkqZt (D) mijksDr esa ls dksbZ ugha
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02 SAMPLE TEST PAPER (STP) | CLASS: XI TO XII MOVING STUDENTS
29. From a group of 5 boys and 3 girls, two 31. In the figure shown the current flowing
children are selected at random. The through 2 R is :
probability that both the selected children are fp=k esa izfrjks/k 2R esa izokfgr gksus okyh /kkjk gksxh
girls is :
cPpks ds ,d lewg es 5 yM+ds vkSj 3 yM+fd;k¡ gSA
ftles ls 2 cPps ;kn`fPNr :i ls pwus tkrs gSA nksuks
cPpks ds yM+dh gksus dh D;k izkf;drk gksxh&
(A) 1/10 (B) 3/28
(C) 1/6 (D) ½
(A) from left to right (B) from right to left
30. In the following figure, seg DE || side BC in (C) no current (D) None of these
ABC. If 3Ar( ADE) = Ar ( DECB), then find (A) ck¡;s ls nk¡;s rjQ (B) nk¡;s ls ck¡;s rjQ
the ratio BC : DE? (C) 'kwU; /kkjk (D) buesa ls dksbZ ugha
fn, fp=k esa ABC esa DE || BC gSA ;fn
3 × {kS=kQy( ADE) = {kS=kQy ( DECB) gS] rc 32. A proton beam is going from north to south
BC : DE dk eku gksxk \ and an electron beam is going from south to
A north. Neglection the earth’s magnetic field,
the electron beam will be deflected
,d çksVkWu iqat mÙkj ls nf{k.k dh vksj xfr'khy gS
D E
rFkk ,d bysDVªkWu iqat nf{k.k ls mÙkj dh vksj
xfr'khy gSA i`Foh ds pqEcdh; {ks=k dks ux.; ekuus
B C
ij] bysDVªkWu iqat fo{ksfir gksxk &
(A) 1 : 2 (B) 16 : 1
(C) 1 : 16 (D) 2 : 1 (A) towards the proton beam
(B) away from the proton beam
(C) away from the electron beam
PART-II (Hkkx -II): (D) None of these
(A) çksVkWu iqat dh vksj
PHYSICS (HkkSfrd foKku)
(B) çksVkWu iqat ls nwj
SECTION : (Maximum Marks : 60) (C) bysDVªkWu iqat ls nwj
[kaM : (vf/kdre vad : 60) (D) buesa ls dksbZ ugha
This section contains FIFTEEN (15) questions.
Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) 33. From the figure shown establish a relation
and (D). ONLY ONE of these four option is between, 1, 2, 3.
correct fp=k ds vk/kkj ij 1, 2, 3. esa lEcU/k gksxkA
Marking scheme :
Full Marks : +4 If only the bubble
corresponding to the correct option is
darkened
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the bubble is
darkened
bl [kaM esa iUnzg (15) iz'u gSaA
izR;sd iz'u esa pkj fodYi (A), (B), (C) rFkk (D) gSaA (A) 3 > 2 > 1 (B) 3 < 2 < 1
(C) 2 > 3 ; 3 = 1 (D) 2 > 1 ; 3 = 2
bu pkj fodYiksa esa ls dsoy ,d fodYi lgh gSaA
vadu ;kstuk : 34. A 220 volt, 1000 watt bulb is connected
iw.kZ vad % +4 ;fn flQZ lgh fodYi gh pquk across a 110 volt mains supply. The power
x;k gSA consumed will be-
'kwU; vad % 0 ;fn dksbZ Hkh fodYi ugha pquk 220 oksYV, 1000 okV dk cYc 110 oksYV dh lIykbZ
x;k gS ¼vFkkZr~ iz'u vuqÙkfjr gS½A ls tksM+k x;k gSA 'kfDr O;; gksxk %
(A) 750 watt okV (B) 500 watt okV
(C) 250 watt okV (D) 1000 watt okV
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02 SAMPLE TEST PAPER (STP) | CLASS: XI TO XII MOVING STUDENTS
35. If in a circular coil A of radius R, current i is (A) Convex lenses of focal length 30 cm
flowing and in another coil B of radius 2R a (B) convex lenses of focal length 30 cm
current 2i is flowing, then the ratio of the (C) convex lenses of focal length 12 cm
magnetic fields, BA and BB produced at the (D) concave lenses of focal length 12 cm
centre by them will be : ,d fudV n`f"V nks"k okyk O;fDr fdrkc dks vk¡[k
;fn R f=kT;k dh ,d dq.Myh A esa i /kkjk çokfgr ls 10 lseh- nwj j[k dj Li"V i<+ ldrk gSA fdrkc
gS ,oa nwljh 2R f=kT;k dh dq.Myh B esa 2i /kkjk dks 60 lseh- dh nwjh ij j[k dj i<+us ds fy, ftl
çokfgr gks rks muds }kjk dsUnz ij mRiUu pqEcdh; izdkj ds ySal pkfg, og gS -
(A) 30 lseh Qksdl nwjh ds mÙky ySUl
{ks=k BA o BB dk vuqikr gksxk :
(B) 20 lseh Qksdl nwjh ds vory ySal
(A) 1 (B) 2
(C) 12 lseh Qksdl nwjh ds mÙky ySUl
(C) 1 / 2 (D) 4
(D) 12 lseh- Qksdl nwjh ds vory ySal
36. A convex lens of power 4D and a concave 40. A 3 volt battery with negligible internal
lens of power 3D are placed in contact, the resistance is connected in a circuit as shown
equivalent power of combination:
in the figure. Current i will be :
,d mÙky ySal ftldh 'kfä 4 Mk;ksIVj rFkk ,d
3 oksYV dh cSVjh ftldk vkUrfjd izfrjks/k ux.;
vory ySal ftldh 'kfä 3 Mk;ksIVj gS] dks lEidZ
gS] dks fp=kkuqlkj ifjiFk esa tksM+k tkrk gSA ifjiFk
esa j[kk tkrk gS rks la;kstu dh rqY; 'kfä gksxh&
3 esa /kkjk i gksxh&
(A) 1D (B) D i
4
4 3 3
(C) 7D (D) D 3V
3
37. Two wires of same dimension but resistivities 3
1 and 2 are connected in series. The
equivalent resistivity of the combination is (A) 1/3 A (B) 1 A
leku vkdkj ds o vyx&vyx izfrjks/kdrk 1 o (C) 1.5 A (D) 2 A
2 ds nks rkj Js.khØe esa tksM+s x;s gSA la;kstu dh 41. A uniform electric field and a uniform
rqY; izfrjks/kdrk gksxh& magnetic field are acting along the same
(A) 1 + 2 (B) (1/2) (1 + 2) direction in a certain region. If an electron is
projected along the direction of the fields with
(C) 12 (D) 2(1 + 2) a certain velocity, then :
38. A magnetic lines of force inside a bar magnet: fdlh fuf'pr {ks=k esa ,d ,dleku fo|qr {ks=k rFkk
(A) are from north-pole to south-pole of the ,d ,dleku pqEcdh; {ks=k ,d gh fn'kk ds vuqfn'k
magnet
dk;Zjr gSA ;fn dksbZ bysDVªkWu bu {ks=kksa dh fn'kk
(B) do not exist
(C) depend upon the area of cross-section of ds vuqfn'k fdlh fuf'pr osx ls ç{ksfir fd;k tkrk
the bar magnet gS] rc
(D) are from south-pole to north-pole of the
(A) its velocity will decrease
magnet
(B) its velocity will increase
,d NM+ pqEcd ds vUnj pqEcdh; cy js[kk,sa gksrh
(C) it will turn towards right of direction of
gS & motion
(A) pqEcd ds mÙkjh /kzqo ls nf{k.kh /kzqo dh vksj (D) it will turn towards left of direction of
(B) fo|eku ugha gksrh motion.
(C) NM+ pqEcd ds vuqçLFk dkV {ks=kQy ij fuHkZj (A) bldk osx de gks tk,xkA
djrh gSA (B) bldk osx vf/kd gks tk,xkA
(D) pqEcd ds nf{k.kh /kzqo ls mÙkjh /kzqo dh vksj (C) og viuh xfr dh fn'kk ds nk;ha vksj eqM+
39. A shortsighted person can read a book tk,xkA
clearly at a distance of 10 cm from the eyes.
(D) og viuh xfr dh fn'kk ds cka;h vksj eqM+
The lenses required to read the book kept at
60cm are : tk,xkA
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02 SAMPLE TEST PAPER (STP) | CLASS: XI TO XII MOVING STUDENTS
42. A person’s eye is at a height of 1.5 m. He PART-III (Hkkx-III) :
stands infront of a 0.3m long plane mirror
which is 0.8 m above the ground. The length CHEMISTRY (jlk;u foKku)
of the image he sees of himself is: SECTION : (Maximum Marks : 60)
,d O;fDr dh vk¡[ksa 1.5 m Å¡pkbZ ds Lrj ij gSA [kaM : (vf/kdre vad : 60)
og 0.3m yEckbZ ds ,d lery niZ.k ds lEeq[k This section contains FIFTEEN (15) questions.
