JEE Main 2023 13 April Shift 2
JEE Main 2023 13 April Shift 2
JEE Main 2023 13 April Shift 2
(1)
3
4
4 2 1 (2) 4 2 1
4
3
(3)
3
4
4 2 1 (4)
4
3
4 2 1
Sol. (2)
0
–2 0 2
–2
2 4
4
Required area = 2 ydy 4 ydy 4 2 1
1 2 3
cxe cx
eax cos bx
2. If lim 2 17 , then 5a2+b2 is equal to
x 0 1 cos 2x
(1) 76 (2) 72 (3) 64 (4) 68
Sol. (4)
cxecx
eax cos bx
lim 2 17
x 0 1 cos 2x
On expansion
(ax) 2 (bx) 2 cx (cx) 2
1 ax ... 1 ... 1 cx
lim 2! 2! 2 2!
17
x 0 1 cos 2 x
(2 x)
2
2
(2x)
c a 2 b2 c2
x a x2
2 2 2 2
lim 17
x 0 1 2
(4x )
2
For limit to be exist
c
a 0 c 2a
2
a 2 b 2 c2
2 2 2 17
2
a 2 b 2 4a 2
34
2 2 2
5a 2 b2 68
x 3 y 1 z 5
3. The line, that is coplanar to the line , is
3 1 5
x 1 y 2 z 5 x 1 y 2 z 5
(1) (2)
1 2 5 1 2 5
x 1 y 2 z 5 x 1 y 2 z 5
(3) (4)
1 2 4 1 2 4
Sol. (1)
Condition of co-planarity
x 2 x1 a 1 a 2
y 2 y1 b1 b 2 0
z 2 z1 c1 c 2
Where a1, b1, c1 are direction cosine of 1st line and a2, b2, c2 are direction cosine of 2nd line.
Now. Solving options
Point (-3, 1, 5) & point (-1, 2, 5)
3 1 5
1 1 2 5
2 1 0
= –3(5) – (10) + 5(– 1 + 4)
= – 15 – 10 + 15 = – 10
(2) point (–1, 2, 5)
3 1 5
1 2 5
2 1 0
= 3(5) – (10) + 5(1 + 4)
– 25 + 5 = 0
(3) point (-1, 2, 5)
3 1 5
1 2 4
2 1 0
–3(4) – (8) + 5(1 + 4)
–12 –8 + 25 = 5
(4) point (–1, 2, 5)
3 1 5
1 2 5
4 1 0
–3(–5) – (–20) + 5(–1 – 8)
15 + 20 – 45=–10
4. The plane, passing through the points (0, -1, 2) and (-1, 2, 1) and parallel to the line passing through (5,1,-7)
and (1,-1,-1), also passes through the point
(1) (0, 5, -2) (2) (-2, 5, 0)
(3) (2, 0, 1) (4) (1, -2, 1)
Sol. (2)
Plane passing through (0, –1, 0) and (–1, 2, 1)
Then vector in plane 1,3, 1 vector parallel to plane is 4,2, 6
ˆi ˆj kˆ
Normal vector to plane n 1 3 1
4 2 6
C B
< α, β, γ >
CA AB CB
4,3, . 2,1,3 CB
CB 2, 4,3
ˆi ˆj kˆ
AB AC 2 1 3
4 3
ˆ 9 ˆj 2 12 k 10
AB AC 9 2 12 10
2 2 2 2
1 2 3
6. Let for A= 3 1 , A 2. If |2 adj (2 adj (2A))| = 32n, then 3n + is equal to
1 1 2
(1) 10 (2) 9 (3) 12 (4) 11
Sol. (4)
|A| = 2
adj(kA) = km–1 adjA {m = order of matrix}
2
adj(2A) = 2 adjA = 4adj(A)
adj (2adj (2A)) = adj (8adj A)
= 82 adj adj (A)
|2 adj 2adj (2A)| = |27 adj adj (A)|
2
= (27 )3 | A |2
= 221 | A |4
= 221.24
225 (32) n
225 25n
n=5
|A| = 2
(6 1) 2(2 1) 3( 3) 2
5 4 2 3 9
4
3n 11
x2
7. The range of f(x) = 4 sin-1 2 is
x 1
(1) [0, π) (2) [0, π] (3) [0, 2π) (4) [0, 2π]
Sol. (3)
x2
f (x) 4sin 1 2
1 x
x2
0 1
1 x2
x2
0 sin 1 2
1 x 2
x2
0 4sin 1 2
2
1 x
Range : [0,2)
8. Let a1, a2, a3, .... be a G. P. of increasing positive numbers. Let the sum of its 6th and 8th terms be 2 and the
1
product of its 3rd and 5th terms be . Then 6(a2 + a4) (a4+ a6) is equal to
