pacop question and answer

Aromatic spt. Of Used as respiratory stimulant by inhaling of sulfur?

ammonia the vapors: Sulfur action
Simethicone A compound added to some antacids to >cathartic
serve as defoaming agent to prevent >parasiticide
flatulence >fumigation
The number of moles of The molarity of a solution is: >depilatories
solute per liter of Sublimed sulfur This compound is primarily used in the
solution preparation of Vleminck's solution
Sterile water of injection The form of water most commonly used Ksp It is equal to the product of the ionic
USP as a solvent during the manufacture of concentrations (in moles per liter of
parenterals is: saturated solution), with each
Principal quantum Used to describe the approximate concentration raised to the power
number measure of the sized of electron cloud indicated by # of ions in the formula:
Unsaturated If the ion product is less than Ksp, the The reciprocal log of the The degree of dissociation of acids is
solution is: dissociation constant often expressed in terms of pKa. pka
Dihydrogen phosphate / Which of the following acid/conjugate then is
mono hydrogen base pairs would function best as a buffer Valence of the chemical The solubility of a chemical in a given
phosphate ion. -pKa = at physiological pH? solvent is influenced by many factors.
6.86 Which of the ff. physicochemical
Micelle A type or structure of complex where the constants may not be useful in predicting
interactant is a surfactant, a molecule the solubility of a chemical?
possessing both a non-polar and a polar Type I Which of the following glass types does
portion: not contain soda lime?
Purified water, USP The method of preparation must be Hydrogen bonding The shrinkage occurring between the
indicated on labels for: mixture of alcohol and purified water is
Nuclear magnetic Conformation of organic molecules is primarily due to
resonance most commonly determined by which of All of the above Iron sorbitex is a chemical complex of:
the following analytical method? iron
Phosphoric acid Which of the following is an example of sorbitol
triprotic acid? citric acid
Potassium Elements that are found as diatomic dextrin
molecules include all except: Silver nitrate The following are constituents of Ladd's
Calculate the molar ratio The Henderson-Hasselbach equation Ladd's paste paste, except:
of an acid and its allows us to
conjugate base from the aluminum powder
pKa of the acid and the zinc oxide
pH of the solution of the liquid petrolatum
acid Hypervitaminosis D Which of the following is not an
Actinide Atoms in which two outermost electron indication of hypophosphatemia?
shells are incomplete refer to: Empirical formula This formula can be determined given
1 x 10-10 mole/L If HCl is added to water until the the percent composition by mass of the
solution contains 1 x 10-4 mole/L of the compound
H+ ion, the concentration of OH- ions is: Gram Unit for molar mass of carbon-12 is
5.12 Calculate the pH of a 0.08F solution of Endothermic If enthalpy is positive, the reaction is:
HCN. Ka is 7.2 x 10-10 Crimson red The color of the flame produced by
Itai-itai disease A disease found in Japan caused by lithium
drinking water contaminated with Hypoparathyroidism Hyperphosphatemia may be found in
cadmium: Blue vitriol It is an official antidote for phosphorous
Chalybeate water It contains iron in sColution or in poisoning
suspension and are characterized by a Copper Which of the following elements acts as
ferruginous taste. a catalyst for the storage and release of
Type II Which of the following glass types iron?
makes use of water attack test type? Selenium Which of the following minerals is
Molecule This refers to an electrically neutral unit important in the antioxidant capabilities
formed when two or more atoms are of vitamin E?
joined together by covalent bond: All of the above Radioactive substances are characterized
Reye's syndrome Which of the following is not an action by

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 pacop question and answer
unstable nucleus d. silicate
emitting radiation A 5. A buffer system that has been modified to include NaCl to
low proton-neuron ratio make it isotonic with physiologic fluid:
Half-life The rate of decay of radioactive a. Sorensen phosphate buffer
substance is expressed in terms of: b. Gifford's buffer
All of the above Crystallization in a supersaturated c. Feldman's buffer
solution may be induced by: d. Atkin & Pentin buffer
stirring the solution B 6. An orange-red sulfide insoluble in NH3 but soluble in
scratching the inside wall excess (NH4)2S:
of the test tube a. CdS
seeding b. Sb2S3
Isobars Different nuclides having the same mass c. HgS
number: d. MnS
Heisenberg Uncertainty Principle which states that it is B 7. "Artificial Air" is used therapeutically to alleviate difficult
Principle impossible to accurately determine respiration and contains:
simultaneously the position and motion a. 60% oxygen & 40% helium
of an electron b. 20% oxygen & 80% helium
Melting point Which is not a colligative property? c. 20% helium & 80% oxygen
d. 40% helium & 60% oxygen
Colligative property B 8. A mixture composed chiefly of potassium polysulfide and
freezing point depression potassium thiosulfate:
vapor pressure lowering a. sulfur lac
boiling point elevation b. sulfurated potash
Hund's rule When orbitals are of the same energy, c. sublimed sulfur
electrons distribute themselves one to d. washed sulfur
each orbital before pairing according to: C 9. The energy required to remove an electron from a neutral
Na2Sn4O6 The following underlined elements has atom is:
+5 oxidation state, except: a. electron affinity
6.02 x 10 23 If one mole of oxygen molecule weighs b. kinetic energy
32 grams, how many molecules are c. ionization potential
present in one mole of O2? d. electrical energy
A 10. These elements form basic anhydrides except one:
a. S
b. Na
c. Mg
d. Ca
E 11. Simethicone-containing antacids contain simethicone as:
D 1. Ammoniated mercury is also known as:
a. antacid b. antiflatulent
a. calomel
c. antifoaming agent
b. corrosive sublimate
d. protective
c. lunar caustic
e. B and c
d. white precipitate
A 12. This element is used as a glucose tolerance factor:
C 2. The rays which have no mass and no charge but of very high
a. Cr
energy and excellent penetrating power:
b. Si
a. alpha
c. Mg
b. beta
d. Mn
c. gamma
d. x-ray C 13. The first element produced artificially is:
a. Rn
D 3. Antacids that cause "rebound" hyperacidity are:
b. Ta
a. Mg(OH)2 & Al(OH)2
c. Tc
b. Na2CO3
d. Pt
c. NA2S2O3 & MgSO4
d. NaHCO3 & CaCO3 A 14. The reason why BaSO4 can be used or taken internally
without causing any toxicity is that:
A 4. Evolves a gas with a fruity odor when treated with
a. it does not dissociate in the GIT
concentrated sulfuric acid and ethanol:
b. it is soluble in the GIT
a. acetate
c. the GI fluids can neutralize it
b. chlorate
d. it does not reach the GIT since it is a powerful emetic
c. sulfate
D 15. Acids have the following properties except:
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 pacop question and answer
a. sour taste c. K
b. donor of protons d. Pb
c. neutralize bases D 26. Which vitamin enhance the physiological utilization of Ca
d. pH above 7 in the body?
B 16. Drug of choice to combat systemic acidosis: a. Vitamin B12
a. KHCO3 b. Vitamin C
b. NaHCO3 c. Vitamin C
c. Na2CO3 d. Vitamin D
d. K2CO3 B 27. A thyroid disorder known as goiter is caused by the lack of:
B 17. This metal, in the form of thin foil, is used as a protective a. calcium
for burn treatment due to its property of b. iodine
conserving fluids and of stimulating tissue growth; c. sodium
a. Sn d. potassium
b. Al A 28. Salts of these alkaline metals are used as sedative
c. Zn depressant in psychiatry:
d. Pd a. lithium
B 18. Both iron and copper are found in which respiratory b. iridium
enzyme: c. potassium
a. trisinase C 29. The element present in hemoglobin of the blood which
b. cytochrome oxidase plays an important role in red blood cell-oxygen transport is:
c. peroxide a. Ca
d. oxidase b. Mg
D 19. Plaster of Paris is chemically: c. Fe
a. CaO A 30. Besides activated charcoal and tannic acid, the other
b. CaSO4 component of universal antidote is:
c. CaSO4.1 1/2H2O a. MgO
d. CaSO4.2 H2O b. MgCO3
e. (CaSO4)2 H2O c. Mg3(PO4)2
E 20. The gas considered officially as pharmaceutical inhalant: B 31. In the form of its salt, this ion is essential to life being the
a. oxygen b. nitrous oxide structural basis of skeleton, an important factor in blood
c. carbon dioxide coagulation:
d. a & b only a. Mg
e. all of the above b. Ca
D 21. Also known as salt-forming group of elements are the: c. Zn
a. alkali metals D 32. This element is present in insulin:
b. alkaline earth metals a. Cu
c. chalcogen b. Fe
d. halogens c. Mg
e. coinage metals d. Zn
B 22. The major side effect from the use of barium sulfate D 33. Oxygen and ozone are:
suspension as radiopaque is: a. isotopes
a. diarrhea b. isobars
b. constipation c. polymorphs
c. vomiting d. allotropes
d. dizziness C 34. Softest mineral known:
C 23. The alum silicate which is antidiarrheal: a. calamine
a. pumice b. kaolin
b. bentonite c. talc
c. kaolin A 35. A 10 volume hydrogen peroxide is equivalent to ______%
C 24. Fehling's & Benedict's reagent, used to determine the H2O2:
presence of reducing sugars contain which salt: a. 3%
a. CaSO4 b. 9%
b. NiSO4 c. 20%
c. CuSO4 B 36. Mineral chameleon is the synonym of the powerful
B 25. Substance added to glass to improve its coefficient of oxidizing agent:
expansion: a. NaI
a. MnO2 b. KMnO4
b. B c. MnO2
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 pacop question and answer
B 37. This ion is used very effectively as astringent, protective c. ZnSO4-7H2O
and antiperspirant: D 49. Saltpeter, a meat preservative is the synonym for:
a. Mg a. KNO2
b. Al b. NaNO3
c. Zn c. NaNO2
C 38. Strong iodine solution contains KI for the purpose of: d. KNO3
a. preservation A 50. Most abundant and essential of all elements:
b. reducing agent a. oxygen
c. preventing precipitation b. silicon
D 39. Prepared chalk or precipitated chalk is chemically known c. hydrogen
as: B 51. The following are aluminum salts except:
a. MgCO3 a. alum
b. Na2CO3 b. borax
c. Ca3(PO4)2 c. kaolin
d. CaCO3 D 52. Electrolyte replenisher in dehydration:
B 40. Rochelle salt which is used as a cathartic and also as a. sodium iodide
sequestering agent is: b. potassium iodide
a. KHC4H4O6 c. sodium bromide
b. NaKC4H4O6 d. sodium chloride
c. KSbOC4H4O6 A 53. Cream of tartar is:
