RENR PRACTICE TEST G

1. The newly admitted client has burns on both legs. The burned areas appear white and leather-like. No blisters or
bleeding are present, and the client states that he or she has little pain. How should this injury be categorized?
A. Superficial
B. Partial-thickness superficial
C. Partial-thickness deep
D. Full thickness

2. The newly admitted client has a large burned area on the right arm. The burned area appears red, has blisters, and
is very painful. How should this injury be categorized?
A. Superficial
B. Partial-thickness superficial
C. Partial-thickness deep
D. Full thickness

3. The burned client newly arrived from an accident scene is prescribed to receive 4 mg of morphine sulfate by IV
push. What is the most important reason to administer the opioid analgesic to this client by the intravenous route?
A. The medication will be effective more quickly than if given intramuscularly.
B. It is less likely to interfere with the client’s breathing and oxygenation.
C. The danger of an overdose during fluid remobilization is reduced.
D. The client delayed gastric emptying.

4. Which vitamin deficiency is most likely to be a long-term consequence of a full-thickness burn injury?
A. Vitamin A
B. Vitamin B
C. Vitamin C
D. Vitamin D

5. Which client factors should alert the nurse to potential increased complications with a burn injury?
A. The client is a 26-year-old male.
B. The client has had a burn injury in the past.
C. The burned areas include the hands and perineum.
D. The burn took place in an open field and ignited the client’s clothing.

6. The burned client is ordered to receive intravenous cimetidine, an H2 histamine blocking agent, during the
emergent phase. When the client’s family asks why this drug is being given, what is the nurse’s best response?
A. “To increase the urine output and prevent kidney damage.”
B. “To stimulate intestinal movement and prevent abdominal bloating.”
C. “To decrease hydrochloric acid production in the stomach and prevent ulcers.”
D. “To inhibit loss of fluid from the circulatory system and prevent hypovolemic shock.”

7. At what point after a burn injury should the nurse be most alert for the complication of hypokalemia?
A. Immediately following the injury
B. During the fluid shift
C. During fluid remobilization
D. During the late acute phase

8. What clinical manifestation should alert the nurse to possible carbon monoxide poisoning in a client who
experienced a burn injury during a house fire?
A. Pulse oximetry reading of 80%
B. Expiratory stridor and nasal flaring
C. Cherry red color to the mucous membranes
D. Presence of carbonaceous particles in the sputum

9. What clinical manifestation indicates that an escharotomy is needed on a circumferential extremity burn?
A. The burn is full thickness rather than partial thickness.
B. The client is unable to fully pronate and supinate the extremity.
C. Capillary refill is slow in the digits and the distal pulse is absent.
D. The client cannot distinguish the sensation of sharp versus dull in the extremity.
10. What additional laboratory test should be performed on any African American client who sustains a serious burn
injury?
A. Total protein
B. Tissue type antigens
C. Prostate specific antigen
D. Hemoglobin S electrophoresis

11. Which type of fluid should the nurse expect to prepare and administer as fluid resuscitation during the emergent
phase of burn recovery?
A. Colloids
B. Crystalloids
C. Fresh-frozen plasma
D. Packed red blood cells

12. The client with a dressing covering the neck is experiencing some respiratory difficulty. What is the nurse’s best
first action?
A. Administer oxygen.
B. Loosen the dressing.
C. Notify the emergency team.
D. Document the observation as the only action.

13. The client who experienced an inhalation injury 6 hours ago has been wheezing. When the client is assessed,
wheezes are no longer heard. What is the nurse’s best action?
A. Raise the head of the bed.
B. Notify the emergency team.
C. Loosen the dressings on the chest.
D. Document the findings as the only action.

14. Ten hours after the client with 50% burns is admitted, her blood glucose level is 90 mg/dL. What is the nurse’s
best action?
A. Notify the emergency team.
B. Document the finding as the only action.
C. Ask the client if anyone in her family has diabetes mellitus.
D. Slow the intravenous infusion of dextrose 5% in Ringer’s lactate.