9
(1) 2 (2) 3 (3) 3 3 (4) 2 2
Sol. (2)
1
a 3 .a 5
9
1
ar 2 .ar 4
9
1
2
ar 3
9
1
ar 3 …(i)
3
a 6 a8 2
ar5 ar 7 2
ar 3 (r 2 r 4 ) 2
1
r 2 (1 r 2 ) 2
3
r 2 (1 r 2 ) 2 3
r2 2 r 2
a 3
3 r
1
3 2 2 6 2
6(a 2 a 4 )(a 4 a 6 )
6(ar ar 3 )(ar 3 ar 5 )
ar 3 1 1 1
6 2 r2 3
r 3 3 3
9. If the system of equations
2x+y -z=5
2x-5y+z=
x+2y-5z=7
has infinitely many solutions, then (+)2 + (-)2 is equal to
(1) 904 (2) 916 (3) 912 (4) 920
Sol. 2
Δ0
2 1 1
2 5 λ 0
1 2 5
2(25 2 λ) 1(10 λ) 1(4 5) 0
51 3x 0
λ 17
Δx 0
5 1 1
5 17 0
7 2 5
5(25 34) 1(5 119) 1(2 35) 0
45 5 119 2 35 0
39 3 0 13
( ) 2 ( ) 2 42 (30) 2
916
p ~ q
P q
~ pq
P q
~ p ~ q
P q
p ~ q ~ p q ~ p ~ q
,
(~ p) (~ q)
Plane passing through 0, 1, 2
and 1,2,1
then vector in plane 1,3, 1
vector parallel to plane is 4, 2, 6
normal vector to plane L 2
ˆl ˆj kˆ
n 1 3 1
4 2 6
7 5
(1) 4 (2) (3) 3 (4)
2 2
Sol. (1)
Let z = x + iy
z i(z 2 Re(z))
x iy i(x 2 y 2 2ixy x)
x iy 2xy i(x 2 y 2 x)
x 2xy 0 and x 2 y 2 x y 0
x(1 2y) 0 and x 2 y 2 x y 0
If x = 0 then y2 y 0
y 1,0
1 1 1
If y then x 2 x 0
2 4 2
3 1
x ,
2 2
3 1 1 1
0 i0,0 i, i, i
2 2 2 2
9 1 1 1
| Z |2 0 1 4
ZS 4 4 4 4
12. Let , be the roots of the equation x2 2x +2=0, Then 14+ is equal to
(1) 128 2 (2) 64 2 (3) –128 (4) –64
Sol. (3)
x2 2x 2 0
2 6
x
2
1 i 3
2
2
2, 22
2, 22
14 14 27 (14 28 ) 27 (2 ) –128
2
13. Let a =2, b = 3 and the angle between the vectors a and b be . Then a 2b 2a 3b is equal to
4
(1) 482 (2) 841 (3) 882 (4) 441
Sol. (3)
a.b
cos
4 a b
1 a.b
a.b 3 2
2 2 3
Let p a 2b
q 2a 3b
2
p a 4 b 4 a.b
2 2
4 36 12 2
40 12 2
2
q 4 a 9 b 12 a b
2 2
16 81 36 2
97 36 2
2
p.q 2 a 6 b a.b
2
8 54 3 2
46 3 2
p q p q p.q
2 2
2
40 12 2 97 36 2 3 2 46
3016 276 2 2134 276 2
882
4
e 4
e x tan 50 xdx
0
14. The value of
is
e tan x tan 51 x dx
4
x
I2 49
0
e x tan 49 x sec 2 x dx
4
0
tan 50 x 4
1 4
e
x x
e tan 50 xdx
50 0
50 0
/4
e 4 1 I1
e
x
tan 50 xdx
50 50 0
50
I1
then 50
I2
5
1
15. The coefficient of x5 in the expansion of 2x 3 2 is
3x
80 26
(1) (2) 8 (3) 9 (4)
9 3
Sol. (1)
5
1
general term for 2x 3 2
3x
r
1
Tr 1 5Cr 2 (2x 3 )5 r
3x
5Cr (1)r 3 r 25r.x155r
15 5r 5 r 2
Coeff. Of x 5 5C2 (1)2 32 23
1
10 8
9
80
=
9
16. The random variable X follows binomial distribution B (n, p), for which the difference of the mean and the
variance is 1. If 2P(x = 2) = 3P(x = 1), then n2P(X > 1) is equal to
(1) 16 (2) 11 (3) 12 (4) 15
Sol. 2
2P(x 2) 3P(x 1)
2 n c 2 P 2 (1 P) n 2 3 n c1P1 (1 P) n 1
n(n 1)
2 P 3n(1 P)
2
(n 1)P 3(1 P) (i)
nP nPq 1
nP nP(1 p) 1
1
nP 2 1 n 2
p
put in equ (i)
1
2 1 P 3(1 p)
p
1
P 3 3P
p
1 P 2 3P 3p 2
2P2 3P 1 0