[kM+k gqvk gS rFkk /kjkry ls niZ.k dh Å¡pkbZ Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C)
and (D). ONLY ONE of these four option is
0.8 m gSA O;fDRk }kjk ns[ks x;s Loa; ds izfrfcEc dh correct
yEckbZ gksxh & Marking scheme :
Full Marks : +4 If only the bubble
(A) 1.5m (B) 1.0m
corresponding to the correct option is
(C) 0.8m (D) 0.6m darkened
43. A wire when connected to 220 V mains Zero Marks : 0 If none of the bubble is
darkened
supply has power dissipation P 1. Now the
wire is cut into two equal pieces which are
bl [kaM esa iUnzg (15) iz'u gSaA
connected in parallel to the same supply. izR;sd iz'u esa pkj fodYi (A), (B), (C) rFkk (D) gSaA
Power dissipation in this case is P 2. Then bu pkj fodYiksa esa ls dsoy ,d fodYi lgh gSaA
P2 : P1 is- vadu ;kstuk :
,d rkj dks 220 oksYV dh lIykbZ ls tksMus ij iw.kZ vad % +4 ;fn flQZ lgh fodYi gh pquk
'kfDr {k; P1 gSA vc rkj dks nks cjkcj Hkkxksa esa x;k gSA
dkVdj, nksuksa VqdMksa dks lekUrj Øe esa mlh lIykbZ 'kwU; vad % 0 ;fn dksbZ Hkh fodYi ugha pquk
ls tksM+us ij 'kfDr {k; P2. gSA P2 : P1 dk eku gS% x;k gS ¼vFkkZr~ iz'u vuqÙkfjr gS½A
(A) 1 (B) 4
(C) 2 (D) 3 46. Which of the following changes is/are
physical change ?
44. If a current is passed through a spring then (A) Evaporation of water
the spring will : (B) Sublimation of camphor
;fn ,d fLçax ls /kkjk çokfgr dh tk;s rks fLçax (C) Ringing of an electric bell
(A) expand (B) compress (D) All of these
(C) remain same (D) none of these fuEu esa ls dkSulk HkkSfrd ifjorZu gS \
(A) çlkfjr gksxh (B) ladqfpr gksxh (A) ty dk ok"ihdj.k
(C) ;Fkkor jgsxh (D) buesa ls dksbZ ugh (B) diwj dk Å/oZikru
(C) fo|qr ?k.Vh dk ctuk
45. A virtual erect image in a concave mirror is
(D) mijksDr lHkh
represented, in the above figures, by
,d vory niZ.k esa vkHkklh lh/kk izfrfcEc fuEu esa 47. Which is correct order of increasing strength
ls fdlds }kjk iznf'kZr gksrk gSA of given acids ?
fn;s x, vEyksa esa ls vEyh; lkeF;Z dk c<+rk gqvk
lgh Øe gS \
(A) H < HBr < HCl < HF
(1) (2)
(B) H < HF < HCl < HBr
(C) HF < HCl < HBr < H
(D) HBr < HF < HCl < H
48. Which of the following metals generally occur
in liquid state at remperature 40° C?
(3) (4)
(A) Mercury (B) Bromine
(C) Gallium (D) (A) & (C) both
fuEu esa ls dkSulh /kkrq lkeU;r;k 40° rkieku ij
(A) 1 (B) 2 nzo voLFkk esa feyrh gS ?
(C) 3 (D) 4
(A) ikjk (B) czksehu
(C) xSyh;e (D) (A) vkSj (C) nksuksa
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02 SAMPLE TEST PAPER (STP) | CLASS: XI TO XII MOVING STUDENTS
49. Which of the following is not an example of dkcZfud ;kSfxdksa esa lekU;r;k ca/k dh izd`fr gksrh gS
aromatic compound ? (A) vk;fud (B) lgla;kstd
(A) Benzene
(C) milgla;lstd (D) /kkfRod
(B) Naphthalene
(C) Cyclobutane 55. Which of the following represents the
(D) All are aromatic compound electronic configuration of d-block elements?
fuEu esa ls ,sjkseSfVd ;kSfxd dk mnkgj.k ugha gS \ fuEu esa dkSulk foU;kl d-oxZ ds rRoksa dk bySDVkWfud
(A) cSUthu foU;kl gS ?
(B) uS¶FkSyhu (A) (n–1)s2 nd1–10 (B) (n–1)d1–10 ns0–2
(C) (n–1)d1–10 ns2p4 (D) (n–1)p4ns2
(C) lkbDyksC;wVsu
(D) lHkh ,jkseSfVd ;kSfxd gS 56. A colourless lead salt, when heated,
produces a yellow residue and brown fumes.
50. Number of electrons in L shell of an element The lead salt is
with atomic number 15 is – ,d jaxghu lhlk yo.k xeZ djus ij ,d ihyk
ijek.kq Øekad 15 okys rRo dh L-d{kk esa bySDVkWuksa vo'ks"k vkSj Hkwjh /kwez mRiUu djrk gSA ySM+ yo.k
dh la[;k gS gksxk gS
(A) 18 (B) 8 (A) Pb3O4 (B) Pb(NO 3)2
(C) 5 (D) 2 (C) PbO2 (D) PbSO4
51. Which of the following is/are an example of 57. On heating gypsum above 373 K temperature
in a kiln, product obtained is –
chemical change ?
(i) Crystallisation of sugar from its solution ftIle dks 373 K ls vf/kd rkieku ij Hkêh esa xeZ
(ii) Making of ice cream djus ij mRikn feyrsa gSa
(iii) Clotting of blood 1
(iv) Breaking of a glass (A) CaSO4. H2O (B) CaSO4
2
(A) (i) and (ii) only (B) (iii) only (C) (CaSO4)2. H2O (D) (A) & (C) both
(C) (ii) and (iii) only (D) (i) to (iv) all (A) vkSj (C) nksuksa
fuEu esa ls jklk;fud ifjorZu dk mnkgj.k gS \ 58. We can prevent rusting by :
(i) 'kZdjk ds foy;u dk fØLVyhdj.k (A) painting (B) applying grease
(ii) vkbl&Øhe cukuk (C) galvanisation (D) All of these
fdl fof/k ds }kjk tax yxus ls cpk ldrs gSa
(iii) jDr dk FkDdk cuuk
(A) ysiu (B) xzhl yxkdj
(iv) Xykl dk VwVuk
(C) xSYosuhdj.k (D) mijksDr lHkh
(A) dsoy (i) vkSj (ii) (B) dsoy (iii)
(C) dsoy (ii) vkSj (iii) (D) (i) ls (iv) lHkh 59. Which of the following pairs is an example of
chain isomer ?
52. Aqueous solution of Ammonia is - fuEu esa ls J`[kayk leko;oh dk mnkgj.k gS \
(A) acidic (B) basic (A) CH3 – CH2 – OH and CH3OCH3
(C) neutral (D) none (B) CH3 – CH2 – CHO and CH3 – COCH3
veksfu;k dk tyh; foy;u gksrk gS& (C) CH3 – CH2 – CH2 – CH2– CH3 and
(A) vEyh; (B) {kkjh;
(C) mnklhu (D) dksbZ ugha
(D) All of the above mijksDr lHkh
53. The most reactive of the following metals is–
fuEu /kkrqvksa esa ls lokZf/kd fØ;k'khy gS 60. The element capable of gaining as well as
(A) Ca (B) Al (C) Ni (D) Pb losing an electron is –
fuEu esa ls dkSulk rRo bySDVªkWu dks R;kx vkSj xzg.k
54. The nature of linkage in organic compounds
is generally - dj ldrk gS
(A) ionic (A) Hg (B) Ca
(B) covalent (C) Ag (D) H
(C) co-ordinate covalent
(D) metallic
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02 SAMPLE TEST PAPER (STP) | CLASS: XI TO XII MOVING STUDENTS
PART-IV (Hkkx-IV) : 65. 6 men P, Q , R , L , M and N sat around a
circular table facing towards center . It was
MENTAL ABILITY (ekufld ;ksX;rk) noticed that no two men the initial letters of
whose names are adjacent in the
SECTION : (Maximum Marks : 60) alphabetical order, sat next to each other. L
[kaM : (vf/kdre vad : 60) was opposite to P. Q was not to the
immediate right of L. M is opposite to R.
This section contains FIFTEEN (15) questions.
Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) Who sat to the immediate left of R ?
and (D). ONLY ONE of these four option is 6 vkneh P,Q,R,L,M vkSj N ,d o`Rkkdkj est ds
correct vkl ikl dsUnz dh rjQ eq[k djds cSBs gq, gSA dksbZ
Marking scheme : Hkh nks O;fDr] ftuds uke ds 'kq:okrh v{kj leku
Full Marks : +4 If only the bubble
corresponding to the correct option is gS] ikl&ikl ugha cSBs gq, gSA L, P ds foifjr cSBk
darkened gSA Q, L ds fudVre nk;sa ugha gSA M, R ds foijhr
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the bubble is cSBk gSA
darkened
R ds fudVre ck;sa dkSu cSBk gS” \
bl [kaM esa iUnzg (15) iz'u gSaA
(A) M (B) N
izR;sd iz'u esa pkj fodYi (A), (B), (C) rFkk (D) gSaA
(C) Q (D) L
bu pkj fodYiksa esa ls dsoy ,d fodYi lgh gSaA
vadu ;kstuk : Directions (66) : In the question below are given
iw.kZ vad % +4 ;fn flQZ lgh fodYi gh pquk two statements followed by two conclusions
x;k gSA numbered I and II. You have to take the given
two statements to be true even if they seem
'kwU; vad % 0 ;fn dksbZ Hkh fodYi ugha pquk
to be at variance from commonly known
x;k gS ¼vFkkZr~ iz'u vuqÙkfjr gS½A facts. Read the conclusion and then decide
Direction (61 to 63) : Find the missing term ? which of the given conclusions logically
follows from the two given statements,
funsZ'k (61 ls 63) % yqIr in Kkr djsa \ disregarding commonly known facts.
funsZ'k (66) % uhps fn;s x;s iz'u esa nks dFku vkSj muds
61. 5, 18, 45, 100, 211 ?
ckn nks fu"d”"kZ fn;s gq, gSA dFkuksa ds vuqlkj dkSuls
(A) 245 (B) 434
fu"d"kZ lgh gksaxsA
(C) 442 (D) 424
62. R2G, T6F, V21E, X88D ? 66. Statements : Some Statements are
Conclusions. Some Conclusions are Results.
(A) Z445C (B) Z440C Conclusions : I. Some Statements are
(C) Z400C (D) A445C Results.II. Some Results are Statements.
(A) if only conclusion I follows
3 4 6 2 4 5 (B) if only conclusion II follows
63. (C) if neither conclusion I nor II follows
(D) if both conclusions I and II follow.
25 40 ?
dFku % dqN dFku fu"d"kZ gSaA dqN fu"d"kZ ifj.kke
(A) 14 (B) 41 gSaA
(C) 40 (D) 39 fu"d”"kZ % I. dqN dFku ifj.kke gSaA
II. dqN ifj.kke dFku gSaA
64. If PMBZFXI is coded as HWEYALO then
(A) dsoy I fu"d”"kZ lgh gSA
LOAFKXOV would be ?
(B) dsoy II fu"d”"kZ ”lgh gSA
;fn PMBZFXI dks HWEYALO dksM fd;k tkrk
(C) dksbZ Hkh fu"d”"kZ lgh ugha gSA
gS] rc LOAFKXOV gksxk & (D) nksuks fu"d”"kZ lgh gSA
(A) UNWJEZNK (B) UNWJFZNK
(C) KNZFWNJU (D) ZQBHOBQZ
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02 SAMPLE TEST PAPER (STP) | CLASS: XI TO XII MOVING STUDENTS
Directions : (67) Read the information carefully Direction (70 to 72) : Find the missing term ?
given below and answer the questions funsZ'k (70 ls 72) % yqIr in Kkr djsa \
that follow.
A total of six things, three Cars, two Bikes and
70. 2, 2, 4, 12, ?, 240
one Scooter were there with Ram, Shyam
and Mohan. (A) 48 (B) 36
I. Ram had three things, Shyam had two (C) 42 (D) 24
things and Mohan had only one thing.
II. Everyone had at least one Car. 71. EHKL, TWZA, GJMN, RUXY, ?
Directions : (67) uhps nh xbZ lwpukvksa dks /;kuiwoZd
(A) JKNO (B) VYBC
i<+us ds ckn iz'uksa dk mÙkj nhft, (C) WZCE (D) MOSV
jke] ';ke rFkk eksgu ds ikl dqy N% oLrq,sa gSa
ftlesa rhu dkj] nks ckbZd rFkk ,d LdwVj gSa 5 4 3 8 2 7
72.
I. jke ds ikl rhu oLrq,sa gSa] ';ke ds ikl nks oLrq,sa 1 10 ?
3 1 9 4 4 5
gSa vkSj eksgu ds ikl dsoy ,d oLrq gSaA
II. izR;sd ds ikl de ls de ls ,d dkj gSaA (A) 4 (B) 5
67. Who had the Scooter ? (C) 1 (D) 3
(A) Ram (B) Mohan
(C) Shyam (D) Ram or Shyam 73. If watch is called room, room is called bag,
LdwVj fdlds ikl gSa \ bag is called rain, rain is called air and air is
(A) jke (B) eksgu called water, Which is used to carry the
(C) ';ke (D) jke ;k ';ke books ?
68. Sonu went to the movies seven days ago. He (A) room (B) bag
goes to the movies only on Friday. What day (C) rain (D) air
of the week is today ?
;fn ?kM+h dks dejk dgk tk,] dejs dks FkSyk dgk
(A) Thursday (B) Saturday
(C) Sunday (D) None of these tk;] FkSys dks o"kkZ dgk tk,] o"kkZ dks gok vkSj gok
lkuw lkr fnu igys flusek x;k FkkA og dsoy
dks ikuh dgk tk;] rks fdldk mi;ksx fdrkcs ys
'kqØokj dks flusek tkrk gSA vkt lIrkg dk dkSulk
fnu gS \ tkus ds fy;s fd;k tkrk gSA
(A) xq:okj (B) 'kfuokj (A) dejk (B) FkSyk
(C) jfookj (D) buesa ls dksbZ ugha
(C) o"kkZ (D) gok
Direction : (69) Choose from the alternatives, the
boxes that will be formed when figure (X) is 74. There are five friends, P , Q , R , S and T in a
folded:-
row. P is to the right of Q, T is to the left of R
funsZ'k : (69) tc fp=k (X) dks eksM+dj ckWDl cuk;k
and right of P, Q is to the right of S. Which of
tk;s rks] fuEu fodYiksa esa ls dkSulk lgh gksxk ?
the friend is in the middle?
3 1
69. (X) 6 2 ,d iafä esa P , Q , R , S vkSj T ik¡p nksLr cSBsa gSA
5
4
P, Q ds nk;sa gS rFkk T, R ds ck;sa vkSj P ds nk;sa
gS rFkk Q, S ds nk;sa gSA dkSulk nksLr e/; esa gS ?
(A) (B)
(A) P (B) Q
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02 SAMPLE TEST PAPER (STP) | CLASS: XI TO XII MOVING STUDENTS
Directions (75) : In the question below are given 75. Statements : All Questions are Answers. No
two statements followed by two conclusions Answer is a Doubt.
Conclusions : I. No Doubt is a Question.
numbered I and II. You have to take the given
II. No Question is a Doubt.
two statements to be true even if they seem (A) if only conclusion I follows
to be at variance from commonly known (B) if only conclusion II follows
(C) if neither conclusion I nor II follows
facts. Read the conclusion and then decide
(D) if both conclusions I and II follow.
which of the given conclusions logically dFku % lHkh iz'u mÙkj gSaA dksbZ mÙkj la'k; ugh
follows from the two given statements, gSA
disregarding commonly known facts. fu"d”"kZ % I. dksbZ la'k; iz'u ugha gSA
funsZ'k (75) % uhps fn;s x;s iz'u esa nks dFku vkSj muds II. dksbZ iz'u la'k; ugh gSA
ckn nks fu"d”"kZ fn;s gq, gSA dFkuksa ds vuqlkj dkSuls (A) dsoy I fu"d”"kZ lgh gSA
(B) dsoy II fu"d”"kZ ”lgh gSA
fu"d"kZ lgh gksaxsA
(C) dksbZ Hkh fu"d”"kZ lgh ugha gSA
(D) nksuks fu"d”"kZ lgh gSA
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03 SAMPLE TEST PAPER (STP) | CLASS: XI TO XII MOVING STUDENTS
Marking Scheme
No. of
Par Negative
S.No. Subject Type of Questions Questi Full Marks
t Marks Total
ons per Qs.
Qs.
Single Choice Questions (Only One
1 to 40 I Maths Correct Option) (dsoy ,d fodYi 25 4 0 100
lgh)
Single Choice Questions (Only One
41 to 70 II Physics Correct Option) (dsoy ,d fodYi 25 4 0 100
lgh)
Single Choice Questions (Only One
Chemistr Correct Option) (dsoy ,d fodYi
71 to 100 III 25 4 0 100
y
lgh)
Total 75 300
(C) 3– 2 (D) 2 – 3
questions.
Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) 2. The number N = log3 79. log1/8 3 . log5
1
and (D). ONLY ONE of these four option is 8
correct.
