Seluruh C1

BASIC C1
1. In accordance with CASR part 1, preventive maintenance means :
A. Simple or minor preservation operations and the replacement of small

standard parts not involving complex assembly operations.
B. The restoration of the airframe to a condition for safe operation after
damage or deterioration.
C. An alteration not listed in the aircraft, aircraft engine, or propeller
specification.
D. An appreciable change in the weight, balance, structural strength,
performance, flight characteristics, or other qualities affecting the
airworthiness of the airframe.
2. In Accordance with article Aviation Law. No. 1 year 2009, the license for the
aviation personnel are granted to be:
A. Every personnel of Aviation Company.

B. Every person with experience in aviation.
C. Properly trained and educated as required by CASR.
D. A, B, and C are true.
3. An aircraft is not allowed to operate unless has been shown in compliance with:
A. Mandatory replacement time as required by manufacturer’s maintenance

manual
B. Inspection interval and related procedure set forth in operation
specifications approved for part 121
C. Effective AD for the aircraft
D. All above answer are correct
4. Which of the following products need airworthiness Release Certificate ?
A. Class I products.
B. Class II products.
C. Class III products.
D. Class II and Class III products.
5. Airworthiness Directive ( AD ) will always be issued by DGCA based on:
A. AD issued by “foreign authority”

B. Defect reported by operator
C. Unsafe condition
D. All of the above answer are correct
BASIC C1
6. In accordance with CASR part 43 appendix E, Altimeter system test and

inspection may be performed by:
A. Manufacturer
B. Approved Maintenance Organization
C. AME licence holder with Airframe rating
D. A, B, or C correct
7. A basic certificate or basic license may be issued to a person who is not less
than ______ and meet the applicable requirements of part 65.
A. 18 years of age.
B. 19 years of age.
C. 21 years of age.
D. 23 years of age.
8. Licenses, certificates and rating issued under part 65 conform to the minimum
standard of :
A. Of Annex 1 to the Convention on International Civil Aviation.

B. Of Annex 2 to the Convention on International Civil Aviation.
C. Of Annex 16 to the Convention on International Civil Aviation.
D. Of Indonesian aviation industry.
9. According to the avionic groups dc generators and starter generators part of

groups?
A. Group 1 electrical.
B. Group 2 electrical.
C. Group 3 electrical.
D. Group 1 and 2 electrical.
10. Refer to CASR 65.5 the basic certificate C1; C2 and C4 group of?
A. Radio, Instrument and Navigation.

B. Radio, Instruments and Electronic.
C. Radio; Airconditioning and Electronic.
D. Radio, Instruments and Electrical.
BASIC C1
11. Basic test equipment which is used to know that one circuit works properly is
A. Ohm meter or megger

B. Volt meter
C. Ammeter
D. All the answer s are correct
12. Electrical conductivity () of pure (intrinsic) semiconductor is:
A. Increases with increased temperature of the material.

B. Remains constant with increased temperature of the material.
C. Decreases with increased temperature of the material.
D. None of the above answers is correct.
13. A resistance of 6 ohms is connected in parallel with an inductive reactance of 8

ohms across a 24 volt 400 Hz supply. The total current in the circuit is:
A. 1.7 amperes.
B. 2.4 amperes.
C. 5 amperes.
D. 7 amperes.
14. The HF band of frequencies cover:
A. 3-30 KHz.
B. 3-30 MHz.
C. 30-300 KHz.
D. 30-300 MHz.
15. A 1000-microfarad capacitor stores 5 joules of energy. What is the difference in

potential between the terminals of the capacitor?
A. 1 volt.
B. 10 volts.
C. 100 volts.
D. 1000 volts.
BASIC C1
16. Antenna for the ADF system usually consist of:
A. Horn and loop antenna.

B. Stub and blade antenna.
C. Sense and loop antenna.
D. Long wire antenna.
17. A simple auto-pilot system must consist of components as follows:
A. Sensors, servo system, control panel.

B. Sensors, control panel, computer, servo motor, control surface.
C. Sensors, servo system, control surface.
D. Sensors, control panel, computer, indicators, servo motor and control
surface.
18. One of the function of air data sensors is:
A. Changing altitude pressure become electrical signal.

B. Changing cross edge become electrical signal.
C. Changing electrical signal becomes mechanical energy.
D. Sensing the change of pitch from air-plane.
19. The correct way to connect a test voltmeter in a circuit is
A. between the electric source and the load.

B. series with the unit to be tested.
C. place lead on either side of fuse.
D. parallel with the unit to be tested.
20. A filter which passes all frequencies below a certain cutoff point and attenuates
all frequencies above that point is called
A. Band pass filter.

B. Band stop filter.
C. Low pass filter.
D. High bass filter.
BASIC C1
21. The value of α (alpha) of a transistor is
A. 0≤α≤1
B. 0,9 ≤ α ≤ 1
C. 0,9 < α ≤ 1
D. 0,9 < α < 1
22. Blocking-Capacitors in a cascade amplifier will …
A. 0,47 mA.
B. 0,53 mA.
C. 1,50 mA.
D. 15,0 Ma.
23. At the flip-flop circuit, T gate will change its value from 1 to 0 of
A. Gate R is given 0.
B. Gate R is given 1.
C. Gate S is given 0.
D. Gate S is given 1.
24. The current gain of a common base transistor is often referred as the
transistor’s:
A. Amplification factor.
B. Reverse current transfer ratio.
C. Alpha.
D. Beta.
25. Which three things determine the inductance of a coil?
A. Number of turns, form factor and permeability of the core.

B. Current, form factor and permeability of the core.
C. Number of turns, current and voltage.
D. Number of turns, voltage and form factor.
BASIC C1
26. A buffer amplifier is the term applied to an amplifier stage ....
A. to indicate that its primary purpose is to multiply frequency.

B. to indicate that its primary purpose is to decrease frequency.
C. to indicate that its primary purpose is for isolation.
D. to indicate that its primary purpose is to gain power.
27. Bipolar transistor have:
A. One PN junction.
B. Two PN junction.
C. Three PN junction.
D. No PN junction.
28. A common emitter circuit provides:
A. Current and power amplification only.

B. Current and voltage amplification only.
C. Voltage and amplification only.
D. Current, voltage and power amplification.
29. A transistor’s collector current is always:
A. Much lower than emitter current.

B. Slightly lower than its emitter current.
C. Lower than its base current.
D. Higher than its emitter current.
30. If transistor produces sinusoidal output when it works without input, so the
characteristic is the same as ……………
A. Amplifier.
B. Transformer.
C. Oscillator relays.
D. Oscillator LC/RC.
BASIC C1
31. Resistance, which will arrange number of the current flow at plate, is.
A. Grid resistance.
B. Plate resistance.
C. Filament resistance.
D. Grid & filament resistance.
32. Which statement below is correct?
A. Output from NOR gate becomes 1 if all input = 1.

B. Output from NOR gate is the same AND.
C. Output from EX-OR is the same as NOR.
D. Output from NOR gate becomes 1 of all the inputs = 0.
33. The type of oscillator which its output forms wave non sinusoidal is.
A. Oscillator LC.
B. Oscillator relaxation.
C. Oscillator RC
D. A and b are true
34. The distance between successive peaks of a transmitted wave is known as the:
A. Wavelength.
B. Bandwidth.
C. Frequency.
D. Modulation index.
35. SCR/TRIAC is often used for
A. Producing frequency gain.

B. Regulating the amount of current.
C. Regulating in order volume at audio circuit.
D. Keeping in order that resistance is not overload.
BASIC C1
36. A radio transmitter transfers energy to a remote receiver by means of :
A. A magnetic field.
B. An electro-magnetic wave.
C. Electro-magnetic induction.
D. An electric field.
37. Oscillator is a circuit is used for
A. Changing AC signal to DC signal.

B. Producing wave gain input.
C. Producing wave gain input.
D. Producing output which frequency and its amplitude can be
controlled.
38. Capacitor which connect point ground for ……………
A. Capacitor by pass.
B. Capacitor bipolar.
C. Capacitor coupling.
D. Capacitor capacitance.
39. A ground wave follows the surface of the earth partly because of a phenomenon
known as:
A. Refraction.
B. Reflection.
C. Diffraction.
D. Attenuation.
40. Component which works to combine resistor, diode, transistor etc is called:
A. Triode tube.
B. Power supply.
C. Transformer.
D. IC (integrated circuit).
BASIC C1
41. For digital electronics applications, transistor is not operated in it’s:
A. saturated condition.
B. cut-off condition.
C. normal condition.
D. extreem condition.
42. Which component can be found inside an IC chip?
A. Diode.
B. Transistor.
C. Resistor.
D. a, b, and c can be found inside an IC chip.
43. Which one of the following statements is operational amplifier characteristic:
A. High amplification fractor.

B. Can be used to perform math operation.
C. High amplification fractor.
D. a, b, and c, are op-amp characteristics.
44. The maximum value of hfe can be obtained by operating transistor in it’s:
A. Normal condition.
B. Extreem condition.
C. Cut-off condition.
D. Saturated condition.
45. Which part of the JFET or MOSFET consitutes ‘channel’:
A. Part between gate-1 and gate-2 terminals.

B. Part between gate and drain terminals.
C. Part between drain and souce terminals.
D. Part between gate and souce terminals.
BASIC C1
46. Which 2-input gate has ‘True’ state output only when it’s both input have
‘True’ state ?.
A. NOR gate.
B. OR gate.
C. AND gate.
D. NAND gate.
47. Which 2-input gate has ‘False’ state output only when it’s both input have
‘False’ state ?
A. AND gate.
B. NAND gate.
C. OR gate.
D. NOR gate.
48. Which transistor is expected to have the highest input impedance:
A. npn bipolar tansistor.

B. pnp bipolar transistor.
C. JFET.
D. MOSFET.
49. Magnitude of current flowing through channel of JFET and MOSFET is

normally controlled by controlling:
A. Applied voltage between gate-1 and gate-2 terminals.

B. Applied voltage between drain and souce terminals.
C. Applied voltage between gate and drain terminals.
D. Applied voltage between gate and source terminals.
50. Which characteristic is considered as benefit of an integrated circuit over

discrete component circuit
A. Requires less space.

B. More reliable and compact
C. Requires low power input.
D. a, b, and c, are true.
BASIC C1
51. A double conversion superheterodyne receiver has:
A. Two discreet frequency IF’s.

B. Two local oscillators and two IF frequencies.
C. Two local oscillators and one IF frequency.
D. One local oscillator and two IF frequencies.
52. The clock pulse is the heart of most digital systems. A reliable source of clock
pulses is a :
A. Ripple counter.
B. Synchronous flip-flop.
C. Stable multi vibrator.
D. Schmitt trigger.
53. A Semiconductor that alters its resistance due to the effect of incident light is said
to be:
A. An LED.
B. Photo-emissive.
C. Photovoltaic.
D. Photoconductive.
54. The correct connecting of frequency meter is:
A. Parallel to the load.

B. Parallel to the source.
C. Series to the load.
D. Series to the source.
55. Aircraft bonding tester is designed to measure voltage drop over a bonding
strap or junction. It accomplishes this by:
A. An internal high voltage generator which is operated by hand.

B. Producing a voltage over the bond and measuring the resistance.
C. Comparing the resistance of the bond by Wheat stone Bridge null voltage
measurement.
D. Producing a current through the bond and measuring the voltage drop
across it.
BASIC C1
56. When testing the bonding of a component, it is necessary to penetrate:
A. Anodic film.
B. Nickel plating.
C. Cadmium film.
D. Chromium plating.
57. What two requirement must be met for sustained oscillations by an oscillator?
A. a tuned circuit and a crystal.

B. feedback and a tuned circuit.
C. a crystal and feedback.
D. amplification and positive feedback.
58. The voltage rating of a capacitor can be increased by:
A. Decreasing the distance between the plates.

B. Increasing the plate area.
C. Increasing the thickness of the dielectric.
D. Rugged sing the plates.
59. A capacitor stores electrical charge in:
A. The plates.
B. The dielectric.
C. A magnetic field.
D. An electrostatic field.
60. The two classes of transformers are:
A. Normal transformers and autotransformers.

B. Power transformers and current transformers.
C. Power transformers and voltage transformers.
D. Primary transformers and secondary transformers.
BASIC C1
61. How much diode is used at fall wave recafter which uses transformer without
C7
A. 1.
B. 2.
C. 3.
D. 4.
62. When output frequency it regulator bridge is 400 Hz. So its input frequency is:
A. 200 Hz.
B. 400 Hz.
C. 800 Hz.
D. It depends on the big of filter.
63. What is the purpose of filter circuit at power supply?
A. Changing DC pulse becomes more smoothly.

B. Changing AC resistance to DC resistance.
C. Protecting AC signal enters load.
D. Keeping DC signal from rectifier.
64. Type of filter, which works based on top detection, is..
A. Filter input chose.

B. Filter R-C.
C. Filter L-C.
D. Filter input capacitor.
65. The output of a mixer consists of:
A. 1 frequency.
B. 2 frequencies.
C. 3 frequencies.
D. 4 frequencies.
BASIC C1
66. At a transistor, the biggest current is happened at:
A. 1b.
B. 1c.
C. 1e.
D. 1b and 1e.
67. Transistor is operated when..
A. The basic current is the same as collector current.

B. Accruing electron movement.
C. The existence of AC resistance.
D. Along etc load line from cut off point up to saturasi.
68. Digital circuit and switch is after made by using transistor deviation type of:
A. Emitter deviation.
B. Basic deviation.
C. Dividing resistance deviation.
D. Feedback collector deviation.
69. Curve tracer transistor is a mean which is used for
A. Calculating DC resistance.
B. Calculating AC resistance.
C. Describing the form of curve tracer.
D. Describing the form of AC frequency.
70. At feed back collector deviation, the bigromit of collector-emitter resistance is

almost the same as half catu resistance if.
A.  Dc is the same as null.

B. Collector resistance is the same as catu resistance.
C. Collector current is the same as emitter current plus basic current.
D. The Rb value = B dc.Rc.
BASIC C1
71. Type of collector feed back is used for
A. Small gain signal.

B. Large gain signal.
C. Digital circuit.
D. Switch gain.
72. Radio waves is actually an electromagnetic wave and usually consist of:
A. Static and dynamic field.

B. Magnetic and hydraulic.
C. Electric and static field.
D. Electric and magnetic field.
73. A 100 V secondary transformer voltage in a power supply circuit feeds a filter
capacitor with no load. What the capacitor voltage if the rectifier is silicon
diode?
A. 140,7 V.
B. 100 V.
C. 141,4 V.
D. A, and C are false.
74. How many basic electronic gates are identified by MIL STD 806B ?
A. 4.
B. 5.
C. 6.
D. 7.
75. Which system use analog signal to send information from it’s transmitter to
receiver?.
A. 3 wire synchro.
B. MIL-STD-1553B databus.
C. ARINC 429 databus.
D. ARINC 629 databus.
BASIC C1
76. Where do we most probably find a weather map in the cockpit of modern large
aeroplane ?
A. at the EFIS display.

B. at the FMS display.
C. at the EICAS display.
D. at all a, b, and c displays.
77. Data transmission rate of ARINC 429 low speed is:
A. 12,5 Kilo bit per second (Kbps).

B. 25 Kilo bit per second (Kbps).
C. 50 Kilo bit per second (Kbps).
D. 100 Kilo bit per second (Kbps).
78. Where do we most probably find a landing gear visual warning in the cockpit of
modern large aeroplane ?
A. at the FMS display.

B. at the EICAS display.
C. at the EFIS display.
79. How many bit are in an ARINC 429 word:
A. 4.
B. 8.
C. 16.
D. 32.
80. Which one is correct for ARINC 429 transmitter bit assignment?
A. VAB = 0 Volts for bit ‘1’ and VAB= 5 Volts for bit ‘0’.
B. VAB = 5 Volts for bit ‘1’ and VAB= 0 Volts for bit ‘0’.
C. VAB = -5 Volts for bit ‘1’ and VAB= 0 Volts for bit ‘0’.
D. none of a, b, c is right.
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81. Resonance occurs in an inductive-capacitive circuit when:
A. Capacitive and inductive impedances are equal.

B. Resistance exceeds reactance.
C. The net reactance is zero.
D. Reactance is equal to resistance.
82. Amplification by a transistor is principally due its :
A. Low conduction resistance.