2P2 2P P 1 0
2P(P 1) 1(P 1) 0
1
P , P 1{Re jected}
2
1
n 4
(1/ 2) 2
n 2 P(x 1) n 2 p(1 P(x 0) P(x 1))
n 2 P 1 (1 P)n nP(1 P)n 1
1 4 2
4
(4) 1 4
2
2 2
16 1 4 11
17. Let the centre of a circle C be (,) and its radius r < 8. Let 3x + 4y =24 and 3x – 4y = 32 be two tangents and
4x + 3y =1 be a normal to C. Then (– +r) is equal to
(1) 5 (2) 6 (3) 7 (4) 9
Sol. (3)
L1
,
L2
3 3
(reject) 7
18. Let N be the foot of perpendicular from the point P (1, –2, 3) on the line passing through the points (4, 5, 8) and
(1, –7. 5). Then the distance of N from the plane 2x–2y+z+5=0 is
(1) 6 (2) 7 (3) 9 (4) 8
Sol. (2)
P 1, 2,3
N ሺℓ + 1, 4ℓ − 7, ℓ + 5ሻ
PN , 4 5, 2
PN. 1, 4,1 0
16 20 2 0
1
N 2, 3,6
Distance of N from 2x 2y z 5 0 is
2 2 2 3 6 5
d
22 2 1
2 2
21
7
3
19. All words, with or without meaning, are made using all the letters of the word MONDAY. These words are
written as in a dictionary with serial numbers. The serial number of the word MONDAY is
(1) 328 (2) 327 (3) 324 (4) 326
Sol. (2)
5!
A 120
5!
D 120
4!
M A 24
4!
M D 24
4!
M N 24
3!
M O A 6
3!
M O D 6
2!
M O N A 2
M O N D A Y 1
Rank = 120 + 120 + 24 + 24 + 24 + 6 + 6 + 2 + 1
= 327
20. Let (, ) be the centroid of the triangle formed by the lines 15x–y = 82, 6x–5y= –4 and 9x + 4y =17. Then
+ 2 and – are the roots of the equation
(1) x2–13x+42=0 (2 )x2–10x+25=0 (3) x2–7x+12=0 (4) x2–14x+48=0
Sol. (1)
A (6,8)
6 1 5 8 7 2
Centroid , , 4,1
3 3
2 4 2 6
2 8 1 7
Quadratic equation
x2 6 7 x 6 7 0
x 2 13x 42 0
SECTION - B
21. Let A={-4,-3,-2,0,1,3,4} and R = {(a, b) A×A: b = |a| or b2 = a+ 1} be a relation on A. Then the minimum
number of elements, that must be added to the relation R so that it becomes reflexive and symmetric, is
_________
Sol. (7)
R = [(–4, 4), (–3, 3), (3, –2), (0, 1), (0, 0), (1, 1),
(4, 4), (3, 3)}
For reflexive, add (–2, –2), (–4, –4), (–3, –3)
For symmetric, add (4, –4), (3, –3), (–2, 3), (1, 0)
n 2
n
22. Let f n sin k 1x 2k 1 sin k 1x cos xdx,n N. Then f21 – f20 is equal to _______
0 k 1 k 1
Sol. (41)
/2 n k 1
n
k 1
fn sin x 2k 1 sin x cosxdx
0
k 1 k 1
sinx t
cos xdx dt
1 n n
fn tk 1 2k 1 tk 1 dt
0
k 1 k 1
1 t t2 ...tn1 1 3t 5t2 .... 2n 1 tn1 dt
1
1 n1 n1
fn1 tk 1 2k 1 tk 1 dt
0
k 1 k 1
1 t t2 ...tn 1 3t 5t2 .... 2n 1 tn dt
1
1 t t2 ...tn1 2n 1 tn dt
1
put n 20
f21 f20 1 3t 5t2 ...41.t20 t20dt 1 t t2 ...t19 41.t20 dt
1 1
0 0
1 3 5 39 41 41 41 41
21 22 23 40 41 21 22 40
1 41 3 41 39 41
... 1 40 1 41
21 22 40
dy 4x x2
23. If y = y(x) is the solution of the differential equation 2 y , x 1 such that
dx x – 1 5
x 2
1 2
2
y 2 log e 2 3 and y 2 log e , Nthen is equal to ___.