For each question, darken the bubble lies between two successive integers ‘a’
corresponding to the correct option in the ORS and ‘b’ where
Marking scheme :
Full Marks : +4 If only the bubble la[;k N = log3 79. log1/8 3 . log5 1 nks Øekxr
corresponding to the correct option is 8
darkened iw.kk±dks ‘a’ rFkk ‘b’ ds e/; fLFkr gS] tgk¡&
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the bubble is
darkened (A) a = 1, b = 2 (B) a = 2, b = 3
bl [kaM esa iPphl (25) iz'u gSaA (C) a = 3, b = 4 (D) a = 0, b = 1
izR;sd iz'u esa pkj fodYi (A), (B), (C) rFkk (D) gSaA
bu pkj fodYiksa esa ls dsoy ,d fodYi lgh gSaA 3. Equation of the hyperbola with foci
izR;sd iz'u esa] lgh fodYi ds vuq:i cqycqys dks vks-
vkj- ,l- esa dkyk djsaA
0,
10 and passing through (2 , 3) is
eku gS&
;fn Qyu f(x) = 5 4x 2x4
(A) 4 (B) 6
(C) 8 (D) 7 4 x 4x
8. If A, B and C are three sets such that gS] rks Qyu f(x) gS &
A B = A C and A B = A C, then (A) continuous at x = 2 & x = 4
;fn A, B vkSj C rhu ,sls leqPp; (sets) gSa (x = 2 o x = 4 ij lrr~ gSA)
ftuds fy, A B = A C ,oa A B = (B) continuous at x = 2, discontinuous at
x = 4 (x = 2 ij lrr~ rFkk x = 4 ij vlrr~ gSA)
A C, rc %
(C) continuous at x = 4, discontinuous at
(A) A = C (B) B = C
x = 2 (x = 4 ij lrr~ rFkk x = 2 ij vlrr~ gSA)
(C) A B = (D) A = B
(D) discontinuous at x = 2 & x = 4 (x = 2 o
x = 4 ij vlrr~ gSA)
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03 SAMPLE TEST PAPER (STP) | CLASS: XI TO XII MOVING STUDENTS
1 cos2 x 19. At a distance 2h from the foot of a tower
13. sin2 x dx = of height h, the tower and a pole at the top
(A) –cot x – 2x + c (B) –2cot x – 2x + c of the tower subtend equal angles then
(C) –2cot x – x + c (D) –2cot x + x + c height of the pole should be
h Å¡pkbZ dh ehukj ds ikn ls 2h nwjh ij fLFkr
dy
14. If xy = ex – y, then = fcUnq ij] ehukj vkSj ehukj ds 'kh"kZ ij fLFkr
dx
[kaEHkk nksuksa lekUk dks.k vUrfjr djrs gS] rc
;fn xy = ex – y, gks] rks dy =
dx [kaEHks dh Å¡pkbZ gksxh&
(A) (1 + n x)–1 5h 4h
(B) (1 + n x)–2 (A) (B)
3 3
(C) (1 + n x)–2 n x
7h 3h
(D) (1 + n x)–1 n x (C) (D)
5 2
15. The distance between the line
ˆ ˆ ˆ ˆ ˆ ˆ
r 2i 2j 3k (i j 4k) and the plane 1
20. The value of cos tan – 1 sin cot– 1 is
r.(iˆ 5ˆj k)
ˆ 5 is : 2
js[kk r 2iˆ 2jˆ 3kˆ (iˆ ˆj 4k)
ˆ vkSj 1
cos tan– 1 sin cot– 1 dk eku gS&
ˆ ˆ ˆ
lery r.(i 5 j k) 5 ds chp dh nwjh gS 2
10 3 17 7
(A) (B) (A) (B)
3 10 6 17
10 10 3 5
(C) (D) (C) (D)
3 3 9 4 3
16. The sum of the series 13 – 23 + 33 – ........+
21. If a2 + b2 + c2 – 2a – 4b – 6c = – 14 then
93 is
Js.kh 13 – 23 + 33 – ........+ 93 dk ;ksx gS& a+b+c=
(A) 300 (B) 125 ;fn a2 + b2 + c2 – 2a – 4b – 6c = – 14 rc
(C) 425 (D) 0 a+b+c=
(A) 3 (B) 4 (C) 5 (D) 6
cos x – sec x
17. Value of limit lim is equal
x ( x 1)
x 0 2
dy
to 22. Solution of the differential equation +
dx
cos x – sec x 1 y2
lim cjkcj gS - = 0 is
x ( x 1)
x 0 2
1 x2
1
1 y2
(A) 0 (B)
2 vody lehdj.k dy + = 0 dk gy
(C) –1 (D) –2
2
dx 1 x
gS&
18. Let a and b be unit vectors such that
(A) tan–1 y + sin–1 x = c
ab = 3, then the value of (B) tan–1 x + sin–1 y = c
2a 5b . 3a b a b = (C) tan–1 y . sin–1 x = c
(D) tan–1 y – sin–1 x = c
ekuk arFkk b bdkbZ lfn'k bl izdkj gS fd
ab = 3, rks 2a 5b . 23. The points on the curve y = 12x – x3 at
which the gradient is zero are
3a b a b dk eku gS& oØ y = 12x – x3 ij og fcUnq tgk¡ ij izo.krk
(A)
11
(B)
13 'kwU; gS&
2 2 (A) (0, 2 ), (2, 16 )
(C)
39
(D)
23 (B) (0, – 2 ), (2, – 16 )
2 2 (C) (2, – 16), (– 2, 16 )
(D) (2, 16 ), (– 2, – 16 )
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03 SAMPLE TEST PAPER (STP) | CLASS: XI TO XII MOVING STUDENTS
24. If f (x) = x5 – 5x4 + 5x3 – 10 has local 26. Find out work done by electric field in
maxima and minima at x = p and x = q
4 2
respectively then (p,q) = shifting a point charge C from point
;fn x = p vkSj x = q ij f (x) = x5 – 5x4 + 27
5x3 – 10 Øe'k% LFkkuh; mfPp"B ,oa LFkkuh; P to S which are shown in the figure :
fufEu"B gks] rks (p,q) = 4 2
fcUnqor~ vkos'k C dks P fcUnq ls S fcUnq
(A) (0,1) (B) (1,3) 27
(C) (1,0) (D) (5,8)
rd fp=kkuqlkj LFkkukUrfjr djus esa fo-{ks=k }kjk
25. Solution of the equation fd;k x;k dk;Z gksxk&
3x–7 7x –3
2 5
5 = is
2
3x–7 7x–3
2 5
lehdj.k 5 = dk gy gS
2
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4 100 200
(A) J (B) J
3 3
(C) 100 J (D) 200 J
PART-II (Hkkx -II):
PHYSICS (HkkSfrd foKku) 27. Three concentric conducting spherical
shells carry charges as follows + 4Q on
SECTION : (Maximum Marks : 100) the inner shell, - 2 Q on the middle shell
This section contains TWENTY FIVE (25)
questions. and – 5 Q on the outer shell. The charge
Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) on the inner surface of the outer shell is:
and (D). ONLY ONE of these four option is rhu ladsUnzh; pkyd xksyh; dks'k gSaA vkUrfjd
correct.
For each question, darken the bubble dks'k ij + 4Q vkos'k] chp okys dks'k ij - 2 Q
corresponding to the correct option in the ORS
Marking scheme : vkos'k o ckgjh dks'k ij – 5 Q vkos'k gSA ckgjh
Full Marks : +4 If only the bubble dks'k ds vkUrfjd i`"B ij vkos'k gS&
corresponding to the correct option is
darkened (A) 0 (B) 4 Q
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the bubble is (C) - Q (D) – 2 Q
darkened
[kaM : (vf/kdre vad : 100) 28. The frequency of oscillation of current in
bl [kaM esa iPphl (25) iz'u gSaA the inductor is :
izR;sd iz'u esa pkj fodYi (A), (B), (C) rFkk (D) gSaA izsjdRo esa /kkjk ds nksyu dh vko`fÙk gS &
bu pkj fodYiksa esa ls dsoy ,d fodYi lgh gSaA
izR;sd iz'u esa] lgh fodYi ds vuq:i cqycqys dks vks-
vkj- ,l- esa dkyk djsaA
vadu ;kstuk :
iw.kZ vad % +4 ;fn flQZ lgh fodYi gh pquk
x;k gSA
'kwU; vad % 0 ;fn dksbZ Hkh fodYi ugha pquk x;k (A)
1
(B)
1
gS ¼vFkkZr~ iz'u vuqÙkfjr gS½A 3 LC 6 LC
1 1
(C) (D)
LC 2 LC
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03 SAMPLE TEST PAPER (STP) | CLASS: XI TO XII MOVING STUDENTS
29. In the given circuit switch 'S' is closed at fu;r pky ls xfr djrh gqbZ ,d d.k ds fy,
t = 0, then
pky le; (v-t) xzkQ ……… le; v{k ds fy,
L
(A) time constant of the circuit is ,d ljy js[kk gS&
3R
(B) at t = 0 current in the resistor R 1 will be (A) lekUrj (B) yEcor~
zero (C) lajsf[kr (D) >qdk gqvk
(C) at t = 0 rate of power supplied by the
battery will be zero 33. The focal length of a convex mirror, f = 12
(D) the current from source at t = 0, will be cm and the object is placed at a distance
smaller then the current at long time after of 15 cm from the convex mirror. Find the
switch is closed. position of the image.