15. On admission to the emergency department the burned client’s blood pressure is 90/60, with an apical pulse rate
of 122. These findings are an expected result of what thermal injury–related response?
A. Fluid shift
B. Intense pain
C. Hemorrhage
D. Carbon monoxide poisoning

16. Twelve hours after the client was initially burned, bowel sounds are absent in all four abdominal quadrants. What
is the nurse’s best action?
A. Reposition the client onto the right side.
B. Document the finding as the only action.
C. Notify the emergency team.
D. Increase the IV flow rate.

17. Which clinical manifestation indicates that the burned client is moving into the fluid remobilization phase of
recovery?
A. Increased urine output, decreased urine specific gravity
B. Increased peripheral edema, decreased blood pressure
C. Decreased peripheral pulses, slow capillary refill
D. Decreased serum sodium level, increased hematocrit

18. What is the priority nursing diagnosis during the first 24 hours for a client with full-thickness chemical burns on
the anterior neck, chest, and all surfaces of the left arm?
A. Risk for Ineffective Breathing Pattern
B. Decreased Tissue Perfusion
C. Risk for Disuse Syndrome
D. Disturbed Body Image
19. All of the following laboratory test results on a burned client’s blood are present during the emergent phase.
Which result should the nurse report to the physician immediately?
A. Serum sodium elevated to 131 mmol/L (mEq/L)
B. Serum potassium 7.5 mmol/L (mEq/L)
C. Arterial pH is 7.32
D. Hematocrit is 52%

20. The client has experienced an electrical injury, with the entrance site on the left hand and the exit site on the left
foot. What are the priority assessment data to obtain from this client on admission?
A. Airway patency
B. Heart rate and rhythm
C. Orientation to time, place, and person
D. Current range of motion in all extremities

21. A nurse is preparing a list of self-care instructions for a PP client who was diagnosed with mastitis. Which
instruction should NOT be including?
A. Wear supportive bra
B. Avoid decompression of the breasts by breastfeeding or breast pump
C. Rest during the acute phase
D. Continue to breastfeed if the breasts are not too sore.

22. Methergine or pitocin is prescribed for a woman to treat PP hemorrhage. Before administration of these
medications, the priority nursing assessment is to check the:
A. Amount of lochia
B. Blood pressure
C. Deep tendon reflexes
D. Uterine tone

23. Methergine or pitocin are prescribed for a client with PP hemorrhage. Before administering the medication(s), the
nurse contacts the health provider who prescribed the medication(s) in which of the following conditions is
documented in the client’s medical history?
A. Peripheral vascular disease
B. Hypothyroidism
C. Hypotension
D. Type 1 diabetes

24. Which of the following factors might result in a decreased supply of breastmilk in a PP mother?
A. Supplemental feedings with formula
B. Maternal diet high in vitamin C
C. An alcoholic drink
D. Frequent feedings

25. Which of the following interventions would be helpful to a breastfeeding mother who is experiencing engorged
breasts?
A. Applying ice
B. Applying a breast binder
C. Teaching how to express her breasts in a warm shower
D. Administering bromocriptine (Parlodel)

26. On completing a fundal assessment, the nurse notes the fundus is situated on the client’s left abdomen. Which of
the following actions is appropriate?
A. Ask the client to empty her bladder
B. Straight catheterize the client immediately
C. Call the client’s health provider for direction
D. Straight catheterize the client for half of her uterine volume

27. The nurse is about the give a Type 2 diabetic her insulin before breakfast on her first day postpartum. Which of
the following answers best describes insulin requirements immediately postpartum?
A. Lower than during her pregnancy
B. Higher than during her pregnancy
C. Lower than before she became pregnant
D. Higher than before she became pregnant
28. Which of the following findings would be expected when assessing the postpartum client?
A. Fundus 1 cm above the umbilicus 1 hour postpartum
B. Fundus 1 cm above the umbilicus on postpartum day 3
C. Fundus palpable in the abdomen at 2 weeks postpartum
D. Fundus slightly to the right; 2 cm above umbilicus on postpartum day 2

