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ATA 00 – GENERAL
1. Single Aisle Aircraft consist of:
A. A318, A319, A320, A321 Family
B. A319, A320, A321, A330 Family
C. A320, A330, A340, A350 & A380 family
2. The A318, A319, A320 and A321 (A320 family) are:
A. Single Aisle, twin-engine subsonic medium range aircraft,
B. Single Aisle, twin-engine subsonic short range aircraft,
C. Double Aisle, four-engine subsonic long range aircraft.
3. Airbus Single Aisle family CEO fitted with following engines:
A. International Aero Engines (HE) V/2500 and OFM lInematonal (OFIAS6) for A319,
A320, and 321.
B. A318 PM6000 series /CFM56, and A319. A320, A321 with CFM56/IAE V2500
C. A320 Family fitted with CFM56 engines only.
5. The Shark-lets are specially designed for A320 family for:
A Beter Eco effiency, enhance payload-range performance
B. For cosmetic appearance.
C. To diferentate with other Aicraft
6. The longest-range Aircraft in the A320 family is:
A. A319/A321 LR
B. A320
C. A321
7. The Namber of Passengers (PAKs) carried on board based on:
A. Seat Pitches
B. Any Number of Pax's Caried on Board as per Airlines choices.
C. The Airbus recommended Seat quantity and Pitch based on the Design of the Airframe.
The airline based on needs, modifies these layouts

8. For all structural measurements in the X-axis the reference point located:
A. 254 m (100 inches) forward of the Aircraft.
B. 254 Km (100 inches) forward of the Aircraft.

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C. 254 m (100 inches) forward of the Aircraft.

9. In SA family the longer Vertical stabilizer fitted on:
A. A319/A320/A321
B. A318 Only the new Rib12N added
C. A321 only
10. What safety precaution maintenance crew will take when towing in to the hangar
a A318 aircraft:
A. No any special precaution Required
B. The Hangar Height must support A318 because The Vertical Stabilizer Longer then
rest of the Family
C. Nothing because A318/A319/A320/A 321 has same vertical stabilizer

11. System indicator lights on the overhead (OVHD) panel:

A. Does not come on When Systems are in Normal operation and there are no failures.
B. Always on for the systems to indicate normal operation
C. will come on only during starting.
12. In normal operation the annunciator lights color is:
A. Only Green lights and sometimes blue lights come on.
B. Only Amber lights come on
C. Only Red lights come on
13. Integrated Standby Instrument System (ISIS) replaces the:
A. Main instrumentation
B. Only Altimeter
C. Standby Horizon, Standby Airspeed indicator and Standby Altimeter.
14. The Two Motipurpose Control Display Units (MCDU) installed on:
A. Side console
B. Center Pedestal
C. Main Instruments Panel.
15. The Tools used in Aircraft divided in to:
A. Standard Tools and Specific Tools
B. Ony Standard Tools

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C. Ony Specific Tools

16. How may points you Jack the Aircraft during Mintenance:
A. Three Points; Point A near Nose landing gear, Point B&C located outside of the Pylon
under the wing only.
B. Three Points; Point A near Nose landing gear, Point B&C located outside of the Pylon
under the wing only, a safety jack positioned at the rear of the Aircraft
C. Tree Points; Point A near Nose landing gear, Point B&C located outside of the Pylon
under the wing only but Tail safety support not require

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ATA 30: Ice And Rain Protection

1. The on each wing are anti-iced with pneumatic bleed air.
A. Slats
B. Flaps
C. Three outboard slats

2. Electrical heating is provided for the protection of:

A. Pitots, static ports and TAT probes
B. Pitots, static ports, AOA probes, and TAT probes.
C. Pitots and static ports
D. Pitots and Angle Of Attack (AOA) probes

3. When a pneumatic leak is detected, the wing anti-ice valves:

A. Close automatically.
B. Open automatically.
C. Remain in position

4. When either engine anti-ice valve is open.

A. Maximum N1 is increased.
B. Minimum idle rpm is increased.
C. Minimum idle rpm is reduced.

5. Window heat operates at what power level in flight?

A. Low
B. High

6. Probe heat comes on automatically when.

A. The AC ESS bus is powered.
C. When at least one engine is running.
B. Electrical power is applied to the aircraft.

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7. On the ground the wing anti-ice valves will.