C 41. A metal which is unaffected by body fluids and attaches a. potassium bitartrate
itself to bones, is now used in surgical repairs of bones, nerves b. sodium bitartrate
and muscles: c. KCl
a. aluminum C 54. Employed topically as astringent and protectant in
b. iron ointment:
c. tantalum a. HgS
D 42. Blue vitriol, an effective astringent and emetic is b. CdO
chemically: c. ZnO
a. FeSO4-7H2O D 55. A substance which takes up water or moisture but does not
b. CaCl2 dissolve is:
c. CU(C2H3O2)2 a. dehydrating agent
d. CuSO4 5H2O b. deliquescent
B 43. All of the following ions are present in the intracellular c. efflorescent
fluids except: d. hygroscopic
a. K+ D 56. Ammonia is used as:
b. Na+ a. anesthetic
c. Mg 2+ b. expectorant
C 44. Bordeaux mixture used as fungicide contains: c. respiratory depressant
a. selenium sulfide d. respiratory stimulant
b. magnesium sulfate C 57. To kill microorganism in inanimate objects we simply
c. cupric sulfate used:
A 45. Calomel is: a. antiseptic
a. HgCl b. corrosive
b. HgCl2 c. disinfectant
c. stannous fluoride A 58. Laughing gas is a:
D 46. Amalgams are alloys of: a. general anesthetic
a. iron b. caustic
b. zinc c. disinfectant
c. copper C 59. Increases osmotic load of the GIT:
d. mercury a. bulk-forming laxative
D 47. The most electronegative element in the periodic table is: b. emollient laxative
a. sulfur c. saline cathartic
b. oxygen C 60. Inert gas with anesthetic properties:
c. chlorine a. argon
d. fluorine b. helium
C 48. White vitriol is referred to: c. krypton
a. CuSO4-5H2O A 61. The ion that gives a Turnbulls' blue precipitate with
b. FeSO4-7H2O potassium ferricyanide:
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 pacop question and answer
a. ferrous b. chromium
b. ferric c. manganese
c. cobalt d. zinc
B 62. It forms white precipitate with HCl but blackens upon C 73. According to this law, the rate of the reaction is
addition of ammonium hydroxide: proportional to the product of the concentrate of the
a. cupric reactants to the power of its coefficient in a balanced equation:
b. mercurous a. Law of Conservation of Mass
c. plumbous b. Law of Definite Proportion
D 63. The ion that gives a purple solution with sodium c. Law of Mass Action
bismuthate: B 74. An agent that loses one or more electrons in a redox
a. cobalt reaction:
b. ferrous a. oxidizing agent
c. ferric b. reducing agent
d. manganese c. catalyst
A 64. Which of the following is a native of hydrous magnesium C 75. Nickel ion in solution is colored:
silicate: a. colorless
a. talc b. blue
b. pumice c. green
c. kaolin A 76. Describes a process or reaction that absorbs heat:
A 65. The ion that gives a Prussian blue precipitate with a. endothermic
potassium ferrocyanide: b. exothermic
a. ferric c. miscible
b. ferrous B 77. Aluminum reagent is chemically known as:
c. cobalt a. aluminum salt of carboxylic acid
B 66. The mechanism of action in the use of carbon as anti- b. aluminum salt of aurintricarboxylic acid
diarrheal is: c. aluminum salt of tricarboxylic acid
a. absorption B 78. The ion that produces an intense blue colored solution with
b. adsorption an excess ammonia and a reddish brown precipitate with
c. precipitation potassium ferrocyanide:
A 67. Physiologically inert substances added to the main a. cuprous
component of the tablet so it will be convenient to swallow are b. cupric
termed as: c. cadmium
a. diluent A 79. The ion that gives positive result to Thenard's Blue Test:
b. lubricant a. aluminum
c. surfactants b. chromium
D 68. Some of the uses of astringent are: c. manganese
a. anti-perspirant B 80. The ion that gives a yellow precipitate with NaOH and
b. caustic scarlet red precipitate with an excess KI:
c. styptic a. mercurous
d. all of these b. mercuric
D 69. Best radiopharmaceutical agent for bone imaging: c. plumbous
a. Tc99m IDA A 81. The following can cause a shift of equilibrium except:
b. Tc99m albumin colloid a. catalyst
c. Tc99m Ferpentate b. concentration
d. Tc99m etidronate c. pressure
C 70. All of the following are mechanisms of anti-microbial A 82. They are called the "soluble group":
action, except: a. alkali metals
a. oxidation b. alkaline earth metals
b. halogenation c. aluminum-iron group
c. hydrolysis A 83. In the cation analysis, group I ions are often called:
A 71. The ion that gives a white precipitate with HCl which is a. insoluble chloride group
soluble in excess ammonium hydroxide but b. soluble chloride group
reprecipitated upon addition of nitric acid: c. soluble sulfide group
a. silver B 84. In semi-micro procedures, the process of filtration is
b. plumbous replaced by the use of:
c. mercurous a. vacuum
D 72. The ion that gives positive result to Rinman's Green Test: b. centrifuge
a. aluminum c. buchner funnel
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 pacop question and answer
A 85. It shows a similar properties to that of sodium and A 97. Substances that absorb moisture from the atmosphere and
potassium: dissolve in it is said to be:
a. ammonium a. deliquescent
b. barium b. efflorescent
c. calcium c. hydrolysis
A 86. A state in which the rate of forward and reverse reactions B 98. This compound when mixed with the hemoglobin of the
are the same: blood, results in asphyxial death:
a. chemical equilibrium a. carbon dioxide
b. equilibrium b. carbon monoxide
c. bond length c. nitrogen oxide
B 87. A rule that states that when a stress is applied to a system B 99. The following are oxidizing agents, except:
in equilibrium, the equilibrium shifts to relieve the stress: a. K2Cr2O7
a. Law of Mass Action b. Na2C2O4
b. Le Chatelier's Principle c. I2
c. Law of Conservation of mass D 100. The sum of the number of protons and neutrons of an
A 88. Blood red colorization with CNS but a blue precipitate with atom:
hexacyanoferrate(II): a. atomic weight
a. ferric b. isotopes
b. calcium c. atomic number
c. magnesium d. mass number
A 89. A measure of a solution's acid strength, the negative C 101. All are iodine-containing preparations, except:
common log of the [H3O+]: a. Betadine
a. pH b. Iodine tincture
b. pOH c. Formol
c. Ka B 102. The _______ of any liquid is the temperature at which the
A 90. The isotope used in the determination of the volume of red liquid phase and the solid phase are in
blood cells and total blood volume: equilibrium under a pressure of one atmosphere:
a. Cr-51 a. vapor pressure
b. Co-58 b. freezing point
c. Fe-59 c. evaporating point
A 91. The amphoteric property of this compound prevents A 103. Epsom salt is synonymous to:
systemic alkalosis: a. Magnesium sulfate
a. Al(OH)3 b. Calcium sulfate
b. Ca(OH)2 c. Cadmium sulfate
c. Mg(OH)2 B 104. A preparation made by incorporating a solution of lead
A 92. Radiopharmaceutical agent for thyroid function subacetate with an ointment base consisting of wool fat, white
a. sodium iodide 1-131 wax, white petroleum and camphor:
b. Tc-99m-Entidronate a. white lead
c. Tc-99m-Phytate b. Goulard's cerate
A 93. Substance that shows strong conductivity property and a c. sugar of lead
high degree of ionization: C 105. The smallest particle of matter which enters into a
a. Strong electrolyte chemical combination
b. Non-electrolyte a. molecule
c. weak electrolyte b. element
C 94. The chemical properties of the elements depend upon the c. atom
extent to which their electrons are: D 106. Halogen used as a common water disinfectant
a. replaced a. iodine
b. completed b. bromine
c. lost c. fluorine
B 95. It gives the spatial orientation of the electron cloud with d. chlorine
respect to the three areas in space: C 107. Transfer of solvent molecules thru a semi permeable
a. Spin quantum number membrane
b. Magnetic quantum number a. diffusion
c. Principal quantum number b. distillation
C 96. An acid which is a proton donor yield a: c. osmosis
a. base A 108. Weight of a solute in a given quantity of water is known
b. salt as ________ of solution:
c. conjugate base a. concentration
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 pacop question and answer
b. weight C 121. Attractive forces created by the polarizability of
c. volume molecules and are exerted when two uncharged atoms
C 109. The chloride of this metal is an astringent, antiperspirant approach very closely:
and deodorant: a. carbon bond
a. Mn b. protein binding
b. Ga c. Van der Waals Forces
c. Al D 122. This element is poisonous even in free metal form:
A 110. Copper imparts a characteristic _________ color to a a. magnesium
nonluminous flame b. silver
a. emerald green c. aluminum
b. scarlet d. mercury
c. blue A 123. These are salts of chlorine except:
C 111. Weak electrolytes are: a. salt peter
a. unstable solution b. rock salt
b. strong conductor of electricity c. bleaching powder
c. poor conductors of electricity d. calomel
D 112. Examples of protective from inorganic compounds C 124. Benzalkonium chloride is a germicidal surfactant which is
except: rendered inactive in the presence of:
a. Kaolin a. organic acid
b. Calamine b. gram negative organism
c. Zinc oxide c. soaps (anion agents)
d. Glycerol C 125. It is the gas liberated upon the action of water on acids or
B 113. Laughing gas is for _________ preparation metals whenever phosphorus is present as a contaminant:
a. sedative a. hydrogen sulfide
b. anesthetic b. methane
c. protective c. phosphine
B 114. Heavy water is: B 126. The technique used to detect the presence of trace
a. H2O2 amounts of metal contaminants:
b. D2O a. mass spectroscopy
c. T3O b. atomic absorption spectroscopy
B 115. Element common to all acids: C 127. Dimercaprol (BAL) acts as an antidote by a process
a. oxygen called:
b. hydrogen a. oxidation
c. chlorine b. reduction
A 116. For treatment of mental ailments: c. chelation
a. Li2CO3 A 128. A solution made up of a weak base and its salt which
b. Na2CO3 resists changes in pH is called:
c. CaCO3 a. buffer solution
B 117. Cinnabar is chemically: b. isotonic solution
a. HgCl D 129. Calcium absorption and distribution are under a complex
b. HgS hormonal control of:
c. Zn a. parathyroid hormone
C 118. Oxides of typically non-metallic elements are: b. calcitonin
a. neutral c. thyrocalcitonin
b. basic d. all of the above
c. acidic B 130. Potassium supplements are administered in all of the
D 119. The law that expresses the relationship between pressure, following manners except:
volume and temperature of gases in the equation, PV = nRT, a. IV infusion
where n = no. of moles of gas and R is constant which is the b. rapid IV injection
same for all gases that behave ideally is known as: c. elixir p.o.