9
Sol. (6)
dy 4x x 2
given differential equation 2 y is linear D.E.
dx x 1 x 1
2 5/2
dx e 2ln x 1 e ln x 2 1 x 2 1
4x 2 2
I.F.
e
x 2
1
x 2
y x 2 1 x 1 dx
2 2 2
x 1
2 5/2
x 2dx
dx
x2 1 x2 1
x2 1 2ln x x2 1 C
2
put y 2 ln 2 3
9
2
9
ln 2 3 9 3 2ln 2 3 C
C 3
put x 2
y 1 2ln 2 1 3
2, 1 3
2 1 3 6
24. Total numbers of 3-digit numbers that are divisible by 6 and can be formed by using the digits 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 with
repetition, is _____.
Sol. 16
a b 2
10
26. Let f x k x k , x R If 2 f(2) –f ' (2) = 119(2)n + 1 then n is equal to ____
k 1
Sol. 10
10
f (x) kx k
k 1
x 1 x10
f (x)(1 x) 10x11
1 x
x 1 x10 10x11
f (x)
(1 x)2 (1 x)
f (2) 2 g(2)11
(1 – x)2 f(x) = x(1 – x10) –10x11 (1 – x)
diff. w.r.t. x
(1 x) 2 f (2) f (2)2(1 x)( 1)
28. The mean and standard deviation of the marks of 10 students were found to be 50 and 12 respectively, Later, it
was observed that two marks 20 and 25 were wrongly read as 45 and 50 respectively. Then the correct variance
is ______.
Sol. 269
x
Mean i
10
x
50 i
10
xi 500
correct xi 500 45 50 20 25 450
xi2
2
2 x
10
x 2
144 i 2500
10
xi2 26440
correct xi2 26440 45 50 20 25
2 2 2 2
= 26440-2025-2500+400+625
= 22940
2
correctxi2 correctx i
2
10 10
2
22940 450
= 2294 – 2025
10 10
269
3
29. The foci of a hyperbola are ( 2, 0) and its eccentricity is . A tangent, perpendicular to the line 2x + 3y = 6,
2
is drawn at a point in the first quadrant on the hyperbola. If the intercepts made by the tangent on the x and y -
axes are a and b respectively, then |6a| + |5b| is equal to ______.
Sol. 12
2ae 4
3
2a 4
2
4
a
3
b2
e2 1
a2
9 9
1 b2
4 16
5 16 20
b2
4 9 9
3
slope of tangent m
2
equation of tangent is
y mx a2m2 b2
3 16 9 20
y x
2 9 4 9
3x 4
y
2 3
8
y 0a
9
4
x 0 b
3
16 20
6a 5b 12
3 3
30. Let [] denote the greatest integer . Then 1 2 3 .... 120 is equal to ____.
Sol. 825
S 1 2 3 .... 120
1 3 1 3
4 8 2 5
9 15 3 7
100 120 10 21
S 1 3 2 5 3 7 ... 10 21
10
r(2r 1)
r 1
10 10
2 r2 r
r 1 r 1
2 10 11 21 10 11
6 2
= 770 + 55
= 825
SECTION - A
31. Given below are two statements :
Statements I : An AC circuit undergoes electrical resonance if it contains either a capacitor or an inductor.
Statement II : An AC circuit containing a pure capacitor or a pure inductor consumes high power due to its
non-zero power factor.
In the light of above statements, choose the correct answer form the options given below :
(1) Statement I is false but Statement II is true
(2) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
Sol. (3)
Statement-I: An AC circuit for resonance inductor and capacitor both should required.
Statement-II: An AC circuit containing a pure capacitor and pure inductor have no power loss
For resonance, = 0
means both capacitor and inductor must be present.
32. A passenger sitting in a train A moving at 90 km/h observes another train B moving in the opposite direction
for 8 s. if the velocity of the train B is 54 km/h, then length of train B is :
(1) 120 m (2) 200 m (3) 320 m (4) 80 m
Sol. (3)
90km
VA 25ms 1
hr
54km
VB 15ms 1
hr
VBA VB VA 40ms 1
Length of train
Time of crossing
Re lative velocity
8
40
8 40 320 meter
33. The output from a NAND gate having inputs A and B given below will be,
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
Sol. (1)
Truth table for NAND gate is
A B Y A.B
0 0 1
0 1 1
1 0 1
1 1 0
On the basis of given input A and B the truth table is
A B Y
1 1 0
0 0 1
0 1 1
1 0 1
1 1 0
0 0 1
0 1 1
34. The distance travelled by an object in time t is given by s = (2.5)t2. The instantaneous speed of the object at t =
5 s will be :
(1) 25 ms-1 (2) 12.5 ms-1 (3) 5 ms-1 (4) 62.5 ms-1
Sol. (1)
S 2.5t 2
ds
Speed v 5t
dt
At, t 5sec.
v 5 5 25ms 1
35. In a Young's double slits experiment, the ratio of amplitude of light coming from slits is 2 : 1. The ratio of the
maximum to minimum intensity in the interference pattern is :
(1) 9 : 1 (2) 9 : 4 (3) 2 : 1 (4) 25 : 9
Sol. (1)
Given that
A1 2
A2 1
I max A1 A 2
2
9
I min A1 A 2 2
1
9 :1
36. Given below are two statements : one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R
Assertion A : The binding energy per nucleon is practically independent of the atomic number for nuclei of
mass number in the range 30 to 170.