B. Relatively high resistance gain.
C. Low power dissipation.
D. Applied voltage being small.
83. Where do we most probably find the interstage turbine temperature (ITT)
indication in the cockpit of modern large aeroplane?

84. For PNP transistors conventional current flows:
A. Out of the device through the emitter.

B. In the same direction as current flow.
C. Into the device through the base.
D. Into the device through the emitter.
85. Type antenna (aerial) from radar installation both ground and airborne is:
A. Parabolic cable.
B. Hyperbolic disc type.
C. Horn type.
D. High directional dipole.
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86. VHF airborne communications sets operate in the frequency range from:
A. 94.0 MHz to 100.02 MHz.

B. 108.0 MHz to 135.95 MHz.
C. 108.0 KHz to 135.95 KHz.
D. 209.5 MHz to 302.0 MHz.
87. A Colpitts oscillator is characterized by :
A. Two capacitances.
B. Two inductances.
C. In-phase feedback.
D. Tuned circuit feedback.
88. The materials used for the aircraft structure in generally can be classified into
two categories:
A. Steels and non-steels.

B. Aluminum and non-aluminum.
C. Magnetic metal and non-magnetic metal.
D. Metal materials and non-metal materials.
89. Whenever the secondary windings of current transformer are disconnected

from their load circuits, terminals must be :
A. Earthed.
B. Left undisturbed.
C. Short-circuited together.
D. Insulated from each other.
90. Impedance is made up of any or all of three components. Which of the

components below is NOT included ?
A. Reluctance.
B. Resistance.
C. Inductive reactance.
D. Capacitive reactance.
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91. Automatic Gain Control (AGC) is achieved by varying:
A. Input bias.
B. Input capacities.
C. Output bias.
D. Output impedance.
92. A disadvantage of VHF communications is:
A. Excessive weight of equipment.

B. High power consumed from power source.
C. Equipment are not reliable.
D. Line of sight propagation.
93. When a Nickel Cadmium battery is in the discharge condition, the chemical
reaction of positive plate and negative plate are:
A. Ni2O2 and Cd.

B. Ni (OH)2 and Cd.
C. Ni (OH)2 and Cd (OH)2 .
D. Ni2O2 and Cd (OH)2.
94. Oscillator circuits are generators of:
A. Radio frequencies.
B. Varying supply voltages.
C. Stable impedances.
D. Stability.
95. In order a transistor in the active region, the condition of the emitter junction
(JE) and collector junction (JC) are
A. JE in the reverse bias and JC in the forward bias.

B. JE in the forward bias and JC in the reverse bias.
C. Both of them in the reverse bias.
D. Both of them in the forward bias.
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96. When a Lead Acid battery is in the fully-charge condition, the chemical
reactions of positive plate and negative plate are:
A. PbO2 and Pb.

B. PbSO4 and Pb.
C. PbSO4 and PbSO4.
D. PbO2 and PbSO4.
97. Electronic equipment which uses tube is ……………
A. TV screen.
B. Transceiver HF.
C. Radio transmitter with high power.
D. All the answer above are correct.
98. The amount of effective resistance output from a half wave regulator is..
A. Vac.
B. Up/b.
C. Vp/V2.
D. Nil.
99. The principal source of noise in an aircraft VHR receiver is:
A. Faulty adjustment of the squelch circuit.

B. Electromagnetic radiation from the engine ignition system.
C. Vibration of mast or whip antennae.
D. Due to the accumulation of static on the airframe.
A. Output from NOR gate becomes 1 of all the inputs = 0

B. Output from NOR gate becomes 1 if all input = 1
C. Output from NOR gate is the same AND
D. Output from EX-OR is the same as NOR
BASIC C1
1. The Airplane catagories according to CASR part 23 consist of
A. Five categories.
B. Four categories.
C. Three categories.
D. Six categories.
2. The validity of the basic certificate according to CASR 65 is valid until
A. Two years from the date of issued.

B. As mention on the certificate.
C. No validity for the basic certificate.
D. 24 months from the date of issue.
3. According to the avionic groups dc generators and starter generators part of

groups?
A. Group 1 electrical.
B. Group 2 electrical.
C. Group 1 and 2 electrical.
D. Group 3 electrical.
A. Radio, Instrument and Navigation.

B. Radio, Instruments and Electrical.
C. Radio, Instruments and Eloctronic.
D. Radio; Airconditioning and Electronic.
5. How height the registration of small aircraft mark install on the wing?
A. 6 inches.
B. 15 centimeters.
C. At least 25 centimeters.
D. At least 25 inches.
6. According to the CASR Part 21 the aviation product are devided into
A. Two classes.
B. Three classes.
C. Class I; Class II and Class III products.
D. Four classes.
7. According to the CASR 65 definition of a basic certificate are

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A. A license issued by Authority.

B. A license without rating.
C. A license with rating.
D. A license issued by Company.
8. One of the condition to renewal the aircrfat maintenance engineer license are
A. Having the experience in 24 months.

B. Shall exercise their privileges at least 6 months within 24 months.
C. Submit the their basic cerificate.
D. Having the experience in 12 months.
9. The certificate of airworthiness are issued by
A. The Aviation Company.

B. National Aviation Authority.
C. The Airline Company.
D. The manufacture.
10. The different between Certificate of Maintenance Approval (COMA) and AMEL are
A. Experience.
B. Validity of a license.
C. Type rating certificate.
D. Validity of basic license
11. An aircraft bolt has a overall length of 1 and 1/2 inches, with shank length a 1 and
3/16 inches, and a threaded portion length of 5/8 inch. What is the grip length?
A. .3125
B. .5625
C. .6572.
D. 8750.
12. The force that can be produced by an actuating cylinder has a cross-sectional area
of 3 square inches operating in a 1,000 psi hydraulic system, is most nearly
A. 334 pounds.
B. 1,000 pounds.
C. 1,500 pounds.
D. 3,000 pounds.
13. A lens with power 10 D is combining to a lens with power 30 D. The new combined
lens has a focal length
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A. 2.5 cm
B. 4.0 cm
C. 3.0 cm
D. 3.5 cm
14. Semiconductors are the basis for modern electronic devices such as
A. Diodes, transistors and integrated circuits.

B. Diodes, transistors and transformator.
C. Diodes, transistors and inductor.
D. Capacitors, transistors and inductor.
15. The main causes of static electricity are
A. Contact and Separation between two materials.

B. Bonding and grounding.
C. Connecting one or more conductive.
D. Static discharge.
16. The purpose a two conductor twisted wire while used to carry the current?
A. To minimize a magnetic field.

B. To minimize resistance.
C. To minimize current flow.
D. To maximize a magnetic field.
17. The Hardness testing method for relatively soft material is
A. The Vickers tester.

B. The Brinell tester.
C. The Rockwell tester.
D. The Barcol tester.
18. The AN420AD-4-4 rivet is a countersunk rivet. How is the length measured?
A. The part of the rivet that is the material.

B. The part of the rivet that extends through the material.
C. The total length of the rivet.
D. Length stem only.
19. The bearings are capable of accepting radial loads and axial loads in one direction
only is
A. Thrust Bearing.
B. Radial Bearing.
C. Precision Bearing.
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D. Angular Contact bearing.
20. Safety wire is installed properly if you observe which of the following actions?
A. The tension of the wire tends to tighten the bolt or nut.

B. The tension of the wire tends to loosen the bolt or nut.
C. The wire is as tight as possible.
D. The wire has 5 turns per inch.
21. Which of the following wrenches is best suited for breaking a nut loose and then
unscrewing it quickly
A. An open-end "5" wrench.

B. A 15-degree offset open-end wrench.
C. A box-end wrench.
D. A combination box open-end wrench.
22. Each of the 25 marks on the thimble of the standard outside micrometer represents
what part of an inch?
A. 0.001 in.
B. 0.005 in.
C. 0.025 in.
D. 0.040 in.
23. Rethreading dies are used for which of the following purposes?
A. To start tapping operations.

B. To restore bruised or rusty threads on screws and bolts.
C. To remove threads from screws and bolts.
D. To make threads on the inside of nuts.
24. If an object is equilibrium encountered at any point of displacement is called:
A. Positive Static Stability.

B. Negative Static Stability.
C. Neutral Static Stability.
D. Neutral Dynamic Stability.
25. Which of the following materials emphasizes not only strength/weight ratio, except
A. Fracture toughness.
B. Increasing structural strength.
C. Notch sensitivity.
D. Stress resistance corrosion.
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26. In an AC electrical circuit, if the capacitive reactance is equal to the inductive

reactance. The frequency of the circuit is said to be ...
a. in correct voltage phase angle
b. out of phase
c. resonant
d. in correct current phase angle
27. A filter which passes all frequencies below a certain cutoff point and attenuates all
frequencies above that point is called ...
a. Band pass filter
b. Band stop filter
c. High pass filter
d. Low pass filter
28. Hybrid Diode is used as …

a. a half wave rectifier to convert electric source from ac to dc
b. a half wave rectifier to convert electric source from dc to ac
c. a full wave rectifier to convert electric source from dc to ac
d. a full wave rectifier to convert electric source from ac to dc
29. Transistors are electronic component made of … junctions

A. one type N semiconductor and two type P semiconductors
B. one type P semiconductor and two type N semiconductors
C. three N type semiconductors or three P type semiconductors
D. a and b are correct
30. Which of the following statements is correct?

A. Transistor characteristic is not affected by temperature.
B. Transistor power dissipation can lead to an increase in transistor temperature.
C. Temperature change causes transistor unstable.
D. b and c are correct
31. The speed of radio wave is ...

a. 3 x 108 m/sec.
b. 3 x 105 Km/sec.
c. equal to the speed of light.
d. a, b, and c are true.
32. Two switches in series can be represented by ...

a. OR Gate
b. NAND Gate
c. AND Gate
d. NOR Gate
33. 10012 equals ...

a. 118 and equals 910
b. 1010 and equals 118
c. 108 and equals 910
d. 98 and equals 1110
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34. In aircraft, digital computers are used to ...

a. Reduce flight crew workload.
b. Reduce system weight and size.
c. Improve system reliability.
35. Mathematical formulas used to process information and develop an output are
stored in ...
a. computer’s CPU.
b. computer’s memory.
c. computer’s register.
d. computer’s input/output section.
36. The purpose of navigation instrument is ...

a. to guide the aircraft along a definite course.
b. to define a specific course while flying the aircraft en route from one airport to
another.
c. to direct the pilot’s approach to land at an airport.
37. The basic principal of DAC is ...

a. able to convert analogue data into digital data.
b. divide the analogue output into a series of small steps.
c. to store digital data.
d. to make information available.
38. The Boolean expression of a NAND gate with two inputs A and B, and output f,
is ...
a. f = AB
b. f = AB
c. f = A+B
d. f = A + B
39. Find the equivalent of the following gate:
a.
b.
c.
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d.
40. What is a Data Bus?

a. Is a part of the computer inwhich data are transmitted.
b. Is a collection of wires through which data is transmitted from one part of a
computer to another.
c. Is a art of the computer inwhich data are transmitted from and to each other.
41. Concerning data-bus, which of the following statements is true?

a. Boeing 777 has installed ARINC 429, while military aircraft generally use MIL-
STD-629.
b. Boeing 777 has installed ARINC 629, while military aircraft generally use MIL-
STD-629.
c. Boeing 777 has installed ARINC 429, while military aircraft generally use MIL-
STD-1550.
d. Boeing 777 has installed ARINC 629, while military aircraft generally use MIL-
STD-1553.
42. ARINC 429 data bus uses ...

a. two signal wires to transmit 64 bit words.
b. six signal wires to transmit 64 bit words.
c. six signal wires to transmit 32 bit words.
d. two signal wires to transmit 32 bit words.
43. Software ...

a. is defined as all the stored programs and routines (operating aids).
b. is needed to fully use the capabilities of a computer.
c. plays a major role in computer data processing.
44. Computer structure architecture consist of ...

a. CPU, Memory, I/O Device
b. CPU, Bus, I/O Device
c. CPU, RAM, ROM, Input Device
d. CPU, Bus, Memory
45. What causes ESD Electronic Devices to fail?

a. Field Induced Discharges
b. Discharge to the Device
c. Discharge from the Device
d. a, b, and c are correct
46. The Amplitude Modulation system is a method ...

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a. by which the amplitude of the carrier wave is varied by the information we

want to transmit.
b. by which the frequency of the carrier wave is varied by the information we
want to transmit.
c. by which the power of the carrier wave is varied by the information we want to
transmit.
d. a and b are true.
47. In radio frequency communication system, the carrier frequency ... the
modulating frequency.
a. is the same as
b. is much lower than
c. is much higher than
d. may be much higher than
48. Microphones in aircraft radio communication system are use ...

a. to convert voice to an electrical signal by a coil moving in a magnetic field.
b. to convert electrical signal to voice by moving magnetic field to a fixed coil.
c. to convert voice to an electrical signal by moving magnetic field to a fixed coil.
d. to convert electrical signal to voice by a coil moving in a magnetic field.
49. Antenna on radio frequency system is ...

a. essential for RF transmitters and non essential for RF receivers.
b. non essential for RF transmitters and essential for RF receivers.
c. non essential for both RF transmitters and RF receivers.
d. essential for both RF transmitters and RF receivers.
50. How good is the energy transfered by an antenna is depend on the following
factors:
a. height above the ground.
b. gain and directivity.
c. polarization.
51. Observe the following figures:
Figure A Figure B
fm = modulated frequency fc = carrier frequency

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a. Figure A ilustrates a RF amplitudo modulated with one frequency and figure B

ilustrates a RF frequency modulated.
b. Figure A ilustrates a RF frequency modulated with two frequencies and figure
B ilustrates a RF amplitudo modulated.
c. Figure A ilustrates a RF amplitudo modulated with two frequencies and figure
B ilustrates a RF frequency modulated.
d. Figure A ilustrates a RF frequency modulated with one frequency and figure B
ilustrates a RF amplitudo modulated.
52. Aircraft RF Transmission lines most commonly used are ...

A. RG58 for DME and Transponder, and RG11 for VHF systems
B. RG58 for DME, Transponder, and VHF systems
C. RG11 for DME and Transponder, and RG58 for VHF systems
D. RG11 for DME, Transponder, and VHF systems
53. A radio system inwhich connection between the tranceiver and its antenna is
using waveguide is ...
a. Weather Radar
b. DME
c. ATC transponder
d. ELT
54. Frequency band for Aircraft VHF Comm. System is ...

a. (190 – 1700) Khz
b. (108 – 122) Mhz
c. (2 – 25) Mhz
d. (320 – 340) Mhz
55. Aircraft VHF Comm. system consists of ...

a. Transceiver, antenna, microphone and head set
b. Transceiver, control unit, antenna, antenna coupler, microphone and head set
c. Transceiver, control unit, antenna, microphone and head set
d. Transceiver, control unit, antenna coupler, microphone and head set
56. Avionic system that usually required an antenna coupler is ...

a. ADF
b. VOR
c. HF Comm.
d. VHF Comm.
57. Navigation system that required a set of antenna consisting sense and a loop
antenna is ...
a. ADF
b. DME
c. VOR
d. ILS
58. Frequency band for ADF system is ...

a. (108 – 112) Mhz
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b. 75 Mhz
c. (90 – 1800) Khz
d. (320 – 340) Mhz
59. Main component of an airborne ADF system are ....

a. receiver, antennae, and bearing-indicator.
b. receiver, control-box, and bearing-indicator.
c. receiver, control-box, and antennae.
d. receiver, control-box, antenna, and bearing-indicator.
60. The radio operating frequency of Marker Beacon is ...

a. 121,5 Mhz and 243 Mhz
b. 324 Mhz
c. 75 Mhz
d. No answer is true
61. The VOR receiving antenna on the tail of many aircraft, is ...
a. sensitive to horizontally polarized signals and insensitive to vertically polarized
signals
b. sensitive to vertically polarized signals and insensitive to horizontally polarized
signals.
c. sensitive to both horizontally polarized signals and vertically polarized signals.
d. insensitive to both horizontally polarized signals and vertically polarized
signals.
62. A significant point on a route which may be used for reporting to ATC, turning or
landing is called ....
a. Track
b. Position
c. Way point
63. Indicator of an ADF system is ...

a. CDI
b. RMI
c. RBI
d. b and c are true
64. DME antenna should be installed ...

a. at a position so that the transmission will not be blocked by any aircraft part
during any aircraft manuever capabilities
b. as aft as possible at the bottom of the fuselage
c. at the bottom of the fuselage.
d. a and b are correct.
65. A system on an aircraft that pair frequency with the DME system is ...
a. Radio Altimeter
b. Radar transponder
c. VOR
d. GPWS
66. VOT transmitters are used to check the accuracy of VOR receivers while aircraft
are on the ground. The VOT radiates a "NORTH" bearing signal on all azimuths.
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The bearing accuracy of the transmitted signal is maintained within a tolerance of

...
A. 0.50
B. 1.0°
C. 1.50
D. 2.00
67. EGPWS receives altitude data from ...

a. Radio Altimeter
b. Altimeter
c. DME
d. Glide slope
68. Interphone system allows flight attendants or flight crew to make announcements
in the passenger cabin using ...
a. Fight Interphone
b. Service Interphone
c. Cabin Interphone
d. Passenger Address Systems
69. A system that function to records all audio signals and sounds in the cockpit,
such as the pilot's voices, engine noises, stall warnings, landing gear extension
and retraction is ...
a. Flight Data Recorder
b. Cockpit Voice Recorder (CVR)
c. A and B are true
d. A and B are false
70. The glide slope provides ... to the pilot during the approach.
A. horizontal guidance
B. vertical guidance
C. both vertical and horizontal guidance
D. Answer a, b, and c are false.
71. Advanced avionics were designed ...

a. to increase safety by providing more information in an easier to interpret
presentation.
b. to increase safety by enabling better situational awareness.
c. to provide the same safety level with the older avionics systems.
d. a and b are correct.
72. Pedestal or side console areas in cockpit are used for ...
a. non-flight critical navigation information display.
b. flight critical navigation information display.
c. flight critical and non-flight critical navigation information display.
d. not all of the above.
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73. Installed radio equipment is protected from damage due to bolts and vibration
by ...
A. spring and/or viscous damper mounted racks.
B. shock mounts.
C. rubber or foam cushioning material between circuit chassis and case.
D. a and b are correct.
74. (1) Use solder to attach bonding jumpers on radio equipment.