A. Open during a test sequence (30 seconds); provided pneumatic supply is available.
B. Not open at anytime.
C. Open any time the switch is pushed “ON”

8. Where do the wing anti-ice indications appear on ECAM?

A. There is no indication on ECAM bleed page for wing anti-ice
B. An amber triangle appears on the ECAM bleed page
C. WING A.ICE appears on ECAM status page.
D. ANTI-ICE appears in white on the ECAM bleed page and W A.ICE appears in green
on the ECAM memo when the wing P.B is pressed.

9. The Fault light on the engine anti-ice switches indicates the valve.
C. Is open.
A. Is closed.
B. Position disagrees with switch position.

10. What is the difference between the engine and wing anti-ice fault lights?
B. Both indicate low pressure, or valve position disagrees with selected position. Wing
light might indicate valve in transit.
D. Both indicate valve in transit, or overheat.
A. Both indicate valve in transit, or valve position disagrees with selected position. Wing
light also could indicate low pressure.
C. Both indicate valve in transit, or low pressure. Wing light also could indicate valve
position disagrees with selected position.

11. With reference to the PROBE/WINDOW HEAT pushbutton, which of the

following is true?
C. The system should only be selected ON after first engine start.
A. The system should only be selected ON in icing conditions.

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D. Window heating comes on automatically after first engine start.

B. When in AUTO mode, the windows are heated only when necessary.

12. If one engine anti-ice system fails, the second one takes over and provides anti-
icing for both engines.
A. True.
B. False

13. What happens when either engine anti-ice is open?

C. Minimum N1 is limited, continuous ignition is provided, minimum idle RPM is
increased.
B. Maximum N1 is limited, continuous ignition is provided, minimum RPM is increased.
A. Maximum N1 is limited, continuous ignition is provided, maximum idle RPM is
increased.

14. In the event of loss of electrical supply the engine anti-ice valve.
C. Opens when the engine is running.
B. Closes when the engine is running
A. Opens when the engine is shut down.
D. Open when the OAT is < 10 deg.C with the engine running

15. With the loss of electrical power the wing anti-ice valves.
A. Fail in their current position.
B. Fail to the open position.
C. Fail to the closed position.

16. The drain masts are heated after first engine start.
B. False.
A. True.

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17. What is the speed limit to operate the windscreen wipers?

B. 200 kts. A. 185 kts.
D. 250 kts. C. 230 kts.

18. In the event of an electrical power loss.

A. The engine anti-ice valves will open automatically, anti-icing is ensured.
B. The engine anti-ice valves will close automatically, anti-icing is lost.
D; The engine anti-ice valves remain in the position they were before.
C. The engine anti-ice valves will be controlled by the wing anti-ice controls.

19. At what power level does window heat operate while airborne?
D. Low power above 25,000 ft.
B. Shifts from low to high as window temperature requires.
A. High power while airborne.
C. Low power above 18,000 ft.

20. What happens to engine RPM when either engine anti-ice valve is open?
C. The N1 limit for that engine is automatically reduced
D. There is a fixed RPM increase (3% of nominal N1)
B. The N1 limit for that engine is automatically increased.
A. There is a fixed RPM increase.

21. Window heat operation begins.

A. Automatically after the first engine start.
C. Both are correct.
B. if the PROBE/WINDOW HEAT push button is selected ON by the crew prior to
engine start.

22. Rain protection is provided by.

B. Rain repellent and Windshield wipers.

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C. Both are correct.

A. Warm bleed air blowing across the windshield.

23. Can the wing anti-ice be tested on the ground?

C. No.
A. Yes, with valves only open for 30 seconds.
B. Yes.Valves stay open till selected off.

24. Anti-ice and de-icing protection is provided for.

A. The engine nacelles and three outboard wing slats.
C. The engine nacelles, the horizontal stabilizer, the vertical stabilizer and three outboard
wing slats.
B. The engine nacelles, the horizontal stabilizer, and three outboard wing slats.

25. The probe heaters can be activated manually prior to engine start by placing the
PROBE/WINDOW HEAT pushbutton.
A. True. B. False

26. What happens to the heat at the drain masts when the aircraft is on the ground?

A. Nothing.

B. The heat is reduced to prevent injury to ground personnel.

C. Some of them are automatically switched off (pitot, AOA)

27. The RAIN RPLNT (rain repellent) pushbutton is inhibited on the ground when the
engines stopped.
B. False A. True.

28. TAT probes are heated on the ground.

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A. True. B. False.