Reason R : Nuclear force is short ranged.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below
(1) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
(2) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(3) A is true but R is false
(4) A is false but R is true
Sol. (2)
37. Two planets A and B of radii R and 1.5 R have densities and /2 respectively. The ratio of acceleration due
to gravity at the surface of B to A is :
(1) 2 : 3 (2) 2 : 1 (3) 4 : 3 (4) 3 : 4
Sol. (4)
4
G R 3
GM 3 4
g 2 2
GPR
R R 3
g 2 R 2 2 1 3
1.5
g1 R 1 1 2 4
38. The mean free path of molecules of a certain gas at STP is 1500d, where d is the diameter of the gas molecules.
While maintaining the standard pressure, the mean free path of the molecules at 373 K is approximately :
(1) 750d (2) 1500d (3) 1098d (4) 2049d
Sol. (4)
mean free path
RT
2 d 2 N A P
T
1500d 273
373
2049d
39. To radiate EM signal of wavelength with high efficiency, the antennas should have a minimum size equal to:
(1) (2) (3) 2 (4)
2 4
Sol. (4)
Minimum length of antenna
Should be
4
40. A particle executes SHM of amplitude A. The distance from the mean position when its's kinetic energy
becomes equal to its potential energy is :
1 1
(1) 2A (2) A (3) A (4) 2A
2 2
Sol. (3)
K.E = P.E
1 1
M 2 ( A2 x 2 ) M 2 x 2
2 2
( A2 x 2 ) x 2
2x 2 A2
A
x
2
41. In an electromagnetic wave, at an instant and at a particular position, the electric field is along the negative z
axis and magnetic field is along the positive x-axis. Then the direction of propagation of electromagnetic wave
is :
(1) negative y-axis (2) at 45o angle from positive y-axis
(3) positive y-axis (4) positive z-axis
Sol. (1)
Direction of propagation of EM wave will be in the direction of E B
42. Given below are two statements :
Statement I : Out of microwaves, infrared rays and ultraviolet rays, ultraviolet rays are the most effective for
the emission of electrons from a metallic surface.
Statement II : Above the threshold frequency, the maximum kinetic energy of photoelectrons is inversely
proportional to the frequency of the incident light.
In the light of above statements, choose the correct answer form the options given below
(1) Statement I is false but statement II is true
(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
(3) Statement I is true but statement II is false
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
Sol. (3)
UV rays have maximum frequency hence are most effective for emission of electrons from the metallic surface.
KEmax hf hf0
44. A vehicle of mass 200 kg is moving along a levelled curved road of radius 70 m with angular velocity of 0.2
rad/s. The centripetal force acting on the vehicle is:
(1) 2800 N (2) 560 N (3) 2240 N (4) 14 N
Sol. (2)
Fc m2r 200 0.2 70
2
560N
45. A 10 C charge is divided into two parts and placed at 1 cm distance so that the repulsive force between them
is maximum. The charges of the two parts are:
(1) 7 C, 3 C (2) 8 C, 2 C (3) 9 C, 1 C (4) 5 C, 5 C
Sol. (4)
Divide q 10c into parts x and q x
K x q x
F
r2
For F to be maximum
dF
0
dx
q 10C
x = 5 C
2 2
q – x = 10C – 5C = 5 C
a
46. In the equation x 2 [Y – b] = RT, X is pressure, Y is volume, R is universal gas constant ant T is
y
a
temperature. The physical quantity equivalent to the ratio is :
b
(1) Coefficient of viscosity (2) Energy
(3) Impulse (4) Pressure gradient
Sol. (2)
a
x and 2 have same dimensions
y
y and b have same dimensions
a ML5 T 2
b L3
a ML2 T 2
has dimension of energy
b
47. An electron is moving along the positive x-axis. If the uniform magnetic field is applied parallel to the negative
z-axis, then
A. The electron will experience magnetic force along positive y-axis
B. The electron will experience magnetic force along negative y-axis
C. The electron will not experience any force in magnetic field
D. The electron will continue to move along the positive x-axis
E. The electron will move along circular path in magnetic field
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
(1) B and E only (2) A and E only (3) B and D only (4) C and D only
Sol. (1)
F q V B
F e V B
Force will be along ve y axis As magnetic force is r to velocity, path of electron must be circle.