(2) Radio equipment is bonded to the aircraft in order to provide a low impedance
ground and to minimize radio interference from static electrical charges.
Regarding the above statements,

a. only No.1 is true.
b. both No.1 and No.2 are true.
c. only No.2 is true.
d. both No.1 and No.2 are false.
75. When installing coaxial cable, it should be secured firmly along its entire length ...
A. at 1-foot intervals.
B. at 2-foot intervals.
C. wherever the cable sags.
D. as close as posible to the skin area.
76. Which of the following are commonly used as rectifiers in electrical circuits?
A. Diodes, Anodes.
B. Diodes, Cathodes.
C. Diodes.
D. Diodes, Anodes and Cathodes.
77. When referring to an electrical circuit diagram, what point is considered to be at

zero voltage?
A. The circuit breaker.

B. The fuse.
C. The ground reference.
D. The power.
78. In transistor ideal VBE is
A. 0V
B. 0.2 V
C. 0.3 V
D. 0.7 V
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79. What will be the result if the contact point in a vibrator type voltage regulator sticks
in the close position?
A. The reverse current cut out relay will not close.

B. A high generator voltage.
C. The generator will produce only residual voltage.
D. The generator will not produce any voltage.
80. The resistance of the current return path through the aircraft is always considered
negligible, provided the
A. Voltage drop across the circuit is checked.

B. Circuit resistance is checked.
C. Generator is properly grounded.
D. Structure is adequately bonded.
81. When current flow through the coil of a solenoid does operated electrical switch?
A. Continually, as long as the electrical system master switch is ON.

B. Continually, as long as the control switch is complete.
C. Only for a short time period following movement of the control switch.
D. Only until the moveable points contact the stationary points.
82. Electrical circuit protection devices are installed primarily to protect the?
A. Relays.
B. Switches.
C. Units.
D. Wiring.
83. The basic radio communication consists of?
A. Microphone, Receiving and transmitting antennas, Tranceiver, Head set or

Loudspeaker.
B. Microphone, Receiving antenna, Receiver, Head set or Loudspeaker.
C. Microphone, Transmitting antenna, Transmitter, Head set or Loudspeaker.
D. Microphone, Transmitting antenna, Receiver, Head set or Loudspeaker.
84. What the function of the microphone?
A. Used to changes the electrical energy into acoustical energy.

B. Used to changes the acoustical energy into electrical energy.
C. Used to intercept the electromagnetic waves.
D. Used to radiate the acoustical energy
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85. Doubler are used when antennas are installed?
A. To eliminate antenna vibration.

B. To reduce aircraft flutter.
C. To reinstate the structural strength of the aircraft skin.
D. To make a good antenna installation.
86. DME antena should be located in position on the aircraft that will?
A. Not be blanked by the fuselage when the aircraft is banked.

B. Permit interruption in DME operation.
C. Eliminate the posibility of the DME locking on a station.
D. Not be blanked by the wing when the aircraft is banked.
87. The ILS ( Instrument Landing System ) consists of?
A. Outer marker, middle marker, and runway localizer.

B. Outer marker, marker beacon, and runway localizer.
C. Runway localizer, glide slope signal, and marker beacon.
D. Runway localizer, glide slope signal, and outer marker.
88. What the following factors of the readable radio transmissions?
A. Voice amplitude, rate of speech, pronunciation and phrasing.

B. Rate of speech, and voice amplitute.
C. Pronunciation and phrasing, and voice amplitude.
D. Pronunciation and phrasing, and rate of speech.
89. Which the correct statement regarding with installation of navigation and
communication equipment
A. The radio equipment must be securely mounted to the aircraft.

B. Provided adequate clearence between radio equipment and adjacent structure.
C. Provided enough cooling , either with a blower or throuh venturi.
D. All mentions above.
90. Electronic Flight Instrument system are?
A. EADI and EHSI.

B. EADI and Air data instrument.
C. EHSI and EADI Coordinated by FMC.
D. EHSI and RDMI.
91. HIRF in this Term are about?

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A. The interference radiation between avionic system.

B. The interference caused by electro static.
C. The interference effect of external radio radiation to avionic system.
D. The disturbance of internal radio radiation.
92. How should a flexible hose be installed?
A. Strecthed tighly between two fittings.

B. With slack or bend in the hose.
C. With as small a bend radius as possible.
D. To allow maximum flexing during operation.
93. Which of the following tubings has the characteristics medium strength, abrasion
resistance necessary for use a high pressure system?
A. 2024T or 5052-O aluminium alloy.

B. Copper or hard plastic.
C. 3003-1/2H aluminum alloy.
D. Carbon steel.
94. Magnetic particle inspection is used primarily to detect?
A. Distortion.
B. Irregular surface.
C. Porosity and thickness of ferromagnetic metals.
D. Flaws on or near the surface.
95. In order to successfully heat treat ferrous metals the rate of cooling is controlled
by?
A. Allowing a time lag betweeen soaking and wuenching.

B. Selecting a suitable quenching media.
C. Artificial aging.
D. Re-precipitation.
96. Alloy 2024 rivets should be driven within 10 minutes after they have been
quenched; otherwise, befoere being used they must be
A. Aged.
B. Normalized.
C. Reheat-treated.
D. Refrigerated.
97. An antenna is designed to radiate and receive?
A. Electromagnetic energy.
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B. Audible signals.
C. Electrical energy.
D. Electronic signals.
98. What is the primary function of the rectifier section?
A. To convert dc to AC.
B. To convert AC to pulsating DC.
C. To increase average voltage output.
D. To decrease average voltage output.
99. Electronic Flight Instrument Display interfaces by?
A. Symbol generator.
B. Instrument system.
C. Indication system.
D. Flight warning computer.
100. INS and IRS are computer base self contained system that provide Aircracft
geografic position latitude and Lonitude, aircraft position roll, pitch, and yaw. The
function of INS and IRS are
A. Provide aircraft route information.

B. Provide aircraft reference for EADI/PFD and EHSI/ND.
C. Provide aircraft speed and altitude reference.
D. Privide Horizone reference
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1. Licenses, certificates and rating issued under part 65 conform to the;
A. Minimum standard of Indonesian aviation industry.

B. Minimum standard of Annex 1 to the Convention on International Civil Aviation.
C. Minimum standard of Annex 2 to the Convention on International Civil Aviation.
D. Minimum standard of Annex 16 to the Convention on International Civil Aviation.
2. Who is responsible for the airworthiness of an aircraft, if the maintenance of the

aircraft is contracted to a repair station (AMO)?
A. Aircraft operator.
B. Repair station who performs maintenance.
C. Manufacturer.
D. Civil aviation authority (DGCA).
3. According to the CASR Part 43, overhaul of pressure type carburetors, and pressure
type fuel, oil and hydraulic pumps is:
A. A minor repair.
B. A major repair.
C. A minor alteration.
D. Preventive maintenance.
4. Which component of aircraft that categorize as “class II” product?
A. Propeller, landing gears and wings.

B. Fuselages, wings and landing gears.
C. Standard part, aircraft engine and fuselages.
D. Aircraft, aircraft engine and propeller.
5. In Accordance with Aviation Act. No. 1 year 2009, the licence for the aviation
personnel are granted to:
A. Every personnel of Aviation Company.

B. Every person with experience in aviation.
C. Properly trained and educated as required by CASR.
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6. AOC holder shall have an inspection program and a program covering other
maintenance, preventive maintenance, and alteration, which contained in:
A. The certificate holder's manual.

B. The manufacturing instruction manual.
C. Aircraft maintenance manual.
D. Inspection procedure manual.
7. Service Difficulties Report should be submitted to DGCA within:
A. 30 days.
B. 72 hours.
C. 48 hours.
D. Quickly any time.
8. The power plant rating class 3 is:
A. Engine of a particular make and model.

B. Turbine engine.
C. Piston engine.
D. All engine, installed on airplane.
9. Major repairs to aluminium alloy propellers and blades may be done by:
A. A power plant mechanic working for an AME licence.

B. Any propeller manufacturer.
C. An appropriately rated AMO or the manufacturer.
D. A repairman, regardless of where he/she works.
10.The validity of the basic certificate according to CASR 65 is valid until
A. As mention on the certificate.

B. 12 months from the date of issue.
C. Two years from the date of issued.
D. No validity for the basic certificate.
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11. Bolt with hole on the shank for cotter pin or safety wire:
A. Eye bolt.
B. Internal wrenching bolt.
C. Hexagonal bolt.
D. Clevis bolt.
12. Lock bolt that need bucking bar in installing:
A. Jo type.
B. Blind type.
C. Stump type.
D. Pull type.
13. Heli coil is:
A. A coil in helicopter.
B. A coil made from steel to change bad thread.
C. A coil made from steel in the screw thread.
D. A coil made from steel as thread in light metal.
14. The Dzus fastener consist of:
A. Stud, roll pin and spring.

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B. Stud assembly consist of stud, pin and spiral spring.

C. Use for mounting the heavy component.
D. Stud, grommet, and spring mounted by rivet.
15. Special purpose bolt
A. Close tolerance bolt, drilled head bolt.

B. Round heat bolt, fillister bolt.
C. Hex. Head bolt, counter shank bolt.
D. Clevis bolt, Jo bolt.
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16. The binary equivalents of decimal 1 to 5 are respectively:
A. 0110, 0111, 1000, 1001, 1010
B. 0001, 0010, 0011, 0111, 0110
C. 0001, 0010, 0011, 0100, 0101
D. 1011, 1100, 1101, 1110, 1111
17. 15 decimal =
A. 1111 Binary, 17 Octal.
B. 1110 Binary, 17 Octal.
C. 1010 Binary, 17 Octal.
D. 0111 Binary, 17 Octal.
18. 11000 Binary + 1101 Binary =
A. 110011 Binary.
B. 110100 Binary.
C. 100101 Binary.
D. 110001 Binary.
19. A resistance of 6 ohms is connected in parallel with an inductive reactance of 8 ohms

across a 24 volt 400 Hz supply.
The total current in the circuit is:
A. 1.7 amperes.
B. 2.4 amperes.
C. 5 amperes.
D. 7 amperes.
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20. A series circuit has a resistance of 12 ohms, inductive reactance of 19 ohms and
capacitive reactance of 14 ohms. The impedance is:
A. 7 ohms.
B. 13 ohms.
C. 17 ohms.
D. 45 ohms.
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21. The value at any point or instant of a sine curve is proportional to the sine of the
angle at that point. Thus if the maximum voltage is 1000 volts the instantaneous
value at 315 degrees is:
A. 707 volts.
B. 1000 volts.
C. -1000 volts.
D. -707 volts.
22. A 1000-microfarad capacitor stores 5 joules of energy. What is the difference in

potential between the terminals of the capacitor?
A. 1 volt.
B. 10 volts.
C. 100 volts.
D. 1000 volts.
23. A 40-volt primary winding of 1000 turns produces 10 volts in the secondary winding.
The number of turns in the secondary winding is therefore:
A. 10.
B. 250.
C. 825.
D. 4000.
24. The smallest particle that cannot be defined with chemical reaction is called:
A. Element.
B. Electron.
C. Atom.
D. Molecule.
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25. The smallest part of particle that has still particle characteristic is called:
A. Atom.
B. Electron.
C. Element.
D. Molecule.
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26. A capacitor stores energy in:
A. The dielectric.
B. A magnetic field.
C. An electric field.
D. The plates.
27. A silicon controlled rectifier (SCR) is also known as a:
A. Thermistor.
B. Thyristor.
C. Forward biased junction.
D. Four terminal device.
28. A semiconductor that alters its resistance due to the effect of incident light is said to
be:
A. Photo-emissive.
B. Photovoltaic.
C. Photoconductive.
D. An LED.
29. A common application for an injunction transistor (UJT) is in:
A. Triggering an SCR.
B. Controlling LED brightness.
C. Determining LED color.
D. Controlling avalanche in Zener diodes.

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30. Which of the following is not an application of the simple diode?
A. Changing voltages.
B. Rectifying ac.
C. Suppressing transient voltages.
D. Dc circuit polarization and blocking.

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31. A common application for a Zener diode is:
A. Changing the value of ac voltages.
B. Voltage regulation.
C. Rectifying ac.
D. As a photo-electronic switch.
32. Impedance is made up of any or all of three components. Which of the components
below is not included?
A. Capacitive reactance.
B. Inductive reactance.
C. Reluctance.
D. Resistance.
33. A circuit or component has an inductance of 1 Henry if a current changing at a rate of

1 ampere per second induces:
A. A back emf of 1 volt.
B. An emf of 1 volt.
C. A charge of 1 coulomb.
D. A reactance of 1 ohm.
34. Given that other factors are constant, which dielectric will give a capacitor the largest
capacitance?
A. Air.
B. Mica.
C. Oil.
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D. Paper.
35. In electrolytic capacitors the dielectric is:
A. An oxide formed on the metal positive plate during manufacture.

B. An oxide formed on the metal negative plate during operation.
C. Contained in the electrolytic.
D. Oil.
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A. Increasing the plate area.
B. Decreasing the distance between the plates.
C. Increasing the thickness of the dielectric.
A. The net reactance is zero.
B. Capacitive and inductive impedances are equal.
C. Reactance is equal to resistance.
D. Resistance exceeds reactance.
38. At resonance a series LC network gives:
A. High total impedance.
B. High current magnification across the reactance.
C. High voltage magnification across the reactance.
D. High resistance.
39. In a parallel ac circuit containing L, C and R:
A. The voltages are identical in phase and magnitude.
B. The currents are identical in phase and magnitude.
C. Voltage and current are in phase in all components.
D. Voltage and current are out of phase in all components.

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40. In a theoretically perfect inductive-capacitive circuit, no power will be dissipated:
A. Unless the circuit is resonating.
B. Because the impedance is infinite.
C. Because the resistance is zero.
D. Unless there is circuit reactance.

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41. In a series inductive-capacitive circuit the minimum opposition to alternating current

occurs when the:
A. Circuit is at resonance.
B. Net reactance is maximum.
C. Net reactance is equal to circuit resistance.
D. Phase angle is maximum.
A. Power transformers and current transformers.
B. Power transformers and voltage transformers.
C. Primary transformers and secondary transformers.
D. Normal transformers and autotransformers.
43. For efficient operation at 400 Hz, transformers require iron or steel cores to provide:
A. A suitable heat-sink.
B. Maximum magnetic coupling.
C. A reduction in eddy currents.
D. A reduction in back-emf.
44. The symbol for an iron-cored transformer shows:
A. Inter-linked windings.
B. Two solid parallel lines between the windings.
C. Two dashed parallel lines between the windings.
D. Nothing between the windings.