a. Gay-Lussac's Law d. effervescent salts
b. Boyle's Law e. slow release p.o
c. Charles' Law B/ 131. After oral administration, the greatest amount of iron
d. Ideal Gas Law C absorption occurs in the:
A 120. Most active of metallic elements: a. duodenum
a. alkali metals b. stomach
b. oxidizing agent c. sigmoid portion of the large intestine
c. base metals C 132. Copper imparts a characteristics ____ color to a
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 pacop question and answer
nonluminous flame: a. K
a. blue b. Al and O
b. scarlet c. Mg and Ca
c. green C 146. The acid found in the stomach is:
D 133. A specific antidote for the treatment of poisoning due to a. lactic
oral ingestion of silver nitrate would be the oral administration b. acetic
of: c. hydrochloric
a. KMnO4 solution D 147. Occurs when either the salts of various organic acids or
b. vegetable oil organic substituted ammonium salts are added to aqueous
c. acetic acid solution solutions of non-electrolytes:
d. normal saline a. clathrate formation
B 134. The following will react with water to form basic b. salting out
solution: c. solid-in-solid complex
a. sulfur trioxide d. salting in
b. ammonia C 148. The major physiological ions include the following except
A 135. An ion that often shows expectorant action is: for:
a. iodide d. iodate a. sodium
b. phosphate b. potassium
A 136. Which of the following reduces iodine? c. manganese
a. sodium thiosulfate C 149. The following are photometric methods of analysis,
b. potassium chloride except:
c. sodium hydroxide a. turbidimetry
B 137. Radioisotopes decay: b. spectrophotometry
a. at the same rate c. chromatography
b. randomly D 150. Science that deals with the methods of extracting the
D 138. Lugol's solution contains this element as its active metal from their ores:
component: a. thermochemistry
a. fluorine b. mineralogy
b. chlorine c. electrochemistry
c. bromine d. metallurgy
d. iodine B 151. Universal antidote includes:
A 139. The composition of aqua regia is: a. sodium bicarbonate
a. 3HCL and HNO3 b. activated charcoal
b. 2HNO3 and 2HCl C 152. Sulfate of this metal is an emetic:
A 140. Index of protective power of colloids: a. calcium
a. zigmondy b. gold
b. nuggets c. copper
D 141. This halogen is employed in the prevention of dental D 153. A homogenous molecular dispersion of two or more
caries: substances:
a. chlorine a. suspension
b. bromine b. emulsion
c. iodine c. gel
d. fluorine d. solution
A 142. Burrows solution is also known as: B 154. Group of elements which is considered to be the most
a. aluminum acetate solution reactive of all metallic elements:
b. lead acetate a. Group I-B
D 143. Densest element in the periodic table: b. Group I-A
a. rubefacient D 155. A powerful reducing agent used in medicinal preparation:
b. Pb a. oxygen
c. Pd b. hydrogen peroxide
d. Os c. nitrogen
D 144. This instrument used to measure sodium and potassium in d. hypophosphorous acid
quantitatively: B 156. Irritative phenomenon to the skin and mucus membrane
a. polarimeter exhibited by rashes and headaches when excessive amount of
b. spectrophotometer Iodine is administered:
c. refractometer a. Hyperiodism
d. flame photometer b. Iodism
C 145. Hard water does not lather with soap. This is due to: C 157. Salts are formed as a result of the reaction between
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 pacop question and answer
except: a. water for injection
a. inorganic acid and as inorganic base b. bacteriostatic water for injection
b. water and a metal c. sterile water for injection
c. water and non-metallic element D 170. An aqueous solution of this acid will color turmeric paper
D 158. Epsom salt is used as: brownish red:
a. antiphlogistic a. sulfuric acid
b. anticonvulsant b. hydrochloric acid
c. cathartic c. nitric acid
d. any of these d. boric acid
D 159. The following are official combinations of electrolyte C 171. Which of the following is a coinage metal:
infusions except: a. barium
a. Oral Electrolyte Solutions b. magnesium
b. Lactated Ringer's Injection c. copper
c. Ringer's Injection USP XX A 172. Gas responsible for the oxidative changes in fats, paints
d. Dextrose 5% Injection and oil:
B 160. Antidote for Wilson's disease: a. oxygen
a. deferoxamine mesylate b. carbon monoxide
b. penicillamine E 173. Reasons for controlling pH within certain specified limits
B 161. Which of the following Group O elements is recovered are:
form the radioactive decay of radium: a. chemically stability
a. helium b. solubility of the drug
b. radon c. patient's comfort
B 162. Nitrogen d. a and c only
a. respirable air e. all of the above
b. mephitic air D 174. Chemical name of China Clay:
A 163. An organic compound which may either be a weak acid or a. Lead acetate
a weak base that can change color at a definite pH value. b. Copper sulfate
a. indicator c. Magnesium Trisilicate
b. catalyst d. Kaolin
C 164. Sodium citrate E 175. Pharmaceutic aid used to displace air to increase the shelf
a. germicidal life of an oxidizable product:
b. solubilizer of iodine a. oxygen
c. reduce blood clotting time b. carbon dioxide
D 165. These ions are cathartic in action except: c. helium
a. phosphate d. nitrous oxide
b. Sulfate e. nitrogen
c. tartrate B 176. A measure of the acidity of a solution
d. acetate a. pOH
e. magnesium b. pH
D 166. Chemical name of Green Vitriol: C 177. Preparations used for brain scanning to determine the
a. Copper Sulfate presence and location of neo-plastic lesions:
b. Magnesium Sulfate a. Gold Au 198 Injection
c. Sodium Sulfate b. Chlormerodrin Hg 197 Injection
d. Ferrous Sulfate c. Technetium Tc99 Injection
D 167. Chemical name of Caustic soda: B 178. Tartar emetic
a. Potassium Hydroxide a. syphilis
b. Magnesium Hydroxide b. schistosomiasis
c. Calcium Hydroxide A 179. It is used as an inhalant in all pathological conditions
d. Sodium Hydroxide accompanied by cyanosis and dyspnea:
E 168. Commercial preparations of Simethicone containing a. oxygen
antacids: b. carbon dioxide
a. Di-gel d. D 180. Produced by filling an orbital by an electron which is not
b. Mylanta removed from its atom but is held mutually or "shared" by 2
c. Simeco atoms concerned:
a and c only a. coordinate bond
e. all of the above b. chemical bonds
C 169. Official water used for the extemporaneous compounding c. hydrogen bond
of the parenterals for either IV or IM injection is: d. covalent bond
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 pacop question and answer
C 181. Which of the following elements imparts a characteristics b. The bonds that hold the two strands of a double-stranded
violet color to non-luminous flame: DNA molecules together
a. sodium c. Peptide bonds and glycosidic bond
b. ferric E 195. The equilibrium constant for the dissociation of a weak
c. potassium acid of the type, HA=H+ + A- , would be:
D 182. Generic term referring to vitreous material: a. [A-][HA]
a. plastic b. [HA][A-]/[HA+]
b. tin c. [HA]/[[H+][A-]
c. vitriol d. [H+][A-]
d. glass e. [H+][A-]/[HA]
A 183. The syllable "bi" in sodium bicarbonate and sodium bi- D 196. An anti-microbial used in the preparation of white lotion:
phosphate indicates that they are: a. ammoniated mercury
a. acids salts b. sublimed sulfur
b. compounds composed of two elements c .precipitated sulfur
B 184. They are chemical compounds containing elements of d. sulfurated potash
high atomic numbers which will stop the passage of x-rays: D 197. The cation/s that cause/s this group of antacids to have
a. roentgen rays constipating property:
b. radiopaque contrast media a. Al +3 b. Mg+2
A 185. Brand name of Al(OH)3 c. Ca+2
a. amphogel d. a ad c
b. phosphagel C 198. An antacid with a very rapid onset of action but relatively
A 186. Are compounds which have the capability of functioning short duration; can cause belching and
chemically as reducing agents: flatulence due to the production of gas:
a. antioxidants a. magnesium hydroxide
b. buffers b. aluminum hydroxide
A 187. They are preparations containing radioisotopes which are c. sodium bicarbonate
used internally for therapeutic and diagnostic purposes: A 199. It is the basis of smelling salts and occasionally used as
a. radiopharmaceuticals leavening agent hence the name of "Baker's Ammonia":
b. roentgen rays a. Ammonium Carbonate
A 188. Which of the following ions is colored blue in solution? b. Aromatic Spt. of Ammonia
a. cupric C 200. An anti-microbial agent that may be used to disinfect
b. cuprous drinking water in 3 drops per quart; will kill amoeba and
C 189. The formation of dental caries is distributed to the action bacteria in 15 mins:
of acids, mostly _____, obtained from oral bacterial a. Pot. Permanganate
metabolism of dietary carbohydrates: b. Sod. Hypochlorite
a. narcotic acid c. iodine
b. citric acid B 201. Used as respiratory stimulant by inhaling the vapors:
c. lactic acid a. ammonium carbonate
B 190. When too much fluoride is present in the tissue fluid, it b. aromatic spt. Of ammonia
can develop condition known as "dental fluorosis" which is A 202. A compound added to some antacids to serve as
also known as: defoaming agent to prevent flatulence
a. mottled teeth a. simethicone
b. mottled enamel b. magaldrate
D 191. Compound responsible for the pink color of Calamine A 203. The molarity of a solution is:
USP 24: a. The number of moles of solute per liter of solution
a. Talc b. Zinc oxide b. The number of moles of solute dissolved in kg solvent
c. zinc stearate E 204. The form of water most commonly used as a solvent
d. Ferric oxide during the manufacture of parenterals is:
B 192. It is administered in an ice-cold condition to lessen its a. Bacteriostatic water for injection USP
disagreeable bitter taste; parenterally used as an b. Deionized water
anticonvulsant: c. Distilled water
a. Rochelle salt d. Sterile water of injection USP
b. Epsom salt e. Water for injection
B 193. Pharmaceutical ingredient of Calamine USP 24: A 205. This is used to describe the approximate measure of the
a. Talc sized of the electron cloud
b. Zinc oxide a. principal quantum number
C 194. Which of the following are examples of covalent bonds? b. azimuthal quantum number
a. The bond that hold water molecules together B 206. If the ion product is less than Ksp, the solution is:
Shtm - rph 10
 pacop question and answer
a. saturated c. c. 1 x 10-11 mole/L
b. unsaturated d. 1 x 10-6 mole/L
D 207. Which of the following acid/conjugate base pairs would
e. 1 x 10-10 mole/L
function best as a buffer at physiological pH?