29. A client is complaining of painful contractions, or after pains, on postpartum day 2. Which of the
following conditions could increase the severity of afterpains?
A. Bottle-feeding
B. Diabetes
C. Multiple gestation
D. Primiparity

30. On which of the postpartum days can the client expect lochia serosa?
A. Days 3 and 4 PP
B. Days 3 to 10 PP
C. Days 10-14 PP
D. Days 14 to 42 PP

31. Flumazenil (Romazicon) has been ordered for a male client who has overdosed on oxazepam (Serax). Before
administering the medication, nurse Gina should be prepared for which common adverse effect?
A. Seizures
B. Shivering
C. Anxiety
D. Chest pain

32. Nurse Tamara is caring for a client diagnosed with bulimia. The most appropriate initial goal for a client
diagnosed with bulimia is to:
A. avoid shopping for large amounts of food
B. control eating impulses
C. identify anxiety-causing situations
D. eat only three meals per day

33. A female client who’s at high risk for suicide needs close supervision. To best ensure the client’s safety, Nurse
Mary should:
A. check the client frequently at irregular intervals throughout the night
B. assure the client that the nurse will hold in confidence anything the client says
C. repeatedly discuss previous suicide attempts with the client
D. disregard decreased communication by the client because this is common in suicidal clients

34. Which of the following drugs should Nurse Mary prepare to administer to a client with a toxic acetaminophen
(Tylenol) level?
A. deferoxamine mesylate (Desferal)
B. succimer (Chemet)
C. flumazenil (Romazicon)
D. acetylcysteine (Mucomyst)

35. A male client is admitted to the substance abuse unit for alcohol detoxification. Which of the following
medications is Nurse Alice most likely to administer to reduce the symptoms of alcohol withdrawal?
A. naloxone (Narcan)
B. haloperidol (Haldol)
C. magnesium sulfate
D. chlordiazepoxide (Librium)

36. During postprandial monitoring, a female client with bulimia nervosa tells the nurse, “You can sit with me, but
you’re just wasting your time. After you sat with me yesterday, I was still able to purge. Today, my goal is to do it
twice.” What is the nurse’s best response?
A. “I trust you not to purge.”
B. “How are you purging and when do you do it?”
C. “Don’t worry. I won’t allow you to purge today.”
D. “I know it’s important for you to feel in control, but I’ll monitor you for 90 minutes after you eat.”
37. A male client admitted to the psychiatric unit for treatment of substance abuse says to the nurse, “It felt so
wonderful to get high.” Which of the following is the most appropriate response?
A. “If you continue to talk like that, I’m going to stop speaking to you.”
B. “You told me you got fired from your last job for missing too many days after taking drugs all night.”
C. “Tell me more about how it felt to get high.”
D. “Don’t you know it’s illegal to use drugs?”

38. For a female client with anorexia nervosa, Nurse Jimmy is aware that which goal takes the highest priority?
A. The client will establish adequate daily nutritional intake
B. The client will make a contract with the nurse that sets a target weight
C. The client will identify self-perceptions about body size as unrealistic
D. The client will verbalize the possible physiological consequences of self-starvation

39. When interviewing the parents of an injured child, which of the following is the strongest indicator that
child abuse may be a problem?
A. The injury isn’t consistent with the history or the child’s age
B. The mother and father tell different stories regarding what happened
C. The family is poor
D. The parents are argumentative and demanding with emergency department personnel

40. For a female client with anorexia nervosa, nurse Rose plans to include the parents in therapy sessions along with
the client. What fact should the nurse remember to be typical of parents of clients with anorexia nervosa?
A. They tend to overprotect their children
B. They usually have a history of substance abuse
C. They maintain emotional distance from their children
D. They alternate between loving and rejecting their children