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45. To minimize loss of power, the iron or steel cores of low frequency transformers are
constructed from thin laminations that are:
A. Oriented relative to the electric field.
B. Effective up to 200 KHz.
C. Ineffective below 10 KHz.
D. Insulated from each other.

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46. When connected to a power supply the primary of a transformer draws very little
current when there is no load on the secondary because the:
A. Primary is highly resistive.
B. Secondary is highly resistive.
C. Primary is highly inductive.
D. Back-emf is low.
47. Whenever the secondary windings of current transformers are disconnected from their
load circuits, terminals must be:
A. Earthed.
B. Insulated from each other.
C. Short-circuited together.
D. Left undisturbed.
48. Which of the following statements is not true in respect of light emitting diodes
(LEDs)?
A. The intensity of the light can be varied with the applied voltage.
B. The light is entirely electronic in nature.
C. The light emitted is spread over a wide wavelength band.
D. Very fast on-off switching is possible.
49. For PNP transistors conventional current flows:
A. Out of the device through the emitter.
B. Into the device through the emitter.
C. In the same direction as current flow.

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D. Into the device through the base.
50. Amplification by a transistor is principally due to its:
A. Applied voltage being small.
B. Relatively high resistance gain.
C. Low conduction resistance.
D. Low power dissipation.

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51. In a transistor, a high value of alpha characteristic indicates a high:
A. Input resistance.
B. Stability factor.
C. Output resistance.
D. Value of current gain.
52. The opposition to current flow in an inductor is proportional to:
A. The ampere turns
B. The rate of change of current
C. The phase angle
D. Kirchhoff’s law.
53. The Q of an inductor is equal to the ratio of its inductance reactance to:
A. The frequency of the applied emf.
B. Its impedance.
C. The effective resistance in series with it.
D. The square of the current at resonance.
54. Which statement is NOT true about resonance?
A. At resonance inductive and capacitive reactance are equal
B. There is only one resonant frequency for an inductive/capacitive circuit
C. Current is minimum in a series resonant circuit
D. Impedance is minimum in a parallel resonant circuit.

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55. As transformer secondary load current increases, primary current:
A. Increases.
B. Varies in proportion to the turn’s ratio.
C. Decreases.
D. Is unaffected.
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56. The current rating of a fuse is defined as:
A. The current at which the fuse will blow.

B. The maximum current that the fuse can carry indefinitely without
blowing.
C. One and a half times the minimum fusing current.
D. The minimum current at which a fuse will operate.
57. Circuit breakers installed in an aircraft are required to be checked for correct
operation at regular intervals. Checks may be carried out:
A. In-site if suitable current generating and measuring equipment is

available.
B. By removing all circuit breakers and testing them in an electrical workshop
C. By using the aircraft power and shorting out the load side
D. Only if the condition or operation of a circuit breaker is suspect.
58. When considering a modification, the criteria upon which the selection of electrical
cable size should be based are:
A. Applied voltage and wire length.
B. Applied voltage and allowable voltage drop.
C. Current-carrying capacity and allowable voltage drop.
D. Current-carrying capacity and applied voltage.
59. Copper cable is usually employed in aircraft electrical circuits because it:
A. Does not produce a magnetic field when carrying an electric current.
B. Is ductile and lends itself to wire production.
C. Possesses a low resistance to the flow of electric current.

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D. Has low weight.
A. Due to the accumulation of static on the airframe.

B. Vibration of mast or whip antennae.
C. Faulty adjustment of the squelch circuit.
D. Electromagnetic radiation from the engine ignition system.

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61. A circuit breaker is a device for:
A. Protecting an electrical circuit from current overload.
B. Collapsing the primary circuit of a power transformer.
C. Completing a circuit without being affected by current flow.
D. Detecting excessive voltages.
62. If it is necessary to use an electrical connector where it may be exposed to moisture,

you should:
A. Coat the connector with grease.
B. Use a special moisture-proof type.
C. Wrap the connector with waxed paper.
D. Spray the connector with varnish or zinc-chromate.
63.Components which are made from semiconductor materials are often called:
A. Low voltage components.

B. Active components.
C. Passive components.
D. Solid-state components.
64.Current flow in a semiconductor consist of:
A. Electrons only.
B. Electrons and holes.
C. Holes only.
D. Ions.
65. The coincidence, or exclusive - NOR gate is one which has two input terminals and
one output terminal. It produces the logic 1 state at the output only when the two
inputs are:
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A. At logical 0.
B. At logical 1.
C. The same logical state.
D. At different logical states.

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66. A truth table shows:
A. The input state of a circuit for all possible combinations of the output state.
B. The output state of a circuit for all possible combinations of input states.
C. The number of inputs that must be at 1 for the output to become 1.
D. The number of inputs that are simultaneously equal to1.
67. A logic circuit has its input at logical 1 when any of its inputs is at 1.
The Boolean expression for the circuit operation is:
A. F = AB + C
B. F = AC + B
C. F = BC + A
D. F=A+B+C
68. Varactor diode have a measurable Q because they have internal:
A. Capacitance only.
B. Capacitance and resistance.
C. Capacitance and inductance.
D. Capacitance.
69. A varactor diode’s internal capacitance increases as the diode’s:
A. Leakage current increase.

B. Depletion region widens.
C. Reverse bias voltage decrease.
D. Reverse bias voltage increase.
A. Two PN junction.
B. One PN junction.
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D. No PN junction.
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A. Much lower than emitter current.

B. Lower than its base current.
C. Slightly lower than its emitter current.
72. When a transistor is connector in a common base arrangement it is capable of

providing:
A. Current amplification.
B. Current and voltage amplification.
C. Current and power amplification.
D. Voltage and power amplification.
A. Current, voltage and power amplification.

B. Current and voltage amplification only.
C. Voltage and amplification only.
D. Current and power amplification only.
74. A common collector circuit may be used by:
A. Provide voltage amplification.

B. Provide current and voltage amplification.
C. Match a high impedance to a much lower impedance.
D. Match a low impedance to a high impedance.
75. When checking a good transistor with an ohmmeter, the device should exhibit a:
A. High ratio of forward-to-reverse resistance across each junction.

B. Low ratio of forward-to-reverse resistance across each junction.
C. A high resistance in either direction across its emitter junction.
D. A low resistance in either direction across collector junction.
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76. The current gain of a common base transistor is often referred as the transistor’s:
A. Amplification factor.
B. Reverse current transfer ratio.
C. Alpha.
D. Beta.
A. Electric and magnetic field.

B. Electric and static field.
C. Static and dynamic field.
D. Magnetic and hydraulic.
78. Visible spectrum or visible light rays between:
A. Audio and radio frequency spectrum.

B. RF and heat frequency spectrum.
C. Infra violet and ultra-red.
D. Infra-red and ultra violet.
A. Excessive weight of equipment.

B. Line of sight propagation.
C. Equipment are not reliable.
D. High power consumed from power source.
80. Purpose of DME system is for:
A. To indicate the direction of the aircraft.

B. To direct movement of the aircraft.
C. To measure the altitude of aircraft on ground.
D. To measure the distance between A/C and a known ground station.
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81. Marker beacon indication usually consist of 3 individual lights:
A. Inner-white, middle amber, outer-blue.

B. Inner-amber, middle-white, outer-blue.
C. Inner-red, middle-yellow, outer-blue.
D. Inner-blue, middle-amber, outer-white.

83. When resonance is established in a series circuit condition:
A. If XC = XI, the circuit impedance will be minimum and the circuit current will
be minimum.
B. If XC = XI, the circuit impedance will be minimum and the circuit current
will be maximum.
C. If XC = XI, the circuit impedance will be maximum and the circuit current will
be minimum.
D. If XC = XI, the circuit impedance will be maximum and the circuit current will
be maximum.
A. Sensors, servo system, control surface.

B. Sensors, servo system, control panel.
C. Sensors, control panel, computer, servo motor, control surface.
D. Sensors, control panel, computer, indicators, servo motor and control surface.
85. The function of automatic pilot system is for controlling automatically and works on
continuously
A. Wing flap, aileron and rudder.

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B. Elevator, rudder and trim tab.

C. Elevator, aileron and rudder.
D. Slot and slots, speed brakes and spoilers.
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86. Servo-motor which is available which is available in automatic pilot system is used
for:
A. Noting the change aircraft altitude.

B. Receiving soft sensor signal.
C. Changing electric signal to be mechanical energy.
D. Continuing signals to the others parts from automatic pilot system.
A. Changing electrical signal becomes mechanical energy.

B. Changing altitude pressure become electrical signal.
C. Changing cross edge become electrical signal.
88. Radar works based on:
A. Speed radio wave.

B. Echo.
C. Effect Doppler.
D. Sonar.
89. The connection of output transceiver radar to input antenna (aerial) at aircraft
installation must be as short as possible and usually uses …
A. Twin lead.
B. Wave-guide.
C. Coaxial cable.
D. Normal cable.
A. Hyperbolic disc type.

B. Parabolic cable.
C. High directional dipole.
D. Horn type.
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91. The normal mode operation weather is
A. Weather mapping.
B. Iso echo contour.
C. Ground mapping.
D. All of the answers above are true.
92. A type of vacuum tube in radar system is used as modulator and switch is:
A. Thyratron tube.
B. Magnetron tube.
C. Klystron tube.
D. ATR / TR tube.
93. The three disadvantages (class) of RF lines are
A. Copper losses, dielectric losses, ion losses.

B. Copper losses, eddy current losses, hysteresis.
C. Copper losses, dielectric losses, radiation losses.
D. Coupling losses, copper losses, power losses.
A. 3-30 KHz.
B. 30-300 kHz.
C. 3-30 MHz.
D. 30-300 MHz.
95. Which of the following is a VOR frequency?
A. 109.50 MHz.
B. 110.30 MHz.
C. 117.50 MHz.
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D. 122.50 MHz.
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96. A radio transmitter transfers energy to a remote receiver by means of:
A. An electro-magnetic wave.
B. A magnetic field.
A. Frequency.
B. Bandwidth.
C. Wavelength.
D. Modulation index.
98. A ground wave follows the surface of the earth partly because of a phenomenon
known as:
A. Refraction.
B. Diffraction.
C. Reflection.
D. Attenuation.
99. What two requirements must be met for sustained oscillations by an oscillator?
A. A crystal and feedback.
B. Amplification and positive feedback.
C. Feedback and a tuned circuit.
D. A tuned circuit and a crystal.

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100. Impedance is the:
A. Difference between resistance and reactance.
B. The sum of parallel resistance and reactance.
C. Difference between inductive and capacitive reactance.
D. Vector sum of resistance and reactance.

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1. Preflight check procedure for FD/autopilot system is written in ....
A. Aircraft Maintenance Manual (AMM).

B. Component Maintenance Manual (CMM).
C. Aircraft Flight Manual (AFM) supplement.
D. Aircraft Type Certificate (TC).
2. (1) supplemental Type certificate may be issued to more than one applicant for
the same design change, providing of the applicant shows compliance with the
applicable airworthiness requirement.
(2) An installation of an item manufactured in accordance with the Technical
Standard Order System requires no further approval for installation in
particular aircraft
Regarding the above statements which of the following is true?
a. Only No 2 is true.
b. Both No 1 and No 2 are true.
c. Neither No 1 nor No 2 is true.
d. Only No 1 is true.
3. Which of the following issues Airworthiness Directive?
a. National Transport Safety Commitee.

b. Air Transport Association.
c. Manufactures.
d. DGCA.
4. Which the following governs the issuance of an Airworthiness Certificate?
a. CASR part 23.

b. CASR part 21.
c. CASR part 25.
d. CASR part 39.
5. An aircraft mechanic is privileged to perform major alterations on certificated

aircraft, however, the work must be done in accordance with technical data
approved by administrator before the aircraft can be approved for return to
service. Which of the following is not approved data
a. Airworthiness Directives.
b. Advisory Circular 43.13-2A.
c. Type Certificate Data Sheet.
d. Manufacturer’s manuals when DGCA approved.
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6. The following is a table of airspeed limits as given in an FAA/DGCA issued aircraft

specification:
A complete detailed inspection and adjustment of the valve:
Normal operating speed……………………………..... 260 knots
Never-exceed speed…………………………………… 293 knots
Maximum landing gear operation speed……............... 174 knots
Maximum flap extended speed……………………...... 139 knots
The high end of the white arc on the airspeed instrument would be at:
a. 260 knots.
b. 293 knots.
c. 174 knots.
d. 139 knots.
7. Which of the following is classified as a major repair?
a. Removal, installation and repair of landing gear tires.

b. The repair of portion of skin sheets by making additional seams.
c. Troubleshooting and repairing broken circuits of Landing light wiring
circuits.
d. Replacing safety belts.
8. How long is the effectivenes of a mechanic certificate?
a. As long as duties are performed under the certificate for at least 60 days
within the preceding 6 month.
b. 24 calendar months.
c. As long as duties are performed under the certificate for at least 90 days
within the preceding 12 months.
d. Until surrendered, suspended or revoked.
9. A certificated mechanic is not privileged to perform any repair to, or alteration

of ...
a. a propeller.
b. air conditioning and pressurization system.
c. an electrically heated windshield system.
d. an instrument.
10. A certificated mechanic with a DGCA certificated mechanics may .....
a. approve for return to service a major repair for which they are rated.
b. supervise and approve a 100 hour inspection.
c. perform an annual inspection appropriate to the rating(s) they hold.
d. approve for return to service a minor alteration they have performed
appropriate to the rating(s) they hold.
11. The correct way to connect a test voltmeter in a circuit is ...
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A. series with the unit to be tested.

B. parallel with the unit to be tested.
C. between the electric source and the load.
D. place lead on either side of fuse.
12. A filter which passes all frequencies below a certain cutoff point and attenuates all
frequencies above that point is called ...
a. Band pass filter.

b. Band stop filter.
c. Low pass filter.
d. High bass filter.
13. Diode in electrical power circuit is primarily used as ......

A. current eliminator.
B. circuit cut-off switches.
C. Rectifier.
D. power transducer relay.
14. When checking diodes using an ohmmeter, when the ohmmeter forward-biases
the diode, its resistance will be ……
A. Low.
B. Zero.
C. High.
D. Unlimited.
15. Hybrid Diode is used as ……
a. a half wave rectifier to convert electric source from ac to dc.

b. a half wave rectifier to convert electric source from dc to ac.
c. a full wave rectifier to convert electric source from ac to dc.
d. a full wave rectifier to convert electric source from dc to ac.
16. Transistors are electronic component made from ……… junctions
a. one type N semiconductor and two type P semiconductors.

b. one type P semiconductor and two type N semiconductors.
c. three N type semiconductors or three P type semiconductors.
d. A and B are correct.
17. The value of α (alpha) of a transistor is ....
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a. 0≤α≤1
b. 0,9 < α < 1
c. 0,9 ≤ α ≤ 1
d. 0,9 < α ≤ 1
18. If the base current of a transistor is 0.03 mA and β is 50, the collector current
is ...
a. 0,53 mA.
b. 0,47 mA.
c. 1,50 mA.
d. 15,0 Ma.
19. Blocking-Capacitors in a cascade amplifier will …
a. function as an open circuit for dc currents.

b. function as a close circuit for dc currents.
c. function as a close circuit for ac currents.
d. A and C are correct.
20. Schematic symbol for Triac is:
a. B.
C. D.
21. The main difference of an SCR compares to a Triac is ...
a. SCR functions better than Triac.

b. SCR can be used as a switching amplifier while Triac couldn’t.
c. electric current in SCR can only flows in one direction while in Triac
could flows in both directions.
d. SCR is made of silicon while Triac isn’t.
22. Pedestal or side console areas are used for :
a. non-flight critical navigation information display.

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b. flight critical navigation information display.

c. flight critical and non-flight critical navigation information display.
d. not all of the above.
23. The benefit of using data bus is .......
A. to reduce weight
B. to make installation easy
C. to make maintenance easy
D. A, B, and C are correct.
24. The data bus usually used for aircraft systems, is (are) ....
A. ARINC 429
B. ARINC 629
C. MIL-STD 1553
25. The following truth table represent the function of ...... gate.
A. AND.
B. OR .
C. EXOR.
D. Not all of the above.
26. Computer structure architecture consist of ...
A. CPU, Memory, I/O Device.