a. lactic acid / lactate ion, -pKa = 3.86 E 216. The following are properties of soft bases. Which does not
b. carbonic acid / bicarbonate ion, -pKa = 6.37 belong to these bases?
c. bicarbonate ion / carbonate ion, -pKa = 10.25 a. with low electronegativities polarizabilities
d. dihydrogen phosphate / monhydrogen phosphate ion. -pKa = b. have empty low-lying orbitals
6.86 c. easily oxidized
d. with high
B 208. A type or structure of complex where the interactant is a
e. none of the above
surfactant, a molecule possessing both a nonpolar and a polar
portion: A 217. It is equal to the product of the ionic concentrations (in
a. self-associated aggregate moles per liter of saturated solution), with each concentration
b. micelle raised to the power indicated by the number of ions in the
formula:
D 209. The method of preparation must be indicated on labels
a. Ksp
for:
b. Ke
a. Bacteriostatic water for injection, USP
b. Milk of Magnesia E 218. The degree of dissociation of acids is often expressed in
c. Sterile water for injection, USP terms of pKa. pka then is
d. Purified water, USP a. directly measured by titration of the acid with sodium
hydroxide
A 210. Conformation of organic molecules is most commonly
b. calculated by determining the acid's buffer capacity
determined by which of the following analytical method?
c. directly determined by conductivity measurement
a. nuclear magnetic resonance
d. the natural log of the acid's dissociation constant
b. optical rotation
e. the reciprocal log of the dissociation constant
D 211. Which of the following is an example of triprotic acid?
E 219. The solubility of a chemical in a given solvent is
a. acetic acid
influenced by many factors. Which of the following
b. carbonic acid
physicochemical constants may not be useful in predicting the
c. sulfuric acid
solubility of a chemical?
d. phosphoric acid
a. pH of a solution
C 212. Elements that are found as diatomic molecules include all b. dielectric constants
except: c. pKa of the chemical
a. oxygen d. solubility parameters
e. valence of the chemical
b. fluorine A 220. Which of the following glass types does not contain soda
c. potassium lime?
d. iodine a. Type I
e. hydrogen b. Type II
D 213. The Henderson-Hasselbach equation allows us to C 221. The shrinkage occurring between the mixture of alcohol
a. Calcualte the pKa of an acid from the pH of a solution of an and purified water is primarily due to
acid a. van der Waals forces
b. Calculate the pH of the solution of an acid from the pKa of b. covalent bonding
the acid c. hydrogen bonding
c. Calculate the molar ratio of an acid from the pKa of its A 222. Calculate the pH of a 0.08F solution of HCN. Ka is 7.2 x
conjugate base 10-10
d. Calculate the molar ratio of an acid and its conjugate base a. 5.12
from the pKa of the acid and the pH b. 6.00
of the solution of the acid B 223. A disease found in Japan caused by drinking water
C 214. Atoms in which two outermost electron shells are contaminated with cadmium:
incomplete refer to: a. Minamata disease
a. nobel or inert gases b. Itai-itai disease
b. representative elements E 224. Which of the following is not a factor in influencing
c. transition elements equilibrium of a chemical reaction?
E a. nature of reactant
215. If HCl is added to water until the solution contains 1 x 10-
b. changes in pressure
4 mole/L of the H+ ion, the concentration of OHions is: c. temperature changes
a. 1 x 10-14 mole/L d. concentration changes
b. 1 x 10-4 mole/L e. none of the above

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 pacop question and answer
B 225. It contains iron in solution or in suspension and are B 239. Which of the following elements acts as a catalyst for the
characterized by a ferruginous taste. storage and release of iron?
a. carbonated water a. chromium
b. chalybeate water b. copper
B 226. Which of the following glass types makes use of water D 240. Which of the following minerals is important in the
attack test type?
a. Type I antioxidant capabilities of vitamin E?
b. Type II a.. iron
B 227. This refers to an electrically neutral unit formed when two b. zinc
or more atoms are joined together by covalent bond:
c. chromium
a. ion d. element
b. molecule d. selenium
E 228. Which of the following is not an action of sulfur? C 241. In a REDOX reaction, the oxidizing agent
a. cathartic a. is oxidized
b. parasiticide b. loses electrons
c. fumigation c. is reduced
d. depilatories D 242. Radioactive substances are characterized by:
e. Reye's syndrome a. unstable nucleus
A 229. This compound is primarily used in the preparation of b. emitting radiation
Vleminck's solution c. low proton-neuron ratio
a. sublimed sulfur d. all of the above
b. milk of sulfur A 243. The rate of decay of radioactive substance is expressed in
E terms of:
230. Iron sorbitex is a chemical complex of:
a. half-life
a. iron b. sorbitol b. angstrom
c. citric acid D 244. Crystallization in a supersaturated solution may be
d. dextrin induced by:
e. all of the above a. stirring the solution
b. seeding
D 231. The following are constituents of Ladd's paste, except:
c. scratching the inside wall of the test tube
a. aluminum powder
d. all of the above
b. liquid petrolatum
c. zinc oxide D 245. Different nuclides having the same mass number:
d. silver nitrate a. isotopes
b. isotones
A 232. Which of the following is not an indication of
c. isomer
hypophosphatemia?
d. isobars
a. hypervitaminosis D
b. hyperparathyroidism C 246. Principle which states that it is impossible to accurately
determine simultaneously the position and motion
C 233. This formula can be determined given the percent
of an electron
composition by mass of the compound
a. Pauli's Exclusion Principle b. Aufbau Principle
a. molecular formula
c. Heisenberg Uncertainty Principle
b. structural formula
c. empirical formula D 247. Which is not a colligative property?
a. freezing point depression
B 234. The unit for molar mass of carbon-12 is
b. boiling point elevation
a. mole
c. vapor pressure lowering
b. gram
d. melting point
B 235. If enthalpy is positive, the reaction is:
C 248. When orbitals are of the same energy, electrons distribute
a. exothermic
themselves one to each orbital before pairing
b. endothermic
according to:
B 236. The color of the flame produced by lithium
a. Aufbau Principle
a. yellow green
b. Pauli's principle
b. crimson red
c. Hund's rule
A 237. Hyperphosphatemia may be found in
D 249. The following underlined elements has +5 oxidation state,
a. hypoparathyroidism
except:
b. rickets
a. IF5
A 238. It is an official antidote for phosphorous poisoning
b. H3SbO4
a. blue vitriol
c. Bi(NO3)3
b. white vitriol
d. Na2Sn4O6
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 pacop question and answer
D 250. If one mole of oxygen molecule weighs 32 grams, how c. Cr(OH)3
many molecules are present in one mole of O2? d. Mn(OH)2
a. 8 B 263. Which of the following is not yellow?
b. 16 a. CdS
c. 32 b. Ag2CrO4
d. 6.02 x 10 23 B 264. Nessler's reagent is used to identify
D 251. A reducing agent a. K+
a. gains electrons b. NH4+
b. decreases in oxidation number C 265. Used in the treatment of cystitis with methenamine
c. is reduced a. sodium phosphate
d. is oxidized b. sodium sulfate
A 252. Anode is an electrode c. sodium biphosphate
a. where oxidation takes place A 266. Prolonged use of silver nitrate may lead to this
b. where reduction takes place undesirable discoloration of the skin
A 253. No two electrons in an atom can have all four quantum a. argyria
numbers the same. b. silverism
a. Pauli's exclusion principle D 267. This ion produces violet color to the non-luminous flame
b. Planck's exclusion principle a. calcium
C 254. These are physical properties except: b. sodium
a. malleability of metals c. barium
b. volatility of alcohols d. potassium
c. oxidation of iron C 268. Radioisotopes can be produced from the following except:
d. solubility of sugar a. nuclear pile
A 255. A system in which two opposing reactions are proceeding b. cyclotron
at the same rate: c. x-ray machine
a. chemical equilibrium d. radioisotope
b. chemical reaction B 269. The radiopharmaceutical which is used as a diagnostic aid
D 256. Going across a period from left to right and from bottom to determine blood plasma volume and cardiac output
to top a group in the periodic table, which of the a. Chlormerodrin Hg 197
following periodicity laws decreases? b. I131 Serum Albumin [Human]
a. electron affinity C 270. Which of the following salts has a pH>7?