48. Given below are two statements : one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R
Assertion A : A spherical body of radius (5 0.1) mm having a particular density is falling through a liquid
of constant density. The percentage error in the calculation of its terminal velocity is 4%
Reason R : The terminal velocity of the spherical body falling through the liquid is inversely proportional to
its radius.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below
(1) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
(2) Both A and R true and R is the correct explanation of A
(3) A is false but R is true
(4) A is true but R is false
Sol. (4)
Terminal velocity of a spherical body in liquid
Vt r 2
Vt r
2
Vt r
Vt 0.1
100% 2 100 4%
Vt 5
Also, Vt r 2
Reason (R) is false
49. The initial pressure and volume of an ideal gas are Po and Vo. The final pressure of the gas when the gas is
Vo
suddenly compressed to volume will be :
4
(Given = ratio of specific heats at constant pressure and at constant volume)
1
50. In the network shown below, the charge accumulated in the capacitor in steady state will be :
i1 i1
i2
4𝜇F 6Ω
i1 6Ω i1
In steady state, no current will pass through capacitor hence capacitor will act as open circuit.
i2 = 0
3 3
i1 A
6 4 10
3
Potential difference on 6 resistor 6 1.8 volt capacitor will have same potential so charge
10
cv 4 1.8 7.2c
SECTION - B
51. In an experiment with sonometer when a mass of 180 g is attached to the string, it vibrates with fundamental
frequency of 30 Hz. When a mass m is attached, the string vibrates with fundamental frequency of 50 Hz. The
value of m is _______ g.
Sol. (500)
1 T
f
2
f2 T
2
f1 T1
2
50 mg
30 180g
25
m 180 500gram
9
52. Two plates A and B have thermal conductivities 84 Wm-1 K-1 and 126 Wm-1K-1 respectively. They have same
surface area and same thickness. They are placed in contact along their surfaces. If the temperatures of the outer
surfaces of A and B are kept at 100 oC and 0 oC respectively, then the temperature of the surface of contact in
steady state is ______ oC.
Sol. (40)
A B
TA = 100°C T TB = 0°C
Sol. (75)
A
4Ω
I1
3Ω I2
12v
6𝜇F
C D
9Ω 2Ω
I1
I2
B
12
I1 1A
39
12
I2 2A
42
VA VC 3I1 3V
VA VD 2 4 8V
So, VA VD 5V
1 1
U CV 2 6 52 75J
2 2
54. A light rope is wound around a hollow cylinder of mass 5 kg and radius 70 cm. The rope is pulled with a force
of 52.5 N. The angular acceleration of the cylinder will be ________ rad s-2.
Sol. (15)
I
FR mR 2
F 52.5
15rads 2
mR 5 0.7
55. A straight wire AB of mass 40 g and length 50 cm is suspended by a pair of flexible leads in uniform magnetic
field of magnitude 0.40 T as shown in the figure. The magnitude of the current required in the wire to remove
the tension in the supporting leads is _______A. (Take g = 10 ms-2)
Sol. (2)
For equilibrium :
Mg IlB
Mg 40 10 3 10
I 2A
lB 50 10 2 0.4
56. An insulated copper wire of 100 turns is wrapped around a wooden cylindrical core of the cross-sectional area
24 cm2. The two ends of the wire are connected to a resistor. The total resistance in the circuit is 12 . If an
externally applied uniform magnetic field in the core along its axis changes from 1.5 T in one direction to 1.5 T
in the opposite direction, the charge flowing through a point in the circuit during the change of magnetic field
will be ______ mC.
Sol. (60)
2NBA
Q
R R
2 100 1.5 24 10 4
12
6 102 c
60mc
57. A bi convex lens of focal length 10 cm is cut in two identical parts along a plane perpendicular to the principal
axis. The power of each lens after cut is _______ D.
Sol. (5)
1
P1 P1 P
f
1
2P1
0.1
P1 5D
3
58. Three point charges q, -2q and 2q are placed on x-axis at a distance x = 0, x R and x = R respectively from
4
origin as shown. If q = 2 × 10-6 C and R = 2 cm, the magnitude of net force experienced by the charge -2q is
____N.
Sol. (5440)
3𝑅
4
2q
B c
A
q FBA -2q FBC
32kq 2 64kq 2
FBA FBC
9q 2 R2
544kq 2
FB FBC FBA
9R 2
5440N
59. An atom absorbs a photon of wavelength 500 nm and emits another photon of wavelength 600 nm. The net
energy absorbed by the atom in this process is n × 10-4 eV. The value of n is ______.
[Assume the atom to be stationary during the absorption and emission process]
(Take h = 6.6 × 10-34 Js and c = 3 × 108 m/s)
Sol. (4125)
1 1
E E1 E 2 hc
1 2
E 6.6 1020 J
E 4.125 101 eV
E 4125 10 4 eV
60. A car accelerates from rest to u m/s. The energy spent in this process is E J. The energy required to accelerate
the car from u m/s to 2 u m/s is nE J. The value of n is ______.