B. CPU, RAM, ROM, Input Device.
C. CPU, Bus, Memory.
D. CPU, Bus, I/O Device.
27. What causes ESD Electronic Devices to fail?
A. Discharge to the Device.

B. Discharge from the Device.
C. Field Induced Discharges.
D. all the above.
28. A buffer amplifier is the term applied to an amplifier stage ....
A. to indicate that its primary purpose is for isolation.

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B. to indicate that its primary purpose is to gain power.

C. to indicate that its primary purpose is to multiply frequency.
D. to indicate that its primary purpose is to decrease frequency.
29. The speed of radio wave is ...
A. 3 x 108 m/sec.
B. 3 x 105 Km/sec.
C. equal to the speed of light.
D. All of the above answers are true.
30. The Amplitude Modulation system is a method .......
a. by which the frequency of the carrier wave is varied by the information we

want to transmit.
b. by which the amplitude of the carrier wave is varied by the information
we want to transmit.
c. by which the power of the carrier wave is varied by the information we want to
transmit.
d. A and B are true.
31. Observe the following figures:
Figure A Figure B
fm = modulated frequency fc = carrier frequency
a. Figure A ilustrates a RF amplitudo modulated with two frequencies and

figure B ilustrates a RF frequency modulated.
b. Figure A ilustrates a RF frequency modulated with two frequencies and figure
B ilustrates a RF amplitudo modulated.
c. Figure A ilustrates a RF amplitudo modulated with one frequency and figure B
ilustrates a RF frequency modulated.
d. Figure A ilustrates a RF frequency modulated with one frequency and figure B
ilustrates a RF amplitudo modulated.
32. In radio frequency communication system, the carrier frequency ........ the
modulating frequency.
a. is much lower than

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b. is much higher than

c. is the same as
d. may be much higher than
33. Microphones in aircraft radio communication system are use ...
a. to convert electrical signal to voice by a coil moving in a magnetic field.

b. to convert electrical signal to voice by moving magnetic field to a fixed coil.
c. to convert voice to an electrical signal by moving magnetic field to a fixed coil.
d. to convert voice to an electrical signal by a coil moving in a magnetic
field.
34. At 50% modulation, during the same time, the peak amplitude of the carrier
is ........ the value of the carrier with no modulation.
A. twice
B. one half
C. the same as
D. three times
35. As a general rule in radio communication system, which of the following

statements is (are) true?
a. the faster we want to send information, or the higher the frequencies in

the information, the more bandwidth required.
b. the faster you want to send information, or the higher the frequencies in
the information, the less bandwidth required.
c. the faster you want to send information, or the higher the frequencies in
the information, the more transmitted power required.
d. the faster you want to send information, or the higher the frequencies in
the information, the less transmitted power required.
A. Only a is true.
B. a and b are true.
C. a and c are true.
D. b and c are true.
36. A continuous wave or continuous waveform (CW) is an electromagnetic wave ........
A. of constant amplitude; and of infinite duration.

B. of constant frequency; and of infinite duration.
C. of constant amplitude and frequency; and of infinite duration.
D. of constant amplitude and frequency; and of finite duration.
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37. A VCO (Voltage Controlled Oscillator) is designed base on ..... oscillator

configuration.
A. Tickler
B. Crystal
C. Hartley
D. Colpitts
38. The frequency of the 1st IF in a superheterodyne receiver is ... (a), and ... (b) for the
2nd IF.
A. 5.5 Mc/s (a) ; 1.5 Mc/s (b).

B. 10.5 Mc/s (a) ; 455 Kc/s (b).
C. 455 Kc/s (a) ; 10.5 Mc/s (b).
D. 45.5 Kc/s (a) ; 1.05 Mc/s (b).
39. Antenna on radio frequency system is ...
a. essential for RF transmitters and non essential for RF receivers.

b. non essential for RF transmitters and essential for RF receivers.
c. essential for both RF transmitters and RF receivers.
d. non essential for both RF transmitters and RF receivers.
40. What is an antenna in a transmitter?
A. is an electrical conductor made for current flow.

B. is an electrical device which converts electric power into radio waves.
C. is an electrical device which converts radio waves into elecric power.
D. A, B, and C are false.
41. How good is the energy transfered by an antenna is depend on the following
factors:
a. height above the ground.

b. gain and directivity.
c. polarization.
d. A, B, and C are true.
42. Radio waves tend to bend as they follow the curvature of the earth. This bending
is caused by ...
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A. the tendency of a radio wave to travel slower as the density of the air
increases.
B. the tendency of a radio wave to travel faster as the density of the air increases.
C. the tendency of a radio wave to refract when traveling through a higher
density of air.
D. A and C are true.
43. RG58 cable is about .... (a) inch in diameter and RG11 cable is about .... (b) inch
in diameter.
A. ½ (a) ; ¼ (b).
B. ½ (a) ; ¾ (b).
C. ¾ (a) ; ½ (b).
D. ¼ (a) ; ½ (b).
44. RG58 cable, which is the one most commonly used for aircraft VHF equipment,
the loss is around ...... at 120 Mc/s for a 10 foot length.
A. 20 %
B. 15 %
C. 10 %
D. 5 %
45. Aircraft RF transmission lines normally use RG11 and RG58 coaxial cables.
A. RG58 used for DME and transponder, while RG11 for VHF equipment
installations.
B. Both cables RG11 and RG 58 could be used for VHF, DME and transponder
equipment installations.
C. RG11 used for DME and transponder, while RG58 for VHF equipment
installations.
D. Only RG58 is used for VHF, DME and transponder equipment installations.
46. What is antenna radiation pattern?
A. It is a plot of the relative field strength of the radio waves emitted by the
antenna at different angles.
B. It is a function of angles and can be expressed as field or power pattern.
C. It shows how the antenna distributes its energy in space.
47. For an amplitude modulated wave of carrier frequency 122 Megacycles/second,

and modulated with a frequency of 2 KHz, the frequencies necessary to add to the
AM signal is (are):
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A. 122.002 MC/s
B. 121.998 MC/s
C. 121.998 MC/s ; 122 MC/s ; and 122.002 MC/s
D. 121.998 MC/s and 122.002 MC/s
48. If we would need 4 megacycles per second width for each station. How many
channels can we have for the range of ll8 to 136 megacycles per second?
A. 5 channels.
B. 4 channels.
C. 3 channels.
D. 2 channels.
49. In AM system, the stronger the modulating signal, .......
A. the higher the peak and the lower the minimum of the modulated
carrier.
B. the lower the peak and the higher the minimum of the modulated carrier.
C. the higher the peak and the modulated carrier.
D. the lower the peak and the modulated carrier.
50. In AM, a 100 watt transmitter would also have some power in the sideband. For a
l00% modulation AM transmitter there will be 100 watts of carrier power, plus ....
watts in each sideband.
A. 100
B. 75
C. 50
D. 25
51. For the SSB system using the same size transmitting equipment, it requires .........
bandwidth that the AM requires.
A. the same
B. one-half
C. twice
D. one-quarter
52. In a crystal-controlled oscillator, the frequency depends almost entirely on ..........
A. circuit values.
B. the dimensions of the crystal.
C. the voltage applied.
D. the amplifier.
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53. Good frequency stability is most easily obtained through the use of .........
A. a crystal-controlled oscillator combined with a variable frequency oscillator.

B. variable frequency oscillator followed by a multiplier.
C. a crystal-controlled oscillator.
D. variable frequency oscillator.
54. The frequency of a v.f.o. (variable frequency oscillator) ............
A. depends entirely on the values of inductance in the circuit.

B. depends entirely on the values of inductance and capacitance in the
circuit.
C. depends entirely on the values of capacitance in the circuit.
D. does not depent antirely on the values of inductance and capacitance in the
circuit.
55. In VHF aircraft communications, ......
a. the space wave is the primary carrier.

b. the ground wave at these frequencies is useless.
c. no sky wave is produced.
d. Answers A, B, and C are true.
56. The standing wave ratio is ...
a. a measure of the amount of power transmitted to the antenna.

b. a measure of the amount of reflected power to the transmitter.
c. a measure of the amount of power transmitted to the antenna, compared
to the amount reflected back to the transmitter.
d. Answer A, B, and C are true.
57. The most commonly transmission lines used for Aircraft RF is ....
a. RG58 for DME, Transponder, and VHF systems

b. RG11 for DME, Transponder, and VHF systems
c. RG58 for DME and Transponder, and RG11 for VHF systems
d. RG11 for DME and Transponder, and RG58 for VHF systems
58. The VOR receiving antenna on the tail of many aircraft, is ...
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a. sensitive to both horizontally polarized signals and vertically polarized signals

b. sensitive to vertically polarized signals and insensitive to horizontally polarized
signals.
c. sensitive to horizontally polarized signals and insensitive to vertically
polarized signals.
d. insensitive to both horizontally polarized signals and vertically polarized
signals.
59. When deciding the location of an antenna, the following must be taken into
consideration:
a. radiation pattern.
b. interference between systems.
c. SWR.
d. A and B are true.
60. All modern avionic systems conform to Aeronautical Radio Incorporate (ARINC)
standard. ARINC 500 and 700 standards were developed for ..........
A. Communication, Navigation and Identification (CNI) systems.

B. Communication, Navigation and Instrument (CNI) systems.
C. digital data transmission systems.
D. Navigation and Communication systems.
61. Aircraft HF Comm. System consists of ...........
A. Transceiver, control unit, antenna, microphone and head set

B. Transceiver, control unit, antenna, antenna coupler, microphone and
head set
C. Transceiver, antenna, microphone and head set
D. Transceiver, control unit, antenna coupler, microphone and head set
62. In a superheterodyne receiver, the mixer is a device that ....
a. takes an amplitude modulated wave of a certain carrier frequency, and

converts it to an amplitude modulated wave of the same carrier frequency.
b. takes an amplitude modulated wave of a certain carrier frequency, and
converts it to an amplitude modulated wave of a different carrier
frequency.
c. takes an amplitude modulated wave of a certain carrier frequency, and
converts it to an frekwensi modulated wave of a different carrier frequency.
d. takes an amplitude modulated wave of a certain carrier frequency, and
converts it to an frekwensi modulated wave of the same carrier frequency.
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63. Intermediate frequency amplifier (IF amplifier), ....
a. is designed to amplify the difference in frequency coming from the mixer, and
to reject the sum frequency.
b. consists of a number of tuned circuits and a number of stages of
amplification.
c. is enable to reject all frequencies except those close to the desired frequency.
d. A, B and C are true.
64. The aircraft VHF-com band is ....
A. 98 to l18 megacycles per second

B. 98 to 118 kilocycles per second
C. 118 to 136 megacycles per second
D. 118 to 136 kilocycles per second
65. Navigation system that required a set of antenna consisting a sense and a loop
antenna is ....
a. VOR
b. DME
c. ADF
d. ILS
66. Main component of an airborne ADF system are .......
a. receiver, antennae, and bearing-indicator.

b. receiver, control-box, antennae, and bearing-indicator.
c. receiver, control-box, and antennae.
d. receiver, control-box, and bearing-indicator.
67. The DME system is used to measure ..........
A. point to point distance

B. slant range
C. ground range
D. No answer is true
68. DME antenna should be installed .........
a. at the bottom of the fuselage

b. as aft as possible at the bottom of the fuselage
c. at a position so that the transmission will not be blocked by any aircraft
part during any aircraft manuever capabilities.
d. A and B are correct.
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69. VOT transmitters are used to check the accuracy of VOR receivers while aircraft
are on the ground. The VOT radiates a "NORTH" bearing signal on all azimuths.
The bearing accuracy of the transmitted signal is maintained within a tolerance of
...
a. 0.50
b. 1.0°
c. 1.50
d. 2.00
70. The radio operating frequency of Marker Beacon is .......
a. 75 Mhz
b. 324 Mhz
c. 121,5 Mhz and 243 Mhz
71. A system that function to records all audio signals and sounds in the cockpit,
such as the pilot's voices, engine noises, stall warnings, landing gear extension
and retraction is ........
a. Cockpit Voice Recorder (CVR).

b. Flight Data Recorder.
c. A and B are true.
d. A and B are false.
72. CVR and FDR are installed in the ………. of the aircraft.
A. radio compartment.
B. most crash survivable part.
C. tail section.
D. near the cockpit.
73. Interphone system allows flight attendants or flight crew to make announcements
in the passenger cabin using ......
a. Fight Interphone.
b. Service Interphone.
c. Cabin Interphone.
d. Passenger Address Systems.
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74. The glide slope provides ................ to the pilot during the approach.
a. vertical guidance.
b. horizontal guidance.
c. both vertical and horizontal guidance.
d. Answer A, B, and C are false.
75. Critical display functions instruments located in the pilot’s primary field-of-view
are:
A. Air Speed, Vertical Speed, INS CDU (Inertial Navigation System Control
Display Unit).
B. Air Speed, Angle of attack, Altitude.
C. Vertical Speed, Air Speed, Map Display.
D. Angle of attack, Altitude, FMS DU (Flight Management System Display Unit).
76. A PFD (Primary Flight Display) presents information about ....
A. primary flight instruments.

B. navigation instruments.
C. the status of the flight.
D. A, B, and C.
77. The primary flight instruments that appear on a PFD are driven by instrument
sensor systems
A. that are more sophisticated than conventional instrument systems.

B. which are the same as used in conventional instrument systems.
C. which give a better sensitivity and reliability compare to traditional
instruments.
D. A and B are true.
78. On advance avionics system, the aircraft heading is determined using ...
A. a magnetic direction-sensing device.

B. a gyroscopic sensor.
C. a synchronizer.
D. LVDT.
79. An attitude heading reference system (AHRS) contains .....

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A. sensors used to measure attitude and heading.

B. sensors used to measure attitude and heading, and a computer that
accepts sensor inputs and performs calculations.
C. sensors used to measure heading and a computer that accepts sensor input
and performs calculations.
D. sensors used to measure attitude and a computer that accepts sensor input
and performs calculations.
80. During flight, the FMS provides precise guidance about ...
A. aircraft course and groundspeed.

B. distance and estimated time between waypoints.
C. fuel consumed, and fuel/flight time remaining (when equipped with fuel
sensor(s)).
D. A, B, and C are correct.
81. The autopilot system consist of ...
A. a set of servo actuators and its control circuits.

B. flight director (FD) component which is the brain of the autopilot system.
C. FMS.
82. What is Air Data Computer (ADC)?
A. The system that receives ram air, static air, and temperature information
from sensors, and provides information such as altitude, indicated
airspeed, vertical speed, and wind direction and velocity to other cockpit
systems.
B. The system that receives air pressure and temperature information from
sensors, and provides information such as altitude, indicated airspeed, vertical
speed, and wind velocity to other cockpit systems.
C. The system that receives ram air and static air pressure information from
sensors, and provides information such as altitude, indicated airspeed, vertical
speed, and wind direction to other cockpit systems.
83. Most flight directors accept data input from ...
A. the ADC, AHRS, and the pilot’s control panel.

B. the ADC, AHRS, navigation sources, pilot’s control panel, and autopilot
servo feedback.
C. the ADC, the pilot’s control panel, and the autopilot servo feedback.
D. the ADC, AHRS, and navigation sources.
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84. AP and trim systems use a simple clutch mechanism that allows the pilot to
overpower the system by forcing the control yoke in the desired direction. This
system is usually checked ...
A. during periodic maintenance inspection.

B. during the afterstart/pretakeoff/ runup check.
C. during go-around inspection.
D. after any major or minor repair.
85. The first and closest method of disconnecting a malfunctioning autopilot is the
autopilot disconnect switch which is ...
A. a red button and typically mounted on the control yoke.

B. a red button and typically mounted on the pedestal.
C. a white button and typically mounted on the control yoke.
D. a white button and typically mounted on the pedestal.
86. The MFD serves as ...
A. a redundance to the PFD.

B. additional display to the PFD.
C. an indicator/display for non essential information.
D. the backup or faildown display for the PFD.
87. A terrain display usually relies on ...
A. GPS location signal and it’s topographical database.

B. ground-base navigation transmitters.
C. ATC transponder.
88. The yellow color-code in terrain display means that the terrain is ...
A. less than 1,000 feet but more than 200 feet below the aircraft.
B. less than 200 feet below the aircraft.
C. less than 1,000 feet but more than 100 feet below the aircraft.
D. more than 1,000 feet below the aircraft.
89. What is an AHRS?
A. An integrated flight instrument system that provides heading, rate of turn, and
slip/skid information.
B. An integrated flight instrument system that provides attitude, heading, and
slip/skid information.
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C. An integrated flight instrument system that provides attitude, heading,

rate of turn, and slip/skid information.
D. An integrated flight instrument system that provides attitude, heading, and
rate of turn information.
90. In TAWS, when will the “Terrain! Terrain!” be alerted ...
A. when the closure time reaches 15 seconds.