29. The ON light illuminates on the wing anti-ice P.B .

C. When the fault light goes out
B. When the P.B is set to ON
A. When the anti-ice valves open
D. When the anti-ice valves open and the fault light goes out.

30. How is window heating regulated?

D. By two independent Window Heat Computers (WHC), one for each side
C. One Window Heat Computer (WHC) as master, the other as slave
B. Window heat is not regulated!
A. Manually by flight crew

31. The Window Heat Computer provides two power levels for the windshield.

D; High power in icing conditions (flight only), low power in other conditions
A. High power when above 20,000 ft, low power when below 20,000 ft
B. High power when OAT < 10 deg.C, low power when OAT> 10 deg.C
C. High power in flight, low power on the ground

32. The engine nacelle is anti-iced by.

C. AC system and air bleed from low pressure compressor
B. Air bleed from low pressure compressor
D. DC system and air bleed from low pressure compressor.
A. Air bleed from the high pressure compressor

33. When an engine anti-ice valve is open.

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C. N2 limit is automatically reduced and N1 limit is automatically increased

B. N2 of the associated engine is automatically decreased

D. There is no change in the N1 and N2 limits.

A. N1 limit is automatically reduced and the idle N1 is automatically increased

34. In the event of a low air pressure.

A. The engine anti-ice valve opens automatically
D. The engine anti-ice valve closes automatically
C.The engine anti-ice valve must be manually closed
B. There is no effect on the anti-ice valve position

35. How can you check that engine anti-ice has been selected on?
C. You can observe the ENGINE ANTI- ICE message on the ECAM STATUS page
A. You can observe the ON light on the associated engine anti-ice P.B and the ENGINE
ANTI-ICE message on the ECAM engine page

D. You can observe the blue ON light on the associated engine anti-ice P.B and the
ENGINE ANTI-ICE memo on the E.WD
B. You can observe the amber warning on the ECAM memo display and the amber anti-
ice light on the overhead panel

36. The electric windshield wipers are controlled.

A. Automatically when in heavy rain
C. By one rotary selector for both windshields
D. By two individual rotary selectors
B. By two individual pushbuttons

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37. The wipers can operate at different speeds.

B. Speed 1 and speed 2
A. Low speed and high speed

C. Low, medium and high speed.

D. Speed is automatically adjusted depending on rain intensity

38. When the wiper is turned off.

A. The PARK position must be selected to stow the wiper
D. The wiper stops out of view
C. The wiper may stop in the pilots view
B. It continues to run for approximately 6 seconds

39. What statement is Not correct about the term “anti ice” and “de-icing” on aircraft?
C. De-icing operates in cycles. In de- icing mode, a small, uncritical, amount of ice is
allowed to form before it is removed
B. Anti-icing means continuously heating the surface of the aircraft, not allowing any ice
to form.
A. They are the same meaning

40. What condition can build the ice on aircraft?

a. On the snowy day
b. On days when there is visible moisture in the air, ice can form on aircraft at altitudes
where freezing temperatures start
c. When aircraft flies at hight attitude and air temperature is very low

41. What type of ice is hard, heavy and tenacious which are encountered during flight?
c. Both of them

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b. Clear ice
a. Rime Ice

42. What is not correct about negative effects of ice on wing leading edges?
c. Reduce drag
a. Reduce lift
b. Increase weight

43. The ice and rain protection systems used on aircraft keep ice from forming or remove
ice on the following airplane components
b. Windshield
c. Wing trailing edges
a. Passenger Windows

44. What statement is Wrong about ice detection during the flight
b. By detector sensor
c. By weather report provided before each flight
a. By visal

45. What is Wrong about anti ice system for static port on aircraft?
a. Mandatory
b. non-mandatory
c. It uses electric

46. What does ice NOT effect on Engine Inlet of Aircraft?

a. A disturbed air flow that reduces the performance of engine
b. It can lead to compressor stall and if the engine sucks in pieces of ice, these pice can
damage the fan blades or inlet guide vanes
c. It can make engine flame out