b. electronegativity a. Na2SO4
c. ionization energy b. NH4CH3COO
d. atomic size c. CaC2O4
B 257. The most abundant metal and the third most abundant B 271. Oxidation is a half-reaction
element in the earth's crust: a. that involves a gain of electrons
a. sodium b. that involves a loss of electrons
b. aluminum A 272. The ionization constant of the strongest acid is
A 258. Which of the following is a polyatomic molecule and a a. HA Ka = 7.2 x 10-4
compound? b. HB Ka = 8.5 x 10-8
a. O2 B 273. Used for kidney imaging or determining renal function
b. CO2 a. Technetium 99m-phytate
B 259. Which of the following statements is true of a 2 M HA, a b. Technetium 99 Heptagluconate
weak acid at equilibrium: C 274. The following oxides are acidic with water except:
a. pH=2 a. Cl2O7
b. [H+]=[A-] b. N2O3
D 260. Which of the following body fluids is least acidic? c. FeO
a. gastric juice = pH 1.2 D 275. A mixture containing 30% ZnS and 70% BaS:
b. urine = pH 5.5 a. hausemonite
c. saliva = pH 6.5 b. braunite
d. tears = pH 7.4 c. copperas
B 261. What is the effect of adding NH4Cl to a solution of d. lithopone
NH4OH? D 276. Sb+ in the presence of HCl gives a violet precipitate with
a. increased [OH-] conc. this pink dye
b. decreased [OH-] conc. a. dimethyl glyoxime
D 262. Which hydroxide is not amphoteric? b. p-nitorbenzene azoresorcinol
a. Al(OH)3 c. aluminum reagent
b. Zn(OH)2 d. rhodamine B
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 pacop question and answer
D 277. Method of sterilizing sodium bicarbonate for parenteral C 289. A dentrifice which contains formalin and reduces the
use: sensitivity of teeth to heat and cold
a. autoclaving a. Sensodyne
b. heating in an open vessel & re-saturating with sterile CO2 b. pumice
c. bacteriological filtration c. Thermodent
d. all of the above A 290. A halogen characterized as a dark, reddish brown, fuming
B 278. The following are non-systemic antacids except: liquid with suffocating odor:
a. aluminum hydroxide a. bromine
b. sodium bicarbonate b. iodine
C 279. NH4Cl is contraindicated in patients with B 291. Tartar emetic, known to be an effective antischistosomal
a. diabetes mellitus agent is:
b. diabetes insipidus a. KHC4H4O6
c. impaired hepatic function b. KSbOC4H4O6
D 280. The radiopharmaceutical used for the hepatobiliary D 292. Use of sodium bisulfite
studies a. protective
a. sodium iodophippurate I-131 b. cleansing agent
b. Tc-99m DTPA c. dentrifice
c. Tc-99m-ascorbic acid complex d. anti-oxidant
d. Tc-99m-HIDA D 293. Slaked lime is
D 281. The indicator used for the USP limit test for arsenic a. CaO
a. methyl orange b. CaSO4
b. silver sulfadiazine c CaCO3
c. eriochrome black d. Ca(OH)2
d. Ag diethyldithiocarbamate D 294. Mechanism of antibacterial action of potassium
D 282. Povidone-Iodine, a water soluble, non-toxic, non-staining permanganate solutions
and a slow releasing antiseptic is a complex of iodine with: a. protein precipitation
a. EDTA b. astringent
b. Silver c. halogenation
c. potassium d. oxidation
d. polyvinyl pyrrolidone C 295. He discovered oxygen and called it empyreal air
B 283. Zinc deficiency characterized by thickened scaly a. Priestly
inflammed skin is known as: b. Beckerel
a. seborrheic dermatitis c. Scheele
b. parakeratosis C 296. MgNH4PO4 is the only __________ phosphate.
B 284. Primary HCO3- excess a. yellow
a. metabolic acidosis b. orange
b. metabolic alkalosis c. white
A 285. Dehydration and decreased renal blood flow are B 297. White precipitate is also known as:
conditions of: a. calomel
a. hyperchloremia b. ammoniated mercury
b. hypochloremia A 298. It acts as antacid in small doses, and as a laxative in large
A 286. The following are respiratory stimulants except: doses.
a. soda lime a. magnesium
b. carbon dioxide b. manganese
c. ammonium carbonate D 299. This compound is used as carbon dioxide absorber.
d. aromatic ammonia spirit a. ammonium carbonate
D 287. Anemia due to decreased blood formation can be caused b. potassium iodide
by deficiencies of key materials c. barium hydroxide
a. cobalamin d. soda lime
b. folic acid C 300. The radiopharmaceutical that is used for kidney imaging
c. pyridoxine or determining renal function.
d. all a. I-131-NaI
D 288. Used as wet dressing for persons suffering from third b. I-131-Human Serum Albumin
degree burns c. Tc-99m-Heptagluconate
a. H2O2
b. NaOCl
c. AgNO3
d. KMnO4
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 pacop question and answer
C 17. Compounds that kill or prevent the growth of
microorganisms when applied to living tissues:
B 1. The ratio of disinfectant to the dilution of phenol required to a. disinfectant b. fungicides c. antiseptics
kill a given strain of the bacterium Salmonella typhi: A 18. A combination of non-ionic and cationic surfactants with
a. Phenol number iodine:
b. Phenol coefficient a. Povidone-Ioduine b. Strong I2 solution
c. Phenol value C 19. The generic name of new Merthiolate is:
C 2. The generic name of Nizoral: a. Chorhexidine gluconate
a. Meconazole b. Clotrimazole c. Ketoconazole b. Thimerosal
C 3. Sulfonamides used for burn therapy: c. Benzalkonium chloride
a. Mafenide b. Silver sulfadiazine c. both a and b B 20. Mechanism of action of quinolones:
A 4. The following are preservatives except: a. injury to plasma membrane
a. undecylenic acid b. inhibition of DNA gyrase
b. Methyl paraben B 21. Prodrugs of active anti-malarial metabolites, the
c. benzoic acid dihydrotriazines:
d. potassium sorbate a. quinolines b. biguanides
C 5. The combination of trimethoprim and sulfamethoxazole is A 22. 7 chloro-7-deoxy lincomycin:
also known as: a. clindamycin b. roxithromycin
a. clotrimazole b. miconazole c. co-trimoxazole D 23. The drug is effective against both exoerythrocytic and
B 6. A polyene anti-fungal antibiotic: erythrocytic forms of malaria:
a. Griseofulvin b. Nystatin c. Salicylic acid a. chloroquine
A 7. Benzyl penicillin is also known as: b. quinine
a. Penicillin G b. Penicillin V c. amodiaquine
D 8. First generation urinary tract anti-infective: d. cycloguanil
a. salicylic acid B 24. Newest and most potent quinoline derivative for malaria:
b. Griseofulvin a. amodiaquine b. mefloquine
c. Norfloxacin B 25. An aromatic diamide derivative used for sleeping sickness:
d. Nalidixic acid a. suramin b. pentamidine
A 9. A fluoroquinolone: A 26. Methylated erythromycin:
a. Norfloxacin b. Pipemedic acid a. clarithromycin b. azithromycin
D 10. Combination therapy in the treatment of tuberculosis B 27. A semi-synthetic aminoglycoside whose structural
contain the following drugs, except: prototype is kanamycin:
a. Ethambutol a. Kantrex b. Amikin
b. Rifampin B 28. Structural congener of Symmetrel which is used for viral
c. Isoniazid influenza:
d. Streptomycin a. ribavirin b. rimantadine
B 11. These drugs are used in treatment of amoebic dysentery, A 29. More potent optical isomer of ofloxacin:
except: a. levo b. dextro
a. Tinidazole B 30. These group of drugs share same mechanism of action as
b. Chloroquine that of sulfanilamide but less effective:
c. Etofamide a. trimethoprim b. sulfones
d. Metronidazole B 31. Mechanism of action of thiabendazole:
B 12. A fourth generation cephalosphorins: a. paralysis due to GABA receptor occupation
a. Cefaloxin b. Cefepime b. inhibition of cell division
C 13. This drug used in the treatment of chicken pox: B 32. Anti-burn therapy causes systemic acidosis:
a. Zidovudine b. Chloroquine c. Acyclovir a. Silvadene b. sulfamylon
A 14. The drug of choice for typhoid fever: C 33. Drug of choice for filarial infections:
a. Chloramphenicol b. Lincomycin a. ivermectin
D 15. The generic name of Dalacin C which is often used to treat b. praziquantel
pimples: c. diethylcarbamazine
a. Erythromycin B 34. Active form of the sulfonamide:
b. Tetracycline a. non-ionized b. ionized
c. Lincomycin B 35. Use of crotamiton:
d. Clindamycin a. pediculicide b. scabicide
B C 36. Mechanism of action of mebendazole:
16. The study of chemical agents which are selectively more a. paralysis due to excessive loss of calcium
toxic to the invading organisms than the host: b. unknown mechanism of action
a. therapeutics b. chemotherapy
Shtm - rph 15
 pacop question and answer
c. decreased glucose uptake C 55. A tumor is benign if:
D 37. Sympathomimetic agent that bind to alpha receptors found a. metastasis is evident
centrally that cause suppression of appetite: b. cell originating from the tumor may invade other tissues and
a. Xenical b. Gas-X c. Apokinon d. Adifax cause damage
B 38. An example of a glycine conjugation pathway: c. tumor mass may be removed by surgery and regression of
a. phenol to phenolsulfate remaining cells occur
b. benzoic acid to hippuric acid B 56. 1 gram mass of tumor is equivalent to:
B 39. The following are characteristics of active transport, a. 100,000 cancer cells b. 1 billion cancer cells
except: C 57. The following are mucolytics, except:
a. follow saturation kinetics a. bromhexine b. acetylcysteine c. caramiphen
b. expenditure of energy C 58. The side effects of steroids used for asthma are minimized
B 40. Anti-diarrheals tend to decrease pore sizes of GIT epithelial when the drug is given:
to prevent formation of watery stools: a. orally b. intravenously c. via inhalation
a. adsorbents b. astringents B 59. A progesterone derivative which is used for the treatment
C 41. This anti-histamine possesses the same indications as that of endometrial cancer:
of diphenhydramine: a. tamoxifen b. depo-provera
a. meclizine b. hyoscine c. dimenhydrinate B 60. Drug of choice for absence seizures:
A 42. The metabolism of warfarin is induced by the following a. carbamazepine b. ethosuximide
except: C 61. An anti-oxidant added in food products which are potent
a. tolbutamide carcinogens:
b. haloperidol a. aspartame b. PCP c. BHT
c. nitroglycerine A 62. Pentavalent antimony in the presence hydrochloric acid
d. DDT gives a violet precipitate with this pink dye:
C 43. Fertility vitamins: a. rhodomine B
a. retinoic acid b. riboflavin c. alpha tocopherol b. p-nitrobenzene azo-resorcinol
C 44. Calcitriol, a hormone responsible for enhanced absorption C 63. Expectorant obtained from the phenol volatile oil of Fagus
of calcium from the intestines, is synthesized from: grandiflora:
a. calcitonin b. vitamin D2 c. vitamin D3 a. potassium iodide b. tyloxapol c. guaiafenesin
A 45. A metabolite of chloral hydrate: B 64. Mescaline is a _________ derivative:
a. trichloroacetic acid b. acetaldehyde a. indolethylamine b. phenylethylamine
A 46. A sample drug excreted via the saliva: D 65. Anesthetic of choice for labor:
a. lidocaine b. sulfonamide a. halothane
B 47. A vitamin A derivative used in the management of b. enflurance
psoriasis: c. nitrous oxide
a. Retin-A b. Tegison d. methoxyflurane
B 48. Structurally specific drugs are those whose activity B 66. Drug of choice for the acute attack of migraine:
depends on: a. Codeine b. Avamigran
a. physical characteristics C 67. Anesthetic of choice for patients with asthma:
b. ability to bind on a specific receptor a. ketamine b. thiopental c. enflurane
A 49. The most potent anti-bacterial alcohol: D 68. Propionic acid derivative:
a. primary b. secondary c. tertiary a. paracetamol b. dipyrone c. piroxicam d. naproxen
A 50. Product of acid hydrolysis of penicillins: B 69. An example of iodophor:
a. penicillenic acid b. penicilloic acid a. iodine tincture b. povidone-iodine
B 51. Cidex: B 70. Phenylmethanol:
a. gammabenzenehexachloride b. glutarol a. chloretone b. benzyl alcohol
B 52. Presence of electron withdrawing groups attached to the A 71. A characteristic of cancer cells:
alpha carbon of the amide side chain in penicillins render: a. lack of normal growth controls
a. activity against Pseudomonas b. G0 phase is the resting phase for all cell types
b. acid stability A 72. Carcinogenic substances obtained from paper products:
D 53. Attachment of bulky groups to the alpha carbon of the a. polychlorinated biphenyls
amide side chain in penicillins render: b. acesulfame
a. activity against Pseudomonas C 73. Prostaglandins are also known as:
b. acid stability a. saturated fats b. compound lipids c. eicosanoids
c. activity against Gram (-) bacteria C 74. Which of the following functional groups is the most
d. penicillinase resistance basic?