B. when the closure time reaches 30 seconds.
C. when the closure time reaches 60 seconds.
D. when the closure time reaches 90 seconds.
91. TAWS, are certified under ...
A. Technical Standards Order (TSO)-C151.

B. Technical Standards Order (TSO)-C121.
C. Technical Standards Order (TSO)-C135.
D. Technical Standards Order (TSO)-C165.
92. TAWS equipment is required for ...
A. turbine-powered airplanes having eight or more passenger seats.

B. turbine-powered airplanes having six or more passenger seats.
C. airplanes having six or more passenger seats.
D. airplanes having eight or more passenger seats.
93. Which of the following is provided in a TAWS A but not provided in a TAWS B?
A. Excessive downward deviation from glideslope.

B. Excessive rate of descent; negative climb rate and altitude loss after takeoff.
C. Flight into terrain when not in landing configuration.
D. A and C are correct.
94. Weather products provided by cockpit weather systems are typically presented
on ...
A. MFD only.
B. PFD only.
C. MFD and could be overlayed on the PFD.
D. PFD and could be overlayed on the MFD.
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95. The radar displays ...
A. areas of rain, sleet, snow, turbulence or lightning, and hail.

B. areas of rain, sleet, turbulence or lightning, and hail.
C. areas of rain, sleet, snow, and hail.
D. areas of rain, snow, turbulence or lightning, and hail.
96. TCAS and TA are alert and advisories systems that ...
A. rely on traffic information transmitted from ground facilities to the cockpit.

B. use onboard sensors to detect nearby aircraft and rely on traffic information
transmitted from ground facilities to the cockpit.
C. use onboard sensing equipment to detect nearby aircraft.
97. Which of the following is true?
A. TCAS and TA systems cannot detect aircraft that do not have active
transponders.
B. TCAS and TA systems give unwanted alerts when the pilot is purposefully
operating in the vicinity of other aircraft.
C. TCAS and TA systems can detect any aircraft flying nearby.
98. A fuel management system offers precise fuel calculations based on ...
A. time, distance, winds, and fuel flow measured by the fuel management system
itself.
B. time, distance, winds, and fuel flow measured by other aircraft systems.
C. time, distance, and fuel flow measured by other aircraft systems.
D. time, distance, and fuel flow measured by the fuel management system itself.
99. Most fuel management function or systems display ...
A. only the amount of fuel remaining.

B. only the endurance (in hours and minutes) of the aircraft given the current
fuel flow.
C. the amount of fuel remaining and the endurance (in hours and minutes)
of the aircraft given the current fuel flow.
D. the amount of fuel remaining and the endurance (in minutes) of the aircraft
given the current fuel flow.
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100. Fuel management functions perform calculations using ...

A. an initial fuel estimate that was provided by the pilot prior to departure.
B. fuel quantity sensors installed in the fuel tanks.
C. an initial fuel data given by the fuel quantity sensors and data from fuel flow
sensors.
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1. Which component of aircraft that categorize as “class II” product?
E. Propeller, landing gears and wings.

F. Standard part, aircraft engine and fuselages.
G. Aircraft, aircraft engine and propeller.
H. Fuselages, wings and landing gears.
2. (1) supplemental Type certificate may be issued to more than one applicant for the
same design change, providing of the applicant shows compliance with the
applicable airworthiness requirement.
(2) An installation of an item manufactured in accordance with the Technical

Standard Order System requires no further approval for installation in particular
aircraft.
Regarding the above statements which of the following is true?
A. Only No 2 is true.
B. Both No 1 and No 2 are true.
C. Neither No 1 nor No 2 is true.
D. Only No 1 is true.
3. Which of the following issues Airworthiness Directive?
A. National Transport Safety Committee.

B. Air Transport Association.
C. Manufactures.
D. DGCA.
4. Which the following governs the issuance of an Airworthiness Certificate?
A. CASR part 23.

B. CASR part 21.
C. CASR part 25.
D. CASR part 39.
5. Who is primarily responsible for the performance of the maintenance, preventive

maintenance, and alteration of its aircraft, including airframe, aircraft engines,
propellers, appliances, and part thereof for air carrier:
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A. AMO certificate holder.

B. Air Operator Certificate holder.
C. DGCA.
D. Manufacturer.
6. Which of the following products need airworthiness approval tag?
A. Class I products.
B. Class II products.
C. Class III products.
D. Class II and Class III products.
7. Which of the following is classified as a major repair?
A. Removal, installation and repair of landing gear tires.

B. The repair of portion of skin sheets by making additional seams.
C. Troubleshooting and repairing broken circuits of Landing light wiring circuits.
D. Replacing safety belts.
8. How long is the effectivenes of a mechanic certificate?
A. As long as duties are performed under the certificate for at least 60 days
within the preceding 6 month.
B. 24 calendar months.
C. As long as duties are performed under the certificate for at least 90 days
within the preceding 12 months.
D. Until surrendered, suspended or revoked.
9. A certificated mechanic is not privileged to perform any repair to, or alteration of ...
A. a propeller.
B. air conditioning and pressurization system.
C. an electrically heated windshield system.
D. an instrument.
10. A certificated mechanic with a DGCA certificated mechanics may .....
A. approve for return to service a major repair for which they are rated.
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B. supervise and approve a 100 hour inspection.

C. perform an annual inspection appropriate to the rating(s) they hold.
D. approve for return to service a minor alteration they have performed
appropriate to the rating(s) they hold.
11. Basic test equipment which is used to know that one circuit works properly is
A. Ammeter.
B. Volt meter.
C. Ohm meter or megger.
D. All the answer s are correct.
A. 3-30 KHz.
B. 3-30 MHz.
C. 30-300 KHz.
D. 30-300 MHz.
13. Which of the following is a VOR frequency ?
A. 109.50 MHz.
B. 110.30 MHz.
C. 117.50 MHz.
D. 122.50 MHz.
14. Electrical conductivity () of pure (intrinsic) semiconductor is:
A. Remains constant with increased temperature of the material.
B. Decreases with increased temperature of the material.
C. Increases with increased temperature of the material.
D. None of the above answers is correct.

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15. Electrical resistivity () of pure (intrinsic) semiconductor material at 0K temperature is:
A. Zero.
B. Varies from 0.4 to 2500 .
C. Very large.
D. None of a, b, c is correct answer.
16. The conversion of 1975|10 to binary system is:
A. 11101101011
B. 11111010011
C. 11110110111
D. 10001101011
17. The binary number 11111011010 equals to :
A. 2002|10
B. 1980|10
C. 1990|10
D. 2010|10
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18. A resistance of 6 ohms is connected in parallel with an inductive reactance of 8 ohms across a 24 volt 400
Hz supply. The total current in the circuit is:
A. 7 amperes.
B. 5 amperes.
C. 2.4 amperes.
D. 1.7 amperes.
19. A series circuit has a resistance of 12 ohms, inductive reactance of 19 ohms and capacitive reactance of 14
ohms. The impedance is:
A. 7 ohms.
B. 13 ohms.
C. 17 ohms.
D. 45 ohms.
20. A 1000-microfarad capacitor stores 5 joules of energy. What is the difference in potential between the
terminals of the capacitor?
A. 1 volt.
B. 10 volts.
C. 100 volts.
D. 1000 volts.
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A. Sensors, servo system, control surface.

B. Sensors, servo system, control panel.
C. Sensors, control panel, computer, servo motor, control surface.
D. Sensors, control panel, computer, indicators, servo motor and control surface.
A. Changing electrical signal becomes mechanical energy.

B. Changing altitude pressure become electrical signal.
C. Changing cross edge become electrical signal.
24. Which three things determine the inductance of a coil?
A.Number of turns, current and voltage.

B. Current, form factor and permeability of the core.
C. Number of turns, form factor and permeability of the core.
D. Number of turns, voltage and form factor.
25. At the flip-flop circuit, T gate will change its value from 1 to 0 of
A. Gate S is given 1
B. Gate R is given 0
C. Gate S is given 0
D. Gate R is given 1
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26. The current gain of a common base transistor is often referred as the transistor’s:
A. Alpha.
B. Beta.
C. Amplification factor.
D. Reverse current transfer ratio.
A. One PN junction.
B. Two PN junction.
D. No PN junction.
A. Voltage and amplification only.

B. Current and power amplification only.
C. Current, voltage and power amplification.
D. Current and voltage amplification only.

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A. Output from NOR gate becomes 1 if all input = 1

B. Output from NOR gate is the same AND
C. Output from EX-OR is the same as NOR
D. Output from NOR gate becomes 1 of all the inputs = 0
30. Resistance, which will arrange number of the current flow at plate, is.
A. Plate resistance.
B. Grid & filament resistance.
C. Grid resistance.
D. Filament resistance.
A. Slightly lower than its emitter current.

B. Much lower than emitter current.
C. Lower than its base current.
32. If transistor produces sinusoidal output when it works without input, so the characteristic is the same
as ……………
A. Amplifier.
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B. Transformer.
C. Oscillator LC/RC.
D. Oscillator relays.
33. Oscillator is a circuit is used for
A. Changing AC signal to DC signal.

B. Producing output which frequency and its amplitude can be controlled.
C. Changing sinusoidal frequency becomes and thread saw signal.
D. Producing wave gain input.
34. Component which works to combine resistor, diode, transistor etc is called:
A. Transformer.
B. IC (integrated circuit).
C. Triode tube.
D. Power supply.
35. The type of oscillator which its output forms wave non sinusoidal is.
A. Oscillator LC.
B. Oscillator relaxation.
C. Oscillator RC.
D. A and b are true.

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36. Capacitor which connect point ground for ……………
A. Capacitor coupling.
B. Capacitor by pass.
C. Capacitor capacitance.
D. Capacitor bipolar.
37. SCR/TRIAC is often used for
A. Regulating in order volume at audio circuit.
B. Keeping in order that resistance is not overload.
C Regulating the amount of current.
D. Producing frequency gain.
38. A ground wave follows the surface of the earth partly because of a phenomenon known as:
A. Refraction.
B. Reflection.
C. Diffraction.
D. Attenuation.
A. Frequency.
B. Bandwidth.
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C. Modulation index.
D. Wavelength.
40. A radio transmitter transfers energy to a remote receiver by means of:
A. A magnetic field.
B. An electro-magnetic wave.
41. The maximum value of hfe can be obtained by operating transistor in it’s:
A. Saturated condition.
B. Normal condition.
C. Extreem condition
D. Cut-off condition
42. Which transistor is expected to have the highest input impedance:
A. npn bipolar tansistor.

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B. pnp bipolar transistor.
C. MOSFET.
D. JFET.
43. Which part of the JFET or MOSFET consitutes ‘channel’:
A. Part between gate and souce terminals.

B. Part between drain and souce terminals.
C. Part between gate and drain terminals.
D. Part between gate-1 and gate-2 terminals.
44. Magnitude of current flowing through channel of JFET and MOSFET is normally
controlled by controlling:
A. Applied voltage between gate and source terminals.

B. Applied voltage between gate and drain terminals.
C. Applied voltage between drain and souce terminals.
D. Applied voltage between gate-1 and gate-2 terminals.
45. Which characteristic is considered as benefit of an integrated circuit over discrete component
circuits:
A. Requires low power input.

B. Requires less space.
C. More reliable and compact.
D. a, b, and c, are true.
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46. For digital electronics applications, transistor is not operated in it’s:
A. saturated condition.
B. cut-off condition.
C. normal condition.
D. extreem condition.
47. Which 2-input gate has ‘True’ state output only when it’s both input have ‘True’ state ?.
A. NOR gate.
B. OR gate.
C. NAND gate.
D. AND gate.
48. Which component can be found inside an IC chip?
A. Diode.
B. Transistor.
C. Resistor
D. a, b, and c can be found inside an IC chip.
49. Which 2-input gate has ‘False’ state output only when it’s both input have ‘False’ state ?
A. AND gate.
B. NAND gate.
C. OR gate.
D. NOR gate.
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50. Which one of the following statements is operational amplifier characteristic:
A. Can be used to perform math operation.

B. High input impedance.
C. High amplification fractor.
D. a, b, and c, are op-amp characteristics.
51. What two requirement must be met for sustained oscillations by an oscillator?
A. amplification and positive feedback.
B. a crystal and feedback.

C. feedback and a tuned circuit.
D. a tuned circuit and a crystal.
52. A capacitor stores electrical charge in:
A. The plates.
B. The dielectric.
C. A magnetic field.
D. An electrostatic field.
A. Power transformers and current transformers.
B. Power transformers and voltage transformers.

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C. Primary transformers and secondary transformers.
D. Normal transformers and autotransformers.
A. Decreasing the distance between the plates.

B.Increasing the thickness of the dielectric.
C.Increasing the plate area.
55. When testing the bonding of a component, it is necessary to penetrate:
A. Cadmium film.
B. Anodic film.
C. Chromium plating.
D. Nickel plating.
56. A double conversion superheterodyne receiver has:
A. One local oscillator and two IF frequencies.

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B.Two local oscillators and one IF frequency.

C.Two local oscillators and two IF frequencies.
D. Two discreet frequency IF’s.
57. The clock pulse is the heart of most digital systems. A reliable source of clock pulses is a :
A. Schmitt trigger.
B.Stable multi vibrator.
C.Synchronous flip-flop.
D. Ripple counter.
58. A Semiconductor that alters its resistance due to the effect of incident light is said to be:
A. An LED.
B.Photo-emissive.
C.Photovoltaic.
D. Photoconductive.
59. The correct connecting of frequency meter is:
A. Parallel to the load.

B. Parallel to the source.
C.Series to the load.
D. Series to the source.
60. Aircraft bonding tester is designed to measure voltage drop over a bonding strap or junction. It
accomplishes this by:
A. Comparing the resistance of the bond by Wheat stone Bridge null voltage measurement.
B. Producing a current through the bond and measuring the voltage drop across it.
C. Producing a voltage over the bond and measuring the resistance.
D. An internal high voltage generator which is operated by hand.
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61. The output of a mixer consists of:
A. 4 frequencies.
B. 3 frequencies.
C. 2 frequencies.
D. 1 frequency.
62. What is the purpose of filter circuit at power supply?
A. Keeping DC signal from rectifier.

B. Protecting AC signal enters load.
C. Changing AC resistance to DC resistance.
D. Changing DC pulse becomes more smoothly.
63. Type of filter, which works based on top detection, is.
A. Filter input chose.

B. Filter input capacitor.
C. Filter R-C.
D. Filter L-C.
64. When output frequency it regulator bridge is 400 Hz. So its input frequency is:
A. 200 Hz.
B. 400 Hz.
C. 800 Hz.
D. It depends on the big of filter.
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65. How much diode is used at fall wave recafter which uses transformer without C7
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
66. Transistor is operated when.
A. The basic current is the same as collector current.

B. Along etc load line from cut off point up to saturasi.
C. The existence of AC resistance.
D. Accruing electron movement.
67. Curve tracer transistor is a mean which is used for
A. Calculating DC resistance.
B. Calculating AC resistance.
C. Describing the form of curve tracer.
D. Describing the form of AC frequency.
68. At feed back collector deviation, the bigromit of collector-emitter resistance is almost the same as half
catu resistance if.
A. Collector resistance is the same as catu resistance.

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B. The Rb value = B dc.Rc

C. Collector current is the same as emitter current plus basic current.
D.  Dc is the same as null.
69. Digital circuit and switch is after made by using transistor deviation type of:
A. Basic deviation.
B. Dividing resistance deviation.
C. Feed back collector deviation.
D. Emitter deviation.
70. At a transistor, the biggest current is happened at:
A. 1b
B. 1c
C. 1e
D. 1b and 1e
71. Type of collector feed back is used for
A. Digital circuit.
B. Switch gain.
C. Small gain signal.
D. Large gain signal.
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E. Electric and static field.