47. What solution is for engine anti ice?

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b. Vibration
a. Thermal
c. Vortex Generator Device
48. Nowadays, how can the ice detector sensor detect the ice on aircraft?
b. Basing on the vibration frequency
c. Acting as a smoke detector
a. Acting as a thermal sensor

49. When ice detector detects the ice, what happens?

b. It sends the ice annunciation to pilot (message or acoustic) and the pilots need to open
the anti-ice valve by themselves
a. It sends the ice signal to Anti Ice Controller to command open the Anti Ice Valve
c. With Anti-Ice switch is ON position, the anti-ice valves always open even if the
detector send the ice signal or not

50. On wing leading edge, what method of ice protection is Thermal Pneumatic used for?
c. Both
a. Anti-Ice
b. De-Icing

51. Where is pneumatic air used for wing anti ice from?
c. Direct from electric compressor
b. Pneumatic manifold
a. Direct from onsite engines

52. Where is pneumatic air used for engine anti ice from?
a. Direct from its engines
c. Direct from electric compressor
b. Pneumatic manifold

53. How does the solenoid-controlled valve work?

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c. Electric controls, pressured air operates

a. Electric controls and operates
b. Pressured air control and operates

54. With no electrical and pneumatic air available, what position is the anti-valve?
c. Intermediate position
a. Open position
b. Close position

55. Why does the section of leading edge near the wing tip NOT often equip the anti-ice
system?
c. Because the vortex at the wing tip destroys the ice

b. Because vibration frequency at this section is high and it destroys the ice
a. Because ice never builds up at this section due to small profile

56. Where is the pneumatic air taken?

c. From engine compressor mainly, from APU is optional
a. From turbine section of engine
b. From APU compressor only

57. What sensor is used for anti-vale indication?

b. Proximity Sensor
a. Pressure Sensor at upstream and downstream of anti-ice valve
c. LVDT.RVDT Sensor

58. What is the function of the over temp switches in the pneumatic manifoild?
c. Both of them
a. For temperature measuring and indicator
b. For alert and protection

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59. Why do the aircraft manufacturers Not use chemical to anti-ice.de-icing for air data
device (pitot, static port, TAT, AOA…)
b. Because the chemical fluid can make corrosion for air data device
a. Because the chemical is very expensive
c. Because the chemical fluid can make the air data device become inaccurate

60. Before cleaning the windshield by hand, what do technician need to do?
b. Turn off all aircraft electric power
c. Turn off the anti-ice valve to close position
a. Turn off (switch or CB) the windshield anti-ice switches

61. Where does the heater element of windshield locate?

c. On the outside of the windshield (Cockpit side)
b. On the outside of the windshield (ambient side)
a. On the inside of the outer glass ply

62. What does the weeping wing system (or trade name of TKS™ systems) include?
a. Wing and horizontal stabilizer system
b. Wing and stabilizer system
c. Wing only

63. What aircraft engine component doesn’t need anti-ice.de-icing?

b. Propeller
c. Fan blades
a. Engine inlet

64. Why do the propeller-driven (turboprop type) aircrafts or small turbine powered
aircrafts not use the pneumatic air for the thermal anti-ice?
b. Because the pneumatic air is not enough
a. Because they fly at low attitude

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c. Because they fly at low speed

65. With the pneumatic de-ice boots solution, what is required for the air?
c. Volume
b. Temperature
a. Pressure

66. Where is the de-ice boots installed?

a. Trailing edge of the wing
b. Leading edge of the wing
c. Wing surface

67. What material are the de-ice boots made and why?
c. Rubber because it can expend when inflating
a. Aluminum because the pneumatic air inside is too hot
b. Composite because it is light and good for fuel consumption

68. How are the de-ice boots deflected?

a. By outflow valve
b. By vacuum
c. By check valve

69. What is the function of vacuum with aircraft using the pneumatic de-ice boots?
a. It sucks the air from de-ice boots to outboard
b. It supplies the pneumatic air to the de-ice boots
c. It is continuously applied to hold the boots tightly against the aircraft is not in use

70. What not uses to anti-ice.de-icing for aircraft propeller?

b. By Electrical
c. By chemicals

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a. By pneumatic air

71. with aircraft equipped the laminated windshields that have a space between the plies
that allows the flow of hot air to be directed between the glass. What airspace area can
NOT these aircraft fly into?
a. Fogging condition area
b. Icing condition area
c. non-icing condition area