B 54. A glycopeptide antibiotic: a. imide b. amide c. amine
a. beta-lactam b. vancomycin A 75. Derivatives of benzylsulfonylureas are:

Shtm - rph 16
 pacop question and answer
a. oral hypoglycemics b. diuretics b. a parasympathetic drug d. ergot derivative
B 76. A necessary precursor of visual pigment is: B 95. Orthohydroxybenzoic acid is:
a. tocopherol b. retinal a. acetic acid b. salicylic acid
C 77. Paracetamol is a/an: B 96. Diamox has a generic name of:
a. salicylate b. pyrazolone c. aniline derivative a. allopurinol b. acetazolamide
B 78. All of the following are progestins except: C 97. Diphenoxylate is a structural analog of:
a. norethindrone a. dilantin b. codeine c. meperidine
b. testosterone B 98. Cevitamic acid is:
c. ethynodiol diacetate a. folic acid b. ascorbic acid
d. progesterone B 99. Chloroquine is the generic name of:
C 79. Aspirin is to salicylic acid as morphine is to: a. atabrine b. artane
a. codeine b. methadone c. heroin D 100. Kantrex belongs to this type of antibiotics:
A 80. The functional group in pyridoxine is: a. penicillins
a. alcohol b. amine b. cephalosphorins
A 81. Ascorbic acid and tetracycline are: c. macrolides
a. enols b. esters d.. aminoglycosides
C 82. MAO is classified as a/an: B 101. Epinephrine is also known as:
a. protein inhibitor b. complexing agent c. enzyme a. tocopherol b. adrenalin
C 83. When used in pharmaceutic preparations, the purpose of C 102. 1,3-dimethylxanthine is:
hydroquinone, lecithin and alpha tocopherol is: a. caffeine b. theobromine c. theophylline
a. humectant C 103. Of the following penicillin congeners, the one with the
b. demelanizing agent broadest spectrum of action is:
c. oil soluble antioxidant a. pen V b. methicillin c. carbenicillin
D 84. Natural occurring alkaloids, derivatives of tropane are: C 104. Zantac is:
a. nasal decongestants a. cimetidine b. famotidine c. ranitidine
b. analgesic B 105. Cytotec is:
c. vasoconstrictor a. sucralfate b. misoprostol
d. bronchodilator B 106. Ma huang is a/an:
A 85. Local anesthetics that is not a derivative of benzoic acid is: a. imidazole alkaloid b. alkaloidal amine
a. lidocaine b. procaine B 107. Procaine is a/an:
C 86. All of the following are macrolide antibiotics, except: a. amine b. ester
a. erythromycin D 108. The functional group found in codeine and scopolamine is
b. oleandomycin a/an:
c. vancomycin a. amine b. alcohol c. ester d. ether
d. spiramycin C 109. Aureomycin is:
B 87. Ativan has this generic name: a. kanamycin b. erythromycin c. chlortetracycline
a. triazolam b. lorazepam A 110. Bonamine is:
B 88. Plasil is: a. meclizine b. dramamine
a. acyclovir b. metoclopramide C 111. Polyene antibiotics include:
C 89. The principal hydrolytic degradation product of aspirin is: I. nystatin
a. methyl salicylate b. acetyl chloride c. salicylic acid II. amphotericin B
D 90. Barbiturates containing a sulfur atom are usually: III. Griseofulvin
a. short acting a. I only b. III only c. I and II
b. intermediate acting A 112. Among the three xanthines, it is drug of choice for
c. long acting obtaining a stimulating effect of the CNS.
d. ultra short acting a. caffeine b. theophylline
D 91. Although the prostaglandins are hormone-like, they may D 113. A polysaccharide that is used as plasma expander is:
closely resemble which of the following a. starch b. insulin c. dextrose d. dextran
chemically? B 114. The combination type oral contraceptive pill contains:
a. enzymes b. porphyrins c. proteins d. lipids a. an androgen and a progestin
A 92. The onset and duration of barbiturate action is mainly a b. an estrogen and progestin
function of its: B 115. Simethicone is chemically classified as a/an:
a. lipid solubility b. plasma binding a. wax b. silicone
B 93. The prototype narcotic antagonist is: C 116. An acidifying agent employed in effervescent salts and
a. nalorphine b. naloxone refrigerant drinks:
D 94. Lysergic acid diethylamide is: a. acetic acid b. lactic acid c. tartaric acid
a. derived from mushroom c. histamine analog D 117. This is an analgesic agent that is used to lessen severity of

Shtm - rph 17
 pacop question and answer
labor pains in obstetrics: A 133. Sulfonamides are metabolized by humans principally by:
a. colchicines a. acetylation b. oxidation
b. codeine A 134. Streptomycin and other aminoglycoside antibiotics are:
c. apomorphine a. ototoxic b. hyperglycemic
d. Demerol D 135. Benzalkonium chloride is a germicidal surfactant which
B 118. Benzaldehyde is synthetic: rendered inactive in presence of:
a. cinnamon oil b. bitter almond oil a. organic acid
B 119. The ring common among penicillins and cephalosphorins: b. gram-negative organisms
a. benzene ring b. B-lactam ring c. cationic surfactants d. soaps
C 120. Retin-A is: B 136. Acetazolamide (Diamox) is rarely the drug of choice for
a. alltoin b. adapalene c. tretinoin diuretic therapy because it:
A 121. Barbiturates with an intermediate duration of action: a. is too potent
a. amorbital b. Phenobarbital b. causes systemic acidosis and alkaline urine
B 122. Vitamin C is extremely important in wound healing. Its C 137. The antipsychotic drug loxapine succinate (Loxitane) is a
principal effect is on the: _____ compound:
a. maturation of osteoblast a. phenothiazine
b. collagen formation b. butyrophenone
E 123. CNS depressants with skeletal muscular relaxant property, c. dibenzoxazepine
except: B 138. Diphenoxylate (Lomotil) is an agent useful in the
a. Methacarbamol, USP treatment of diarrhea. It is structurally similar to:
b. Carisoprodol, USP a. kaolin b. meperidine
c. Baclofen A 139. Which of the following is classified as a broad-spectrum
d. Buspirone antibiotic?
e. Meprobamate a. ampicillin b. sodium methicillin
C 124. The drug of choice for the treatment of genital herpes B 140. An antimanic agent:
being potent against DNA formation: a. haloperidol b. lithium salts
a. Symmetrel b. Herplex c. Acyclovir A 141. Liquefied phenol, USP:
A 125. The drug most effective against malarial parasites in the a. phenol containing 10% water
liver but not effective against parasites within erythrocytes: b. carbol-fuchsin solution
a. primaquine b. pyrimethamine B 142. Castellani's paint:
B 126. Feldene is: a. phenol containing 10% water
a. sulindac b. piroxicam b. carbol-fuchsin solution
C 127. Voltaren is: A 143. This is an effective antidote for the treatment of poisoning
a. acemetacin b. ibuprofen c. diclofenac by copper:
C 128. Depo-Provera is: a. penicillamine b. dimercaprol
a. cyproterone acetate B 144. Tetracycline is:
b. nandrolene decanoate a. an intermediate spectrum, bactericidal
c. medroxyprogesterone acetate b. a broad spectrum, bacteriostatic
B 129. Which of the following actions of histamine is not B 145. Which of the following is not soluble in or miscible with
alcohol, USP?