F. Electric and magnetic field.
G. Static and dynamic field.
H. Magnetic and hydraulic.
73. How many basic electronic gates are identified by MIL STD 806B ?.
A. 6
B. 5
C. 4
D. 8
74. Which system use analog signal to send information from it’s transmitter to receiver?.
A. ARINC 429 databus .
B. MIL-STD-1553B databus.
C. ARINC 629 databus.
D. 3 wire synchro.
75. A 100 V secondary transformer voltage in a power supply circuit feeds a filter capacitor with no load.
What the capacitor voltage if the rectifier is silicon diode?
A. 140,7 V
B. 100 V
C. 141,4 V
D. A, and C are false
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76. Which one is correct for ARINC 429 transmitter bit assignment?.
A. VAB = 5 Volts for bit ‘1’ and VAB= 0 Volts for bit ‘0’.
B. VAB = 0 Volts for bit ‘1’ and VAB= 5 Volts for bit ‘0’.
C. VAB = -5 Volts for bit ‘1’ and VAB= 0 Volts for bit ‘0’.
D. none of a, b, c is right.
77. How many bit are in an ARINC 429 word:
A. 8.
B. 4.
C. 32
D. 16
78. Where do we most probably find a landing gear visual warning in the cockpit of modern large
aeroplane ?.

B.at the FMS display.
C.at the EICAS display.
79. Data transmission rate of ARINC 429 low speed is:

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A. 25 Kilo bit per second (Kbps).

B. 50 Kilo bit per second (Kbps).
C. 12,5 Kilo bit per second (Kbps).
D. 100 Kilo bit per second (Kbps).
80. Where do we most probably find a weather map in the cockpit of modern large aeroplane ?.
A. at the EICAS display.

B. at the EFIS display.
C. at the FMS display.
81. Where do we most probably find the interstage turbine temperature (ITT) indication in the
cockpit of modern large aeroplane?.

E. Hyperbolic disc type.

F. High directional dipole.
G. Parabolic cable.
H. Horn type.
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A. Resistance exceeds reactance.

B. The net reactance is zero.
C. Reactance is equal to resistance.
D. Capacitive and inductive impedances are equal.
84. For PNP transistors conventional current flows :
A. Into the device through the emitter.

B. Into the device through the base.
C. In the same direction as current flow.
D. Out of the device through the emitter.
85. Amplification by a transistor is principally due its :
A. Low power dissipation.

B. Applied voltage being small.
C. Low conduction resistance.
D. Relatively high resistance gain.
86. Impedance is made up of any or all of three components. Which of the components below is NOT
included ?
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A. Capacitive reactance.
B. Inductive reactance.
C. Resistance ..
D. Reluctance.
87. Whenever the secondary windings of current transformer are disconnected from their load circuits,
terminals must be :
A. Earthed.
B. Short-circuited together.
C. Insulated from each other.
D. Left undisturbed.
88. The materials used for the aircraft structure in generally can be classified into two categories:
A. Metal materials and non-metal materials.

B. Magnetic metal and non-magnetic metal.
C. Aluminum and non-aluminum.
D. Steels and non-steels.
89. A Colpitts oscillator is characterized by :
A. In-phase feedback.
B. Two inductances.
C. Two capacitances.
D. Tuned circuit feedback.
90. VHF airborne communications sets operate in the frequency range from:
A. 209.5 MHz to 302.0 MHz.

B. 108.0 KHz to 135.95 KHz.
C. 108.0 MHz to 135.95 MHz.
D. 94.0 MHz to 100.02 MHz.
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91. Automatic Gain Control (AGC) is achieved by varying:
A. Output impedance.
B. Input capacities.
C. Input bias.
D. Output bias.
92. Oscillator circuits are generators of:
A. Stability.
B. Stable impedances.
C. Varying supply voltages.
D. Radio frequencies.
93. Electronic equipment which uses tube is ……………
A. TV screen.
B. Transceiver HF.
C. Radio transmitter with high power.
D. All the answer above are correct.
94. The amount of effective resistance output from a half wave regulator is.
A. Vp/V2
B. Up/b
C. Vac
D. Nil
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A. Output from NOR gate is the same AND.

B. Output from EX-OR is the same as NOR.
C. Output from NOR gate becomes 1 of all the inputs = 0
D. Output from NOR gate becomes 1 if all input = 1
A. Due to the accumulation of static on the airframe.

B. Vibration of mast or whip antennae.
C. Electromagnetic radiation from the engine ignition system.
D. Faulty adjustment of the squelch circuit.
97. When a Lead Acid battery is in the fully-charge condition, the chemical
reactions of positive plate and negative plate are:
A. PbSO4 and Pb
B. PbO2 and Pb
C. PbO2 and PbSO4
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D. PbSO4 and PbSO4
98. In order a transistor in the active region, the condition of the emitter junction (J E) and collector
junction (JC) are
A. JE in the reverse bias and JC in the forward bias.

B. Both of them in the reverse bias.
C. JE in the forward bias and JC in the reverse bias.
D. Both of them in the forward bias.
99. When a Nickel Cadmium battery is in the discharge condition, the chemical
reaction of positive plate and negative plate are:
A. Ni (OH)2 and Cd (OH)2

B. Ni2O2 and Cd
C. Ni2O2 and Cd (OH)2
D. Ni (OH)2 and Cd
E. Line of sight propagation.

F. Equipment are not reliable.
G. High power consumed from power source.
H. Excessive weight of equipment.
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BASIC LICENSE C1 – ELECTRONIC

E. Radio, Instrument and Navigation.
F. Radio, Instruments and Electrical.
G. Radio, Instruments and Eloctronic.
H. Radio; Airconditioning and Electronic.
B
102. According to the CASR part 1 what does it mean by an incident?
A. A person is fatally or seriously injured.
B. Damage on aircraft during maintenance.
C. A missing part of the aircraft.
D. A damage of aircraft and peronnel injured.
B
103. After performing a major repair and major alteration an AMO shall execute a DGCA form, what
number of form?
A. Form 43 – 337.
B. Form 337.
C. Form 43 – 37.
D. Form 47-37.
A
104. How height the registration of small aircraft mark install on the wing?
A. 6 inches.
B. 15 centimeters.
C. At least 25 centimeters.
D. At least 25 inches.
C
105. According to the CASR Part 45.29 the thickness of characters lines shall be
A. One-quarter of the height of a character.
B. One-quarter of the height of a hyphen.
C. One-sixth of the height of a character.
D. One – third of the height of a character.
C
106. According to the CASR 65 definition of a basic certificate are
A. A license issued by Authority.
B. A license without rating.
C. A license with rating
D. A license issued by Company.
B
107. According to the CASR 21.197 a special permits issued by Authority for the purpose of
A. Flight testing new product.
B. Normal flight.
C. Experimental Flight.
D. Verification fligth.
A
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108. According to the CASR part 65.47 the privileges of an aircraft maintenance engineer license are
A. Perform maintenance of aircraft or component.
B. Release an aircraft after maintenance.
C. Perform maintenance only.
D. Release an components after maintenance..
A
109. According to the CASR part 45.11 aircrfat engine identification plate must be secured in location?
A. At accessible location on the engine.
B. Nose of the engine area.
C. At casing of the engine.
D. Exchaust area.
A
110. One of the condition to renewal the aircrfat maintenance engineer license are
A. Having the experience in 24 months.
B. Shall exercise their privileges at least 6 months within 24 months.
C. Submit the their basic cerificate.
D. Having the experience in 12 months.
B
111. An aircraft bolt has a overall length of 1 and 1/2 inches, with shank length a 1 and 3/16 inches, and a
threaded portion length of 5/8 inch. What is the grip length?
A. .3125
B. .5625
C. .6572.
D. 8750.
B
112. Solve the equation = 3
a2 √ b
A. √ a b
3
1
2 3
B. a b a 2 b3
C. ab
√2 a3 3√b−8
D.
D
113. The force that can be produced by an actuating cylinder has a cross-sectional area of 3 square inches
operating in a 1,000 psi hydraulic system, is most nearly
A. 334 pounds.
B. 1,000 pounds.
C. 1,500 pounds.
D. 3,000 pounds.
D
114. A lens with power 10 D is combining to a lens with power 30 D. The new combined lens has a focal
length
A. 2.5 cm
B. 4.0 cm
C. 3.0 cm
D. 3.5 cm
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115. Because an atom considers being balance or neutral, an atoom which has a number of electron lost in
the valance ring (valance electron) may try to get
A. Other proton from nearby atoms.
B. Other electrons from nearby atoms.
C. Other neutron from nearby atoms.
D. Other neucles from nearby atoms.
B
116. Semiconductors are the basis for modern electronic devices such as
A. Diodes, transistors and integrated circuits.
B. Diodes, transistors and transformator.
C. Diodes, transistors and inductor.
D. Capacitors, transistors and inductor.
A
117. The main causes of static electricity are
A. Contact and Separation between two materials.
B. Bonding and grounding.
C. Connecting one or more conductive.
D. Static discharge.
A
118. The purpose a two conductor twisted wire while used to carry the current?
A. To minimize a magnetic field.
B. To minimize resistance.
C. To minimize current flow.
D. To maximize a magnetic field.
A
119. The resistance to stretching of an object produced by two forces pulling in opposite directions along
the same straight line is known as what type of stress?
A. Shear.
B. Bending.
C. Tension.
D. Compression.
C
120. The Hardness testing method for relatively soft material is
A. The Vickers tester.
B. The Brinell tester.
C. The Rockwell tester.
D. The Barcol tester.
D
121. The AN420AD-4-4 rivet is a countersunk rivet. How is the length measured?
A. The part of the rivet that is the material.
B. The part of the rivet that extends through the material.
C. The total length of the rivet.
D. Length stem only.
C
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122. The bearings are capable of accepting radial loads and axial loads in one direction only is
A. Thrust Bearing.
B. Radial Bearing.
C. Precision Bearing.
D. Angular Contact bearing.
D
123. What type of corrosion attack grain boundaries of aluminum alloys which are improperly or
inadequately heat treated?
A. Surface corrosion.
B. Intergranular corrosion.
C. Fretting Corrosion.
D. Galvanic Corrosion.
B
124. Safety wire is installed properly if you observe which of the following actions?
A. The tension of the wire tends to tighten the bolt or nut.
B. The tension of the wire tends to loosen the bolt or nut.
C. The wire is as tight as possible.
D. The wire has 5 turns per inch.
A
125. Which of the following wrenches is best suited for breaking a nut loose and then unscrewing it quickly
A. An open-end "5" wrench.
B. A 15-degree offset open-end wrench.
C. A box-end wrench.
D. A combination box open-end wrench.
D
126. Each of the 25 marks on the thimble of the standard outside micrometer represents what part of an
inch?
A. 0.001 in.
B. 0.005 in.
C. 0.025 in.
D. 0.040 in.
A
127. Rethreading dies are used for which of the following purposes?
A. To start tapping operations.
B. To restore bruised or rusty threads on screws and bolts.
C. To remove threads from screws and bolts.
D. To make threads on the inside of nuts.
B
128. A property of fluid which creates resistance to motion of an object through that fluid is called:
A. Density.
B. Gravity.
C. Viscosity.
D. Humidity.
C
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129. When an aircraft has a tendency to keep a constant angle of attack with reference to the relative wind is
called:
A. Directional Stability.
B. Longitudinal Stability.
C. Lateral Stability.
D. Vertical Stability.
B
130. If an object is equilibrium encountered at any point of displacement is called:
A. Positive Static Stability.
B. Negative Static Stability.
C. Neutral Static Stability.
D. Neutral Dynamic Stability.
C
131. Which of the following materials emphasizes not only strength/weight ratio, except
A. Fracture toughness.
B. Increasing structural strength.
C. Notch sensitivity.
D. Stress resistance corrosion.
B
132. What classifications of structure the shown in yellow color (or hatched) in repair manuals and
drawings?
A. Secondary.
B. Primary.
C. Tertiary.
D. Auxiliary.
A
133. Where is the critical force that a wing can resist of twisting force?
A. Wing torsion box.
B. Wing span.
C. Wing mono spar.
D. Wing rib.
A
134. What kind of design features for pressurized airframes?
A. Butt joint.
B. Lap joint.
C. Double strap
D. All answers are correct.
D
135. The vacuum toilet system getting air vacuum from
A. Vacuum blower.
B. Differential pressure between inside and outside pressure of the aircraft.
C. Either vacuum blower or differential pressure depends on the aircraft altitude.
D. Either vacuum blower or differential pressure depends on the type of the aircraft.
C
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136. What ice forming in the high altitude with temperature air very low?
A. Rime ice.
B. Glaze ice.
C. Rime or Glaze ice.
D. Rime ice and Glaze ice.
A
137. Which valve in the pneumatic deicing system control the inflation deflation deicer boots?
A. Solenoid valve.
B. Pneumatic valve.
C. Suction valve.
D. Distributor valve.
D
138. What is the purpose of the Converter in the electrical windshield system
A. Use to change the rotary motion to the reciprocating motion to the wiper arm.
B. Use to change reciprocating motion to the rotary motion to the wiper arm.
C. Use to reduce speed of wiper arm.
D. Use to increase speed of wiper arm.
A
139. What types of the water lines and drain lines heater?
A. Blanket heater, gasket heater, ribon heater, integrally tube heater.
B. Blanket heater, gasket heater, ribon heater, Integrally tube heater, patch heater.
C. Blanket heater, patch heater, ribon heater, Integrally heated hose, gasket heater.
D. Blanket heater, gasket heater, ribon heater.
C
140. In diluter demand oxygen regulator, when does the demand valve operated
A. When the user demands 100% oxygen.
B. When the user breathes.
C. When cylinder pressure over 500 psi.
D. When diluter control set at normal.
B
141. The cabin air pressure control setting has direct influence on the
A. Outflow valve opening.
B. Cabin supercharger.
C. Pneumatic system pressure.
D. Turbo compressor speed.
A
142. What prevents the cabin altitude from climbing higher than aircraft altitude?
A. The outflow air check valve.
B. Pressure relief valve.
C. Negative pressure relief valve.
D. Bleed air valve.
C
143. Which the correct statement concerning with “Out flow Valve “
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A. Placed in the un-pressurized portion of the aircraft.