72. During windshield wiper operational check, what do we need to do?

a. Keep the windshield dry
b. Keep the windshield wet by water
c. Keep the windshield wet by the special chemicals

73. Why do we use the chemicals repellent or surface seal coating for aircraft windshield?
c. Both are correct
b. Because it causes raindrops to bead up and roll off
a. Because it does not absorb water

74. What is the main reason why the aircraft manufacturers don’t use the chemicals
repellent for windshield?
b. Because it is very expensive, not economy
c. No answer is correct
a. Because it is harmful to environment

75. On large transport aircraft, the windshield wiper system is

c. Independent on each side with different power sources.
b. Independent on each side but with the same power source.
a. One system for both sides but with the same power source

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ATA 36: PNEUMATIC

1. Engine bleed air temperature is controlled by:
A: Engine oil.
B: A pre-cooler that uses fan air.
C: Conditioned air from the mixing unit.

2. If BMC1 fails BMC2 takes over all monitoring functions except:

A: Engine 1 and APU leak detection.
B: Overheat detection.
C: Automatic crossbleed valve control.

3. Bleed air normally comes from the of the engine.

A: High pressure stage.
B: Intermediate stage.
C: Low pressure stage.

4. In flight if the air pressure is insufficient even with the HP valve open:
A: The engine spools up automatically.
B: Engine power has to be increased by the pilot.
C: Push the High Pressure P/B on the ovhd panel.

5. The pressure regulating and shutoff valve will close if pressure is or airflow occurs
A: Downstream / low / reverse
B: Downstream / High / reverse
C: Upstream / low / reverse

6. The crossbleed valve has two electric motors; one for the automatic mode and one for
the manual mode:
A: True
B: False

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7. The overheat detection system uses a single loop for:

A: The pylons and APU.
B: The wings and pylons.
C: The wings and fuselage.

8. The APU BLEED FAULT light illumi- nates amber for an APU:
A: Overheat.
B: Malfunction.
C: Bleed leak.

9. The AUTO position of the X BLEED selector opens the crossbleed if:
A: An engine bleed valve is open.
B: The APU bleed valve is open.
C: When engine start is selected.

10. Recirculation fans in the air condi- tioning system direct filtered cabin air to which
area?
A: The pneumatic duct; upstream of the packs.
B: The avionics compartment.
C: The Mixing unit.

11. Temperature regulation for the A320 is controlled by:

A: One zone controller and two pack con- trollers.
B: Two pack controllers and the BMC's.
C: The BMC's

12. Should both channels fail in a zone controller:

A: Temperature optimization is still avail-able for that zone from another controller.
B: Temperature optimization and the backup mode are lost.

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C: The pack is not affected.

13.The lavatory/galley extract fan oper- ates:

A: Only on the ground.
B: Only in flight.
C: Continuously when electrical power is available.

14.If bleed air is being supplied by the APU or if one pack fails; pack flow will go to
what rate?
A: Low.
B: Medium.
C: High.

15.What happens to the outflow valve when the RAM AIR switch is selected ON?
A: The outflow valve opens immediately.
B: The outflow valve opens if cabin differ- ential pressure is less than 1 psi.
C: Normal outflow valve control is main- tained.

16.When either the BLOWER or EX- TRACT switches are in OVRD; air from the air
conditioning system is added to ventilation air.
A: True.
B: False

17.How many motors are available for the outflow valve?

A: 1
B: 2
C: 3

18.Transfer between the two cabin pres- sure controllers is:

A: Accomplished with a switch overhead.
B: Automatic after landing or in case the operating controller fails.

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C: Automatically at each takeoff.

19.The maximum cabin descent rate is limited in automatic to:

A: 300 ft/min.
B: 750 ft/min.
C: 1000 ft/min.

20.The third motor (manual) in the pres- surization system is activated:

A: Automatically if both automatic motors fail.
B: In sequence after each landing.
C: When the CABIN PRESS MODE SEL switch is positioned to MAN.

21.When the cabin vertical speed ex- ceeds fpm; the vertical speed display on ECAM .
A: 800 / flashes green
B: 2800 / flashes green
C: 1800 / flashes green

22.The pneumatic system supplies high pressure air for:

A: Air Conditioning, water pressurization and engine starting
B: Wing anti-icing.
C: Hydraulic reservoir pressurization.
D: All of the above.