(A) 6.66 cm (B) 3.33 cm
(C) 0.15 cm (D) 1.5 cm
,d mRry ySal dh Qksdl nwjh f = 12 cm rFkk
,d oLrq dks mRry niZ.k ls 15 cm dh nwjh ij
j[kh x;h gS] izfrfcEc dh fLFkfr Kkr dhft,A
fn;s x;s ifjiFk ds fy, t = 0 ij fLop 'S' cUn (A) 6.66 cm (B) 3.33 cm
fd;k tkrk gSA rc (C) 0.15 cm (D) 1.5 cm
L
(A) ifjiFk dk le;&fu;rkad gSA
3R 34. A body of mass 5kg is suspended by a
(B) t = 0 ij R1 çfrjks/k esa /kkjk 'kwU; gksxhA spring balance on an inclined plane as
(C) t = 0 ij cSVjh }kjk 'kfDr çnku dh nj shown in figure. The spring balance
measure
'kwU; gksxhA
5 fdxzk nzO;eku dh ,d oLrq dks fdlh
(D) t = 0 ij cSVjh ls çokfgr /kkjk dh ek=kk ]
fLop cUn djus ds vf/kd le; ckn dh vis{kk urlery ij j[kh gqbZ fLizax rqyk ls yVdk;k
de gksxhA x;k gS] tSlk fd fp=k esa iznf'kZr gSA fLizax rqyk
dk ikB~;kad gksxk
30. When a white light passes through a
hollow prism, then
(A) There is no dispersion and no
deviation (B) Dispersion but no deviation
(C) Deviation but no dispersion
M
(D) There is dispersion and deviation both
dkWp ds [kks[kys fizTe esa ls lQsn izdk'k dh 30°
dksbZ fdj.k tc xqtjrh gS] rks mlesa gksrk gS
(A) u rks o.kZ fo{ksi.k vkSj u gh fopyu
(A) 50 N (B) 25 N
(B) o.kZ fo{ksi.k ijUrq fopyu ugha
(C) 500 N (D) 10 N
(C) fopyu ijUrq fo{ksi.k ugh
(D) fo{ksi.k vkSj fopyu nksuksa 35. A bulb and a capacitor are in series with
an ac source. On increasing frequency
31. 120ºC is equivalent to ……………ºF. how will glow of the bulb change
(A) 212 (B) 248
(A) The glow decreases
(C) 393 (D) 220
(B) The glow increases
120ºC rki ……………ºF ds lerqY; gS&
(C) The glow remain the same
(A) 212 (B) 248
(D) The bulb quenches
(C) 393 (D) 220
,d cYc ,oa ,d la/kkfj=k ,d ac óksr ls
32. The speed-time graph for a particle
Js.khØe esa tqM+s gq, gSaA ac lzksr dh vko`fÙk c<+kus
moving at constant speed is a straight-line
………… to the time axis. ij cYc dh ped
(A) parallel (B) perpendicular (A) ?kVsxh (B) c<s+xh
(C) aligned (D) inclined
(C) fu;r jgsxh (D) cYc cq> tk,xk
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03 SAMPLE TEST PAPER (STP) | CLASS: XI TO XII MOVING STUDENTS
36. The moment of inertia of a uniform ring of fn[kk;s x;s ifjiFk esa
mass M and radius r about a tangent lying (A) çfrjks/k R = 46
in its own plane is
(B) 20 çfrjks/k ls çokfgr /kkjk 0.1 A gSA
nzO;eku M rFkk f=kT;k r okys ,d ,dleku
(C) chp okys çfrjks/k ds fljksa ij foHkokUrj 2V
oy; dk tMRo vk?kw.kZ mlds ry esa fLFkr ,d
Li'kZ js[kk ds ifjr% gksrk gSA gS
(D) lHkh fodYi lgh
3
(A) 2Mr2 (B) Mr2
2 40. A particle starts from rest. Its acceleration
1 (a) versus time (t) is as shown in the
(C) Mr 2
(D) Mr2
2 figure. The maximum speed of the particle
will be
37. The velocity of a car moving on a straight ,d d.k fojke ls xfr çkjEHk djrk gS] bldk
road increases linearly according to
equation, v = a + b x, where a & b are
Roj.k le; xzkQ fp=k esa fn[kk;k x;k gSA d.k
positive constants. The acceleration in the dh vf/kdre pky gksxh
course of such motion: (x is the distance
travelled)
(A) increases (B) decreases
(C) stay constant (D) becomes zero
lh/kh lM+d ij xfr'khy dkj dk osx js[kh; :i
ls, v = a + b x, dh rjg fuHkZj djrk gS] tgk¡ a
rFkk b /kukRed fu;rkad gSA bl xfr ds nkSjku (A) 110 m/s (B) 55 m/s
Roj.k dk eku (x r; nwjh gS) (C) 550 m/s (D) 660 m/s
(A) c<+rk gSA (B) ?kVrk Gsa 41. Given a point source of light, which of the
(C) fu;r jgrk gSA (D) 'kwU; gks tkrk gSA following can produce a parallel beam of
light
38. Under steady state, the temperature of a (A) Convex mirror
body (B) Concave mirror
(A) Increases with time (C) Concave lens
(B) Decreases with time (D) Two plane mirrors inclined at an angle
(C) Does not change with time and is of 90º
same at all the points of the body çdk'k dk ,d fcUnq lzksr fn;k x;k gSA fuEu esa
(D) Does not change with time but is ls fdlds }kjk çdk'k dh lekukUrj fdj.kkoyh
different at different points of the body
çkIr gksxh
eUn xfr dh voLFkk esa fi.M dk rki
(A) mÙky niZ.k
(A) le; ds lkFk c<+rk gS
(B) vory niZ.k
(B) le; ds lkFk ?kVrk gS
(C) vory ysUl
(C) le; ds lkFk cnyrk ugha gS vkSj fi.M ds
(D) 90º ij >qds nks lery niZ.kksa }kjk
lHkh fcUnqvksa ij leku jgrk gS
(D) le; ds lkFk cnyrk ugha gS ysfdu fi.M 42. The relation between the linear
ds fofHkUu fcUnqvksa ij fHkUu-fHkUu gksrk gS magnification m, the object distance u and
the focal length f is
39. In the circuit as shown in figure the js[kh; vko/kZu m, oLrq nwjh u, çfrfcEc nwjh v
(A) Resistance R = 46
rFkk Qksdl nwjh f esa vkil esa lEcU/k gksrk gS
(B)Current through20 resistance is 0.1A
f u
(C) Potential difference across the middle (A) m
resistance is 2 V f
(D) All option are correct f
(B) m
R f u
f u
(C) m
0.5A f
25V 10 10 20
f
(D) m
f u
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03 SAMPLE TEST PAPER (STP) | CLASS: XI TO XII MOVING STUDENTS
43. A transformer is based on the principle of 47. Equivalent resistance between A and B
(A) Mutual inductance will be
(B) Self inductance A vkSj B fcUnqvksa ds e/; rqY; izfrjks/k gksxk
(C) Ampere's law
(D) Lenz's law
VªkUlQkWeZj vk/kkfjr gS 3 3
46. A particle experiences a constant 505. An aeroplane flies 400 m north and 300 m
acceleration for 20 sec after starting from south and then flies 1200 m upwards then
rest. If it travels a distance S 1 in the first net displacement is
10 sec and a distance S 2 in the next ,d ok;q;ku 400 m mÙŸkj dh vksj] 300 m nf{k.k
10 sec, then
,d d.k fLFkj voLFkk ls 20 lSd.M rd fu;r dh vksj rFkk 1200 m Åij dh vksj xfr djrk
Roj.k ls xfr djrk gSA ;fn çFke 10 lSd.M gS rks dqy foLFkkiu gksxk
(A) 1200 m
esa d.k }kjk pyh xbZ nwjh S1 rFkk vxys (B) 1300 m
10 lSd.M esa pyh xbZ nwjh S2 gks] rks (C) 1400 m
(A) S1 = S2 (B) S1 = S2 /3 (D) 1500 m
(C) S1 = S2 /2 (D) S1 = S2 /4
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03 SAMPLE TEST PAPER (STP) | CLASS: XI TO XII MOVING STUDENTS
(D) the system changes into the
PART-III (Hkkx-III): surrounding spontaneously.
Å"ekxfrdh esa] ,d çØe mÙØe.kh; dgykrk
CHEMISTRY (HkkSfrd foKku) gS] tc %
Atomi masses (ijek.kq Hkkj) : [H = 1, D = 2, Li = 7,
(A) ifjos'k rFkk fudk; ,d nwljs esa ifjofrZr
C = 12, N = 14, O = 16, F = 19, Na = 23, Mg = 24,
Al = 27, Si = 28, P = 31, S = 32, Cl = 35.5, K = 39, gksaA
Ca = 40, Cr = 52, Mn = 55, Fe = 56, Cu = 63.5, (B) ifjos'k rFkk fudk; ds e/; dksbZ ifjlhek
Zn = 65, As = 75, Br = 80, Ag = 108, I = 127, Ba ugha gksA
= 137, Hg = 200, Pb = 207] (C) ifjos'k lnSo] fudk; ds lkFk lkE; esa jgsA
SECTION : (Maximum Marks : 100) (D) fudk;] ifjos'k esa Lor% ifjofrZr gksA
[kaM : (vf/kdre vad : 100)
This section contains TWENTY FIVE (25) 53. The aqueous solution of HCOONa and
questions. KCN are respectively.
Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (A) acidic, basic (B) acidic, neutral
(C) and (D). ONLY ONE of these four (C) basic, neutral (D) basic, basic
option is correct. HCOONa o KCN dk tyh; foy;u Øe'k% gS
For each question, darken the bubble
corresponding to the correct option in the (A) vEyh;, {kkjh; (B) vEyh;, mnklhu
ORS (C) {kkjh;, mnklhu (D) {kkjh;, {kkjh;
Marking scheme : 54. The haemoglobin from the red blood
Full Marks : +4 If only the bubble corpuscles of most mammals contains
corresponding to the correct option is approximately 0.33% of iron by weight.
darkened The molecular weight of haemoglobin is
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the bubble is 67,200. The number of iron atoms in each
darkened molecule of haemoglobin is (Atomic
bl [kaM esa iPphl (25) iz'u gSaA weight of iron = 56) -
izR;sd iz'u esa pkj fodYi (A), (B), (C) rFkk (D) gSaA vf/kdka'k Lru/kkjh;ksa dh yky jDr df.kdkvksa ls
bu pkj fodYiksa esa ls dsoy ,d fodYi lgh gSaA izkIr fgeksXyksfcu esa Hkkj ds vuqlkj yxHkx
0.33% vk;ju gksrk gSA fgeksXykschu dk v.kqHkkj
izR;sd iz'u esa] lgh fodYi ds vuq:i cqycqys dks vks-
67,200 gSA fgeksXykschu ds izR;sd v.kq esa vk;ju
vkj- ,l- esa dkyk djsaA
vadu ;kstuk :
ijek.kqvksa dh la[;k gS % (vk;ju dk ijek.kq Hkkj
= 56) -
iw.kZ vad % +4 ;fn flQZ lgh fodYi gh pquk (A) 2 (B) 3
x;k gSA (C) 4 (D) 5
'kwU; vad % 0 ;fn dksbZ Hkh fodYi ugha pquk x;k
gS ¼vFkkZr~ iz'u vuqÙkfjr gS½A 55. A colligative property of a solution
depends on the :
51. The most symmetrical system is : (A) arrangement of atoms in solute
(A) Cubic (B) Hexagonal molecule
(C) Triclinic (D) Orthorhombic (B) total number of molecules of solute
lcls vf/kd lefer rU=k fuEu gS : and solvent
(A) ?kuh; (B) "kV~dks.kh; (C) number of molecules of solute in
solution
(C) f=kurk{k (D) fo"keyEck{k (D) mass of the solute molecules
foy;u ds v.kqla[; xq.k/keZ fuHkZj djrs gSA
52. In thermodynamics, a process is called
(A) foys; v.kq esa ijek.kqvksa dh O;oLFkk ij
reversible when :
(A) surrounding and system change into (B) foys; rFkk foyk;d ds v.kqvksa dh dqy
each other. la[;k ij
(B) there is no boundary between system (C) foy;u esa foys; v.kqvksa dh la[;k ij
and surrounding.
(D) foys; v.kqvksa ds nzO;eku ij
(C) the surrounding is always in
equilibrium with the system.
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03 SAMPLE TEST PAPER (STP) | CLASS: XI TO XII MOVING STUDENTS
hc
56. For a hypothetical reaction X Y, the lw=k = }kjk rjaxnS/;Z ds ,d QksVksu dh
value of rate constant is 0.75 sec –1. If the ÅtkZ nh tkrh gSA (hc = 12400 eV Å, tc
concentration of X is reduced to half,
then value of rate constant is : Å esa gSA) = 620 nm ds fy, 2 QksVksu dh ÅtkZ
,d dkYifud vfHkfØ;k X Y ds fy,] nj Kkr dhft,A
fu;rkad dk eku 0.75 sec–1 gSA ;fn X dh (A) 2eV
(B) 3eV
lkUnzrk vk/kh de gksrh gS] rks nj fu;rkad dk (C) 4eV
eku gksxk& (D) dqN ugha dgk tk ldrkA
(A) 0.375 sec –1 (B) 0.75 sec–1
(C) 1.5 sec–1 (D) 0.1875 sec–1 61. Match list I with list II and select the correct
answer using the codes given below the
57. Solution having osmotic pressure nearer lists :
to that of an equimolar solution of List I List II
K4[Fe(CN)6] is: I.Cyanide Process A. Ultra pure Ge
og foy;u ftldk ijklj.k nkc K4[Fe(CN)6] II.Floatation process B.Pine oil
III.Electrolytic reduction C.Extraction of
ds leeksyj foy;u ds yxHkx cjkcj gksxk %& Al
(A) Na2SO4 (B) BaCl2 IV.Zone refining D.Extraction of Au
(C) Al2(SO4)3 (D) C12 H22O11 Codes:
(A) I–C, II–A,III–D,IV–B
58. Nitrogen is relatively inactive element
(B) I–D, II–B,III–C,IV–A
because
(C) I–C, II–B,III–D,IV–A
(A) Its atom has a stable electronic
(D) I–D, II–A,III–C,IV–B
configuration
(B) It has low atomic radius
lwph -I dks lwph-II ls feyku dhft, rFkk uhps
(C) Its electronegativity is fairly high fn;s x;s dwV dk mi;ksx djrs gq, lgh mÙkj
(D) Dissociation energy of its molecule is pqfu;s %&
fairly high lwph-I lwph-II
ukbVªkstu vis{kkd`r vfØ; RkRo gS D;ksfd I. lk;ukbM izde A.vfr 'kq) Ge
(A) bldk ijek.kq LFkk;h bysDVªkfud foU;kl
II. Iyou izde B.phM+ dk rsy
j[krk gSA III. oS|qr vi?kVuh; vip;u C. Al dk
(B) ;g de ijekf.o; f=kT;k j[krk gSA
fu"d"kZ.k
(C) bldh fo|qr _.krk vfr mPPk gksrh gSA
IV. {ks=k ifj'kks/ku D.Au dk
(D) bldh fo;kstu ÅtkZ vfr mPp gksrh gSA
fu"d"kZ.k
59. The order of decreasing ionisation
dwV%
enthalpy in alkali metals is : (A) I–C, II–A,III–D,IV–B
{kkj /kkrqvksa esa vk;uu ,UFkSYih dk ?kVrk Øe gS (B) I–D, II–B,III–C,IV–A
(C) I–C, II–B,III–D,IV–A
(A) Na > Li > K > Rb
(D) I–D, II–A,III–C,IV–B
(B) Rb < Na < K < Li
(C) Li > Na > K > Rb 62. The correct order of bond angles is :
(D) K < Li < Na < Rb cU/k dks.kksa dk lgh Øe fuEu gS %
(A) NO–2 > NO+2 > NO2
60. The energy of a photon of wavelength is
hc (B) NO+2 > NO–2 > NO2
given by the formula = .(hc=12400 eV (C) NO2+ > NO+2 > NO–2
Å, When is in Å). Find energy of (D) NO+2 > NO2 > NO–2
2 photons of = 620 nm
(A) 2eV 63. Which one of the following compounds on
(B) 3eV reaction with Na2O2 in alkaline medium
(C) 4eV gives yellow colour solution?
(D) can’t be predicted (A) Cr (OH)3 (B) Zn(OH)2
(C) Al(OH)3 (D) KOH
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03 SAMPLE TEST PAPER (STP) | CLASS: XI TO XII MOVING STUDENTS
fuEu esa ls dkSulk ;kSfxd {kkjh; ek/;e esa 68. º
Consider the cell potentials EMg2
| Mg
=
Na2O2 ds lkFk vfHkfØ;k dj ihys jax dk
– 2.37 V and EFe
º
3 = – 0.04 V. The best
foy;u nsrk gSa \ | Fe
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03 SAMPLE TEST PAPER (STP) | CLASS: XI TO XII MOVING STUDENTS
73. Which of the following compounds does
not give Cannizzaro reaction ?