41. Marco approached Nurse Trisha asking for advice on how to deal with his alcohol addiction. Nurse Trisha should
tell the client that the only effective treatment for alcoholism is:
A. Psychotherapy
B. Alcoholics anonymous (A.A.)
C. Total abstinence
D. Aversion Therapy

42.Nurse Hazel is caring for a male client who experience false sensory perceptions with no basis in reality. This
perception is known as:
A. Hallucinations
B. Delusions
C. Loose associations
D. Neologisms

43. Nurse Monet is caring for a female client who has suicidal tendency. When accompanying the client to the
restroom, Nurse Monet should
A. Give her privacy
B. Allow her to urinate
C. Open the window and allow her to get some fresh air
D. Observe her

44. Nurse Maureen is developing a plan of care for a female client with anorexia nervosa. Which action should the
nurse include in the plan?
A. Provide privacy during meals
B. Set-up a strict eating plan for the client
C. Encourage client to exercise to reduce anxiety
D. Restrict visits with the family

45. A client is experiencing anxiety attack. The most appropriate nursing intervention should include?
A. Turning on the television
B. Leaving the client alone
C. Staying with the client and speaking in short sentences
D. Ask the client to play with other clients
46. A female client is admitted with a diagnosis of delusions of GRANDEUR. This diagnosis reflects a belief that
one is:
A. Being Killed
B. Highly famous and important
C. Responsible for evil world
D. Connected to client unrelated to oneself

47. A 20 year old client was diagnosed with dependent personality disorder. Which behavior is not most likely to be
evidence of ineffective individual coping?
A. Recurrent self-destructive behavior
B. Avoiding relationship
C. Showing interest in solitary activities
D. Inability to make choices and decision without advise

48. A male client is diagnosed with schizotypal personality disorder. Which signs would this client exhibit during
social situation?
A. Paranoid thoughts
B. Emotional affect
C. Independence need
D. Aggressive behavior

49. Nurse Claire is caring for a client diagnosed with bulimia. The most appropriate initial goal for a client diagnosed
with bulimia is?
A. Encourage to avoid foods
B. Identify anxiety causing situations
C. Eat only three meals a day
D. Avoid shopping plenty of groceries

50. Nurse Tony was caring for a 41 year old female client. Which behavior by the client indicates adult cognitive
development?
A. Generates new levels of awareness
B. Assumes responsibility for her actions
C. Has maximum ability to solve problems and learn new skills
D. Her perception are based on reality

51. A neuromuscular blocking agent is administered to a client before ECT therapy. The Nurse should carefully
observe the client for?
A. Respiratory difficulties
B. Nausea and vomiting
C. Dizziness
D. Seizures

52. A 75 year old client is admitted to the hospital with the diagnosis of dementia of the Alzheimer’s type and
depression. The symptom that is unrelated to depression would be?
A. Apathetic response to the environment
B. “I don’t know” answer to questions
C. Shallow of labile effect
D. Neglect of personal hygiene

53. Nurse Trish is working in a mental health facility; the nurse priority nursing intervention for a newly admitted
client with bulimia nervosa would be to?
A. Teach client to measure I & O
B. Involve client in planning daily meal
C. Observe client during meals
D. Monitor client continuously

54. Nurse Patricia is aware that the major health complication associated with intractable anorexia nervosa would be?
A. Cardiac dysrhythmias resulting to cardiac arrest
B. Glucose intolerance resulting in protracted hypoglycemia
C. Endocrine imbalance causing cold amenorrhea
D. Decreased metabolism causing cold intolerance
55. Nurse Anna can minimize agitation in a disturbed client by?
A. Increasing stimulation
B. limiting unnecessary interaction
C. increasing appropriate sensory perception
D. ensuring constant client and staff contact