B. Held fully opened on the ground by landing gear operated switch.
C. Held fully closed in flight by landing gear operated switch.
D. Held fully opened in flight by landing gear operated switch.
B
144. If hydraulic fluid is released when the air valve of the accumulator is depressed, it is evidence of
A. Excessive accumulator air pressure.
B. Excessive hydraulic system pressure.
C. A leaking the check valve.
D. Rupture the accumulator diaphragm.
D
145. The function of Condenser in a pneumatics system is
A. To remove moisture from the air.
B. To condense the air entering the compressor.
C. To reduce pressure to the nose steering.
D. To change liquid Freon to a gas.
A
146. A landing gear position and warning system will provide a warning in the cockpit when the throttle is
A. Advanced and gear is not down and lock.
B. Retarded and gear is not down and lock.
C. Advanced and gear is down and lock.
D. Retarded and gear is down and lock.
B
147. In the Gas Turbine Engine the part must be designed to the strongest construction?
A. Turbine rotor shaft.
B. Forward frame.
C. Fan disc.
D. By pass casing.
B
148. PFD use to Display?
A. EADI, Air data instrument (ASI, Altimeter, Vertical speed), a/p annunciation.
B. Air speed indicator, altimeter, VSI, EHSI.
C. Only EADI and some warning and A/P annunciation.
D. No correct answer.
A
149. Convert Octal number (65) 8 to Decimal
A. 48
B. 53
C. 54
D. 65
B
150. Which one produces most ripples?
A. Half-wave rectifier.
B. Full-wave rectifier.
C. Bridgestone rectifier.
D. Center tap rectifier.
A
151. When semiconductor becomes P-Type it’s called?
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A. Donor.
B. Acceptor.
C. Trivalent impurity.
D. Pentavalent impurity.
C
152. The maximum amount of voltage the diode can withstand in reverse-bias mode on continual basis:
A. Maximum repetitive reverse voltage.
B. Maximum DC reverses voltage.
C. Maximum forward voltage.
D. Maximum forward current.
B
153. The output frequency of half wave rectifier is:
A. Half of input frequency.
B. Equal of input frequency.
C. Twice of input frequency.
D. 1.414 X frequency input.
B
154. Electrons are the minority carrier in which type of semiconductor:
A. N-type.
B. P-type.
C. Intrinsic.
D. Extrinsic.
B
155. If the filter capacitor is decrease, the ripple will:
A. Decrease.
B. Increase.
C. Same.
D. Loose.
B
156. If collector current is 100 mA, and base current is 2 mA, then current gain is:
A. 50
B. 100
C. 150
D. 200
A
157. What is the characteristic of Op-Amp?
A. High impedance input but low impendance output.
B. High impedance input and high impendance output.
C. Low impedance input but high impendance output.
D. Low impedance input and low impedance output.
A
158. When only at “on” condition, a transistor is used to be:
A. Regulator.
B. Switching.
C. Amplifier.
D. Rectifier.
C
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159. If the filter capacitor is increased, then the output DC on load will:
A. Decrease.
B. Increase.
C. Same.
D. Loose.
B
160. A Bridgestone rectifier, rectify 20 Vrms of sine wave, determine the output
A. 6.36 VDC.
B. 14.14 VDC.
C. 17.9 VDC.
D. 28.28 VDC.
C
161. (Refer to general figure) Determine peak voltage on secondary
winding of transformer:
A. 1.414 Vp
B. 10,8 Vp.
C. 24 Vp.
D. 34 Vp.
D
162. When Positive battery applied to N-type of diode and vice versa
A. Forward biased.
B. Electron flow.
C. Reverse biased.
D. Conventional flow.
C
163. Timing process of creation of hole and its disappearance:
A. Lifetime.
B. Recombination.
C. Hole.
D. Electron flow.
A
164. When 0.5 Volt DC input is applied to inverting input of Op-Amp, where Rf = 15 KΩ and Rin = 3 KΩ,
then the output is
A. -5 Volt.
B. -2.5 Volt.
C. 2.5 Volt.
D. 5 Volt.
B
165. If the current gain is 100 and the collector current is 50 mA, the base current is
A. 0.5 mA
B. 1 Ma
C. 2 mA
D. 4 Ma
A
166. If line frequency is 400 Hz, the output ripple frequency of full wave rectifier is
A. 50 Hz
B. 60 Hz
C. 400 Hz
D. 800 Hz
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D
167. When a diode is used to rectify 10 Vp sine wave, the output is:
A. 3.18 VDC.
B. 6.36 VDC.
C. 20 VDC.
D. 14.1 VDC
A
168. Adang and Gunawan patch a fatigue crack incorrectly, two weeks later that aircraft encounters bad
weather in flight. The crack expands and the aircraft breaks apart, this is an example of......
A. An active error.
B. A latent error.
C. A slip.
D. Mistake.
B
169. If N1 / N2 = 3, and primary voltage is 120, then secondary voltage is
A. 30 V
B. 40 V
C. 60 V
D. 115 V
A
170. When a transistor is work on saturated, its act likes:
A. Amplifier.
B. Regulator.
C. Rectifier.
D. Switching.
D
171. A servo amplifier used to amplified low power of DC servomotor is:
A. Amplidyne.
B. Synchro.
C. Servo system.
D. Servomechanism.
A
172. An input controller receives no feedback from the load is:
A. Amplifier.
B. Closed loop.
C. Open loop.
D. Servo system.
C
173. The process of a hole missed the electron and refill
A. Recombination.
B. Lifetime.
C. Hole.
D. Electron flow.
A
174. The process of adding impurities semiconductor to crystals is referred
A. Intrinsic.
B. Extrinsic.
C. Doping.
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D. Free charges.
C
175. Junction between P-type and N-type of diode?

A. Depletion layer.
B. Biased.
C. Hole
D. Free electron.
A
176. One of Electronic Display Type commonly used is Cathode Ray Tube. State the primary function?
A. CRT is a vacum tube glass, initial operation are from heated cathode which source of electron
emmision, electron control by grid then flow via deflection device and hit the screen make the
pixel hited to light .
B. Electron as it emmitted then attracted by some of anode that have high potential. That caused the
electron to move fast toward screen coated by phosphor will caused the screen emmit light on
each pixel .
C. To make a picture there are two plate X and Y or Deflection yoke tomake the electron to scan
from left to right of screen and then back again to start and make another pictures .
D. Answer B and C are complete statement .
D
177. The shear load on a reinforced, shell-type fuselage is primarily carried by what structural
component(s)?
A. The keel.
B. The skin.
C. The formers.
D. The stringers.
B
178. An electric circuit is normally protected by a?
A. Fuse.
B. Relay.
C. Circuit breaker.
D. Switch.
C
179. When the valence electron is removed from a gold atom, then the net charge of the atom?
A. -1
B. +1
C. 0
D. -2
B
180. When Boron takes one electron to the doped material?
A. Acceptor.
B. Donor.
C. Trivalent impurity.
D. Pentavalent impurity.
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181. Junction transistors have replaced point- contact transistors for which of the following reasons?
A. Junction transistors generate less noise.
B. Junction transistors handle more power.
C. Junction transistors provide higher current and voltage gains.
D. All of the above.
D
182. In a PNP transistor application, the solid state device is turned on when the
A. Base is negative with respect to the emitter.
B. Base is positive with respect to the emitter.
C. Emitter is negative with respect to the base.
D. Emitter is positive with the respect to the base.
A
183. Diodes are used in electrical power circuits primarily as
A. Cutout switches.
B. Rectifiers.
C. Relays.
D. Amplifiers.
B
184. In a NPN transistor application, the solid state device is turned on when the
A. Emitter is positive with the respect to the base.
B. Base is negative with respect to the emitter.
C. Base is positive with respect to the emitter.
D. Emitter is negative with respect to the base.
A
185. At saturated condition, a transistor acts like?
A. Regulator.
B. Switching.
C. Amplifier.
D. Rectifier.
B
186. Tensile stresses are developed when a material is subjected to what type of force?
A. Compression load.
B. Twisting action.
C. Shearing action.
D. Pulling load.
D
187. When used in conjunction with a numbering system that classifies different aluminium alloys, the
letter “T” signifies that what action has occurred?
A. The metal has been heat-treated.
B. The alloying elements have been tempered.
C. The major alloying element has been tested.
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D. The metal has been covered with tungsten rolled cover.

A
188. AC generators are often driven by a Constant Sped Drive mechanism to permit a nearly constant
A. Voltage output.
B. Amperage output.
C. Number of cycles per second.
D. Total power output.
C
189. Forward biasing of a solid state device will cause the device to
A. Conduct via zener breakdown.
B. Conduct.
C. Turn OFF.
D. Turn ON.
B
190. Capacitors are use sometimes used in DC circuits to
A. Counteract inductive reactance at specific locations.
B. Smooth out slight pulsations in current/voltage.
C. Assist in stepping voltage and current up and/or down
D. It is comparatively weak.
B
191. Which of the following are commonly used as rectifiers in electrical circuits?
A. Diodes, Anodes.
B. Diodes, Cathodes.
C. Diodes.
D. Diodes, Anodes and Cathodes.
C
192. When referring to an electrical circuit diagram, what point is considered to be at zero voltage?
A. The circuit breaker.
B. The fuse.
C. The ground reference.
D. The power.
C
193. In transistor ideal VBE is
A. 0 V
B. 0.2 V
C. 0.3 V
D. 0.7 V
A
194. What will be the result if the contact point in a vibrator type voltage regulator sticks in the close
position?
A. The reverse current cut out relay will not close.
B. A high generator voltage.
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C. The generator will produce only residual voltage.

D. The generator will not produce any voltage.
B
195. The resistance of the current return path through the aircraft is always considered negligible, provided
the
A. Voltage drop across the circuit is checked.
B. Circuit resistance is checked.
C. Generator is properly grounded.
D. Structure is adequately bonded.
D
196. When current flow through the coil of a solenoid does operated electrical switch?
A. Continually, as long as the electrical system master switch is ON.
B. Continually, as long as the control switch is complete.
C. Only for a short time period following movement of the control switch.
D. Only until the moveable points contact the stationary points.
B
197. Electrical circuit protection devices are installed primarily to protect the?
A. Relays.
B. Switches.
C. Units.
D. Wiring.
D
198. The degree of curvature of the mean line is called?
A. Chord line.
B. Mean line.
C. Chamber.
D. Incidence.
C
199. The stability lateral axis is controlled by?
A. Rudder.
B. Aileron.
C. Elevator.
D. Stabilizer.
C
200. What is an electrochemical process by which metal is deposite on a substrate by passing a current
through the bath?
A. Hydrooge Embrittlement.
B. Electrolysis.
C. Electroplating.
D. Anodizing.
C
201. A wing spar is subject to loads?
A. Shear force.
B. Bending moment.
C. Shear force and bending moment.
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D. Compression loading.
C
202. The basic radio communication consists of?
A. Microphone, Receiving and transmitting antennas, Tranceiver, Head set or Loudspeaker.
B. Microphone, Receiving antenna, Receiver, Head set or Loudspeaker.
C. Microphone, Transmitting antenna, Transmitter, Head set or Loudspeaker.
D. Microphone, Transmitting antenna, Receiver, Head set or Loudspeaker.
A
203. What the function of the microphone?
A. Used to changes the electrical energy into acoustical energy.
B. Used to changes the acoustical energy into electrical energy.
C. Used to intercept the electromagnetic waves.
D. Used to radiate the acoustical energy
B
204. Doubler are used when antennas are installed?
A. To eliminate antenna vibration.
B. To reduce aircraft flutter.
C. To reinstate the structural strength of the aircraft skin.
D. To make a good antenna installation.
C
205. DME antena should be located in position on the aircraft that will?
A. Not be blanked by the fuselage when the aircraft is banked.
B. Permit interruption in DME operation.
C. Eliminate the posibility of the DME locking on a station.
D. Not be blanked by the wing when the aircraft is banked.
D
206. The ILS ( Instrument Landing System ) consists of?
A. Outer marker, middle marker, and runway localizer.
B. Outer marker, marker beacon, and runway localizer.
C. Runway localizer, glide slope signal, and marker beacon.
D. Runway localizer, glide slope signal, and outer marker.
C
207. What the following factors of the readable radio transmissions?
A. Voice amplitude, rate of speech, pronunciation and phrasing.
B. Rate of speech, and voice amplitute.
C. Pronunciation and phrasing, and voice amplitude.
D. Pronunciation and phrasing, and rate of speech.
B
208. Where is the ideal location for emergency locator ttransmitter?
A. As far aft as possible but just forward of the vertical fin.
B. As far aft as possible but just rearward of the vertical fin.
C. Anywhere within the aircraft fuselage.
A
209. What is the purpose of the airborne weather radar system?
A. Used to see certain object in darkness.
B. Used to see certain object in darkness, fog or, storms as well as in clear weather
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C. Used to see fog, storm.

D. Used to see fog, storm in darkness.
B
210. Which the correct statement regarding with installation of navigation and communication equipment
A. The radio equipment must be securely mounted to the aircraft.
B. Provided adequate clearence between radio equipment and adjacent structure.
C. Provided enough cooling , either with a blower or throuh venturi.
D
211. The force of gravity of an aircraft acting downward is called?
A. The Weight.
B. The Thrust.
C. The Drag
D. The Lift.
A
212. How should a flexible hose be installed?
A. Strecthed tighly between two fittings.
B. With slack or bend in the hose.
C. With as small a bend radius as possible.
D. To allow maximum flexing during operation.
B
213. Which of the following tubings has the characteristics medium strength, abrasion resistance necessary
for use a high pressure system?
A. 2024T or 5052-O aluminium alloy.
B. Copper or hard plastic.
C. 3003-1/2H aluminum alloy.
D. Carbon steel.
A
214. Magnetic particle inspection is used primarily to detect?
A. Distortion.
B. Irregular surface.
C. Porosity and thickness of ferromagnetic metals.
D. Flaws on or near the surface.
C
215. Dye penetrant inspection method will detect?
A. Surface defetcts.
B. Subsurface flaws.
C. Deteriorated molde rubber.
D. Cracks in any porous material.
A
216. In order to successfully heat treat ferrous metals the rate of cooling is controlled by?
A. Allowing a time lag betweeen soaking and wuenching.
B. Selecting a suitable quenching media.
C. Artificial aging.
D. Re-precipitation.
B
217. Alloy 2024 rivets should be driven within 10 minutes after they have been quenched; otherwise,
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befoere being used they must be

A. Aged.
B. Normalized.
C. Reheat-treated.
D. Refrigerated.
C
218. In the four-digit aluminium index system number 3030, the first digit indicates
A. Zinc has been added to the aluminium.
B. The percent of alloy added.
C. The different alloys in that group.
D. Manganese is the major alloying alement.
D
219. An antenna is designed to radiate and receive?
A. Electromagnetic energy.
B. Audible signals.
C. Electrical energy.
D. Electronic signals.
A
220. What is the primary function of the rectifier section?
A. To convert dc to AC.
B. To convert AC to pulsating DC.
C. To increase average voltage output.
D. To decrease average voltage output.
B
221. Electronic Flight Instrument Display interfaces by?
A. Symbol generator.
B. Instrument system.
C. Indication system.
D. Flight warning computer.
A
222. INS and IRS are computer base self contained system that provide Aircracft geografic position latitude
and Lonitude, aircraft position roll, pitch, and yaw. The function of INS and IRS are
A. Provide aircraft route information.
B. Provide aircraft reference for EADI/PFD and EHSI/ND.
C. Provide aircraft speed and altitude reference.
D. Privide Horizone reference.
B
223. HIRF in this Term are about?
A. The interference radiation between avionic system.
B. The interference caused by electro static.
C. The interference effect of external radio radiation to avionic system.
D. The disturbance of internal radio radiation.
C
224. Convert biner (100100101)2 to decimal
A. 256
B. 257
C. 261
D. 293
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D
225. Electronic Flight Instrument system are?
A. EADI and EHSI.
B. EADI and Air data instrument.
C. EHSI and EADI Coordinated by FMC.
D. EHSI and RDMI.
C

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BASIC C1

1. In accordance with CASR part 1, preventive maintenance means :

A. Simple or minor preservation operations and the replacement of small

A. Every personnel of Aviation Company.

A. Mandatory replacement time as required by manufacturer’s maintenance

4. Which of the following products need airworthiness Release Certificate ?

5. Airworthiness Directive ( AD ) will always be issued by DGCA based on:

A. AD issued by “foreign authority”

6. In accordance with CASR part 43 appendix E, Altimeter system test and

A. Of Annex 1 to the Convention on International Civil Aviation.

9. According to the avionic groups dc generators and starter generators part of

A. Radio, Instrument and Navigation.

A. Ohm meter or megger

12. Electrical conductivity () of pure (intrinsic) semiconductor is:

A. Increases with increased temperature of the material.

13. A resistance of 6 ohms is connected in parallel with an inductive reactance of 8

14. The HF band of frequencies cover:

15. A 1000-microfarad capacitor stores 5 joules of energy. What is the difference in

16. Antenna for the ADF system usually consist of:

A. Horn and loop antenna.

17. A simple auto-pilot system must consist of components as follows:

A. Sensors, servo system, control panel.

18. One of the function of air data sensors is:

A. Changing altitude pressure become electrical signal.

19. The correct way to connect a test voltmeter in a circuit is

A. between the electric source and the load.

A. Band pass filter.

21. The value of α (alpha) of a transistor is

22. Blocking-Capacitors in a cascade amplifier will …

25. Which three things determine the inductance of a coil?

A. Number of turns, form factor and permeability of the core.

26. A buffer amplifier is the term applied to an amplifier stage ....

A. to indicate that its primary purpose is to multiply frequency.

27. Bipolar transistor have:

28. A common emitter circuit provides:

A. Current and power amplification only.

29. A transistor’s collector current is always:

A. Much lower than emitter current.

32. Which statement below is correct?

A. Output from NOR gate becomes 1 if all input = 1.

35. SCR/TRIAC is often used for

A. Producing frequency gain.

36. A radio transmitter transfers energy to a remote receiver by means of :

37. Oscillator is a circuit is used for

A. Changing AC signal to DC signal.

38. Capacitor which connect point ground for ……………

41. For digital electronics applications, transistor is not operated in it’s:

42. Which component can be found inside an IC chip?

43. Which one of the following statements is operational amplifier characteristic:

A. High amplification fractor.

45. Which part of the JFET or MOSFET consitutes ‘channel’:

A. Part between gate-1 and gate-2 terminals.

48. Which transistor is expected to have the highest input impedance:

A. npn bipolar tansistor.

49. Magnitude of current flowing through channel of JFET and MOSFET is

A. Applied voltage between gate-1 and gate-2 terminals.

50. Which characteristic is considered as benefit of an integrated circuit over

A. Requires less space.

51. A double conversion superheterodyne receiver has:

A. Two discreet frequency IF’s.