(A) Acetophenone (B) Benzaldehyde
(C) Chloral (D) Pivaldehyde
fuEukafdr esa ls dkSu&lk ;kSfxd dSfutkjks
vfHkfØ;k ugha nsrk gS \
(A) ,lhVksfQukWu (B) csUtsfYMgkbM
(C) Dyksjy (D) fioSfYMgkbM
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SAMPLE TEST PAPER (STP)
Ans. B A B C B B B C B B
PART-I: Q.No. 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
MATHS
Ans. C D A B A A D D D B
Q.No. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Ans. C A D B D D D C B C
Q.No. 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
PART-II: Ans. A A D D B D D C A C
PHYSICS
Q.No. 41 42 43 44 45
Ans. A D A B B
Q.No. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55
Ans. C A A A A A B C B D
PART-II:
CHEMISTRY Q.No. 56 57 58 59 60
Ans. A B C C B
Q.No. 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70
PART-IV: Ans. C B C D D C D C D A
MENTAL
ABILITY Q.No. 71 72 73 74 75
Ans. B A C C A
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SAMPLE TEST PAPER (STP)
Ans. B A B B B A A A D B
PART-I: Q.No. 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
MATHS
Ans. B D D A D D B C D C
Q.No. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Ans. C D A C A D C D B D
Q.No. 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
Ans. B A C C A A B D D C
PART-II:
PHYSICS
Q.No. 41 42 43 44 45
Ans. A D B B D
Q.No. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55
PART-III: Ans. D C D C C B B A B B
CHEMISTRY
Q.No. 56 57 58 59 60
Ans. B B D C D
Q.No. 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70
PART-IV: Ans. B A B A D C D D C A
MENTAL
ABILITY Q.No. 71 972 73 74 75
Ans. B A C A D
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SAMPLE TEST PAPER (STP)
FOR CLASS-XII APPEARED / PASSED | SAMPLE TEST PAPER (STP)-3
Ans. A B D B A C B B C B
PART-A: Q.No. 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
MATHS Ans. A D C C C C C C A D
Q.No. 21 22 23 24 25
Ans. D A D B A
Q.No. 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35
Ans. A D B D A B A A B B
PART-B: Q.No. 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45
PHYSICS Ans. B A D D B B B A C D
Q.No. 46 47 48 49 50
Ans. B D A D A
Q.No. 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
Ans. A C D C C B C D C C
PART-C: Q.No. 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70
CHEMISTRY Ans. B D A C B D A C B A
Q.No. 71 72 73 74 75
Ans. A D A A B
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SAMPLE TEST PAPER (STP)
TEXT SOLUTIONS (TS)
SAMPLE TEST PAPER (STP)-1
FOR CLASS-X TO XI MOVING
PART-I: MATHS AD = 12 and DP = 5 AP = 13
so A > P > B. Since BP > AB > AP
3 2 3 2 3 2
1. x= = × 7.
3 2 3 2 3 2
= 52 6
x2 = (5 – 2 6 )2 = 49 – 20 6
3 2 3 2 3 2
y= = ×
3 2 3 2 3 2
= 52 6
y2 = (5 + 2 6 )2 = 49 + 20 6
3 2 3 2
& xy = × =1
3 2 3 2 In ABC
x2–xy+y2=49–20 6 – 1 + 49 + 20 6 = 97. BC2 = AB2 – AC2 = (17)2 – (15)2
= 289 – 225 = 64
2. (–1) is a factor of 1st equation and 2 is a BC = 8 cm.
factor of 2nd equation (–1)3+ 2(–1)2 – 5a(–1) Perimeter of quadrilateral ABCD
– 7 = R1, therefore, R1 = – 6 + 5a = AB + BC + CD + DA = 17 + 8 + 12 + 9
(B)3 + a(B)2- 24a + 6 = R2 , therefore, R2 = 8 = 46 cm.
+ 4a – 24a + 6 = 14 – 20a 17 15 8
2R1+ R2= 6 Area of ABC s = = 20
2(-6 + 5a) + 14 - 20a = 6 2
-12 + 10a + 14 - 20a = 6 Area = 20(20 17)(20 15)(20 8)
-10a = 4 = 20 3 5 12 = 10 × 6 = 60 cm 2.
a = -2/5. 9 12 15
Area of ADC s= =18
3. Refer to Answer Key (AK) 2
Area = 18(18 9)(18 12)(18 15)
4. BDC = 180º – BEC = 50°
= 18 9 6 3 = 18 × 3 = 54 cm 2.
5. Total area of quadrilateral ABCD
= 60 + 54 = 114 cm2.
8. Refer to Answer Key (AK)
9.
P
1 = 3 = 60º
2 = 180 – (65 + 60) = 55
4 = 180 – (75 + 60) = 45
D
5 = 180 – (55 + 45) = 80 C
5 = 6 = 80º
CXY = 180 – (80 + 60) = 40º.
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SAMPLE TEST PAPER (STP)
10. Area of a parallelogram = base × altitude 1
19. x 2 3 then x
2
= AB × AM = 15 × 12 = 180 cm 2
Similarly, x2
Area of a parallelogram = AD × CN = 180 Rationalising the denominator we get
AD × 18 = 180 1 1 2 3 2 3
AD = 10 cm. = × =
x 2 3 2 3 1
11. Refer to Answer Key (AK) 1 1
2
So x2 + = x –2
12. Refer to Answer Key (AK) x2 x
13. Volume of cylinder = volume of cone 1
Substituting the values of x &
csyu dk vk;ru = 'kadq dk vk;ru x
r2h =
1 2
3
r H x2 +
1
x2
= 2 3 2 3
2
–2
H = 3h = 3 × 10 = 30 1
x2 + = (D)2 – 2
14. Refer to Answer Key (AK) x2
15. Refer to Answer Key (AK) 1
x2 + = 14
x2
16. x 2 3 and xy=1 R
x 2 3 xy=1 x x
2
20.
3 1
m
1 n = 90
x y
2 2 3
P
p q d
D
S Q
3 1 x + m = n = 90º
x y 2 3
2 In RSQ
2 RSQ = x + p
3 1
y In RSQ
2
x + x + p + q = 180º
2x + p + q = 180º
3 1 2(90º – m) + p + q = 180º
y
2 180º – 2m + p + q = 180º
x
2 3
2 2 3 2m = p + q
pq
2 x 3 1 3 3 1 m= .
2 2
2
yy
=
2 3
2 2 3 21. Refer to Answer Key (AK)
22– yy 3 1 3 3 1 22. Refer to Answer Key (AK)
2
2
23. 3x = ay + 7
x y 2
2 3 2 3 y=bx+7
2 y 2 y 3
3 1 3 1
3(– 1) = a (– 5) + 7 – 5 = b (– 1) + 7
– 3 = – 5a + 7 – 5 = –b + 7
2 2 3
= 2 – 5a = – 10 – b = – 12
3 2 a = 2 b = 12
a + b = 14
17. Refer to Answer Key (AK)
D C
P
24.
18.
Q
A B
In APB and DQC
AB = CD
[Side of parallelogram]
ABD = QDC [Alternate angle]
BPA = CQD = 90º
ABP CDQ
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SAMPLE TEST PAPER (STP)
So, AP = CQ
C 33. Refer to Answer Key (AK)
D
m m
25. E 34. v = vf – vi = .
y x
F 1 F 2
A B 35. a = , S= m t ,
m 2
Ar (AED) × Ar (BCE)=Ar(ABE) × Ar (CDE)
Ft 2
26. ABCD is a cyclic WF = FS = F
quadrilateral, therefore, 2m
sum of opposite angles is v 330
180° 36. v n 1 . 29 m
n 256
A + C = 180° 1
2x + 3x = 180° 37. h1 = g (C)2 distance travelled by 1st object
5x = 180 2
x = 36° 1
h2 = g (B)2 distance travelled by 2nd object
2
27. Refer to Answer Key (AK) 1 5
h2 – h1 = g (9 – 4) = × 9.8 = 24.5
28. C.S.A. = 2rh 2 2
4224 = dh 1
gy h 1 = g (C) 2 1st oLrq }kjk r; dh xbZ nwjh
4224 7 2
d= = 64 cm
21 22 1
h2 = g (B) 2 2nd oLrq }kjk r; dh xbZ nwjh
2
29. total marks of boys = 75 1 5
numberof boys h2 – h1 = g (9 – 4) = × 9.8 = 24.5
total marks of boys = 75 × 70 = 5250 2 2
total marks of whole class 38. Refer to Answer Key (AK)
= 72
numberof students 39. Refer to Answer Key (AK)
total marks of whole class = 7200
total marks of girls = 7200 – 5250 = 1950 40. If two different bodies A and B are floating in
1950 the same liquid then
Avg. marks of girls = = 65
30 A (fin )A 1/ 2 3
B (fin )B 2 / 3 4
30. A leap year has 366 days is 52 weeks and
2 days. The 2 days can be chosen in 7 ways. ;fn nks fi.M A rFkk B leku nzo esa rSj jgs gS rks
They are (Mon, Tue), (Tue, Wed), (Wed, A (fin )A 1/ 2 3
Thu), (Thu, Fri), (Fri, Sat), (Sat, Sun)
B (fin )B 2 / 3 4
and (Sun, Mon).
n(E) = 1 (Sun, Mon) P2
n(S) = 7 41. KE = =1
2m
P(E) = 1/7
42. Time lost in covering the distance of 2 km by
PART-II: PHYSICS the sound waves t
d 2000
6 .06 sec 6 s.
1 v 330
31. S = u + a(2n – 1)
2 1 2 1
43. x = gt = × 9.8 × ( 4) 2
1 2 2
S=0+ × 8 (2 × 5 – 1) = 4 × 9.8 × 2 = 9.8 × 8 = 78.4 m
2
S = 4 (9) = 36 m 44.