56. A 39 year old mother with obsessive-compulsive disorder has become immobilized by her elaborate hand
washing and walking rituals. Nurse Trish recognizes that the basis of O.C. disorder is often:
A. Problems with being too conscientious
B. Problems with anger and remorse
C. Feelings of guilt and inadequacy
D. Feeling of unworthiness and hopelessness

57. Mario is complaining to other clients about not being allowed by staff to keep food in his room. Which of the
following interventions would be most appropriate?
A. Allowing a snack to be kept in his room
B. Reprimanding the client
C. Ignoring the clients behavior
D. Setting limits on the behavior

58. Conney with borderline personality disorder who is to be discharge soon threatens to “do something” to herself if
discharged. Which of the following actions by the nurse would be most important?
A. Ask a family member to stay with the client at home temporarily
B. Discuss the meaning of the client’s statement with her
C. Request an immediate extension for the client
D. Ignore the clients statement because it’s a sign of manipulation

59. Joey a client with antisocial personality disorder belches loudly. A staff member asks Joey, “Do you know why
people find you repulsive?” this statement most likely would elicit which of the following client reaction?
A. Defensiveness
B. Embarrassment
C. Shame
D. Remorsefulness

60. Which of the following approaches would be most appropriate to use with a client suffering from narcissistic
personality disorder when discrepancies exist between what the client states and what actually exist?
A. Rationalization
B. Supportive confrontation
C. Limit setting
D. Consistency

61. A man is admitted to the nursing care unit with a diagnosis of cirrhosis. He has a long history of alcohol
dependence. During the late evening following his admission, he becomes increasingly disoriented and agitated.
Which of the following would the client be least likely to experience?
A. Diaphoresis and tremors.
B. Increased blood pressure and heart rate.
C. Illusions.
D. Delusions of grandeur.

62. Mr. Peterson, 35, is admitted for bipolar illness, manic phase, after assaulting his landlord in an argument over
Mr. Peterson is staying up all night playing loud music. Mr. Peterson is hyperactive, intrusive, and has rapid,
pressured speech. He has not slept in three days and appears thin and disheveled. Which of the following is the most
essential nursing action at this time?
A. Providing a meal and beverage for Mr. Peterson to eat in the dining room.
B. Providing linens and toiletries for Mr. Peterson to attend to his hygiene.
C. Consulting with the psychiatrist to order a hypnotic to promote sleep.
D. Providing for client safety by limiting his privileges.
63. Which of the following would best indicate to the nurse that a depressed client is improving?
A. Reduced levels of anxiety.
B. Changes in vegetative signs.
C. Compliance with medications.
D. Requests to talk to the nurse.

64. An elderly man is admitted to the hospital. He was alert and oriented during the admission interview. However,
his family states that he becomes disruptive and disoriented around dinnertime. One night he was shouting furiously
and didn’t know where he was. He was sedated and the next morning he was fine. At dinnertime the disruptive
behavior returned. The client is diagnosed as having sundown syndrome. The client’s son asks the nurse what causes
sundown syndrome. The nurse’s best response is that it is attributed to
A. an underlying depression.
B. inadequate cerebral flow.
C. changes in the sensory environment.
D. fluctuating levels of oxygen exchange.

65. The nurse is discussing electroconvulsive therapy (ECT) with a client who asks how long it will be before she
feels better. The nurse explains that the beneficial effects of ECT usually occur within
A. one week.
B. three weeks.
C. four weeks.
D. six weeks.

66. The nurse is assessing a 17-year-old female who is admitted to the eating disorders unit with a history of weight
fluctuation, abdominal pain, teeth erosion, receding gums, and bad breath. She states that her health has been a
problem but there are no other concerns in her life. Which of the following assessments will be the least useful as the
nurse develops the care plan?
A. Information regarding recent mood changes.
B. Family functioning using a genogram.
C. Ability to socialize with peers.
D. Whether she has a sexual relationship with a boyfriend.