23.High pressure air has___ sources.

A: 2
B: 3
C: 4
D: 5
(Note: Three Sources of HP air are -En- gine bleed systems, APU load compres- sor and
HP ground connection.)

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24.With both engines operating, an ENG BLEED pb FAULT light will illuminate when:
A: The valve position differs from that of the push button.
B: The X BLEED selector is selected to SHUT.
C: The X BLEED selector is selected to OPEN.
D: The X BLEED selector is selected to OPEN or to SHUT.

25. Air bleed from the engines is:

A: Not cooled prior to being used by the systems.
B: Cooled in a heat exchanger by cooling air bleed from Fan section.
C: Cooled using ambient air.
D: Only cooled in air conditioning part.

26. If a Bleed Monitoring Computer (BMC) fails:

A: All systems associated with the failed BMC also fail.
B: The associated bleed valves close.
C: The remaining BMC will automatically assume most of the failed BMC's func- tions.

27. A leak detection system detects any overheating in the vicinity of hot air ducts.
A: True.
B: False.

28. When engine and wing anti-ice are in use, and a BMC detects a bleed leak:
A: Only the engine anti-ice on the asso- ciated side will be lost.
B: The wing and engine anti-ice on the associated side will be lost.
C: The wing anti-ice on the associated side will be lost, and the engine anti-ice on the
associated side will continue to function.

29. Each bleed valve is electrically oper- ated and controlled pneumatically by its
associated BMC.
A: True.
B: False.

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(Note - Each bleed valve is pneumatical- ly operated and controlled electrically by its
associated BMC.)

30. If a BMC detects a bleed leak:

A: The crew must isolate the affected leak.
B: All valves that could supply pneumatic air to the area of the bleed leak will auto-
matically close.
C: All pneumatic valves close automati- cally.

31. If one BMC fails, the adjacent BMC takes over the monitoring of the bleed
system to issue the following ECAM warnings if necessary:
A: Overpressure
B: Overtemperature
C: Wing leak
D: All of the above.

32. Bleed leak protection for the APU pneumatic duct is provided by:
A: Detection loops associated with BMC #1.
B: Detection loops associated with BMC #2.
C: The APU BMC.
D: All of the above.

33. With the loss of pneumatic system pressure, the engine bleed valve will:
A: Remain in its current position.
B: Assume the mid position.
C: Assume the open position.
D: Assume the closed position.

34. Pneumatic system operation is con- trolled and monitored by:

A: One bleed monitoring computer.
B: Two bleed valve computers.

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C: Two bleed monitoring computers.

35. ECAM BLEED page: when is the GND symbol displayed?

A: Whenever the aircraft is on the ground.
B: All the time.
C: Only when a ground air supply is con- nected.

36. In automatic mode, the crossbleed valve opens when the system is using APU
bleed air.
A: It closes if the system detects an air leak (except during engine start).
B: It closes if the system detects an air leak (except in flight).
C: It closes automatically if the system detects an air leak.

37. What happens when pressure and temperature are not sufficient to supply the
corresponding engine bleed valve?
A: HP valve closes.
B: HP valve opens, if stage closed.
C: HP valve opens, IP stage remains in the same configuration.

38. When additional pneumatic air is re- quired for anti-ice, engine starting, or air
conditioning:
A: Additional pneumatic air will be re- quested by the BMC to the FADECs or the APU.
B: The crew must observe minimum N1 limits.
C: Both are correct.

39. When selected, APU bleed air:

A: Will supply bleed air only if the ENG BLEED pb's are selected OFF.
B: Has priority over engine bleed air.
C: Will supply bleed air only if the X BLEED selector is selected OPEN. D: Does not
have priority over engine bleed air.

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40. With the APU running, the APU BLEED push button selected ON and the X
BLEED selector to AUTO, the APU will:
A: Only supply bleed air to the left side.
B: Supply pneumatic air to both sides of the aircraft because the pneumatic crossbleed
valve automatically opens.
C: Will supply bleed air only to the left side unless the X BLEED selector is se- lected
OPEN.
D: Only supply bleed air to the right side.

41. Which source controls the cross- bleed valve?

A: Pneumatic.
B: Electric.

42. The crew may directly control the following bleed valves:
A: Engine, engine high pressure, APU.
B: Engine, intermediate pressure, APU.
C: Engine, APU, crossbleed.
D: Crossbleed.