blocked by H1 antagonist: a. ether
a. increase in salivary excretion b. acacia
b. increase in gastric secretions c. methanol
d. Phenobarbital
c. vasodilation
e. water
d. itchiness D 146. The drug used in all types of tuberculosis is:
A 130. Opium is an example of: a. ethambutol
a. narcotic analgesic b. cycloserine
b. non-steroidal analgesic c. streptomycin
D 131. Which of the following penicillin derivatives is both acid- d. isoniazid
stable and resistant to penicillinase? B 147. Levarterenol (Levophed) is:
a. methicillin a. L-epinephrine b. L-norepinephrine
b. disodium carbenicillin A 148. The most active aminoglycoside against Mycobacterium
c. ampicillin tuberculosis is:
d. oxacillin a. streptomycin b. neomycin
B 132. A diuretic that will manifest a competitive inhibition of B 149. The most effective agent in the treatment of Rickettsia,
the action of aldosterone: Mycoplasma and Chlamydia infection is:
a. Triamterene b. Spirinolactone
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 pacop question and answer
a. penicillin G b. tetracycline A 167. The generic name of the brand Diabinese:
E 150. Aluminum and calcium salts inhibit intestinal absorption a. Chlorpropramide b. Glibenclamide
of which of the following agents? A 168. A loop or high-ceiling diuretic:
a. Isoniazid a. Furosemide b. Sorbitol
b. Chloramphenicol A 169. This drug is used as an osmotic diuretic:
c. Phenoxymethyl penicillin a. Mannitol b. Ethanol
d. Erythromycin D 170. These drugs are narcotic analgesics, except:
e. Tetracycline a. morphine
C 151. Which of the following penicillins is resistant to b. codeine
penicillinase? c. nalbuphine
a. Polymyxin B b. Streptomycin c. Dicloxacillin d. mefenamic acid
B 152. The quinolone derivative effective against P. Aeruginosa C 171. This is used as an inhalation anesthetic:
is: a. droperidol b. thiopental c. halothane
a. norfloxacin b. ciprofloxacin B 172. Levodopa is used in the treatment of:
B 153. Which of the following penicillins is resistant to a. leukemia b. Parkinson's disease
penicillinase? A 173. The generic name of Nubain:
a. Ampicillin b. Oxacillin a. Nalbuphine b. Naloxone
C 154. Rancidity of fats may be due to: D 174. Methenamine is also called:
a. reduction to alcohols a. Uridine b. Uracil c. Uric acid d. Urothropin
b. hydrogenation B 175. Neurotoxicity caused by Isoniazid can be treated with:
c. oxidation of double bonds a. thiamine b. pyridoxine
A 155. A thiazide diuretic can: D 176. A broad-spectrum anthelmintic that is effective against a
a. enhance action of amphetamines variety of nematode infestations and is the generic name of
b. antagonize action of guanethidine Antiox:
B 156. Surfactants are characterized by: a. Piperazine
a. the presence of water-solubilizing groups b. Thiabendazole
b. the presence of water-solubilizing and fat-solubilizing c. Pyrantel pamoate
A 157. Piperazine citrate (Antepar), gentian violet, pyrivinium d. Mebendazole
pamoate (Povan) and thiabendazole B 177. A common agent in smoking cessation programs
(Mintezol) are all: providing patches:
a. anthelmintics b. antiseptics a. lobeline b. nicotine
B 158. AZT or Azidothymidine use in the treatment of: C 178. Thiabendazole (Mintezol), a benzimidazole derivative, is
a. Koch's infection b. HIV or AIDS an anthelmintic drug used primarily to treat infections caused
A 159. Is a folate-reductase inhibitor: by:
a. Trimethoprim b. Sulfonamides a. Ascaris
B 160. The structure of this class of antibiotic has a beta-lactam b. Necator americanus (hookworm)
ring and a thiazolidine ring. c. Strongyloides
a. Tazobactam b. Penicillin B 179. One of the reasons why aminoglycosides are frequently
C 161. The generic name of Duracef: combined with other antibiotics in treating certain infections is
a. Cephradine b. Cephazoline c. Cephadroxil to:
D 162. The preparation is used as pediculicide: a. prevent drug infections
a. Ultralan cream b. prevent drug emergence of resistant bacteria
b. Trimycin ointment D 180. Angiotensin-converting enzymes (ACE) inhibitors are
c. Betronavate ointment associated with a high incidence of which of the following
d. Kwell lotion adverse reactions?
B 163. An antibiotic that is obtained from Streptomyces noursei: a. hepatitis
a. Amphotericin B b. hypokalemia
b. Nystatin c. agranulocytosis
B 164. The plant containing the anticancer drug, vincristine and d. proteinuria
vnblastine: D 181. Which of the ff chemotherapeutic agents has a good
a. Mayapple b. Periwinkle penetrability into cerebrospinal fluid?
A 165. A very common adverse reaction of alkylating agents a. streptomycin
used in the treatment of cancer: b. gentamicin
a. alopecia c. tobramycin
b. miosis d. chloramphenicol
C 166. These are calcium channel blockers, except: C 182. The scientist who can lay claim to the title of Father of
a. Verapamil b. Nifedipine c. Atenolol d. Diltiazem Chemotherapy:

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 pacop question and answer
a. Robert Koch b. Joseph Lister c. Paul Ehrlich blockade, except:
A 183. Effective administration routes of nitroglycerin for angina a. ampicillin
pectoris include all of following, except: b. kanamycin
a. oral b. inravenous c. transdermal d. sublingual c. streptomycin
A 184. This group is responsible for the bone marrow toxicity of d. neomycin
chloramphenicol: e. amikacin
a. NO2 group b. OH group B 195. For the treatment of systemic mycosis, which of the
D 185. Diazepam is used in the treatment of all of the following, following antifungal agents can be administered by intravenous
except: route?
a. anxiety a. miconazole
b. status epilepticus b. amphotericin B
c. skeletal muscle spasm C 196. Which of the following agents is not used for local
d. analgesia candidiasis?
e. preoperative sedation a. nystatin
E 186. Which is not true regarding ceftriaxone: b. gentian violet
a. 3rd generation cephalosporin b. resistant to B-lactamase c. griseofulvin
c. administered parenterally B 197. All of the following are effective and clinically useful
d. once daily dosing against worm infestation caused by Ascaris
e. resistant to acid Lumbricoides, except:
B 187. All of the following substances are present in opium, a. piperazine
except: b. niridazole
a. thebaine c. mebendazole
b. methadone d. pyrantel pamoate
c. codeine e. thiabendazole
d. morphine C 198. A good local anesthetic should have all of the following
e. papaverine properties, except:
B 188. An antipyretic aniline derivative with weak anti- a. systemic toxicity should be low
inflammatory activity: b. effective at body fluid pH
a. acetylsalicylic acid c. onset of anesthesia should be gradual and short duration of
b. acetaminophen action to avoid toxicity
A 189. The most potent of the inhalation anesthetic agents: d. must be effective regardless of the site of application
a. methoxyflurane b. enflurane e. not irritant to the tissue and should not cause any permanent
C 190. Which of the following antineoplastics is not considered structural damage to nerves
an antimetabolite? D 199. From the list given below, identify the drug possessing
a. methotrexate "triad of features" which includes antiamebic. antigiardiasis,
b. thioguanine and antitrichomonal:
c. etoposide a. iodoquinol
d. fluorouracil b. chloroquine
e. cytarabine c. emetine
E 191. Which of the following statements is not true regarding d. metronidazole
the aminoglycoside antibiotics? A 200. Heparin is a/an:
a. they are highly ionized in solution a. extract of animal tissue b. metal c. enzyme
b. they are bactericidal B 201. Amongst the following, the drug of choice for acute attack
c. they are more effective in alkaline medium of Plasmodium vivax malaria is:
d. they are ototoxic and nephrotoxic a. amodiaquine b. chloroquine c. primaquine
e. they are easily absorbed after oral administration B 202. Drugs which act on erythrocytic cycle of malarial
A 192. Baclofen, a derivative of GABA is used in: parasite:
a. spasticity in patients with multiple sclerosis a. will be effective for radical cure
b. parkinsonism b. will be effective for suppressive prophylaxis
C 193. Long term use of tetracyclines in pregnant women should B 203. All statements regarding antipyretic analgesics are false,
be avoided due to several reasons. Which of these is not true? except:
a. they chelate calcium ions a. produce fall in blood pressure
b. they may predispose to discoloration of deciduous teeth in b. raise the pain threshold
the infant c. develop drug dependence
c. they are toxic to the fetus and may cause abortion d. relieve visceral pain
d. they can cause yellow atrophy of the liver in the mother e. produce general CNS depression
e. they get deposited in growing bones C 204. Drug of choice for ringworm infection is:
A 194. All of the following antibiotics produce neuromuscular a. nystatin b. ketoconazole c. griseofulvin
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 pacop question and answer
A 205. Acetaminophen is preferred over aspirin in following b. ethosuximide
conditions, except: c. valproic acid
a. rheumatic disease d. diazepam
b. patients with peptic ulcer e. phenobarbital
c. patients with bronchial asthma C 216. Which of the following penicillins is acid stable and
d. children with influenza therefore orally effective:
e. children with chicken pox a. benzathine penicillin b. piperacillin c. cloxacillin
A 206. Oral neomycin and streptomycin are used for sterilization C 217. A monoamine oxidase inhibitor used as an antidepressant
of bowel and for dysentery because: drug:
a. they are at least absorbed from oral route a. amitryptiline
b. the peak concentration in blood is achieved quickly b. thioridazine
D 207. Which of the following is the most appropriate statement c. tranylcypromine
about indomethacin? D 218. Which of the following is not used for topical application
a. it is a powerful analgesic only on external surfaces?
b. it is a power anti-inflammatory only a. mafenide
c. it is only analgesic and anti-inflammatory without b. silver sulfadiazine
antipyretic effect c. sodium sulfacetamide
d. it is a powerful analgesic and anti-inflammatory agent with d. sulfisoxazole
antipyretic and uricosuric actions e. resorcinol
B 208. Which of the following is a depot penicillin preparation? B 219. All of the following benzodiazepines are commonly used
a. phenoxymethylpenicillin
b. benzathine penicillin in the treatment of anxiety, except:
c. methicillin a. chlordiazepoxide
B 209. All of the following drugs interfere with platelet activity, b. clonazepam
except:
c. alprazolam
a. aspirin
b. dimercaprol d. lorazepam
c. protamine e. diazepam
d. warfarin D 220. Which of the following chemotherapeutic agents is not
e. anisindione bactericidal?
C 210. 6-aminopenicillanic acid is: a. carbenicillin
a. major metabolite of penicillin b. gentamicin
b. responsible for development of penicillin resistance c. cefuroxime
c. the common nucleus of all penicillins d. erythromycin
A 211. Diphenoxylate, effective antidiarrheal drug is: e. vancomycin
a. related to meperidine D 221. All of the following statements are true concerning the
b. atropine-like drug penicillins, except:
E 212. Class I antiarrhythmic drugs result in decrease in heart a. this class of antibacterials acts by damaging the cell walls of
rate of the accelerated heart and usually reduce the rate of bacteria
conduction of cardiac impulse. They include the following, b. piperacillin and ticarcillin have activity against
except: Pseudomonas species
a.quinidine c. use of any penicillin is contraindicated in a patient who has
b. procainamide had an allergic reaction to any one penicillin
c. disopyramide d. they are obtained from the genus of Streptomyces
d. phenytoin e. the addition of clavulanic acid to amoxicillin preparations
e. amiodarone protects the drug from penicillinase
B 213. Which of the following drugs does not reduce blood B 222. In choosing a specific benzodiazepine for the treatment of
cholesterol level? insomnia, all of the following are considerations, except:
a. clofibrate b. epinephrine c. cholestyramine a. age of the patient
D 214. Which of the following is the longest-acting nitrate? b. mental status of the patient
a. glyceryl trinitrate c. the half life of the drug
b. amyl nitrite d. the absorption of the drug
c. erythritol tetranitrate e. the underlying sleep disorder being treated
d. pentaerythritol tetranitrate C 223. An antibiotic most commonly used in topical
e. isosorbide dinitrate preparations:
A 215. Which of the following is considered a primary drug for a. clotrimazole
the treatment of all seizure types except absence? b. vidarabine
a. carbamazepine c. bacitracin
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 pacop question and answer
E 224. The preferred agent for hypertensive emergencies: c. streptomycin
a. propranolol d. daunorubicin
b. clonidine e. plicamycin
c. captopril A 235. This is the process utilized by Florey and Chain in
d. diazoxide isolating penicillin:
e. sodium nitroprusside a. freeze-drying b. chromatography
C 225. Superior to acyclovir in the treatment of herpes viruses in C 236. The metabolite of the red dye, prontosil, responsible for
the CNS in neonates: its antimicrobial property:
a. idoxuridine b. ribavirin c. vidarabine a. sulfisoxazole
D 226. Which of the following bases is most susceptible to b. sulfamethoxazole
alkylating agents? c. sulfanilamide
a. adenosine B 237. Which of the following antiviral agents is not useful for
b. cytosine the treatment of herpes virus infection?