32.
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24. y 32.
A B
2
1
x
–5 –4 –3 –2 –1 1 2 3 4 5
D C
42.
tgk¡ R, vk/ks rkj dk izfrjks/k gSA
.
R2 = =
2
A.2 4A
V2
P2 = . 4A .....(iv)
Hence, from Eqs. (iii) and (iv)
vr% lehdj.k (iii) o (iv) ls
P1 1 P2 4
= = Ans.
P2 4 P1 1
×2+8 ×2+9 × 2 + 10 × 2 + 11
LOAFKXOV V O X K F A O L
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a= 2 1
9. Since (0, 0) and (2 + 1, – 1) lie on the
2ae = SS = 2 e = 2 –1 same side of x – 10y – 2 = 0
1 –2 (2 + 1 – 10 ( – 1) – 2) > 0
2. N = log3 79. log1/8 3 . log5 – 10 + 9 < 0
2
8
1<<9
= log3 79. log 3 . log5 2 –3 least integral value of is 2
23
greatest integral value of is 8
1 28
= log3 79 log2 3 (– 3) log52 A.M. = =5
3 2
= log3 79 . log2 3 . log52 = log579
10. tan84 = tan(73 + 11)
Now 25 < 79 < 125
2 = log525 < log575 < log5125 = 3 tan730 tan110
=
a = 2, b = 3 1– tan730 tan110
xAC ( A B = A C)
xC lHkh x ds ekuksa – – + – +
Hence x B xC –
1 O 1
ds fy, f(x) = 2x 2 2
B C (i)
Similarly we can prove C B (ii) 1
– ; (x 0)
By (i), (ii), B = C x
Hindi ekuk x B 2x 2 1 1
fLFkfr-1 x A xAB
f(x) = >0 ;fn x , 0
x 2
xAC ( A B = A C)
13
xC 12. lim f(x) = , lim f(x) = – 3
fLFkfr-2 x A xAB x 2 4 x2
f(x) is discontinuous at x = 2
xAC ( A B = A C) lim f(x) = –11 , lim f(x) = 0
xC x 4 x 4
= (2cos ec x – 1)dx
2 20. G.E. fn;k x;k O;atd = cos tan– 1 sin cot– 1
1
= – 2 cot x – x + C 2
14. xy = e x – y 2
i.e. y nx = x – y = cos tan– 1 sin sin–1
5
x 2
i.e. y= = cos tan– 1
1 nx
5
dy nx
= 2 5
dx (1 nx)2 = cos tan– 1 =
5 3
15. Plane ry x + 5y + z = 5
21. a2 + b2 + c2 – 2a – 4b – 6c = 14
2 – 10 3 – 5 10 (a – 1)2 + (b – 2)2 + (c – 3)2 = 0
= =
12 52 12 27 a – 1 = 0, b – 2 = 0, c – 3 = 0
a+b+c=6
16. 13 – 23 + 33 ...... + 93
= 13 ..... 93 –2 2 3
43 63 83 22.
dy
+
1 y2
=0
dx 1 x2
2 2
9 10 45 dy dx
= – 16 × + =0
2 2 1 y2 1 x2
= (45)2 – 1600 tan–1 y + sin–1 x = c
= 2025 – 1600 = 425
dy
cos2 x – 1 23. = 12 – 3x2 = 0 x = ± 2
17. L = lim dx
x 0 cos x.x 2 ( x 1)
Hence points are
sin x
2
1 vr% fcUnq (2, 16 ) (– 2, – 16 ). gSA
= lim – 2
cos x( x 1) = – 1
x 0
x
24. f ' (x) = 5x2 (x – 1) (x – 3) = 0
_
18. ab = 3 + | + | | +
0 1 3
1 at x = 1 is maxima x = 1 ij mfPp"B
1 + 1 + 2a . b = 3 a.b =
2 at x = 3 is minima x = 3 ij fufEu"B
Nowvc, 2a 5b . 3a b a b = 6 + 5 2
3x–7
2
3–7x
25. 5 =
39 5
+ 17 a . b =
2
1 ph 3x – 7 = 3 – 7x x = 1
19. tan = andvkSj tan 2=
2 2h
2tan ph 1
tan 2 = =
1– tan
2
2h 1–
1
4
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1
PART-II: PHYSICS vko`fÙk ds c<+us ij /kkfjrh; izfr?kkr XC
2C
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45. As the total distance is divided into two 53. HCOONa, being salt of weak acid, strong
equal parts therefore distance averaged base, solution is basic; KCN, being salt of
2v 1v 2 strong base, weak acid, solution is basic.
speed HCOONa, nqcZy vEy o izcy {kkj dk yo.k
v1 v 2
gksrk gS vr% foy;u {kkjh; gSA KCN izcy {kkj]
1 2
46. As S ut at nqcZy vEy dk yo.k gS] vr% foy;u {kkjh; gksrk
2
gSA
1
S1 a(10)2 50a .....(i)
2 54. Refer to Answer Key (AK)
As v u at velocity acquired 55. Colligative property of a solution depends
by particle in 10 sec v a 10 on no. of particles of solute in solution.
For next 10 sec , foy;u ds v.kqla[;d xq.k/keZ foy;u esa foys;
1 d.kksa dh la[;k ij fuHkZj djrs gSA
S2 (10a) 10 (a) (10)2
2 56. Rate constant is independent of initial
S2 150a .....(ii) concentration.
From (i) and (ii) S1 S2 / 3 nj fu;rkad izkjfEHkd lkUnzrk ls LorU=k gksrk
gSA
47. Refer to Answer Key (AK)
57. Osmotic pressure will be same for
48. Pressure = 1.01 × 10 5 Pa equimolar solutions if Van't Hoff factor is
Area = 50 × 10 = 500 cm 2 = 0.05 m 2 same.
Force leku okUV gkWQ xq.kkad okys leeksyj foy;uksa
Pressure =
Area dk ijklj.k nkc leku gksxkA
Force = Pressure × Area K4[Fe(CN)6] i = 1 + (n–1) = 1 + 4 = 5
Force = 1.01 × 105 × 0.05 = 5.05 × 10 3 N Al2(SO4)3 i = 1 + (n–1) = 1 + 4 = 5
58. Refer to Answer Key (AK)
49. Weight of body is air = 30 N 59. Refer to Answer Key (AK)
Weight of body in water = 26N
60. Refer to Answer Key (AK)
Loss in weight of body = 30 – 26 = 4N
Weight of body in air 61. Cyanide process is for gold ( I– D) ;
Relative density =
Loss in weight of body floatation process – pine oil (II–B) ;
Electrolytic reduction – Al (III –C) ; Zone
30
= = 7.5 refining – Ge ( IV – A).
4
xksYM ds fy, lk;ukbM izde ( I– D) ; Iyou
50. An aeroplane flies 400 m north and 300 m izde&phM dk rsy (II–B) ; oS|qrvi?kVuh;
south so the net displacement is 100 m
vip;u – Al (III –C); {ks=k ifj'kks/ku& Ge
towards north.
( IV – A)
Then it flies 1200 m upward so
r (100 )2 (1200 )2 62. Refer to Answer Key (AK)
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66. Z = 118 [Rn]86 5f14 6d10 7s2 7p6; as last D;ksafd lYQkbM (S2–) bldh U;wure
electron enters in p-subshell, it belongs vkWDlhdj.k voLFkk es gS blfy, ;g ,d
to p-block. Thus its group number will
be 10 + 2 + 6 = 18. Hence the element is
vkWDlhdkjd ds leku dk;Z ugha dj ldrk gSA
a noble gas. 71. Aliphatic amines are more basic than
Z = 118 [Rn]86 5f14 6d10 7s2 7p6; pwafd aromatic amines generally. Amides are
vfUre bysDVªkWu p-midks'k esa izos'k dj jgk gSa ] least basic because of delocalization of
blfy, ;g p-CykWd ls lone pairs with carbonyl group.
lEcfU/kr gSaA vr% bldh lewg la[;k 10 + 2 ,fyQsfVd ,ehu lekU;r% ,sjkseSfVd ,ehuksa dh
+ 6 = 18 gksxhA bl izdkj ls mijksDr rRo
rqyuk esa vf/kd {kkjh; gksrs gSaA ,ekbM ds
ukscy xSl gSaA ukbVªkstu dk ,dkdh bysDVªkWu ;qXe dkcksZfuy
lewg ds lkFk foLFkkfudj.k ds dkj.k de {kkjh;
67. Refer to Answer Key (AK) gksrk gSA
68. Lowest S.R.P., highest reducing power.
72. Refer to Answer Key (AK)
U;wure ekud vip;u foHko mPpre vip;u
{kerkA 73. Refer to Answer Key (AK)
74. Refer to Answer Key (AK)
69. ƒH(–) = 0
75. Refer to Answer Key (AK)
70. As sulphide (S2–) is in its lowest oxidation
state. Hence it cannot act as a oxidising
agent.
------------- TEXT SOLUTION (TS) END -------------
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STUDENT’S SPACE
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