43. APU bleed air supplies the pneu- matic system if the APU speed is above :
A: 80%
B: 85%
C: 92%
D: 95%

44. A check valve near the crossbleed duct protects the APU when bleed air comes
from another source:
A: True.
B: False.

45. Following an ENGINE 1 BLEED FAULT, why can you only use one pack if Wing

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Anti Ice (WAI) is on?

A: Only one user can be supplied via the X BLEED duct.
B: Only ENG BLEED system cannot sup- ply 2 packs and WAI.
C: If you use WAI, the X BLEED valve is automatically closed. Therefore, pack 1 will no
longer be supplied.
D: One engine bleed system can either supply both packs or one pack plus WAI.

46. Temperature regulation is achieved by the precooler which regulates and lim- its
the temperature at:
A: 150°C
B: 85°C
C: 60°C
D: 200°C

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ATA 38: Waste Water

1. Where is the waste holding tank located?:
 On the right of the aircraft between FR65 and FR69, Z170.

2. What is the type of the toilet system?:

 Vacuum-type

3. Where does the water used for flushing come from?:

 The potable water tank which is located at the aft cargo near the mixer unit.

4. How many waste tanks are installed?:

 Only one waste tank is installed.

5. What are the functions of the liquid level sensor and the liquid level trans- mitter
installed on the tank?:
 - Liquid level sensor: it is an ultrasonic type sensor. It sends a signal to the vacuum
system controller (VSC) when the tank is full. The VSC prevents further toilet flush
operation and the SYS INOP legend comes on the FAP.
It has priority over level transmitter to transmit signal to VSC.
- Liquid level transmitter: monitors the contents level in the tank by measuring the
hydrostatic pressure of tank contents. Sends a signal to the vacuum system controller
(VSC).
It stops the system operation if the level sensor becomes defective.

6. What is the function of the flush control unit (FCU)?:

 Controls the time and sequence of the toilet operation during the flush cycle.
FCU is connected electrically to the flush switch, rinse valve, flush valve and CIDS.
Faults in the system are transmitted to the CIDS.

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7. The toilet bowl is made of ...:

 Stainless-steel.

8. List the components installed on the waste tank?:

- Water separator
- Liquid level transmitter
- Liquid level sensor
- Waste inlets
- Waster outlet
- Two rinse connections.

9. What is the waste capacity of the tank?:

 170 L.

10. What is the function of the anti-syphon valve?:

 This valve is installed above the toilet bowl. It is connected to the water (rinse) valve
and the spray ring.
It lets water flow only in the direstion of the spray ring and returns back-water to the bowl.

11. What is the function of the vacuum generator?:

 Installed between FR68 and FR69.
Used below 16,000 ft. It is a centrifugal unit.
The generator air inlet is connected to the water separator air outlet. The generator air
outlet is connected to an overboard ventline.
The generator gives the necessary differential pressure to move the waste from the bowl to
the tank.
12. What is the function of the altitude pressure switch?:
 This switch is electri- cally connected to the VSC.
It gives a signal to the VSC, which starts or stops the operation of the vacuum generator.

13. What is the function of the vacuum system controller?:

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 To calculate and transmit signal to FAP, indicating waste tank levels and system
defects. Installed on the right lower section between FR62 and FR63.
It is electrically connected to the FCU, level transmitter, level sensor, altitude pres- sure
switch, FAP and CFDS.

14. Where is the toilet service panel located?:

 On the right of the lower fuselage between FR65 and FR66.
The panel is for the forward and aft toilets.
It has a tank drain connection, tank rinse connection, an actuation unit for the waste drain
valve and a limit switch.

15. Give a brief description of the system operation.:

- FCU controls the toilet flush sequence.
- Potable water at 25-28psi flushes the toilet bowl.
- Differential pressure between the waste tank and cabin moves the water and waste
from bowl to the waste tank.
- When the flush switch is pressed, the vacuum generator starts to operate for 15sec,
the water valve opens 1.6sec after start and remains open for 1.7sec. The flush valve opens
2sec after start and remains open for 4sec.
- CIDS will not activate the vacuum generator above 16000ft.

16. A landing gear signal gives an indication to the VSC that the aircraft is on
... and the strut is ...:
 Ground Compressed

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