67. A 34-year-old woman is admitted for treatment of depression. Which of these symptoms would the nurse be least
likely to find in the initial assessment?
A. inability to make decisions.
B. feelings of hopelessness.
C. family history of depression.
D. increased interest in sex.

68. The nurse is planning care for a client who has a phobic disorder manifested by a fear of elevators. Which goal
would need to be accomplished first? The client
A. demonstrates the relaxation response when asked.
B. verbalizes the underlying cause of the disorder.
C. rides the elevator in the company of the nurse.
D. role plays the use of an elevator.

69. A teenage female is admitted with the diagnosis of anorexia nervosa. Upon admission, the nurse finds a bottle of
assorted pills in the client’s drawer. The client tells the nurse that they are antacids for stomach pains. The best
response by the nurse would be
a. “These pills aren’t antacids since they are all different.”
b. “Some teenagers use pills to lose weight.”
c. “Tell me about your week prior to being admitted.”
d. “Are you taking pills to change your weight?”

70. A mother with a Roman Catholic belief has given birth in an ambulance on the way to the hospital. The neonate
is in very critical condition with little expectation of surviving the trip to the hospital. Which of these requests should
the nurse in the ambulance anticipate and be prepared to do?
A. The refusal of any treatment for self and the neonate until she talks to a reader
B. The placement of a rosary necklace around the neonate’s neck and not to remove it unless absolutely necessary
C. Arrange for a church elder to be at the emergency department when the ambulance arrives so a “laying on hands”
can be done
D. Pour fluid over the forehead backwards towards the back of the head and say “I baptize you in the name of the
father, the son and the holy spirit. Amen.”
71. A client who has had a full-thickness burn is being discharged from the hospital. Which information is most
important for the nurse to provide prior to discharge?
A. How to maintain home smoke detectors
B. Joining a community reintegration program
C. Learning to perform dressing changes
D. Options available for scar removal

72. A client who is admitted after a thermal burn injury has the following vital signs: blood pressure, 70/40; heart
rate, 140 beats/min; respiratory rate, 25/min. He is pale in color and it is difficult to find pedal pulses. Which action
will the nurse take first?
A. Begin intravenous fluids.
B. Check the pulses with a Doppler device.
C. Obtain a complete blood count (CBC).
D. Obtain an electrocardiogram (ECG).

73. A client who was burned has crackles and a respiratory rate of 40/min, and is coughing up blood-tinged sputum.
What action will the nurse take first?
A. Administer digoxin
B. Perform chest physiotherapy
C. Monitor urine output
D. Place the client in an upright position

74. How will the nurse position a client with a burn wound to the posterior neck to prevent contractures?
A. Have the client turn the head from side to side.
B. Keep the client in a supine position without the use of pillows.
C. Keep the client in a semi-Fowler’s position with her or his arms elevated.
D. Place a towel roll under the client’s neck or shoulder.

75. On assessment, the nurse notes that the client has burns inside the mouth and is wheezing. Several hours later, the
wheezing is no longer heard. What is the nurse’s next action?
A. Documenting the findings
B. Loosening any dressings on the chest
C. Raising the head of the bed
D. Preparing for intubation

76. Ten hours after the client with 50% burns is admitted, her blood glucose level is 140 mg/dL. What is the nurse’s
best action?
A. Documents the finding
B. Obtains a family history for diabetes
C. Repeats the glucose measurement
D. Stops IV fluids containing dextrose

77. The client has a large burned area on the right arm. The burned area appears pink, has blisters, and is very painful.
How will the nurse categorize this injury?
A. Full-thickness
B. Partial-thickness superficial
C. Partial-thickness deep
D. Superficial

78. The client has burns on both legs. These areas appear white and leather-like. No blisters or bleeding are present,
and there is just a “small amount of pain.” How will the nurse categorize this injury?
A. Full-thickness
B. Partial-thickness superficial
C. Partial-thickness deep
D. Superficial