c. thymidine a. vidarabine
d. guanine b. interferon
A 227. Vincristine is used primarily in the treatment of which of B 238. All of the following chemotherapeutic agents are useful
the following? for prophylaxis against infections caused by specific
a. Hodgkin's disease b. liver cancer microorganisms, except:
B 228. For the treatment of systemic mycoses, which of the a. amantadine against influenza A virus
following antifungal agents can be administered by intravenous b. chloramphenicol against typhoid fever
route? c. isoniazid against tubercular infection
a. miconazole d. tetracycline against rickettsial infection
b. amphotericin B e. pyrimethamine against malaria in endemic areas
E 229. Penicillin is the drug of choice for the following infective E 239. The therapeutic uses of amphetamines does not include
conditions, except: which of the following:
a. gonococcal infection a. in hyperkinetic children
b. pneumococcal infection b. narcolepsy
c. treponema pallidum infection c. obesity
d. streptococcal infection d. parkinsonism
e. pseudomonal infection e. hypertension
B 230. All of the following drugs act as prodrugs and need to be B 240. Nitrous oxide, a general anesthetic agent, is characterized
converted in the body to active compound, except: by all of the features of which of the following groups?
a. levodopa a. high potency, good analgesia, good skeletal muscle
b. salbutamol relaxation
c. prednisone b. low potency, good analgesia, poor skeletal muscle relaxation
d. bacampicillin D 241. A drug receptor may be all of the following, except:
e. cyclophosphamide a. isolable enzyme
C 231. Amongst the following the drug of choice for scabies is: b. functional component of a cell membrane
a. sulfur c. protein or a nucleic acid
b. crotamiton d. chelates
c. benzyl benzoate B 242. Mechanism of action of trimethoprim:
D 232. Sensitivity of gram negative bacilli to amoxicillin is due a. competitive inhibitor for incorporation of PABA
to its: b. folate reductase inhibitor
a. carboxyl group A 243. A drug molecule which possesses both intrinsic activity
b. nitro group and affinity:
c. hydroxyl group a. agonist b. antagonist
d. amino group C 244. Chelating agent that is an effective antidote foe copper
A 233. Bone marrow depression resulting in pancytopenia is the poisoning and used in the treatment of Wilson's disease:
characteristic toxic effect of all the following drugs, except: a. deferoxamine mesylate
a. oxytetracycline b. dimercaprol
b. chloramphenicol c. penicillamine
c. methotrexate A 245. Which is not a chelating agent?
d. mitomycin a. 8-Methoxyquinoline
e. dactinomycin b. 8-Mercaptoquinoline
C 234. The following antibiotic possess clinically useful c. 8-Hydroxyquinoline
antimalignant property, except: d. 4-AZA-Oxime
a. mitomycin C 246. Dimercaprol is also known as:
b. bleomycin a. BAL b. Dithioglycerol c. both a & b
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 pacop question and answer
A 247. Synthesized from dry hydrogen chloride and carbon C 267. The following are the uses of methylene blue, except:
monoxide at 300 degrees and 200 atm pressure: a. antidote for cyanide poisoning
a. tetrachloroethylene b. piperazine b. antidote for nitrate poisoning
A 248. Passive diffusion includes what drug? c. antidote for barbiturate poisoning
a. Lipid soluble b. Lipid insoluble B 268. Mechanism of action of this anti-tubercular agent is to
D 249. It is the tendency of the drug to combine with the inhibit protein synthesis:
receptor: a. PZA b. Streptomycin
a. Efficacy b. Intrinsic activity c. Bonding d. Affinity A 269. Compounds that result from a combination of electron
B 250. Brand name of Bisacodyl: donors with a metal ion to form a ring structure:
a. Gelusin MPX b. Dulcolax a. chelates b. ligands
B 251. Penicillin G A 270. Transport of drug molecules from the site of
a. Methicillin b. Benzyl penicillin administration to the systemic circulation:
A 252. Organo-Silicon polymers containing O and Si atoms with a. absorption
a substituent organic groups: b. metabolism
a. silicons b. alkynes D 271. Methylsalicylate is also known as :
D 253. A phenol primarily obtained from clove oil: a. toothache drop
a. resorcinol b. cresol c. hexylresorcinol d. eugenol b. oil of Jasmine
D 254. Which of the following is used in the treatment of c. oil of rose
pernicious anemia? d. oil of wintergreen
a. thiamine b. niacin c. riboflavin d. cyanocobalamin B 272. Agents that facilitate the evacuation of bowels:
A 255. Classified as a macrolide antibiotic, except: a. anti-motility agents b. cathartics
a. Bacitracin C 273. Absolute alcohol is commercially prepared by:
b. Erythromycin a. direct distillation
c. Spiramycin b. fermentation
d. Oleandomycin c. azeotropic distillations
C 256. A macrolide antibiotic which was found in the soil of B 274. Nubain:
Iloilo: a. meperidine b. nalbuphine c. methadone
a. Achromycin b. Albamycin c. Erythromycin D 275. Kaopectate:
D 257. The following antimalarials are synthetic drugs, except: a. activated charcoal
a. Atabrine b. Aralen c. Camoquin d. Quinine b. attaulgite
A 258. Polyene antibiotics for fungi: c. Oresol
a. amphotericin B b. ketoconazole d. kaolin + pectin
C 259. Also known as solvent shift: A 276. The least stable of all vitamins:
a. facilitated transport a. ascorbic acid
b. ion-pair transport b. folic acid
c. bulk transport c. thiamine
D 260. Externally, ethyl alcohol is employed as: d. retinoic acid
a. refrigerant e. menadione
b. rubefacient C 277. A change in structure of isoniazid causes:
c. astringent a. an increase in the potency of the drug
d. all of the above b. an increase in the duration of drug action
C 261. Carbonic acid gas: c. decrease in the potency of the drug
a. oxygen b. nitrogen c. carbon dioxide C 278. The most toxic vitamin:
A 262. For patients allergic to penicillins, this drug is used as a. folic acid b. pantothenic acid c. retinoic acid
alternative: B 279. Major organ for excretion:
a. erythromycin b. aureomycin a. liver b. kidney c. skin
A 263. These anti-diarrheals trap the toxins and flushes them out B 280. Generic name of Benadryl AH:
of your system: a. guaiafenesin b. diphenhydramine
a. adsorbents b. anti-motility A 281. A bright red dye that was found to create remarkable
A 264. Drug of choice for urinary tract infections: cures of streptococcal infections:
a. co-trimoxazole b. gentamicin a. prontosil b. methyl red
C 265. Voltaren: C 282. Halazone is a/an:
a. tolmetin b. sulindac c. diclofenac a. iodophor
C 266. The chemical name of Phenethicillin: b. mercury containing anti-infective
a. Benzyl penicillin c. chlorine containing anti-infective
b. Phenoxymethyl penicillin E 283. Drug of choice for leprosy:
c. Phenoxyethyl penicillin a. rifampicin

Shtm - rph 23
 pacop question and answer
b. ethonamide A 298. An example of a commercial product that is pro-drug:
c. prothionamide a. Lasix b. Geocillin
e. dapsone B 299. All of the following statements are correct, except:
d. clofazimine a. sulfonamides increase the risk of neonatal kernicterus
B 284. The metabolic function of niacin: b. ketoconazole penetrates into the CSF
a. decarboxylation b. redox reactions c. metronidazole is effective against Enterobacter histolytica
B 285. Sunshine vitamin: d. mebendazole is the drug of choice in the treatment of
a. A b. D c. E d. K whipworm infections
B 286. The following are fat-soluble vitamins, except: B 300. Large overdose of acetaminophen are likely to cause:
a. A b. B2 c. D d. E e. K a. tinnitus b. hepatic necrosis
C 287. In terms of pH, aspirin is absorbed in the:
a. mouth b. small intestines c. stomach
B 288. Therapeutic gas used as a gas diluent/carrier:
a. oxygen b. helium
D 289. The following drugs are extensively metabolized in the
liver, except:
a. Isoproterenol
b. Propranolol
c. Lidocaine
d. Paracetamol
C 290. A dye used in vital nerve staining:
a. malachite green
b. gentian violet
c. methylene blue
D 291. The excretion of weakly basic drug will be more rapid in
acidic urine than in basic urine because:
a. all drugs are excreted more rapidly in acidic urine
b. the drug will exist primarily in the unionized form, which
cannot easily be reabsorbed
c. weak bases cannot be reabsorbed from the kidney tubules
d. the drug will exist primarily in the ionized form, which
cannot be easily reabsorbed
C 292. Superinfection is common with:
a. antibiotics which are given parenterally
b. those which are used for prolonged period
c. those which suppress the normal bacterial flora
A 293. A potentially fatal aplastic anemia is a toxicity associated
with:
a. chloramphenicol b. nitrofurantoin
C 294. Which is not true for cephalosporins?
a. broad spectrum b. bactericidal c. affected by penicillinases
D 295. Bactrim and Septrim are trade names for a fixed-dose
combination of:
a. sulfamethizole and trimethoxazole
b. sulfisoxazole and methenamine
c. sulfamethoxazole and phenazopyridine
d. sulfamethoxazole and trimethoprim
C 296. Which of the following is most likely to cause tinnitus and
hearing loss in high doses?
a. ibuprofen
b. phenylbutazone
c. acetylsalicylic acid
B 297. Pharmacologic effects of the classic antihistamines
include all of the following, except:
a. sedation with low doses
b. inhibition of gastric acid secretion
c. an antipruritic effect
d. drying of salivary and bronchial secretion
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pacop question and answer

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