10 Alternative Investment Questions
10 Alternative Investment Questions
10 Alternative Investment Questions
▪ An investor wishes to invest in Becker fund Ltd and the details are given as below:
▪ Land: 2,000,000
• Investments: 75,000,000
• Liabilities: 17,000,000
• Accrued Expenses: 500,000
• Front end load: 2%
• Outstanding units: 1,000,000 Calculate NAV
A. 59.5
B. 60
C. 58.31
▪ A.
The formula for calculating NAV is (Assets-Liabilities-Accrued expenses)/Outstanding units
= (2m+75m-17m-0.5m)/1m
= 59.5 Hence A is correct.
A UK Global macro fund manager wants to invest his funds. Which of the following scenarios are least
likely suitable for him for investing purposes?
A. Steep fall in the US dollar.
B. An acquisition of a distressed firm by another foreign company on expectations of synergy benefits.
C. Low volatility in the Japanese stock markets.
▪ B.
An event driven fund manager would be looking for investment in the distressed firm's acquisition.
What is the most likely motive of creating a collateralized commodities futures position?
A. To earn a return equal to gain on futures position plus the interest on treasury securities like T bills.
B. To buy more T bills, when the futures contract prices fall.
C. To sell more T bills, when the futures contract prices fall.
▪ C.
A collateralized commodities futures position is created by going long on commodities futures and buying
treasury securities worth the contract value of the futures contract. If futures fall, it results in margin calls
as long on futures loses, which can be honored by selling T bills, hence C is correct. B is incorrect as T
bills are bought when futures prices increase as investor is long.
Which of the following conclusions regarding hedge funds is least likely to be correct?
A. Hedge funds have higher risk profile than equity investments measured by standard deviation
B. Sharpe ratio for hedge funds has been consistently higher than most equity investments
C. There is low correlation between hedge fund performance and conventional asset class
▪ A.
The correct answer is Hedge funds have higher risk profile than equity investments measured by
standard deviation
▪ A.
Low liquidity may lead to larger bid ask spreads in ETF prices. OTC derivatives like forwards and options
involve counterparty/credit risks.
The limitation in which the disclosure of past performance of all the funds managed vests with the fund
manager is termed as:
A. Back-filling bias
B. Survivorship bias
C. Self-selection Bias
▪ C.
When the index only includes surviving funds and not the discontinued ones, its called survivorship bias.
Hence B is incorrect. Hedge fund index includes mostly those managers who have strong track record is
called back-filled bias. Hence A is incorrect. However the funds to be disclosed voluntarily at the
discretion of the fund manager leads to Self-selection bias, hence C is correct.
▪ An investor is considering the purchase of a commercial real estate and provided following
information:
• Gross potential rental income 175,000
• Vacancy & collection loss rate 8%
• Insurance 15,000
• Taxes 12,000
• Utilities and maintenance 25,000
▪ Calculate the appraisal value of the property if market cap rate is 10%?
A. 1,210,000
B. 1,090,000
C. 1,230,000
▪ B.
The correct answer is 1,090,000
▪ In which of the following types of hedge funds, fund invests in a distressed company or in a potential
merger & acquisition situation?
A. Long / short funds
B. Event driven funds
C. Market neutral funds
▪ B.
The correct answer is Event driven funds
▪ C.
The fund manager gets a minimum fee which is called the management fee and not the incentive fee
▪ B.
Hedge fund investment is open to a limited number of people. In US, people with more than $ 1 million in
net worth.
▪ A hedge fund with 10 million of initial investment. They charge “1” and “10” percent management fee
on fund at year end and incentive fee respectively. The capital has 30 percent return. Find the
effective investor gain if the incentive fee is calculated based on return net of the management fee
A. 2.57 million
B. 2.583 million
C. 3 million
▪ B.
Management fee = 1% of 13 million = .13 million
Incentive fee = 10% of (13-10 -.13) = .287 million
Investor gain = 3 milllion - .13 milllion - .287 million = 2.583 million
▪ B.
An LBO occurs only when the acquirer is less levered and The cash flows of the target company are
good and target company is depressed
▪ B.
▪ C.
▪ C.
Private equity funds generally have a locking period. Hence investors demand more liquidity premium.
REITs and commodity futures are generally traded and hence are more liquid.
The profit earned on holding an underlying asset rather than entering a contract is
A. Roll yield
B. Collateral yield
C. Current yield
▪ B.
Collateral yield is the profit on holding a commodity rather than entering a contract. Examples you buy oil.
Price of oil rises after six months and you gain more than owning the contract.
Introducing the previous performance data for firms recently added to a fund adds
A. Survivorship bias
B. Back-fill bias
C. None of these
▪ B.
Back-fill bias occurs when funds include the previous performance of the firms recently added to a
benchmark index
▪ B.
ETF are traded on an exchange and the NAV value is therefore not calculated daily
▪ A.
Hedge funds use models and estimated values and as such the standard deviation may be understated.
▪ C.
Both the statements are correct. Reverse of contango is called backwardation
▪ C.
All of the above method are used for exiting by the venture capitalist
▪ B.
Some alternative investments use models that smooth the return and understate the standard deviations
In that case the sharpe ratio fails and sortino ratio is used
In venture capital funding angel funding is the first stage and is used for marketing and production
A. True
B. False
C. Sometimes true
▪ B.
The first stage is angel investing but it is used for concept development.
A hedge fund with 10 million of initial investment. They charge “1” and “10” percent management fee on
fund at year end and incentive fee respectively. The capital has 30 percent return in year 1. Find the
effective investor gain if the fund value decreases to 12 million in year 2. The incentive fee is calculated
based on excess over net return excluding the management fee
A. .69 million
B. .12 million
C. -.69 million
▪ C.
When The incentive fee is calculated based on excess over net return excluding the management fee
fund at end of year 1 is calculated as
▪ Management fee= 1%of 13 million=.13 million
▪ Incentive fee= 10% of (13-10)=.3 million
▪ Investor return = 3 milllion-.13 milllion-.3 million=2.57 million
▪ Capital at end of year 1 = 10 + 2.57=12.57 million
▪ At end of year 2
▪ Management fee= 1%of 12 million=.12 million
▪ Incentive fee= 0 since fund value has declined
▪ Capital at end of year 1 = 10 + 2-.12 =11.88 million
▪ Investor gain = 11.88-12.57=.69 million