79. The client has experienced an electrical injury of the lower extremities. Which are the priority assessment data to
obtain from this client?
A. Current range of motion in all extremities
B. Heart rate and rhythm
C. Respiratory rate and pulse oximetry reading
D. Orientation to time, place, and person
80. The client has severe burns around the right hip. Which position is most important to use to maintain maximum
function of this joint?
A. Hip maintained in 30-degree flexion
B. Hip at zero flexion with leg flat
C. Knee flexed at 30-degree angle
D. Leg abducted with foam wedge

81. The RN has assigned a client who has an open burn wound to the LPN. Which instruction is most important for
the RN to provide the LPN?
A. Administer the prescribed tetanus toxoid vaccine.
B. Assess wounds for signs of infection.
C. Encourage the client to cough and breathe deeply.
D. Wash hands on entering the client’s room.

82. Three days after a burn injury, the client develops a temperature of 100° F, white blood cell count of 15,000/mm3,
and a white, foul-smelling discharge from the wound. The nurse recognizes that the client is most likely exhibiting
symptoms of which condition?
A. Acute phase of the injury
B. Autodigestion of collagen
C. Granulation of burned tissue
D. Wound infection

83. Twelve hours after the client was initially burned, bowel sounds are absent in all four abdominal quadrants.
Which is the nurse’s best action?
A. Administers a laxative
B. Documents the finding
C. Increases the IV flow rate
D. Repositions the client onto the right side

84. What intervention will the nurse implement to reduce a client’s pain after a burn injury?
A. Administering morphine 4 mg intravenously.
B. Administering hydromorphone (Dilaudid) 4 mg intramuscularly.
C. Applying ice to the burned area
D. Avoiding tactile stimulation

85. What statement indicates the client needs further education regarding the skin grafting (allografting)?
A. “Because the graft is my own skin, there is no chance it won’t ‘take.'”
B. “For the first few days after surgery, the donor sites will be painful.”
C. “I will have some scarring in the area when the skin is removed for grafting.”
D. “I am still at risk for infection after the procedure.”

86. When providing care for a client with an acute burn injury, which nursing intervention is most important to
prevent infection by autocontamination?
A. Avoiding sharing equipment such as blood pressure cuffs between clients
B. Changing gloves between wound care on different parts of the client’s body
C. Using the closed method of burn wound management
D. Using proper and consistent handwashing

87. Which assessment finding assists the nurse in confirming inhalation injury?
A. Brassy cough
B. Decreased blood pressure
C. Nausea
D. Headache

88. Which finding indicates that fluid resuscitation has been successful for a client with a burn injury?
A. Hematocrit = 60%
B. Heart rate = 130 beats/min
C. Increased peripheral edema
D. Urine output = 50 mL/hr
89. Which finding indicates to the nurse that a client with a burn injury has a positive perception of his appearance?
A. Allowing family members to change his dressings
B. Discussing future surgical reconstruction
C. Performing his own morning care
D. Wearing the pressure dressings as ordered

90. Which finding indicates to the nurse that the client understands the psychosocial impact of his severe burn injury?
A. “It is normal to feel depressed.”
B. “I will be able to go back to work immediately.”
C. “I will not feel anger about my situation.”
D. “Once I get home, things will be normal.”

91. A male client has an abnormal result on a Papanicolaou test. After admitting, he read his chart while the nurse
was out of the room, the client asks what dysplasia means. Which definition should the nurse provide?
A. Presence of completely undifferentiated tumor cells that don’t resemble cells of the tissues of their origin
B. Increase in the number of normal cells in a normal arrangement in a tissue or an organ
C. Replacement of one type of fully differentiated cell by another in tissues where the second type normally isn’t
found
D. Alteration in the size, shape, and organization of differentiated cells

92. For a female client with newly diagnosed cancer, the nurse formulates a nursing diagnosis of Anxiety related to
the threat of death secondary to cancer diagnosis. Which expected outcome would be appropriate for this client?
A. “Client verbalizes feelings of anxiety.”
B. “Client doesn’t guess at prognosis.”
C. “Client uses any effective method to reduce tension.”
D. “Client stops seeking information.”