Sol. (3)
1 1
E1 mu 2 0 mu 2 E
2 2
1 1
m 24 mu 2
2
E2
2 2
3
mu 2 3E
2
SECTION - A
61. Which of the following are the Green house gases ?
(A) Water vapour (B) Ozone (C) I2 (D) Molecular hydrogen
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :
(1) C and D only (2) A and B only (3) B and C only (4) A and D only
Sol. 2
Green house gases are CO2, CH4, water vapour, nitrous oxide, CFCs and ozone.
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
Sol. 2
63. In the wet tests for detection of various cations by precipitation, Ba2+ cations are detected by obtaining
precipitate of :
(1) Ba(OAc)2 (2) BaCO3 (3) BaSO4 (4) Ba(ox) : Barium oxalate
Sol. 2
In wet testing, (NH4)2CO3 is used as group reagent for 5th group cations (Ba2+, Ca2+, Sr2+)
Ba 2 (NH4 )2 CO3 BaCO3 NH4
(white precipitate)
64. Compound A from the following reaction sequence is :
(1) Phenol (2) Benzoic Acid (3) Aniline (4) Salicylic Acid
Sol. 3
65. Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.
Assertion A : Isotopes of hydrogen have almost same chemical properties, but difference in their rates of
reaction.
Reason R : Isotopes of hydrogen have different enthalpy of bond dissociation.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :
(1) A is not correct but R is correct
(2) Both A and R correct but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
(3) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A
(4) A is correct but R is not correct
Sol. 3
Source NCERT
Since the isotopes have the same electronic configuration, they have almost same chemical properties. The only
difference is in their rates of reactions, mainly due to their different enthalpy of bond dissociation.
68. Identify the correct order of standard enthalpy of formation of sodium halides.
(1) NaI < NaBr < NaF < NaCl (2) NaF < NaCl < NaBr < Nal
(3) NaCl < NaF < NaBr < Nal (4) Nal < NaBr < NaCl < NaF
Sol. 4
For a given metal fH0 always becomes less negative from fluoride to iodide.
69. Which of the following complexes will exhibit maximum attraction to an applied magnetic field ?
(1) [Zn (H2O)6]2+ (2) [Ni (H2O)6]2+ (3) [Co(en)3]3+ (4) [Co (H2O)6]2+
Sol. 4
Complex with maximum number of unpaired electron will exhibit maximum attraction to an applied magnetic
field
[Zn(H2O)6]2+ d10 system t 62g eg4, 0 unpaired e–
70. The correct group of halide ions which can be oxidized by oxygen in acidic medium is
(1) Cl–, Br– and I– only (2) Br– only (3) Br– and I–only (4) I–only
Sol. 4
Only I– among halides can be oxidised to Iodine by oxygen in acidic medium
4I–(aq) + 4H+(aq) + O2(g) 2I2(s) + 2H2O(l)
71. The total number of stereoisomers for the complex [Cr(ox)2ClBr]3– (where ox = oxalate) is :
(1) 3 (2) 1 (3) 4 (4) 2
Sol. 1
[Cr(Ox)2 ClBr]–3
No. of isomers-
This structure has plane of symmetry, So no optical isomerism will be shown.
This structure does not contain plane of symmetry, So two forms d as well as 1 will be shown.
CH3 – CH2 – CH2 – Br + CH3 – COOAg CH3 – COO – CH 2 – CH2 – CH3 + AgBr
(Ester)
73. The covalency and oxidation state respectively of boron in [BF4]–, are :
(1) 3 and 5 (2) 4 and 3 (3) 4 and 4 (4) 3 and 4
Sol. 2
Number of covalent bond formed by Boron is 4
Oxidation number of fluorine is –1,
Oxidation number of B + 4 × (–1) = –1,
Thus, Oxidation number of B = + 3
74. What happens when methance undergoes combustion in systems A and B respectively ?
(1)
System A System B
Temperature remains same Temperature rises
(2)
System A System B
Temperature falls Temperature rises
(3)
System A System B
Temperature falls Temperature remains same
(4)
System A System B
Temperature rises Temperature remains same
Sol. 4
Adiabatic boundary does not allow heat exchange thus heat generated in container can't escape out thereby
increasing the temperature. In case of Diathermic container, heat flow can occur to maintain the constant
temperature.
75. The naturally occurring amino acid that contains only one basic functional group in its chemical structure is :
(1) histidine (2) lysine (3) asparagine (4) arginine
Sol. 3
1. histidine
2. Lysine
3.
4. Arginine
LIST I LIST II
A. Weak intermolecular farces of attraction I. Hexamethylenendiamine + adipic
B. Hydrogen bonding II. AlEt3 + TiCl4
C. Heavily branched polymer III. 2–chloro –1, 3 – butadiene
D. High density polymer IV. Phenol + formaldehyde
Tropolone is an aromatic compound and has 8 electrons (6e– are endocyclic and 2e– are exocyclic) and
electrons of group in tropolone is not involved in aromaticity.
80. Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.
Assertion A : Order of acidic nature of the following compounds is A > B > C.
SECTION - B
81. If the formula of Borax is Na2B4Ox (OH)y. zH2O, then x + y + z = _____.
Sol. 17
Formula of borax is Na2B4O5 (OH)4 · 8H2O
82. Sea water contains 29.25% NaCl and 19% MgCl2 by weight of solution. The normal boiling point of the sea
water is _____°C(Nearest integer)
Assume 100% ionization for both NaCl and MgCl2
Given : Kb(H2O) = 0.52 K kg mol–1
Molar mass of NaCl and MgCl2 is 58.5 and 95 g mol–1 respectivley.
Sol. 116
Amount of solvent = 100 – (29.25 + 19) = 51.75g
2 29.25 1000 3 19 1000
Tb 0.52
58.5 51.75 95 51.75
Tb = 16.075
Tb = (Tb)solution – (Tb)solvent
(Tb)solution = 100 + 16.07
= 116.07°C
83. 20 mL of 0.1 M NaOH is added to 50 mL of 0. 1 M acetic acid solution. The pH of the resulting solution is
____ × 10–2 (Nearest integer)
Given : pKa (CH3 COOH) = 4.76
log 2 = 0.30
log 3 = 0.48
Sol. 458
CH3COOH + NaOH CH3COONa + H2O
Initially 5mmol 2mmol 0 0
after Rxn 3mmol 0 2 mmole 2 mmole
[salt]
pH = pKa + log10
[acid]
2
pH = 4.76 + log10
3
pH = 4.58 = 458 × 10–2
84. At 298 K, the standard reduction potential for Cu2+/Cu electrode is 0.034 V.
Given : Ksp Cu(OH)2 = 1 × 10–20
2.303RT
Take 0.059V
F
The reduction potential at pH = 14 for the above couple is (–) x × 10–2 V.
The value of x is _____.
Sol. 25
Cu(OH)2(s) Cu2+(aq) + 2OH–(aq)
Ksp = [Cu2+] [OH–]2
pH = 14; pOH = 0; [OH–] = 1M
Ksp
[Cu 2 ] 10 –20 M
[1]2
Cu2+(aq) + 2e– Cu(s)
0.059 1
E E – log10
2 [Cu 2 ]
0.059 1
= 0.34 – log10 –20
2 10
–2
= –0.25 = –25 × 10
85. Sodium metal crystallizes in a body centred cubic lattice with unit cell edge length of 4 Å. The radius of
sodium atom is ____×10–1 Å (Nearest integer)
Sol. 17
3a 4r
3 4 4r
r = 1.732Å
= 17.32 × 10–1
86. A (g) 2B (g) + C (g) is first order reaction. The initial pressure of the system was found to be 800 mm Hg
which increased to 1600 mm Hg after 10 min. The total pressure of the system after 30 min will be ____ mm
Hg. (Nearest integer)
Sol. 2200
t 1 = 10 minutes
2
30/10
1
(PA )30 min (PA )0
2
(PA)30 min = 100 mm Hg
A(g) 2B(g) + C(g)
at t = 0 800 mm 0 0
at t = 30 l00 mm 1400 mm 700 mm
Total pressure after 30 minutes = 2200 mm Hg
87. 1g of a carbonate (M2CO3) on treatment with excess HCl produces 0.01 mol of CO2. The molar mass of
M2CO3 is ____ g mol–1. (Nearest integer)
Sol. 100
M2CO3 2HCl 2MCl H2O CO2
1gm Excess 0.02mole 0.01mole
88. 0.400 g of an organic compound (X) gave 0.376 g of AgBr in Carius method for estimation of bromine. % of
bromine in the compound (X) is ____. (Given : Molar mass AgBr = 188 g mol–1, Br = 80 g mol–1)
Sol. 40
0.376
mole of AgBr =
188
0.376
mole of Br– = mole of AgBr =
188
0.376
mass of Br– = 80
188
0.376 80
% of Br– = 100 40%
188 0.4
xh
89. The orbital angular momentum of an electron in 3s orbital is . The value of x is ____ (nearest integer)
2
Sol. 0
h
Orbital angular momentum = 1(1 1)
2
Value of 1 for s = 0
90. See the following chemical reaction :
Cr2 O72– XH 6Fe2 YCr 3 6Fe3 ZH 2O
The sum of X, Y and Z is _____
Sol. 23
Cr2O72– + 14H+ + 6Fe2+ 6Fe3+ + 2Cr3+ + 7H2O
x = 14
y=2
z=7
Hence (x + y + z) = 14 + 2 + 7 = 23