93. A male client with a cerebellar brain tumor is admitted to an acute care facility. The nurse formulates a nursing
diagnosis of Risk for injury. Which “related-to” phrase should the nurse add to complete the nursing diagnosis
statement?
A. Related to visual field deficits
B. Related to difficulty swallowing
C. Related to impaired balance
D. Related to psychomotor seizures

94. A female client with cancer is scheduled for radiation therapy. The nurse knows that radiation at any treatment
site may cause a certain adverse effect. Therefore, the nurse should prepare the client to expect:
A. hair loss.
B. stomatitis.
C. fatigue.
D. vomiting.

95. Nurse April is teaching a client who suspects that she has a lump in her breast. The nurse instructs the client that a
diagnosis of breast cancer is confirmed by:
A. breast self-examination.
B. mammography.
C. fine needle aspiration.
D. chest X-ray.

96. A male client undergoes a laryngectomy to treat laryngeal cancer. When teaching the client how to care for the
neck stoma, the nurse should include which instruction?
A. “Keep the stoma uncovered.”
B. “Keep the stoma dry.”
C. “Have a family member perform stoma care initially until you get used to the procedure.”
D. “Keep the stoma moist.”

97. A female client is receiving chemotherapy to treat breast cancer. Which assessment finding
indicates a fluid and electrolyte imbalance induced by chemotherapy?
A. Urine output of 400 ml in 8 hours
B. Serum potassium level of 3.6 mEq/L
C. Blood pressure of 120/64 to 130/72 mm Hg
D. Dry oral mucous membranes and cracked lips
98. Nurse April is teaching a group of women to perform breast self-examination. The nurse should explain that the
purpose of performing the examination is to discover:
A. cancerous lumps.
B. areas of thickness or fullness.
C. changes from previous self-examinations.
D. fibrocystic masses.

99. A client, age 41, visits the gynecologist. After examining her, the physician suspects cervical cancer. The nurse
reviews the client’s history for risk factors for this disease. Which history finding is a risk factor for cervical cancer?
A. Onset of sporadic sexual activity at age 17
B. Spontaneous abortion at age 19
C. Pregnancy complicated with eclampsia at age 27
D. Human papillomavirus infection at age 32

100. A female client is receiving methotrexate (Mexate), 12 g/m2 I.V., to treat osteogenic carcinoma. During
methotrexate therapy, the nurse expects the client to receive which other drug to protect normal cells?
A. Probenecid (benemid)
b. Cytarabine (ara-c, cytosine arabinoside [cytosar-u])
c. Thioguanine (6-thioguanine, 6-tg)
d. Leucovorin (citrovorum factor or folinic acid [wellcovorin])
 RENR PRACTICE TEST G : ANSWER KEY
1. D 32. C 63. B 94. C
2. B 33. A 64. C 95. C
3. C 34. D 65. A 96. D
4. D 35. D 66. D 97. D
5. C 36. D 67. D 98. C
6. C 37. B 68. A 99. D
7. C 38. A 69. C 100. D
8. C 39. A 70. D
9. C 40. A 71. C
10. D 41. C 72. A
11. B 42. A 73. D
12. B 43. D 74. A
13. B 44. B 75. D
14. B 45. C 76. A
15. A 46. B 77. B
16. B 47. D 78. A
17. C 48. A 79. B
18. C 49. B 80. B
19. B 50. A 81. D
20. B 51. A 82. D
21. C 52. C 83. B
22. B 53. D 84. A
23. A 54. A 85. A
24. A 55. B 86. B
25. C 56. C 87. A
26. A 57. D 88. D
27. A 58. B 89. C
28. A 59. A 90. A
29. C 60. B 91. D
30. B 61. D 92. A
31. A 62. D 93. C